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Midsem genBIO semII 24-25 AK Final 030325

The document outlines the mid-semester examination for General Biology at Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani, Hyderabad Campus, detailing the exam date, duration, and total marks. It includes instructions for answering questions, a self-declaration requirement, and a series of eight questions covering various biological concepts such as cellular respiration, transcription, gene expression, and DNA analysis. The questions require students to provide detailed answers, justifications, and explanations related to the topics studied in the course.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
23 views6 pages

Midsem genBIO semII 24-25 AK Final 030325

The document outlines the mid-semester examination for General Biology at Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani, Hyderabad Campus, detailing the exam date, duration, and total marks. It includes instructions for answering questions, a self-declaration requirement, and a series of eight questions covering various biological concepts such as cellular respiration, transcription, gene expression, and DNA analysis. The questions require students to provide detailed answers, justifications, and explanations related to the topics studied in the course.

Uploaded by

sai sreerama m
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 6

BIRLA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCIENCE, PILANI, HYDERABAD CAMPUS

Semester II, 2024-25


GENERAL BIOLOGY (BIO F111)
Mid-semester Examination (Closed book)

Date: 07/03/2025 Total Marks: 90M Duration: 90 mins

Read the instructions carefully:


1. There are 8 questions. Answer all the questions.
2. Write your answers legibly in the answer sheet provided.
3. Write your Tutorial Section No. in the answer sheet.
4. Write all your answers in the given sequence, i.e., 1. A., B., C., etc.
5. Calculators are NOT allowed.
6. Please write the following declaration on the back side of the first page of the main answer booklet
without fail.
[Self-Declaration:
I declare that I am not carrying with me:
1. any written material on paper, clothes, or body parts
2. any communication or data storage devices.
Name:
Signature with date:]

Q1. A. “Krebs cycle is considered a part of aerobic cellular respiration, although molecular oxygen (O2)
is not directly involved in Krebs cycle”. Justify the statement. (4M)
B. Name the three biochemical processes through which pyruvate can produce ATP. (3M)
C. Name the parent molecule(s) that produce glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate in the Calvin Cycle. (2M)
D. Where does the Calvin cycle occur within chloroplast? State with justification whether ATP is
required or produced in the Calvin cycle. (No marks will be awarded without justification) (4M)
Ans: A. Kreb’s cycle produces 3 NADH and 1 FADH2 per pyruvate molecule which do not require
molecular oxygen. However, these molecules can only be oxidized in the Electron transport chain
where molecular oxygen is the terminal electron acceptor molecule. Kreb’s cycle is incomplete without
oxidation of these two molecules hence it is coupled with ETC as a part of aerobic cellular respiration.
B. i) aerobic cellular respiration through Kreb’s cycle and ETC, ii) lactate fermentation iii) ethanol
fermentation
C. Carbon dioxide and Ribulose bis phosphate (RuBP) (0.5M for abbreviation only)
D. Stroma (1M). ATP required (1M). ATP produced in light-dependent reaction was used to synthesize
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate from 1-C Carbon dioxide molecule in combination with RuBP. (2M)

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Q2. In the adjacent figure, proton concentration is low
inside the membrane and high outside.
A. Name the processes that would take the protons from
i) inside to outside and ii) outside to inside (2M)
B. Which one out of these above processes does not
require energy? (1M)
C. Name the rotor-like structure labelled as “1”. (1M)
D. Identify the molecule, labelled as “2”. (1M)

Ans. A. i) active transport and ii) Facilitated diffusion (2M)


B) Facilitated diffusion (1M)
C) ATP synthase (1M)
D) ADP (1M)

Q3. A. Name the major component(s)/factor(s) required for “initiation” of transcription. (1.5M)
B. “DNA sequence which is not a part of the gene can increase the transcription rate of a eukaryotic
gene.” Justify the statement. (1.5M)
C. In eukaryotes, pre-mRNA typically undergoes three specific modifications to become mature
mRNA. Name the three modifications and their functions. (3M)

Ans. A. Promoter of a gene (DNA), RNA polymerase, ribonucleotides/RNA nucleotides


B. In eukaryotes, there are sequences upstream of the transcription start site called enhancers, which
help transcription factors interact with RNA polymerase to enhance the transcription of a particular
gene.
C. 5’ Cap -- protecting it from degradation by enzymes and help to initiate translation by ribosomes
3’ Poly A tail -- protecting it from degradation by enzyme, helps to initiate translation, binding site for a
protein necessary for exporting the processed mRNA to the cytoplasm
Exon splicing/Removal of Introns ---- Allow coding regions to arrange together to be translated into
protein during translation

Q4. John and his friend David aimed to determine the expression pattern of gene X, which is
responsible for human skin colour. John received a test tube containing cDNA from skin cells,
whereas David received mRNA from the same skin cells. Based on your knowledge of transcription
and DNA microarray, answer the following:
A. Who will be able to determine the expression pattern of gene “X”? Justify your answer. (5M)
B. What would the experimental outcome be if John received genomic DNA instead of cDNA? Justify
your answer with respect to DNA. (4M)
C. What is DNA microarray? Mention the steps of DNA microarray. (DO NOT describe, point-wise

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ONLY). (4M)
Ans. A. Both John and David will be able to determine gene expression.
Gene expression means the transcription of mRNA from that gene. To study gene expression, mRNA
first needs to be converted into complementary DNA (cDNA) by reverse transcription. The amount of
cDNA indicates the amount of transcribed mRNA from a gene.
John has already received the cDNA, and he can use the gene-specific fluorescent probe to measure
the amount of cDNA derived from gene X. David needs to convert the mRNA to cDNA and use the
gene-specific fluorescent probe to measure the amount of cDNA derived from gene X.
B. If John receives DNA instead of cDNA, he cannot determine the gene “X” expression.
Because DNA, after transcription, produces mRNA. Eukaryotic mature mRNA has information only
from the coding regions (exon splicing). cDNA, which is converted from mRNA, lacks the information
of non-coding regions. DNA has information for both coding(exons) and noncoding regions (introns).
Thus, using cDNA only, John can estimate gene expression but not with DNA.
C. A DNA microarray is a glass slide with thousands of different kinds of single-stranded DNA
fragments attached in a tightly spaced array (grid). Each DNA fragment is obtained from a particular
gene; a single microarray thus carries DNA from thousands of genes, perhaps even all the genes of
an organism. (1.5M)
Steps: (0.5x5=2.5M)
1. mRNA isolation
2. Conversion of mRNA to cDNA by reverse transcriptase using fluorescent DNA nucleotides
3. cDNA mixture added to spot containing DNA from a particular gene
4. Unbound cDNA rinsed away
5. Detection of fluorescent (expressed gene) and non-fluorescent-spot (non-expressed gene)

Q5. A. Name three organelles where polypeptide synthesis can occur through ribosomes. (3M)
B. Which organelle in the liver is responsible for the detoxification of drugs? “A person who takes
excess sleeping pills needs more antibiotics to treat bacterial infection.” Justify the statement. (4M)
C. How is the crawling movement of an Amoeba possible? Relate it to non-membranous organelle
function. (2M)
D. What is the reason behind frequent coughing in heavy smokers? Relate it to microtubular
structure. (2M)
E. Name the vesicle-mediated process for i) dopamine transmission between neurons in our brain.
ii) taking up cholesterol from the blood to the liver. (2M)
F. Name any five primary functions of membrane proteins. (5M)

Ans. A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, chloroplasts


B. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (1M). In liver cells, enzymes of the smooth ER detoxify circulating
drugs such as barbiturates, amphetamines, and some antibiotics. The smooth ER and its detoxifying
enzymes increase as liver cells are exposed to a drug. This can strengthen the body’s tolerance to
the drug, meaning that higher doses will be required in the future to achieve the desired effect. For
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example, barbiturate use, such as frequently taking sleeping pills, may make certain antibiotics less
effective by accelerating their breakdown in the liver.
C. A cell’s cytoskeleton is dynamic: It can be quickly dismantled in one part of the cell by removing
protein subunits and reformed in a new location by reattaching the subunits. The crawling movement
in Amoeba is due to the rapid degradation and rebuilding of microtubules.
D. The cilia lining in our windpipe cleans our respiratory system by sweeping mucus with trapped
debris out of our lungs. Tobacco smoke can inhibit or destroy these cilia, interfering with the usual
cleansing mechanisms and allowing more toxin-laden smoke particles to reach the lungs. Frequent
coughing - common in heavy smokers - becomes the body’s attempt to cleanse the respiratory
system.
E. i) Exocytosis. ii) Endocytosis
F. The five primary functions of membrane proteins are: (Figure 5.11 from TB; Any five of 6 functions)
i) Cell signaling
ii) Attachment to the cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix
iii) Transport of chemical substances
iv) Intracellular joining
v) Cell-cell recognition
vi) Enzymatic activity

Q6. A. You tested a cake mix to check the constituent biomolecules. Hydrolysis of the cake mix
yielded glucose and fructose, confirming the presence of carbohydrates. Further analysis resulted in
two observations.
Observation 1: Presence of molecules with carboxyl (-COOH) groups at one end.
Observation 2: Additional tests confirmed that a disulfide bond was present in the biomolecule.
i) Based on observation 1 only, which biomolecule(s) might be present in the cake mix? Justify. (4M)
ii) Based on observations 1 and 2, which biomolecule is most likely present in the cake mix other than
carbohydrates? Justify your answer. [Note: No marks will be provided without proper justification].
(3M)
B. i) Name the molecule ‘A’ shown in the adjacent figure. (1M)
ii) Name two hormones derived from this molecule. (2M)
iii) Name the class of molecules that are synthetic variants of
molecule ‘A’ and are illegally used by athletes. (1M)
C. i) Name the three domains of life. (3M)
ii) Write two cellular/subcellular structures (not biomolecules) present in all life domains. (2M)
iii) Match the following: (2M)

a. Discovery i. Explanation of a phenomenon supported by extensive evidence and


science testing/experimentation

b. Theory ii. Tentative explanation for a phenomenon, which can be tested through
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experimentation.

c. Hypothesis iii. Naming and classification of species

d. Taxonomy iv. Verifiable observations or measurements

Ans. A. i) The two biomolecules that can give positive tests for carboxyl groups are 1) amino acids
after hydrolysis of proteins and 2) fatty acids from hydrolysis of triglyceride/fat. Both molecules have
carboxylic acid groups at one end.
ii) Based on Observation 2, the disulphide bond is present in the biomolecule. This bond is present in
the protein/polypeptide, through which two cysteine residues can be covalently linked. Therefore,
based on observation 1 and 2, the constituent biomolecule is a protein and not fat/triglyceride.
B. i) Cholesterol.
ii) Testosterone and Estrogen
iii) Anabolic Steroids
C. i) Three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
ii) Two cellular structures: Plasma membrane and ribosome present in all domains of life
iii) a→iv; b→i; c→ii; d→iii

Q7. A team of researchers is working on producing recombinant human insulin using bacterial cloning
techniques.
A. List three sequential steps for developing recombinant DNA molecule if you are provided with a
bacterial plasmid and the coding region of the human insulin gene (cDNA). (3M)
B. In sequence, list the three steps for expressing the human insulin gene in bacteria using the
recombinant DNA molecule developed above. (3M)
C. You mix a restriction enzyme that recognizes ‘GAATTC’ with the linear DNA sequence
‘ATCGGAATTCGGTACGAATTCAGAATTCCT.’ How many restriction fragments will result (i) from
the linear DNA sequence and (ii) if the sequence is circular? Justify your answers. (3M)

Ans. A. 1. Cut the human insulin gene and bacterial plasmid with the same restriction enzyme.
2. Insert the human insulin gene into the bacterial plasmid (base pairing).
3. Join the DNA fragments using the DNA ligase enzyme into strands.
B. 1. Insert the recombinant human insulin gene containing plasmid into the bacterial host.
2. Culture bacterial host cells containing the human insulin gene to form clones.
3. Isolate human insulin protein from the bacteria.
C. Four fragments (1M) are formed for a linear DNA sequence. For a circular DNA sequence, 3
fragments are formed (1M) because ‘GAATTC’ occurs three times in the given sequence (1M).

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Q8. The only evidence at a crime scene is the blood stain. As a forensic scientist, you must analyze
the blood samples of 3 suspects to link a suspect to this crime.
A. What is STR analysis? How does it help in law enforcement? (2M)
B. List the three steps involved in DNA profiling of the bloodstain taken from the crime scene. (3M)
C. The STR analysis of the crime scene bloodstain DNA was performed and compared with the DNA
of three potential suspects (X, Y & Z). The results are given in the figure below. Who among the three
suspects could most likely be the culprit? Justify your answer. No marks will be awarded for answers
without justification. (3M)

Ans. A. STR analysis is a method of DNA profiling that compares the length of STR sequences at
specific sites in the genome. The standard STR analysis procedure used by law enforcement compares
the number of repeats of specific four nucleotide DNA sequences at 13 sites scattered throughout the
genome. It is entered into a database called CODIS which law enforcement agencies around the world
can access to search for matches to DNA samples they have obtained from crime scene or suspects.
B. 1. DNA isolation
2. DNA amplification of Short Tandem Repeat (STR) site and
3. DNA size comparison after gel electrophoresis
C. The suspect most likely to be the culprit is “Suspect Y”
Justification: The crime scene DNA has 8 repeats at STR Site 1 and 7 repeats at STR Site 2. The same
STR sites are observed only in the DNA of Suspect B and not in the DNA samples of the other two
suspects.

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