27- 06- 2020 Batch : MEDICAL 2020 Version

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT V+VI
Physics + Chemistry + Biology Time: 3 hrs. A1
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 4. A particle moves along a straight line with

uniform acceleration and v1,v2 and v3
1. A ball thrown vertically upwards from
denote the average velocities in the three
level ground is observed twice, at a
successive intervals of time (0,t1),(t1,t2) and
height H above the ground, within a
(t2,t3) respectively. Which of the following
time interval t. The initial velocity of
relations is correct?
the ball was

2
1)  v1  v 2  :  v 2  v 3    t1  t 2  :  t 2  t 3 
 gt 
1) 8gH  g 2 t 2 2) 8gH   
2 2)  v1  v 2  :  v 2  v 3    t1  t 2  :  t 2  t 3 

1 3)  v1  v 2  :  v 2  v 3    t1  t 2  :  t1  t 3 
3) 8gH  g 2 t 2 4) 8gH  4g 2 t 2
2

2. Acceleration-time graph of a particle 4)  v1  v 2  :  v 2  v 3    t1  t 2  :  t 2  t 3 

starting from rest and moving along a
straight line is as shown. The velocity 5. The position of three particles are as
of the particle after 4s is (in m/s) follows

5
(i) x = 3t+2.5t2 (ii) x  t 2  t
2

(iii) x  6  3t – 2.5t 2

Relative motion is uniform between

1) 10 2) 20 1) (i) and (ii)

3) 15 4) 30 2) (ii) and (iii)

3. A body is thrown up from a tower and 3) (i) and (iii)

finally reaches the ground. If the ratio
of distance to displacement is n, the 4) both (i) and (ii) and (i) and (iii)
ratio of time for upward and downward
6. An elevator is going down with a constant
motion is
acceleration. A coin dropped from a point
1.8m above the elevator floor takes one
1 1 second to reach the floor. The magnitude
1) 2)
n n
of the acceleration of the elevator in ms
2
 
n 1
1
1 
is g  10ms
2

3) 4)
n 1 n
1) 3.6 2) 5

3) 7.2 4) 6.4
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
7. A point object starts from rest at the origin
T H
and moves with a uniform acceleration 12. At time t  ,
4 H max is (where T is the total
 in ms  of ˆi  ˆj  kˆ .
2
The distance of
time of flight, H max is the maximum height,
the object from the origin after 1 second
is and H is the height at time t of a projectile
launched from ground)
2  2   2     
1) 2) 1 3
2 2 1) 2)
2 4
3)        4)       
2

3 5
8. A car travels in a straight line with varying 3) 4)
velocity given by 8 8

v  t  t 0 ms 1 for 0  t  2t 0 where, t = time 13. Rain drops falling with actual velocity of
and t0 = time at which velocity is zero. 5ms 1 on a windy day appear to fall
The distance travelled by the car in this vertically down on a man moving
interval is Eastward with a speed of 3ms–1. If the
man reverses his direction with the
1) t 02 2) 2t 20 same speed, the raindrops will fall on
him with a speed of (in ms–1)
3 2
3) t0 4) 0
2 1) 35 2) 52
9. A bullet fired into a large block of wood of
uniform resistance, hits the block with a 3) 47 4) 83
velocity of 48ms–1. It penetrates a distance
of 60cm and the velocity is then reduced 14. A certain force applied to a mass m1
to 24ms–1. It then penetrates a further
distance of (in cm) gives it an acceleration of 15ms2 . The
same force produces an acceleration
1) 50 2) 16
of 10ms 2 in another mass m2. If the
3) 18 4) 20
two masses stick together, the
10. A body is projected horizontally from a acceleration produced by the same
height h above ground with an initial force is
velocity of 10ms–1. If the body hits the
ground with a velocity of 20ms–1 then the
1) 5ms 2 2) 6ms 2
value of h is (g=10ms–2)
1) 10m 2) 15m
3) 25ms 2 4) 12.5ms2
3) 30m 4) 40m
11. A parti cle has an initial velocity 15. A block of mass 0.15kg rests on an
inclined plane of coefficient of friction
 
of 6iˆ  5jˆ ms . The particle accelerates at
1
0.3. If the angle of the plane with the
horizontal is 30°, the minimum force
 0.5iˆ  0.35jˆ  ms 2
. Its speed 20s later is parallel to the plane necessary to
prevent it from slipping is (g=10ms–2)
1) 10ms 1 2) 16ms 1
1) 0.5N 2) 0.36N
3) 20ms1 4) 11ms1 3) 1.5N 4) 0.25N
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
16. The period T of a soap bubble under SHM 
19. A vector A points vertically upward and
i s gi v en b y T  Pa D bSc , where P is 
B points towards north. The vector
pressure, D is density and S is surface  
tension. Then the values of a,b and c product A  B is
are
1) Zero
3 1 2) Along west
1)  , ,1 2) 1, 2,3
2 2
3) Along east
1 3 3 4) Vertically downward
3) ,  , 1 / 2 4) 1, 2,
2 2 2
20. A projectile is thrown into air so as to
17. A students performs an experiment for have the maximum possible range
equal to 200. Taking projection point
42 as origin, the coordinates of the point
determination of g  and he
T2 where the velocity of the projectile is
commits an error of  . For that he minimum, are
takes the time of n oscillations with
1) (200,50) 2) (100,50)
the stop watch of least count T and
he commits a human error of 0.1s. For 3) (100,75) 4) (100,100)
which of the following data, the
measurement of g will be most 21. The equation of trajectory of an oblique
accurate
gx 2
projectile y  3x  . The angle of
 T n 2
projection is
(1) 5mm 0.2s 10
1) 30° 2) 45°
(2) 5mm 0.2s 20
3) 60° 4) 15°
(3) 5mm 0.1s 20
22. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity
(4) 1mm 0.1s 50 of 8 km/h. If the resultant velocity of the
boat is 10 km/h, the river is flowing with
18. The density of a solid ball is to be a velocity of
determined in an experiment. The
diameter of the ball is measured with 1) 12.8km/h 2) 6km/h
a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5mm
3) 8 km/h 4) 10 km/h
and there are 50 divisions on the
circular scale. The reading on the main 23. A river 500m wide is flowing at a rate of
scale is 2.5mm and that on the circular 4m/s. A boat is sailing at a velocity of 10
scale is 20 divisions. If the measured m/s with respect to the water, in a
mass of the ball has a relative error of direction perpendicular to the river. The
2%, the relative percentage error in time taken by the boat to reach the
the density is opposite bank
1) 30s 2) 40s
1) 0.9% 2) 2.4%
3) 50s 4) 60s
3) 3.1% 4) 4.2%
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
24. The blocks A and B of masses 2m and 27. A man of mass m stands on a frame of
respectively, are connected by a massless mass M. He pulls on a light rope, which
and inextensible string. The whole passes over a pulley. The other end of
system is suspended by a massless spring the rope is attached to the frame. For the
as shown in the figure. The magnitudes system to be in equilibrium, what force
of acceleration of A and B, immediately must be man exert on the rope?
after the string is cut, are respectively

 M  m g
1) g, g / 2 2) g / 2, g 1) 2)  M  m  g
2

3) g,g 4) g / 2, g / 2 3)  M  m  g 4)  M  2m  g
28. Consider the situation as shown. The
25. A balloon with mass m is descending down maximum value of force F such that the
with an acceleration a (where a<g). How block does not move
much mass should be removed from it so
that i t starts moving up with an
acceleration a?

2ma ma
1) 2)
ga ga

1) 5 N 2) 10 N
ma 2ma
3) 4) 3) 15 N 4) 20 N
ga ga
29. Consider the situation as shown in the
figure. Choose the correct option
26. A block of mass m placed on a wedge of
inclination  . The whole system is
accelerated horizontally so that the block
does not slip on the wedge. The force
exerted by the wedge on the block has a
magnitude

mg
1) mg 2) 1) The friction force on the block is 1 N if
cos 
m = 0.1kg
3) mg cos  4) mg tan  2) The friction force on the block is 5 N if
m = 1.0kg
3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
4) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
30. A convey belt is moving at a constant 33. The power of a pump, which can pump
speed of 2m/s. A box is gently dropped 200 kg of water upto a height 200m in
on it. The coefficient of friction between 10s is
them is   0.5 . The distance that the 1) 40 kw 2) 80 kw
box will move relative to belt before
3) 400 kw 4) 960 kw
coming to rest on it, taking g = 10m/s2, is
34. A particle is released from the top of the
1) zero 2) 0.4m smooth hemisphere R as shown

3) 1.2m 4) 0.6m

31. Two identical cylindrical vessels with their

bases at the same level, each contains a
liquid of density  . The height of the liquid
in one vessel is h1 and that in the other
h2. The area of either bases is A. The work The normal contact between the particle
done by the gravity in equalizing the levels and the hemisphere in position  is
when the vessels are interconnected is
1) mg  3  2 cos   2) mg  3 cos   2 

  h1  h 2     h1  h 2   3) mg  4 cos   3 4) mg  4  3 cos  
2

1) Ag   2) Ag  
 2   2  35. A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6m long
string is whirled in a vertical circle with
constant speed. What should be the
  h1  h 2     h1  h 2  
2
minimum speed so that the water from
3) Ag   4) Ag   the bucket does not spill, when the
 4   4  bucket is at the highest position (Take
g = 10m/s2)
32. One end of a spring of natural length h
and spring constant k is fixed at the 1) 4 m/s 2) 6.25 m/s
ground and the other is fitted with a 3) 16 m/s 4) None of the above
smooth ring of mass m which is allowed 36. Consider the situation as shown in the
to slide on a horizontal rod fixed at a diagram. The bullet penetrates
height h (see the figure). Initially, the
spring makes an angle of 37° with the
vertical when the system is released
from rest. The speed of the ring when
the spring becomes vertical

the block and emerges with speed v 0 / 3 .

If after collision, the string becomes
horizontal, v0 will be
h k h k
1) 2) m 3m
2 m 4 m 1) 2gL 2) 2gL
M 2M

h k h k 3M M
3) 4) 3) 2gL 4) 2gL
2 2m 4 2m 2m m
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
37. A sphere A impinges directly on an 40. A sphere is rolling without slipping on a
identical sphere B at rest. If coefficient fixed horizontal plane surface. In the
of restitution is e, the ratio of velocities figure, A is the point of contact, B is the
of A and B after collision is center of the sphere and C is its topmost
point. Then
1 e 1 e
1) 2)
1 e 1 e

e 2e
3) 4)
1 e 1 e

38. From a circular disc of radius R and mass

   
9M, a small disc of radius R/3 is removed
from the disc. The moment of inertia of

(i) V C  V A  2 V B  V C 
the remaining disc about an axis
   
perpendicular to the plane of the disc and (ii) V C  V B  V B  V A
passing through O is
   
(iii) V C  V A  2 V B  VC

  
(iv) V C  V A  4 V B

1) (i), (ii) 2) (ii), (iii)

3) (i), (iv) 4) (ii), (iv)

40
1) 4MR2 2) MR 2 41. A solid cylinder is rolling down on an
9 inclined plane of angle  . The
minimum value of the coefficient of
37 friction between the plane and the
3) 10mr2 4) MR 2
9 cylinder to allow pure rolling

39. The position of a particle is given by 1 2

 1) tan  2) tan 

r  ˆi  2ˆj  kˆ  and momentum 3 3

p   3iˆ  4ˆj  2kˆ  . The angular 2 4
3) tan  4) tan 
momentum is perpendicular to the 5 5

1) x-axis 42. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid

sphere (mass m and radius R) rolling
2) y-axis down an incline of angle '  ' without
slipping and slipping down the incline
3) z-axis without rolling is
4) line at equal angles to all the three axes 1) 2:3 2) 2:5

3) 7:5 4) 5:7
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

43. A point P lies on the axis of a ring of mass CHEMISTRY

M and radius a, at a distance a from its
46. The density of ice at 0°C is 0.915 g/cc
centre C. A small particle starts from P
and that of liquid water at 0°C is
and reaches C under gravitational
0.99987 g/cc. The work done for melting
attraction only. Its speed at C will be
1 mole of ice at 1.00 bar (Assuming work
is done only due to expansion) is
2GM 2GM  1  approximately
1) 2)  1 
a a  2
1) 0.17 J
2GM
3)  2  1 4) zero
2) 1.7  103 J
a
44. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are
initially at rest at infinite distance 3) 1.7  10 6 J
apart. They are then allowed to move
towards each other under mutual
gravitational attraction. The relative 4) can’t be determined
velocity of approach at a separation
distance r between them is 47. Calculate the work involved when 1 mol
of an ideal gas is compressed reversibly
  m1  m2  
1/2
from 1.00 bar to 5.00 bar at a constant
1)  2G  temperature of 300 K
 r 

 2G
1/2 1) –14.01 kJ 2) +18.02 kJ
2)   m1  m2  
 r 
3) +4.01 kJ 4) –8.02 kJ
1/2
 r 
3)   48. A stationary mass of gas is compressed
 2G  m1m 2   without friction from an initial state of
0.3 m3 and 0.105 M Pa to a final state of
1/2
 2G  0.15 m3 and 0.105 M Pa. The pressure
4)  m1m 2  remaining constant. During the process
 r  there is a transfer of 37.6 kJ of heat from
the system. During the process the
45. The escape velocity for a planet is v e . A amount of internal energy change is
tunnel is dug along a diameter of the
planet and a small body is dropped into it
at the surface. When the body reaches 1) –28.85 kJ
the centre of the planet, its speed will be
2) –21.85 kJ
ve
1) v e 2)
2 3) –21.85 MJ
ve
3) 4) zero 4) –53.35 kJ
2
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
49. The heat of formation of C 2H 5OH(l) is 52. Two moles of NH 3 when put into a
–66 kcal/mol. The heat of combustion previously evacuated vessel (one litre)
of CH 3OCH 3(g) is –348 kcal/mol. Hf partially dissociate into N2 and H2. If at
equilibrium one mole of NH3 is present,
for H 2O and CO 2 are –68 kcal/mol and the equilibrium constant K C for the
–94 kcal/mol respectively. Then, the

reaction 2NH3(g )  N2(g )  3H2(g ) is
H for the isomerisation reaction
C2H5OH     CH3OCH3 (g) , and U
1) 3 4 mol litre
2 2
for the same are at T = 25°C

1) H  18 kcal / mol,
2) 27 64 mol litre
2 2

U  17.301kcal / mol

3) 27 32 mol litre
2 2
2) H  22 kcal / mol,

U  21.408 kcal / mol

4) 2716 mol litre
2 2

3) H  26 kcal / mol,

U  25.709 kcal / mol 53. Calculate G0 for conversion of oxygen

4) H  30 kcal / mol, to ozone 3 2 O2(g )  O3(g ) at 298 K, if Kp

U  28.522 kcal / mol for this conversion is 2.47  10 29

50. AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules, if

1) 163 kJ mol 1
the bond enthalpies of A2, AB and B2
are in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 0.5 and the
enthalpy of formation of AB from A2 and 2) 2.4  102 kJ mol 1
B2 is –100 kJ mol–1, combustion of A2
gives one mole AO. HC  1200 kJ mol1 . 3) 1.63 kJ mol 1
Bond energy of (O=O) bond is 500 kJ
mol –1. What is the bond enthalpy of
(A–O) bond? 4) 2.38  106 kJ mol 1

1) 400 kJ mol–1 2) 1650 kJ mol–1 54. Ammonia under a pressure of 15 atm at

27°C is heated to 347°C in a closed vessel
3) 1200 kJ mol–1 4) 200 kJ mol–1
in the presence of a catalyst. Under the
51. The equilibrium constant, KP for the conditions, NH3 is partially decomposed
according to the equation.
reaction 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
is 4.0 atm at 1000 K. What would be the
–1 
2NH3  N2  3H2 . The vessel is such
partial pressure of O2 if at equilibrium the that the volume remains effectively
number of moles of SO2 and SO3 are the constant whereas pressure increases to
same? 50 atm. Calculate the percentage of NH3
actually decomposed
1) 16.0 atm 2) 0.25 atm
3) 1 atm 4) 0.75 atm 1) 65% 2) 61.3%

3) 62.5% 4) 64%
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
55. Lemon juice normally has a pH of 2. If all 59. In context with the industrial preparation
the acid in the lemon juice is citric acid of hydrogen from water gas, which of the
and there are no citrate salts present, following is the correct statement?
then what will be the citric acid
concentration [HCit] in the lemon juice? 1) CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the
(Assume that only the first hydrogen of presence of a catalyst followed by
citric acid is important) absorption of CO2 in sodium arsenite
solution

HCit  H  Cit , K a  8.4  10 mol L
  4 1
2) CO and H2 are fractionally separated
using difference in their densities
1) 8.4  10 4 M 2) 4.2  10 4 M
3) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous
Cu2Cl2
3) 16.8  104 M 4) 11.9  10 2 M
4) H2 is removed through occlusion with
56. In a saturated solution of the sparingly Pd
soluble salt AgIO3 (molecular mass = 283) 60. Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold
the equilibrium which sets in is dilute HNO3 on


AgIO3 (s)   
 Ag (aq)  IO3 (aq) . If the
1) Fe 2) Mg
solubility product constant Ksp of AgIO3 3) Cu 4) Al
at a given temperature is 1.0  10 8 , what 61. X-ray analysis of ice crystals shows that
is the mass of AgIO3 contained in 100 mL each oxygen atom is surrounded
of its saturated solution? 1) Octahedrally by six hydrogen atoms at
a distance of 95.7 pm
1) 28.3  102 g 2) 28.3  103 g
2) Tetrahedrally by four other oxygen
atoms at a distance of 276 pm
3) 1.0  10 7 g 4) 1.0  10 4 g
3) By two hydrogen atoms at a distance of
57. The pH of 0.02 M NH4Cl (aq) (pKb = 4.73) 98.8 pm
is equal to 4) Cubically by eight oxygen atoms at a
1) 3.78 2) 4.73 distance of 147.5 pm
62. When a substance A reacts with water it
3) 5.48 4) 7.00
produces a combustible gas B and a
58. One of the following is an incorrect solution of substance C in water. When
statement. Point out the incorrect one another substance D reacts with this
solution of C, it also produces the same
1) H2O2 decomposes rapidly in presence gas B on warming but D can produce gas
of MnO2 B on reaction with dilute sulphuric acid
at room temperature. A imparts a deep
2) Ice at its melting point is lighter than
golden yellow colour to a smokeless flame
water because ice crystals have hollow
of Bunsen burner. A, B, C and D
hexagonal arrangement of H2O molecules
respectively are
3) D2O will have maximum density at 1) K, H2, KOH, Al
284.2 K
2) Na, H2, NaOH, Zn
4) Water gas is a mixture of CO, H2 and
3) Ca, H2, Ca(OH)2, Sn
N2
4) CaC2, C2H2, Ca(OH)2, Fe
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
63. When a crystal of caustic soda is exposed 69. The dissolution of Al(OH)3 by a solution of
to air, a liquid layer is deposited because NaOH results in the formation of
1) crystal melts 
1)  Al  H2O 2  OH 4 
2) crystal loses water
2
3) crystal absorbs moisture and CO2 2)  Al  H2O 4  OH  
4) crystal sublimes
64. LiAlH4 is obtained by reacting an excess 3)  Al  H2O 3  OH 3 
of .............. with an ethereal solution of
AlCl3 4)  Al  H2O 6  OH 3 
1) LiCl 2) LiH 70. The number of OH units directly linked
3) Li 4) LiOH to boron atoms in Na2B4O7.10H2O is
65. The pair of compounds which cannot exist 1) 2 2) 3
together in solution is 3) 4 4) 10
1) NaHCO3 and NaOH 71. The soldiers of Napoleon army while at
Alphs during freezing winter suffered a
2) Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 serious problem with regard to the tin
3) Na2CO3 and NaOH buttons of their uniform. White metallic
tin buttons get converted to grey powder.
4) NaHCO3 and NaCl
This transformation is related to
66. Excess of dilute sodium hydroxide solution 1) an interaction with water vapour
is gradually added with shaking to an contained in humid air
aqueous solution of zinc sulphates. What
would you observe? 2) an interaction with N2 of air at low
temperature
1) A light blue precipitate is first formed
3) a change in the partial pressure of O2
which finally dissolves to give a deep blue
in air
solution
4) a change in crystalline structure of tin
2) A white precipitate appears which
dissolves to give a colourless solution 72. When CO is heated with NaOH under
pressure, we get
3) A white precipitate is formed which does 1) Sodium benzoate 2) Sodium acetate
not dissolve 3) Sodium formate 4) Sodium carbonate
4) No change takes place and the solution 73. For decolourization of 1 mole of KMnO4,
remains clear the moles of H2O2 required is
1) 1/2 2) 3/2
67. In India, at the occasion of marriages, the 3) 5/2 4) 7/2
fire works used give green flame. Which
one of the following metals may be present 74. 1mole MnO24 in neutral aqueous medium
as it salt in the gun powder used? disproportionate to
1) Na 2) K 1) 2/3 mole of MnO4 and 1/ 3 mole of
3) Ba 4) Ca MnO2
68. Which among the following hydrated 2) 1/3 mole of MnO4 and 2/3 mole of
halides undergo hydrolysis on heating? MnO2
1) BaCl2 . 2H2O 2) SrCl2.6H2O 3) 1/3 mole of Mn2O7 and 1/3 mole of
MnO2
3) CaCl2.6H2O 4) MgCl2.6H2O 4) 2/3 mole of Mn2O7 and 1/3 mole of
MnO2
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
75. In a balanced equation H2SO4 + xHI  H2S
+ yI2 + zH2O, the values of x,y, z are
80. IUPAC name of the compound is
1) x = 3, y = 5, z = 2 2) x = 4, y = 8, z = 5
3) x = 8, y = 4, z = 4 4) x = 5, y = 3, z = 4
1) Nonatetraene
76. Which of the following acid possesses
oxidising, reducing and complex forming 2) Diene pentadiene
properties? 3) 3,3-Diethenyl-1,4-pentadiene
1) HNO3 2) H2SO4 4) None of these
3) HCl 4) HNO2 81. The correct structure of 2-ethyl-3-
77. What is the oxidation number of Co in methylhex-1,4-diene

Co  NH3 4 ClNO2  ?

1) +5 2) +3 1) 2)
3) +4 4) +2
78. The IUPAC name of the alkane

3) 4)
is

1) 2-isopropyl-2,6,6-trimethylheptane 82. Structure of the compound whose IUPAC

name is 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-
2)5-tert-butyl-2-isopropyl-2- 3-en-5-ynoic acid is
methylpentane
3) 2,3,3,7,7-pentamethyloctane OH

4) 2,2,6,6,7-pentamethyloctane 1) COOH

79. The correct IUPAC name of the following

compound is
OH
H 3C CH3
2) COOH
CH3
H 3C
CH3
CH3
H3C CH3
COOH
3)
1)3-ethyl-3-isopropyl-4-
tertiarybutylhexane OH

2) 3,4,4-triethyl-2,2,5-trimethylhexane OH
3) 3,4-diethyl -4-isopropyl-2,2-
dimethylhexane COOH
4)
4) 3,3,4-triethyl-2,5,5-trimethylhexane
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
83. The medium present in the environment 87. The molar conductivity of an infinitely dilute
which consumes some amount of certain solution of NH 4 Cl is 150 Scm 2
pollutant is called a mol–1 and the ionic conductance at infinite
dilution of OH– and Cl– ions are 198Scm2
1) sink 2) target mol–1 and 76 Scm2 mol–1 respectively. If
3) receptor 4) none of these the molar condutance of a 0.01 M solution
of NH4OH is 9.6Scm2 mol–1. What will be its
84. Which of the following statements is true degree of dissociation?
about photochemical smong? 1) 0.0353 2) 0.0103
1) it is reducing in nature 3) 0.96 4) 0.414
2) it is formed in cool humid climate 88. Given

3) it is sulphurous smog E0Cr3 /Cr  0.72, EFe

0
2
/Fe
 0.42 V . The

4) components of the smog, NO and O3, potential for the cell

irritate the nose and throat and their high Cr|Cr3  0.1M||Fe2  0.01M|Fe is
concentration causes headache, chest
pain, dryness of the throat, cough and 1) 0.26 V 2) 0.339 V
difficulty in breathing 3) –0.399 V 4) –0.26 V
85. Which of the following in not an example 89. A current of 0.75 A is passed through an
of green chemistry? acidic solution of CuSO4 for 10 minutes.
The volume of oxygen liberated at anode
1) Reacting methylamine and phosgene (At STP) will be
to produce methyl isocyanate
1) 0.261 dm3 2) 0.261 cm3
2) Replacement of CFCs by CO2 as blowing 3) 0.261  102 mL 4) 0.261 m3
agent in the manufacture of polystyrene
90. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition
foam sheets
of Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows
3) Catalytic dehydrogenation of the 2 4
diethanol amine without using cyanide and Al2O3  Al  O2 ;  r G  966 kJ
3 3
formaldehyde
The potential difference needed for
4) Replacement of organotins by ‘sea-nine’ electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is
as anti-fouling compound in sea marines. at least
86. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1) 4.5 V 2) 3.0 V
1000°C to furnish aluminium metal 3) 2.5 V 4) 5.0 V
(Atomic Mass = 27 amu; 1F = 96,500 C). BIOLOGY
The cathode reaction is
91. Which of the following statement is true
regarding sele ctively permeable
Al3  3e   Al0 . To prepre 5.12 kg of
membrane:
aluminium metal by this method would
require 1) Allow diffusion of solvent molecules but
do not allow the passage of solutes.
1) 5.49  104 C of electricity 2) Allow some selective solutes to pass
through them along with solve nt
2) 1.83  107 C of electricity molecules

3) 5.49  107 C of electricity 3) Permeable for all solutes and solvent

4) Allow some solvent molecules and all
4) 5.49  101 C of electricity solute molecules to pass through them.
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
92. Consider the following statements; 98. Water potential of a cell when it is placed
A) Turgor pressure is only applicable for in hypertonic solution:
osmotic system. 1) Decreases
B) The highest value of turgor pressure 2) Increases
is found in fully turgid cell 3) First increases then decreases
C) Turgor pressure helps to maintains 4) No change
normal shape of the cell
99. Absorption of water is increased when:
Of the above statements;
1) Transpiration is increased
1) Only A is false 2) Photosynthesis is increased
2) A and B are false but C is true
3) Respiration is increased
3) B and C are false but A is true
4) Root pressure is increased
4) A, B and C are true 100. When the stomata are opening; we
93. When a cell shows OP=TP, then DPD is: observe following changes in the guard
1) greater than one 2) Always one cells:
3) Infinite 4) Zero 1) OP increase, TP decrease
94. Breaking of seed coat during seed 2) No change in OP and TP
germination of seed due to: 3) OP decreases, TP increases
1) Exosmosis 2) Deplasmolysis 4) OP and TP decreases
3) Imbibition 4) Osmotic pressure 101. The biochemical objective of PSI during
95. Find the incorrect pair regarding electron transport of photochemical
movement of water molecules in plant reactions:
body : 1) To reduce NADP
A) Higher OP  Lower OP 2) To produce ATP
B) Hypotonic  Hypertonic 3) To generate assimilatory powers
C) Less negative   More negative  4) All the above
1) A only 2) B only 102. Substrate level phosphorylation is
3) C only 4) A, B and C 1) When the substrate releases energy
96. Which of the following is true regarding for the formation of ATP without the
guard cells: involvement of electron transport
1) Outer wall is thin and elastic while inner 2) Addition of phosphate in to the
wall is thick. substrate during oxidation
2) Outer wall is thick while inner wall is
thin and elastic 3) Formation of ATP during the oxidation
of substrate with the involvement of
3) Both the outer and inner walls are thin
electron transport
4) Both outer and inner wall are thick.
4) Both 1 and 2
97. Water enters in to root hair from the soil
in its normal condition because the 103. The formation of Acetyl Co-A from pyruvic
osmotic pressure of the soil solution: acid is the result of :
1) Remains lesser than that of root hair 1) Dehydration
sap
2) Remains equal to that of root hair sap 2) Phosphorylation
3) Remains higher than that of root hair 3) Decarboxylation only
sap
4) Oxidative decarboxylation
4) Osmotic pressure of root hair sap
remains zero
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
104. Identify the end product of lactic acid 113. Heterocyclic amino acid is:
fermentation:
1) Cysteine 2) Histidine
1) Ethanol
2) Ethanol and CO2 3) Tyrosine 4) Lysine

3) Lactic acid 114. Which of the following is true regarding

4) Lactic acid and CO2 competitive imbibition:

105. Identify the common respiratory pathway A) Substrate and inhibitor compete to
of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration: binds with active site of enzyme
1) Glycolysis 2) Krebs cycle B) Reversible process
3) Link reaction 4) All the above
C) Km value increases
106. How many tricarboxylic acids are formed
during in a single Krebs cycle: 1) A only 2) C only
1) Two 2) Three 3) B only 4) A, B and C
3) Four 4) Six
115. How many type of spindle fibres are
107. Apoenzyme is: formed during mitosis?
1) Protein part of conjugated enzyme
1) One 2) Two
2) Non- protein part of conjugated enzyme
3) Co-factor of conjugated enzyme 3) Three 4) Four
4) Both 2 and 3 116. In which order, cytokinesis occurs in
108. Product formed by the activity of malic plants:
dehydrogenase during krebs cycle:
1) Malic acid 2) Fumaric acid 1) Centripetal
3) Succinic acid 4) Oxalo acetic acid 2) Centrifugal
109. Substrate level ATP molecules gain during
3) Both centripetal and centrifugal
complete oxidation of one molecule of
glucose: 4) From periphery towards centre
1) 2 ATP 2) 4 ATP
117. Chromosomal disjunction is:
3) 12 ATP 4) 8 ATP
110. Identify the average composition of lipids 1) Separation of homologous chromosomes
in a cell: during Anaphase I
1) 1% 2) 2% 2) Separation of chromosomes during
3) 3% 4) 5-7% Anaphase II
111. How many of the following are secondary 3) Alignment of chromosomes at
metabolites metaphase plate during Metaphase I
A) Anthocyanins B) Scent
C) Abrin D) Codeine 4) Alignment of chromosomes at
Metaphase plate during Metaphase II
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four 118. Middle lamella contains more amount of:
112. Lactose contains: 1) Ca
1) Glucose and galactose 2) Mg only
2) Glucose and glucose 3) Ca and Mg are equal amount
3) Glucose and Fructose
4) Ca, Mg and Mn
4) Glucose and Maltose
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
119. Identity the main reason for the stability 125. Porins are present in:
of plasma membrane: 1) Plant cell wall
1) Phospholipid 2) Cholesterol 2) Gram -ve bacteria
3) Carbohydrate 4) Lecithin 3) All Eubacteria
4) Archaebacteria only
120. Identify the pleiomorphic and polymorphic
organelles respectively: 126. Tonoplast is
1) Semipermeable
1) Lysosomes and Golgi bodies
2) Selectively permeable
2) Golgi bodies and Lysosomes
3) Impermeable
3) Golgi bodies and Endoplasmic reticulum
4) Both 1 and 2
4) Lysosomes and Endoplasmic reticulum 127. Primary lysosomes are formed from:
121. Phagosomes / Heterophagosomes are: 1) Plasma membrane
1) Primary lysosomes 2) Nuclear membrane
2) Secondary lysosomes 3) Mitochondrial membrane
3) Tertiary lysosomes 4) Vescicles of golgi bodies
4) Cisternae 128. Microfilaments are responsible for:
122. Identify the organelle within an organelle: 1) contraction of muscles
1) Smooth endoplasmic recticulum
2) cyclosis
2) Microbodies
3) movement of microvilli
3) Ribosomes
4) all the above
4) Nucleus
129. Fluid Mosaic Model was proposed in:
123. Identify the arrangement of microtubules
in the basal body of Cilia in eukaryotes: 1) 1971 2) 1871
1) No definite arrangement 3) 1972 4) 1872
2) 9+0 130. Consider the following statements;
3) 9+2 A) In C4 plants, photosynthesis involves
4) Both 2 and 3 both C3 and C4 cycles.
124. Consider the following statements B) C4 cycle operates in both mesophyll
regarding chromatin fibre: and bundle sheath cells
A) DNA content is more amount than RNA C) In C4 plants, C3 cycle occurs only in
B) RNA content is more amount than DNA bundle sheath cells
C) Histone proteins are more amount than D) In C4 plants, six C4 and six C3 cycles
non-histone proteins are required for the synthesis of one
D) Non- histone proteins are more amount molecule of glucose
than histone proteins Of the above statements;
1) Only A is true 1) Only A and B are true
2) Both A and C are true 2) All except D are true
3) Only B is true 3) Only B is false
4) Only D is true
4) All statements are true
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
131. LHS includes: 140. Respiration and photosynthesis both
require:
1) Antenna pigments only
1) Green cells 2) Sunlight
2) Reaction centre only
3) Cytochromes 4) Ferredoxin
3) Both antenna and reaction centre
4) Both core pigments and reaction centre 141. Aquatic amphibians and chondrichthys:

132. What is the percentage of PAR utilized by 1) Mainly excrete ammonia

plants for photosynthesis: 2) Excrete urea and ammonia respectively
1) 50% 2) 25% 3) Excrete ammonia and urea respectively
3) 75% 4) below 10% 4) Mainly excrete urea
133. Most efficient photosynthesis and
142. A human who has no access to fresh
presence of bundle sheath chloroplast are
water but is forced to drink sea water
characteristics of :
instead will :
1) C3 plants 2) C4 plants
3) CAM plants 4) Both 2 and 3 1) Develop structural changes in the
kidney to accommodate the salt overload
134. Connecting link between light phase and
dark phase of photosynthesis: 2) Eliminate more water molecules than
1) ATP only 2) NADPH2 only taken in because of high load of ion
3) NADH2 only 4) ATP and NADPH2 ingestion
135. Identify the site of PEPcase in C4 plants: 3) Thrive in such conditions, as long as
1) Cytoplasm of bundle sheath he has lived in the ocean most of his life
2) Cytoplasm of mesophyll 4) Find drinking sea water satisfies his
3) Chloroplast of bundle sheath thirst
4) Chloroplast of mesophyll 143. The ascending limb of loop of Henle :
136. Identify the quantum yield: 1) Is impermeable to electrolytes
1) 0.125 2) 8 photons 2) Allows transport of electrolytes actively
3) 4 photons 4) 1 photon or passively
137. In chloroplast, maximum number of 3) Allow the concentrated filtrate pass
protons are present in:
upward and further concentrate it due to
1) Stroma the passage of electrolytes to the
2) Periplastidal space medullary fluid
3) Lumen
4) Appressed region 4) Is permeable to water
138. Which pigment is water soluble? 144. What will be the glomerular filtration
1) Chlorophyll 2) Carotene pressure (GFP) if glomerular hydrostatic
3) Xanthophyll 4) Anthocyanin pressure (GHP) is 70 mmHg, blood colloidal
139. When chloroplast align perpendicular to osmotic pressure (BCOP) is 40 mm Hg and
the incident light: capsular hydrostatic pressure (CHP) is 20
1) For maximum light absorption mm Hg?
2) For minimum light absorption 1) 10 mm Hg 2) 30 mm Hg
3) At continuous strong light intensity
4) All 3) 20 mm Hg 4) 60 mm Hg
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
145. Increased ADH secretion is likely after: 149. One of the following does the same work
as is done by proboscis gland in
1) Consumption of alcoholic drinks
Balanoglossus :
2) Drinking lots of pure water
1) Phallic gland in cockroach
3) Eating a small bite of sugary shack
4) Sweating induced dehydration and 2) Tube feet in Asteroidea
increasing plasma osmolarity 3) Antennal gland in prawn
146. Water conservation in mammals of arid 4) Radula in pila
regions is enhanced by having more : 150. With respect to blood, the mammalian
1) Podocytes kidney does not have an important role in
maintaining :
2) Glomerulus
1) Blood pressure
3) Juxtamedullary nephrons
2) Glucose homeostasis
4) Collecting ducts
3) Osmotic concentration
147. ADH and RAAS wo rk together in 4) Water content
maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis
through which of the following ways? 151. Read the following statements regarding
skeletal muscle structure :
1) ADH and RAAS work antagonistically,
a) Each myofibril has alternate dark and
ADH stimulate H2O reabsorption during
light band appearance
dehydration and RAAS causes increased
excretion of H2O when it is excess in body b) Isotropic band contain primary filaments
fluids c) Anisotropic band contain mostly
2) ADH regulates osmolarity of the blood secondary filament
by alterating renal reabsorption of H2O, d) Sarcoplasmic cisternae is the store
and RAAS maintains the osmolarity of the house of calcium ions
blood by stimulating Na+ reabsorption.
Which of the above statements are
3) RAAS and ADH functions through incorrect?
cortical nephrons
1) a and d 2) b and c
4) By combining the receptor sites of PCT
3) b, c, and d 4) d only
cells, where reabsorption of essential
nutrients occur. 152. Which of the following statement is correct
with reference to the structure of
148. All the following are true for concentration
myofibril?
of filtrate in the renal tubule, except :
1) Portion of myofibril between two
1) Counter current flow of blood through successive ‘Z’ line is considered as the
the two limbs of vasa recta anatomical unit of muscle
2) Counter current flow of filtrate in the 2) Contractile proteins lie parallel to each
two limbs of Henle’s loop other and also to the transverse axis of
3) Proximity between the Henle’s loop and the myofibrils
collecting tubule 3) The central part of Actin filament, not
overlapped by myosin filament is Henson’s
4) Increasing osmolarity towards the inner
zone
medullary interstitium
4) The edges of secondary filament
partially overlap the free ends of the
primary filaments in a resting sarcomere
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
153. During the resting stage of muscle fibre, 158. Consider the following statements about
tropomyosin partially covers : myofilaments :
a) Cross arm of myosin monomers projects
1) Actin binding sites on myosin
outward at regular distance and angle
2) Calcium binding sites on Actin b) Filamentous actins wound to each other
to form the back bone of thick filament
3) Myosin binding sites on Actin
c) Two troponin filaments also runs close
4) Calcium binding sites on troponin to the F-actins
154. The muscles of a dead body can remain d) Tropomyosin has a binding site for Ca++
in contracted state termed rigor - mortis How many statements are correct?
for several hours, due to the lack of : 1) One 2) Two
1) Calcium ions needed to bind troponin 3) Three 4) Four
2) ATP needed to break acto-myosin 159. All the following features are correct about
complex slow fibres, except :

3) Oxygen supply needed for myosin 1) Slow fatigue 2) More S.R

3) Rich myoglobin 4) Reddish
4) Phosphorylated myosin
160. Choose the wrong pair :
155. Which of the following is true?
1) Fulcrum - Synovial joint
1) Atlas - Axis joint is a cartilaginous joint
2) Bicephalic - Ribs
2) Axis remains articulated to skull with 3) Obturator foramen - Pelvic girdle
occipital condyle
4) Rapid spasm - Hypercalcemia
3) The Atlas moves around the odontoid
161. Endocrine structure de rive d from
peg of the axis
ectoderm include the :
4) Cocyx vertebrae provide place for the 1) Adrenal and Thymus
attachment of hip girdle
2) Pancreas and Adrenal
156. Arrange the following bones according to
3) Adrenal medulla and posterior pituitary
their decreasing length and choose the
correct option : 4) Anterior pituitary and Adrenal cortex
1) Humerus  Radius > Ulna  Carpals > 162. During mammalian labour and delivery,
Metacarpals the contraction of uterine muscles is
2) Humerus  Radius > Ulna enhanced by oxytocin. This is an example
of :
 Metacarpals > Carpals
3) Humerus >Ulna  Radius > Metacarpals 1) A hormone that acts in an antagonistic
> Carpals way with another hormone

3) Humerus >Ulna  Radius > Carpals > 2) A negative feed back regulation
Metacarpals 3) A hormone that is involved in a positive
157. Which of the following is an unpaired facial feed back loop
bone? 4) The key role of neurohypophysis in
1) Temporal bone 2) Ethmoid bone regulating uterine contraction

3) Zygomatic bone 4) Vomer bone

FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
163. Consider the following statements. 167. A person suffering from diabetes mellitus
is under carbohydrate free diet but even
a) Cortisol stimulate cellular uptake and
then he excretes out glucose in urine.
utilisation of aminoacids.
This is due to the fact that :
b) Glucoco rticoids stimulate
1) Glycogen gets discharged from muscles
gluconeogenesis and lipogenesis
into the blood
c) Thyroid hormones influence H2O and
2) Fats of adipocytes get catabolised to
electrolyte balance
form glucose
d) Androgens are erythropoietic
3) Aminoacids get discharged from liver
How many statements are correct? into the blood

1) Four 2) Three 4) All are correct

3) Two 4) One 168. Which of the following statement about

the hormone action in human is correct?
164. One reason a person might be severely
overweight due to : 1) Cortisol produce inflammatory and
allergic response by stimulate immune
1) A higher than normal level of melatonin system

2) Hyposecretion of oxytocin 2) In females, FSH binds with specific

receptors on ovarian cell membrane
3) An under-secretion of thyroxine
3) Insulin is secreted by   cells of islets
4) A defect in hormone release from the
posterior pituitary of Langerhans and stimulate
glycogenolysis
165. A women may develop beard and
moustaches due to : 4) Catecholamines stimulate
proteogenesis and lipogenesis
1) Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex
169. Hormone that stimulate exocrine part of
2) Hyposecretion of ovary pancreas to release water and bicarbonate
ions :
3) Hypersecretion of adrenal medulla
1) Gastrin 2) Secretin
4) Hypersecretion of Thymus
3) Pancreozymin 4) Cholecystokinin
166. The reason that aldosterone affects only
a small number of cells in the body is 170. The underproduction of hormones by the
that : adrenal cortex alters carbohydrate
metabolism causing acute weakness and
1) Only its target cells get exposed to
fatigue leading to the disease called :
aldosterone

2) It is unable to enter the non-target cells 1) Addison’s disease

3) Only its target cells contain aldosterone 2) Cushing’s disease

receptors
3) Conn’s disease
4) Non-target cells destroy aldosterone
before it can produce any effect 4) Basedow’s disease
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
171. Which of the following statement is 177. Choose the incorrect statement with
incorrect? respect to human brain :
1) Clusters of neurons in CNS is called 1) Cell bodies of neurons are concentrated
ganglia in cerebral cortex
2) Bundles of nerve fibres in CNS is called 2) Association area is responsible for
nerve tract memory, communication etc.
3) Oligodendroglia secrete myelin sheath 3) Hypothalamus control body
in neurons of CNS temperature, urge for eating and drinking
4) Bipolar neurons are present in some 4) Thalamus along with limbic lobe involved
sense organs in the regulation of sexual behaviour and
172. If a person has lost his memory in an expression of emotional reactions.
accident, the following part of the brain 178. Which part of the ear plays no role in
might have got injured : hearing as such but is otherwise very
1) Medulla oblongata 2) Diencephalon much required?
3) Cerebrum 4) Cerebellum 1) Ear ossicles
173. The inhibitory effect of the vagus nerve 2) Cochlea
on the heart is due to the secretion of: 3) Vestibular apparatus
1) Nor-adrenaline 2) Acetylcholine
4) Organ of corti
3) Dopamine 4) Glycine
179. Read the following statements :
174. Choose the incorrect statement for the
layers of an adult human eye? i) Saltatory type of conduction is present
1) The middle layer is called choroid which in non-myelinated axons only
possess many blood vessels and looks ii) The nerve impulse generated at a point
deep red in the neuron faces resistances at sites
2) Choroid layer forms the ciliary body where myelin sheath is present
3) Ciliary body forms iris iii) Nodes of Ranvier of axon is exposed to
4) Retina lies inner to choroid ECF
175. Action potentials in the heart move from iv) In myelinated neurons, ion channels
one contractile cell to the next via : and transport pumps are absent in the
1) Chemical synapses using Acetylcholine nodes of Ranvier
2) Electrical synapses using gap junctions
v) In myelinated nerve fibre, the nerve
3) Myelinated motor neurons impulse travel as a continuous wave of
4) Chemical synapses using nor- depolarisation
epinephrine
How many of the above statements are
176. In neurons the average resting membrane
correct?
potential value is -70mv. This minus (-)
sign indicates that : 1) Three 2) Two
1) Inner side of the membrane is negative 3) One 4) Four
to the outer side 180. Ventricles of brain are lined by specialised
2) Outer side of the membrane is negative cells called :
relative to inner side 1) Neuroglia
3) Outer side of the membrane is negative
2) Neurosecretory cells
and inner side positive
4) Both the outer and inner sides are 3) Ependymal cells
negative 4) Schwann’s cells
 27- 06- 2020 Batch : MEDICAL 2020 Version
Brilliant REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT V+VI
STUDY CENTRE
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459 Physics + Chemistry + Biology Time: 3 hrs. A1
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

1. 3

2. 4
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

3. 3

4. 2

5. 1

6. 4
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

7. 1

8. 1

9. 4

10. 2
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

11. 3

12. 2

13. 2

14. 2
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

15. 2

16. 1

17. 4

18. 3
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

19. 2

20. 2

21. 3

22. 2

23. 3
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

24. 2

25. 4
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

26. 2

N cos   mg

N  mg
cos 

27. 1
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

28. 4

29. 3

30. 2

31. 2
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

32. 2

mgh
33. 1 P
t
200  10  200

10
= 40000 = 40 kw

34. 2

35. 1
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

36. 3

37. 1

38. 1
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

39. 1

40. 2

41. 1

42. 4

43. 2
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

44. 2

45. 2

CHEMISTRY

N  18  106 3 18  106 3 
46. 1 W = –P V  105  0.99987 m  0.915 m 
m2  
= 105  1.67  10 6 Jm  0.167 J  0.17 J

P1 1
47. 3 W  2.303 nRT log ; So, w  2.303  1  8.314  300 log
P2 5

= 2.303  8.314  300  log1  log 5 

= 5744.14   0  0.6990  = 4015.15 J = 4.01 kJ

48. 2 W  105   0.15  0.3  kJ  15.75 kJ

q  37.6 kJ
 U  W  q  37.6  15.75  21.85 kJ
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

49. 2 H0fC2H5OH     66kcal / mol

1
2C  3H2  O2  C 2H5OH ; H  66 kcal / mol
2
CH3  O  CH3  3O2  2CO2  3H2O ...................(1)
H  348 kcal / mol ................................................(2)

H2  g   O2 (g)  H2O H3  68 kcal / mol .........(3)

 1 
C  2 O2  CO2 

H4  94 kcal / mol ...............................................(4)

Target equation = –eq. 1– eq . 2+ 3 eq. 3 + 2eq. 2
H  66  348  3  68  2  94  66  348  204  188 ; H  22 kcal / mol
H  U  n g RT  22  U  1  2  298  10 3 ; U  21.4 kcal / mol

x
50. 2 Bon d en t h alpy (BE) of A 2 = x, AB = x and B2 =
2
1 1
A 2  B2  AB –100 kJ/mol–1 .......... (i)
2 2
1 1
A 2  O2  AO – 1200 kJ/mol (given)
2 2
A 2  O2  2AO –2400 kJ/mol ............ (ii)

O = O  500 kJ/mol

From eq. (1)
1 1
BE.A 2  B.E.B2  B.E.AB  100
2 2
1 x
x   x  100
2 4
x
  100 ; x = 400 kJ/mol
4
Now from eq. (ii)
B.E.A2  B.E.O2  2B.E.AO  2400
x + (+500) – 2 B.EAO = –2400
400 + 500 – 2B.E.AO = -2400
–B.EA–O = –3300
B.E. A–O = 1650 kJ/mol
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

51. 2 
2SO2 (g)  O2  2SO3 (g)
KP = 4.0 atm–2

 SO3 
2

KP =
 SO2   O2 
2

 SO3   4
2

Given that at equilibrium the amount of SO2 and SO3 is the same so
 SO2   O2 
2

1
 [O2] =  0.25 atm
4


Initial eqbm. 2NH3  N 2  3H2
52. 4
2 0 0
1 3
1
2 2

N2 H2  1  0.5  1.5 

3 3
27
K=  
NH3 
2 2
1 16

As we know that, G  2.303 RT log K p

0
53. 1


Therefore, G  2.303   8.314    298  log 2.47  10
0 29

G0  16,3000 J mol 1  163 kJ mol1

54. 2

2NH3  N2  3H2
Initial mole a 0 0
Mole at eqbm. (a  2x) x 3x
Initial pressure of NH3 of a mole = 15 atm at 27°C
The pressure of ‘a’ mole of NH3 = p atm at 347°C
15 P
  ;  P  3atm
300 620
At constant volume and at 347°C, mole  pressure

a  31 (before equilibrium)
 a + 2x  50 (After equilibrium)
a  2x 50 19 2x
  ; x  a ;  % of NH3 decomposed =  100
a 31 62 a
2  19a
=   100  61.33%
62  a
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

55. 4 [H+] = K a C, pH  2, [H ]  102 M ; 102  K a C ; 10 4  8.4  10 4  C

 C  11.9  102 M


 
56. 2 AgIO3(s)  Ag aq IO3(aq )

Let the solubility of AgIO3 be S; Ksp = [Ag+] IO3  ; 1.0  10 8  S2 ;



104  283
S = 10–4 mol/litre =  100  283  105 = 2.83  103 g /100 mL
1000
1 1
57. 3 pH   pK w  pK b  log C = 14  4.73  1og 0.02
2 2
1
= 14  4.73  1.698  5.48
2
58. 4
59. 1 The water gas is mixed with excess of steam and passed 450°C over a heated catalyst
(Fe2O3 + Cr2O3). CO is mostly oxidised to CO2 and more H2 is set free. CO2 is absorbed
in aqueous sodium arsenite

2O   CO2  2H2

Catalyst
CO + H2 + H
Steam

Water gas
60. 2 Only Mg react with cold dil. HNO3 to give H2.
61. 2 In ice crystals each oxygen atom is surrounded tetrahedrally by four oxygen atoms
at a distance of 276 pm.

62. 2 2Na  2H2O  2NaOH  H2

'A' 'C ' 'B '

Zn  2NaOH  Na 2 ZnO2  H2

'D' 'C ' 'B '

Zn  dil.H2SO4  ZnSO4  H2

'A' 'C ' 'B'
Na produces golden yellow colour with smokeless flame of Bunsen burner
63. 3 NaOH absorbs moisture and CO2 from air to form Na2CO3.
2NaOH + CO2  Na2CO3 + H2O

64. 2 4LiH + AlCl3  LiAlH4 + 3LiCl

65. 1 NaHCO3  NaOH  Na 2CO3  H2O

Acid salt Alkali
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

66. 2 ZnSO4  2NaOH  Zn  OH2  Na 2SO4

ppt

67. 3 Na K Ba Ca Sr

Yellow Pale violet Apple green Brick red Crimsom

68. 4 Hydrated chlorides, bromides .......... of Mg & Be undergo hydrolysis on heating

Al  OH3  OH   Al  OH 4 


69. 1  

Coordination number is 6; thus, it exists as  Al  H2O 2  OH 4 

70. 3 The correct formula of borax is Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O

OH

B
O O
HO B O B OH
O O
B

OH

71. 4 White tin crumbles into powder due to formation of grey tin at low temperature.

72. 3 CO  NaOH 

under pressure
 H  COO  Na
sodium formate

73. 3 2KMnO4  3H2SO4  K 2SO4  2MnSO4  3H2O  5O

5H2O2  5O  5H2O  SO2
2KMnO4  3H2SO4  5H2O2  K 2SO4  2MnSO4  8H2O  5O2

74. 1 MnO24 in neutral aqueous medium is disproportionate to 2/3 mole of MnO4 and 1/
3 mole of MnO2
75. 3 The values of x, y, z are 8, 4, 4 respectively hence the reaction is
H2SO4  8HI  H2S  4I2  4H2O
76. 4 HNO2 (Nitrous acid) acid acts as an oxidising, reducing agent and has complex formation
properties

77. 4 Co  NH3 4 ClNO2  ; x + 4(0) + 1 (–1) + 1 (–1) = 0

x + 0 – 1 – 1 = 0; x – 2 = 0; x = +2
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

5 3
6 2 1
7
78. 4 8
4 2,2,6,6,7-Pentamethyloctane
Set or locants = 2, 2, 6, 6, 7
79. 2 The largest chain with maximum number of locants become the parent chain.

6
5

3 4

1 2

3,4,4-trimethyl-2,2,5-triethyl hexane

2 1

80. 3
5 4

2 4
3 6
5
81. 3 1

OH
2
3
COOH
82. 1
4
5

IUPAC name is 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid

In (b) and (c) ethenyl group is substituent
In (d) ethynyl group is substituent
83. 1 Sink is the medium in the environment which consumed partly or completely a
certain pollutant
84. 4 Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. It has high concentration
of NO, NO2 and O3. Their low concentration causes irritation in nose and throat and
their high concentration causes headache, chest pain, cough and difficulty in
breathing.
85. 1 Reaction of methylamine and phosgene to produce MIC (methylisocyanate)is not an
example of green chemistry.
FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
86. 3 27 g of Al is obtained by passing a current of 3  96500 C .

96500
 1g of Al is obtained by passing a current of 3  C
27

96500
 5.12  103 g of Al is obtained by passing a current of 3   5.12  1000
27

= 1.83  107 C  3  5.49  107 C

0 9.6
87. 1  N H4OH  150  76  198  272 ;    0.0353
272

As E Cr3  /Cr  0.7 V and EFe2 /Fe  0.42 V

0 0
88. 1

2Cr  3Fe2  3Fe  2Cr 3

2
Cr 3   0.1
2
0.0591 0.0591
E cell  E 0
 log   0.42  0.72  log
0.01
cell 3 3
6 Fe2  6

0.1
2
0.0591 0.0591
= 0.30 – log 3 = 0.30  log104 ; Ecell  0.2606 V
6 0.01 6

0.75  10  60
89. 3 2O2  O2  4e ; Mole of e = ;
96500

4.66  103
M ole of O 2 =  0.0261 L
4

2 4
90. 3 Al2O3  Al  O2
3 3

2
Thus,  3  O2 
3

i.e., 2O2  O2  4e 

G  966 kJ mol 1  966  103 J mol 1

G = nFE cell ; 966  103  4  96500  E cell ; Ecell  2.5 V

FT20C/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

BIOLOGY
91. 2 121. 2 150. 2

92. 4 122. 3 151. 2

93. 4 152. 4
123. 2
94. 3 153. 3
124. 2
154. 2
95. 1
125. 2
155. 3
96. 1
126. 2
156. 3
97. 1
127. 4 157. 4
98. 1
128. 4 158. 1 Only a is correct; b,c & d are wrong
99. 1
129. 3 159. 2
100. 3
130. 4 160. 4
101. 4
161. 3
131. 1
102. 1
162. 3
132. 4
103. 4 163. 3 c and d are correct
104. 3 133. 2
164. 3
105. 1 134. 4
165. 1
106. 3 135. 2 166. 3
107. 1 136. 1 167. 2
108. 4 137. 3 168. 2

109. 2 138. 4 169. 2

110. 2 170. 1
139. 1
111. 4 171. 1
140. 3
172. 3
112. 1
141. 3
173. 2
113. 2
142. 2
174. 1
114. 4
143. 2
175. 2
115. 3
144. 1
176. 1
116. 2
145. 4
177. 4
117. 1
146. 3
178. 2
118. 1 147. 2
179. 2
119. 2 148. 3
180. 3
120. 2 149. 3