APPSC - Group-2 Mains - 2024

Test-12 (1-5-2024) Answers

Q.1) Consider the following statements about the 1. The Commission for Scheduled Castes
National Commission for Scheduled Castes: can requisition any public record from
1. It is a constitutional body established any court or office.
under Article 338. 2. The functions of the Commission also
2. The Commission also had responsibilities include advising on the socio-economic
concerning the Other Backward Classes development of the Anglo-Indian
(OBCs) until the 102nd Amendment Act Community.
of 2018. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. It has the powers of a civil court while correct?
investigating any matter or inquiring into A. 1 only
any complaint. B. 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are C. Both 1 and 2
correct? D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. Only 1 Answer: A
B. 1 and 2 only Explanation:
C. 1 and 3 only  Statement 1 is correct as the Commission has
D. All of the above the power to requisition any public record from
Answer: D any court or office. Statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation: because the Commission’s function concerning
 Statement 1 is correct as the National the Anglo-Indian Community relates to
Commission for Scheduled Castes is indeed a constitutional and other legal safeguards, not
constitutional body as per Article 338. specifically advising on socio-economic
 Statement 2 is also correct because it mentions development.
that the Commission had responsibilities
towards OBCs until the 102nd Amendment Act Q.3) Consider the following amendments with their
in 2018 relieved it of these duties. impact on the National Commission for
 Statement 3 is correct, detailing the Scheduled Castes:
Commission's powers equivalent to those of a Amendment - Impact
civil court in its investigative functions. 1. 65th - Bifurcation into two separate
Commissions
Q.2) Consider the following statements: 2. 89th - Establishment of a high-level

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 1 )

 multi-member National Commission submits reports to the President, which are
3. 102nd - Relieved from responsibilities then placed before Parliament.
concerning the OBCs  Statement 2 is incorrect as reports pertaining
How many of the pairs given above is/are to a state are forwarded to the state's
correct? governor, not directly to Parliament.
A. Only one  Statement 3 is incorrect because the
B. Only two Commission members are appointed by the
C. Only three President, not the Prime Minister.
D. None
Answer: A Q.5) Consider the following statements:
Explanation: Statement-I: The National Commission for
 The 65th Amendment established the multi- Scheduled Castes has the power to issue
member National Commission; hence the give summons for the examination of witnesses and
first pair is incorrect. documents.
 The 89th Amendment led to the bifurcation Statement-II: The Commission can investigate
into two separate commissions for SCs and STs, any matter relating to the constitutional and
hence the give second pair is incorrect. other legal safeguards for the Scheduled
 The 102nd Amendment relieved the Castes.
Commission from responsibilities concerning Which one of the following is correct in
the OBCs, this is correct pair. respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement I and Statement-II are
Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding correct and Statement II is the correct
the National Commission for Scheduled explanation for Statement I
Castes: B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. It is required to consult the Central and correct and Statement II is not the
state governments on major policy correct explanation for Statement I
matters affecting Scheduled Castes. C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
2. The President forwards reports of the incorrect
Commission pertaining to a state D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
government directly to Parliament. is correct
3. The Commission is appointed by the Answer: B
Prime Minister. Explanation:
4. It submits reports to the President,  Statement I is accurate as the Commission has
which are then placed before Parliament. the powers of a civil court to issue summons
How many of the statements given above are for the examination of witnesses and
correct? documents.
A. Only one  Statement II is also correct as it states the
B. Only two Commission's role in investigating matters
C. Only three related to constitutional and other legal
D. All four safeguards for SCs. However, Statement II does
Answer: B not explain Statement I; they address different
Explanation: aspects of the Commission's powers and
 Statements 1 and 4 are correct. The functions.
Commission must consult with government
bodies on policy matters affecting SCs, and it Q.6) How does the Protection of Human Rights Act

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 2 )

 of 1993 contribute to safeguarding civil rights? untouchability prohibition under Article 17 and
A. It establishes National Human Rights reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and
Commission, State Human Rights legislative assemblies under Articles 330 and
Commissions, and Human Rights Courts. 332.
B. It establishes National Human Rights  Statements B, C, and D are incorrect as they do
Commission, State Human Rights not accurately represent the special provisions
Commissions, and District Human Rights for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes as
Courts. outlined in the given information.
C. It establishes National Human Rights
Commission, State Human Rights Q.8) Consider the following statements:
Commissions, and Special Human Rights Statement-I: The National Commission for
Courts. Scheduled Tribes has the power to receive
D. It establishes International Human Rights evidence on affidavits.
Commission, State Human Rights Statement-II: This power is a function of the
Commissions, and Human Rights Courts. Commission's role to act as an advisory body to
Answer: A the government.
Explanation: Which one of the following is correct in
 The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 respect of the above statements?
establishes National Human Rights A. Both Statement I and Statement-II are
Commission, State Human Rights Commissions, correct and Statement II is the correct
and Human Rights Courts to ensure that civil explanation for Statement I
rights are better protected. B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement II is not the
Q.7) Which of the following statements regarding correct explanation for Statement I
special provisions for Scheduled Castes and C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Scheduled Tribes under the Indian incorrect
Constitution are correct? D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
A. Article 17 prohibits untouchability; is correct
Articles 330 and 332 reserve seats in Lok Answer: C
Sabha and legislative assemblies for Explanation:
these communities.  Statement I is correct as the Commission
B. Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 indeed has the power to receive evidence on
establishes National Human Rights affidavits, part of its judicial powers akin to a
Commission, State Commissions, and civil court
Human Rights Courts.  Statement II is incorrect because this power is
C. SCs and STs (Prevention of Atrocities) Act not merely advisory but part of its judicial and
of 1989 prevents atrocities, sets up investigatory functions, crucial for the
special courts, and offers relief and execution of its role in safeguarding tribal
rehabilitation. rights.
D. Article 332 reserves seats for STs in the
legislative assemblies of specific states Q.9) Consider the following statements about the
Answer: A National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Explanation: (STs):
 Statement A is correct as it accurately 1. The National Commission for STs is a
summarizes the provisions regarding constitutional body established directly

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 3 )

 by Article 338-A of the Constitution.  Statement 2 is incorrect. The NCBC does have
2. The Commission was initially part of a the powers of a civil court while investigating
combined body with the SCs under any matter or inquiring into any complaint
Article 338, which was later bifurcated. regarding the deprivation of rights and
3. The Commission has the powers of a civil safeguards of the socially and educationally
court in investigating matters or backward classes.
inquiring into complaints.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.11) Consider the following statements about the
correct? National Commission for Backward Classes:
A. Only one 1. It was originally set up as a statutory
B. Only two body in 1993 following the Supreme
C. All three Court's directives.
D. None 2. It became a constitutional body with the
Answer: C enactment of the 102nd Amendment Act
Explanation: in 2018.
 The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 3. The Commission’s members, including
is indeed a constitutional body, established by the chairperson and vice-chairperson,
Article 338-A, following the bifurcation from are appointed by the Prime Minister.
the previously combined National Commission 4. The President forwards reports from the
for SCs and STs under Article 338 due to the Commission pertaining to state
89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. governments to the respective state
The Commission possesses all the powers of a legislatures.
civil court for investigating and inquiring into Which of the statements above is/are
complaints, making statement 3 also correct. incorrect?
A. 1 and 2 only
Q.10) Which statement about the National B. 3 only
Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is C. 3 and 4 only
correct? D. 4 only
1. The NCBC was given constitutional status Answer: B
by the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018. Explanation:
2. The NCBC lacks civil court powers in its  It was originally set up as a statutory body in
investigations. 1993 following the Supreme Court's directives.
Which of the statements given above is/are - This statement is correct.
correct?  It became a constitutional body with the
A. 1 only enactment of the 102nd Amendment Act in
B. 2 only 2018. - This statement is also correct.
C. Both 1 and 2  The Commission’s members, including the
D. Neither 1 nor 2 chairperson and vice-chairperson, are
Answer: A appointed by the Prime Minister. - This
Explanation: statement is incorrect. The members, including
 Statement 1 is correct. The 102nd Amendment the chairperson and vice-chairperson of the
Act of 2018 granted constitutional status to the NCBC, are appointed by the President of India,
NCBC, placing it at the same level as the NCSC not the Prime Minister.
and the NCST in terms of its status and the  The President forwards reports from the
breadth of its mandate. Commission pertaining to state governments to

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 4 )

 the respective state legislatures. - This classes.
statement is correct. The reports concerning  Statement 5 indicating the powers of the NCBC
state matters are forwarded by the President that are similar to those of a civil court,
to the state governments, which then place including the ability to issue summons and
these reports before their respective state examine witnesses.
legislatures.
Q.13) Consider the following statements about the
Q.12) Match the following terms to their correct EWS quota in India:
descriptions: 1. The EWS quota is an additional 10%
Term Description reservation outside the existing 50% for
1. NCBC SCs, STs, and OBCs.
- Has the powers of a civil court 2. It aims to uplift all economically weaker
2. 102nd Amendment sections, including those not previously
- Gave constitutional status to NCBC covered by quotas.
3. Article 338-B 3. The Attorney-General argued that the
- Added to constitution by the EWS quota does not affect the
102nd Amendment reservations for SCs, STs, and OBCs.
4. Functions of NCBC 4. Critics claim the EWS quota's criteria lack
- Monitors safeguards for backward solid data and appear arbitrary.
classes 5. Opponents argue that economic criteria
5. Powers of NCBC alone should not justify reservations,
- Can issue summons, examine referencing the Indra Sawhney case.
witnesses How many statements are correct?
How many of the above pairs are correctly A. Only one
matched? B. Only two
A. Only 1 and 2 C. Only three
B. Only 1, 2, and 3 D. All five
C. All of the above Answer: D
D. None of the above Explanation:
Answer: C  Statement 1 explains the additional
Explanation: reservation.
 Statement 1 correct as the NCBC, like a civil  statement 2 describes the government's
court, can summon individuals, require perspective on the role of the quota.
document production, and receive evidence on  Statement 3 reflects the Attorney-General’s
affidavits. defence of the quota, suggesting it does not
 Statement 2 correct as the 102nd Amendment interfere with existing reservations for SCs, STs,
Act of 2018 indeed conferred constitutional and OBCs.
status to the NCBC.  Statement 4 and 5 introduce critical
 Statement 3 is since Article 338-B, introduced perspectives on the quota's criteria and
by the 102nd Amendment, officially assigns constitutional validity, including opposition
constitutional status to the NCBC. views that challenge its alignment with
 Statement 4 highlighting the NCBC's role in previous Supreme Court rulings and
investigating and monitoring matters related to constitutional provisions, especially in the
the constitutional and other legal safeguards context of economic criteria not traditionally
for the socially and educationally backward being a sole basis for reservation.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 5 )

 2. Reservation Cap
Q.14) Consider the following statements concerning B. Exceeds the 50% limit from the
the EWS reservation quota in India: Indira Sawhney case
1. The EWS quota was introduced by the 3. Criteria Questioned
103rd Constitutional Amendment. C. SC concerns over the income limit
2. It targets educational and employment basis
inequities for economically 4. EWS Quota Goal
disadvantaged groups outside traditional D. Address educational and income
quotas. inequality
3. The reservation is available in Select the correct answer using the code given
educational institutions and government below.
jobs. A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
4. Critics question the quota's B. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
implementation due to a lack of data on C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
upper-caste representation in these D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
sectors. Answer: A
5. The EWS quota's legality is debated in Explanation:
light of the Indra Sawhney ruling, which  1-A: The 103rd Constitution Amendment Act
limits reservations to 50%. introduced the 10% EWS quota to provide
6. The government asserts that the EWS economic reservation.
quota does not compromise the  2-B: This new quota exceeds the 50% total
reservations for SCs, STs, and OBCs. reservation cap established by the Supreme
How many statements are correct? Court in the Indira Sawhney case.
A. Only one  3-C: The Supreme Court questioned the
B. Only two government's methodology for setting the Rs. 8
C. Only three lakh income limits for EWS eligibility.
D. All six  4-D: The main goal of the EWS quota is to help
Answer: D reduce educational and income inequality
Explanation: among economically weaker sections.
 Statements 1 and 3 delineate the constitutional
and practical scope of the quota. Q.16) Which of the following factors poses a
 statement 2 highlights its social objectives. challenge to national integration in India due
 statement 4 and 5 address concerns and legal to the creation of social divisions and
debates surrounding its creation and basis. conflicts?
 Statement 6 reflects the government’s position A. Uniform educational standards across all
on the quota’s impact on other reservation states
categories, emphasizing that it operates B. Nationwide economic growth that
independently and therefore does not impinge benefits all regions equally
on the rights or quotas of SCs, STs, and OBCs. C. Communalism fostering divisions based
on religious identities
Q.15) Match the key aspects of the 10% EWS quota D. Effective federal governance that
with their descriptions: reduces regional disparities
Provisions Descriptions Answer: C
1. 103rd Amendment Explanation:
A. Introduced economic reservation  Communalism represents a significant

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 6 )

 challenge to national integration in India by the involvement in Naxalite and Maoist
fostering divisions based on religious identities. movements, which are driven by issues like
This phenomenon often leads to communal marginalization and exploitation, leading to
riots and conflicts, undermining national unity violence and disruption, further straining
and creating an environment of distrust among national unity.
different religious groups. Despite India being a
secular nation that respects all religions, Q.18) Place the following developments in the
communalism continues to exacerbate tensions correct chronological order regarding the
and occasionally leads to violence, which can Inter-State Council and choose the correct
result in tragic loss of life and property. answer from the codes given below:
1. Nomination of six ministers from the
Q.17) Consider the following statements about Central Cabinet to the Inter-State Council
challenges to national integration in India: by the Prime Minister
1. Communalism leads to division based on 2. The designation of the Prime Minister as
religious affinity and has historically the Chairperson of the Inter-State
resulted in riots that threaten national Council
integrity. 3. Establishment of the Inter-State Council
2. Regionalism can promote separatism and 4. Formation of the Standing Committee of
conflicts when regional movements the Inter-State Council
prioritize local interests over national Which of the following are correctly arranged?
unity. A. 3, 2, 1, 4
3. Extremist movements like Naxalism and B. 2, 3, 4, 1
Maoism involve youth participation due C. 3, 4, 1, 2
to political marginalization, posing risks D. 2, 1, 3, 4
to law and order and national Answer: A
integration. Explanation:
Which of the statements given above is/are The correct chronological order based on the
correct? establishment and subsequent developments is:
A. 1 only  Establishment of the Inter-State Council by the
B. 1 and 2 only Janata Dal Government in 1990.
C. 2 and 3 only  The designation of the Prime Minister as the
D. All three Chairperson of the Inter-State Council, as part
Answer: D of its initial setup.
Explanation:  Nomination of six ministers from the Central
 Statement 1 addresses communalism, which Cabinet to the Council by the Prime Minister,
divides people based on religious identities and which is a standard procedure following its
has been a recurrent source of conflict in India, establishment.
particularly during significant periods like the  Formation of the Standing Committee of the
struggle for independence. Inter-State Council in 1996 to facilitate
 Statement 2 discusses regionalism, which has continuous consultation.
sometimes led to demands for new states or
greater autonomy, occasionally escalating to Q.19) Which one of the following best describes a
separatism where regional interests significant challenge to national integration in
overshadow national cohesion. India?
 Statement 3 focuses on extremism, particularly A. India's successful economic policies have

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 7 )

 bridged the gap between different social geopolitics, which complicate reaching a lasting
strata. peace agreement.
B. The uniformity of cultural practices  Statement 2 highlights the issues with law and
across regions strengthens national order due to the activities of armed groups
unity. who engage in extortion and run their own
C. Linguistic diversity and the absence of a taxing systems, which disrupts normal
common national language make governance and development.
communication and unity challenging.  Statement 3 acknowledges the role of external
D. Regional movements have led to the support from countries like China and Pakistan
decline of provincialism in various states. at certain points, which has posed significant
Answer: C security challenges for India by strengthening
Explanation: the insurgency.
 The absence of a common national language in
India, due to the country's immense linguistic Q.21) Consider the following statements about
diversity, poses a significant challenge to factors influencing North-East India's
effective communication and unity. This insurgency:
diversity often leads to linguistic loyalty that 1. Refugee influxes have shifted
overshadows national identity, making it demographics, particularly in Assam,
difficult to foster a sense of unity across fostering insurgency.
different linguistic groups. 2. Geographic and political distance from
New Delhi enhances regional isolation.
Q.20) Consider the following statements concerning 3. Economic underdevelopment attracts
the Naga insurgency in India: youth to insurgent groups.
1. The Naga insurgency remains unresolved 4. Ongoing internal displacement from
due to its entanglement in sub- ethnic violence affects many locals.
nationalism and regional geopolitics. 5. Historical external support, especially
2. Armed groups in the region exacerbate from China, has strengthened
the law-and-order situation through a insurgencies.
culture of extortion and parallel tax How many of the above statements are
regimes. correct?
3. External support from adversarial A. Only one
nations has historically amplified the B. Only two
challenges posed by the Naga insurgency C. Three
to India's internal security. D. All five
Which of the statements given above is/are Answer: D
correct? Explanation:
A. 1 only  Statement 1 covers demographic impacts of
B. 1 and 2 only refugee flows.
C. 2 and 3 only  Statement 2 addresses the implications of
D. All three geographical and political remoteness.
Answer: D  Statement 3 links lack of economic
Explanation: opportunities to insurgent recruitment.
 Statement 1 correctly identifies the root causes  Statement 4 highlights the destabilizing effect
of the Naga insurgency, including the influence of internal displacement.
of sub-nationalism and the complex regional  Statement 5 details the influence of external

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 8 )

 support on the insurgencies. 5. Methods used by insurgents often
Q.22) Consider the following statements regarding include guerrilla warfare tactics to
insurgency in North-East India: engage government forces effectively.
1. Insurgent funding mainly comes from 6. Insurgencies have historically emerged as
extortion, arms, and drug smuggling. significant movements during situations
2. Ethnic diversity and distinct tribal like the Iranian Revolution and colonial
identities hinder regional integration. independence struggles.
3. The AFSPA is seen as oppressive, Which of the statements given above is/are
increasing local resentment. correct?
4. Proximity to the Golden Triangle A. 1, 2, and 3 only
supports insurgency funding through B. 4, 5, and 6 only
drug trafficking. C. 1, 3, and 5 only
Which of the statements given above is/are D. All six
correct? Answer: D
A. 1 and 2 only Explanation:
B. 3 and 4 only  Statement 1 defines insurgency as an organized
C. 1, 2, and 3 only challenge to overthrow existing authority,
D. All four aiming to take control.
Answer: D  Statement 2 notes the broad spectrum of
Explanation: activities that can constitute an insurgency,
 Statement 1 outlines key funding sources for from peaceful protests to violent rebellion.
insurgencies.  Statement 3 clarifies that unlike terrorists,
 Statement 2 emphasizes the role of ethnic insurgents often seek to justify their actions to
diversity in resistance to integration. the public based on ideological grounds.
 Statement 3 discusses local perceptions of the  Statement 4 points out that insurgent activities
AFSPA. are strategic and targeted, rather than random,
 Statement 4 connects geographic location to reflecting a response to specific state actions.
insurgency financing through drugs.  Statement 5 describes common tactics like
guerrilla warfare, which are typically used by
Q.23) Consider the following statements about the insurgents to fight against government forces.
nature and strategies of insurgencies:  Statement 6 provides examples of historical
1. Insurgency is a refusal to accept the insurgencies that have had profound impacts,
authority of existing governance like the movement to overthrow the Shah of
structures and is organized to take Iran and various movements for independence
control from such authorities. from colonial rule.
2. Insurgencies can range from non-violent
civil disobedience to violent efforts to Q.24) Consider the following statements:
overthrow government or leadership. Statement-I: Border disputes in India are
3. Insurgents communicate with the public complex due to the multi-linguistic nature of
to provide ideological justifications for border areas, complicating boundary
their actions, differentiating them from delineation based on language.
terrorists. Statement-II: India's federal system includes
4. Insurgent actions are typically calculated special provisions for certain states due to their
responses to particular state actions, unique historical and social circumstances.
avoiding sporadic or random violence. Which one of the following is correct

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 9 )

 regarding the above statements? 1956 enables the formation of tribunals
A. Both Statement I and Statement-II are if states cannot resolve their disputes
correct and Statement II explains through consultation.
Statement I 7. Amendments to the Inter-State Water
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Dispute Act in 2002 set specific time
correct but Statement II does not explain frames for establishing tribunals and
Statement I delivering decisions.
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect correct?
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II A. 1, 2, and 3 only
is correct B. 4, 5, and 6 only
Answer: B C. 1, 3, and 7 only
Explanation: D. All seven
 Statement I accurately describe the complexity Answer: D
of border disputes in India, where multiple Explanation:
languages spoken in border areas make it  Statement 1 is correct as it outlines the
challenging to establish boundaries based responsibilities of states under Entry 17 of the
solely on linguistic majorities. State List concerning local water resources.
 Statement II is correct as it highlights the  Statement 2 correctly states that Entry 56 of
unique feature of India's federal arrangement, the Union List provides the Union government
where certain states receive special with the power to manage and develop inter-
constitutional provisions due to their distinct state rivers as deemed necessary for the public
circumstances. interest.
 Statement 3 accurately reflects the provision in
Q.25) Consider the following statements regarding Article 262 for Parliament to legislate on the
the resolution of Inter-State River Water adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
Disputes in India:  Statement 4 is correct, noting that Article 262
1. Entry 17 of the State List covers water also permits Parliament to limit the jurisdiction
supply, irrigation, and hydro power of the Supreme Court and other courts over
within individual states. these disputes.
2. Entry 56 of the Union List gives the Union  Statement 5 is true, noting the provision under
government the authority to regulate the River Board Act, 1956, for the
inter-state rivers and river valleys. establishment of river boards, which, however,
3. Article 262 allows Parliament to legislate have not been implemented.
for the adjudication of disputes  Statement 6 describes the process under the
concerning inter-state river waters. Inter-State Water Dispute Act of 1956 for
4. According to Article 262, Parliament can constituting tribunals when states'
restrict the jurisdiction of the Supreme consultations fail.
Court and other courts over water  Statement 7 reflects the amendments made in
disputes. 2002 that impose time constraints on setting
5. The River Board Act, 1956, allows for the up tribunals and making decisions to expedite
creation of boards to manage interstate dispute resolution.
rivers, though none have been
established. Q.26) Consider the following pairs related to Inter-
6. The Inter-State Water Dispute Act of State River Water Disputes and identify which

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 10 )

 of the pairs is/are incorrectly matched: and surface water is proposed as a measure
1. Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal - but has not been implemented; thus, it is not
Resolves disputes between Odisha and an existing feature of dispute resolution but a
Chhattisgarh over water allocation. recommendation.
2. Entry 56 of the Union List - Allows state
governments to regulate interstate rivers Q.27) Which of the following statements accurately
and river valleys. describes the role of the Inter-State Council in
3. River Board Act, 1956 - Established River India?
boards for managing interstate river A. The Inter-State Council is a statutory
water disputes, with several boards body created by the Parliament to
currently active. resolve economic disputes among states.
4. Inter-State Water Dispute Act, 1956 - B. The Inter-State Council, established
Tribunals can be formed only if states fail under Article 263 of the Constitution,
to resolve their disputes through functions to facilitate coordination
consultations. between the central and state
5. Measures to resolve water disputes - governments.
Include forming a single water C. The Inter-State Council is a temporary
management agency for ground and advisory body set up by the central
surface water. government to handle only financial
Which of the above pairs are wrongly disputes between states.
matched? D. The Inter-State Council acts
A. 1 and 2 only independently of the central government
B. 2 and 3 only to enforce legal judgments on interstate
C. 3 and 5 only disputes.
D. 2, 3, and 5 only Answer: B
Answer: D Explanation:
Explanation:  The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body
 Pair 1 is correctly matched as the Mahanadi established under Article 263 of the
Water Disputes Tribunal indeed addresses Constitution of India. Its primary role is to
disputes between Odisha and Chhattisgarh. facilitate coordination and cooperation
 Pair 2 is wrongly matched because Entry 56 of between the central and state governments.
the Union List empowers the Union This involves inquiring into and advising upon
Government, not state governments, to disputes between states, investigating subjects
regulate interstate rivers and river valleys. of common interest between the union and
 Pair 3 is wrongly matched because although states or among states, and making
the River Board Act, 1956, was meant to recommendations for better policy and action
establish boards for managing interstate river coordination.
water disputes, no river boards have been
created to date. Q.28) Consider the following statements and choose
 Pair 4 is correctly matched as it describes the the correct option:
correct procedure under the Inter-State Water Assertion (A): Zonal councils are established to
Dispute Act, 1956, for the formation of facilitate cooperation and coordination
tribunals. between states in their respective zones.
 Pair 5 is wrongly matched because forming a Reason (R): Zonal councils are statutory bodies
single water management agency for ground created by the States Reorganisation Act of

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 11 )

 1956. Explanation:
Choose the correct option:  Pair 1 is correctly matched as Article 14 of the
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Indian Constitution does ensure equal rights
Reason is the correct explanation of and opportunities for men and women in
Assertion. political, economic, and social spheres.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but  Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because Article
Reason is not the correct explanation of 15(3) enables the State to make special
Assertion. provisions for women and children, not just
C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false. children.
D. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.  Pair 3 is correctly matched, as Article 16
Answer: A provides for equality of opportunity in matters
Explanation: of public employment for all citizens, regardless
 Assertion (A) is true as Zonal councils are of their background.
indeed designed to facilitate cooperation and  Pair 4 is correctly matched, as Article 39(d) of
coordination among states within specified the Constitution specifically calls for equal pay
geographic zones. for equal work for both men and women.
 Reason (R) is also true and provides the correct  Pair 5 is incorrectly matched because Article
explanation for the assertion, as these councils 51(A)(e) actually requires citizens to renounce
were specifically established as statutory practices derogatory to the dignity of women,
bodies by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 not specifically to uphold and protect
to achieve the purpose of enhancing regional sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
cooperation.
Q.30) Arrange the following Water Disputes
Q.29)Consider the following pairs of constitutional Tribunals according to the year they were
provisions and their descriptions. Identify established and select the correct answer
which of the pairs is/are incorrectly matched: from the codes given below:
1. Article 14 - Men and women have equal 1. Ravi and Beas Water Disputes Tribunal
rights and opportunities in all spheres. 2. Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal
2. Article 15(3) - Allows the State to make 3. Vamsadhara Water Disputes Tribunal
special provisions for children. 4. Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal
3. Article 16 - Ensures equality of Which of the following are correctly arranged?
opportunities in public appointments for A. 4, 1, 3, 2
all citizens. B. 4, 3, 1, 2
4. Article 39(d) - Mandates equal pay for C. 1, 4, 3, 2
equal work for men and women. D. 1, 3, 4, 2
5. Article 51(A)(e) - Obliges citizens to Answer: A
uphold and protect the sovereignty, Explanation:
unity, and integrity of India. The correct chronological order based on the year of
Which of the above pairs are incorrectly establishment is:
matched?  Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal (1969)
A. Only 2  Ravi and Beas Water Disputes Tribunal (1986)
B. Only 3  Vamsadhara Water Disputes Tribunal (2010)
C. Only 4  Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal (2018)
D. All
Answer: B

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 12 )

Q.31) Consider the following statements regarding acts.
the Regulating Act of 1773: 2. Revenue-related matters were under the
1. This act designated the Governor of Supreme Court's jurisdiction according to
Bengal as the 'Governor-General of the Act.
Bengal'. 3. The Supreme Court had jurisdiction over
2. The Bombay and Madras presidencies all Calcutta inhabitants, applying
retained their independent status. personal laws relevant to their religion.
3. The Act led to the creation of the 4. Appeals from Provincial Courts were to
Supreme Court in Calcutta. be made to the Governor-General-in-
4. It prohibited Company employees from Council, not the Supreme Court.
engaging in private trade. How many of the statements given above
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? A. Only one
A. Only one B. Only two
B. Only two C. Only three
C. Only three D. All four
D. All four Answer: C
Answer: C Explanation:
Explanation:  Statement 1 is correct. This provision legally
 Statement 1 is correct. This change centralized insulated the Governor-General, Council, and
administrative control by creating the position Company servants from being tried by the
of Governor-General of Bengal, significantly Supreme Court for actions conducted in their
altering the governance structure of the British official capacity.
East India Company in India.  Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act specifically
 Statement 2 is incorrect. Contrary to removed revenue-related matters from the
maintaining independence, the Bombay and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, thereby
Madras presidencies were made subordinate to limiting its oversight over financial disputes.
the Governor-General of Bengal, illustrating a  Statement 3 is correct. The Act ensured that
centralization of authority. the Supreme Court had jurisdiction over all
 Statement 3 is correct. The establishment of inhabitants of Calcutta and mandated that
the Supreme Court at Calcutta was a personal laws (such as Hindu law and
foundational step towards instituting a formal Mohammedan law) were applied, reflecting the
judiciary in British-controlled territories in diverse legal traditions of the population.
India.  Statement 4 is correct. By directing appeals
 Statement 4 is correct. The Act sought to from Provincial Courts to the Governor-
reduce corruption by strictly prohibiting General-in-Council, the Act centralized
Company servants from engaging in private administrative and judicial oversight, reducing
trade and accepting bribes, aiming to enforce the Supreme Court's role in the appellate
ethical conduct. process.

Q.32) Consider the following statements about the Q.33) Consider the following statements with
Amending Act of 1781, reference to Pitt's India Act of 1784
1. The Act exempted the Governor-General, i) Pitt’s India Act differentiated the East India
Council, and Company servants from Company’s commercial roles from its
Supreme Court jurisdiction for official political functions.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 13 )

 ii) The Board of Control, established by the demand for the authority to override decisions
Act, was tasked with overseeing the of his council in special cases. This provision
Company's political affairs. granted him greater control and autonomy in
iii) The Act officially designated Company governing the Bengal Presidency.
territories in India as ‘British possessions’.
How many of the above statements are Q.35) With reference to Charter Act of 1793,
correct? Consider the following statements
A. Only one 1. It granted future Governor-Generals the
B. Only two same extensive powers as those initially
C. All three given to Lord Cornwallis.
D. None 2. It centralized authority by enhancing the
Answer: C Governor-General's control over Bombay
Explanation: and Madras Presidencies.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Act effectively 3. It discontinued the East India Company’s
separated the commercial and political trade monopoly in India.
responsibilities of the East India Company, How many of the above statements are
establishing a structured approach to correct?
governance that aimed to reduce conflicts of A. Only one
interest and increase administrative efficiency. B. Only two
 Statement 2 is correct: The Board of Control C. All three
was indeed created to manage and direct the D. None
political affairs of the East India Company, Answer: B
marking a significant shift towards greater Explanation:
governmental oversight and control over the  Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of 1793
civil and military matters in India. institutionalized the expansive powers first
 Statement 3 is correct: For the first time, granted to Lord Cornwallis, extending them to
territories under the Company’s control were all future Governor-Generals, thereby ensuring
officially referred to as ‘British possessions in a more centralized and powerful governance
India’. This terminology underscored the British model.
government’s sovereign claim over these areas  Statement 2 is correct: By enhancing the
and its ultimate control over their governance. Governor-General's oversight and control over
the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, the Act
Q.34) Which significant demand of Lord Cornwallis aimed to unify and strengthen British
was addressed by the Act of 1786? administration across these regions, promoting
A. Granting autonomy to the Bengal a more cohesive policy application and
Presidency. governance.
B. Establishing a system of checks and  Statement 3 is incorrect: Contrary to the
balances in the government. statement, the Charter Act of 1793 did not end
C. Giving the Governor-General the power the East India Company's monopoly on trade.
to override decisions of his council. Instead, it extended this monopoly for an
D. Introducing electoral reforms in the additional twenty years, maintaining the
Bengal region. Company's commercial privileges in India.
Answer: C
Explanation: Q.36) Consider the following statements with
 The Act of 1786 addressed Lord Cornwallis's reference to Charter Act of 1813

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 14 )

 1. The Act completely ended the East India 3. It changed the East India Company from
Company's trade monopoly China. a trading company to a government
2. It legally affirmed the sovereignty of the administration.
British Crown over the Company’s 4. It introduced an open competition
territories in India. system for the selection of civil servants
3. The Act permitted Christian missionaries 5. It formed a single law-making group for
to promote religious and educational the whole of British India.
activities in India Choose the correct answer using the code give
How many of the above statements are below
correct? A. 1,2 and 3 Only
A. Only one B. 1,2,3 and 4 Only
B. Only two C. 2,3,4 and 5 Only
C. All three D. All of the above
D. None Answer: A
Answer: B Explanation:
Explanation:  Statement 1 is correct: This act centralized
 Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Charter Act administrative authority by designating the
of 1813 did abolish the East India Company's Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-
trade monopoly in India, it notably retained the General of India, with Lord William Bentick
Company's monopoly over the tea trade and all becoming the first to hold this position.
trade with China. Thus, it did not completely  Statement 2 is correct: The Charter Act of 1833
end the monopoly. deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras
 Statement 2 is correct: One significant aspect of their legislative powers, centralizing
of the Charter Act of 1813 was that it asserted legislative authority with the Governor-General
the sovereignty of the British Crown over the of India.
territories controlled by the Company in India.  Statement 3 is correct: The Act ended the
This move was aimed at solidifying British commercial activities of the East India
governmental control over these territories, Company, which then continued solely as an
indicating a transition towards direct rule. administrative body managing Indian
 Statement 3 is correct: The Act permitted territories.
Christian missionaries to come to India, which  Statement 4 is incorrect: Although the Act
marked a significant policy shift. This was proposed an open competition system for civil
intended to facilitate not only religious services and declared that Indians should not
enlightenment but also the spread of Western be barred from employment under the
education among Indians, aligning with broader Company, this provision was effectively
British cultural and educational objectives in nullified following opposition from the
the region. Company’s Court of Directors.
 Statement 5 is incorrect: While the Act did
Q.37) Which of the following statements regarding centralize legislative powers, it did not
the Charter Act of 1833 is/are true? establish the Indian Legislative Council. This
1. The Act made the Governor-General of council was actually formed later under
Bengal the Governor-General of all India. different legislative reforms.
2. It took away the power to make laws
from the Governors of Bombay and Q.38) Consider the following statements regarding
Madras. the Charter Act of 1853:

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 15 )

 1. It established the Indian Legislative period.
Council by separating the legislative and  Statement 4 is correct: The Act introduced
executive functions of the Governor- local representation within the Indian (Central)
General's council. Legislative Council, where four of the six new
2. It introduced an open competition members were to be appointed by the
system for the selection and recruitment provincial governments of Madras, Bombay,
of civil servants. Bengal, and Agra.
3. It extended the East India Company’s  Statement 5 is incorrect: The Act did not
rule indefinitely without specifying any abolish the East India Company; it only
period for termination. extended its rule while modifying its
4. It introduced local representation in the governance structure.
Indian (Central) Legislative Council with  Statement 6 is incorrect: There was no
appointments made from provincial requirement for all Indian legislation to be
governments. ratified by the British Parliament; the
5. It abolished the East India Company and legislation was managed by the newly formed
transferred all governmental functions to legislative council in India.
the British Crown.
6. It mandated all legislation to be ratified Q.39) Consider the following statements:
by the British Parliament before being Statement-I: The Government of India Act of
implemented in India. 1858 marked the end of the East India
Choose the correct answer using the code give Company’s rule and transferred the control of
below India to the British Crown.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only Statement-II: The Act established the Secretary
B. 2, 3, 5, and 6 only of State for India, vested with complete
C. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only authority over Indian administration, to ensure
D. 1, 2, 4, and 6 only centralized and efficient governance by the
Answer: A British Crown.
Explanation: Which one of the following is correct in respect
 Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of 1853 of the above statements?
established the Indian (Central) Legislative A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Council, separating the legislative and correct and Statement-II is the correct
executive functions of the Governor-General’s explanation for Statement-I
council. This new council functioned similarly to B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the British Parliament, focusing solely on correct and Statement-II is not the
legislative affairs. correct explanation for Statement-I
 Statement 2 is correct: The Act introduced an C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
open competition system for civil service, incorrect
which was a significant step towards making D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
civil services accessible to Indians, following the is correct
recommendations of the Macaulay Committee Answer: A
in 1854. Explanation:
 Statement 3 is correct: This act extended the  Statement-I is correct. The Government of
Company’s rule indefinitely, indicating that the India Act of 1858 was enacted following the
British Parliament could revoke the Company’s Revolt of 1857, which led to significant changes
charter at any time without setting a specific in the governance of India. The Act abolished

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 16 )

 the East India Company and transferred all sovereign rule over India, replacing the
governmental powers, territories, and commercial governance of the East India
revenues to the British Crown, symbolizing a Company with direct Crown governance.
direct control of India by the British monarchy.  Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act abolished the
 Statement-II is also correct and provides the Board of Control and Court of Directors,
correct explanation for Statement-I. By effectively ending the dual governance system
establishing the Secretary of State for India as a that had managed Indian affairs, consolidating
member of the British Cabinet with full control authority under the British government.
over Indian administration, the Act effectively  Statement 3 is correct. The establishment of
centralized governance and ensured a more the Secretary of State for India as a member of
structured and accountable administration the British Cabinet centralized administrative
under the Crown. This change was crucial for control and accountability, integrating Indian
the British government to maintain control governance more directly with the British
over India and prevent the administrative government.
lapses that were partly blamed for the revolt.  Statement 4 is correct. The creation of a 15-
 Thus, option (a) is the correct answer, as member advisory council, chaired by the
Statement-II elaborates on the administrative Secretary of State, was aimed at supporting the
restructuring that supported the transfer of Secretary in managing the complexities of
control to the British Crown, as outlined in Indian administration from Britain.
Statement-I.
Q.41) What was a significant feature of the Indian
Q.40) Which of the following statements regarding Councils Act of 1861?
the Government of India Act of 1858 is/are A. Establishment of provincial legislatures
correct? B. Introduction of separate electorates
1. The Act renamed the Governor-General C. Appointment of Indians as non-official
of India to the Viceroy of India members of the Viceroy's legislative
2. It maintained the Board of Control and council
Court of Directors for managing Indian D. Creation of the Secretary of State for
affairs India
3. The Secretary of State for India, a Answer: C
member of the British Cabinet, was Explanation:
introduced.  The Indian Councils Act of 1861 marked the
4. A 15-member Council of India was beginning of representative institutions by
created to assist the Secretary of State associating Indians with the law-making
for India. process. It allowed the Viceroy to nominate
Choose the correct answer using the code some Indians as non-official members of his
given below expanded council, thereby providing them with
A. 1 ,2 and 3 Only a role in the legislative process.
B. 2,3 and 4 Only
C. 1,3 and 4 Only Q.42) Consider the following statements regarding
D. All of the above the Indian Councils Act of 1861:
Answer: C 1. This Act abolished the practice of
Explanation: nominating Indians to the legislative
 Statement 1 is correct. By changing the title to councils
Viceroy, the Act symbolized the direct 2. It restored legislative powers to the

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 17 )

 Bombay and Madras Presidencies,
marking a shift towards decentralization. Q.43) Consider the following statements related to
3. Legislative councils were established for Indian Councils Act of 1861
Bengal, North-Western Provinces, and Statement-I: The act introduced the portfolio
Punjab after the enactment of the Act. system, wherein members of the Viceroy's
4. The Act introduced the 'portfolio Council were assigned specific governmental
system', where members of the Viceroy’s departments.
council were assigned specific Statement-II: The act marked the beginning of
governmental departments. representative institutions by including Indians
5. The Viceroy was empowered to issue in the legislative process through nomination
ordinances during emergencies without to the Viceroy's Council.
the approval of the legislative council. Which one of the following is correct in respect
Which of the above statements is/are correct? of the above statements?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
B. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only correct and Statement-II is the correct
C. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only explanation for Statement-I
D. All of the above B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Answer: C correct and Statement-II is not the
Explanation: correct explanation for Statement-I
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act did not C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
abolish the nomination of Indians to the incorrect
legislative councils; rather, it was an initiation D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
of such practices. is correct
 Statement 2 is correct: It restored the Answer: B
legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Explanation:
Presidencies, reversing the centralization that  Statement-I is correct. The Indian Councils Act
had been increasing since the Regulating Act of of 1861 introduced the portfolio system, a
1773. significant administrative reform where
 Statement 3 is correct: While the Act did allow members of the Viceroy's Council were made in
for the establishment of new legislative charge of one or more departments of the
councils, the actual establishment dates for government, allowing them to issue final
councils in Bengal, North-Western Provinces, orders on behalf of the council in their
and Punjab were after the Act but years later designated areas. This system helped
(Bengal in 1862, North-Western Provinces in streamline administrative functions and
1886, and Punjab in 1897). improve governance.
 Statement 4 is correct: The Act recognized and  Statement-II is also correct. This Act is notable
formalized the 'portfolio system' that was for beginning the practice of including Indians
introduced by Lord Canning in 1859, where in the legislative process, a foundational step
council members took charge of specific towards representative governance. It allowed
departments. for the nomination of Indian non-official
 Statement 5 is correct: The Act gave the members to the Viceroy’s legislative council,
Viceroy the power to issue ordinances during starting with notable figures such as the Raja of
emergencies that did not require the Benaras and the Maharaja of Patiala.
concurrence of the legislative council, valid for  However, while both statements are correct,
up to six months. Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; they

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 18 )

 describe two distinct aspects of the Act. 2. Regulating Act of 1773
Statement-I discusses an administrative reform, B. The company’s rule was replaced
while Statement-II focuses on the early by the British Crown’s rule.
inclusion of Indians in legislative processes. 3. Pitt’s India Act of 1784
 Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer, C. Separation of the company's
recognizing that both statements are correct commercial and political functions.
but describe different outcomes of the Indian 4. Charter Act of 1833
Councils Act of 1861 without one explaining the D. Governor-General of Bengal was
other. made Governor-General of India.
Options:
Q.44) Which of the following statements regarding A. 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
Councils Act of 1892 is/are correct? B. 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - D, 4 - C
1. Legislative councils were granted the C. 1 - C, 2- D, 3 - A, 4- B
power to discuss the budget D. 1 - D, 2- C, 3- B, 4 – A
2. It introduced direct elections to the Answer: A
legislative councils for the first time. Explanation:
Choose the correct answer using the code  A (Charter Act of 1858) corresponds to 2: The
given below company’s rule was replaced by the British
A. 1 Only Crown’s rule.
B. 2 Only  B (Regulating Act of 1773) corresponds to 1:
C. Both 1 and 2 Establishment of the Supreme Court at
D. Neither 1 nor 2 Calcutta.
Answer: A  C (Pitt’s India Act of 1784) corresponds to 3:
Explanation: Separation of the company's commercial and
 Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Councils Act political functions.
of 1892 expanded the functions of the  D (Charter Act of 1833) corresponds to 4:
legislative councils, notably allowing them the Governor-General of Bengal was made
power to discuss the budget and address Governor-General of India.
questions to the executive, which was a step  The Charter Act of 1858 marked a critical
towards legislative oversight. transition from East India Company rule to
 Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act of 1892 made direct governance under the British Crown, a
an indirect provision for the use of election by response to the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
allowing certain bodies to recommend  The Regulating Act of 1773 laid the
members, but it did not introduce direct foundational legal framework for British
elections. The act was a precursor to more administration in India, including the
substantial reforms, but the method used was establishment of the Supreme Court at
nomination rather than election, and the term Calcutta.
"election" itself was not employed in the act.  Pitt’s India Act of 1784 refined the structure
set up by the Regulating Act, creating a distinct
Q.45) Match the following British Acts with their separation between the commercial and
outcomes related to the governance of India. political activities of the East India Company.
List –I Act List –II Outcomes  The Charter Act of 1833 consolidated power
1. Charter Act of 1858 under the Governor-General, marking a step
A. Establishment of the Supreme towards centralizing authority in India under
Court at Calcutta. British control

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 19 )

 correct?
Q.46) Which of the following provisions of the A. Only Two
Indian Constitution is incorrectly matched? B. Only Three
A. Freedom of Speech and Expression— C. Only Four
Article 19(1)(a) D. All Five
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies— Answer: A
Article 32 Explanation:
C. Protection in respect of conviction for The correct statements are:
offences—Article 20  They are justiciable and can be enforced by the
D. Abolition of Untouchability—Article 18 judiciary: This is true, as Fundamental Rights
Answer: D provided in the Indian Constitution are
Explanation: enforceable by the courts.
The pairs (a), (b), and (c) are correctly matched:  Certain rights may be suspended during a
 Article 19(1)(a) guarantees all citizens the right national emergency: This statement is also
to freedom of speech and expression. true. Article 359 allows the suspension of the
 Article 32 provides the right to constitutional enforcement of certain rights during a national
remedies, which allows Indian citizens to stand emergency.
up for their rights against anybody—even the The incorrect statements are:
government—through the Supreme Court or 2. These rights are without any limitations: This
High Courts. is not true, as Fundamental Rights come with
 Article 20 provides protection in respect of reasonable restrictions, particularly under
conviction for offences, including protection conditions specified in the Constitution itself.
against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy,  Only Indian citizens are entitled to these
and self-incrimination. rights: This is incorrect. While some
 The incorrect match is (d): Fundamental Rights are exclusive to citizens
 Article 18 pertains to the abolition of titles, not (like rights against discrimination on grounds of
untouchability. It states that no title, not being religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth),
a military or academic distinction, shall be others, such as the right to equality before the
conferred by the State. The correct article for law and the right to protection in respect of
the abolition of untouchability is Article 17, conviction for offenses, are available to all
which makes untouchability a punishable persons, including foreigners.
offence in all forms.  They are outlined in Part IV of the Indian
Constitution: This is incorrect. Fundamental
Q.47) Consider the following statements with Rights are listed in Part III of the Constitution,
reference to Fundamental Rights: not Part IV. Part IV deals with the Directive
1. They are justiciable and can be enforced Principles of State Policy.
by the judiciary.
2. These rights are without any limitations. Q.48) Which of the following statements regarding
3. Certain rights may be suspended during Directive Principles of State Policy is/are
a national emergency. correct?
4. Only Indian citizens are entitled to these 1. They are enforceable by the courts.
rights. 2. They serve as guidelines to the central
5. They are outlined in Part IV of the Indian and state governments at all levels.
Constitution 3. They are mentioned in Part IV of the
How many of the above statements is/are Indian Constitution.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 20 )

 4. They are designed to establish social and Q.49) Which of the following statements about the
economic democracy. Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution
5. They supersede Fundamental Rights is/are correct?
during conflicts 1. Fundamental Rights are available equally
Choose the correct option using the code to citizens, foreigners, and legal entities
given below. without any distinction.
A. 2, 3, and 4 2. The Parliament can repeal Fundamental
B. 1, 2, and 5 Rights through an ordinary legislative
C. 2, 4, and 5 process.
D. 1, 3, and 5 Choose the correct answer using the code
Answer: A given below.
Explanation: A. 1 Only
The correct statements are: B. 2 Only
 They serve as guidelines to the central and C. Both 1 and 2
state governments at all levels: This is true. D. Neither 1 nor 2
The Directive Principles are recommendations Answer: D
to the state governments and the central Explanation:
government to guide the establishment of a  Statement 1 is incorrect because while some
just society. Fundamental Rights are available to everyone
 They are mentioned in Part IV of the Indian including foreigners and legal entities, certain
Constitution: This is true. The Directive rights, such as those related to political
Principles are outlined in Part IV of the participation, are exclusively for citizens.
Constitution, covering Articles 36 to 51.  Statement 2 is incorrect. The Parliament cannot
 They are designed to establish social and curtail or repeal Fundamental Rights through
economic democracy: True, the Directive an ordinary legislative process; it requires a
Principles aim to create an environment where constitutional amendment act to do so.
social and economic inequalities are minimized Additionally, any amendment to the
and everyone has access to a decent standard Fundamental Rights must be in line with the
of living. 'basic structure' doctrine established by the
The incorrect statements are: Supreme Court of India, which means the
 They are enforceable by the courts: This is not essence of the rights cannot be altered.
true. Unlike Fundamental Rights, the Directive
Principles are not enforceable by the courts but Q.50) Consider the following statements related to
are considered fundamental in the governance the Governor
of the country, thereby guiding legislation. 1. He appoints the members of the
 They supersede Fundamental Rights during subordinate judiciary.
conflicts: This statement is incorrect. Although 2. He acts as the Chancellor of all the
there was a historical debate about the universities within the respective State.
relationship between Directive Principles and 3. Judicial or pardoning powers of the
Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has Governor are same as that of President
clarified that Fundamental Rights cannot be except that in case of Court Martial.
overridden by the Directive Principles. They are How many of the statements is/are correct?
meant to be complementary and harmoniously A. Only One
interpreted. B. Only two
C. Only three

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 21 )

 D. None commutation of sentence of death the powers
Answer: A of the Governor and President are concurrent.
Explanation: Q.51) With reference to the office of the Indian
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor is the President, consider the following statements:
Chancellor of the universities run by the state 1. The President can be removed from
and not all universities. Article 233. office by a process of impeachment for
Appointment of district judges. — (1) “violation of the Constitution”.
Appointments of persons to be, and the 2. The impeachment charges can be
posting and promotion of, district judges in any initiated by the lower House of the
State shall be made by the Governor of the Parliament only.
State in consultation with the High Court 3. These charges should be signed by 100
exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State. members of the House.
Statement 1 is correct. Which of the statements given above is/are
 Article 72: Power of President to grant correct?
pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or A. 1 only
commute sentences in certain cases. B. 1 and 3 only
 (1) The President shall have the power to grant C. 1 and 2 only
pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of D. 1,2 and 3
punishment or to suspend, remit or commute Answer: A
the sentence of any person convicted of any Explanation:
offence— According to the constitution,
 in all cases where the punishment or sentence  Statement 1 is correct: The President can be
is by a Court Martial; removed from office by a process of
 in all cases where the punishment or sentence impeachment for” violation of the
is for an offence against any law relating to a Constitution”.
matter to which the executive power of the  Statement 2 is incorrect: When a President is
Union extends; to be impeached for violation of the
 in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by
death either House of Parliament.
 Article 161 confers on the Governor the power  Statement 3 is incorrect: Such a resolution has
to grant pardon, commutation, remission, to be signed by not less than one-fourth of the
respite or reprieve to any person convicted of total members of that house and a prior 14
any offence against any law relating to matters day notice has to be given to the president.
to which the executive power of the State
extends. Q.52) The President of India has the power of
 However, the power of the President under ‘Absolute Veto’ with respect to which of the
Art. 72 is much wider. The President has the following bill/bills?
exclusive power to grant pardon in cases where 1. A government bill when the cabinet has
a person has been sentenced to death. resigned.
 The Governor cannot grant pardon in case of 2. A bill making changes in the name and
death sentence. He can only commute the boundary of a state.
punishment. 3. Constitutional Amendment Bill
 The Governor has no power in relation to Court 4. Private Members bill
Martial. Statement 3 is incorrect. Which among the following options is/are
 In regards to suspension remission and correct?

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 22 )

 A. 1 and 2 only and the other ministers shall be appointed by
B. 1, 3 and 4 only the president on the advice of the Prime
C. 1 and 4 only Minister.
D. 3 and 4 only  Article 74— There shall be a Council of
Answer: C Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head
Explanation: to aid and advise the President who shall, in
Absolute Veto the exercise of his functions, act in accordance
 It refers to the power of the President to with such advice.
withhold his assent to a bill passed by the  Statement 2 is correct: Since the Prime
Parliament. The bill then ends and does not Minister stands at the head of the council of
become an act. Usually, this veto is exercised in ministers, the other ministers cannot function
the following two cases: when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In
Statement 1 and 4 are correct. other words, the resignation or death of an
(a) With respect to private members bills (ie, bills incumbent Prime Minister automatically
introduced by any member of Parliament who dissolves the council of ministers and thereby
is not a minister); and generates a vacuum.
(b) With respect to the government bills when the  Statement 3 is incorrect: Constitution has not
cabinet resigns (after the passage of the bills specified any selection procedure for the
but before the assent by the President) and the Prime Minister. It is based on Parliamentary
new cabinet advises the President not to give Conventions that leader of the majority party is
his assent to such bills. appointed as the Prime minister.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The President cannot
withhold constitutional amendment bill. Q.54) Consider the following:
1. Local Government
Q.53) Consider the following statements 2. Forests
1. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by 3. Public Health
the President and the other ministers 4. Protection of wild animals and birds
shall be appointed by the president on 5. Administration of justice
the advice of the Prime Minister. Which among the following subjects were
2. Resignation of the Prime minister transferred to Concurrent List from State List
automatically dissolves the council of through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?
ministers A. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. The Constitution has provided the B. 2, 4 and 5 only
procedure for selection and appointment C. 2 and 4 only
of the Prime Minister. D. 1, 2 ,3, 4 and 5
How many of the above statements is/are Answer: B
correct? Explanation:
A. Only one  The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred
B. Only two five subjects to Concurrent List from State List,
C. All three that is,
D. None  education,
Answer: B  forests,
Explanation:  weights and measures,
 Statement 1 is correct: Article 75 (a) The Prime  protection of wild animals and birds, and
Minister shall be appointed by the President

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 23 )

 Administration of justice; constitution and C. Both 1 and 2
organization of all courts except the Supreme D. Neither 1 nor 2
Court and the high courts. Answer: B
Explanation:
Q.55) Consider the following:  Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitution does
1. Qualified Veto not require that a person must prove his
2. Absolute Veto majority in the legislative assembly before he is
3. Suspensive Veto appointed as a Chief Minister. The governor
4. Pocket Veto may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and
Which among the following Veto power does then ask him to prove his majority in the
the president of India enjoy? legislative assembly, within a reasonable
A. 1, 2 and 4 only period.
B. 2, 3 and 4 only  Statement 2 is correct : A person who is not a
C. 1, 3 and 4 only member of the state legislature can be
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 appointed as a Chief Minister for six months,
Answer: B within which time he should be elected to the
Explanation: state legislature, failing which he ceases to be
There are four types of Veto Chief Minister.
 Absolute veto, which is, withholding of assent
to the bill passed by the legislature. Q.57) Council of ministers consists of:
 Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the 1. Cabinet ministers
legislature with a higher majority. 2. Ministers of state
 Suspensive veto, which can be overridden by 3. Deputy ministers
the legislature with an ordinary majority. 4. Parliamentary secretaries
 Pocket veto, which is, taking no action on the Which of the above options above is/are
bill passed by the legislature. correct?
 Of the above four, the President of India is A. 1 and 2 only
vested with three— absolute veto, suspensive B. 1,2 and 3 only
veto and pocket veto. C. 2,3 and 4 only
 There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian D. 1,2,3 and 4
President; it is possessed by the American Answer: B
President. Explanation:
The council of ministers consists of three categories
Q.56) Consider the following statements with of ministers, namely,
reference to Chief Minister of state:  Cabinet ministers,
1. He shall prove majority in the legislative  Ministers of state, and
assembly of the state before being  Deputy Ministers.
appointed as Chief Minister.  The difference between them lies in their
2. He can be appointed as a Chief Minister respective ranks, emoluments, and political
even if he is not a member of the state importance. At the top of all these ministers
legislature. stands the Prime Minister—the supreme
Which of the statements given above is/are governing authority of the country.
correct?  A Parliamentary Secretary is appointed by a
A. 1 only Minister primarily to help him in his work as a
B. 2 only Member of Parliament. The Parliamentary

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 24 )

 Private Secretary is of course a Member of 3. He is entitled without payment of rent to the
Parliament himself but he is not a member of use of his official residence.
the Government and carries no direct 4. The Governor’s salary, allowances, and
responsibility for Government policy, but the privileges are set by Parliament.
close association between him and his Minister 5. If a Governor serves more than one state, the
imposes certain obligations upon him. emoluments is divided between the states as
the President deems appropriate.
Q.58) Which of the following is not a required 6. Also his emoluments and allowances cannot be
qualification for being appointed as a diminished during his term of office.
Governor?
A. The person should be a resident of the Q.59) Consider the following statements:
state where they are appointed. Assertion (A): The governor appoints only
B. The individual must not be a member of those persons as ministers who are
either House of Parliament. recommended by the Chief Minister.
C. The individual should be at least 35 years Reason (R): The Chief Minister is the real head
old. of the government.
D. The person must be a citizen of India. A. Both A and R are true, and R is the
Answer: A correct explanation of A.
Explanation: B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the
The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for correct explanation of A.
the appointment of a person as a governor. These C. A is true, but R is false.
are: D. A is false, but R is true.
1. He should be a citizen of India. Answer: A
2. He should have completed the age of 35 years. Explanation:
 Additionally, two conventions have also  Assertion (A) is true: The Governor does
developed in this regard over the years. First, indeed appoint ministers from among the
he should be an outsider, that is, he should not members of the state legislature based on the
belong to the state where he is appointed, so recommendations of the Chief Minister. This is
that he is free from the local politics. a constitutional practice where the Governor
 Second, while appointing the governor, the acts on the advice of the Chief Minister,
president is required to consult the chief reflecting the parliamentary system's
minister of the state concerned, so that the functioning at the state level.
smooth functioning of the constitutional  Reason (R) is true: The Chief Minister is
machinery in the state is ensured. However, considered the real head of the state
both the conventions have been violated in government. While the Governor holds a
some of the cases. ceremonial position, the Chief Minister, being
The Constitution lays down the following conditions the leader of the majority party in the state
for the governor’s office: legislature, exercises actual executive powers
1. A Governor must not be a member of either and leads the government's administration.
House of Parliament or a state legislature. If  R is the correct explanation of A because the
any such person is appointed as governor, he is Chief Minister's position as the real head of
deemed to have vacated his seat in that House government necessitates that they recommend
on the date on which he enters upon his office who should serve in the government. The
as the governor. Governor's role in appointing ministers based
2. The Governor cannot hold any other office. on these recommendations underscores the

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 25 )

 Chief Minister's central role in government purposes of Article 368.
formation and function, thus making R a
correct explanation of A. Q.61) Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Q.60) What is the procedure required to be followed 1. Articles 20 and 21 remain enforceable
for the abolition of an existing legislative even when a National Emergency is in
council in a state? effect.
A. Rajya Sabha must pass a resolution to 2. Rights guaranteed under Article 19 are
that effect. suspended only in cases of emergencies
B. State legislative assembly must pass a declared based on armed rebellion
resolution to that effect by a majority of Choose the correct answer using the code
the total membership of the Assembly given below
and by a majority of not less than two A. 1 Only
thirds of the members of the Assembly B. 2 Only
present and voting . C. Both 1 and 2
C. Lok Sabha must pass a law with majority D. Neither 1 nor 2
of not less than two thirds of the Answer: A
membership. Explanation:
D. State legislative assembly must pass a  Statement 1 is correct. The rights guaranteed
resolution to that effect by majority of by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
members present and voting. during the operation of a National Emergency.
Answer: B These rights are protected to maintain the core
Explanation: legal framework and ensure a minimum
Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States – protection of rights even during emergencies.
Article 169  Statement 2 is incorrect. The six freedoms
(1) Notwithstanding anything in Article 168, under Article 19 can be suspended only when a
Parliament may by law provide for the abolition National Emergency is declared on the grounds
of the Legislative Council of a State having such of war or external aggression, not during an
a Council or for the creation of such a Council emergency declared on the ground of armed
in a State having no such Council, if the rebellion. This distinction underscores the
Legislative Assembly of the State passes a intent to limit the scope of suspension to
resolution to that effect by a majority of the situations of direct threat to state security from
total membership of the Assembly and by a external forces.
majority of not less than two thirds of the
members of the Assembly present and voting. Q.62) Which of the following Fundamental Rights
Hence, statement b is correct. Available Exclusively to Citizens of India and
(2) Any law referred to in clause (1) shall contain not for foreigners?
such provisions for the amendment of this 1. Article 14
Constitution as may be necessary to give effect 2. Article 15
to the provisions of the law and may also 3. Article 19
contain such supplemental, incidental and 4. Article 21
consequential provisions as Parliament may 5. Article 29
deem necessary. 6. Article 30
(3) No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be Choose the correct answer using the code
an amendment of this Constitution for the given below

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 26 )

 A. 1,2 3 and 6 Only for offenses.
B. 2,3, 5 and 6 Only 3. Article 26
C. 2,3,4, 5 and 6 Only C. Right to life and personal liberty.
D. All of the above 4. Article 24
Answer: B D. Prohibition of child labor in
Explanation: factories below the age of
 The Indian Constitution provides certain fourteen years.
fundamental rights that are available 5. Article 30
exclusively to its citizens, while others are E. Freedom to manage religious
available to all persons including foreigners affairs.
 Article 14 guarantees equality before the law Options:
and equal protection of the laws within the A. 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - D, 5 – E
territory of India. This right is available to all B. 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - E, 4 - A, 5 - D
persons, including foreigners. C. 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - A, 5 – E
 Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the State D. 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - E, 4 - D, 5 - A
against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, Answer: D
caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. This Explanation:
right is specifically available only to citizens. 1 (Article 20) corresponds to B: Protection in
 Article 19 guarantees six freedoms concerning respect of conviction for offenses.
the right to freedom of speech and expression, 2 (Article 21) corresponds to C: Right to life and
assembly, association, movement, residence, personal liberty.
and profession. These freedoms are exclusively 3 (Article 26) corresponds to E: Freedom to
available to citizens. manage religious affairs.
 Article 21 ensures protection of life and 4 (Article 24) corresponds to D: Prohibition of
personal liberty to all persons and is not limited child labor in factories, etc., below the age of
to citizens. fourteen years.
 Article 29 provides for the protection of 5 (Article 30) corresponds to A: Right of
interests of minorities in terms of language, minorities to establish and administer
script, or culture and this right is available to educational institutions.
any section of the citizens, hence implicitly for
citizens only. Q.64) Which of the following pairs are correctly
 Article 30 gives all minorities, based on religion matched?
or language, the right to establish and Provision Descriptions
administer educational institutions of their 1. Directive Principle of State Policy –
choice, thus pertaining only to citizens. Uniform Civil Code
2. Fundamental Right - Right to Marry
Q.63) Match the following articles of the Indian 3. Fundamental Duty - Equitable
Constitution with their respective provisions distribution of material resources
List –I (Article) List –II (Provisions) 4. Legal Right - Right to Information
1. Article 20 Choose the correct answer using the code give
A. Right of minorities to establish and below
administer educational A. 1,2 and 3 Only
institutions. B. 1,2 and 4 Only
2. Article 21 C. 2,3 and 4 Only
B. Protection in respect of conviction D. 1 and 2 Only

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 27 )

Answer: B provisions
Explanation: List –I(Article) List-II (Provisions)
 Directive Principle of State Policy – Uniform 1. Article 38
Civil Code: This is correctly matched. The A. Promotion of cooperative
Directive Principles of State Policy, listed under societies.
Part IV of the Indian Constitution, include an 2. Article 39
article (Article 44) that talks about the State B. Organization of agriculture and
striving to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the animal husbandry.
citizens throughout the territory of India. This 3. Article 43
principle aims to replace personal laws based C. Promotion of social, economic,
on the scriptures and customs of each major and political justice to minimize
religious community in India with a common inequalities.
set governing every citizen. 4. Article 48
 Fundamental Right - Right to Marry: This is D. Provision for securing just and
also correctly matched. The right to marry is humane conditions of work and
considered a part of the Fundamental Rights maternity relief.
under the right to life and personal liberty 5. Article 50
(Article 21 of the Constitution). The Supreme E. Separation of the judiciary from
Court of India has recognized that the choice of the executive in the public services
a life partner is a fundamental right under of the State.
Article 21. Options:
Fundamental Duty - Equitable distribution of A. 1 - D, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - C, 5 - E
material resources: This is not correctly B. 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - B, 5 - E
matched. The equitable distribution of material C. 1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - D, 4 - B, 5 – E
resources is part of the Directive Principles of D. 1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - A, 4 - B, 5 - E
State Policy (Article 39(b)), not a Fundamental Answer: D
Duty. Fundamental Duties are listed in Article Explanation:
51A of the Constitution and primarily focus on 1 (Article 38) corresponds to C: Promotion of
moral obligations of all citizens, but do not social, economic, and political justice to
explicitly include the distribution of material minimize inequalities.
resources. 2 (Article 39) corresponds to D: Provision for
 Legal Right - Right to Information: This is not securing just and humane conditions of work
correctly matched as a Fundamental Right. The and maternity relief.
Right to Information (RTI) is indeed a legal 3 (Article 43) corresponds to A: Promotion of
right, but it is not classified under the cooperative societies.
Fundamental Rights. It was enacted through 4 (Article 48) corresponds to B: Organization of
the Right to Information Act, 2005, which agriculture and animal husbandry.
provides a framework for citizens to access 5 (Article 50) corresponds to E: Separation of the
information under the control of public judiciary from the executive in the public
authorities to promote transparency and services of the State.
accountability in the working of every public  Article 38 and Article 39 outline social and
authority. economic strategies to ensure justice and
prevent the concentration of wealth.
Q.65) Match the following articles of the Indian  Article 43 promotes the welfare of workers and
Constitution with their corresponding encourages cottage industries, supporting

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 28 )

 economic equity.  Union Judiciary - Not included; the judiciary is
 Article 48 emphasizes the importance of typically not considered a 'State' under Article
modern and scientific organization in 12, as it pertains to executive and legislative
agriculture and animal husbandry. entities.
 Article 50 emphasizes the necessity for an  Panchayats - Included as they are local
independent judiciary to maintain fairness in authorities.
the administration of justice, free from  Municipalities - Included as they are also local
executive pressures. These principles, though authorities.
not enforceable by courts, function as crucial  High Court - Not included; similar to the Union
guidelines for the state. Judiciary, judicial bodies are generally not
covered under the term 'State' as defined in
Q.66) Consider the following Article 12.
1. Parliament of India
2. Legislature of states, Q.67) Which of the following pairs is correctly
3. Union Judiciary matched?
4. Panchayats A. 1909 Act – Introduction of communal
5. Municipalities electorates
6. High Court B. 1919 Act – Provincial autonomy
How many of the above are included in the C. 1935 Act- Responsible government
term 'State' as defined in Article 12 of the D. 1947 Act - Abolition the Indian Civil
Indian Constitution Service
A. Only Three Answer: A
B. Only Four Explanation:
C. Only Five The correctly matched pair among the given options
D. All Six is:
Answer: B 1909 Act – Introduction of communal electorates
Explanation:  1909 Act (Morley-Minto Reforms): Introduced
Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines the term communal electorates in India, which meant
'State' for the purpose of Part III (Fundamental that seats were reserved for different religious
Rights). According to this Article, the term 'State' communities, and members of that community
includes: alone could vote for their own representatives.
1. The Government and Parliament of India, i.e.,  1919 Act (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms):
the executive and legislative organs of the Introduced the system of ‘Diarchy’ at the
Union government. provincial level, which included both
2. The Government and the Legislature of each of ‘transferred’ and ‘reserved’ subjects but did not
the States, i.e., the executive and legislative grant provincial autonomy2.
organs of the state governments.  1935 Act (Government of India Act 1935):
3. All local or other authorities within the territory Provided provincial autonomy and introduced a
of India. federal structure, but it did not establish a fully
4. All local or other authorities under the control responsible government as the British
of the Government of India. government retained control over certain key
 Parliament of India - Included as part of the areas3.
legislature of the Union.  1947 Act (Indian Independence Act 1947): Did
 Legislature of States - Included as part of the not abolish the Indian Civil Service; rather, it
state legislatures. partitioned British India into two new

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 29 )

 independent dominions of India and Pakistan Answer: D
and set the framework for independent Explanation:
governance  Statement 1 is incorrect. It was the Swaran
Singh Committee, not the Sarkaria Commission,
Q.68) Which of the following acts expanded the that recommended the inclusion of
provincial legislative councils and introduced a Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
dual system of governance in India?  Statement 2 is incorrect. The inspiration for
A. Indian Councils Act of 1861 India's Fundamental Duties came from the
B. Indian Councils Act of 1892 Constitution of the erstwhile USSR, not Japan.
C. Indian Councils Act of 1909 The concept was to emphasize and remind
D. Government of India Act of 1919 citizens of their duties towards the nation,
Answer: D reflective of the values within a socialist
Explanation: framework.
The correct answer is: (d) Government of India Act of
1919 Q.70) Which of the following best describes the
 This act expanded the provincial legislative Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in
councils and introduced a dual system of the Indian Constitution?
governance, known as diarchy, in India. The A. Legally enforceable directives for the
diarchy system was implemented in eight government to follow
provinces and involved dividing the provincial B. Fundamental rights guaranteed to all
administration into two parts: transferred and citizens
reserved subjects. The transferred subjects C. Non-justiciable guidelines for governance
were administered by the Governor with the aimed at promoting social and economic
aid of ministers responsible to the legislative justice
council, while the reserved subjects were D. Executive orders issued by the President
administered by the Governor and his Answer: C
Executive Council without being responsible to Explanation:
the legislative council. This act is also known as  The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)
the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms are outlined in Part IV of the Indian
Constitution and provide non-justiciable
Q.69) Consider the following statements about the guidelines for governance. Unlike fundamental
Fundamental Duties in the Indian rights, they are not legally enforceable by any
Constitution: court but serve as moral and ethical directives
1. They were added to the Constitution for the government to follow. The DPSPs aim to
based on recommendations from the promote social and economic justice, reduce
Sarkaria Commission. inequalities, and foster conditions for a just
2. The inclusion of Fundamental Duties in society. They are fundamental in shaping
the Constitution was influenced by policies and legislation aimed at achieving
similar provisions in the Constitution of socio-economic objectives outlined in the
Japan. Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 Only Q.71) Consider the following statements about the
B. 2 Only Government of India Act 1935
C. Both 1 and 2 1. It established a Federal Court.
D. Neither 1 nor 2 2. It provided for the establishment of a

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 30 )

 Reserve Bank of India to regulate Representation of the People Act, 1950:
currency and credit. 1. The Act allocates seats in India's
3. The Act introduced bicameral legislatures Parliament and state legislative bodies as
in six provinces, but subjected them to required by the Constitution.
several restrictions. 2. It specifies seat distribution methods,
4. It extended the franchise, allowing guided by Constitution Articles 81, 170,
approximately 10% of the population to and 171.
vote. 3. Seat allocation uses population figures
5. The Act introduced dyarchy in the from March 1, 1950.
provinces, dividing subjects into 4. It empowers the President to delimit
'reserved' and 'transferred' categories. constituencies with advice from the
6. The Act provided for the establishment Election Commission.
of both a Federal Public Service 5. Includes provisions for displaced persons
Commission and Provincial Public Service from Pakistan, easing voter registration
Commissions. requirements.
7. The Act retained the Council of India, How many of the above statements are
which was set up by the Government of correct?
India Act of 1858. A. Only one
Which of the above statements are correct? B. Only two
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6 only C. Only three
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only D. All five
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 Answer: D
D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 only Explanation:
Answer: A  The Representation of the People Act, 1950,
Explanation: was enacted following the guidelines provided
 Statement 1 is correct: The Government of by Articles 81, 170, and 171 of the Constitution
India Act 1935 established a Federal Court. of India, which stipulate the maximum and
 Statement 2 is correct: The Act provided for the minimum number of seats in various legislative
establishment of the Reserve Bank of India, set bodies but leave the specifics of seat allocation
up on April 1, 1935. and constituency delimitation to be governed
 Statement 3 is correct: Bicameralism was by law. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
introduced in six provinces under the Act.  The use of population data from March 1,
 Statement 4 is correct: The Act significantly 1950, for seat allocation (statement 3) ensures
extended the franchise. that the distribution of seats is based on
 Statement 5 is incorrect: The Act abolished demographic data.
dyarchy in the provinces and introduced  The President's role in delimiting constituencies
provincial autonomy instead. (statement 4) is critical for organizing elections
 Statement 6 is correct: The Act envisioned the in newly defined or altered constituencies.
creation of both a Federal Public Service  Statement 5 addresses a humanitarian
Commission and Provincial Public Service consideration for displaced persons, allowing
Commissions. them easier integration into the democratic
 Statement 7 is incorrect: The Act abolished the process of their new country. All statements
Council of India, rather than retaining it. accurately reflect the provisions and purposes
of the Act.
Q.72) Consider the following statements about the  Hence, option (d) is correct.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 31 )

 readjustment of Parliamentary and Assembly
Q.73) Consider the following schedules of the constituencies based on the population data
Representation of the People Act, 1950, with from the 2001 census.
their corresponding subject matters: Statement II: The Act provides that the number
Schedule - Subject Matter of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
1. First Schedule Tribes in the House of the People and
- Allocation of seats in the Legislative Assemblies would be re-fixed based
Legislative Councils on the 1971 census.
2. Second Schedule Which one of the following is correct in
- Total number of seats in the respect of the above statements?
Legislative Assemblies A. Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. Third Schedule correct and Statement II is the correct
- Allocation of seats in the House of explanation for Statement I
the People B. Both Statement I and Statement II are
4. Fourth Schedule correct and Statement II is not the
- Local Authorities for purposes of correct explanation for Statement I
Elections to Legislative Councils C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
How many of the above pairs are correctly incorrect
matched? D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
A. Only two is correct
B. Only three Answer: C
C. Only four Explanation:
D. None are correct  Statement I is correct: The Delimitation Act, of
Answer: A 2002, indeed was enacted to adjust
Explanation: Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies
 First Schedule - It is concerned with the based on the latest available census at that
allocation of seats in the House of the People, time, which was the 2001 census. This was
not in the Legislative Councils as option A aimed at addressing the disparities in
suggests. constituency sizes that had developed due to
 Second Schedule - This schedule indeed demographic changes like population growth
handles the total number of seats in the and migration patterns.
Legislative Assemblies, which correctly matches  Statement II is incorrect: While the Delimitation
option B. Act, of 2002, did provide for the re-fixing of
 Third Schedule - This is intended for the seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
allocation of seats in the Legislative Councils, Tribes, it was based on the 2001 census, not
not in the House of the People as option C the 1971 census. The number of total seats
suggests. itself, however, remained based on the 1971
 Fourth Schedule - This schedule correctly census to avoid increasing the total number of
describes the Local Authorities for purposes of seats in the Parliament and Legislative
Elections to Legislative Councils, which matches Assemblies. Thus, the statement incorrectly
option D. mentions the 1971 census for re-fixing SC and
ST seats, which used the 2001 census data.
Q.74) Consider the following statements regarding  Therefore, the correct answer is C, as
the Delimitation Act, 2002: Statement I is accurate and in line with the
Statement I: It was enacted to facilitate the provisions of the Delimitation Act, 2002, while

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 32 )

 Statement II contains a factual error concerning 4. The fourth statement is correct. The advice on
the census year used for re-fixing the reserved disqualification of members of Parliament is
seats. provided by the President under the advice of
the Election Commission, specifically
Q.75) Consider the following statements about the concerning matters related to improper
powers and functions of the Election practices and disqualifications under the
Commission of India: Representation of the People Act.
1. It cannot set the boundaries of electoral
constituencies nationwide under the Q.76) Consider the following statements about the
Delimitation Commission Act. Article 324 of the Constitution:
2. The Commission announces election 1. Removal of the Chief Election
dates and schedules and checks Commissioner requires a special majority
nomination papers. in Parliament
3. It cannot cancel elections due to rigging, 2. The Constitution sets the terms of
violence, or other irregularities. Election Commission members to ensure
4. It advises the president on disqualifying independence.
parliament members. Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above-mentioned statements correct?
are correct? A. 1 only
A. Only one B. 2 only
B. Only two C. Both 1 and 2
C. Only three D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. All four Answer: A
Answer: C Explanation:
Explanation:  Statement 1 is correct as it accurately describes
1. The first statement is correct. The Election the security of tenure provided to the Chief
Commission of India does not set the Election Commissioner. The procedure for
boundaries of electoral constituencies; this task removal is akin to that of a Supreme Court
is carried out by the Delimitation Commission judge, where both Houses of Parliament must
under the Delimitation Commission Act. pass a resolution by a special majority on
Therefore, the statement that the Election grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity,
Commission cannot set these boundaries is ensuring the CEC's independence from
accurate. executive interference.
2. The second statement is also correct. The  Statement 2 is incorrect because the
Election Commission of India is responsible for Constitution does not specify the term of the
announcing the dates and schedules of members of the Election Commission. The lack
elections and checking nomination papers to of a defined term is noted as a flaw in ensuring
ensure that candidates meet all required the full independence of the Commission, as it
criteria. could potentially allow for external influences
3. The third statement is incorrect. The Election on the tenure of its members.
Commission of India does indeed have the
power to cancel elections in a constituency if it Q.77) Consider the following statements about
deems necessary due to rigging, violence, or political parties and party systems:
other irregularities that may impair the 1. In the classification of political parties
electoral process. based on ideologies, liberal parties are

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 33 )

 considered rightist because they aim at B. Historically dominated by the
preserving the status quo. Congress Party.
2. The two-party system, where only two 3. Personality Cult
major parties exist, is exemplified by the C. Parties centered around
political systems in the USA and Britain. charismatic leaders.
3. A multi-party system often leads to the 4. Emergence of Regional Parties
formation of coalition governments and D. Regional parties are significant in
is seen in countries like France, states, limited in national politics.
Switzerland, and Italy. 5. Lack of Effective Opposition
How many of the above statements are E. Disorganized opposition, fails to
correct? form a viable government.
A. Only one How many of the above pairs are correctly
B. Only two matched?
C. All three A. Only two
D. None B. Only three
Answer: B C. Only four
Explanation: D. All five
 Statement 1 is incorrect because liberal parties Answer: C
are considered centrist, not rightist. Liberal Explanation:
parties are known for aiming at reforming  Pairs A, B, C, and E are correctly matched with
existing institutions rather than preserving the their descriptions, accurately reflecting the
status quo, which is a characteristic of facets of the Indian party system.
conservative parties.  Pair D is incorrect; regional parties are
 Statement 2 is correct. The two-party system significant at both state and national levels due
where only two major parties dominate the to coalition politics, contradicting the
political landscape is a characteristic feature of description given.
countries like the USA and Britain. This system  Thus, the correct answer is C (Only four),
limits major governance to two primary parties, indicating that four out of the five pairs are
making it distinctive. correctly matched.
 Statement 3 is also correct. A multi-party
system, where numerous political parties exist, Q.79) Consider the following statements about the
often leads to the formation of coalition recognition of political parties in India by the
governments due to the diversity of parties and Election Commission:
interests. This system is common in countries 1. A party becomes a national party if it
like France, Switzerland, and Italy, where no wins 6% of votes in four states and 4 Lok
single party typically gains complete control Sabha seats.
over government, necessitating coalitions. 2. Recognized parties get exclusive election
symbols, others choose from a free list.
Q.78) Match the following features of the Indian 3. Recognized parties can have 40 star
party system with their correct descriptions: campaigners whose expenses don't
Feature Description count towards candidate spending.
1. Multi-Party System 4. A party is a state party if it gets 8% of
A. Many parties due to India's diverse state votes and one Lok Sabha seat in
society. that state.
2. One-Dominant Party System How many of the above statements are

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 34 )

 Incorrect? C. An independent member is disqualified if
A. Only one they join a party six months after taking
B. Only two their seat in the house.
C. All three D. A nominated member is disqualified if
D. None they join a party within the first six
Answer: A months of their tenure.
Explanation: Answer: B
 Statement 1 is correct as it accurately describes Explanation:
one of the criteria for a political party to be  The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution,
recognized as a national party by the Election introduced by the 52nd Amendment in 1985,
Commission of India. specifies conditions under which members of
 Statement 2 is correct. It properly explains the Parliament and state legislatures may be
privileges related to election symbols allocated disqualified on the ground of defection.
to recognized national and state parties versus  A member of a house belonging to any political
the options available to registered party becomes disqualified for being a member
unrecognized parties. of the house if they voluntarily give up their
 Statement 3 is correct, highlighting the membership of such political party, or if they
advantages recognized parties have regarding vote or abstain from voting in the house
star campaigners, whose travel expenses are contrary to any direction issued by the political
not included in the election expenditure of the party to which they belong, without obtaining
party’s candidates. prior permission of the party and such act has
 Statement 4 is incorrect. While the eight not been condoned by the party within 15 days
percent criterion is part of the conditions for from such voting or abstention.
state party recognition, the additional  Options A and C are incorrect because the
requirement in this statement for winning a Lok specifics of the timeframe and conditions do
Sabha seat does not align exactly with any not match the provisions of the Tenth
specific condition outlined for state party Schedule. Option D is incorrect as it
recognition. The correct conditions involve inaccurately states the condition for nominated
either winning specific numbers of legislative members; they can join a party within six
assembly seats or securing a certain percentage months without facing disqualification, not that
of votes along with one Lok Sabha seat among they are disqualified if they join within this
other variations. period.
 Thus, the correct answer is B, which accurately
Q.80) Which statement correctly describes the outlines the disqualification conditions for
provisions of the anti-defection law under the members of political parties under the anti-
Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? defection law.
A. A member is disqualified if they leave
their party or disobey party directives Q.81) Consider the following statements:
without permission and without this act Statement I: The anti-defection law was
being condoned by the party within 30 introduced to prevent political defections
days. motivated by personal gains and to strengthen
B. A member is disqualified if they leave parliamentary democracy.
their party or disobey party directives Statement II: The law has been criticized for
without permission unless condoned by not differentiating between dissent and
the party within 15 days. defection, which could undermine legislators'

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 35 )

 freedom and promote party dominance. Explanation:
Which one of the following is correct in  The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 was enacted
respect of the above statements? primarily to strengthen the anti-defection law
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are and address its previous shortcomings, notably
correct and Statement II is the correct its failure to effectively prevent political
explanation for Statement I defections, which was undermining the stability
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are of governments.
correct and Statement II is not the  The amendment aimed to remove provisions
correct explanation for Statement I that allowed group defections and to restrict
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is the size of councils of ministers to curb political
incorrect bargaining.
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II  Option B correctly captures this rationale,
is correct aligning with the legislative intent to reinforce
Answer: B the effectiveness of the Tenth Schedule.
Explanation:
 Statement I is correct as it succinctly describes Q.83) Arrange the following committees and
the intent behind the anti-defection law, commissions related to electoral reforms into
highlighting its purpose to curb unethical chronological order and select the correct
political defections and enhance parliamentary answer from the codes given below:
integrity. 1. Tarkunde Committee
 Statement II is also correct, pointing out the 2. Joint Parliamentary Committee on
critical viewpoint that the law fails to Amendments to Election Laws
distinguish between genuine dissent and 3. Vohra Committee on the Nexus between
defection, potentially stifling individual Crime and Politics
legislator autonomy and favoring party control. 4. Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral
 Though both statements are correct, Statement Reforms
II does not explain Statement I but rather 5. Election Commission of India
critiques its effects. Therefore, option B is Recommendations on Electoral Reforms
correct, indicating that both statements are Which of the following are correctly arranged?
correct but Statement II does not explain A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Statement I. B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
Q.82)What was one of the primary reasons for D. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
enacting the 91st Amendment Act of 2003? Answer: C
A. To increase the number of ministers in Explanation:
the Union and state cabinets.  The chronological order of the committees and
B. To address the ineffectiveness of the commissions based on the years each one was
Tenth Schedule in preventing political established or reported is as follows:
defections. o Joint Parliamentary Committee on
C. To allow defections when a significant Amendments to Election Laws (1971-72)
minority of legislators, specifically one- - This was the earliest committee in the
third, splits from the main party. sequence, beginning its work in 1971.
D. To decrease the role of the Law o Tarkunde Committee (1974-75) -
Commission in electoral reforms. Initiated by Jaya Prakash Narayan during
Answer: B his "Total Revolution" movement, the

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 36 )

 committee reported in 1975. o Increase in the number of proposers for
o Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral Rajya Sabha and state legislative council
Reforms (1990) - This committee came elections (1988) - Implemented in 1988,
into existence in 1990, following the this reform required more proposers to
earlier ones. discourage non-serious candidates.
o Vohra Committee on the Nexus between o Provision for adjournment of poll or
Crime and Politics (1993) - Set up in countermanding of elections in case of
1993, it investigated the relationship booth capturing (1989) - Enacted in 1989
between criminal networks and political to address the issue of booth capturing
entities. during elections.
o Election Commission of India o Introduction of Electronic Voting
Recommendations on Electoral Reforms Machines (EVMs) (1989) - EVMs were
(1998) - These recommendations were first introduced in 1989 to facilitate the
made by the Election Commission later in electoral process, with broader
1998. implementation in subsequent years.
o Requirement of electors' photo identity
Q.84) Arrange the following electoral reforms into cards (EPICs) (1993) - Started in 1993,
chronological order and select the correct this initiative aimed to curb bogus voting
answer from the codes given below: and ensure smoother, quicker
1. Lowering of Voting Age to 18 years verification of voter identities.
2. Introduction of Electronic Voting  Option C correctly lists these reforms in the
Machines (EVMs) order of their implementation, reflecting the
3. Provision for adjournment of poll or correct chronological sequence.
countermanding of elections in case of
booth capturing Q.85) Consider the following statements regarding
4. Requirement of electors' photo identity electoral reforms since 2010:
cards (EPICs) 1. The restriction on conducting and
5. Increase in the number of proposers for publishing exit polls was enforced in
Rajya Sabha and state legislative council 2009, with violations punishable by fine
elections or imprisonment.
Which of the following are correctly arranged? 2. In 2010, a provision was made to allow
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Indian citizens living abroad to register
B. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 and vote in Indian elections if they have
C. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 not acquired citizenship of another
D. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 country.
Answer: C 3. The introduction of Voter Verifiable
Explanation: Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) systems was
 The correct chronological order based on the mandated by the Supreme Court in 2013
years each reform was introduced is as follows: to ensure the accuracy and transparency
o Lowering of Voting Age to 18 years of the voting process.
(1988) - The 61st Constitutional 4. In 2013, the Supreme Court ruled that
Amendment Act of 1988 lowered the convicted MPs and MLAs would be
voting age from 21 years to 18 years for immediately disqualified without the
both Lok Sabha and state assembly previously allowed three-month period
elections. to appeal.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 37 )

 How many of the above statements are established by the 99th Constitutional
correct? Amendment Act and the NJAC Act of 2014,
A. Only one unconstitutional, thereby reinstating the
B. Only two collegium system for the appointment of
C. Only three judges. This verdict came from the Fourth
D. All four Judges case (also known as the NJAC
Answer: D Judgement).
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct as it describes the Q.87) Consider the following statements about the
regulation imposed on exit polls during Supreme Court’s jurisdiction:
elections, effective from 2009, detailing the 1. The Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction
legal consequences for non-compliance. extends to cases between the Union and
 Statement 2 is accurate as it reflects the one or more states, exclusively.
legislative change made in 2010, which enabled 2. Under its appellate jurisdiction, the
Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) to participate in Supreme Court handles appeals in civil,
Indian elections without having to be physically criminal, and constitutional matters.
present in India. Which of the statements given above is/are
 Statement 3 accurately summarizes the correct?
introduction and legal endorsement of VVPAT A. 1 only
systems by the Supreme Court in 2013, B. 2 only
enhancing the credibility and verifiability of C. Both 1 and 2
electronic voting. D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Statement 4 is correct in detailing the 2013 Answer: C
Supreme Court decision that eliminated the Explanation:
grace period previously allowed for convicted  Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court
legislators, leading to their immediate has exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes
disqualification upon conviction. between the Union and one or more states or
 Thus, all four statements are correct, making D between different states.
(All four) the correct answer. This reflects a  Statement 2 is also correct as the Supreme
comprehensive understanding of significant Court’s appellate jurisdiction encompasses
electoral reforms enacted in India since 2010. constitutional, civil, and criminal cases, making
it the highest appellate body in the country.
Q.86) Which act reestablished the collegium system
after declaring the National Judicial Q.88) Consider the following statements about the
Appointments Commission (NJAC) powers and functions of the Supreme Court:
unconstitutional? 1. The Supreme Court is empowered to
A. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act review its own judgements or orders.
B. The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act 2. The Court’s advisory jurisdiction is
C. The Supreme Court’s 2015 ruling in the binding on the President of India.
Fourth Judges case 3. The Supreme Court’s jurisdiction includes
D. The National Judicial Appointments the authority to hear matters related to
Commission Act of 2014 the disputes arising out of pre-
Answer: C Constitution treaties.
Explanation: How many of the above statements are
 In 2015, the Supreme Court declared the NJAC, correct?

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 38 )

 A. Only one  Statement 2 is misleading because traditionally,
B. Only two the Chief Justice is the seniormost judge, but
C. Only three this is not a constitutional requirement, hence
D. None also considered correct as per traditional
Answer: A violations.
Explanation:  Statement 3 is correct as it describes the role of
 Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court the Supreme Court as a Court of Record
has the power to review its own judgments. accurately.
 Statement 2 is incorrect because the advice  Statement 4 is incorrect; the Constitution does
given under the advisory jurisdiction of the not specify a minimum number of judges—this
Supreme Court is not binding on the President. is determined by Parliament.
 Statement 3 is incorrect as the Court's original
jurisdiction does not extend to disputes arising Q.90) Consider the following statements:
out of pre-Constitution treaties. Statement I: Judicial review is the power of the
judiciary to assess and nullify legislative and
Q.89) Consider the following statements regarding executive actions that are unconstitutional.
the Supreme Court of India’s judicial powers Statement II: The purpose of judicial review is
and responsibilities: to uphold the Constitution's supremacy, ensure
1. The Supreme Court’s powers of the balance of power between the central and
contempt include the authority to punish state governments, and safeguard the
for contempt of any court in the country. Fundamental Rights of citizens.
2. The Chief Justice of India’s appointment Which one of the following is correct in
does not necessarily have to be the respect of the above statements?
seniormost judge of the Supreme Court, A. Both Statement I and Statement II are
as per constitutional requirements. correct and Statement II is the correct
3. As a Court of Record, the judgments and explanation for Statement I
proceedings of the Supreme Court are B. Both Statement I and Statement II are
recorded for perpetual memory, which correct and Statement II is not the
are admitted as evidence and cannot be correct explanation for Statement I
questioned when produced before any C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
court. incorrect
4. The Supreme Court is required by the D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
Constitution to have a minimum of ten is correct
judges, excluding the Chief Justice. Answer: B
How many of the above statements are Explanation:
correct?  Statement I is correct as it accurately defines
A. Only one judicial review as the judiciary's capability to
B. Only two evaluate and invalidate any governmental
C. Only three action that contravenes the Constitution.
D. All four  Statement II is correct and provides a clear
Answer: C explanation of the various purposes of judicial
Explanation: review, including maintaining constitutional
 Statement 1 is correct; the Supreme Court can supremacy, ensuring a balance of powers
exercise contempt powers over any court in the within the federation, and protecting citizens'
country. Fundamental Rights.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 39 )

 However, while both statements are correct, Court for the enforcement of Fundamental
Statement II does not directly explain Rights.
Statement I but rather outlines the broader  Article 131 - E: Correctly matches as it details
objectives of judicial review, making option B the Supreme Court's original jurisdiction in
the correct answer. disputes involving the government or different
states.
Q.91) Match the following articles of the Indian  Article 136 - B: Correctly matches as it grants
Constitution with their corresponding the Supreme Court the power to allow special
descriptions related to judicial review: appeals.
Articles Descriptions  Article 143 - A: Correctly matches as it
1. Article 13 authorizes the President to consult the
A. Authorizes the President to seek Supreme Court.
the opinion of the Supreme Court
on any question of law or fact. Q.92) Consider the following statements regarding
2. Article 32 the scope of judicial review in India:
B. Empowers the Supreme Court to 1. Judicial review in India allows for the
grant special leave to appeal from constitutionality of laws to be challenged
any court or tribunal. if they infringe upon Fundamental Rights.
3. Article 131 2. The American concept of 'due process of
C. Empowers the High Courts to issue law' provides a broader scope for judicial
directions, writs for the review compared to the Indian
enforcement of the Fundamental 'procedure established by law'.
Rights. 3. Judicial review can challenge laws that
4. Article 136 are outside the competence of the
D. Declares that all laws inconsistent authority that framed them or are
of the Fundamental Rights shall be repugnant to constitutional provisions.
null and void. 4. In India, judicial review does not extend
5. Article 143 to examining the reasonableness or
E. Provides for the original policy implications of a law, only its
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court constitutionality.
in center–state and inter-state Which of the statements above is/are
disputes. incorrect?
Select the correct answer using the code given A. 1 only
below. B. 1 and 2 only
A. 1-B,2-E,3-D,4-C,5-A C. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1-D,2-F,3-C, 4-B,5-A D. All the above
C. 1- A,2-B,3-C,4-D,5-E Answer: D
D. 1- D,2-B,3- A,4-C,5-E Explanation:
Answer: B  All statements are correct and accurately
Explanation: describe the judicial review mechanism in India
 Article 13 - D: Correctly matches as it declares and its comparison with the U.S. system.
laws inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights  Statement 1 outlines the grounds for
null and void. challenging laws, Statement 2 contrasts Indian
 Article 32 - F: Correctly matches as it and American judicial review scopes, Statement
guarantees the right to approach the Supreme 3 expands on the grounds for judicial review in

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 40 )

 India, and Statement 4 clarifies the limitations Q.94) Consider the following statements:
of judicial review in India concerning policy 1. Judicial activism refers to the proactive
examination. role played by the judiciary in enforcing
the constitutional duties of the
Q.93) Consider the following statements concerning legislature and executive.
the judicial review of the Ninth Schedule in 2. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is an
India: outcome of judicial activism and
1. The Supreme Court's ruling in the I.R. represents its most recognized form.
Coelho case established that not all laws Which of the statements given above is/are
under the Ninth Schedule are immune correct?
from judicial review. A. 1 only
2. Laws included in the Ninth Schedule B. 2 only
after April 24, 1973, are subject to C. Both 1 and 2
judicial review if they violate the 'basic D. Neither 1 nor 2
structure' of the Constitution. Answer: C
3. The 'basic structure' doctrine, applicable Explanation:
to the Ninth Schedule, was first  Statement 1 is correct as it defines judicial
established in the Kesavananda Bharati activism as the proactive engagement of the
case. judiciary to ensure that the legislative and
4. The direct impact and effect test, also executive branches fulfill their constitutional
known as the rights test, is used to responsibilities, pushing beyond traditional
determine the constitutional validity of limits to address social issues.
Ninth Schedule laws against the basic  Statement 2 is correct in identifying Public
structure doctrine. Interest Litigation (PIL) as a direct result of
Which of the statements above is/are judicial activism, serving as its most visible and
incorrect? impactful manifestation, facilitating greater
A. 1 only access to justice and addressing broader
B. 1and 2 only societal concerns.
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. None Q.95) Consider the following statements regarding
Answer: D the justification of judicial activism as
Explanation: discussed by various scholars:
 All statements correctly reflect the judicial 1. Judicial activism is prompted by the
review's application to the Ninth Schedule as failure of the legislature and executive to
determined by significant Supreme Court fulfill their functions, leading to a loss of
rulings. public confidence in democracy.
 Statement 1 summarizes the essence of the I.R. 2. The judiciary often steps in to protect the
Coelho judgment, Statement 2 details the rights and freedoms of citizens due to
conditions under which Ninth Schedule laws the pressure from the public and a need
post-1973 are reviewable, Statement 3 cites to address societal grievances.
the origin of the basic structure doctrine, and 3. The Constitution of India includes
Statement 4 describes the methodology used provisions that allow the judiciary to
for evaluating Ninth Schedule laws against this legislate or actively intervene, thus
doctrine. facilitating judicial activism.
4. Judicial activism includes actions taken

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 41 )

 by the judiciary to fill legislative Q.96) The concept of 'Acting Chief Justice' of a High
vacuums, thereby adapting laws to meet Court is found under which Article of the
changing social needs. Indian Constitution?
5. Subhash Kashyap highlights that judicial A. Article 223
overreach may occur when the B. Article 217
government is too weak or indecisive, C. Article 226
forcing the judiciary to make unpopular D. Article 231
decisions. Answer: A
How many of the above statements are Explanation:
correct?  Article 223 of the Indian Constitution deals with
A. Only one the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice
B. Only two when the office of Chief Justice of a High Court
C. Only three is vacant, or when the Chief Justice is unable to
D. All five perform the duties of the office
Answer: D
Explanation: Q.97) Which Amendment to the Constitution of
 Statement 1 is correct as it reflects Dr. B.L. India restored the judicial review powers of
Wadehra's view that judicial activism arises High Courts that were curtailed by the 42nd
when there is a collapse in the functioning of Amendment?
the government, undermining public trust in A. 43rd Amendment, 1977
democratic institutions. B. 44th Amendment, 1978
 Statement 2 is correct as it addresses the C. 45th Amendment, 1980
judiciary's response to public demands for D. 46th Amendment, 1982
protection of their rights, often due to Answer: A
perceived inadequacies in legislative and Explanation:
executive actions.  The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the
 Statement 3 is correct, noting that the Indian judicial review powers of High Courts, which
Constitution itself provides scopes such as had been curtailed by the 42nd Amendment
Public Interest Litigation, which empower the Act of 1976.
judiciary to take a more active role.
 Statement 4 is correct as it explains how the Q.98) Match the following groups of judicial activism
judiciary may engage in 'judicial legislation' to activators with their primary focus areas as
address areas not covered by existing laws, identified by Upendra Baxi:
reflecting an aspect of judicial activism where Groups Primary Focus
courts act due to a legislative vacuum. Areas
 Statement 5 is correct based on Subhash 1. Civil Rights Activists
Kashyap's observation that judicial activism can A. Issues of forest dwellers and
sometimes extend to making decisions on indigenous people’s rights
behalf of a non-functional legislature or a too- 2. Consumer Rights Groups
cautious executive. B. Accountability of the polity and
 All statements correctly summarize the reasons economy on consumer issues
and justifications behind judicial activism as 3. Rights of Child Groups
explained by noted scholars, making option D C. Child labor, rights to literacy, and
the correct choice. rights of children in special
circumstances

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 42 )

 4. Indigenous People’s Rights Groups  Statement 2 is correct: High Courts can issue
D. Focus on civil and political rights writs for enforcement of fundamental rights as
issues well as for other purposes under Article 226.
Match the correct pairs:  Statement 3 is correct: Parliament can extend
A. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A the jurisdiction of a High Court to include Union
B. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D territories.
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B  Hence, option (c) "2 and 3 only" is correct.
D. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
Answer: A Q.100)Consider the following statements about the
Explanation: High Courts in India:
 1-D: Civil Rights Activists focus on civil and 1. The High Court is the topmost judicial
political rights issues, correctly matched with D. authority in a state and directly below
 2-B: Consumer Rights Groups emphasize the Supreme Court.
accountability of the polity and economy on 2. Judges of the High Court are appointed
consumer issues, correctly matched with B. by the President of India after
 3-C: Rights of Child Groups deal with child consultations with key judicial figures.
labor, rights to literacy, and rights of children in 3. The tenure of a High Court judge is
special circumstances, correctly matched with determined solely by the Constitution of
C. India.
 4-A: Indigenous People’s Rights Groups focus 4. Every state in India must have a separate
on issues of forest dwellers and indigenous High Court according to the Constitution.
people’s rights, correctly matched with A. 5. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
 Option A correctly matches all pairs as outlined temporarily curtailed the judicial review
in the data provided. power of High Courts.
6. High Courts were first established in
Q.99) Consider the following statements about the Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in the
organization of High Courts in India: year 1862.
1. The Constitution mandates a specific How many of the above statements are
number of judges for each High Court. correct?
2. High Courts have the power to issue A. Only Three
writs for enforcement of both B. Only Four
fundamental and ordinary legal rights. C. Only Five
3. The Parliament can extend the D. All six
jurisdiction of a High Court to any Union Answer: B
territory. Explanation:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?  Statement 1 is correct: High Courts are at the
A. 1 only top of the judicial hierarchy in states, below
B. 2 only only the Supreme Court.
C. 2 and 3 only  Statement 2 is correct: Judges of the High
D. All the above Courts are appointed by the President after
Answer: C consultation with the Chief Justice of India and
Explanation: others.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does  Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution does
not specify the number of judges in a High not fix the tenure of a High Court judge, who
Court; it is determined by the President. holds office until the age of 62.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 43 )

 Statement 4 is incorrect: The Seventh  Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the
Amendment Act of 1956 allows for a common landmark Supreme Court decision in the
High Court for two or more states. Kesavananda Bharati case, Parliament cannot
 Statement 5 is correct: The 42nd Amendment alter the basic structure of the Constitution,
Act of 1976 did curtail judicial review powers, even though it can amend other parts.
which were later restored by the 43rd  Statement 4 is correct: The Kesavananda
Amendment Act of 1977. Bharati ruling indeed restricts Parliament's
 Statement 6 is correct: The first High Courts power to amend the Constitution by protecting
were established in 1862 in Calcutta, Bombay, its basic structure from any amendments.
and Madras.  Statement 5 is incorrect: Article 368 provides a
 Thus, option (b) "Four" is correct. mechanism for amending most parts of the
Constitution, the basic structure doctrine
Q.101)Consider the following statements regarding established by the Supreme Court prevents
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution. amendments that would alter the fundamental
1. Article 368 is located in Part XX of the aspects of the Constitution's core principles.
Constitution.
2. It allows Parliament to amend the Q.102)Consider the following statements regarding
Constitution by way of deletion, the procedure for the amendment of the
modification, or repeal. Indian Constitution as per Article 368.
3. The amendment procedure outlined in 1. An amendment can be initiated in a state
Article 368 permits changes to the basic legislature.
structure of the Constitution. 2. A private member can introduce the
4. The Supreme Court's ruling in the amendment bill without the president’s
Kesavananda Bharati case limits prior permission.
Parliament's power to amend key 3. A special majority is required for the bill
aspects of the Constitution. to pass in both Houses of Parliament.
5. Any provision of the Constitution can be 4. In case of disagreement, a joint sitting of
amended following the procedure both Houses can be convened to pass
specified in Article 368. the amendment bill.
How many of the above statements is/are 5. Ratification by half of the state
Correct? legislatures is needed if the amendment
A. Only two affects federal provisions.
B. Only three 6. The president has the power to return
C. Only four the amendment bill for reconsideration.
D. All five How many of the above statements is/are
Answer: B Correct?
Explanation: A. Only three
 Statement 1 is correct: Article 368 is indeed B. Only four
found in Part XX of the Constitution, which C. Only five
details the powers of Parliament regarding D. All six
constitutional amendments. Answer: A
 Statement 2 is correct: It describes the scope Explanation:
of Parliament's power under Article 368, which  Statement 1 is incorrect: Amendments can
includes the ability to add, modify, or repeal only be initiated by the introduction of a bill in
provisions within the Constitution. either House of Parliament, not in state

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 44 )

 legislatures. reconsideration.
 Statement 2 is correct: The bill can indeed be  Once the president gives his assent, the bill
introduced by either a minister or a private becomes a Constitutional Amendment Act,
member without needing prior permission amending the Constitution according to the
from the president. Act's terms.
 Statement 3 is correct: The bill must be passed
by a special majority in both Houses, which Q.103)Consider the following provisions of the Indian
includes a majority of the total membership Constitution.
and a two-thirds majority of those present and 1. The formation of new states and
voting. alterations of areas, boundaries, or
 Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no provision names of existing states.
for a joint sitting of both Houses in case of 2. Abolition or creation of legislative
disagreement over a constitutional amendment councils in states.
bill. 3. Amendments to the Fundamental Rights
 Statement 5 is correct: Ratification by the section.
legislatures of at least half of the states is 4. Changes to the salaries and allowances
required when the amendment concerns of members of Parliament.
federal provisions. How many of the above provisions can be
 Statement 6 is incorrect: The president must amended by a simple majority of both Houses
give his assent to a constitutional amendment of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368?
bill; he cannot return it for reconsideration. A. only one
Procedure for the amendment of the Indian B. only two
Constitution as per Article 368 C. only three
 An amendment to the Constitution can only be D. All four
initiated by introducing a bill in either House of Answer: C
Parliament, not in state legislatures. Explanation:
 The bill can be introduced by either a minister  Statement 1 is correct: The formation of new
or a private member without requiring the states and the alteration of existing states'
president's prior permission. areas, boundaries, or names can be done by a
 The bill must pass in each House by a special simple majority of Parliament, as this does not
majority: a majority of the total membership require an amendment under Article 368.
and a two-thirds majority of those present and  Statement 2 is correct: Similarly, the abolition
voting. or creation of legislative councils in states is a
 Each House must pass the bill separately, with matter that can be addressed by a simple
no provision for a joint session in case of majority.
disagreement.  Statement 3 is incorrect: Amendments to the
 Amendments affecting federal provisions must Fundamental Rights section require a special
be ratified by at least half of the state majority under Article 368, as these are critical
legislatures by a simple majority of those to the structure and ethos of the Constitution.
present and voting.  Statement 4 is correct: Changes to the salaries
 After passage by both Houses and necessary and allowances of the members of Parliament
state ratifications, the bill is presented to the can be adjusted by a simple majority.
president for assent.
 The president must give his assent to the bill; Q.104) Consider the following constitutional
he cannot withhold assent or return the bill for provisions.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 45 )

 1. Directive Principles of State Policy.  Abolition or creation of legislative councils in
2. Election procedures to the Parliament states.
and state legislatures.  Second Schedule–emoluments, allowances,
3. Fundamental Rights privileges and so on of the president, the
4. Administration of tribal areas under the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
Sixth Schedule.  Quorum in Parliament.
Which of the above provisions require a special  Salaries and allowances of the members of
majority for amendment under Article 368 of Parliament.
the Indian Constitution?  Rules of procedure in Parliament.
A. 1 and 3 only  Privileges of the Parliament, its members and
B. 1, 2, and 4 only its committees.
C. 2, 3, and 4 only  Use of English language in Parliament.
D. 1, 3, and 4 only  Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
Answer: A
 Conferment of more jurisdiction on the
Explanation: Supreme Court.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Directive Principles  Use of official language.
of State Policy are part of the constitutional
 Citizenship–acquisition and termination.
framework that guides the governance of the
 Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
country, requiring a special majority for any
 Delimitation of constituencies.
amendments to ensure stability and consensus
 Union territories.
on fundamental governance principles.
 Fifth Schedule–administration of scheduled
 Statement 2 is Incorrect: Election procedures
areas and scheduled tribes.
to Parliament and state legislatures can be
 Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas.
amended by a simple majority as these are
By Special Majority of Parliament
considered part of routine legislative functions
 The majority of the provisions in the
and administrative adjustments.
Constitution need to be amended by a special
 Statement 3 is correct: Fundamental Rights are
majority of the Parliament, that is, a majority of
amended necessitating a special majority to
the total membership of each House and a
ensure thorough scrutiny and broader
majority of two-thirds of the members of each
agreement.
House present and voting. The expression ‘total
 Statement 4 is Incorrect: Amendments related
membership’ means the total number of
to the administration of tribal areas under the
members comprising the House irrespective of
Sixth Schedule affect the rights and governance
fact whether there are vacancies or absentees.
of tribal populations, requiring a special
The provisions which can be amended by this way
majority to ensure that changes have wide
includes:
support and consider the impact on these
 Fundamental Rights;
communities.
 Directive Principles of State Policy; and
By Simple Majority of Parliament
 All other provisions which are not covered by
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be
the first and third categories.
amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Q.105) Which of the following provisions in the Indian
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These
Constitution can be amended by a special
provisions include:
majority of Parliament and the consent of half
 Admission or establishment of new states.
of the state legislatures?
 Formation of new states and alteration of
A. The preamble of the Constitution
areas, boundaries or names of existing states.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 46 )

 B. The official language of the Union Indian Constitution:
C. Distribution of legislative powers 1. The amendment process does not
between the Union and the states employ a Constitutional Convention for
D. Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III amendments.
Answer: C 2. State legislatures in India have power to
Explanation: initiate amendments to the Constitution
 The distribution of legislative powers between regarding Federal structure.
the Union and the states is a fundamental 3. A joint session of Parliament is allowed
aspect of India's federal structure. To amend for resolving deadlocks over
this, both a special majority in Parliament and constitutional amendments.
the consent of half of the state legislatures are How many of the above statements are
required, ensuring that both levels of Incorrect?
government agree to any significant changes in A. Only one
their respective powers. B. Only two
C. All three
Q.106)which level of approval is required for the D. None
parliament to amend Federal structure as per Answer: B
Article 368? Explanation:
A. Simple majority in both houses of  Statement 1 is correct: India's amendment
Parliament process indeed does not utilize a Constitutional
B. Two-thirds majority in both houses of Convention, which is a body convened to draft
Parliament a new constitution or amend an existing one.
C. Special majority in Parliament and  Statement 2 is incorrect: While state
consent of all the State Legislatures legislatures in India generally cannot initiate
D. Special majority in Parliament and constitutional amendments, they can pass a
consent of half of the State Legislatures resolution for the creation or abolition of
Answer: D legislative councils, which the Parliament can
Explanation: approve or reject.
 Article 368 of the Constitution lays down the  Statement 3 is incorrect: The Indian
procedure for its amendment. To amend this Constitution does not provide for a joint
article, there is a requirement for a 'special session of Parliament to resolve deadlocks over
majority' in Parliament, which means a majority constitutional amendment bills, which is a
(that is, more than 50%) of the total procedure applicable only for ordinary
membership of each House and a majority of legislation.
two-thirds of the members of each House
present and voting. In addition, since this Q.108) Consider the following statements regarding
provision affects the federal structure of the the provisions for constitutional amendments
Constitution, the amendment must also be in India:
ratified by the legislatures of half of the states. 1. There is no specified time limit for state
This ensures both a robust consensus in the legislatures to ratify an amendment
Union Parliament and significant agreement proposed by Parliament.
among the states. 2. The consent of the state legislatures is
not mandatory for most constitutional
Q.107) Consider the following statements about the amendments.
criticism of amendment procedure of the 3. The Indian Constitution allows for

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 47 )

 amendments to be passed using a simple Constitution's basic features.
majority in some instances. Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the above statements is/are given below:
Incorrect? A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B, 5-C
B. 2 and 3 only C. 1-A, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D, 5-C
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C, 5-E
D. None of the above Answer: A
Answer: D Explanation:
Explanation:  The Shankari Prasad case (1951) ruled that
 Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution Parliament could amend Fundamental Rights
does not prescribe a specific time frame for  The Golak Nath case (1967) held that
state legislatures to ratify constitutional Fundamental Rights could not be abridged by
amendments. Parliament
 Statement 2 is correct: Most constitutional  The Waman Rao case (1981) stated that the
amendments in India do not require the basic structure doctrine would apply to
consent of state legislatures; this consent is constitutional amendments after April 24, 1973
only needed for certain amendments that  The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
affect federal features. established the basic structure doctrine.
 Statement 3 is correct: Some parts of the  The Minerva Mills case (1980) found that a
Constitution can be amended by a simple constitutional amendment cannot destroy the
majority in Parliament, similar to ordinary Constitution's basic features.
legislative processes, rather than the special
majority required for most amendments. Match the Amendment Acts in List-I with their
Q.110)
corresponding provisions in List-II:
Q.109) Match the cases related to constitutional List-I (Amendment Acts) List-II(Provisions)
amendments in List-I with their respective 1. 102nd Amendment Act
descriptions in List-II and select the correct A) Constitutional status for NCBC
answer using the codes given below: 2. 103rd Amendment Act
List-I (Cases) List-II (Descriptions) B) 10% EWS reservation
1. Shankari Prasad case 3. 104th Amendment Act
A. Parliament has the power to C) Extended SC/ST reservation; no
amend Fundamental Rights. Anglo-Indian reserved seats
2. Golak Nath case 4. 105th Amendment Act
B. Fundamental Rights are D) States' power for SEBC list
immutable and cannot be 5. 106th Amendment Act
abridged by Parliament E) Women’s reservation in
3. Waman Rao case legislatures
C. Basic structure doctrine applies to choose the correct answer using the codes
amendments after April 24, 1973. given below:
4. Kesavananda Bharati case A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E
D. Established the basic structure B. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-E, 5-C
doctrine C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-A, 5-B
5. Minerva Mills case D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-E, 5-A
E. Amendment cannot destroy the Answer: A

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 48 )

Explanation:  Finally, the Waman Rao case in 1981 stated
 The 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 granted that the basic structure doctrine would apply to
constitutional status to the NCBC constitutional amendments after April 24,
 The 103rd Amendment Act, 2019 introduced a 1973.
10% reservation for the EWS category.
 The 104th Amendment Act, 2020 extended the Q.112)Consider the following statements in relation
reservation for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha to the Supreme Court's stance on
and state assemblies and removed the constitutional amendments:
reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community. 1. The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) was
 The 105th Amendment Act, 2021 restored the enacted to assert that Parliament's
states' authority to identify SEBCs and prepare power to amend the Constitution is
their list. unlimited.
 The 106th Amendment Act, 2023 was for the 2. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills
reservation of one-third of seats for women in case (1980) upheld the 42nd
the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies. Amendment, confirming that Parliament
can amend any part of the Constitution
Q.111)Arrange the following landmark cases in the without limitations.
chronological order of their judgement by the Which of the statements given above is/are
Supreme Court of India correct?
1. Shankari Prasad case A. 1 only
2. Golak Nath case B. 2 only
3. Waman Rao case C. Both 1 and 2
4. Kesavananda Bharati case D. Neither 1 nor 2
5. Minerva Mills case Answer: A
choose the correct answer using the codes Explanation:
given below:  Statement 1: Correct - The 42nd Amendment
A. 1-2-4-5-3 was indeed an attempt by Parliament to assert
B. 1-2-3-4-5 that its amending power was without legal
C. 1-4-2-5-3 limits.
D. 1-2-4-3-5  Statement 2: Incorrect - In the Minerva Mills
Answer: A case, the Supreme Court invalidated the
Explanation: specific provision of the 42nd Amendment that
 The Shankari Prasad case was decided in 1951, declared Parliament's power to amend as
where it was ruled that Parliament could unlimited, thus reinforcing the 'basic structure'
amend Fundamental Rights. doctrine that certain aspects of the
 The Golak Nath case came next in 1967, which Constitution are beyond the reach of
held that Fundamental Rights could not be parliamentary amendment.
abridged by Parliament.
 Subsequently, the Kesavananda Bharati case in Q.113) Consider the following events in the history of
1973 established the basic structure doctrine. the Indian Constitution:
 The Minerva Mills case was in 1980, where it 1. The Supreme Court in the Shankari
was found that a constitutional amendment Prasad case (1951) ruled that
cannot destroy the Constitution's basic Parliament's power to amend the
features. Constitution includes the power to
amend Fundamental Rights.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 49 )

 2. The doctrine of the 'basic structure' of Answer: C
the Constitution, established in the Explanation:
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), was  Statement 1 is correct: The Supremacy of the
applied in the Waman Rao case (1981) to Constitution is a fundamental aspect of the
amendments made after April 24, 1973. basic structure, ensuring that all laws and
Which of the statements given above is/are policies must conform to the principles
correct? outlined in the Constitution.
A. 1 only  Statement 2 is correct: The secular character of
B. 2 only the Constitution is crucial as it maintains the
C. Both 1 and 2 state's neutrality in religious matters, a core
D. Neither 1 nor 2 principle upheld as part of India’s basic
Answer: C structure.
Explanation:  Statement 3 is Incorrect: Indefinite Power of
 Statement 1: Correct - In the Shankari Prasad Parliament to amend the Constitution is not
case, the Supreme Court ruled that the power part of Basic structure, while Limited power of
of the Parliament to amend the Constitution Parliament to amend the Constitution is part of
under Article 368 includes the power to amend Basic structure.
the Fundamental Rights, and such amendments  Statement 4 is correct: The federal character of
would not be void under Article 13. the Constitution describes the allocation of
 Statement 2: Correct - In the Waman Rao case, power between the central government and
the Supreme Court upheld the 'basic structure' states, a foundational element that cannot be
doctrine, stating that it applies to constitutional dismantled.
amendments enacted after the date of the  Statement 5 is correct: The unity and integrity
judgement in the Kesavananda Bharati case, of the nation are paramount, forming an
thereby protecting the core principles of the undisputed part of the basic structure, ensuring
Constitution from alteration through national cohesion.
subsequent amendments.  Statement 6 is correct: The principle of free
and fair elections underpins the democratic
Q.114) Consider the following elements of Indian ethos of the nation, essential for the legitimacy
Constitution. of its democratic institutions and thus part of
1. Supremacy of the Constitution the basic structure.
2. Secular character of the Constitution  Statement 7 is correct: The independence of
3. Indefinite Power of Parliament to amend the judiciary is critical to uphold the rule of law
the Constitution and to ensure checks and balances within the
4. Federal character of the Constitution government structure, definitively recognized
5. Unity and integrity of the nation as part of the basic structure.
6. Free and fair elections
7. Independence of Judiciary Q.115) Match List-I (Cases) with List-II (Key
Which of the above is/are recognized as Principles). select the correct answer using the
elements of the 'basic structure' of the Indian codes given below:
Constitution. List-I (Cases) List-II (Key Principles)
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 7 1. Central Coal Fields Ltd. Case (1980)
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 A. Effective access to justice
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, and 7 2. Bhim Singhji Case (1981)
D. All of the above B. Welfare State (Socioeconomic

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 50 )

 justice) Explanation:
3. S.P. Sampath Kumar Case (1987) 1. Delhi Judicial Service Association Case
C. Rule of law and Judicial review elaborated on the extensive powers of the
4. P. Sambamurthy Case (1987) Supreme Court under various articles including
D. Rule of law 32 and 142 (A).
select the correct answer using the codes given 2. Indra Sawhney Case, also known as the Mandal
below: Case, dealt with the rule of law, particularly in
A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D the context of reservation policies (B).
B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C 3. Kumar Padma Prasad Case concerned the
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B independence of the judiciary (C).
D. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A 4. Kihoto Hollohon Case, known as the Defection
Answer: B Case, focused on free and fair elections and the
Explanation: underlying principles of a sovereign,
 Central Coal Fields Ltd. Case dealt with the rule democratic, and republican structure (D).
of law (D).
 Bhim Singhji Case focused on effective access Q.117)Consider the following statements regarding
to justice (A). the recommendations of the Balwant Rai
 S.P. Sampath Kumar Case highlighted the Mehta Committee for the establishment of
importance of Welfare State (Socioeconomic Panchayati Raj institutions.
justice) 1. The Panchayati Raj system should have a
 P. Sambamurthy Case also dealt with the rule three-tier structure: gram panchayat,
of law and judicial review (C). panchayat samiti, and zila parishad.
2. The gram panchayat members should be
Match List-I (Cases) with List-II (Key
Q.116) indirectly elected, while panchayat samiti
Principles). and zila parishad members directly
List-I (Cases) List-II (Key Principles) elected.
1. Delhi Judicial Service Association Case 3. The district collector should be the
(1991) chairman of the zila parishad.
A. Powers of the Supreme Court 4. The panchayat samiti should act as the
under Articles 32, 136, 141, and executive body, with the zila parishad
142 serving an advisory role.
2. Indra Sawhney Case (1992) 5. All planning and development activities
B. Rule of law should be entrusted to these Panchayati
3. Kumar Padma Prasad Case (1992) Raj bodies.
C. Independence of judiciary 6. Limited resources should be transferred
4. Kihoto Hollohon Case (1993) to these bodies to enable them to earn
D. Free and fair elections; Sovereign, finances themselves
democratic, republican structure Which of the above statements is/are Correct?
select the correct answer using the codes given A. 1, 4, 5, and 6
below: B. 2, 3, 5, and 6
A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C D. All of the above
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B Answer: C
D. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A Explanation:
Answer: A  Statement 1 is correct: The Balwant Rai Mehta

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 51 )

 Committee did recommend a three-tier the second state to adopt the Panchayati Raj
structure for Panchayati Raj consisting of the system, also in the year 1959.
gram panchayat, panchayat samiti, and zila  Statement 3 is incorrect: Not all states adopted
parishad. a uniform three-tier system; there were
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is the opposite; the variations, with some states like Tamil Nadu
gram panchayat members should be directly adopting a two-tier system, while West Bengal
elected, whereas the panchayat samiti and zila adopted a four-tier system.
parishad should have indirectly elected
members. Q.119)Consider the following statements about the
 Statement 3 is correct: The committee Panchayati Raj institutions in various Indian
recommended that the district collector should states:
be the chairman of the zila parishad. 1. In the Rajasthan-Andhra Pradesh model,
 Statement 4 is correct: According to the the Panchayat Samiti is the focal point
committee, the panchayat samiti should be the for planning and development.
executive body, and the zila parishad should 2. The Maharashtra-Gujarat model places
serve as the advisory, coordinating, and greater emphasis on the Zila Parishad for
supervisory body. planning and development.
 Statement 5 is correct: The committee 3. Nyaya Panchayats were established in
recommended that all planning and some states to adjudicate minor civil and
development activities should be the criminal cases.
responsibility of the Panchayati Raj bodies. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 Statement 6 is incorrect: Adequate resources A. 1 and 2 only
should be transferred to these bodies to enable B. 2 and 3 only
them to fulfill their responsibilities. C. 1 and 3 only
D. All the above
Q.118)Consider the following statements regarding Answer: D
Panchayati Raj in India: Explanation:
1. Rajasthan was the first state to  Statement 1 is correct: In the Rajasthan-
implement the Panchayati Raj system. Andhra Pradesh pattern of Panchayati Raj, the
2. Andhra Pradesh adopted the Panchayati Panchayat Samiti at the block level is indeed
Raj system after Rajasthan powerful and central to planning and
3. All states have uniformly adopted a development.
three-tier system for Panchayati Raj.  Statement 2 is correct: The Maharashtra-
How many of the above statements are Gujarat pattern gives more power to the Zila
correct? Parishad at the district level for planning and
A. Only one development.
B. Only two  Statement 3 is correct: Some states set up
C. All three Nyaya Panchayats as judicial bodies at the local
D. None level to try petty civil and criminal cases.
Answer: B
Explanation: Q.120) Arrange the following committees in the
 Statement 1 is correct: Rajasthan was indeed chronological order of their formation.
the first state in India to establish Panchayati 1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Raj, launching the system in 1959. 2. Ashok Mehta Committee
 Statement 2 is correct: Andhra Pradesh was 3. G.V.K. Rao Committee

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 52 )

 4. Thungon Committee of the above statements?
5. L.M. Singhvi Committee A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
6. Gadgil Committee correct and Statement-II is the correct
Select the correct answer using the codes explanation for Statement-I
given below: B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
A. 1-2-3-4-5-6 correct and Statement-II is not the
B. 1-2-3-5-4-6 correct explanation for Statement-I
C. 1-3-2-4-5-6 C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
D. 1-2-4-3-6-5 incorrect
Answer: B D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Explanation: is correct
 Balwant Rai Mehta Committee: Established in Answer: C
January 1957, it was the first to examine the Explanation:
Community Development Programme and  Statement-I is correct as the 73rd Amendment
National Extension Service. Act indeed institutionalized the Panchayati Raj
 Ashok Mehta Committee: Formed in by adding a new part to the Constitution of
December 1977, it reviewed panchayati raj India, thereby giving it a constitutional status
institutions. and making it justiciable.
 G.V.K. Rao Committee: Set up in 1985, it  Statement-II is incorrect because the
reviewed administrative arrangements for Panchayati Raj institutions are meant to
Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation function as units of local self-government
Programs. rather than federal agencies, giving states the
 L.M. Singhvi Committee: Also formed in 1986, autonomy to adapt the system based on local
but mentioned after the Thungon Committee in needs and circumstances.
the arrangement to focus on revitalizing
Panchayati Raj Institutions. Q.122) Consider the following statements about the
 Thungon Committee: Established in 1988, it provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act of
focused on the political and administrative 1992:
structure for district planning Statement-I: The act mandates a three-tier
 Gadgil Committee: Constituted in 1988, the system of Panchayati Raj across all states,
same year as the Thungon Committee, but is irrespective of their population.
placed last in the given sequence. Statement-II: States with a population not
exceeding 20 lakhs are not required to
Q.121) Consider the following statements regarding establish Panchayats at the intermediate level.
the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992: Which one of the following is correct in respect
Statement-I: The 73rd Amendment Act of the above statements?
introduced constitutional status to the A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Panchayati Raj institutions by adding Part-IX to correct and Statement-II is the correct
the Constitution of India, encompassing explanation for Statement-I
provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement-II: The 73rd Amendment Act correct and Statement-II is not the
mandates the Panchayati Raj system to correct explanation for Statement-I
function as federal agencies, directly under the C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
control of the central government. incorrect
Which one of the following is correct in respect D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 53 )

 is correct specified as "at least half" within the Act itself
Answer: D for all situations;
Explanation:  Statement 3 is correct: Management of minor
 Statement-I is incorrect because the 73rd water bodies is indeed one of the
Amendment Act does not uniformly mandate a responsibilities entrusted to Panchayats at the
three-tier system across all states; it allows for appropriate level under the PESA Act,
flexibility depending on the state's population. promoting local governance and sustainability.
 Statement-II is correct, as it correctly reflects  Statement 4 is correct: The Act mandates that
those states with a population not exceeding any land acquisition in Scheduled Areas must
20 lakhs may choose not to have Panchayats at have the approval of the Gram Sabha, ensuring
the intermediate level, providing a degree of that local communities have a say in matters
adaptability based on demographic that affect their land and livelihoods.
considerations.  Statement 5 is incorrect: The act does not
specify that states can nominate ST members
Q.123)Consider the following statements about the up to one-tenth of total members. It allows for
Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the representation but does not set this specific
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA Act): limit.
1. Village Panchayats require Gram Sabha
certification for fund utilization. Q.124)Arrange the following events in the
2. Scheduled Tribes must have all the seats development of urban local government in
in Panchayats. India in their chronological order.
3. Minor water body management is 1. Establishment of the first municipal
entrusted to Panchayats at the corporation in Madras.
appropriate level. 2. Establishment of municipal corporations
4. Land acquisition in Scheduled Areas in Bombay and Calcutta.
requires Gram Sabha approval. 3. Lord Mayo's Resolution on financial
5. States can nominate ST members to decentralisation.
Panchayats up to one-tenth of total 4. Lord Ripon's Resolution, hailed as the
members. 'Magna Carta' of local self-government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 5. The Royal Commission on
A. 1, 3, and 4 decentralisation submits its report.
B. 1, 2, and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes given
C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 below:
D. All of the above A. 1-2-3-4-5
Answer: A B. 1-3-2-4-5
Explanation: C. 3-4-2-1-5
 Statement 1 is correct: The PESA Act requires D. 5-3-4-2-1
that village Panchayats must obtain Answer: A
certification from the Gram Sabha for the Explanation:
utilization of funds, which ensures  Establishment of the first municipal
accountability and transparency in financial corporation in Madras: This event took place in
matters. 1688, marking the beginning of formal
 Statement 2 is incorrect: While the PESA Act municipal governance in India.
mandates significant representation of  Establishment of municipal corporations in
Scheduled Tribes, the exact proportion is Bombay and Calcutta: These were established

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 54 )

 in 1726, following the model set up in Madras. designed to cater to different urbanization
 Lord Mayo's Resolution on financial levels and administrative needs.
decentralisation: Occurred in 1870,  Statement-II is incorrect because there is a
emphasizing the development of local self- provision within the act that allows the
government institutions. governor to specify certain urban areas as
 Lord Ripon's Resolution: Issued in 1882, it industrial townships. In such cases, these areas
significantly influenced the development of are exempted from constituting a municipality
local self-governance in India, providing a if municipal services are being provided by an
framework that many later policies were based industrial establishment. This flexibility
upon. recognizes the unique administrative and
 The Royal Commission on decentralisation: service needs of industrial areas.
This commission was appointed in 1907 and its
findings were published in 1909, further Q.126)Under which condition can the act of
pushing the agenda for decentralized reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
governance. Scheduled Tribes in municipalities cease to
have effect after a certain period as specified
Q.125)Consider the following statements regarding in the Constitution?
the provisions of the act for municipalities: A. If the state legislature decides to abolish
Statement-I: The act mandates the constitution reservations.
of three types of municipalities for every state: B. After the expiration of the period
Nagar panchayats, municipal councils, and specified in Article 334.
municipal corporations. C. When the population ratio changes in
Statement-II: The governor can never exempt the municipal area.
any urban area from constituting a municipality D. If there is a unanimous decision by the
under this act, regardless of the circumstances. municipality council.
Which one of the following is correct in respect Answer: B
of the above statements? Explanation:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are  The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes
correct and Statement-II is the correct and Scheduled Tribes in municipalities is
explanation for Statement-I subject to a period specified in Article 334 of
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the Constitution. After this period, which was
correct and Statement-II is not the set to seventy years at the time of the
correct explanation for Statement-I Constitution's commencement, the reservation
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is of seats for these categories will cease to have
incorrect effect, unless an extension is enacted by
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II Parliament.
is correct
Answer: C Q.127)What is the stipulated term of office for a
Explanation: municipality as provided by the act?
 Statement-I is correct as it describes the types A. Three years
of municipalities that the act mandates for B. Four years
every state: nagar panchayats for transitional C. Five years
areas, municipal councils for smaller urban D. Six years
areas, and municipal corporations for larger Answer: C
urban areas. This structured approach is Explanation:

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 55 )

 The act provides for a five-year term of office C. Both 1 and 2
for every municipality. It stipulates that the D. Neither 1 nor 2
municipality should complete its term unless it Answer: C
is dissolved earlier, and in case of dissolution, Explanation:
fresh elections must be held within six months  Statement 1: Correct - A town area committee
unless the remainder of the term is less than six is indeed set up for managing the civic
months. administration of small towns and is
responsible for basic municipal functions such
Q.128)On what grounds can a person be disqualified as sanitation and street lighting.
from being a member of a municipality?  Statement 2: Correct - The composition of the
A. If the person is less than 21 years of age town area committee can vary, with members
B. If the person is less than 25 years of age either being elected, nominated by the state
but has attained the age of 21 years government, or a mix of both, as determined
C. If the person is disqualified under any by the act of the state legislature that
law for the purposes of elections to the establishes it.
legislature of the state concerned
D. If the person is a non-resident of the Q.130)Consider the following statements regarding
municipality Cantonment Boards in India:
Answer: C 1. Cantonment Boards function under the
Explanation: administrative control of the Central
 A person can be disqualified from being chosen government.
as, or from being, a member of a municipality if 2. The Cantonment Act of 2006 aims to
he is disqualified under any law for the time provide democratic governance and
being in force for the purposes of elections to improve financial management in
the legislature of the state concerned or under cantonments.
any law made by the state legislature. 3. The executive officer of the Cantonment
However, no person shall be disqualified on the Board is appointed by the state
ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he government.
has attained the age of 21 years. How many of the above statements are
Disqualification questions are referred to an Incorrect?
authority determined by the state legislature. A. Only one
B. Only two
Q.129) Consider the following statements about the C. All three
town area committee: D. None
1. It is established for the administration of Answer: A
small towns and performs limited civic Explanation:
functions.  Statement 1 is correct: Cantonment Boards
2. The town area committee may be indeed operate under the administrative
constituted entirely through elections, control of the Central government, specifically
nominations by the state government, or the Defence Ministry.
a combination of both.  Statement 2 is correct: The Cantonment Act of
Which of the statements given above is/are 2006 was enacted with the objectives of
correct? ensuring greater democratization and
A. 1 only improving the financial base of cantonments
B. 2 only for development purposes.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 56 )

 Statement 3 is incorrect: The executive officer has exclusive powers to make such laws, which
of a Cantonment Board is appointed by the means that the laws passed by the Parliament
President of India, not the state government. can apply to Indian citizens and their property
anywhere in the world. This extraterritorial
Q.131)Consider the following statements regarding reach is essential for matters such as
the legislative powers in India: international trade, diplomatic relations, and
1. The Parliament of India is empowered to overseas crimes involving Indian nationals.
make laws for any part or the whole of
the territory of India, which includes Q.132)Who among the following can make
states, union territories, and other areas regulations for the peace, progress and good
within the territory. government of the Union Territories– the
2. A state legislature can legislate for the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep
entire state or any part of it, and also and Ladakh?
outside the state if there is a significant A. Prime Minister
connection between the state and the B. Governor
subject matter. C. President
3. Only the Parliament is authorized to D. Parliament
enact laws that have an extraterritorial Answer: C
scope, applicable to Indian citizens and Explanation:
their property anywhere in the world.  The President can make regulations for the
Which among the above statements is/are peace, progress and good government of the
correct? five Union Territories– the Andaman and
A. 1 and 2 only Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and
B. 2 and 3 only Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu and Ladakh. A
C. 1 and 3 only regulation so made has the same force and
D. 1, 2, and 3 effect as an act of Parliament. It may also
Answer: D repeal or amend any act of Parliament in
Explanation: relation to these union territories.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament of India
has the authority to make laws for the entire Consider the following Statements
Q.133)
territory of India or any part thereof. The 1. The Members of the Council of States are
'territory of India' is a term that encompasses elected by the elected members of the
the states, union territories, and any area that Legislative assemblies of the states by
is considered a part of India at any given time. means of single transferable vote.
 Statement 2 is correct: State legislatures have 2. The Nominated members are appointed
the power to make laws pertaining to their by the President, because of their special
respective states or parts of them. However, knowledge in literature, art and science
these laws generally do not have jurisdiction etc.
outside the state unless there is a 'sufficient Which of the Following Statements given
nexus' or connection between the state and above is/are incorrect?
the object of the law, which can extend their A. 1 only
applicability beyond the state's borders. B. 2 only
 Statement 3 is correct: 'Extraterritorial C. Both 1 and 2
legislation' refers to laws that apply beyond the D. Neither 1 and 2
territorial boundaries of India. The Parliament Answer: D

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 57 )

Explanation: circumstances” exclusive powers to make laws
Both the statements are correct. with respect to any of the matters enumerated
 The representatives of each State in the Council in the State List. This has at present 59 subjects
of States shall be elected by the elected (originally 66 subjects) like public order, police,
members of the Legislative Assembly of the public health and sanitation, agriculture,
State in accordance with the system of prisons, local government, fisheries, markets,
proportional representation by means of the theaters, gambling etc.
single transferable vote. The representatives of  Both, the Parliament and state legislature can
the Union territories in the Council of States make laws with respect to any of the matters
shall be chosen in such manner as Parliament enumerated in the Concurrent List. This list has
may by law prescribe. at present 52 subjects (originally 47 subjects)
 The allocation of seats in the Council of States like criminal law and procedure, civil
to be filled by representatives of the States and procedure, marriage and divorce, population
of the Union territories shall be in accordance control and family planning, electricity, labour
with the provisions contained in the Fourth welfare, economic and social planning, drugs,
Schedule. The members to be nominated by newspapers, books and printing press, and
the President shall consist of persons having others.
special knowledge or practical experience in
respect of such matters as the following, Q.135) Consider the following pairs:
Literature, science, art and social service. Article No. Subject Matter
1. Article 52 - The President of India
Q.134)Consider the following 2. Article 74
1. Banking - Council of ministers to aid and advise
2. Foreign affairs the President
3. Currency 3. Article 153 - Governors of states
4. Atomic energy 4. Article 161
5. Agriculture - Power of the Governor to grant
6. Prisons pardons and others
The Parliament has exclusive powers to make Which among the following is/are correctly
laws with respect to how of the matters listed matched?
above? A. 1, 2 and 3 only
A. Only two B. 2 and 4 only
B. Only three C. 1 and 4 only
C. Only Four D. 1, 2 ,3 and 4
D. All six Answer: D
Answer: C Explanation:
Explanation: All the options are correctly matched.
 The Parliament has exclusive powers to make  Article 52 - The President of India
laws with respect to any of the matters  Article 74 - Council of ministers to aid and
enumerated in the Union List. This list has at advise the President
present 98 subjects (originally 91 subjects) like  Article 153 - Governors of states
defence, banking, foreign affairs, currency,  Article 161 - Power of the Governor to grant
atomic energy, insurance, communication, pardons and others
inter-state trade and commerce, census etc.
 The state legislature has “in normal Q.136) Consider the following:

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 58 )

 1. National Emergency
2. President’s Rule Q.137)Consider the following statements regarding
3. To Implement International Agreements the 91st Amendment Act of 2003:
4. When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution 1. The total number of ministers, including
In how many of the above situations does the the Prime Minister, in the Council of
Constitution empowers the Parliament to make Ministers, is capped at 15% of the total
laws on any matter given in the State List? members of the Lok Sabha.
A. Only one 2. A member of either house of Parliament
B. Only two who is disqualified due to defection is
C. Only three also disqualified from being appointed as
D. All Four a minister.
Answer: D Which of the above statements is/are
Explanation: incorrect?
The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make A. 1 only
laws on any matter enumerated in the State List B. 2 only
under the following five extraordinary circumstances: C. Both 1 and 2
 Rajya Sabha Resolution: If two-thirds of the D. Neither 1 nor 2
members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha Answer: C
deem it necessary for the national interest, Explanation:
Parliament can legislate on any matter in the  Statement 1 is correct. The 91st Amendment
State List. Such a resolution is effective for one Act of 2003 introduced a cap on the size of the
year and can be renewed annually. The laws number of ministers, including the Prime
expire six months after the resolution ceases. Minister, to not exceed 15% of the total
 National Emergency: During a proclaimed strength of the Lok Sabha.
national emergency, Parliament gains the  Statement 2 is correct. The same amendment
authority to legislate on all matters in the State strengthened the anti-defection laws by
List. These laws cease to operate six months stipulating that any member of Parliament who
after the emergency ends. is disqualified on the grounds of defection
 State Request: If two or more state legislatures under the Tenth Schedule is also disqualified
request Parliament to legislate on a particular from being appointed as a minister.
state matter, Parliament can enact laws that
apply only to those states. Other states can opt Q.138) Consider the following:
in later by passing a resolution. 1. All the members of both the Houses of
 International Agreements: To fulfill Parliament
international obligations, Parliament can 2. The elected members of the legislative
legislate on any matter in the State List assemblies of the states;
necessary for implementing international 3. The elected members of the legislative
treaties, agreements, or conventions. assemblies of the Union Territories of
 President's Rule: When President’s Rule is Delhi and Puducherry
imposed in a state, Parliament can legislate on Which of the statements given above does the
any matter in the State List concerning that electoral college of the President represent?
state. Laws made in this situation continue to A. 1 and 2 only
operate even after the President's Rule ends, B. 1 and 3 only
although they can be modified or repealed by C. 2 and 3 only
the state legislature later. D. 1,2 and 3

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 59 )

Answer: C advocate general of a state and determines his
Explanation: remuneration. The advocate general holds
The President shall be elected by the members of an office during the pleasure of the governor.
electoral college consisting of—  Statement 2 is correct: He appoints the state
(a) the elected members of both Houses of election commissioner and determines his
Parliament, statement 1 is incorrect. conditions of service and tenure of office.
(b) the elected members of the Legislative  Statement 3 is correct: He appoints the
Assemblies of the States. Statement 2 is chairman and members of the state public
correct. service commission.
(c) the elected members of the legislative
assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Q.141) With regard to pardoning power of the
Puducherry, Statement 3 is correct. President, which of statements given below
is/are incorrect?
Q.139)A Cabinet Minister can be removed by the A. The pardoning power of the President is
President: an executive power.
A. On his own discretion B. He can grant pardons to persons who
B. With the consent of the Speaker have been sentenced for an offence
C. On the advice of the Prime Minister against a Union Law
D. On the advice of the Judiciary C. The President can pardon death
Answer: C sentence while the Governor of a state
Explanation: cannot.
 To dismiss a minister or a cabinet minister, the D. The President cannot pardon sentences
President requires the consent from the Prime inflicted by court martial.
Minister. Answer: D
 Though all the executive authority is vested in Explanation:
the President, in practice, it has to be exercised Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President
only under the aid and advice of the Council of to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and
Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, except convicted of any offence in all cases where the
when he is required to act on his own 1. Punishment or sentence is for an offence
discretion. against a Union Law .
2. Punishment or sentence is by a court martial
Q.140)Consider the following: (military court); Statement 4 is incorrect. and
1. State election commissioner 3. When the sentence is a sentence of death
2. Advocate general of a state
3. Chairman and members of the state Q.142) Consider the following:
public service commission 1. Morarji Desai
Which of these constitutional functionaries 2. Charan Singh
is/are appointed by the Governor? 3. V.P. Singh
A. 2 only 4. H.D. Deve Gowda
B. 1 and 2 only 5. Narendra Modi
C. 1 and 3 only How many among the following served as chief
D. All the above Minister before becoming Prime Minister of
Answer: D India?
Explanation: A. Only two
 Statement 1 is correct: He appoints the B. Only three

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 60 )

 C. Only four sentence, particularly to allow time to seek
D. All five further relief such as a pardon or commutation.
Answer: D
Explanation: Q.144)Consider the following statements regarding
 Six people–Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, V.P. the constitutional positions of the Governor
Singh, P.V. Narasimha Rao, H.D. Deve Gowda and the President of India:
and Narendra Modi–became Prime Ministers 1. The Constitution allows the Governor to
after being Chief Ministers of their respective act at his discretion in certain situations,
States. whereas no such provision exists for the
 P.V. Narasimha Rao, the first Prime Minister President.
from South India, who held the post from 2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment in
1991–1996, was Chief Minister of Andhra 1976, made ministerial advice mandatory
Pradesh between 1971–1973. for the President to follow, but no such
limit has been made to the Governor.
Q.143)Consider the following pairs: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Types of Pardon Descriptions A. 1 only
1. Commutation B. 2 only
- reducing the period of sentence C. Both 1 and 2
without changing its character. D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Remission Answer: C
- substitution of one form of Explanation:
punishment for a lighter form.  Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Constitution
3. Respite explicitly provides instances where the
- stay of the execution of a sentence Governor can act according to his discretion, an
for a temporary period. authority not granted to the President.
4. Reprieve  Statement 2 is correct. After the 42nd
- lesser sentence in place of one Amendment to the Constitution in 1976, it
originally awarded sentence became constitutionally mandatory for the
How many among the following is/are correctly President to act based on ministerial advice,
matched? thereby limiting the President's discretion and
A. Only one emphasizing the principle of parliamentary
B. Only two supremacy. However, the Governor was not
C. All four subjected to a similar explicit binding provision.
D. None
Answer: D Q.145) Consider the following:
Explanation: 1. Bill pending in the House of People
 Commutation involves the substitution of one 2. When the houses are prorogued.
form of punishment for a lighter form. 3. Bill to be taken up in a Joint Session
 Remission refers to reducing the period of the which has not yet been convened by the
sentence without changing its character President.
 Respite is about awarding a lesser sentence In which of the following cases, does a bill in
because of special circumstances like the the Parliament lapse on the dissolution of the
physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy House of People?
of a woman offender. A. 1 and 2
 Reprieve implies a delay in the execution of a B. 2 and 3

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 61 )

 C. 1 and 3 D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
D. All of the above is correct
Answer: C Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: A Bill pending in  Statement-I is correct. According to the
Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the constitutional provisions, the total number of
prorogation of the Houses. A Bill pending in the members in the Legislative Council of a state
Council of States which has not been passed by should not exceed one-third of the total
the House of the People shall not lapse on a number of members in the Legislative
dissolution of the House of the People. Assembly of that state.
 Statement 1 and 3 are correct: A Bill which is  Statement-II is correct. The Members of the
pending in the House of the People, or which Legislative Council indeed have almost equal
having been passed by the House of the People legislative powers as the Members of the
is pending in the Council of States, shall lapse Legislative Assembly, except in matters of
on a dissolution of the House of the People. Money Bills and certain types of Financial Bills.
Similarly, Bills not passed by either of the  Except Money Bills and other financial Bills, a
Houses and waiting to be discussed in a joint Bill may originate in either House of the
session, lapse, on the dissolution of the Lower Legislature of a State which has a Legislative
House. Council. Subject to the provisions of the
 The President may, unless the Bill has elapsed constitution, a Bill shall not be deemed to have
by reason of a dissolution of the House of the been passed by the Houses of the Legislature of
People, notify to the Houses by message if they a State having a Legislative Council unless it has
are sitting or by public notification if they are been agreed to by both Houses, either without
not sitting, his intention to summon them to amendment or with such amendments only as
meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of are agreed to by both Houses.
deliberating and voting on the Bill.
Q.147)Which/who among the following can
Q.146) Consider the following statements: authorize the Parliament to create new All-
Statement-I: The Members of Legislative India Services common to both the Centre and
council should not exceed 1/3rd of the states?
members of the State Assembly. A. President of India
Statement-II: The Members of the Legislative B. House of People
Council have equal powers in the Legislative C. Council of States
procedure except in the case of Money bills D. Inter-State Council
and Financial Bills. Answer: C
Which one of the following is correct in Explanation:
respect of the above statements?  Due to its federal character, the Rajya Sabha/
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Council of states has been given two exclusive
correct and Statement-II is the correct or special powers that are not enjoyed by the
explanation for Statement-I Lok Sabha.
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are  It can authorize the Parliament to make a law
correct and Statement-II is not the on a subject enumerated in the State List
correct explanation for Statement-1 (Article 249).
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is  It can authorize the Parliament to create new
incorrect All-India Services common to both the Centre

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 62 )

 and states (Article 312). Hence option C is President, with its advice being legally
correct binding.
4. It handles all significant legislative,
Q.148)Consider the following statements about the financial matters, and appointments of
rights of ministers in the parliamentary constitutional authorities.
proceedings: How many among the following is/are correct
1. A minister has the right to speak and regarding the roles played by the cabinet?
participate in the proceedings of either A. Only one
House of Parliament, joint sittings of B. Only two
both Houses, and any committee of C. Only three
which they are a member. D. All four
2. A minister is entitled to vote in any of the Answer: D
proceedings or committees of Explanation:
Parliament. All are correct
Which of the above statements is/are correct? ROLE OF CABINET
A. 1 only  It is the highest decision-making authority in
B. 2 only our politico administrative system.
C. Both 1 and 2  It is the chief policy formulating body of the
D. Neither 1 nor 2 Central government.
Answer: A  It is the supreme executive authority of the
Explanation: Central government.
According to Article 88–Rights of Ministers as  It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
Respects the Houses  It is an advisory body to the president and its
 Statement 1 is correct. Every minister has the advice is binding on him.
right to speak and take part in the proceedings  It is the chief crisis manager and thus deals with
of either House of Parliament, any joint all emergency situations.
session, and any parliamentary committee of  It deals with all major legislative and financial
which they might be named a member. This matters.
ensures that ministers can adequately present  It exercises control over higher appointments
and defend government policies and actions like constitutional authorities and senior
across the different branches of the legislative secretariat administrators.
process.  It deals with all foreign policies and foreign
 Statement 2 is incorrect. Although ministers affairs
have the right to participate in discussions and
deliberations in both Houses of Parliament and Q.150) Which of the following Constitutional
any committees, they are part of, they do not Amendments seeks to form a District Council
have the right to vote. for the hill areas of Darjeeling in West Bengal
called the Gorkha Hill Council, Darjeeling
Q.149) Consider the following: (GHC)?
1. It functions as the supreme executive A. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Bill,
authority in the Central government. 2016
2. It coordinates the entire central B. The Constitution (107th Amendment)
administration and manages Bill, 2007
emergencies. C. The Constitution (122nd Amendment)
3. It is the main advisory body to the

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 63 )

 Bill, 2014
D. The Constitution (115th Amendment)
Bill, 2011
Answer: B
Explanation:
 The Constitution (107th Amendment) Bill, 2007
specifically aims to amend the Sixth Schedule
of the Indian Constitution to facilitate the
creation of the Gorkha Hill Council, Darjeeling
(GHC) in the hill areas of Darjeeling, West
Bengal. This amendment is designed to grant
greater autonomy to the region by allowing the
newly formed GHC to make laws on various
subjects including agriculture, education, and
transport. The Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution provides for the creation of
autonomous District Councils in certain tribal
areas, mainly in the Northeastern states, to
empower local governance and address specific
local issues through legislative and
administrative autonomy.

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 64 )