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CEFR Student'S BOOK [ Version 02-2023]

Tiếng amh (Trường Đại học Công nghệ Thành phố Hồ Chí Minh)

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UNIVERSITY
2 OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)
OREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

HUTECH UNIVERSITY
INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

CEFR (B1)
REVIEW
STUDENT’S BOOK

FOR INTERNAL CIRCULATION ONLY

VERSION:
Page 202-2023

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CONTENTS

Test format .............................................................................................................................. page 1

READING ................................................................................................................... page 3

1. Vocabulary and grammar .......................................................................................... page 3
A. Incomplete sentences ............................................................................................ page 3
B. Signs .............................................................................................................................. page 16
2. Reading comprehension ............................................................................................ page 22
A. Reading passage ....................................................................................................... page 22
B. Cloze text ..................................................................................................................... page 48

WRITING ................................................................................................................... page 62

1. Sentence transformation ........................................................................................... page 62
2. Composition .................................................................................................................... page 69
A. Emails & Letters ....................................................................................................... page 69
B. Essays............................................................................................................................ page 73

LISTENING ................................................................................................................ page 75

SPEAKING ................................................................................................................. page 109

A. Introduction .................................................................................................................... page 109
B. Speaking topics .............................................................................................................. page 109

Sample tests............................................................................................................. page 118

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

FORMAT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH

TƯƠNG ĐƯƠNG CHUẨN CEFR (B1)
HỘI ĐỒNG KIỂM TRA TRÌNH ĐỘ CEFR
Phần kiểm tra: ĐỌC VIẾT – NGHE – VẤN ĐÁP
(B1)
Ngày kiểm tra: ..........................................................
(Đề có …… trang) Thời gian làm bài: 135 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)

Mã đề: B1-0...

READING – WRITING
(60 pts – 90 minutes)
PART I: READING (30 pts)
1. Vocabulary and grammar: (15 pts)
A. Incomplete sentences:
Choose the best possible answer A, B, C or D for each sentence below (Questions 1-10 (10 pts))
E.g: 1. You should more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make B. get C. set D. pay
B. Signs:
Read the signs and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D (Questions 11-15 (5
pts))
E.g: 11 A. We cannot deliver papers at the weekend.
B. We plan to stop delivering papers five days from now.
TO STOP DAILY
PAPER DELIVERIES C. You must tell us five days early if you don’t want
FIVE DAYS WARNING papers.
MUST BE GIVEN D. Please tell us if you don’t want papers at the
weekend.
2. Reading comprehension: (15 pts)
A. Reading passage:
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
(Questions 16-20 (5 pts))
E.g: 16. What was particularly unusual about Monk’s House?
A. The bathroom was next door to the kitchen.
B. Mrs. Woolf’s bedroom door opened on to the garden.
C. The kitchen window looked out over fields.
D. The breakfast room was upstairs.
B. Cloze text:
Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase (Questions 21-30 (10
pts))
E.g: If you're invited to an American friend's home for dinner, keep in (21) _
these general rules for polite behavior.

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

21. A. touch B. mind C. head D. safe

PART II: WRITING (30 pts)

1. Sentence transformation: (10 pts)
Rewrite the sentences with the same meaning (Questions 31-35 (10 pts))
E.g: 31. My brother helped me write the report last week.
 I had my brother write the report last week.
2. Composition: (20 pts)
Write a composition (150 -200 words) on one of the following topics (20 pts)
E.g:
Topic 1:
You have recently been to stay with an old friend in his/her hometown for a few days.
You hadn’t seen each other for a long time. Write an email with at least 150 words to the
friend including:
 say how you felt about the visit
 refer to something enjoyable that you did while staying with him/her
 invite your friend to visit you someday
Topic 2: Today more people are overweight than ever before. What in your opinion
are the primary causes of this? What measures can be taken to overcome this epidemic?

LISTENING
(20 pts – 35 minutes)
PART I: Listen carefully and decide if the following statements are True (T) or
False (F). (5/10 sentences – 5 pts)
E.g: 1. T Russell knows Audrey for more than two years.
PART II: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C (or D)) for each
question.
(5/10 sentences – 5 pts)
E.g: 11. What kind of movie is the girl going to see on her date?
A. horror B. romance C. science fiction
PART III: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
(10 blanks – 10 pts)
E.g: Now here's an interesting story about the (16) of how memory
works... or doesn't work.
16. mystery

SPEAKING
(20 pts – 10 minutes)
 Procedure: Candidates choose a random topic, prepare within 3 minutes and interact
with the examiner within 5-7 minute.
Topics 1-6

----------THE END---------

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

READING

1. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

A. Incomplete sentences
Choose the best possible answer A, B, C or D for each sentence below.
1. He has been very interested in doing research on since he was at high school.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
2. Are you sure that boys are more than girls?
A. act B. active C. action D. activity
3. It is generally believed that “Men make house and women make
home.”
A. no article/ no article B. a/ an C. the/ the D. an/ the
4. Most doctors and nurses have to work on a once or twice a week at the
hospital.
A. solution B. night shift C. household chores D. special dishes
5. We enjoy time together in the evening when the family members gather in the
living room after a day of working hard.
A. spending B. caring C. taking D. doing
6. It is parents’ duty and responsibility to hands to take care of their children
and give them a happy home.
A. shake B. hold C. join D. take
7. He is a boy. He is often kind and helpful to every classmate.
A. frank B. lovely C. obedient D. caring
8. Doctors are supposed to responsibility for human life.
A. do B. take C. rush D. join
9. sure that you follow the instructions carefully.
A. Believe B. Try C. Do D. Make
10. Sometimes Mr. Pike has to work very late night to do some important
experiments.
A. in B. at C. for D. on
11. Peter was a hurry to go so he did not stop to greet me.
A. in B. on C. with D. over
12. It it is parents’ responsibility to take good care of their children.
A. commonly says that B. commonly to be said that
C. is commonly said that D. is commonly saying
13. Most children enjoy with their parents and siblings.
A. play B. to play C. playing D. played
14. He studies his two brothers.
A. much better than B. more better than C. more good than D. very better than

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

15. the eldest child, he works hard to help his parents support the family.
A. Be B. Is C. To be D. Being
16. They for 3 hours when the storm suddenly broke.
A. had been running B. have been running C. are running D. will be running
17. No matter what happens next, I help you.
A. am B. have C. will D. would
18. I come to the conclusion that nowadays nobody cares about anything.
A. will B. had C. do D. have
19. I assumed you paying for the repairs until the end of last year.
A. have been B. was been C. are being D. had been
20. get tired of answering the same questions every day?
A. Have you ever B. Had you ever C. Do you ever D. Are you ever
21. She working on that manuscript for 2 years now.
A. will be B. has been C. had been D. is
22. I there once a long time ago and I back since.
A. went/ have not been B. go/ am not
C. have gone/ was D. was going/ had not been
23. She trying to pass her driving test but fails every time.
A. kept B. is keeping C. had kept D. keeps
24. I complete silence now while I try this experiment.
A. am wanting B. want C. did want D. have wanted
25. The students by Mrs. Monty. However, this week they _ by Mr.
Tanzer.
A. are usually taught/ are being taught B. usually teach/ are teaching
C. have usually been taught/ have been teaching D. were usually teaching/ are teaching
26. You are old enough to take for what you have done.
A. responsible B. responsibility C. responsibly D. irresponsible
27. These quick and easy can be effective in the short term, but they have a cost.
A. solve B. solvable C. solutions D. solvability
28. John is only child in his family, so his parents love him a lot.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
29. According to the boss, John is the most for the position of executive
secretary.
A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable
30. She got up late and rush to the bus stop.
A. came into B. went leisurely C. went quickly D. dropped by
31. Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking.
A. help B. prepared C. be busy D. attempt
32. Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. happen B. encounter C. arrive D. clean
33. What are the of that country? – I think it is some kinds of cheese and sauces.
A. drinks B. beverages C. grains D. special dishes

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

34. Peter tried his best and passed the driving test at the first .
A. try B. attempt C. doing D. aim
35. Where is Jimmy? – He is work. He is busy his monthly report.
A. on/ for B. in/ about C. to/ through D. at/ with
36. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is pressure now.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
37. We are not allowed jeans at school.
A. wear B. to wear C. wearing D. worn
38. Sometimes I do not feel like to my sibling about my troubles.
A. talk B. to talk C. talking D. talked
39. The worker was his boss expected, so he was offered a raise.
A. more hard-working B. as hard-working than
C. more hard-working than D. more hard-working as
40. John a respectful and obedient student.
A. said to be B. is said C. is said being D. is said to be
41. I love films but I seldom find time to go to the cinema.
A. see B. saw C. seen D. seeing
42. In the last hundred years, travelling much easier and more comfortable.
A. becomes B. has become C. became D. will become
43. In the nineteenth century, it two or three months to cross North America by
covered wagon.
A. took B. had taken C. has taken D. was taking
44. In the past, the trip very rough and dangerous, but things a great
deal in the last hundred and fifty years.
A. was/ have changed B. is/ change
C. had been/ will change D. has been/ changed
45. Now you from New York to Los Angeles in a matter of hours.
A. are flying B. would fly C. will fly D. can fly
46. When Carol last night, I my favorite show on television.
A. was calling/ watched B. called/ have watched
C. called/ was watching D. had called/ watched
47. By this time next summer, you your studies.
A. completes B. will complete
C. are completing D. will have completed
48. Right now, Jim the newspaper, and Kathy dinner.
A. reads/ has cooked B. is reading/ is cooking
C. has read/ was cooking D. read/ will be cooking
49. Last night at this time, they the same thing. She and he _ the newspaper.
A. are doing/ is cooking/ is reading
B. were doing/ was cooking/ was reading
C. was doing/ has cooked/ is reading
D. had done/ was cooking/ read

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

50. When I home last night, I that Jane a beautiful

candlelight dinner.
A. had arrived/ discovered/ prepared
B. was arriving/ had discovered/ was preparing
C. have arrived/ was discovering/ had prepared
D. arrived/ discovered/ was preparing
51. He was looking at his parents waiting for recommendations.
A. obey B. obedience C. obedient D. obediently
52. The interview with parents showed that the vast majority were of teachers.
A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting
53. Billy has been seriously ill, and he was taken to hospital yesterday.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
54. My husband and I both go out to work so we share the .
A. happiness B. household chores C. responsibility D. employment
55. You should not burn . You had better dig a hole and bury it.
A. dishes B. lab C. garbage D. shift
56. He was very respectful at home and to his parents.
A. responsible B. caring C. obedient D. lovely
57. One of Vietnamese traditions is a belief in families and in preserving their
cultures.
A. wealthy B. secure C. safe D. close-knit
58. He was when I had those problems and said whatever I did he would stand
by me.
A. supportive B. exciting C. busy D. dull
59. He was determined to give his family a secure and solid .
A. base B. floor C. basement D. ground
60. It’s hard work looking three children all day.
A. after B. up C. to D. through
61. When my mother is busy preparing dinner, my father often gives a hand
tidying the living room.
A. on B. with C. for D. about
62. I put your keys in the drawer they cannot get lost.
A. because B. let alone C. instead of D. so that
63. Alex is busy _ for his exams.
A. to study B. studied C. studying D. studies
64. She is never willing any personal question.
A. answer B. to answer C. answering D. answered
65. a doctor, you have to meet some certain requirements of the medical college.
A. To become B. Become C. Becoming D. Became
66. Sam to change a light bulb when he and .
A. was trying/ slipped/ fell B. tried/ was sleeping/ falling
C. had been trying/ slipped/ was falling D. has tried/ slips/ falls

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

67. Every day I up at 6 o’clock, breakfast at 7 o’clock and

for work at 8 o’clock.
A. get/ eat/ leave B. have got/ eating/ leaving
C. got/ ate/ left D. will get/ have eaten/ left
68. Yesterday, I for work late because I to set my alarm.
A. had left/ forgot B. was leaving/ was forgetting
C. left/ had forgot D. had been leaving/ would forget
69. By the time we to the train station, Susan for us for more than
two hours.
A. will get/ has been waiting B. got/ was waiting
C. got/ had been waiting D. get/ will wait
70. I for this company for more than thirty years, and I intend to stay here until I
next year.
A. am working/ will retire B. am going to work/ am retiring
C. work/ am going to retire D. have been working/ retire
71. My mother is always the first up and the last to bed.
A. getting/ going B. to get/ going C. getting/ to go D. to get/ to go
72. I you last night after dinner, but you there. Where you?
A. was calling/ are not/ are B. called/ were not/ were
C. had called/ had not been/ were D. called/ have not been/ are
73. The Titanic the Atlantic when it an iceberg.
A. was crossing/ struck B. had crossed/ was striking
C. crossed/ had struck D. is crossing/ strikes
74. to come over for dinner tonight?
A. Do you want B. Are you wanting C. Have you wanted D. Will you want
75. What at this time tomorrow?
A. will you do B. will you be doing
C. will you have done D. will you have been doing
76. London is home to people of many cultures.
A. diverse B. diversity C. diversify D. diversification
77. John cannot make a to get married to Mary or stay single until he can afford
a house and a car.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively
78. My mother used to be a woman of great , but now she gets old and looks pale.
A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautifully D. beautify
79. My father phoned me to say that he would come home late.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
80. At last they divorced after ten years of marriage.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
81. A curriculum that ignores ethnic tensions, racial antagonism, cultural and
religious differences is not relevant.
A. diversity B. contacts C. barries D. levels

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

82. Some researchers have just a survey of young people’s points of view on
contractual marriage.
A. sent B. directed C. managed D. conducted
83. It is not easy to our beauty when we get older and older.
A. develop B. maintain C. gain D. collect
84. Many young people have objected to marriage, which is decided by the
parents of the bride and groom.
A. agreed B. shared C. contractual D. sacrificed
85. All parents are to at least try to behave in ways that will give their own
children an important protection.
A. decided B. supposed C. followed D. rejected
86. It is thought that traditional marriage are important basis of limiting divorce
rates.
A. appearances B. records C. responses D. values
87. Affected by the Western cultures, Vietnamese young people’s attitudes love
and marriage have dramatically changed.
A. for B. with C. through D. towards
88. Sometimes she does not agree her husband about child’s rearing but they
soon find the solutions.
A. for B. on C. with D. of
89. The young are more concerned with physical attractiveness than elderly people.
A. much B. as C. many D. as much as
90. It will take more or less a month to prepare for the wedding.
A. approximately B. generally C. frankly D. simply
91. The number of the participants in the survey 250 students for Oxford
University.
A. are B. was C. were D. have been
92. The grass was yellow because it all summer.
A. does not rain B. has not rained C. had not rained D. would not rain
93. Many people even wonder these days .
A. what marriage is B. what is marriage
C. what marriage was D. what was marriage
94. The lights _ out because we the electricity bill.
A. have gone/ did not pay B. will go/ did not paid
C. go/ would not pay D. went/ had not paid
95. Tom Cruise’s last movie? Yes, I it three days ago.
A. Have you ever seen/ saw B. Did you ever see/ have seen
C. Had you ever seen/ would see D. Will you ever see/ saw
96. In the past, people to the beach more often.
A. have gone B. used to go C. were going D. had gone
97. Soon, people most of the time at home.
A. will work B. are working C. have worked D. work

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

98. I a terrible accident while I on the beach.

A. see/ am walking B. saw/ was walking
C. was seeing/ walked D. have seen/ were walking
99. After all, she him since her childhood.
A. knows B. knew C. was knowing D. had known
100. We touch since we school three years ago.
A. lost/ have left B. have lost/ leave
C. have lost/ left D. were losing/ had left
101. Although they are twins with almost similarities in appearance, they are seldom in
.
A. agree B. agreeable C. agreement D. agreeably
102. The more and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confide B. confident C. confidently D. confidence
103. My parents will have celebrated 30 years of by next week.
A. marry B. married C. marriageable D. marriage
104. Mr. Pike held his wife’s hands and talked urgently to her in a low voice, but there
didn’t seem to be any response.
A. feeling B. emotion C. reply D. effect
105. Family is the place where children is not only tolerated but welcomed and
encouraged.
A. taking B. having C. giving D. showing
106. Socially, the married is thought to be the basic unit of society.
A. couple B. pair C. twins D. double
107. Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. variety B. changes C. conservation D. number
108. You are not to say anything unless you wish to do so.
A. obliged B. willing C. equal D. attracted
109. A woman can never have a happy married life without her husband.
A. demanding B. agreeing C. trusting D. determined
110. large number of India men agreed that it was unwise to confide in their
wives.
A. A B. An C. The D. no article
111. Not all men are concerned with _ physical attractiveness of their girlfriends
and wives.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
112. My mother is the only one that I can absolutely confide .
A. in B. for C. with D. up
113. After they have been love for 2 years, they decide to get married.
A. for B. with C. on D. in
114. In some cases, Mary is thought not to be _ her sister.
A. as much intelligent than B. so intelligent than
C. intelligent more than D. as intelligent as

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

115. She is I expect.

A. more prettier than B. far prettier than
C. much more prettier than D. a lot prettier as
116. There were about 100 attendees at the wedding, and half of them were the
bride’s and groom’s relatives.
A. less B. not less than C. no less than D. nor less than
117. The bride looked _ on her wedding than she does as usual.
A. nicer and more attractive B. more nicer and more attractive
C. more nice and more attractive D. more attractive and nicer
118. , people used to read more.
A. Twenty years before B. Twenty years ago
C. For twenty years D. Since twenty years
119. in Rome than he .
A. No sooner he had arrived/ was being kidnapped
B. No sooner had he arrived/ was kidnapped
C. Had he no sooner arrived/ kidnapped
D. No sooner was he arriving/ had been kidnapped
120. John usually watch TV at the weekend?
A. Will B. Is C. Does D. Has
121. Since I to this country, I a lot about the local culture.
A. came/ have been learning B. had come/ was learning
C. will come/ had been learn D. have been coming/ will learn
122. We had to the picnic because a hurricane was just released on the radio.
A. call off B. see about C. put aside D. do without
123. As many as ten - million children with the virus by the end of this decade.
A. have been infected B. will be effecting
C. had been infected D. will have been infected
124. What when the fire alarm off?
A. are you doing/ will go B. have you done/ would go
C. were you doing/ went D. will you do/ are going
125. you send this wedding card to Peter, please?
A. Will B. Are C. Did D. Had
126. When Peter ,I him to your new house.
A. will arrive/ take B. arrives/ will take
C. has arrived/ am taking D. had arrived/ had taken
127. She is a kind of woman who does not care much of work but generally only
with colleagues for meals, movies or late nights at a club.
A. supposes B. socializes C. attends D. discusses
128. I didn’t think his comments were very appropriate at the time.
A. correct B. right C. exact D. suitable
129. You should _ more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make B. get C. set D. pay

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HO CHI MINH CITY UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY (HUTECH)

INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

130. Body language is a potent form of communication.

A. verbal B. non-verbal C. tongue D. oral
131. Our teacher often said, “Who knows the answer? your hand.”
A. Rise B. Lift C. Raise D. Heighten
132. This is the instance where big, obvious non-verbal signals are appropriate.
A. situation B. attention C. place D. matter
133. They started as gatherings but they have become increasingly formalized
in the last few years.
A. informal B. informally C. informalize D. informality
134. Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and .
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative D. communicator
135. The lecturer explained the problem very clearly and is always in response
to questions.
A. attention B. attentive C. attentively D. attentiveness
136. Pay more attention the picture and you can find out who is the robber.
A. to B. for C. at D. on
137. She looked me, smiling happily and confidently.
A. on B. over C. forward D. at
138. – What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!
–
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid. B. You are telling a lie.
C. Thank you for your compliment. D. I don’t like your saying.
139. In most social situations, informality is appreciated.
A. Ɵ/ Ɵ B. the/ an C. a/ the D. the/ a
140. – What beautiful dress you are wearing!
– Thank you. That is nice compliment.
A. a/ a B. the/ Ɵ C. Ɵ/ Ɵ D. the/ the
141. you wanted to ask your teacher a question during his lecture, what would
you do?
A. As B. As if C. Even of D. Suppose
142. John asked me in English.
A. what does this word mean B. what that word means
C. what did this word mean D. what that word meant
143. The mother told her son so impolitely.
A. not behave B. not to behave C. not behaving D. did not behave
144. She said she collect it for me after work.
A. would B. did C. must D. had
145. She said I an angel.
A. am B. was C. were D. have been
146. I told him the word to Jane somehow that I to reach her during
the early hours.
A. passing/ will try B. he will pass/ tried

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C. to pass/ would be trying D. he passed/ have tried

147. Laura said she had worked on the assignment since .
A. yesterday B. two days ago C. the day before D. the next day
148. John asked me interested in any kind of sports.
A. if I were B. if were I C. if was I D. if I was
149. I you everything I am doing, and you have to do the same.
A. will tell B. would tell C. told D. was telling
150. John asked me that film the night before.
A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen
151. A new satellite has just been launched into the earth’s orbit to take some
necessary photographs.
A. communicate B. communication
C. communicative D. communicatively
152. It is of great to show your interest and politeness when you are having a
job interview.
A. importance B. important C. importantly D. unimportant
153. Facial show one’s feelings when he is communicating.
A. expressions B. expresses C. expressive D. expressively
154. Expressing confidence is important to those who want to succeed in
job interview.
A. a/ the B. the/ Ɵ C. a/ a D. Ɵ/ a
155. nonverbal communication is different from culture to culture.
A. A B. An C. The D. Ɵ
156. Some people get married not simply because they are love.
A. for B. with C. in D. on
157. Education is very necessary leading a good life.
A. on B. in C. for D. with
158. She never looks __ anyone who she is talking . She seems to be lack
confidence.
A. at/ to/ of B. for/ with/ in C. up/ for/ with D. on/ about/ for
159. He came to for what had happened because he had clearly been in the
wrong.
A. apologize B. compliment C. promise D. serve
160. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at
the annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
161. John looked up at Jane and tried a smile of love, of , of gratitude.
A. dislike B. unreliability C. trust D. anger
162. Body language includes our , facial expressions, and gestures.
A. posture B. mature C. picture D. body
163. Parents interpret facial and vocal expressions as indicators of how a baby is feeling.
A. translate B. understand C. read D. comprehend

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164. Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a banquet.
A. an enormous breakfast B. a formal conference
C. an informal party D. a formal party
165. He asked us not to make so much noise he was working.
A. and that if B. and C. and that D. and added that
166. She told him .
A. patient B. to be patient C. was patient D. that being patient
167. Daniel asked me if I thought .
A. it will rain today B. it will rain that day
C. it would rain today D. it would rain that day
168. Barbara asked me the homework that week.
A. that she must do B. if she has to do
C. if she had to do D. if did she have to do
169. Robert wanted to know if I was leaving the Friday.
A. following B. ago C. previous D. before
170. Jenifer asked me _ the week before.
A. where had I gone B. where I had gone
C. where did I gone D. I had gone where
171. I to the shops, but I anything because I my wallet.
A. go/ cannot buy/ will lose B. was going/ did not buy/ have lost
C. am going/ am not buying/ will lose D. went/ could not buy/ had lost
172. I well recently. I to see my doctor yesterday. He said that I
some rest.
A. do not sleep/ went/ would need B. have not slept/ went/ needed
C. did not sleep/ go/ will need D. had not slept/ went/ had needed
173. They him for weeks.
A. do not see B. did not see C. have not seen D. will not have seen
174. Everyday Mary on the computer, but today she a typewriter
because there is no power.

A. types/ is using B. is typing/ uses

C. has typed/ will use D. types/ has used
175. She said that she hadn’t visited the UK .
A. before B. then C. now D. ago
176. He was so that he could not even say a word.
A. nerve B. nerves C. nervous D. nervously
177. I am really in the way he talks, but the way he behaves.
A. interest B. interested C. interesting D. interestingly
178. His attitude made me really .
A. anger B. angers C. angry D. angrily
179. We can communicate not only through words but also through
body language.

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A. Ɵ/ Ɵ B. the/ the C. Ɵ/ the D. the/ Ɵ
180. He has not kept in touch with us for long time.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ɵ
181. He got angry me when I said that he was wrong.
A. on B. upon C. with D. for
182. A smile is a sign friendliness and interest.
A. on B. about C. of D. from
183. Peter is very busy his new house.
A. over B. with C. for D. on
184. The meaning from touch is dependent the context, the relationship
between communicators, and the manner of touch.
A. in B. upon C. with D. from
185. When communicating, nonverbal messages can with verbal messages in
some ways.
A. act B. interact C. mix D. go
186. can be defined as communication include handshakes, holding hands,
kissing, back slapping, a pat on the shoulders, and brushing an arm.
A. Touches B. Eye contact
C. Facial expressions D. Wink
187. A gesture is a non-vocal bodily intended to express meaning.
A. action B. glance C. contact D. movement
188. Children can be a little and they like to see quick results.
A. shy B. slow C. impatient D. polite
189. They do their work with such cheerfulness, and unselfish dedication.
A. friendliness B. laziness C. politeness D. shyness
190. An important source of dissatisfaction was a of challenge.
A. lack B. measurement C. sight D. contact
191. When I up this morning, my roommate already.
A. am waking/ leaves B. wake/ has left
C. woke/ had left D. was waking/ left
192. Someone at the door. I it.
A. is knocking/ will answer B. knocked/ would answer
C. knocks/ have answered D. would knock/ was answering
193. Experiments represent a giant step into the medicine of the future.
A. use gene therapy B. they use
C. gene therapy use D. using gene therapy
194. These workers on strike to ask for higher salary at present.
A. are going B. was going C. have gone D. had gone
195. I him very much. He is so brilliant.
A. like B. am liking C. have liked D. was liking
196. John said that his brother at home then.
A. is B. was C. were D. has been

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197. Max told me a book in the evening.

A. if he often reads B. he has often read
C. that he often read D. he was reading
198. Mary told me home at that moment, she her parents with the
farm work.
A. that if she was/ had helped B. if she were/ will have helped
C. that if she had been/ would have helped D. that she had been/ would have helped
199. Tim asked Sarah English so far.
A. she had been learning how long B. how long was she learning
C. how long she has been learning D. how long she had been learning
200. Tom said that he had been to England .
A. ten years before B. the years ago
C. the following ten years D. the next ten years

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B. Signs
Read the signs and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D

1.
A. Always keep this door open.
B. Do not park in front of this entrance.
C. Permission is needed to park here.
D. Only use this entrance in an emergency.

2.
MACHINE
A. Drinks cannot be ordered at the bar.
OUT OF ORDER
B. Use this machine when the bar is closed.
DRINKS
AVAILABLE AT C. There is a drinks machine in the bar.
BAR D. This machine is not working at the moment.

3.
Please show
A. The librarian needs to see your books before you go.
the librarian
B. Make sure you take all your books with you.
all books
when you leave the C. Return your books before you leave the library.
library D. The librarian will show you where to put your books.

4.
Keep this door A. This room cannot be used at present.
locked B. This door must always be kept locked.
when room not C. Lock the room when it is not being used.
D. Keep the key to this door in the room.
in use
5. A. Supersaver tickets can be used every day except Fridays.
Supersaver
B. You need a special ticket to travel on a Friday.
Tickets cannot be
C. Supersaver tickets cannot be bought before the weekend.
used on Fridays D. You can save money by travelling on a Friday.
6. A. Do not forget to put your luggage outside your room.
DO NOT LEAVE
B. Keep the corridor clear of luggage.
YOUR BAGS IN
C. Bags left in the corridor will be removed.
THE CORRIDOR D. Bags will be collected from the corridor.
7. PLEASE USE
THE UPSTAIRS A. Wait upstairs to see the nurse.
WAITING ROOM B. Go upstairs to make an appointment with the nurse.
IF YOU HAVE C. The nurse will tell you when it is your turn.
AN APPOINTMENT D. The nurse can only see patients with appointments.
WITH THE NURSE

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A. Do not touch the fruit before paying for it.
8.
PICK YOUR OWN B. Damaged fruit must be paid for.
FRUIT AND PAY C. Self-service fruit is cheaper.
INSIDE SHOP D. Choose your fruit and then pay for it.

9. A. Please be quiet while people are taking their examination.

B. Do not talk to the examiner.
C. Do not speak during the examination.
D. The examiner will tell you when you can talk.

10. A. Bring your computer here for repairs.

WE ONLY REPAIR
B. We will not mend computers bought from other shops.
COMPUTERS C. We charge to repair computers not bought here.
WHICH WERE D. Computers bought here never need repairing.
BOUGHT HERE
11.
BRIGHTSON’S A. The entrance to the bank is through the library.
TRAVEL AGENCY B. The travel agency has moved its entrance.
Our new entrance C. The library is now a travel agency.
is between the bank and D. The travel agency is no longer open.
the library
12. A. This list shows who has been chosen to go on the trip.
Add your name B. This list should be signed by people wanting to go on the
to this list trip.
if you want to C. Check the list for information if you are going on the trip.
go on the trip D. If you find your name on this list, you can go on the trip.

13. A. The new ticket office is now open.

FROM 17 SEPTEMBER B. There will be two ticket offices after 17 September.
PLEASE USE C. This ticket office will be close for one day.
THE NEW D. This ticket office will close on 16 September.
TICKET OFFICE
14. WE REGRET A. If you spend less than £10, you cannot pay by credit card.
WE CANNOT ACCEPT B. We prefer cash for large sales.
PAYMENT BY CREDIT C. We make a charge if you pay by credit card.
CARD FOR SALE D. If you spend more than £ 10, you must pay by credit card.
UNDER £ 10
A. Dogs must wait outside.
15.
SORRY B. Dogs must walk with their owners.
NO DOGS C. Dogs must be kept on a chain.
UNLESS CARRIED D. Dogs must be held.

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A. Everything is cheaper this week.
16.
ALL PRICES B. No extra charges next week.
REDUCED C. Usual prices this week.
D. Cheaper prices next week.
THIS WEEK
17. A. You can send your groceries from here.
WE CAN B. You can store your groceries here.
DELIVER YOUR C. You can get your free groceries here.
D. You can have your groceries sent to you.
GROCERIES
A. Cleaning now costs twice as much.
18.
TWO JACKETS B. Cleaning costs are now cheaper.
CLEANED FOR THE C. Cleaning costs are going up.
PRICE OF ONE D. Cleaning costs will stay the same.

19. A. You must pay to park here.

PARKING SPACE B. If you use the train you can park here.
FOR C. This space is for railway officials.
STATION USERS D. No one is allowed to park here.
ONLY
20. A. You can buy your ticket during the journey.
PASSENGERS MUST B. You pay when you get off.
BE IN POSSESSION OF C. You have to book a seat before travelling.
A TICKET BEFORE D. You have to buy a ticket before your journey.
TRAVELLING
21. A. Passengers are allowed to change their seats.
B. Passengers are allowed to eat snacks on the bus.
C. Passengers can make noise on the bus.
D. Passengers have to follow the bus rules.
A. Knock the door if you want to enter when it does not
22. often.
B. Open the door when you want to enter.
C. You are not allowed to enter when the door does not
open.
D. You are not allowed to enter if the door open.
A. It’s unsafe to go ahead because the area is flooding.
23.
B. You will be drown if you turn around.
C. You should go ahead if you want to avoid flooding area.
D. If you can swim, you can go ahead.

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

24. A. This is dogs’ play area.

B. Children can play with dogs in this area.
C. Dogs are not allowed to enter this area.
D. People can take their dogs with them in this area.

25. A. People must wear long sleeve shirt and trousers in this
area.
B. People must wear casual clothes in this area except long
sleeve shirt and trousers.
C. People have to wear formal clothes in this area except
long sleeve shirt and trousers.
D. Long sleeve shirt and trousers should be worn in this
area.
26. A. Pay attention to the kids when you are playing.
B. You have to slow down your speed and be careful when
you are driving in this area.
C. You are not allowed to drive in this area.
D. Driving is prohibited in this area.
27. A. This area is for smoking only.
B. This area is for eating only.
C. This area is for drinking only.
D. You are not allowed to smoke, eat and drink in this area.
28. A. Only adults are permitted to drink alcohol on this site.
B. People under 18 are not allowed to drink alcohol on this
site.
C. No one can drink alcohol on this site.
D. You are permitted to buy alcohol on this site.
29.
A. People will give you a free drive when they see this sign.
B. Drivers won’t stop when you want to hitchhike here.
C. You are allowed to hitchhike when you see this sign.
D. Hitch hiking is accepted here.

30. A. Parents and visitors are free to enter the school.

B. Visitors have to sign in at the office to enter the school.
C. Parents don’t have to sign in at the office to enter the
school.
D. All parents and visitors have to sign in to receive a pass at
the office in order to enter the school.

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31. A. Students can use their cell phones outside the school
campus.
B. Students are allowed to use cell phones in the school
campus.
C. Students have to submit their cell phones at the school
gate before they enter the school campus.
D. Parents should keep their children’s cell phones before
their children enter the school.
32.
A. There is no parking left in this area.
B. This parking zone is used only for buses.
C. Bus drivers are not allowed to stop here.
D. This parking zone is used only for loading goods.

33. A. It won’t hurt if you are falling down.

B. This area of working is safe.
C. You will be in the danger of falling if you don’t work at a
safe distance and don’t use safety belt.
D. You don’t need to use safety belt when you work in this
site.
34. A. Drivers can park in this area after 6 PM on Saturday and
Sunday.
B. Parking time in this area is from 7 AM to 6 PM Monday to
Friday.
C. Drivers are allowed to park their cars in this area before 7
AM and after 6 PM.
D. Parking is not allowed in this area from 7AM to 6 PM
Monday through Friday.
35.
A. Avoid smoking and naked lights because this area is
highly flammable.
B. This is non-smoker area.
C. Naked lights aren’t allowed to use in this area.
D. Smokers should use naked lights to light their cigarettes
in this area.

36.
TO STOP DAILY PAPER A. We cannot deliver papers at the weekend.
DELIVERIES FIVE B. We plan to stop delivering papers five days from now.
DAYS WARNING MUST C. You must tell us five days early if you don’t want papers.
BE GIVEN D. Please tell us if you don’t want papers at the weekend.

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37.
A. Accident patients are not admitted here.
THIS HOSPITAL HAS
B. The emergency department is closed.
NO EMERGENCY
DEPARTMENT C. This hospital only accepts accident patients.
D. Contact this hospital in an emergency.
38. A. Family tickets save time.
A FAMILY TICKET B. Family tickets save money.
CUTS COST C. Family tickets may be more expensive.
D. Family tickets have gone down in price.
39.
PUBLIC MEETING A. Many people don’t want a motorway.
B. Building the motorway starts today.
TO DISCUSS
C. People are going to talk about building a motorway.
PROPOSED
MOTORWAY D. Everyone travelling on the motorway should meet here.
40.
THE MANAGEMENT A. You cannot bring your luggage into the dining room.
DOES NOT ACCEPT
B. You must look after your things yourself.
RESPONSIBILITY FOR
PROPERTY LEFT IN C. You should give your things to the manager.
THE DINING ROOM D. You should lock things in your suitcase.

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

2. READING COMPREHENSION
A. Reading passage
TEXT 1: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for
roosting communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter
especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve precious
food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter in
dense vegetation or enter a cavity – horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan
burrow into snow banks – but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling
together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact
reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two
kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter and three
together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information
centers.” During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area.
When they return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to
eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those
birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior
of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds
with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small,
familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large
area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in
flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a
few birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is
partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially
vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey.
The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds
perching at the margins of the roost.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How birds find and store food.
B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter.
C. Why birds need to establish territory.
D. Why some species of birds nest together.
2. The word “conserve” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
3. The word “magnified” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
4. The word “counteracted” in line 22 is closest in meaning to
A. suggested B. negated C. measured D. shielded

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5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the

passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
TEXT 2: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
In the United States, presidential elections are held in years evenly divisible by four
(1888, 1900, 1964, etc.). Since 1840, American presidents elected in years ending with zero
have died in office, with one exception. William H. Harrison, the man who served the shortest
term, died of pneumonia only several weeks after his inauguration.
Abraham Lincoln was one of four presidents who were assassinated. He was elected
in 1860, and his untimely death came just five years later. James A. Garfield, a former Union
army general from Ohio, was shot during his first year in office (1881) by a man to whom he
wouldn’t give a job. While in his second term of office (1901), William McKinley, another
Ohioan, attended the Pan-American Exposition in Buffalo, New York. During the reception,
he was assassinated while shaking hands with some of the guests. John F. Kennedy was
assassinated in 1963 in Dallas only three years after his election.
Three years after his election in 1920, Warren G, Harding died in office. Although it
was never proved, many believe he was poisoned. Franklin D. Roosevelt was elected four
times (1932, 1936, 1940 and 1944), the only man to serve so long a term. He had contracted
polio in 1921 and eventually died of the illness in 1945.
Ronald Reagan, who was elected in 1980 and reelected four years later, suffered an
assassination attempt but did not succumb to the assassin’s bullets. He was the first to break
the long chain of unfortunate events. Will the candidate in the election of 2020 also be as
lucky?
1. All of the following were election years EXCEPT…
A. 1888 B. 1860 C. 1963 D. 1960
2. Which president served the shortest term in office?
A. Abraham Lincoln B. Warren G. Harding
C. William H. Harrison D. William McKinley
3. Which of the following is true?
A. Only presidents from Ohio have died in office.
B. All presidents elected in years ending in zero have died in office.
C. Franklin D. Roosevelt completed four terms as president.
D. Four American presidents have been assassinated.
4. How many presidents elected since 1840 have died in office?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 4 D. 3
5. How long did Warren G, Harding work as a president?
A. 4 years B. 3 months C. 2 years D. 3 years

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TEXT 3: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
A small but growing group of scholars, evolutionary psychologists, are being to sketch
the contours of the human mind as designed by natural selection. Some of them even
anticipate the coming of a field called “mismatch theory”, which would study maladies
resulting from contrasts between the modern environment and the “ancestral environment”.
The one we were designed for.
There is no shortage of such maladies to study, Rates of depression have been
doubling in some industrial countries roughly every 10 years. Suicide is the third most
common cause of death among young adults, after car wrecks and homicides.
Evolutionary psychology is a long way from explaining all this with precision, but it is
already shedding enough light to challenges some conventional wisdom. It suggests, for
example, that the nostalgia for the nuclear family of the 1950s is in some way misguided –
that the model family of husband at work and wife at home is hardly a “natural” and healthful
living arrangement, especially for the wives. Moreover, the bygone lifestyles that do look
fairly natural in light of evolutionary psychology appear to have been eroded largely by
commercialism. Perhaps the biggest surprise from evolutionary psychology is its depiction
of the “animal” in us. Freud, and various thinkers since, saw “civilization” as an oppressive
force that thwarts basic animal instincts and urges and transmutes them into
psychopathology. However, evolutionary psychology suggests that a larger threat to metal
health may be the way civilization thwarts civility. There is a gentler, kinder side of human
nature, and it seems increasingly to be a victim of repression in modern society.
1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. How evolutionary psychology manages modern society.
B. The problems of illness caused by modern society.
C. The importance of ancestral environment
D. Evolutionary psychologists’ views on the nuclear family
2. According to the passage, the death of many young people in industrial countries is
mainly caused by…
A. traffic accidents B. murder C. depression D. suicide
3. The word “bygone” in line 12 could be replaced by…
A. past B. forgotten C. overlooked D. original
4. According to the passage, Freud and other psychologists thought civilization…
A. encouraged people to use the basic instincts
B. showed that people have animal instincts
C. caused madness in some people
D. greatly improved people’s lives
5. In the passage, evolutionary psychologists suggest that in modern society…
A. people’s better natures are denied
B. repressed people are kind and gentle
C. people suffer from repression
D. victims are always punished

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

TEXT 4: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal.
However, a team of scientists at the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service has
recently heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn
to them like vultures attracted to a dying animal.
Researchers hypothesized that these sound- actually vibrations produced by the
surface of plants were caused by a severe lack of moisture. They fastened electronic sensors
to the bark of drought-stricken trees and clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the
scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50- 500-kilohertz range. (The
unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz). They experimented on red oak,
maple, white pine, aspen and birch and found that all make slightly different sounds. With
practice, scientists could identify the species of tree by its characteristic sound signature.
The scientists surmise that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside
tubes that run the length of the trees are cracked, a result of too little water following through
them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some
insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees’ vibration and
attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have
been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees
also have a different smell from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects
could be responding to something other than sound”, one scientist said.
1. The word “fractured” in the passage is closest in meaning to…
A. cracked B. crooked C. straight D. rectangular
2. Which of the following is believed to be a cause of the trees’ distress signals?
A. Attacks by insects B. Lack of water
C. Experiments by scientists D. Torn roots
3. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The effect of insects on trees
B. The vibrations produced by insects.
C. The sounds made by trees.
D. The mission of the U.S. Forest Service
4. In paragraph 3, the phrase “pick up” could best replaced by which of the following?
A. attack B. perceive C. lift D. transmit
5. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened
trees EXCEPT…
A. sounds B. smells
C. thermal changes D. changes in color

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TEXT 5: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
Are you interested in seeing the beautiful fall foliage of New England but tired of
traffic jams and overbooked hotels? Then this year forget the crowds in New England and
see the beautiful colors of autumn in the Catskills.
These rugged mountains in New York State, just 90 miles northwest of New York City,
are famous for the legendary tales of Rip Van Winkle, and more recently for the summer
hotels that sprang up in the region during the 1940s, 1950s, and 1960s. Families trying to
escape the heat of New York City found the Catskills to be the perfect place to stay for a month
or so each summer. By the late 1950s there were over 500 resorts and hotels offering
nighttime entertainment as well as all kinds of outdoor activities. Famous comedians like
Jackie Gleason, Joan Rivers, and Sid Caesar all got their start touring the hotel clubs here.
Since the introduction of air-conditioning and cheaper air travel, however, families have
stopped coming to the Catskills in such large numbers, choosing instead more distant
locations at different times of the year. Many of the Catskill hotels closed in the 1970s, but
some remain and have expanded and changed their facilities to meet the needs of today’s
visitors.
Currently, there are many activities available to the traveler besides witnessing the
changing colors of the leaves. There is an all-organic sheep farm where visitors can see how
a traditional sheep farm operates. There are also hundreds of miles of scenic drives in the
area. Route 42, for instance, is an excellent site for spotting bald eagles. For more information
on vacations in the Catskills, call the Office of Public Information.
1. What is the author’s main purpose in this passage?
A. To promote the Catskills as a vacation destination
B. To introduce visitors to famous Catskills entertainers
C. To describe the history of the Catskills region
D. To compare the Catskills to New England
2. In what season would a tourist most likely have visited the Catskills in the 1950s?
A. Fall B. Winter C. Spring D. Summer
3. Which of the following most reflects the author’s tone in this passage?
A. Light and encouraging B. Informative and scientific
C. Humorous and skeptical D. Regretful and reminiscent
4. What does the passage imply that a visitor might be lucky enough to do?
A. See fall leaves in color B. See a kind of bird
C. Work on a sheep farm D. Drive on scenic roads
5. The author implies that in the Catskills, there are few…
A. leaves B. eagles C. people D. sheep
TEXT 6: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
For more than six million American children, coming home after school means
coming back to an empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may
hide. But all of them have something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They
are called “latchkey children”. They are children who look after themselves while their
parents work. And their bad condition has become a subject of concern.
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Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “we had a
school rule against wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys
attached. I was constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many
keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house
keys.
She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the
effect working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear was the biggest
problem faced by children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to
reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety.
The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may
hide in a shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume
up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are
slow to admit that they leave their children alone.
1. One thing that the children in the passage share is that…
A. they all wear jewelry B. they spend part of each day alone
C. they all watch TV D. they are from single-parent families
2. The main problem of latchkey children is that they…
A. are growing in numbers
B. watch too much television during the day
C. are also found in middle-class families
D. suffer a lot from being left at home alone
3. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Why kids hate going home B. Children’s activities at home
C. Bad condition of latchkey children D. How kids spend free time
4. What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears?
A. Talking to the Longs B. Having a shower
C. Hiding somewhere D. Lying under a TV
5. It’s difficult to find out the number of latchkey children because…
A. there are too many of them in the whole country
B. most parents are reluctant to admit that they leave their children alone
C. they hide themselves in shower stalls or under beds
D. they do not give information about themselves for safety reasons
TEXT 7: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects – an estimated 90 percent
of the world’s species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best
group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution.
Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent
group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the
past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate
regions.

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For example, in 1875, one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the
Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour’s walk,
whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of
Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly
richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between
temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns
vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species
richness within temperate and tropical regions is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons
of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly
“personal communication” citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison
temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary,
practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used
synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World
butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar
species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and
incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
1. The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to…
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
2. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they…
A. are simple in structure B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people D. are found mainly in temperate climates
3. What is the most distinguishing feature of butterfly diversity in the past century?
A. Numerous patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution
B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
C. The striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions
D. The documentation phase of the process
4. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
5. The word “generated” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to…
A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated
TEXT 8: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
Panel painting, common in thirteenth- and fourteenth-century Europe, involved a
painstaking, laborious process. Wooden planks were joined, covered with gesso to prepare
the surface for painting, and then polished smooth with special tools. On this perfect surface,
the artist would sketch a composition with chalk, refine it with inks, and then begin the
deliberate process of applying thin layers of egg tempera paint (egg yolk in which pigments
are suspended) with small brushes. The successive layering of these meticulously applied
paints produced the final translucent colors.
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Backgrounds or gold were made by carefully applying sheets of gold leaf, and then
embellishing of decorating the gold leaf by punching it with a metal rod on which a pattern
had been embossed. Every step in the process was slow and deliberate. The quick-drying
tempera demanded that the artist know exactly where each stroke be placed before the
brush met the panel, and it required the use of fine brushes. It was, therefore, an ideal
technique for emphasizing the hard linear edges and pure, fine areas of color that were so
much a part of the overall aesthetic of the time. The notion that an artist could or would dash
off an idea in a fit of spontaneous inspiration was completely alien to these deliberately
produced works.
Furthermore, making these paintings was so time-consuming that it demanded
assistance. All such work was done by collective enterprise in the workshops. The painter or
master who is credited with having created the painting may have designed the work and
overseen its production, but it is highly unlikely that the artist’s hand applied every stroke
of the brush. More likely, numerous assistants, who had been trained to imitate the artist’s
style, applied the paint. The carpenter’s shop probably provided the frame and perhaps
supplied the panel, and yet another shop supplied the gold. Thus, not only many hands, but
also many shops were involved in the final product.
In spite of problems with their condition, restoration, and preservation, many panel
paintings have survived, and today many of them are housed in museum collections.
1. What aspect of panel paintings does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different styles B. Famous examples C. Production D. Restoration
2. According to the passage, what was the first step in making a panel painting?
A. Mixing the paint B. Making ink drawings
C. Preparing the panel D. Buying the gold leaf
3. Which of the following processes produced the translucent colors found on panel
paintings?
A. Applying many layers of paint
B. Joining wooden planks to form large sheets
C. Polishing the gesso
D. Covering the background with gold leaf
4. What characteristic of tempera paint is mentioned in the passage?
A. It has to be applied directly to wood. B. It is difficult to make.
C. It dries quickly. D. It dissolves easily.
5. The author mentions all of the following as problems with the survival of panel paintings
EXCEPT…
A. condition B. restoration C. preservation D. theft
TEXT 9: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D.
Aspirin’s origins go back at least as early as 1758. In that year, Englishman Edward
Stone noticed a distinctive bitter flavor in the bark of the willow tree. To Stone, this particular
bark seemed to have much in common with “Peruvian Bark,” which had been used
medicinally since the 1640s to bring down fevers and to treat malaria. Stone decided to test
the effectiveness of the willow bark. He obtained some, pulverized it into tiny pieces, and
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conducted experiments on its properties. His tests demonstrated that this pulverized willow
bark was effective both in reducing high temperatures and in relieving aches and pains. In
1763, Stone presented his findings to the British Royal Society.
Several decades later, further studies on the medicinal value of the willow bark were
being conducted by two Italian scientists. These chemists, Brugnatelli and Fontana,
determined that the active chemical that was responsible for the medicinal characteristics in
the willow bark was the chemical salicin, which is the active ingredient of today’s aspirin.
The name “aspirin” is the trade name of the drug based on the chemical salicin,
properly known as acetylsalicylic acid. The trade name “aspirin” was invented for the drug
in the 1890s by the Bayer Drug Company in Germany. The first bottles of aspirin actually
went on sale to the publicjust prior to the turn of the century, in 1899.
1. According to the passage, aspirin originated
A. sometime after 1758 B. no later than 1758
C. definitely sometime in 1758 D. no earlier than 1758
2. It can be inferred from the passage that Peruvian Bark
A. caused fevers
B. was ineffective in treating malaria
C. was described to the British Royal Society by Stone
D. was in use prior to aspirin
3. What did the willow bark look like after Stone prepared it for his experiments?
A. It was in large chunks. B. It was a rough powder.
C. It was a thick liquid. D. It was in strips of bark.
4. The Italian chemists mentioned in the passage most probably conducted their studies on
willow bark
A. in the 1750s B. in the 1770s C. in the 1780s D. in the 1760s
5. What is true about Brugnatelli and Fontana?
A. They were from Italy.
B. They added a chemical to the willow bark.
C. They were medical doctors.
D. They conducted studies on the willow bark.
TEXT 10: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of
the classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading”
undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading
become commonplace.
One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply
because reading aloud was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the
historical development of silent reading have revealed that it became the usual mode of
reading for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character.
The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of
readers. As the number of readers increased, the number of potential listeners declined and
thus there was some reduction in the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of
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listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of reading as a private activity in such
public places as libraries, railway carriages and offices, where reading aloud would cause
distraction to other readers.
Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether
books should be used for information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading
of materials such as newspapers was in some way mentally weakening. Indeed, this
argument remains with us still in education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared
literacy culture had gone and was replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and
by books and periodicals for a specialized readership on the other.
By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt
attitudes to books and to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for
the oral reader. The social, cultural and technological changes in the century had greatly
altered what the term “reading” implied.
1. The development of silent reading during the last century indicated…
A. an increase in the number of books B. a change in the nature of reading
C. an increase in the average age of readers D. a change in the status of literate people
2. Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of…
A. the development of libraries B. the decreasing number of listeners
C. the decreasing need to read aloud D. the increase in literacy
3. It can be inferred that the emergence of the mass media and specialized reading materials
was an indication of…
A. a change in the readers’ interest
B. an alteration in educationalists’ attitudes
C. an improvement of printing techniques
D. a decline of standards of literacy
4. All of the following might be the factors that affected the continuation of the old shared
literacy culture EXCEPT…
A. the printed mass media B. the inappropriate reading skills
C. the specialized readership D. the diversity of reading materials
5. The writer of this passage is attempting to…
A. explain how reading habits have developed B. change people’s attitudes to reading
C. show how reading methods have improved D. encourage the growth of reading
TEXT 11: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological
developments in recent years. Never before have so many people had access to so many
different sources of information. For all of the Internet’s advantages, however, people are
currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and are looking for creative solutions.
Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability and numerous
security concerns, the most crucial is speed.
First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had
ever heard of the Internet. In 1996, over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of
people with access to the Internet doubles. The rapid growth has been a problem. The
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computer systems which run the Internet have not been able to keep up with the demand.
Also, sometimes, a request for information must pass through many routing computers
before the information can be obtained. A request for information made in Paris might have
to go through computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the required
information. Consequently, the service is often slow and unpredictable. Service also tends to
be worse when the Internet is busiest – during the business day of the Western Hemisphere
– which is also when companies need its service the most.
Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way
as to avoid this problem. In 1995, a group of American universities banded together to form
what has come to be known as Internet II. Internet II is a smaller, more specialized system
intended for academic use. Since it is more specialized, fewer users are allowed access.
Consequently, the time required to receive information has decreased.
Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many
businesses are creating their own “Intranets”. These are systems that can only be used by
the members of the same company. In theory, fewer users should translate into a faster
system. Intranets are very useful for large national and international companies whose
branches need to share information. Another benefit of an Intranet is an increased amount
of security. Since only company employees have access to the information on the Intranet,
their information is protected from competitors. While there is little doubt that theInternet
will eventually be a fast and reliable service, industry and the academic communityhas taken
their own steps toward making more practical global networks.
1. According to the passage, which of the following is not true of the Internet?
A. It has become increasingly less popular. B. It tends to be unreliable.
C. It has created a sense of financial security. D. It is too expensive to access.
2. According to the passage, which of the following statements was true in 1990?
A. The Internet experienced enormous growth rates.
B. Internet data proved to be impractical.
C. Few people were using the Internet.
D. The Internet was a secure means to gain information.
3. According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?
A. Scientists take up too much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone
else.
B. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final
destination.
C. Most people do not have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the
Internet.
D. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet
traffic.
4. According to the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet I?
A. Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access.
B. There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II.
C. Internet II contains more information than the Internet.
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D. Small businesses pay higher premiums to access to the Internet.

5. All of the following are advantages of business “Intranets” mentioned in the passage
EXCEPT…
A. they move data faster
B. they provide a higher level of security
C. they are cheaper than other alternatives
D. they share information with other company branches
TEXT 12: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s
universities, came from very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the
Pilgrims landed at Plymouth. Included in the puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony
during this period were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and
Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the New Word were determined
that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had,
because of this support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court
of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the
following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called
Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of
the present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town
of Charlestowne, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds
to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the
General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The
amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was
more than the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the
college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be
noted that in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering
freshmen class of four students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the firstcentury
of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or fourtutors.
1. The main idea of this passage is that…
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities
B. what is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of
Massachusetts
2. The passage indicates that Harvard is…
A. one of the oldest universities in the world B. the oldest university in the world
C. one of the oldest universities in America D. the oldest university in America

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3. It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts
colony were…
A. rather well-educated B. rather rich
C. rather supportive of the English government D. rather undemocratic
4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of
B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried
D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
5. The passage implies that…
A. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B. someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. the position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the
early years
TEXT 13: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at
college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in
1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most
of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent
reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea
Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing
human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic
quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous
correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always
realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable
controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of
insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and
contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted
personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were
flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory
Committee.
1. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work…
A. as a researcher B. at college
C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer
2. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history
3. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of…
A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45
4. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind…
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A. was outdated
B. became more popular than her other books
C. was not praised by critics
D. sold many copies
5. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily…
A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry
TEXT 14: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of
oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign
language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the
mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words
are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or
unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A
nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots
read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture
signs also guide, warn, and instruct people.
While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and
techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
1. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people?
A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags
2. How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11
3. People need to communicate in order to…
A. create language barriers
B. keep from reading with their fingertips
C. be picturesque and exact
D. express thoughts and feelings
4. What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Important of Sign Language
B. The Many Forms of Communication
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings
D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
5. Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code?
A. A scientist B. An airline pilot C. A spy D.A telegrapher

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TEXT 15: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face
increased academic and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.
Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial pressures
don’t seem to be greater now than a generation ago.
The data show that full-time students in all types of colleges study much less now
than they did a generation ago – a full 10 hours a week less. Students are also receiving
significantly higher grades. So, it appears that academic pressures are, in fact, considerably
lower than they used to be.
The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either.
When the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less
expensive for most students than it was in the 1960s. And though there are now full-time
students working to pay while in college, they study less even when paid work choices are
held constantly.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work
more. They appear to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or
fun. It seems hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial pressures would
respond by taking more leisure.
Based on how students are spending their time then, it doesn’t look as though
academic or financial pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time-use data
don’t speak directly to social pressures, and it may well be that these have become more
intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week
either socializing with friends or playing on the computer for fun. Social activities, in person
or on computer, would seem to have become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell
what kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.
1. The study’s conclusion that students’ workload now is not greater than before is based
on…
A. what students achieve with greater load B. how students spend their time
C. how students work through college D. what college demands from students
2. Students get higher grades as…
A. students study much harder
B. academic workload appears more attractive
C. academic workload appears less demanding
D. college’s facilities are much better
3. According to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof that…
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem
B. academic work disinterests them
C. they are active with extra-curricular activities
D. they cannot find extra jobs
4. All factors considered; college now seems…
A. more costly B. ever more expensive
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C. much more expensive D. less expensive

5. According to the author, the fact that more full-time students are working for pay…
A. does not change students’ campus life
B. indicates that students are academically pressured
C. is not an indication of pressures
D. shows that students are financially pressured
TEXT 16: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Today, the most universally known style of trousers for both men and women is jeans;
these trousers are worn throughout the world on a variety of occasions and in diverse
situations. Also called levis or denims, jeans have an interesting history, one that is
intermixed with the derivations of the words jeans, denims, and levis.
The word jeans is derived from the name of the place where a similar style of pants
developed. In the sixteenth century, sailors from Genoa, Italy wore a rather unique type of
cotton trousers. In the French language, the word for the city of Genoa and for the people
from that city is Genes; this name became attached to the specific style of pants worn by the
sailors from this city and developed into the word jeans that today describes the
descendents of Genovese sailors' cotton pants.
Similar to the word jeans, the word denim is also derived from a place name. In the
seventeenth century, French tailors began making trousers out of a specialized type of cloth
that was developed in the city of Nimes, France, and was known as serge de Nimes. This name
for the cloth underwent some transformations, and it eventually developed into today's
denim, the material from which jeans are made and an alternate name for those popular
pants.
The word levis come from name of a person rather than a place. In the nineteenth
century, immigrant Levi Strauss came to America and tried his hand at selling heavy canvas
to miners taking part in the hunt for gold in northern California. Strauss intended for this
canvas to be used by miners to make heavy-duty tents. This first endeavor was a failure, but
Strauss later found success when he used the heavy canvas to make indestructible pants for
the miners. Levi then switched the fabric from brown canvas to blue denim, creating a style
of pants that long outlived him and today is referred to by his name. A modern-day urban
shopper out to buy some levis is searching for a close relative of the product that Strauss had
developed years earlier.
1. This passage is developed by
A. explaining history with three specific cases
B. citing an effect and its causes
C. demonstrating the sides of an issue
D. developing the biography of a famous person chronologically
2. All of the following are mentioned in the passage about Genoa EXCEPT that it
A. was the source of the word jeans B. is a landlocked city
C. has a different name in French D. is in Italy
3. The word “denim” was most probably derived from
A. one French word and one Italian word B. two Italian words
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C. two French words D. three French words

4. The pronoun “it” in line 13 refers to
A. city B. cloth C. name D. material
5. It can be inferred from the passage that, in order to develop the pants for which he became
famous, Strauss did which of the following?
A. He studied tailoring in Nimes.
B. He experimented with brown denim.
C. He used an existing type of material.
D. He tested the pants for destructibility.
TEXT 17: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers.
One group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present –
day North Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight
arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the attacks of
others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from
one year to the next.
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise
considerable skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting
growing seasons. Winter often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For
good measure, during the spring and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other
frustrations might await the wary grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering
adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land,
using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first
green corn could be harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance.
Harvesting proceeded in two stages. In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount
of the crop before it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with
some of the maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal – skin
bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest of the corn. They saved the best of the
harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for alter use in
underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans protected
themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompany hunger.
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it
near the time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung
the slices before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the
year’s crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular
task of the older men.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The agricultural activities of a North American Society
B. Various ways corn can be used.
C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop
D. Weather conditions on the western plains
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2. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to…

A. guard their supplies of food B. share farming implements
C. protect themselves against the weather D. allow more room for growing corn
3. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?
A. They developed new varieties of corn.
B. They could grow crops despite adverse weather.
C. They developed effective fertilizers.
D. They could grow crops in most types of soil.
4. Which of the following crops was cultivated primarily by men?
A. Squash B. Sunflower C. Corn D. Tobacco
5. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans…
A. planned for the future B. valued individuality
C. were open to strangers D. were very adventurous
TEXT 18: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is
the country’s impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were
over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada’s population passed the 20 million mark. Most
of his surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930’s and the war
had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom
continued through the decade of the 1950’s, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen
percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only
once before settle. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950’s supported a
growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier
marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate
stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued
falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the
low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in
Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working;
young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising
living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once
more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the
Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution.
Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase
in the first half of the 1960’s was only nine percent), another large population wave was
coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children who were born during the
period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society
B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in postwar Canada
D. Standards of living in Canada
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2. According to the passage, when did Canada’s baby boom begin?

A. In the decade after 1911 B. After 1945
C. During the depression of the 1930’s D. In 1966
3. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s…
A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married
C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high
4. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?
A. 1966 B. 1957 C. 1956 D. 1951
5. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after
1957 EXCEPT…
A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier
C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses
TEXT 19: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they
hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies’ responses to the sound of the
human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They
will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of
a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notice might be only those words that receive the
heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or
seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising
and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can
influence babies’ emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language
comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or
terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and
melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating
such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and
found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and
nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have
noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggeratethe
pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facialexpressions,
hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation
is observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds.
In other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual
discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as ninemonths
they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their
understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to
prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.
1. Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2?
A. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language.
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B. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.

C. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies
exposed to a single language.
D. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to
speak.
2. According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they
cannot understand them?
A. They can remember them easily.
B. They focus on the meaning of their parents’ word.
C. They enjoy the sound.
D. They understand the rhythm.
3. The passage mentions all of the followings as the ways adults modify their speech when
talking to babies EXCEPT…
A. speaking with shorter sentences B. giving all words equal emphasis
C. using meaningless sounds D. speaking more loudly than normal
4. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences between a baby’s and an adult’s ability to comprehend language
B. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language
development
C. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
D. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds
5. What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to
acquire language?
A. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
B. Babies begin to understand words in songs.
C. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
D. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.
TEXT 20: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the
contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many
disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children
develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright
child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability.
This is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of
all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and
social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of
learning.
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives
them the opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They
also learn how to cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make

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decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each
other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and
assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching
when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the
skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it
does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least,
and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.
1. The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of thepupils’…
A. learning ability and communicative skills B. intellectual abilities
C. total personality D. personal and social skills
2. According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching?
A. Formal class teaching is the important way to give pupils essential skills such as those
to be used in the library.
B. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own.
C. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class.
D. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development.
3. Which of the following statements can best summarize the main idea of the passage?
A. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils.
B. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class.
C. Children, in general, develop at different rates.
D. Bright children do benefit from mixed-ability teaching.
4. According to the passage, “streaming pupils” …
A. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is quite discouraging
D. will help the pupils learn best
5. According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because…
A. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
B. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils
C. formal class teaching is appropriate
D. its aim at developing the children’s total personality
TEXT 21: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Look at the stars in the night sky. Do some of them seem to form patterns or designs?
Can you see animals, people, or objects? These patterns are called constellations.
Constellations are not real animals, people, or objects. We imagine them to help us
make a map of the sky. On a dark night, you can see almost 1,500 stars. Trying to distinguish
which is which can be difficult. Constellations make it easier for us to identify
stars.
People began seeing patterns in the stars about 6,000 years ago. Three of the first
constellations they imagined were a lion, a bull, and a scorpion. In ancient times, farmers

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used constellations to know which month it was. We can see some constellations only one
season each year. Farmers knew it was time to plant when they saw a certain constellation.
They knew it was time to harvest when they saw a different one.
People in different countries can look at the same constellation and imagine different
things. Someone in China might think a constellation looks like a dragon. Someone in
Australia might think the same pattern is a horse. Each country has its own ideas. Many
constellations get their names from the myths of ancient Greece and Rome. A constellation
called Aquarius is named after a Greek boy who carried water. A constellation called Taurus
is named after a god who came to earth as a bull.
Constellations are not stationary. The stars in them are gradually moving. It is difficult
to know the boundaries of many constellations. In 1929, international astronomers,
scientists who study stars, agreed on official boundaries for the 88 constellations that exist
today. However, by the time your children grow up, these boundaries could change. We
might also find new constellations. We will always use our imaginations to help understand
the world around us.
1. According to the passage, about how many constellations exist today?
A. 88 B. 100 C. 1,500 D. 6,000
2. All of the following are true EXCEPT that…
A. constellations have a long history
B. scientists agree on constellation boundaries
C. constellations are groups of stars
D. constellations never change
3. This passage mainly discusses…
A. The names of constellations B. The history of constellations
C. How to see constellations D. Greek and Roman myths
4. Based on the information in paragraph 3, what can we infer about ancient farmers?
A. They were not very intelligent. B. They did not have calendars.
C. They worked very hard. D. They grew food.
5. Which of the following could best replace the word “identify” as used in paragraph 2?
A. recognize B. name C. count D. number
TEXT 22: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man.
However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be
remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he
created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made
worthwhile contributions to humanity. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics,
chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after
the first awards ceremony.
Nobel’s original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this
sum is used for the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000.
Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel’s death, the awards (gold
medal, illuminated diploma, and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics

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plays an important role in the judges’ decisions. Americans have won numerous science
awards, but relatively few literature prizes.
No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some
people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.
1. In how many fields are prizes bestowed?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 2 D. 10
2. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT…
A. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel’s invention
B. politics plays an important role in selecting the winners
C. a few individuals have won two awards
D. awards vary in monetary value
3. How much money did Nobel leaves for the prizes?
A. $9,000,000 B. $155,000 C. $125,000 D. $30,000
4. The Nobel prize was established in order to…
A. recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity
B. spend money
C. resolve political differences
D. honour the inventor of dynamite
5. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity.
B. Alfred Nobel left all of his money to science.
C. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite.
D. Alfred Nobel made a lasting contribution to humanity.
TEXT 23: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has
been used successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as
well as in a variety of other fields. The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that
carbon is a part of all living things on Earth. Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14
has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining in an object can be used to date
that object.
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years,
half of the carbon-14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14. It is the ratio of carbon-14 to
nitrogen-14 in that substance that indicates the age of the substance. If, for example, in a
particular sample the amount of carbon-14 is roughly equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-
14, this indicates that around half of the carbon-14 has decayed into nitrogen-14, and the
sample is approximately 5,570 years old.
Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000
years. When objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-
14, and the miniscule amount that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age. In
the case of older objects, other age-dating methods are available, methods which use
radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon has.
1. This passage is mainly about
A. the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14
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B. one method of dating old objects

C. archeology and the study of ancient artifacts
D. various uses for carbon
2. The pronoun “it” in line 1 refers to
A. any organic natural material B. the age
C. carbon dating D. archeology
3. Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14?
A. It is radioactive.
B. Its half-life is more than 5,000 years.
C. It can decay into nitrogen-14.
D. It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than
nitrogen-14, then the item is
A. too old to be age-dated with carbon-14
B. too radioactive to be used by archeologists
C. not as much as 5,570 years old
D. more than 5,570 years old
5. It is implied in the passage that
A. carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen
B. carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life
C. fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14
D. carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology
TEXT 24: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
Ancient people made clay pottery because they needed it for their survival. They used
the pots they made for cooking, storing food, and carrying things from place to place. Pottery
was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to learn more about ancient
civilizations. The more advanced the pottery in terms of decoration, materials, glazes and
manufacture, the more advanced the culture itself.
The artisan who makes pottery in North America today utilizes his or her skill and
imagination to create items that are beautiful as well as functional, transforming something
ordinary into something special and unique.
The potter uses one of the Earth’s most basic materials, clay. Clay can be found almost
everywhere. Good pottery clay must be free from all small stones and other hard materials
that would make the potting process difficult. Most North American artisan-potters now
purchase commercially processed clay, but some find the clay they need right in the earth,
close to where they work. The most important tools potters use are their own hand;
however, they also use wire loop tools, wooden modeling tools, plain wire, and sponges. Plain
wire is used to cut away the finished pot from its base on the potter’s wheel.
After a finished pot is dried of all its moisture in the open air, it is placed in a kiln and
fired. The first firing hardens the pottery, and it is then ready to be glazed and fired again.
For areas where they do not want any glaze, such as the bottom of the pot, artisans paint on

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melted wax that will later burn off in the kiln. They then pour on the liquid glaze and let it
run over the clay surface, making any kind of decorative pattern that they want.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that clay is processed commercially in order to…
A. make it easier to color B. remove hard substances
C. prevent the glaze from sticking D. make it dry more evenly
2. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different kinds of clay B. Crafts of ancient civilizations
C. The making of pottery D. The training of an artisan
3. According to the passage, which of the following can be learned about an ancient
civilization by examining its pottery?
A. Its population B. Its developmental stage
C. Its geographic location D. Its food preferences
4. According to the passage, how do most North American potters today get the clay they need?
A. They buy it. B. They barter for it.
C. They did it from the earth. D. They make it.
5. According to the author, what do potters use to remove the pot from the wheel?
A. A sponge B. Melted wax C. A wire loop D. Plain wire
TEXT 25: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A, B, C, or D
The Moon has been worshipped by primitive peoples and has inspired humans to
create everything from lunar calendars to love sonnets, but what do we really know about
it? The most accepted theory about the origin of the Moon is that it was formed of the debris
from a massive collision with the young Earth about 4.6 billion years ago. A huge body,
perhaps the size of Mars, struck the Earth, throwing out an immense amount of debris that
coalesced and cooled in orbit around the Earth.
The development of Earth is inextricably linked to the moon; the Moon’s gravitational
influence upon the Earth is the primary cause of ocean tides. In fact, the Moon has more than
twice the effect upon the tides than the Sun does. The Moon makes one rotation and
completes a revolution around the Earth every 27 days, 7 hours, and 43 minutes. This
synchronous rotation is caused by an uneven distribution of mass in the Moon (essentially,
it is heavier on one side than the other) and has allowed the Earth’s gravity to keep one side
of the Moon permanently facing Earth. It is an average distance from Earth of 384,403 km.
The Moon has no atmosphere; without an atmosphere, the Moon has nothing to
protect it from meteorite impacts, and thus the surface of the Moon is covered with impact
craters, both large and small. The Moon also has no active tectonic or volcanic activity, so the
erosive effects of atmospheric weathering, tectonic shifts, and volcanic upheavals that tend
to erase and reform the Earth’s surface features are not at work on the Moon. In fact, even
tiny surface features such as the footprint left by an astronaut in the lunar soil are likely to
last for millions of years, unless obliterated by a chance meteorite strike. The surface gravity
of the Moon is about one-sixth that of the Earth’s. Therefore, a man weighing 82 kilograms
on Earth would only weigh 14 kilograms on the Moon.
The geographical features of the Earth most like that of the Moon are, in fact, places
such as the Hawaiian volcanic craters and the huge meteor crater in Arizona. The climate of
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the Moon is very unlike either Hawaii or Arizona, however; in fact, the temperature on the
Moon ranges between 123 degrees C. to -233 degrees C.
1. A person on the Moon would weigh less than on the Earth because…
A. the Moon has no active tectonic or volcanic activity
B. the surface gravity of the Moon is less than that of the Earth’s
C. of the composition of lunar soil
D. the Moon has no atmosphere
2. According to the passage, the Moon is…
A. protected by a dense atmosphere B. composed of a few active volcanoes
C. older than the Earth D. the primary cause of Earth’s Ocean tides
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The Moon is not able to support human life.
B. People living in Hawaii and Arizona would feel at home on the Moon.
C. If the Moon had no gravitational influence, the Earth would not have tides.
D. Mars could have been formed in a similar way to the Moon.
4. All of the following are true about the Moon EXCEPT…
A. it has a wide range of temperatures
B. it is unable to protect itself from meteorite attacks
C. it has less effect upon the tides than the Sun
D. it is heavier on one side than the other
5. What is the passage primarily about?
A. The Moon’s effect upon the Earth
B. A comparison of the Moon and the Earth
C. The origin of the Moon
D. What we know about the Moon and its differences to Earth.

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

B. Cloze text
TEXT 1: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
VISIT AN AMERICAN FRIEND’S HOME
If you're invited to an American friend's home for dinner, keep in (1) these
general rules for polite behavior. First of all, arrive approximately on time (but not early).
Americans expect promptness. It's OK to be 10 or 15 minutes late but not 45 minutes late.
Dinner might be over-cooked and ruined by then. When you're invited to someone's home
for a meal, it's polite to (2) a small gift. Flowers or candy are always appropriate.
If you have an attractive item made in your native country, your host and/or hostess would
certainly (3) receiving that as a gift.
Some Americans don't know about the dietary restrictions of various ethnic and
religious groups. What do you do if you're served a food that you don't like or cannot eat?
Don't make a (4) about it. If your host doesn't say anything about what you aren't
eating, then you shouldn't, (5) . Simply eat what you can and hope that no one
notices what you left. If you are questioned, you may have to (6) that you don't
eat meat (or whatever), but you can also say that you've enjoyed the other foods and have
had "more than enough" to eat. Don't make the cook feel obliged to prepare something else
for you. Be (7) to compliment the cook on the food that you enjoyed.
Don't leave immediately (8) dinner, but don't overstay your welcome,
either. When your friends seem to be getting tired and running (9) of
conversation, take their behavior as a cue to leave. The next day, call or (10) a
thank-you note to say how much you enjoyed the evening.
1. A. touch B. mind C. head D. safe
2. A. bring B. send C. seek D. find
3. A. want B. need C. intend D. enjoy
4. A. mistake B. believe C. fuss D. up
5. A. either B. too C. neither D. so
6. A. beg B. admit C. accept D. except
7. A. confident B. shy C. happy D. sure
8. A. after B. before C. during D. while
9. A. in B. on C. out D. at
10. A. send B. wrote C. give D. pass
TEXT 2: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These
scenes, which are (1) as stunts, are usually (2) by stuntmen who are
especially trained to do dangerous things safely. Anyone can crash a car, but if you are shooting
a film, you have to be extremely precise, sometimes stopping right in front of the camera and
film crew. At an early stage in the (3) , an expert stuntman is called in to work out
the action scenes and form a team. He is the person who can go against the wishes of the
director, (4) he will usually do this in the interest of safety.

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Many famous actors like to do the dangerous part themselves, (5) produces
better shots, since stuntmen don’t have to stand in for the actors. Actors like to become (6)
in all the important aspects of the character they are playing, but without the
recent progress in safety (7) , insurance companies would never (8)
them take the risk. To do their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also
be sensible and know their (9) . If they were to be hurt, the film would (10)
to a sudden halt.
1. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named
2. A. performed B. given C. fulfilled D. displayed
3. A. production B. creation C. imagination D. manufacture
4. A. despite B. so C. although D. otherwise
5. A. that B. who C. what D. which
6. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected
7. A. equipment B. tool C. instrument D. device
8. A. allow B. let C. permit D. admit
9. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders
10. A. come B. fall C. pull D. go
TEXT 3: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Most people think of computer as very modern inventions, products of our new
technological age. But actually, the idea for a computer (1) worked out over two
centuries by a man (2) Charles Babbage.
Babbage was born (3) 1791 and grew up to be a brilliant mathematician. He
drew up plans for several calculating machines (4) he called “engines”. But
despite the fact that he (5) building some of these he never finished any of them.
Over the years people have argued (6) his machines would ever work. Recently,
however, the Science Museum in London has finished building (7) engine based
one of Babbage’s designs. (8) has taken six years to complete and more (9)
four thousand parts have been specially made. Whether it works or not, the
machine will be on show at a special exhibition in the Science Museum (10)
remind people of Babbage’s work.
1. A. has B. was C. had been D. is
2. A. known B. recognized C. written D. called
3. A. on B. in C. by D. for
4. A. whose B. who C. these D. which
5. A. wanted B. made C. started D. missed
6. A. until B. whether C. while D. though
7. A. some B. the C. an D. that
8. A. One B. He C. They D. It
9. A. than B. therefore C. when D. then
10. A. to B. as C. for D. so

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TEXT 4: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
In 1900 there were fewer than 3,000 motor cars on the roads in France. Motorists
bought their petrol at (1) . The Michelin brothers, (2) made tyres,
decided that some sort of guidance (3) to be available to those motorists when
motoring away from home, so that they (4) where to go to buy petrol, to get their
car repaired, to stay the night or to (5) a telephone call and so on. They also
realized that the motorists would like to be able to obtain (6) about the best roads
to take and what the surface was like on the way. So one of the brothers compiled the first
Guide.
It was (7) smaller than the present edition. It had nearly 400 pages, almost
(8) were devoted to technical matters and advice on mechanical problems and
the laws relating to motoring, (9) were equivalent to the modern Highway Code
(10) that time.
1. A. the grocers B. the grocer’s C. the groceries D. the grocer shop
2. A. which B. what C. who D. that
3. A. should B. must C. had better D. ought
4. A. would know B. know C. knowing D. had known
5. A. put B. make C. send D. do
6. A. some information B. an information C. one information D. some informations
7. A. rather B. quite C. fairly D. a few
8. A. half of it B. half of which C. the half of which D. the half of them
9. A. they B. that C. what D. which
10. A. in B. at C. on D. while
TEXT 5: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
THE ESCALATOR
An American, Charles D. Seeberger, invented moving stairs to transport people in the
1890s. He (1) this invention an “escalator”, (2) the name from the Latin
word 'scala', (3) means “ladder”. Escalators move people up and down short (4)
. Lifts do the same, but only move (5) small number people. If an escalator
breaks down, it can still be (6) as ordinary stairs. An escalator can move (7)
8,000 and 9,000 people an hour, and it (8) not need a person to operate
it. Towards the end of the nineteenth century, cities were (9) more crowded and the
first escalators were built at railway stations and in big department (10) so
that people could move about more quickly. Today, we see escalators everywhere.
1. A. announced B. called C. translated D. explained
2. A. fetching B. lending C. taking D. carrying
3. A. what B. whose C. who D. which
4. A. distances B. directions C. measurements D. lengths
5. A. the B. a C. some D. any
6. A. walked B. made C. used D. changed
7. A. from B. between C. to D. above
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8. A. is B. has C. did D. does

9. A. coming B. becoming C. continuing D. developing
10. A. stores B. shops C. places D. houses
TEXT 6: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
At some points, we have all done something for which we have hurt someone else or
have wronged someone in some way. We have done something for which we feel compelled
to apologize. We are human, (1) of us, and as a fallible human being, we have all
made mistakes.
The problem is not in the number of mistakes we make, but rather in the (2)
we handle those mistakes. However, most people do not know how to apologize (3)
and by the same token, many do not know how to properly accept an apology
given.
When you have wronged someone in some way, intentionally (4) not, and
you would like to repair the wrong you have done to them or at least repair the rift in the
relationship that the wrong caused, (5) apology is usually one of the first steps in
the process of showing your good (6) _ . Before you can apologize, you must know
what it is for which you should apologize. (7) should you know what you are
apologizing for, but the person to whom you extend your apology should know as well.
Keep these four simple how to apologize steps in (8) :
 Identify the behavior for which you should apologize.
 Offer your sincere (9) _ along with an explanation of why you are apologizing.
 Offer a solution to the problem or an assurance that the behavior will change.
 Make every (10) to resolve the issue or change the behavior. If you keep these
four steps about how to apologize in mind, and practice them when the occasion arises
for you to apologize, your apologies will mean more and diffuse problem situations
before they get out of hand and cause permanent damage to your relationships.
1. A. most B. the most C. almost D. mostly
2. A. trace B. path C. road D. way
3. A. excellently B. properly C. exactly D. accurately
4. A. but B. and C. nor D. or
5. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
6. A. attention B. attendance C. intention D. gestures
7. A. Nor B. Neither C. Only D. Not only
8. A. hand B. brain C. mind D. heart
9. A. apology B. apologize C. apologizer D. apologetic
10. A. effect B. effort C. attempt D. best

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

TEXT 7: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Most Americans eat three meals (1) the day: breakfast, lunch, and dinner.
Breakfast begins between 7:00 and 8:00am, lunch between 11:00 am and noon, and dinner
between 6:00 and 8:00 pm. On Sundays "brunch" is a (2) of breakfast and lunch,
typically beginning at 11:00 am. Students often enjoy a "study break" or evening snack
around 10:00 or 11:00 pm. Breakfast and lunch tend to be light meals, with only one (3)
. Dinner is the main meal.
(4) breakfast Americans will eat cereal with milk which are often mixed (5)
in a bowl, a glass of orange juice, and toasted bread or muffin with jam, butter, or
margarine. Another common breakfast meal is scrambled eggs or (6) omelet with
potatoes and breakfast meat (bacon or sausage). People who are on (7) eat just a
cup of yogurt. Lunch and dinner are more (8) . When eating at a formal dinner,
you may be overwhelmed by the number of utensils. How do you (9) the
difference between a salad fork, a butter fork, and a dessert fork? Most Americans do not
know the answer (10) . But knowing which fork or spoon to use first is simple:
use the outermost utensils first and the utensils closest to the plate last.
1. A. in B. for C. on D. during
2. A. addition B. connection C. combination D. attachment
3. A. course B. food C. menu D. goods
4. A. For B. In C. At D. With
5. A. each other B. together C. one another D. others
6. A. a B. an C. the D. no article
7. A. holiday B. engagement C. diet D. duty
8. A. vary B. variety C. varied D. variously
9. A. say B. talk C. speak D. tell
10. A. too B. either C. so D. neither
TEXT 8: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Romance is the opportunity to show your loved one (1) special he/she is to
you. It means (2) the time for them, and sharing time together, even (3)
you are very busy. It does not mean thinking only about yourself, or having only
your needs (4) . It means putting your spouse first. Here are some ideas to spice
up your romance:
 Do small acts of kindness, such as give him/her flowers, or a little gift, or (5)
a poem, etc.
 (6) "Thank you" and "I Love You" often.
 Be considerate (7) his/her feelings and sorrows.
 Take long walks together - anywhere.
 Share jokes at mealtime. (8) is a great way to share one's love.

 Visit a museum, visit community festivals, tour a new site, or attend a party together.
 Hug and kiss often.

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If your spouse does not do things for you, then show him/her by gently (9)
out what you like. If you like flowers for your birthday and you have not gotten flowers, then
let him/her know, (10) , when he/she asks you what you would like. Do not think
they can read your mind.
1. A. how B. what C. which D. that
2. A. take B. took C. taken D. taking
3. A. as B. if C. when D. but
4. A. looked B. noticed C. met D. seen
5. A. write B. discover C. invent D. search
6. A. Talk B. Tell C. Say D. Ask
7. A. on B. with C. up D. of
8. A. Laugh B. Laughter C. Laughable D. Laughably
9. A. pointing B. making C. carrying D. giving
10. A. fortunately B. wholly C. generally D. particularly
TEXT 9: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
In the western customs (1) hands is the customary form of greeting, but in
China a nod of the head or (2) bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when
greeting are uncommon. Business cards are often (3) and yours should be printed
in your own language and in Chinese. Also, it is more respectful to present your card or a gift
or -any other article using (4) hands. The Chinese are (5) applauders.
You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small children. When a person is applauded
in this practice it is the custom for that person to return the applause or a "thank you." When
walking in public places, direct eye (6) . And staring is uncommon in the larger
cities, especially in those areas accustomed to foreign visitors. (7) , in smaller
communities, visitors may be the subject of much curiosity and therefore you may notice
some stares. (8) speaking, the Chinese are not a touch-oriented society, especially
true for visitors. So, avoid (9) or any prolonged form of body contact. Public
displays of affection are very rare. On the other hand, you may note people of the same sex
walking hand-in-hand, which is simply a gesture of friendship. Do not worry about a bit of
pushing and shoving in stores or when groups board public buses or trains. In this case, (10)
are neither offered or expected. The Chinese will stand much closer than
Westerners.
1. A. taking B. shaking C. grasping D. hugging
2. A. small B. bit C. slight D. light
3. A. exchanged B. changed C. transferred D. converted
4. A. pair B. couple C. double D. both
5. A. enthusiast B. enthusiastic C. enthusiasm D. enthusiastically
6. A. contact B. look C. stare D. watch
7. A. Moreover B. Furthermore C. However D. Whatever
8. A. Generally B. Successfully C. Fortunately D. Expectedly
9. A. touch B. to touch C. touched D. touching
10. A. contacts B. apologies C. gestures D. saying goodbye

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

TEXT 10: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
The University of Oxford, informally called "Oxford University", or simply "Oxford",
(1) in the city of Oxford, in England, is (2) oldest university in the
English-speaking world. It is also considered as one of the world's leading (3)
institutions. The university traces, its roots back to at least the end of the 11th century, (4)
the exact date of foundation remains unclear. Academically, Oxford is
consistently ranked in the world's top ten universities. The University is also open (5)
overseas students, primarily from American universities, who may (6)
in study abroad programs during the summer months for more than a century, it
has served as the home of the Rhodes Scholarship, (7) brings highly
accomplished students from a number of countries to study at Oxford as (8) The
University of Oxford is also a place where many talented leaders from all over the world
used to study. Twenty-five British Prime Ministers attended Oxford, including Margaret
Thatcher and Tony Blair. At (9) 25 other international leaders have been
educated at Oxford, and this number includes King Harald V of Norway and King Abdullah
II of Jordan. Bill Clinton is the first American President to attend Oxford. Forty-seven Nobel
(10) winners have studied or taught at Oxford.
1. A. put B. placed C. located D. stood
2. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
3. A. learning B. academic C. graduating D. scholar
4. A. although B. because C. since D. if
5. A. to B. for C. from D. up
6. A. write B. name C. enroll D. require
7. A. that B. where C. whose D. which
8. A. postgraduates B. postgraduated C. postgraduation D. postgraduating
9. A. last B. least C. late D. lately
10. A. present B. gift C. medal D. prize
TEXT 11: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
What do you do well? What do you enjoy doing? Your answers to these two questions
will help you identify your (1) . An employer will consider you seriously for a (2)
when you can show them that you know who you are, what you can offer and
which you have studied. Sometimes it is difficult to know what your weaknesses are. Clearly
not everyone is equally good (3) everything. You may need to improve yourself
and so (4) courses in that field could turn a weakness into strength.
You will need to (5) some time on your self-assessment. Your honesty and
the desire for self-improvement will lead to (6) in getting the right job. Explore
the following seven areas to start to get to know yourself: your aptitude, your skills, your
personality, the level of responsibility you feel comfortable with, your interests and your
needs.
Ask (7) if you have any special talents and if you need to consider your
physical health when choosing a job. Be as honest and realistic as you can, and ask for other

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people's (8) if necessary. Make a list of these things. It is usually a good idea to
talk about your aptitudes with teachers, family and friends;
If you are considering a career that (9) a special talent, such as art,
acrobatics, mathematics or music, discuss your aptitudes with (10) expert in that
area and discover how they fit the needs of the occupation.
1. A. strong B. strength C. strengthen D. strengthened
2. A. position B. location C. spot D. room
3. A. upon B. in C. at D. for
4. A. meeting B. taking C. choosing D. interviewing
5. A. use B. make C. lose D. spend
6. A. success B. successful C. successfully D. succeed
7. A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself
8. A. interests B. fields C. opinions D. attendances
9. A. requires B. asks C. tells D. urges
10. A. a B. an C. the D. no article
TEXT 12: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
The interview is one of the most important (1) in the job search process.
When an employer invites you to an interview, he/she is indicating an (2) in
yourself. The interview gives both of you the opportunity to (3) enough
information to determine if you are a good "fit" for each other. Think of an interview as a
highly focused professional conversation. You should (4) the limited amount of
time you have learning about the employer's needs and discuss the ways you can meet these
needs. In many cases, you will interview at least, twice before being employed for a (5)
. Once in a brief screening interview and at least once again in a (6)
serious meeting when you may also talk to many of your potential coworkers.
A job interview is a strategic conversation with a purpose. Your goal is to show the
employer that you have the (7) , background, and ability to do the job and that you
can successfully fit into the organization. The interview is also your (8) to gather
information about the job, the organization, and future career opportunities to figure out if
the position and work environment are (9) for you. Most employers do not hire
people based on certificates or diplomas alone. Personality, (10) , enthusiasm, a
positive outlook, and excellent interpersonal and communication skills count heavily in the
selection process.
1. A. parts B. roles C. fields D. facts
2. A. interest B. interesting C. interested D. interestingly
3. A. fill B. change C. exchange D. translate
4. A. make B. spend C. post D. apply
5. A. condition B. location C. satisfaction D. position
6. A. most B. mostly C. more D. more than
7. A. skills B. aspects C. appearances D. weaknesses
8. A. fates B. feasts C. lucks D. opportunities

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9. A. fit B. right C. accurate D. exact

10. A. confide B. confidence C. confident D. confidently
TEXT 13: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
After your letter of application and resume, the interview is your best opportunity to
(1) the employer - regardless of your background and experience. To do this, use
every possible strategy to develop (2) interviewing skills. The best way is to
prepare a selective presentation of your background, thoughtful answers to potential
interview questions, well-researched questions about the organization, and an effective
strategy to introduce yourself. You should also consider your career goals and what the
available job offers (3) you can discuss both of these topics with employers.
Interviewing is a skill that improves and (4) easier with practice.
It is to your advantage to carefully research the job and the organization. There are
many (5) to do this. You can ask for printed materials from the employer, such as
annual reports and job descriptions. This is an entirely (6) request, so do not
hesitate to make it. Use your library and career center resources. Ask colleagues, friends, and
faculty about the organization, and about any personal contacts at the organization they
might have. Look at the organization's home page. Knowing about the job will help you
prepare a (7) of your qualifications so that you can show, point by point, why you
are the best (8) .
Prepare a clear answer to each of the questions in the interview questions section.
Practice answering questions with a friend, or (9) front of a mirror. Ask your
friend to give you constructive criticism on your speaking style, mannerisms, and gestures.
As you practice, avoid colloquialisms, such as "like" and "you know”. It is (10) to
prepare yourself for talking with complete strangers.
1. A. impress B. press C. pressure D. regard
2. A. effect B. effective C. effectiveness D. effectively
3. A. that B. so as to C. so that D. because
4. A. comes B. lets C. makes D. becomes
5. A. ways B. practices C. drills D. forms
6. A. exact B. accurate C. proper D. correct
7. A. part B. list C. line D. sum
8. A. employer B. interviewer C. manager D. candidate
9. A. in B. on C. for D. at
10. A. thrilling B. exciting C. important D. unnecessary
TEXT 14: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the (1) between
the human and the machine. All body (2) will be replaceable. Computers will
function like the human (3) with the ability to recognize feelings and respond in
a feeling way. They will then produce fake people. We will then be able to create a machine
duplicate of ourselves (4) we will appear to be alive long after we are dead. Maybe
a few decades later, a way will be found to transfer our spirit, including our (5)
and thoughts, to the new body. Then we can choose to live for as (6) as we want.
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It might be expensive. When it becomes possible to do a spirit transfer, they will figure out
(7) to do them automatically. So, we will be able to reside within whichever
duplicate we want, whenever we want.
Miniature robots will be built to travel through your blood (8) and repair
damage. Also, larger robots will be used when you are sick. When you have an upset stomach,
you will (9) a very small cherry tasting robot which will travel through your
stomach taking video of the mess. It will be set up like a video game, so you can control the
exploring and the selection of images. Then you can replay the video to help a doctor (10)
your illness, or to prove to your employer that you really, were sick.
1. A. variety B. change C. difference D. appearance
2. A. region B. place C. role D. parts
3. A. brain B. limb C. skull D. liver
4. A. such B. as C. so D. but
5. A. experience B. memories C. actions D. health
6. A. long B. far C. much D. soon
7. A. what B. when C. why D. how
8. A. line B. creek C. stream D. river
9. A. swallow B. chew C. vomit D. drink
10. A. notice B. diagnose C. watch D. observe
TEXT 15: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
When a child learns to read and write, he must access the schema developed in his (1)
. As he reads, the child creates pictures in his mind and uses (2) and
points of reference to put the story (3) . Television images do not go through a
complex symbolic transformation. The mind does not have to decode and manipulate during
the television experience. Watching television and playing video games do not (4)
a child's skills in word recognition, decoding, vocabulary, spelling or high-level thinking. The
connection between television's effects (5) children's reading abilities and the
(6) in their writing skills is clear: there is no question in the minds of educators
that a student who cannot read with the true comprehension will never learn to write well.
Writing, after (7) , is book talk, and you only learn book talk by reading. It has been
shown that reading stimulates brain activity. While reading, we imagine settings, characters
and we become part of the world of the story. (8) , it has been shown that watching
television prevents brain activity. Children who watch too much television are less socially
developed and have problems maintaining (9) . Reading, (10) of
watching television, enriches our lives, develops the imagination, and intellect, and is less
brain deadening. Reading is good for us, it makes one a better person.
1. A. brain B. heart C. forehead D. hand
2. A. imagine B. imaginative C. imaginary D. imagination
3. A. one another B. other C. together D. each other
4. A. digest B. chew C. advance D. develop
5. A. with B. on C. for D. at

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6. A. decline B. stop C. harm D. discouragement

7. A. that B. it C. all D. whole
8. A. Conversely B. Successfully C. Totally D. Unhappily
9. A. education B. explanation C. concentration D. exploration
10. A. because B. instead C. consisting D. in spite
TEXT 16: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
THE LOCH NESS MONSTER
In the beautiful highlands of Scotland, there is a lake called the Loch Ness. In these
peaceful (1) , a sea monster known as the "Loch Ness Monster" is said to be living
in the lake. This creature, (2) known as "Nessie", has been reported to be seen by
many people around the lake. According to these people, Nessie looked like a creature from
the dinosaur (3) . It had a huge body, a small reptilian head and a long neck. Does
the Loch Ness Monster really exist? No one can tell for (4) . (5) since
the sighting of the monster, many people have been keeping (6) at the lake,
hoping to (7) a glimpse of Nessie. In 1934, a doctor, Colonel Robert Wilson, even
managed to photograph the creature. The picture (8) a creature with a long neck
sticking out of the water. Where (9) _ the Loch Ness Monster have come from? One
explanation given is that the monster is a pre- historic creature which lived in the days of the
dinosaurs. While other dinosaurs have died (10) and become extinct, this
creature has somehow managed to adapt to its surroundings and live on!
1. A. surroundings B. views C. scenes D. locations
2. A. sentimentally B. dearly C. lovely D. affectionately
3. A. era B. time C. age D. period
4. A. surety B. sure C. certainly D. surely
5. A. Ever B. But C. So D. Yet
6. A. notice B. observation C. guard D. watch
7. A. grab B. seize C. catch D. snatch
8. A. exhibited B. revealed C. displayed D. pointed out
9. A. could B. should C. must D. would
10. A. down B. off C. away D. out
TEXT 17: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
CHARLES DICKENS
Charles Dickens was born in Portsmouth in 1812. When he was eleven, his father (1)
into debt. Because he could not pay (2) his debt, he and his family were
sent to a debtors' prison to work. Charles Dickens himself had to work in a factory, washing
bottles' and (3) labels onto bottles. People looked down on his family and him.
Dickens was unhappy and ashamed (4) this period of his life. His loss of dignity
was later reflected in his book, "David Copperfield", in which the main (5) also
worked in a factory washing bottles. The family returned to a more (6) life after
Dickens' father received financial aid. Dickens was sent to school. School discipline in these
days was very (7) . Severe punishments were meted out, freely for (8)
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misdemeanors. Once again, Dickens suffered. Throughout their (9) Dickens and
his family members remained close-knit and supportive of one another. Dickens knew that
without them, he would probably have been a thief and a beggar like Oliver in his book
"Oliver Twist". Among Dickens' greatest (10) were "Great Expectations", "Oliver
Twist", "The Old Curiosity Shop" and "David Copperfield".
1. A. fell B. came C. ran D. turned
2. A. for B. off C. away D. up
3. A. gluing B. clinging C. sticking D. pressing
4. A. for B. about C. with D. of
5. A. character B. hero C. person D. actor
6. A. ordinary B. normal C. common D. average
7. A. stern B. severe C. harsh D. tough
8. A. less B. minor C. trivial D. slight
9. A. trials B. experiences C. tests D. proof
10. A. careers B. works C. successes D. hits
TEXT 18: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE
William Shakespeare was the (1) writer in the English language. He was
born in 1564 in Stratford- upon- Avon. (2) the age of eighteen he married Anne
Hathaway, (3) was eight years (4) than himself. A few years later he
moved to London, (5) he worked as an actor and a playwright. Shakespeare (6)
thirty seven plays and 154 sonnets (a kind of poem). His most famous plays are
the four great tragedies - Othello, Macbeth, Hamlet, and King Lear. Shakespeare died in
Stratford (7) 23 April 1616, but his plays are still very popular today. They have
been translated into different languages, and many of them have been (8) into
films, both in English and other languages. Shakespeare's plays are about the great issues of
life - love, hatred, jealousy, power, ambition, (9) and so on. So, his plays are just
relevant today as they were in the sixteenth (10) .
1. A. great B. greater C. greatest D. greatly
2. A. At B. In C. On D. By
3. A. whom B. who C. whose D. which
4. A. old B. elder C. eldest D. older
5. A. which B. where C. when D. place
6. A. write B. writes C. written D. wrote
7. A. in B. on C. at D. by
8. A. did B. done C. made D. make
9. A. death B. died C. die D. to died
10. A. days B. months C. years D. century

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TEXT 19: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
JOHN LENNON
John Lennon, (1) member of the Beatles, (2) murdered just
before 11 p.m. (3) the 8th of December 1980, outside his home in New York City. He
had just got out of a car, and was walking to the entrance (4) a voice called
"Mr. Lennon". Lennon turned and (5) five times. The killer threw his gun down,
and stood there smiling. Lennon was (6) to hospital in a police patrol car, but it
was (7) late. The killer was 25-year-old Mark Chapman from Hawaii. Earlier the
same evening he had asked Lennon for his autograph. (8) fact, he had been
hanging around outside the apartment building for several days. Chapman was a (9)
of the Beatles and Lennon, and had tried to imitated him in many ways. It is (10)
that he even believed he was John Lennon.
1. A. Ø B. one C. the D. an
2. A. was B. were C. are D. is
3. A. on B. in C. at D. into
4. A. while B. after C. before D. when
5. A. shoot B. were shot C. is shot D. was shot
6. A. ran B. run C. rushed D. rush
7. A. much B. more C. and D. too
8. A. In B. At C. For D. About
9. A. man B. woman C. fan D. boy
10. A. said B. talked C. spoke D. told
TEXT 20: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
BACTERIA
Bacteria are the smallest known living things with a cellular structure. These one-celled
micro-organisms exist (1) organic matter is found: in soil, in water (2)
in the air. Since most of them have no chlorophyll, they cannot use light energy to synthesize
(3) food, as green plants do. They must get their food in other (4) . In
this, bacteria resemble animals. However, since they are enclosed in a cell wall, they can only
(5) dissolved food like plants do.
(6) most bacteria do not contain chlorophyll, some of them can (7)
their own organic food from simple inorganic materials. They do not, however,
use light energy for this (8) . Others get ready-made food from dead plants and
animals. Still others are parasites. Parasites are able to enter other living organisms and
take (9) from them. In doing so, they often (10) diseases or the death
of their hosts.
1. A. wherever B. whoever C. whatever D. whomever
2. A. but B. so C. and D. than
3. A. them B. their C. they D. themselves
4. A. ways B. streets C. side D. room

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5. A. reduce B. exist C. decrease D. absorb

6. A. Therefore B. So C. However D. Although
7. A. siege B. make C. do D. store
8. A. proper B. purpose C. way D. result
9. A. things B. blood C. health D. food
10. A. get B. play C. cause D. without

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WRITING
1. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION
Rewrite the sentences with the same meaning
1. The theatre has two cafes.
 There
2. Three hundred students entered the swimming competition last year.
 Three hundred students took
3. Peter said, “Why don’t you go to the booking office yourself?”
 Peter said, “How about ?”
4. Many theatres accept credit cards.
 At many theatres, you
5. You can’t smoke in the theatre.
 Smoking is
6. He spoke so softly that we couldn’t hear him.
 His voice
7. The university has never been ranked number one before.
 This is the first time
8. They saw him drink and drive.
 He
9. I didn’t work hard, so I failed the exam.
 I wish
10. “How long have you been here?”, he asked.
 He asked
11. Last month my sister borrowed the novel from me.
 Last month I lent
12. She hadn't read a novel before.
 This is the first novel
13. The novel has 150 pages.
 There
14. This novel is longer than Joan Brady's other books.
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 Joan Brady's other books are

15. How much does the novel cost?
 What is
16. It's not worth trying to make her change her mind.
 There's
17. He was driving very fast because he didn't know the road was icy.
 If
18. I haven't seen her since we left school.
 The last time
19. I get to work in twenty minutes.
 It
20. "Don't walk on the grass", the gardener said to us.
 The gardener told
21. You must see the manager tomorrow morning.
 You have
22. I've warned you not to go near that dog.
 I’ve warned you about
23. There was never any answer when he rang.
 Every time
24. No one expected his coming.
 He
25. He offered me a glass of wine.
 “Would you
26. They changed their plan because the weather was bad.
 Due to
27. The increasing number of cars has caused serious air pollution.
 Air pollution
28. "What does it mean to you?" Rosemary asked me.
 Rosemary
29. That's the last time I go to that restaurant.
 I certainly
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30. If you don't rest yourself, you really will be ill.

 Unless
31. This is the fastest way to get to the city center.
 There’s
32. If anyone succeeds in solving the problems, it will probably be him.
 He’s the most likely
33. We arrived too late to see the first film.
 We didn’t
34. "Would you mind not smoking in here?"
 I’d rather
35. He wrote the letter in two hours.
 It took
36. In spite of his age, Mr. Benson runs 8 miles before breakfast.
 Though
37. I was very interested in our conversation.
 It was very interesting
38. These bookshelves are my own work.
 I made
39. I haven't been to the dentist's for two years.
 It’s
40. Whenever she went to Paris, she bought a new dress.
 She never
41. I spent seven years at secondary school and then I went to university.
 After
42. He said he was not guilty of stealing the car.
 He denied
43. Is this the only way to reach the city centre?
 Isn’t there ?
44. He never suspected that the money had been stolen.
 At no time
45. It's my opinion that you should take more exercise.
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 If I
46. This is the most delicious cake I have ever tasted.
 I have
47. Without his help, we would all have been in worse trouble.
 Had it
48. No students in my class can speak English as fluently as she does.
 She speaks
49. My father started to read that book two weeks ago. He’s still reading it.
 My father has
50. The questions are so easy that everyone can answer them.
 They’re such
51. I only found out about my exam results when I returned from my holiday.
 Not until
52. It was her determination which enabled her to get better so quickly.
 If
53. His chances of qualifying as a doctor are small.
 It is not
54. It took a long time for the patient to recover completely from his illness.
 Only after
55. Jane doesn’t take any exercise, which is why she is unfit.
 Jane’s unfitness
56. He thinks that all nurses are women, but he’s wrong.
 Contrary
57. You’ll have to get rid of all those old magazines.
 Those old magazines
58. Everyone looks down on her and she’s fed up with it.
 She’s fed up with
59. I’m sorry that my story sounded so unconvincing.
 I wish
60. They have accounted for all the survivors of the accidents.
 All the
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61. Nigel asked if Ann could lend him her hairdryer for a while. (borrow)
 Nigel asked
62. Chris is hungry because the last time he ate something was Thursday evening. (not)
 Chris is hungry because he
63. We will not be able to solve this difficult problem. (impossible)
 It will be
64. Peter is angry because Joanna did not accept his invitation. (turn)
 If Joanna
65. I don’t think I can manage if my sister doesn’t help me. (do)
 I think I can’t
66. “Have you finished your homework yet?” Mr. Brown asked his daughter. (if)
 Mr. Brown asked his daughter
67. “Do we have to pay for our own tickets?” I asked my friend. (expected)
 I asked my friend
68. The strong winds caused the tower to fall over. (knocked)
 It was the strong winds
69. The bus driver stopped frequently to allow the tourists to see the sights. (that)
 The bus driver stopped frequently
70. Jane held Tom’s hand and prevented him from falling over. (had)
 Tom would have fallen over
71. I am not strong enough to climb that steep path without a walking stick. (too)
 That path is
72. That man stole a valuable picture but he was never punished. (got)
 That man
73. Hitch-hiking is less popular now than ten years ago. (not)
 Hitch-hiking is
74. “Why did you cancel the party, Lucy?” Martin asked. (called)
 Martin asked Lucy
75. “Do not leave your belongings unattended.” the group leader said to the tourists. (to)
 The group leader told the tourists
76. Mrs. Green didn’t buy her son a bicycle because she didn’t have enough money. (afford)
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 Mrs. Green
77. He will not buy that pony because he is no longer interested. (lost)
 He
78. Although it looks easy, that dance is actually quite difficult. (not)
 That dance is
79. Mark did as I suggested and bought a new computer. (advice)
 Mark
80. No teacher will tolerate bad behavior in class. (put)
 No teacher will
81. The heavy snow meant that no trains were running. (prevented)
 The trains
82. Can I borrow your camera for my holiday, please? (lend)
 Can ?
83. John was horrified to find his new car had been stolen. (horror)
 To
84. If only I spoke Russian. (could)
I
85. Brazilian farmers grow much of the world’s coffee. (is)
 Much of the world’s coffee
86. I lost my way because I didn’t take a map. (had)
 If I
87. Bill Gates is thought by many people to be among the richest men in the world. (that)
 Many people
88. Our local supermarket employs over 200 people. (are)
 Over 200 people
89. This coffee is too weak for me. (not)
 This coffee
90. Do you have any idea who owns this house? (house)
 Do you have any idea ?
91. It’s not my fault that the car was damaged. (blame)
 Don’t
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92. Jim is the only person I know who went to university. (other)
 I do
93. Joe’s father used to insist that he washed the car at the weekend. (make)
 Joe’s father used to
94. I wish my aunt will write to me. (miss)
I
95. Minh speaks English better than his parents do. (as)
 Minh’s parents don’t
96. Cycling is not allowed in the park. (supposed)
 You
97. “I’m sorry I didn’t let you know I was going to be late, Ann.” said John. (apologized)
 John _ Ann know that he was going to be late.
98. A heavy fall of snow prevented them from getting home that night. (able)
 They home that night because of a heavy fall of snow.
99. Linda was disappointed not to win the competition. (came)
 Not winning the competition
100. I paid far more money for my new computer than I expected to. (so)
 I didn’t expect money for my new computer.

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

2. COMPOSITION
Write a composition (150 -200 words) on one of the following topics
A. EMAILS & LETTERS
Topic 1: You are studying English at a private language school attended by many
international students. You are planning a surprise birthday party for a friend who has been
feeling sad and homesick. Write an email with at least 150 words to another classmate and
invite him/her to the party. In your email:
 explain the reason for the party
 give the date and time of the party
 suggest what the classmate should bring to the party
Topic 2: An English-speaking friend wants to spend a two-week holiday in your region and
has written asking for information and advice. Write a letter with at least 150 words to your
friend. In your letter:
 offer to find somewhere to stay
 give advice about what to do
 give information about what clothes to bring
Topic 3: Your best friend just had a nice new house. You are currently overseas but will be
returning to your hometown in a week. Write an email with at least 150 words to your friend
including:
 congratulate your friend
 tell her/him when you will be returning home
 ask when you could drop in with a special gift to see the new house
Topic 4: An English-speaking friend is coming to study in your town next year and has
written asking for information and advice. Write a letter with at least 150 words to your
friend. In your letter:
 offer to find a place for him/her to live
 give advice how to find a part-time job
 give information on where he/she can learn your language
Topic 5: You stayed at your friend’s house when you participated in a conference in Japan.
You left a briefcase with some important documents in your room. Write an email with at
least 150 words to your friend including:
 thank your friend for the stay
 describe the briefcase
 ask him/her to return it to you by post
Topic 6: You have recently been to stay with an old friend in his/her hometown for a few
days. You hadn’t seen each other for a long time. Write an email with at least 150 words to
the friend including:
 say how you felt about the visit

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 refer to something enjoyable that you did while staying with him/her
 invite your friend to visit you someday
Topic 7: You are looking for a part-time job. Write an email with at least 150 words to an
employment agency. In your email:
 introduce yourself
 explain what sort of job you would like
 say what experience and skills you have
Topic 8: Last Thursday you flew from Vietnam to Singapore. When you arrived home, you
discovered that you had left your cabin bag on the plane. Write an email with at least 150
words to the airline. In your email, you should explain:
 where and when you lost your bag
 what your bag looks like
 what its contents were
Topic 9: Last week you bought a new laptop at a good price in the city center which is far
from your house. You worked on the laptop all week and finished writing a long assignment
that is due shortly. However, this week, the laptop doesn’t even switch on. Write a letter with
at least 150 words to the store. In your letter:
 tell the store where you live and what happened
 explain the problem with the laptop
 state what action you would like the store to take
Topic 10: You have been living in a rental apartment for the past year. Recently a new
neighbor moved in who has loud parties several times a week. Write an email with at least
150 words complaining about this to the landlord. In your email:
 explain the situation
 describe why it bothers you
 suggest a solution
Topic 11: You are going to take a short holiday in Singapore and you want to rent a holiday
apartment while you are there. Write a letter with at least 150 words to the tourist
information office. In your letter:
 explain what you need
 where/ what kind of apartment you want to live
 say when you plan to be there
 ask for information about prices
Topic 12: Your neighbors have recently written to you to complain about the noise from
your house/flat. Write an email with at least 150 words to your neighbors. In your email:
 explain the reasons for the noise
 apologize for inconvenience
 describe what action you will take

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Topic 13: Your family is visiting Singapore next month. You have an English e-pal called Alice
who also lives in Singapore. You would like to meet her when you go to Singapore. Write an
email with at least 150 words to Alice. In your email, you should:
 say when your family is coming to Singapore
 ask if you can meet up, and suggest a day
 suggest what you can do together
Topic 14: You recently heard about some new jobs at a local department store. You would
like to work there. Write a letter with at least 150 words to store manager of the department
store. In your letter:
 explain how you heard about the job
 describe the kind of job you would like to have
 give details of your experience and qualifications
Topic 15: You saw an advertisement requiring volunteers for an organization that helps
children. Write a letter with at least 150 words to the organization and offer to volunteer
part time. Include the following in your letter:
 Why are you applying for this position?
 What makes you suitable for it?
 When will you be available?
Topic 16: You have just moved into a new home and are planning to hold a house-warming.
You are worried that the noise may disturb your neighbor. Write a letter with at least 150
words to your neighbor. In your letter:
 introduce yourself
 describe your plans for the party
 invite your neighbor to come
Topic 17: You have been offered a job that will require you to move to a city that you have
never visited before. You have a friend who lives there. Write an email with at least 150
words to your friend. In your email:
 explain your situation
 say why you feel unsure about living in the city
 ask some questions about life in the city
Topic 18: You have a friend who lives abroad. You have decided to apply for a course at one
of the colleges/universities in his city. Write an email with at least 150 words to your friend
explaining:
 tell them about the college/university and the course
 why you want to do it
 ask for their help to find accommodation if you get admission to the course
Topic 19: One of your friends recently had a birthday celebration. However, you missed it
and you forgot to tell your friend that you couldn't attend. Write an email with at least 150
words to your friend. In your email:

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 apologize for missing the birthday celebration

 explain why you missed it and why you didn't tell your friend
 say what you would like to do to show that you are sorry
Topic 20: An overseas friend has invited you to visit his country. You are planning to visit
him. Write a letter with at least 150 words to your friend. In your letter:
 thank him for the invitation and accept the invitation
 write details about your visit
 briefly describe what you want to do there

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B. ESSAYS
Topic 1: Some students work while studying. This often results in lacking time for education
and constantly feeling under pressure. What do you think are the causes of this? What
solutions can you suggest?
Topic 2: Nowadays families are not as close as they used to be. What do you think are the
causes of this? What can be done to make families closer?
Topic 3: It is better to have one true friend than all the acquaintances in the world. Do you
agree or disagree with this statement?
Topic 4: Today more people are overweight than ever before. What in your opinion are the
primary causes of this? What measures can be taken to overcome this epidemic?
Topic 5: Big salary is much more important than job satisfaction. Do you agree or disagree?
Provide relevant examples if necessary.
Topic 6: Describe the positive and negative impacts of technology on our lives and give your
opinion.
Topic 7: The best way to travel is travel in a group led by a tour guide. To what extent do
you agree or disagree with this statement?
Topic 8: Music plays a vital role in our society. How much has music influenced the way we
think today? What do you think is the key role of music in nowadays world?
Topic 9: How does social media impact tourism and travel?
Topic 10: What are the advantages and disadvantages of studying abroad?
Topic 11: Do you think it is better for students to work before their college/university study?
Why/Why not? Use reasons and specific examples to support your choice.
Topic 12: Some people say that protecting the environment is the government’s
responsibility. Others believe that every individual should be responsible for it. Discuss both
views and give your own opinion.
Topic 13: What technologies did you use to help you in your studies? Describe how it has
helped you. Use specific reasons and details to support your answer.
Topic 14: Many doctors say that people in today’s world do not do enough physical exercise.
What do you think are the causes of this? What solutions are there to this problem?
Topic 15: Some people believe that employees should stay in the same job for the rest of
their lives. Others think they should switch jobs at least once during their career. To what
extent do you agree/disagree?
Topic 16: Many students believe that it’s better to gain knowledge in a group rather than
individually. Do you agree or disagree?

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Topic 17: Some people think women should be given equal chances to work and excel in
their careers. Others believe that a woman’s role should be limited to taking care of the house
and children. Which opinion do you agree with and why? Include specific details and
examples to support your choice.
Topic 18: Some people are fond of buying new gadgets, phones, or laptops. Is this a good or
bad thing? Discuss your opinion.
Topic 19: These days, mobile phones and the internet are very important to the ways in
which people relate to one another socially. Do the advantages of this development outweigh
the disadvantages?
Topic 20: Some people think that the young people should be free to choose their job, but
other people think that they should be realistic and think more about their future. Discuss
the both views and give your opinion.

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LISTENING
TEXT 1: Listen and fill the missing words in the blanks.
1. Being a kid can be lots of fun. You play a lot – you have a lot of games that Mom and Dad
don’t know how to play. I love playing (1) … I get a lot of time to play soccer as a
kid. Adults don’t have as much time to play – my dad works so he doesn’t get to play soccer
very much. One bad thing about a kid is school … I don’t really like going to school. I can’t
stand doing (2) either … especially cleaning my room. Oh, and, my brother has a
new (3) … that’s really annoying because he isn’t very good at playing it!
2. Some good things about being a kid are: summer (4) , playing sports, and getting
lots of presents on my birthday – adults don’t get as many presents. I like playing with my
friends every weekend, too. Bad things about being a kid are: some of the chores I have to do
– I don’t mind doing some of them, but there are some I can’t (5) , like doing dishes.
Sometimes I can’t watch TV when my Dad wants to watch a program that I can’t watch … I
don't like that, and, I don't like doing homework. But I am happy I don't have to pay (6)
! That’s one bad thing about being an adult.
3. I don't like having to go to bed so early … at (7) . I always have to finish all the
food on my plate, even if I don't like it … yuck. One thing I really don't like … I don't like older
people telling me what to do. That’s probably the (8) thing about being a kid.
There are a lot of good things though … I don't have to work and my parents give me money
for (9) … when I am an adult, I’ll have to pay for everything. And, I get to see my
friends all the time at school … we have (10) so we can play. You don't have (10)
when you’re an adult!
TEXT 2:
Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Tatiana can remember 75 of 100 names and faces after 15 minutes.
2. She has exactly six brothers and sisters.
3. She feels that remembering everyday things and memorizing things are
different processes.
4. She makes up a story to link random numbers and words, for visualization.
5. She didn’t have to do much except for taking lecture notes in college.
6. Her parents only encouraged her to read and learn languages to help her memory.
7. She finds memorization interesting.
8. She recently defeated 60 challengers to keep her memory champion title.
9. Her parents allowed her to watch TV when she was little.
10. Tatiana keeps a daily To Do list for remembering things on a daily basis.

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Listen again and fill the missing words in the blanks.

Now here's an interesting story about the (1) of how memory works... or
doesn't work.
Give Tatiana Cooley 100 faces and names to memorize and she can remember 70 of
them 15 minutes later. Give her 4,000 numbers or (2) words and she'll repeat
them better than most people. It's the same with a 54-line poem. So, why does Tatiana Cooley
need sticky notes?
She says she's incredibly (3) ! She recently defeated 16 challengers to keep
her memory champion title, but when asked how many brothers and sisters she has, she
replied, "Six…er…seven...er six."
She keeps a daily To Do list and says she "lives by reminder notes." According to
Tatiana, the ability (4) thing is different from remembering things on a daily basis.
She says her memorizing is "not on the same level as remembering to call people."
Tatiana (5) that she is not unique. She believes that anybody can train their
mind to memorize. She uses two techniques: visualization and association. For visualization,
she looks at material and mentally photographs it. For association, she makes up a story to
(6) random numbers and words.
Tatiana noticed that her ability to memorize was better than average when she was
studying in college. She found that taking (7) _ notes was enough to prepare for
tests. She didn't have to do anything else.
Tatiana gives credit for her (8) to her mother and father. They only allowed
her to watch news and educational programs on TV when she was growing up. They played
games to help her memory and encouraged her to read and learn languages. She reads in
Portuguese, Spanish, and French. She thinks (9) is fun. She says, "I've always loved
to learn. I've been like a sponge my whole life."

So, there you go, folks, it's reassuring to know that even a memory champion needs a
little help (10) everyday things sometimes. And, our next story is...
1. A. history B. theory C. mystery D. phenomenon
2. A. 500 B. 900 C. 100 D. 50
3. A. open-minded B. absent-minded C. strong-minded D. wrong-minded
4. A. to recognize B. to realize C. to clarify D. to memorize
5. A. consists B. exists C. insists D. emits
6. A. link B. think C. bring D. click
7. A. letter B. lecture C. better D. whatever
8. A. family B. facilities C. abilities D. variety
9. A. memorization B. visualization C. association D. modernization
10. A. memorizing B. realizing C. recognizing D. remembering

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TEXT 3:
Listen and fill the missing words in the blanks.
Mauricio
Something that’s important to me…hmm… let’s see. I think it would have to be my
motorcycle and (1) . I use my motorcycle to go to work and almost everywhere
else. I carry everything I need in my (1) _ so that’s really important, too. I don’t
think I could manage without (2) one of them.
Elaine
I have a ring that was my grandmother’s. It’s my most important and favourite
posession. It’s a beautiful gold ring that has a (3) on it. My grandfather gave it to
my grandmother, then she gave it to my mother, and my mother gave it to me a few years
ago. It’s really special… I hardly ever wear it though because I don’t want to (4)
it.
Ruth
Lars and I have a (5) that has all our family memories in it. Photographs,
letters, pictures, and art that our children made. It really is our family history. Our children
don’t really (6) how important it is right now, but I think they will when they’re
older.
Bruce
That’s easy. My stereo and CD collection are my most important things. It’s a good
stereo and I have to save a long time to be able to buy it. I have at (7) _ 100 CDs in
my collection. I collect music from around the world. I collect music that is interesting or (8)
. My friends always know what to give me for my birthday… a new CD always
makes me happy.
Mia
A watch that was my mother’s. It isn’t expensive and it’s a little (9) it’s gold
and it has a (10) band…but I really like it. People always notice it when I wear it.
They always ask where I got it.
TEXT 4:
Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Russell knows Audrey for more than two years.
2. He is in an office soccer team.
3. He doesn’t see Gary very often but they still keep in touch with.
4. His old friends are mainly from work.
5. Both Audrey and Gary are his old friends.
6. To Audrey, Russell is the only her friend at work that she can get along with.
7. Audrey has known Lisa since she was 16 years old.
8. Audrey is a musician but most of her friends are not.
9. Audrey is just interested in friends in her life.
10. Audrey has a lot of different friends.

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Listen again and fill the missing words in the blanks.

Russell
Well, most of my friends are from work. I didn’t live here before I got this job, so I met
most of the friends I have now through work. Audrey is the first person I met here...so I have
known her for two years. We (1) a lot outside work, but I also have a lot of friends
in other (2) . I play basketball with some guys from (3) , and then we
have an office soccer team, too. We get together almost every weekend to play. I have one
old friend, Gary, who I kind of keep in touch with, but he lives in a different city, and we don’t
see each other that often. I haven’t seen him since his wedding, so that’s about two years.
He’s one of my oldest and best friends, but it’s hard to stay in (4) sometimes. So,
my friends these days are mainly from work and that’s fine. It’s more (5) since we
spend so much time together anyway.
Audrey
My social life is (6) separate from work. Russell is really the only friend I
have from my job. He and I get along really well, so we see each other outside work, but (7)
I don’t socialize with people from work unless I have to. I’ve lived in this city all
my life, so I’ve had most of my friends for a long time. I’ve known my best friend, Lisa, since
I was six years old- we lived in the same (8) building as children- so that’s about
20 years now. I’m also a musician...I play the guitar in a band and a lot of my friends are
musicians. I’ve been in the same band for three years now and the other band members are
my really good friends. I think it’s good to know different kinds of people and I don’t want
my (9) life to be about work, so I (10) that’s why I try to have a lot of
different friends.
TEXT 5: Listen again and fill the missing words in the blanks.
Once (1) a time there was a king who had three daughters. He wanted to
choose one of them to be the queen. He called the daughters to him and said, “My dear
children, I love all three of you (2) and for a long time I have not known which
one of you to name as queen. Now I have decided. The one who brings me a birthday present
which is most necessary to human life shall be queen. Go and make your plans.”
The king’s birthday (3) . The two oldest daughters brought him presents that
were very necessary, but were also very, very expensive. However, the youngest daughter
only brought him a small (4) of salt. When the king saw her present, he became
very angry. He told the daughter to leave his castle and never come back.
The daughter left her father’s castle. She had nowhere to go. She (5) in the
forest and was very hungry and cold. As she walked along one day, a prince saw her and fell
in love with her at once. She agreed to marry him and a great party was planned at the
prince’s castle. The king was invited, but he did not know that the (6) was his
daughter.
Well, the girl told the cook to make all the (7) for the party with no salt. At
the wedding, everyone started eating and they found that the food had no taste. One (8)

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said, “There is no salt in the meat.” Then everyone started saying, “There is no salt
in the meat.”
Then, the king said very sadly, “(9) , I now know how necessary salt is. But,
because I didn’t know that before, I sent my own daughter away and I will never see her
again.”
When the daughter heard this, she went to the king and made herself (10) .
They all lived happily ever after.
TEXT 6:
Listen to the people talking about their best and worst travel experiences. Check the
appropriate column and write where each experience happened.

Good Bad Where did it happen?

1. Sanjay P, Winnipeg, Canada  At home (before the trip)
2. Liz K., Massachusetts, U.S.
3. Marcello B., Rome, Italy
4. Carmela B., New York, U.S.

Listen again and fill the missing words in the blanks.

1. I was going to Japan on a business trip. I (1) my passport to the passport office
to get a visa. Unfortunately, my passport – with the new visa – was stolen from a mail (2)
on its return. I had to cancel my trip at the last minute, get a new passport, and
start the (3) all over. I ended up going on the trip a month later. So, my worst
travel experience was before my trip even started!
2. My friend and I were on vacation in Ireland. We were driving around, taking pictures, and
sightseeing, and we saw a poem posted on the wall of a restaurant. We’d never heard of the
(4) , but we loved the poem. That night, we stopped in a little village and we
started talking to a man in a crowed pub. We told him about the poem in the restaurant. He
knew the poem, but more (5) , he said, “The (4) who wrote it is right
over there. Do you want to meet him?” It was wonderful!
3. I was hitchhiking with a friend in California. We stood in the same spot for (6)
because no one was driving past. It was getting late and we were absolutely freezing. Finally,
this man stopped, but not to give us a ride- he invited us to his house up the road so that we
could get warm. So, we went to his house and his wife gave us a (7) hot meal. That
was years ago, but it’s my best travel memory.
4. My friend and I were traveling in the Czech (8) . We bought train tickets to go
back to Prague. It was only supposed to be a 45-minute ride. During the ride we heard
announcements but couldn’t understand them. After about an hour, we started wondering
why it was taking so long...so we asked the train (9) . He started to laugh...he said
we should have gotten off and changed trains somewhere. By that point, we were very close

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to the (10) of Germany! We got off in a small town and had to wait for a train back
to Prague. The whole trip took 6 hours – almost the same amount of time it took to fly from
New York to Prague.
TEXT 7: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each question.
1. Who is the interviewer talking to?
A. Amundsen B. Shackleton C. Lewis D. Annelise
2. What is the topic today?
A. Adventure and exploration B. Vacation and relaxation
C. Excitement and entertainment D. Mountains and oceans
3. What hasn’t Annelise Morgan done?
A. She has climbed mountains. B. She has sailed across the Pacific Ocean.
C. She has walked across deserts. D. She has flown to the moon.
4. When did she start her exploration?
A. When she was a child. B. When she was six.
C. When she was sick. D. When she was a sixteen.
5. Who was she interested in?
A. Only men explorers B. Only women explorers
C. All the famous explorers D. Those who love explorers
6. Why did women explorers use to wear men’s clothing?
A. To hide other explorers B. To protect themselves
C. To disguise themselves D. To look stranger than others
7. What didn’t old explorers have?
A. The difficulty B. High-tech equipment
C. The hardship D. Heavy clothes
8. What doesn’t she mention about modern explorers?
A. Fabric and clothes B. Light-weight equipment
C. Satellite phones D. Slow transportation
9. What keeps explorers warm and dry?
A. Fabric and clothes B. Fire C. Blankets D. Animal skin
10. What makes the exploration more impressive?
A. High-tech B. Difficulties and hardship
C. Light-weight D. Satellite phones
TEXT 8:
Listen to the first person and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False
(F).
1. The experience happened to the speaker 20 years ago.
2. The speaker didn’t have a good impression on the boss first.
3. The speaker dropped the files on the floor in his office and pumped into the desk.
4. The boss shouted at the speaker but then burst out laughing.
5. The boss had become the speaker’s good friend since then.

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Listen to the second speaker and fill the missing words in the blanks.
Person 2:
It was years ago...my sister and I took a drive out in the country...we were way out in
the country, miles from anything when we got a flat (1) ...................... we pulled over and got
out of the car...we were young and (2) one of us had any idea how to fix a flat .. as
we were standing there, (3) what to do, a gang of eight or ten men on motorcycles
(4) over the hill and stopped right in front of us. we were (5) to death
– we were thinking of all the TV shows and (6) where men on motorcycles were
bad (7) ! The leader of the group got off his bike and came over, followed by three
big, (8) men he didn’t smile or anything, he just looked at us and said “Give me
your keys”...we were (9) , but my sister handed over the keys. then, we watched
as the four men changed our tire for us. When they finished, the leader gave us back the keys
and said, “Now go home,” and they got on their motorcycles and roared off. ever since then,
I have tried not to (10) people by how they look.
TEXT 9: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
I = Interviewer, RC = Dr. Raul Carvi
I: Hello. Our guest today is Dr. Raul Carvi, a scientist who studies (1) ......................Tell us, Dr
Carvi, is this a new area of research?
RC: Well, historically, a lot of the focus was on (2) to teach animals – mostly
chimpanzees – language. There were some famous studies in the 1970s…
I: Can you tell us about one?
RC: Sure. One of the most famous studies was with a chimp named Washoe. (3)
had difficulty making sounds, so researchers taught Washoe sign language.
I: By (4) you mean the language that deaf people use…using their hands to
speak?
RC: Yes, that’s right. In the end, Washoe learned more than 130 words in sign language.
I: 130 words! That’s (5) .
RC: Yes, it surprised a lot of people. More recently there’s been work with other animals and
language…even birds… There is an African (6) named Alex who has learned
to name 40 different objects.
I: 40 objects? That seems like a lot for a bird. Is all the research focused on (7) ?
RC: It started that way, but I think nowadays researchers are looking at different ways
animals might demonstrate intelligence…
I: For example?
RC: Well, people who work with animals a lot, such as zookeepers and veterinarians, always
have stories about clever animals…animals that seem to apply some kind of thinking
skills (8) from captivity or get more food or something…these kinds of things
demonstrate a different kind of intelligence.
I: And there are always so many personal stories from (9) too…stories about
dogs or cats saving their owner’s lives…rescuing someone from a fire or something.
When I was a child, my grandmother had a cat that found its way home from 20 miles
away. These (10) of things must also suggest intelligence.
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RC: Yes, that’s right. And researchers are now looking at these kinds of personal stories, too.
I: Well, there seems to be a lot of research for scientists studying animal intelligence…
RC: Yes. It’s all very exciting.
1. A. animal intelligence B. animal independence C. animal extinction D. animal civilization
2. A. finding B. arriving C. trying D. deciding
3. A. The chimp B. The team C. The cat D. The fish
4. A. find language B. nice language C. five languages D. sign language
5. A. exciting B. amazing C. confiding D. challenging
6. A. gray carrot B. great pilot C. great carrot D. gray parrot
7. A. language learning B. message sending C. luggage carrying D. garbage burning
8. A. to expect B. to kidnap C. to escape D. to reflect
9. A. cat owners B. pet owners C. rat owners D. bird owners
10. A. nine B. five C. kinds D. prizes
TEXT 10: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each question.
1. Who are Alicia and Ryan?
A. They are callers. B. They are audience. C. They are consultants. D. They are viewers.
2. Who is the first caller?
A. Cassie B. Larry C. Ryan D. Mitch
3. What is the first question about?
A. Personal e-mail at work B. Personal computer at home
C. Personal computer at work D. Personal problem with the boss
4. The first problem is that .
A. one friend doesn’t have enough work to do
B. bosses don’t allow sending e-mail at work
C. no friends send e-mail at work
D. one friend keeps sending e-mail at work
5. Where does Cassie work?
A. In a big office B. In a big shop C. In a big store D. In a big hotel
6. What makes Cassie uncomfortable?
A. The atmosphere at work B. The gossip at work
C. The relationship at work D. Her job
7. What does Alicia advise Cassie to do to solve the problem?
A. To keep quiet B. To stay out of it
C. To leave the office D. To try to do something about the problem
8. Why is Mitch frustrated?
A. Because of his own son B. Because of his owner’s son
C. Because of his friend’s son D. Because of his job
9. What does Alicia advise Mitch to do?
A. To do what he wants B. To leave his job
C. To look for another job D. To face it
10. What does Ryan think about Alicia’s idea?
A. He agrees with her. B. He asks Mitch to leave his job.

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C. He thinks the boss is right. D. He doesn’t agree with her.

TEXT 11:
Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The speaker is the daughter of Deborah and Joseph.
2. Deborah was studying art history.
3. Deborah went to the restaurant to meet someone.
4. Joseph sat at her table because the restaurant was crowded.
5. Joseph and Deborah liked each other immediately.
6. Deborah gave Joseph a piece of paper.
Listen again and fill the missing words in the blanks.
In 1947, my mother, Deborah, was a twenty-one-year-old student at New York
University, studying English (1) . My father, Joseph was an (2) teacher.
On Saturdays, he often painted all day and then went out for a meal. One Saturday, he chose
a (3) restaurant called the Milky Way.
The Milky Way happened to be my mother’s (4) restaurant, and that
Saturday, she went there for dinner, carrying a used copy of Charles Dickens’s Great
Expectations. The restaurant was crowded, and she was given the last table. Reading her
book, she quickly lost (5) with what was going on around her. When the waitress
came over and asked her if she would mind sharing her table with someone, she agreed (6)
even looking up from her book.
“A (7) life for poor, dear Pip,” my father said when he saw the tattered cover
of Great Expectations. My mother looked up at him, and to this day she says she saw
something (8) in his eyes.
Whatever it was that my parents saw, heard, or felt that night, they both understood
that something (9) had happened. They talked for hours. Later, my mother wrote
her telephone number on the inside of Great Expectations and gave the book to my father.
He said goodbye, and they went off in (10) directions. That night, neither of them
was able to sleep.
TEXT 12: Listen and fill the missing words in the blanks.
Good morning, and welcome to our show. Have you ever wanted to be a (1) ,
out riding the (2) ? Or a seaman, on the high seas in search of (3) ? Well,
you may want to think again. In a (4) public report by New View magazine, the
exciting (5) of cowboy and seaman were ranked least (6) – that is, in
the bottom ten out of 250 occupations. Why is this? Well, they may be (7) , but
they’re also hard work, low-paying, (8) dangerous, and stressful. Other (9)
jobs are: dancer, taxi driver, fisherman, construction worker, and (10) .
But wait a minute. Aren’t there still people who like these jobs? We wanted to find out, so we
talked to some people who know.
TEXT 13: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each question.
1. What was the weather like in the United States this past year?
A. It was a typical year for weather. B. It was a terrible year for weather.
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C. It was a wonderful year for weather. D. It was a beautiful year for weather.
2. Temperatures around the Great Lakes in January are .
A. high B. low C. hot D. cold
3. Why were airports closed?
A. Because of rain B. Because of storm
C. Because of snow D. Because of smoke
4. What was the weather like in March?
A. Cold B. Cool C. Wet D. Hot
5. What happened through the summer?
A. Flood B. Drought C. Snow D. Storm
6. What happened in Mississippi Valley?
A. Storms B. Thunders C. Thunderstorms D. Dust-storms
7. What happened in several states?
A. Tornados B. Droughts C. Wildfires D. Earthquakes
8. When was the Gulf Coast pounded by hurricanes and tropical storms?
A. In November B. In September C. In October D. In December
9. How fast did the wind move?
A. 45 miles per hour B. 35 miles per hour
C. 135 miles per hour D. 145 miles per hour
10. How many people were evacuated from their house?
A. 5,000,000 B. 5,000 C. 50,000 D. 9,000
TEXT 14: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each question.
1. Who was Wilma Rudolph in the 50s?
A. A great runner B. A great hunter
C. A great founder D. A great drummer
2. What happened to her when she was very young?
A. She had polio and couldn’t work. B. She had polio and couldn’t talk.
C. She had polio and couldn’t walk. D. She had a cold and couldn’t walk.
3. What is untrue about Wilma Rudolph?
A. She could walk again.
B. She worked very hard.
C. She won three gold medals in the Olympics.
D. She would never be able to walk again.
4. How was Nancy Drew?
A. She was only dependent.
B. She was really clever and independent.
C. She was so determined.
D. She was mysterious.
5. Why did the speaker use to dream about being Nancy Drew?
A. Because of the car B. Because of her mystery
C. Because of her books D. Because she was a detective.
6. Who does the speaker admire?
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A. Those who risk their lives to sell people.

B. Those who risk their lives to save people.
C. Those who fix their time to save people.
D. Those who read about lives to tell people.
7. Who rescues people on the coast?
A. Volunteer doctors B. Volunteer scuba-divers
C. Volunteer coastguards D. Volunteer policemen
8. Who or what does the speaker talk about?
A. His cat B. His pet C. His mom D. His dad
9. How old is the man?
A. Fifty B. Sixty-three C. Sixty D. Thirty-three
10. How many kids did he bring up?
A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Three
TEXT 15: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
G = Guide, T.1 = Tourist 1, T.2 = Tourist 2
G: Right behind me is the Brooklyn Bridge. This is often called New York City's most beautiful
bridge. It was completed (1) and it took fifteen years and cost 15
million dollars to build. When it was built, it was the world's longest suspension bridge.
These two towers were just about the (2) structures in the city at that time.
T.1: Who designed the bridge?
G: The bridge was designed by John Roebling, but he died after (3) early in the
project. It was his son Washington Roebling who actually managed and completed the
project. It was a huge project and quite dangerous.
T.2: Why? Did people fall from the bridge?
G: Actually, the main danger was decompression sickness.
T.2: Decompression sickness? What's that?
G: Decompression sickness is (4) when you come back up too quickly from
being deep underwater. The two towers had to be (5) into the mud at the
bottom of the river, so workers had to work down there. They were lowered into the
water in large wooden boxes. Coming back up, they got air bubbles in their (6)
. Several of the workers died or became ill from that.
T.2: Wow!
G: Washington Roebling himself (7) in the middle of the project and he
couldn't continue. He had to stay in bed, so he directed the rest of the project from his
bedroom window, using (8) . He dictated his orders to his wife, and she told
the workers what to do. Some people say she was really the one who built the bridge
in the end.
T.1: That's an incredible story. Was this the first bridge across the river?
G: It was the first bridge to go across the (9) , so it was very important, and a
lot of people used it. It cost a penny per person - one cent - to walk across the bridge,
and ten cents to drive a one-horse wagon across. (10) for a horse or a cow.
So don't go bringing any horses or cows across the bridge now. It might get expensive!
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1. A. in 1983 B. in 1893 C. in 1883 D. in 1993

2. A. smallest B. tallest C. shortest D. longest
3. A. a sickness B. an earthquake C. an accident D. a collapse
4. A. happens B. that happens C. why happens D. what happens
5. A. sink B. sunk C. sinking D. sinked
6. A. bloodstream B. heart C. brain D. body
7. A. got fixed B. got struck C. got sacked D. got sick
8. A. a telescope B. a telephone C. a television D. a telegram
9. A. Fast River B. East River C. First River D. Bridge River
10. A. Five tens B. Ten cents C. Five cents D. Five pence
TEXT 16:
Listen and fill the missing words in the blanks.
1: My first car was a (1) Rambler. This was in the 1980s, so the car was twenty
years old then. It was a big, blue and black thing. You changed gears by (2) a
button! There were buttons on the dashboard that you pushed when you wanted to go into
low gear. It was so heavy it got terrible gas (3) – about eight miles to the gallon.
It didn’t have much power so it was pretty slow. It felt like driving a boat. But I thought my
car was wonderful. Now when I look at pictures of myself in it, I realize I looked so tiny
behind the (4) wheel. You could hardly see me!
2: When I was a teenager I went to France and the family that I stayed with had a little
Citroen. That was such a great car. I’m not really a car person but I loved that one. It was
different from anything that I’d ever seen in the States. It was very (5) . It got good
mileage. But mainly I like it because it was so European. It just had so much style. Citroens
were very (6) at the time. All the young people in France drove them.
3: My friend Sharon had a 1970s (7) _ truck for years. It was such a beauty. It was
about 25 years old, bright red, and in fantastic condition. She got it from the original owner
and took really good care of it. It ran really well and it was very (8) . It never broke
down. She didn’t drive it every day and she didn’t drive it (9) in the winter, but
we had a lot of fun going for rides in it. Everybody stopped and looked. Sometimes people
(10) ask if it was for sale but she always said no. In fact, I think she still has it.
TEXT 17:
Listen and fill the missing words in the blanks.
This weekend, Mattress Matters in downtown Princeton is having our Grand opening
sale. This weekend only, we’re selling single, double, queen, and king size (1) .
You’ll find all the top brand names at fantastic (2) . Check out the huge grand
opening sale at Mattress Matters in downtown Princeton, at 408 Pine Avenue. Hurry! The
sale is this weekend only! Mattress Matters. For a good night sleep.
We know you have a lot to do. That’s why the pharmacy at Superprice is open six days
a week from 9:00 A. m. until 6:00 p.m. Stop by the store, or call in your (3) any
time, and drop by to pick it up. While you’re in the store, check out the Superprice savings on

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fresh produce – peaches at 79 cents a pound, delicious (4) tomatoes at 89 cents a

pound, and potatoes at just two dollars a bag. (5) up on pasta: this week at
Superprice all pasta is on sale at 50 percent off. And before you leave, stop by our (6)
to pick up a beautiful bunch of flowers for Mother’s Day. We know you’re busy.
Superprice helps you save time. We have it all in one (7) !
M = Man, A = Announcer, W = Woman
M: Happy birthday darling. I got this for you.
W: Oh! What is it?
M: It’s a garage door opener. I thought you’d like it.
W: Yes...oh yes. Thank you!
A: Do you have trouble buying gifts for the people you love? Are you looking for just right
thing for that special person? We can help. Log on to whattogive.khw and choose from
an incredible selection of gifts at prices you can afford. We have special offers every
month and free delivery for (8) over 50 dollars. So, what are you waiting for?
Log on to whattogive.khw, and find something she really likes.
M: Happy birthday darling. I got this for you.
W: A gold (9) ! Oh, this is beautiful! Oh, what a beautiful present! Oh, thank you!
A: Whattogive.khw. The online shopping (10) for you!
TEXT 18:
Listen and decide if the following sentences are True (T) or False (F).
1. The story happened to the speaker in Italy 20 years ago.
2. The weather was terrible with a lot of rain then.
3. The restaurant belonged to the hotel.
4. The waitress kept the key to the hotel bathroom.
5. The speaker went to the unlocked bathroom alone.
6. The creaking noise came from the bathroom window.
7. The speaker felt terrified because of a big ugly hand reaching him.
8. The speaker had dinner in a hotel restaurant alone.
9. The bathroom is down the stair and the first door on the right.
10. The bathroom was completely black.
Listen again and fill the missing words in the blanks.
This happened about twenty years ago, in Germany, when I was visiting a town in the
south with some friends. It was kind of a (1) town, with a lot of old, gloomy
buildings. I remember it was raining, too. It was (2) weather. We were having
dinner in a hotel restaurant. It was big and dark, and it felt old, though it really wasn’t.
Anyway, I needed to use the bathroom so I asked the waitress where it was. She gave me an
(3) key and said, “It’s through there. Go out into the (4) , down the
stairs, and it’s the first door on the left.”
So, I went off with this huge key, all the way to the back of the restaurant, and found
myself in a gray (5) hallway. The first door on the left was large and heavy. It
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didn’t look like a bathroom door, but I thought, well this must be it... So, I pulled the door
open – I didn’t (6) need the key – and it opened with this creaking noise. I found
myself looking into complete (7) . It was completely black.
So, I thought I’d made a mistake and I turned around to go. And suddenly, out of the (8)
of my eye, I saw this big ugly hand reaching out at me from the darkness. It (9)
me to death. I was terrified. I just ran, all the way back (10) the
restaurant to my friends at the table.
TEXT 19: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
When I had just left high school, I was (1) overseas for a year. But I wasn't
sure that that was what I wanted. I was worried about going so far away, leaving my friends...
you know. So, I was (2) to a friend of my father's about this, and he said, "Travel
while you're young." It's a cliché, I know, but talking to him, I suddenly realized that I was
going to be old one day and that I didn't want to (3) then that I'd had a chance and
not taken it. So, I put off going to college, went overseas, and it (4) to be a fantastic
experience. If he hadn't said that to me, I might never have gone.
My mother always said, "If something's bothering you, go for a walk by yourself." She
used to do this all the time. We just (5) it as normal. Now I realize that she was
doing that to get a chance to be by herself, and to think about things. And now I do (6)
. Whenever I have a problem that I can't work out, I go out for a walk, and it always
helps me feel better!
My (7) had a mirror by the front door, and she always looked at herself in
the mirror before she went out. It became a bit of a joke in the family, because the mirror
was too high for her, and she had to stand on (8) to look in it. But she said,
"Whatever you do, always check a mirror before you go out. You never know when you might
have food stuck between your teeth!"
I was really shy, and I was nervous about going to a party where I didn't know anyone.
And the friend that I was going with said, "Look, just (9) . People aren't really
interested in you. What they really want is to talk about themselves. Just keep on asking
questions. Try to find out about them." I did, and it (10) . And ever since then I’ve
always done that whenever I meet new people, and it keeps the conversation going.
1. A. offered a job B. ordered a job C. looking for job D. applying for job
2. A. telling B. taking C. talking D. speaking
3. A. realize B. recognize C. memorize D. criticize
4. A. came out B. turned down C. changed about D. turned out
5. A. adapted B. expected C. accepted D. collected
6. A. what I did B. what she did C. what he did D. what they did
7. A. great mother B. crazy mother C. lazy mother D. grandmother
8. A. tiptoe B. big toes C. window D. big shoes
9. A. pay attention B. ask questions C. get attraction D. make acquaintance
10. A. worried B. walked C. talked D. worked

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TEXT 20: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
BEST FRIENDS
1. Shona
I have three or four good friends, but I think my best friend is Kristy. We first met when
we were 12. She was a new student at my school, and the teacher asked me to show her (1)
. We soon became friends. We looked pretty funny together. She’s very tall, and
I’m pretty short! Because we grow up together, we know everything about each other. So,
Kristy knows me better than anyone else. I can always talk to her about my problems. She
always listens and then gives me good (2) ! I hope I do the same for her. We are
both married now, and um, we live near each other, but in different towns. We talk on the
phone all the time, (3) now, because we are both having a baby this summer!
2. Dominic
My best friend is named Sammy, um, and he often comes to play at my house after
school. A long time ago, uh, when I was four, we went to Busy Bee (4) together.
Me and Sammy are both six now. I like him ‘cause he’s funny and he plays soccer. I like going
to play at his house, too. He has a big (5) , and a nice dog named King.
3. Michael
I have two very good friends from (6) named Dave and Adam. We stayed in
the same house near school. I don’t know why we became friends. We’re all very different.
Dave was very (7) and always worked hard, and Adam was, well, pretty crazy! He
never remembered his house keys. He climbed in through the window at least once a week.
He loved cooking Indian food and having parties. We had parties all the time in our house.
Now, of course, life is very different. Dave is a writer and lives in France. He sends me
long, funny e-mails every month. Adam is an international (8) . He’s working in
Hong Kong these days. But we still meet once a year with our families. We usually meet at
Dave’s house in France for a week or so.
4. Brianna
My best friend is my (9) , Caleb. He’s 16. Our moms are good friends, and I
call Caleb’s mom Aunt Janine. We grew up together. When we were kids, we always liked the
same games. Now we’re into the same music. On weekends, we usually go on the internet, or
sometimes we go downtown to the music stores to listen to our favorite (10) .
Caleb’s cool. He’s like a brother to me.
TEXT 21: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
ANNE-MARIE BOUCHER VS. LIEN XIAOHONG
Anne-Marie Boucher has a small family hotel with her husband, Pascal, near Quebec
City, Canada. It’s situated on the coast outside the town and near two (1) parks. She
says, “Our hotel has wonderful views of the St. Lawrence River and the Isle of Orleans.”
She has visitors from all over the world. She says, “We speak French and English, and I’m
studying Italian, which is very (2) ! Our guests keep us busy both summer and winter,
so we always have lots to do.” They don’t have much free time. “But I like it that way,” she says.

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“And I love (3) new guests.” In the winter it’s very cold, (4) ten degrees
Celsius. Their guests go skiing or snowmobiling in Mont Sainte-Anne Park.
It’s January now, and she is enjoying her favorite sport, dog-sledding. She has twelve
dogs, and she’s racing them across the snow. She says, “I’m working the dogs very hard right
now. Next year I want to race in a dogsled (5) _ . It’s really exciting.”
Lien Xiaohong is 22. She lives and works in a toy factory in Guangdong province, China.
She lives in a room with 14 other women in the factory (6) , 700 miles from her
family. The factory where she works employs 15,000 workers, nearly all of them women in
their (7) .
She works from 8am to 7pm. She has just an hour for lunch. She says, “I work five and
a (8) day a week, but I usually do overtime in the summer. It’s very tiring. When
I’m not working or studying, I sleep.”
Her monthly salary is about $65, (9) to send a little back home to her family,
and to pay for computer classes and English classes in town. She says, “I don’t have any
money left to buy things for me.”
It’s the evening now, and she is having a computer lesson in a private school. “There
are two skills that are (10) these days,” she says. “English and computers. One
day I want to be my own boss.”
TEXT 22: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
THE THIEF, HIS MOTHER AND $2 BILLION
Stephane Breitweiser, 33, from Alsace, in France, is the greatest (1) thief in
Europe. For over six years, while he was working as a truck driver, he stole 239 paintings
from museums in France, (2) , and (3) . He went into the museums just
as they were closing and hid the paintings under his coat. Nobody looked at him because he
was wearing a security (4) uniform.
Back in his apartment, where he was living with his mother, he filled his bedroom with
(5) works of art. His mother, Mireille, 53, thought all the paintings were (6)
. One day (7) they were having dinner, the police arrived, and they took
Stephane to the police station. Mireille was so angry with her son that she went to his room,
took some paintings from the (8) , and cut them into small (9) . Others
she took and threw into the canal. (10) , she destroyed art worth two billion
dollars. Both mother and son spent many years in prison.
TEXT 23: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
I BOUGHT IT ON EBAY!
Linda
The first time I used eBay I bought a stove! It’s for the kitchen in my new house. I was
amazed, because it was so easy. And it was cheap, too! I bought an (1) stove for
only $200, and I went to get it yesterday. It looks (2) in my new kitchen. I think
eBay’s a brilliant idea. I’m going to buy a (3) next!

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Megan
Oooh! Don’t talk to me about eBay! It’s a real problem for me – I like it too much. (4)
arrive every day, usually with shoes. I just love buying shoes on eBay. Yesterday
a beautiful pair of green (5) arrived. They only cost $5. Can you believe it? My
husband says he gets worried every time he sees the (6) – but you can’t have too
many shoes, can you?
Charlie
I can’t believe it! I’m so (7) ! I bought a car on eBay, and it was a big mistake.
I’ve bought (8) of other things on eBay, and it usually works very well. And I heard
that a car sells every two (9) on eBay, and the sellers are usually very good. So, I
paid $2,000 for an old Volvo, and I went to get it last week. But on the way home the car
broke down. A (10) told me it was worth less half the price I paid. Now I don’t
know what to do. But I’m not going to use eBay again for a while.
TEXT 24: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
Ella
Well, I’d like to be a vet. I have three pets – two rabbits and a (1) named
Princess. I love taking care of them, so I think I’ll be a good vet. I asked my mom if I could
have a (2) , but she said no. When I’m a vet, I want to have two dogs and a horse,
too.
Joe
I can already play the piano, but now I’m learning to play the electric guitar. I love it!
I’d love to be in a rock band. I want to play (3) _ guitar and write all the songs. I’m
thinking of asking my friends if they want to start a band.
Juliet
It’s an important year for me at school this year. I’m taking nine classes. I’m going to
study hard and get really good (4) on all my tests, so I can go to college. But I’m
still going to have fun. I’m seeing my friends tonight!
Hannah
I’d like to go (5) to work next year. I worked in a bank before I had children,
but I don’t want to do that anymore. I hope to go back to college and study to be a (6)
school teacher. I’ve worked part-time at Ella and Joe’s school for a few years now,
and I really enjoy it.
David
I’ve been in the same job for 20 years. I’m an (7) for a big company, and I
visit all company offices regularly. I am thinking of changing the jobs, because I’m tired of
traveling all the time. Actually, I’d like to start my own business.
Edie
Last year I joined a travel club for people my age. It’s (8) ! I really enjoy
meeting new people and seeing new places. I’m looking (9) to going on a world

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cruise with my friend, Margaret. I met her on the last cruise. We’re going to the (10)
. I can’t wait!
TEXT 25: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
Ben
The best thing for me is my dog, Jasper. He’s a black Labrador and he’s great. I got him
when he was a puppy, and I was nine. So, we’ve grown up together. My uncle gave him to me
for my ninth birthday, so he didn’t cost anything. What’s he like? Well, he’s very (1)
. He’s also a bit crazy, and great fun to play with. He’s much more (2)
than I am. I’m always tired after taking him for a walk.
Mary
Ooh, there are lots of things I like that don’t cost anything, I’m sure. Let’s see…sunsets.
That’s one thing I love. My house is on a hill, and in the evening when I look out of my kitchen
window, there’s sometimes a beautiful sunset. It makes washing the (3) much
easier! I also love getting phone calls and cards from my family. I suppose they cost
something, but not to me! But (4) , the best thing of all is my first grandchild. He’s
the most beautiful baby boy I’ve ever seen!
Michael
I work in the city, so the best thing for me is being in the (5) . I don’t care
what the weather is like. Even if it’s rainy and windy, it’s great to be outside. It’s much quieter
than the city, so there’s time to think. Actually, the countryside costs money, because I have
to drive there first! Ok, so the next best thing is going for a walk in the park near my place
after work. It’s a nice park with lots of trees and a small lake. It’s the most (6) way
to end the day.
Laura
Um, well, I think the best thing for me is playing with my (7) _ sister, Abby.
She’s almost 4, so I’m much older than her. I also have a brother, Dominic. He’s 6. But he
doesn’t like the games I like, so he isn’t as much fun to play with. Abby’s always waiting for
me when I come home from school. She thinks I’m the best person in the (8)
world. We usually play hospital or school. I’m the doctor or teacher, of course, because I’m
the biggest.
Kelly
(9) , the best thing for me is being with my boyfriend, Dan. We don’t have to
go out or spend money. I love just going for a walk and chatting with him. He makes me laugh
all the time. He’s the funniest person I know. And the nicest friend. We’ve been together for
nearly a year, and our (10) just gets better and better. I think I’m really lucky.
TEXT 26: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
LEAVING HOME – IAN MITCHELL
My daughter Evie is living in New York now. She went there (1) months ago,
and I’m really worried about her. She says she’s having a great time, but she’s still only (2)

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, and I just think New York’s such a (3) place for a young woman. She
shouldn’t live so far away from home. Her mother went with her to help her look for
somewhere to live. But I didn’t go. I don’t like New York. I don’t like big cities.
Why did she have to go there, anyway? I don’t understand. She says she wants to be a
dancer, and she’s taking some kind of class, a ballet class or (4) . But ballet isn’t a
real job, and you don’t make much money being a dancer, do you? She’s a smart girl. I think
she should go to (5) .
She’s living in an (6) there in New York by herself – she’s on her own, and I
don’t like that at all! (7) , she has a boyfriend. We’ve never met him – Michael, I
think his name is. He doesn’t have a job. But Evie works hard, though. She works on the
weekends as a (8) in a restaurant. I just hope it’s a nice place.
She calls home sometimes, but not a lot, and we call her, but usually her cell phone’s
turned off or she doesn’t answer. When I do (9) to talk to her, she just tells us that
we should get a (10) so she can text us. She says we shouldn’t worry. How can we
not worry? We’re her parents, we miss her, and of course we worry. Sometimes I can’t sleep
at night. She really should come home more often.
TEXT 27: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
LEAVING HOME – EVIE MITCHELL
I want to be a (1) dancer, so I came to New York four months ago to study
at the National Ballet School. If you want a good dance (2) _, you have to go to a
good school and you have to start young. I’m almost 19 – almost too old! I know my parents
are worried about me living in New York, but it isn’t dangerous. You just have to be careful,
that’s all. It was hard in the (3) . I didn’t know anybody, and New York’s such a big
place, but I love it now. There’s lots to do and see.
I’m living in a small apartment near the ballet school with Francine, another dance
student. We’re good friends now. And I also have a (4) ! His name’s Marco and he’s
studying at the same school. He still lives with his parents, (5) close to my
apartment. His parents are really nice, and I spend a lot of time with them. I want to take
Marco home to meet my parents, but the tickets are expensive. And I don’t have much money.
New York’s really expensive, so Francine and I have to work every (6) . We teach
children’s dance classes at a school (7) . It’s a lot of fun, actually!
I call my parents three times a week! My dad always (8) so worried! He
shouldn’t be. I try to tell him not to worry, but he doesn’t (9) . I love my mom and
dad very much, but I can’t live at home for the (10) of my life. They really should
come to New York and visit me. And I think they should get a cell phone. Then I could send
them text messages, and maybe they wouldn’t worry so much.
TEXT 28: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks
Nisa Isaacs
I live with my parents in a (1) outside the city. My parents collect old
newspaper and (2) to sell. They don’t make much money, so we’re (3) .
But I’m going to change all that. I love school. I’m studying very hard, because I’m taking my
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high school exams next year. Them I’m going to get a job in an office in town. But that isn’t
my main (4) . I really want to go to college. So, I’m going to work for a while to
save some money. I’m hoping to be an (5) , then I can build my parents a proper
house.
Victor Lopez
I’m studying for my high school (6) , but I’m not sure what I want to study
(7) . I love doing art at school, so I might go to art school. That would be fun. I
might become a designer. But I also enjoy Spanish language and (8) _ , so I might
study that in school. I’ll have to get good test (9) to do that. I’d also like to try
living in (10) _ country. I have family in the U.S., so I might live there for a while.
Perhaps I could study art and design in New York. That would be great!
TEXT 29: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
AT A CROSSROADS IN LIFE
Andy
I just got some bad news about my job. I’m going to be laid (1) in three
months. It’s such a shock! I’ve worked for the same computer company for twelve years. I
need to think what to do next. Actually, I’ve always dreamed of (2) to Australia.
So, I might try that! I have a friend in Melbourne, and I’m sure he would help me to find a job
there. But if I went to Australia, my parents would be so sad. And they wouldn’t be able to
visit me very much. It’s so expensive. So, I would have to find a really good job, so that I could
come home a lot, or pay for them to visit me. That might not be easy.
Another thing I might do is start my own business, using my (3) pay. What
if I started a computer (4) company? People are always having problems with
their computers. If I did that, I’d have to work really hard in the beginning. It wouldn’t be
easy, but I would enjoy it, I think.
Lucy
I’m so surprised! My boyfriend just asked me to marry him! It was (5) ,
because I couldn’t give him an answer right away. You see. I really love my boyfriend, and I
think I want to marry him sometime, but not yet.
He wants us to get married next June. That’s only nine months away. I think it might be
better to wait. If we got married in June, we’d have to save all our money for the wedding
and a house. But I don’t want to do that. I want us to enjoy (6) while we’re young.
I want to go away and travel. I’d like to learn how to ride a horse and how to (7) .
Oh, there’s a lot of things I want to do. If we waited a little while, we could do all those things.
If I got married now, I might feel trapped. That would be terrible. But what if I told him
I didn’t want to marry him yet? Would he understand? He might not, and I don’t want to lose
him. I do want to marry him. I just want to put the wedding off for a while. That’s all.
Maureen
Well, my husband died three months ago, and I have to decide what to do next. He was
sick for a long time, so it wasn’t a shock. But we were married for 41 years, and I can’t (8)
life without him. I don’t think I want to live in this house anymore. Anyway, it’s so
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big for just one person. So, I might sell it and move to an apartment. I’d feel safer if I lived in
an apartment, because there would be other people around. I think it might be hard living on
my own.
Or my daughter says I can live with her and her family. So, I might do that, but I’m not
sure. I love my daughter and my grandchildren very much. But if I lived with them, I wouldn’t
feel (9) anymore. And I’m still young – I’m only 68! I’m healthy with (10)
of friends. There’s lots I can still do with my life, I’m sure. I just need to keep busy.
TEXT 30: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks
Andy
Well, I am now the (1) owner of a new business called Computer (2)
. It has been difficult, but everything’s going well for now. In fact, my first customer
was a woman named Annabel, and she’s now my girlfriend! And (3) _ where she’s
from – that’s right! – Australia! We’re going there this winter to visit her family.
Lucy
I’m not married, but yes, I’m still with Steve. He was really (4) with me at
first, when I told him I didn’t want to get married yet. But we talked (5) talked
about it, and he finally agreed that we should wait. We’re saving a little money every month
for our (6) wedding. But we are also saving to go on vacation!
Maureen
I still miss Tony every day, but life’s getting a bit easier. I sold the house, and I’ve moved
into a little apartment in a (7) home. It’s not too far from my daughter’s house, so
I see her and my (8) a lot. It’s very nice here, and I’ve made some new friends. I
have a (9) friend here named Jeff. He’s on his own, too, so we do lots of things
(10) .
TEXT 31: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What is the main topic of the conversation?
A. Problems with living in an apartment
B. A search for a new apartment
C. The cost of rent near universities
2. Why doesn't Ann like her current apartment?
A. It's too expensive.
B. The neighborhood is noisy.
C. It's located some distance from school.
3. How much money does Ann want to pay for rent?
A. No more than $200 B. Around $200 C. A little more than $200
4. What kind of place is she looking for?
A. Somewhere that is within a short driving distance of campus
B. An apartment with furniture already in it
C. A place where she can live alone
5. How is Roger going to help her?

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A. He is planning on calling a friend who owns an apartment building.

B. He will check the newspapers to see if he can find an apartment for rent.
C. He is going to visit an apartment building near his place.
TEXT 32: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What is the name of the caller?
A. Nick B. Nate C. Neil
2. According to the girl, her father:
A. is not home. B. is on another line. C. can't come to the telephone.
3. What is the man's telephone number?
A. 598-7482 B. 587-4728 C. 589-7248
4. The man tells the girl:
A. that he will call again sometime after 7:00 PM.
B. to ask her father to call him later.
C. that he will drop by around 8:30 PM.
5. What does the girl refuse to tell the caller?
A. Her age B. Her name C. Her address
TEXT 33: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What time does the man get up?
A. At 5:00 a.m. B. At 6:00 a.m. C. At 7:00 a.m.
2. What time does he get to work?
A. At 7:00 a.m. B. At 8:00 a.m. C. At 9:00 a.m.
3. What does he do with his family around 6:30 p.m.?
A. They read books together.
B. They play games.
C. They eat dinner.
4. What do the man and his wife do after the kids go to bed?
A. They watch TV. B. They clean the house. C. They listen to music.
5. What is one thing the man does NOT say about his wife?
A. She has to take their children to school.
B. She helps the kids with their homework.
C. She goes shopping for food.
TEXT 34: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What kind of movie is the girl going to see on her date?
A. Horror B. Romance C. Science fiction
2. At what theater is the movie playing?
A. Central Palace B. Campus Plaza C. Common Plex
3. How is the girl getting to the movie?
A. She is getting a ride with her brother.
B. Her date is coming to pick her up.
C. She is going by bus and will meet her date there.
4. What time does the movie begin?
A. 7:30 p.m. B. 8:00 p.m. C. 8:30 p.m.
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5. What time does she have to be home?

A. 10:00 p.m. B. 10:30 p.m. C. 11:00 p.m.
TEXT 35: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What does the man plan to wear during the summer months?
A. A cool hat B. Casual shoes C. Light pants
2. What is one thing the man is NOT going to pack for the winter season?
A. A coat B. Some sweaters C. A jacket
3. What is the weather like in the spring?
A. It's windy. B. It's rainy. C. It's cool.
4. What is an example of an occasion where the man might need formal clothes?
A. A party B. A business meeting C. A wedding
5. What did the man wear to his high school graduation?
A. Jeans and tennis shoes
B. A casual shirt and tie
C. A suit and dress shoes
TEXT 36: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What's the matter with Steve?
A. He has a cold. B. He has the flu. C. He has a stomachache.
2. How long has Steve been sick?
A. Since Friday B. Since Saturday C. Since Sunday
3. How often should Steve take the medicine the doctor prescribes?
A. Three times a day with meals
B. Four times a day before meals
C. Three times a day after meals
4. What does Carla suggest he do?
A. Take herbal medicine
B. See another doctor
C. Eat chicken soup
5. What does Steve decide to do?
A. Talk to another friend
B. Listen to Carla's suggestion
C. See the same doctor again
TEXT 37: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. How much does the father owe his son in allowance?
A. Three dollars B. Thirteen dollars C. Thirty dollars
2. Why hasn't the father given his son allowance?
A. Because he didn't remember to do it.
B. Because he doesn't have any money now.
C. Because his son already has money.
3. When does the father usually give his son money?
A. On Friday B. On Saturday C. On Sunday
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4. Where does the man get money to pay his son?

A. In his bedroom B. At the bank C. From the bookstand
5. Choose one thing the boy does NOT mention about how he will spend his money.
A. He will buy some toys.
B. He will save some of it.
C. He will give part to the needy.
TEXT 38: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What is the name of the course?
A. Intercultural Communication
B. Interaction in Communication
C. International Cooperation
2. What time does the class meet?
A. 3:05 PM to 4:15 PM B. 3:15 PM to 4:50 PM C. 3:50 PM to 4:50 PM
3. On average, how often will the class meet in the research lab during the last part of the
course?
A. Twice a month B. Three times a month C. Four times a month
4. If today is Tuesday, when should the textbook be available in the bookstore?
A. Today after class B. On Wednesday C. On Thursday
5. Which item was NOT mentioned as part of determining a student's final grade in the
class?
A. Quizzes B. A research project C. Attendance
TEXT 39: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What news event is being reported?
A. A bomb threat at a hospital
B. A flood at a school
C. A fire at an apartment building
2. When did this event occur?
A. In the morning B. In the early afternoon C. In the evening
3. Who was rescued?
A. A baby B. A boy C. An elderly woman
4. The dog helped rescue this person by .
A. attracting people's attention by barking
B. pulling the person to safety
C. comforting the person until help came
5. What is the current medical condition of the survivor?
A. In critical, but stable condition
B. In serious condition
C. In good condition
TEXT 40: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. This presentation was most likely part of which type of recording?
A. A TV weather program on seasonal changes
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B. An informal discussion between friends

C. An academic speech at school
2. Based on what you heard; how would you characterize the winter season?
A. January receives about 30 inches in snow.
B. Winter temperatures hover below freezing for the 3-month period.
C. Outdoor activities tend to be popular during this season.
3. Which statement is NOT true about the spring?
A. Spring usually begins at the end of March.
B. Plentiful wind currents make some outdoors activities possible.
C. Nighttime temperatures dip below 50 degrees.
4. What is the summer season like in this area?
A. Mild and breezy B. Hot and dry C. Have a fall picnic
5. What is one activity people like to do in the fall?
A. Go and see the fall colors
B. Clean their houses
C. Warm and humid
TEXT 41: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What does Susan have to do on Saturday morning?
A. Walk the dog B. Clean the house C. Go to the doctor
2. Where does Susan have to go at 12:30?
A. To school B. To the dentist C. To the science museum
3. What time is Susan meeting with Julie?
A. At 12:00 p.m. B. At 1:00 p.m. C. At 2:00 p.m.
4. What will Susan do after she cooks dinner?
A. Clean the dishes
B. Play soccer with her brother
C. Call a friend
5. Why can't they watch a video at Susan's house?
A. They can't decide on a video.
B. Susan's mother is going to use it.
C. The TV isn't working.
TEXT 42: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What does the boy want to do at the beginning of the conversation?
A. Go play outside B. Watch TV C. Play video games
2. What is one thing the boy is NOT assigned to do around the house?
A. Clean the garage B. Vacuum the floors C. Wash the walls
3. What does the boy have to do in his bedroom?
A. Put away his books B. Make his bed C. Pick up his dirty clothes
4. What is the father going to do while the boy is doing his household chores?
A. Wash the car B. Paint the house C. Work in the yard
5. Where will the father and son go after the housework is done?
A. To a movie B. Out to eat C. To a ball game
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TEXT 43: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. The man makes a reservation finally for which day?
A. March 20th B. March 21st C. March 22nd
2. What kind of room does the man prefer?
A. A non-smoking room B. A smoking room C. Either one is okay
3. Why doesn't he want to reserve the suite?
A. It doesn't have a nice view.
B. It doesn't come with a sauna bath.
C. It's too expensive.
4. Including tax, how much is the man's room?
A. 80 dollars B. 88 dollars C. 96 dollars
5. How do you spell the man's name?
A. Maxner B. Maexner C. Mexner
TEXT 44: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What is the woman's name?
A. Julie B. Jenny C. Jane
2. Where is the woman from originally?
A. Argentina B. The United States C. Chile
3. About how old was the man when he returned to the United States?
A. 7 years old B. 10 years old C. 17 years old
4. What is the man studying?
A. Physics B. Biology C. Psychology
5. What is the woman's job?
A. A sales representative
B. A computer programmer
C. A receptionist
TEXT 45: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. Where did Doug and Diane first meet?
A. At school B. At a restaurant C. At a party
2. How did he know where she lived?
A. He asked a friend for directions.
B. He followed her home.
C. He looked her up in the phone book.
3. Where does Doug invite her to go with him on Thursday?
A. To a restaurant B. To a theater C. To a dance
4. What is Diane's response to his invitation on Thursday?
A. She can't go out because she has to study.
B. She is sorry, but she has another date.
C. She has to work that day, so she can't go.
5. How does Diane feel about Doug's idea for Friday?
A. She thinks it would be a great idea if she had the time.

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B. She feels that it would be uninteresting outing.

C. She has done the activity before, so she'd rather not go.
TEXT 46: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What is the man's name?
A. His name is Mike. B. He goes by Nick. C. His friends call him Nate.
2. Where is the man from?
A. He's from Brownston.
B. His hometown is Brownsburg.
C. He's originally from Brownsville.
3. How old is the man?
A. He's in his early twenties.
B. He's in his mid-twenties.
C. He's in his late twenties.
4. Where did the man meet Sarah?
A. He met her on a bus.
B. They were introduced at a party.
C. He saw her in a language class.
5. Sarah's older sister is worried that Nick .
A. is a terrible language teacher
B. is going to be a negative influence on her
C. charges too much money for lessons
TEXT 47: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. Gregorio is well known for his ability to work with _.
A. famous athletes B. animals C. world dancers
2. What is one thing that is NOT true about him?
A. He's tall.
B. He's wearing green slacks.
C. He has on a blue jacket.
3. What does Georgina do for a living?
A. She's a popular sports figure.
B. She's famous for her cooking skills.
C. She makes a living selling tennis shoes.
4. Georgina is a woman wearing a yellow dress.
A. large B. heavy C. small
5. What is the other invited guest, Brad Pitt, doing in the conversation?
A. He's sitting in the room.
B. He's standing by a table.
C. He's eating some refreshments.
TEXT 48: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What is the woman's name?
A. Her name is Ruth Ann.

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B. It's Ronda.
C. The woman's name is Rachel.
2. The woman spent most of her life in .
A. California B. Utah C. New York
3. What does the woman do for a living?
A. She is a computer programmer.
B. She works at a school.
C. She has a job at a bank.
4. How often does the woman go to the gym?
A. She goes there three times a week.
B. She works out four times a week.
C. She exercises five times a week.
5. Which statement is NOT true about the conversation?
A. The man is from a city called Salt Lake.
B. The woman gives the man her phone number.
C. The woman knows a lot about history.
TEXT 49: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. Why can't Elaine Strong answer the phone?
A. She's in a meeting.
B. She's out of the office.
C. She's talking with another customer.
2. What does the caller want the secretary to send?
A. Information on after-sales service
B. A picture of the newest computers
C. A list of software products
3. What time should the secretary send the material?
A. 2:30 PM B. 3:30 PM C. 5:00 PM
4. What is the caller's name?
A. Cordell B. Kordel C. Kordell
5. What is the caller's telephone number?
A. 560-1287 B. 560-1828 C. 560-2187
TEXT 50: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
1. What does the man want to do after he graduates?
A. He wants to become a teacher.
B. He hopes to go on to graduate school.
C. He'd like to work at a hotel.
2. What is the woman majoring in?
A. history B. French C. computer science
3. How does the woman pay for college?
A. She has a part-time job.
B. She received a scholarship.

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C. Her parents are paying for it.

4. Where does the man work part-time?
A. at a bakery B. in a library C. at a restaurant
5. What thing did the man NOT say about his job?
A. His co-workers are friendly.
B. He works long hours.
C. The pay is okay.
TEXT 51: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The topic of the lecture is animal habits.
A. True B. False
2. The professor explains the places for animal’s hibernation by listing the different places.
A. True B. False
3. The main idea of the talk is some animals sleep through the winter.
A. True B. False
4. Some animals hibernate in the ground.
A. True B. False
5. When animals are hibernating, they have fast heartbeats and they almost stop breathing.
A. True B. False
TEXT 52: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The main idea of the talk is one reason for long-distance running.
A. True B. False
2. The professor organizes the information in the lecture by describing a process.
A. True B. False
3. Clever traps is the type of hunt that being done by the San people.
A. True B. False
4. The San people are in Asia.
A. True B. False
5. Track and Field events happened long before they became a sport.
A. True B. False
TEXT 53: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The professor mainly discusses about history of Antarctica.
A. True B. False
2. 88 percent of the world’s ice is contained in Antarctica.
A. True B. False
3. The professor emphasize that Antarctica is cold by comparing Antarctica to Australia.
A. True B. False
4. Another name for the South Pole is Antarctica.
A. True B. False
5. Antarctica used to be connected to Australia.
A. True B. False

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

TEXT 54: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The professor mentions the play by Ibsen to present a new type play.
A. True B. False
2. Three types of plays mentioned in the talk are thriller, comedy, tragedy.
A. True B. False
3. Saint Joan is an example of a tragicomedy.
A. True B. False
4. Comedies have humorous characters and happy endings.
A. True B. False
5. “Ghosts” is the play of George Bernard Shaw.
A. True B. False
TEXT 55: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The talk is mainly about rays from the sun.
A. True B. False
2. According to the speaker, the sky is blue because blue rays scatter the least.
A. True B. False
3. The color of light ray scatters the least is blue.
A. True B. False
4. Yellow rays are scattered most; they seem to be all over the sky.
A. True B. False
5. It’s a beautiful blue sky yesterday.
A. True B. False
TEXT 56: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The professor mainly discuss about the importance of getting vitamin D from sunshine as
an aspect of health.
A. True B. False
2. The speaker’s main point is to get enough vitamin D, we need sunshine.
A. True B. False
3. The professor emphasizes her point about getting enough vitamin D by showing what
happens when we’re in the sun.
A. True B. False
4. Without Vitamin D, we may develop strong bones and teeth.
A. True B. False
5. Too much sunshine can cause skin cancer.
A. True B. False
TEXT 57: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The speaker presents major types with examples in the lecture.
A. True B. False
2. The speaker’s main point is that the Pueblos are good weavers.
A. True B. False
3. The Pueblos started weaving with a loom because the loom made weaving faster and
easier.
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A. True B. False
4. In South America, the best weavers are a group of people.
A. True B. False
5. In the second century AD, they began growing cotton.
A. True B. False
TEXT 58: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The speaker’s main point is acupuncture comes from China.
A. True B. False
2. Acupuncture helps people because the needles hurt.
A. True B. False
3. The professor mentions ears to give a general example.
A. True B. False
4. Acupuncture is a way of treating normal people.
A. True B. False
5. There are 787 of spots small metal needles on the human body.
A. True B. False
TEXT 59: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Stephane Breitweiser is the greatest technology thief in Europe.
A. True B. False
2. Stephane Breitweiser stole 239 paintings from museums in France, Austria, and
Denmark.
A. True B. False
3. Stephane Breitweiser went into the museums just as they were closing and hid the
paintings under his raincoat.
A. True B. False
4. The police arrived at his apartment while he and his mother were having dinner.
A. True B. False
5. Mireille cut some paintings from the wall in Stephane’s bedroom into small pieces.
A. True B. False
TEXT 60: Listen to James and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False
(F).
1. James speaks English pretty well.
A. True B. False
2. Before James goes to college, he is going to travel around North America.
A. True B. False
3. He has an old friend from school in Brazil and a pen-pal in Chile.
A. True B. False
4. He doesn’t want to go and see the rainforest.
A. True B. False
5. When he is traveling around, he will call home twice a week.
A. True B. False

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

TEXT 61: Listen to Jessie and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False
(F).
1. Jessie is going to work in a young people’s home as soon as she finishes school.
A. True B. False
2. Her job is to work with nurses and help the people get dressed.
A. True B. False
3. Jessie needn’t to go for walks with people.
A. True B. False
4. The job starts in July and it’s for at least nine months.
A. True B. False
5. She is going to Florida with some friends after the job ends.
A. True B. False
TEXT 62: Listen to psychologist’s view and decide if the following statements are True
(T) or False (F).
1. Human beings are not programed to be afraid of things that can hurt them.
A. True B. False
2. Show a baby a picture of a snake or a big, poisonous spider and the baby will show fear.
A. True B. False
3. We are all afraid of some things and that is not good.
A. True B. False
4. Phobias are usually the result of a good experience.
A. True B. False
5. Phobias are in human beings’ genes.
A. True B. False
TEXT 63: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Charles Babbage was born in 1719.
A. True B. False
2. Charles Babbage had the idea for the first programmable computer.
A. True B. False
3. Charles designed a machine called the Difference Engine, but the British government did
not provided funds.
A. True B. False
4. The machine was never completed because Babbage ran out of money.
A. True B. False
5. In 1991, a team of engineers from the Science Museum in London built one of Babbage’s
machines using his original designs, and it worked perfectly.
A. True B. False
TEXT 64: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Ten workers have been rescued from an accident 400 feet beneath the streets of New York.
A. True B. False
2. The workers had spent the past 26 hours trapped underground.
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A. True B. False
3. The workers had been digging a tunnel for a new subway line when the roof of their tunnel
collapsed.
A. True B. False
4. Sixteen men managed to escape immediately, but two were fatally injured.
A. True B. False
5. Last night the nine men were recovering in the hospital.
A. True B. False
TEXT 65: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Three children who had been missing for two days have been found safe and sound.
A. True B. False
2. The three-ten-year-olds, a boy and two girls, disappeared after school on Wednesday.
A. True B. False
3. Police had released photographs of the two and had been searching nearby houses.
A. True B. False
4. Neighbor spotted three children and alerted the police.
A. True B. False
5. The children had slept outside in a garden and realized the concern they had caused.
A. True B. False
TEXT 66: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Paper has been used for hundreds of things long time ago.
A. True B. False
2. Before paper, people wrote on animal skins, bones, and stones.
A. True B. False
3. Papyrus was similar to paper.
A. True B. False
4. Chinese government official was invented the first real paper in 2700 BC.
A. True B. False
5. The first European paper mill was built in Spain in 1150.
A. True B. False
TEXT 67: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Maria Guzman comes from Mexico City.
A. True B. False
2. Maria Guzman studies chemistry at the National Autonomous University of Mexico.
A. True B. False
3. The course lasts six months.
A. True B. False
4. She lives at home with her grandmother only.
A. True B. False
5. Her grandmother speaks English because she went to an English speaking high school.
A. True B. False
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TEXT 68: Listen to Jim Allen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or
False (F).
1. Jim Allen lives in the central of Toronto.
A. True B. False
2. His wife died ten years ago so now he lives alone.
A. True B. False
3. Until last year, he worked in a paper factory, but now he is retired.
A. True B. False
4. He left school when he was 15 and started work in the factory.
A. True B. False
5. Now he is living in Argentina.
A. True B. False
TEXT 69: Listen to Mark and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False
(F).
1. Mark and his best friend were in their tents reading honor books with their flashlights and
just talking.
A. True B. False
2. Mark and his friend heard a sound of a bear.
A. True B. False
3. Mark and his friend had all their food in the tent.
A. True B. False
4. They were extremely frightened.
A. True B. False
5. They made noises in the tent.
A. True B. False
TEXT 70:
Listen to the man and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. The hometown of Thomas Edison is Milan, Ohio.
A. True B. False
2. Milan, Ohio is known for melons.
A. True B. False
3. The Milan Melon Festival takes place for four days every September.
A. True B. False
4. The festival was started in 1959.
A. True B. False
5. There are 1500 people who live in Milan.
A. True B. False

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

SPEAKING
A. INTRODUCTON
Examiner Candidate
- Good morning/ afternoon. - Good morning/ afternoon.
- How are you? - I’m fine, thank you. And you?
- I’m…… and this is…… We are just
going to listen to your topic.
- What’s your name? - My name’s…… It is spelt that……
- Where do you come from/ Where - I come from……/ I’m from……/ I was born in……
are you from? - I live in…… district……
- Where do you live? - I am a…… I work for…… in……
- Where do you work? -I
- What are your hobbies? like…………………………………………………………………
- What’s your favorite color/ actor/
movie/ food/…?

B. SPEAKING TOPICS
Candidates are supposed to cast lots to choose one topic for their speaking test.
Topic 1: Describe a time when you were ill.
You should say:
 What illness was it?
 What were your symptoms?
 How long did the illness last?
 How did it affect your life at the time?
Topic 2: Describe a famous person that you would like to meet.
You should say:
 Who is he/she?
 Why is he/she famous?
 Why do you want to meet him/her?
 What would you do if you met him/her?
Topic 3: Describe the party that you enjoyed.
You should say:
 What was it about?
 Where was the party held?
 Who were there?
 What did people do during the party?
 What did you enjoy about this party?

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Topic 4: Describe a game or sport you enjoy playing.

You should say:
 What kind of game or sport is it?
 Whom do you play it with?
 Where and when do you usually play it?
 Why do you enjoy playing this game or sport?
Topic 5: Describe someone in your family who you love.
You should say:
 How is this person related to you?
 What does this person look like?
 What is he/she like?
 Why do you love this person?
Topic 6: Describe the house in which you grew up.
You should say:
 Where was the house?
 Who lived there with you?
 What did it look like on the outside and/or inside?
 Did you enjoy living in the house? Why or why not?
Topic 7: Describe an interesting person that you have ever met in your life.
You should say:
 Who was this person?
 Where and when did you meet him/her?
 What were you doing at that time?
 What was he/she doing at that time?
 How interesting was he/she? / How did you feel when you met him/her?
Topic 8: Describe an important traditional festival in your country.
You should say:
 When and where does it happen?
 What do people usually do in that festival?
 What is it special about?
 Why is it more important than other festivals?
Topic 9: Describe the job or career you have or hope to have.
You should say:
 What is the job?
 What does it involve?
 Why do you choose it?
 What should you do to be successful with it?
Topic 10: Describe a movie that you particularly like.
You should say:
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 What is the name of the movie?

 Who stars in the movie?
 What is it about?
 Why do you particularly like it?
Topic 11: Describe a wedding you have been to.
You should say:
 Whose wedding was it?
 Who attended the wedding?
 What did you wear to the wedding?
 What happened during the wedding?
 How did you feel?
Topic 12: Describe an activity you do when you are alone in your free time.
You should say:
 What activity is it?
 Is it easy or difficult to do?
 How do you feel when you do it?
 Are there any benefits of doing it?
Topic 13: Describe your favorite photograph.
You should say:
 What photograph is it?
 When and where was it taken?
 How long have you had it?
 Why do you like it?
Topic 14: Describe a childhood friend of yours.
You should say:
 What is his/her name?
 What did he/she look like?
 What was he/she like?
 Why did you like him/her?
 What did you like to do together?
Topic 15: Describe an occasion you wore formal clothes.
You should say:
 When and where did you wear formal clothes?
 What did you wear exactly?
 How did you feel when you wear formal clothes?
 Would you like to wear it again?
Topic 16: Describe a time you changed your plan.
You should say:
 What plan was it?
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 Why did you change it?

 What did you do to change that plan?
 Did you get any better results with your change?
Topic 17: Describe a film or TV program that made you laugh.
You should say:
 What film or TV program was it?
 What was it about?
 Why did it make you laugh?
 Do you want to watch it again?
Topic 18: Describe a skill that takes a long time to learn.
You should say:
 What is the name of the skill?
 Why is it difficult?
 What should you do to learn better?
 And how does it help you?
Topic 19: Describe a time you helped someone.
You should say:
 Who did you help?
 How did you help them?
 How did you feel when you helped them?
 How did this person benefit from your help?
Topic 20: Describe an embarrassing moment that happened to you or someone you
know.
You should say:
 When did it happen?
 Where did it happen?
 Who was there?
 Why was it embarrassing?
Topic 21: Describe a kind of food you eat in a special occasion.
You should say:
 When do you eat that meal?
 How do you prepare it?
 What ingredients are used to prepare it?
 Why do you enjoy it?
Topic 22: Describe a subject that you used to dislike but now have interest in.
You should say:
 What is it?
 When did you study this subject?
 Why didn’t you like it before?
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 Why do you have an interest in it now?

Topic 23: Describe a person who helps protect the environment.
You should say:
 Who is this person?
 How does this person protect the environment?
 What difficulty has this person faced?
 And how do you feel about this person?
Topic 24: Describe a time when someone didn’t tell the whole truth about something.
You should say:
 When did this happen?
 What was the situation?
 Who were you with?
 Why didn’t the person tell the whole truth?
Topic 25: Describe an occasion when you traveled and your vehicle broke down.
You should say:
 Who were you with?
 What happened to the vehicle?
 How long did it take to get the vehicle repaired?
 And how did you feel after the vehicle was repaired
Topic 26: Describe a famous person who made a big difference in people’s lives.
You should say:
 What is his/her name?
 What did he/she do?
 What do you know about his/her lives?
 How did he/she make a difference?
Topic 27: Describe something special that you brought home from a tourist place.
You should say:
 What was it?
 Where did you bring it from?
 Why did you bring it home?
 How did you feel about it?
Topic 28: Describe a person who encouraged you to achieve a goal.
You should say:
 Who is this person?
 What did this person encourage you to do?
 How did this person help you?
 Why did this encouragement help you to achieve the goal?

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

Topic 29: Describe a newly built public facility (a park, a cinema, etc.) that influences
your city.
You should say:
 Where is the facility?
 When was it built?
 What can people do there?
 What has the facility influenced?
Topic 30: Describe a piece of clothing you like to wear.
You should say:
 What is it?
 What is it like?
 Where did you buy?
 How often do you wear it?
 Why do you enjoy wearing it?
Topic 31: Describe someone you would like to study or work with.
You should say:
 Who is this person?
 How long have you known this person?
 What have you done together?
 Why do you like to study or work with this person?
Topic 32: Describe your ideal house.
You should say:
 where is it?
 what does it look like?
 when would you like to live in?
 why would you like to live in your ideal house?
Topic 33: Describe a park you like visiting.
You should say:
 Where is the park?
 When did you visit the park?
 What is the park like?
 Why do you like visiting it?
Topic 34: Describe a situation when you celebrated an achievement.
You should say:
 What did you celebrate?
 When did you celebrate it?
 Who did you celebrate it with?
 How did you feel about that achievement?

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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

Topic 35: Describe a time when you spent a lot of money on something.
You should say:
 What did you buy?
 When did you buy it?
 Where did you buy it?
 Why did you spend a lot of money to buy it?
Topic 36: Describe a school you went to in your childhood.
You should say:
 Where was it?
 What was it like?
 What did you learn there?
 How did you feel about it?
Topic 37: Describe a good experience of online shopping.
You should say:
 When did it happen?
 What did you buy?
 Why did you buy it?
 Why do you think it was a good experience?
Topic 38: Describe a tourist attraction you went to with your family.
You should say:
 What was the tourist attraction?
 When did you go there?
 How was it?
 Did you like it? Why or why not?
Topic 39: Describe a time you enjoyed your free time.
You should say:
 When was it?
 What did you do?
 How long did the free time last?
 How did you feel about it?
Topic 40: Describe a time you went out with your friends and had a good time.
You should say:
 Where did you go?
 When did you go out?
 What did you do?
 Why did you enjoy that time?
Topic 41: Describe an interesting neighbor.
You should say:
 Who is this person?
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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

 What does he/she look like?

 What is he/she like?
 What does this person like to do?
 Why do you think this neighbor is interesting?
Topic 42: Describe a quiz program or game show on TV you like.
You should say:
 What is it?
 What do people do in the quiz program or the game show?
 Is it popular? Why or why not?
 Why do you like it?
Topic 43: Describe a time that you invited family or friends to have dinner at home
or in a restaurant.
You should say:
 Where did you have it?
 Who organized this meal?
 Why did you have this meal with your family or friends?
 What did you eat and drink?
 Did you enjoy the dinner? Why or why not?
Topic 44: Describe a healthy lifestyle you know.
You should say:
 What is it?
 How do you know it?
 Why is it healthy?
 Do you want to have this healthy lifestyle?
 What would you do to live this healthy lifestyle if any?
Topic 45: Describe a place you plan to travel to that is far away from your home.
You should say:
 Where would it be?
 How would you like to go there?
 What would you do there?
 Why would you like to go there?
Topic 46: Describe the practical skill you learned.
You should say:
 What was the skill?
 Who did you learn it from?
 How did you learn it?
 How was it useful?
Topic 47: Describe a friend’s success that you were proud of.
You should say:
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INFORMATICS – FOREIGN LANGUAGES – SKILLS CENTER

 What did he or she do?

 Why did he or she do it?
 What difficulties did he or she have to overcome?
 Why were you proud of his or her success?
Topic 48: Describe a time you received bad service at a shop or a restaurant.
You should say:
 What were goods or services you bought?
 What bad service did you receive?
 How did you feel about the service?
 Did you complain it? If any, was your problem solved?
Topic 49: Describe an outdoor sport you would like to try for the first time.
You should say:
 What sport is it?
 How do you know it?
 Is it difficult to do?
 Why would you like to try it?
Topic 50: Describe a time when you found something very interesting on social
media.
You should say:
 When was it?
 Where did you see it?
 What did you see?
 Why did you think it was interesting?

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ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH

TƯƠNG ĐƯƠNG CHUẨN CEFR (B1)
HỘI ĐỒNG KIỂM TRA TRÌNH ĐỘ CEFR
Phần kiểm tra: ĐỌC – VIẾT
(B1)
Ngày kiểm tra:
(Đề có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)

Mã đề: B1-001

Họ và tên thí sinh: …………………………………… SBD: …………………… Phòng thi: ………………

READING – WRITING
(60 pts – 90 minutes)

PART I: READING (30 pts)

1. Vocabulary and grammar: (15 pts)
A. Incomplete sentences: Choose the best possible answer A, B, C or D for each sentence below.
(Questions 1-10 (10 pts))
1. Doctors are supposed to responsibility for human life.
A. do B. take C. rush D. join
2. Most children enjoy with their parents and siblings.
A. play B. to play C. playing D. played
3. I there once a long time ago and I back since.
A. went/ have not been B. go/ am not
C. have gone/ was D. was going/ had not been
4. In the last hundred years, travelling much easier and more comfortable.
A. becomes B. has become C. became D. will become
5. He was looking at his parents waiting for recommendations.
A. obey B. obedience C. obedient D. obediently
6. a doctor, you have to meet some certain requirements of the medical college.
A. To become B. Become C. Becoming D. Became
7. I you last night after dinner, but you there. Where you?
A. was calling/ are not/ are B. called/ were not/ were
C. had called/ had not been/ were D. called/ have not been/ are
8. There is no _ for your excuse. How unreasonable!
A. ground B. grounding C. background D. founder
9. The boy forgot the newspaper for his father on his way home.
A. being to buy B. to buy
C. buying D. about buying

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10. There was no food _ when we came to the party.

A. leaving B. be left C. being left D. left

B. Signs: Read the signs and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.
(Questions 11-15 (5 pts))

11. A. Pay attention to the kids when you are playing.

B. You have to slow down your speed and be careful
when you are driving in this area.
C. You are not allowed to drive in this area.
D. Driving is prohibited in this area.
12. A. People will give you a free drive when they see
this sign.
B. Drivers won’t stop when you want to hitchhike
here.
C. You are allowed to hitchhike when you see this sign.
D. Hitch hiking is accepted here.
13. A. It won’t hurt if you are falling down.
B. This area of working is safe.
C. You will be in the danger of falling if you don’t
work at a safe distance and don’t use safety belt.
D. You don’t need to use safety belt when you work
in this site.

14. A. Family tickets save time.

A FAMILY TICKET B. Family tickets save money.
CUTS COST C. Family tickets may be more expensive.
D. Family tickets have gone down in price.
15.
The library .
A. closes later on Saturday
B. is open 5 days a week
C. is not open on Sunday
D. opens on Sunday

2. Reading comprehension: (15 pts)

A. Reading passage: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer
among A, B, C, or D. (Questions 16-20 (5 pts))

It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal.
However, a team of scientists at the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service has

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recently heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn
to them like vultures attracted to a dying animal.

Researchers hypothesized that these sound- actually vibrations produced by the

surface of plants were caused by a severe lack of moisture. They fastened electronic sensors to
the bark of drought-stricken trees and clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the
scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50- 500-kilohertz range. (The
unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz). They experimented on red oak,
maple, white pine, aspen and birch and found that all make slightly different sounds. With
practice, scientists could identify the species of tree by its characteristic sound signature.

The scientists surmise that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside
tubes that run the length of the trees are cracked, a result of too little water following through
them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some insects
communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees’ vibration and attack the
weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived
of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also have a
different smell from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be
responding to something other than sound”, one scientist said.

16. It can be inferred from the passage that, at the time the passage was written, research
concerning the distress signals of trees…
A. had been conducted many years previously
B. was continuing
C. was no longer sponsored by the government
D. had been unproductive up until then
17. It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees…
A. serve as a form of communication among trees
B. fall into the 1-20 kilohertz range plight parched
C. are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
D. cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
18. Which of the following is believed to be a cause of the trees’ distress signals?
A. Attacks by insects B. Lack of water
C. Experiments by scientists D. Torn roots
19. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The effect of insects on trees
B. The vibrations produced by insects
C. The sounds made by trees
D. The mission of the U.S. Forest Service
20. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees
EXCEPT…
A. sounds B. smells
C. thermal changes D. changes in color

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B. Cloze text:
Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase (Questions 21-30 (10 pts))
There is mounting alarm over the growing rate of obesity in America. The common view
(21) that obesity, (22) reached epidemic proportions, poses (23)
threat to public health as other major killers (24) as heart disease and
cancer.
Although there is no (25) that obesity is a problem, it is unreasonable to claim
that we are in the midst of an epidemic. (26) the widespread panic, obesity is really
far from being a major health hazard. In the first places, many cases of obesity are attributable
not (27) to unhealthy eating as they are to genetics. In (28) , as much as
45% of the weight difference (29) a person of normal weight and a person classified
as obese can be put down to the (30) these peoples’ bodies are naturally

programmed to develop by their genes will be unable to lose weight beyond a certain point,
no matter how insistently health experts urge them to stay thin.
21. A. seems likely B. seems it is C. it seems D. seems to be
22. A. being B. that C. to be D. having
23. A. as a serious B. as serious a C. seriously as a D. an as serious
24. A. of which B. including C. such D. like
25. A. evidence B. indication C. denying D. way
26. A. But for B. With all C. Even though D. For all
27. A. at all B. very much C. even D. so much
28. A. contrast B. fact C. the contrary D. view
29. A. between B. behind C. of D. as
30. A. way B. reason C. plan D. point

PART II: WRITING (30 pts)

1. Sentence transformation: (10 pts)
Rewrite the sentences with the same meaning (Questions 31-35 (10 pts))
31. The theatre has two cafes.
 There
32. Many theatres accept credit cards.
 At many theatres, you
33. You can’t smoke in the theatre.
 Smoking is
34. Last month my sister borrowed the novel from me.
 Last month I lent
35. This novel is longer than Joan Brady's other books.
 Joan Brady's other books are

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2. Composition: (20 pts)

Write a composition (150 -200 words) on one of the following topics
Topic 1:
You have recently been to stay with an old friend in his/her hometown for a few days. You
hadn’t seen each other for a long time. Write an email with at least 150 words to the friend
including:
 say how you felt about the visit
 refer to something enjoyable that you did while staying with him/her
 invite your friend to visit you someday
Topic 2:
Today more people are overweight than ever before. What in your opinion are the primary
causes of this? What measures can be taken to overcome this epidemic?

----------------- THE END ----------------

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ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH

TƯƠNG ĐƯƠNG CHUẨN CEFR (B1)
HỘI ĐỒNG KIỂM TRA TRÌNH ĐỘ CEFR
Phần kiểm tra: NGHE
(B1)
Ngày kiểmtra:
(Đề có 02 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 35 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Mã đề: B1-001

Họ và tên thí sinh: …………………………………… SBD: …………………… Phòng thi: ………………

LISTENING
(20 pts – 35 minutes)
PART I: Listen carefully and decide if the following statements are True (T) or
False (F). (10 sentences – 5 pts)
1. The story happened to the speaker in Italy 20 years ago.
2. The weather was terrible with a lot of rain then.
3. The restaurant belonged to the hotel.
4. The waitress kept the key to the hotel bathroom.
5. The speaker went to the unlocked bathroom alone.
6. The creaking noise came from the bathroom window.
7. The speaker felt terrified because of a big ugly hand reaching him
8. The speaker had dinner in a hotel restaurant alone.
9. The bathroom is down the stair and the first door on the right.
10. The bathroom was completely black.
PART II: Listen carefully and choose the best answer (A, B, C) for each question.
(5 sentences – 5 pts)
11. What is the main topic of the conversation?
A. Problems with living in an apartment
B. A search for a new apartment
C. The cost of rent near universities
12. Why doesn't Ann like her current apartment?
A. It's too expensive.
B. The neighborhood is noisy.
C. It's located some distance from school.
13. How much money does Ann want to pay for rent?
A. No more than $200 B. Around $200 C. A little more than $200
14. What kind of place is she looking for?
A. Somewhere that is within a short driving distance of campus
B. An apartment with furniture already in it

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C. A place where she can live alone

15. How is Roger going to help her?
A. He is planning on calling a friend who owns an apartment building.
B. He will check the newspapers to see if he can find an apartment for rent.
C. He is going to visit an apartment building near his place.
PART III: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks.
(10 blanks – 10 pts)
It was years ago... my sister and I took a drive out in the country...we were way out
in the country, miles from anything when we got a flat (16) ....................... we pulled over
and got out of the car...we were young and (17) one of us had any idea how to
fix a flat .. as we were standing there, (18) what to do, a gang of eight or ten men
on motorcycles (19) _ over the hill and stopped right in front of us. we were (20)
to death – we were thinking of all the TV shows and (21) where men
on motorcycles were bad (22) ! The leader of the group got off his bike and
came over, followed by three big, (23) men he didn’t smile or anything, he
just looked at us and said “Give me your keys”...we were (24) , but my sister
handed over the keys. then, we watched as the four men changed our tire for us. When
they finished, the leader gave us back the keys and said, “Now go home,” and they got on
their motorcycles and roared off...ever since then, I have tried not to (25)
people by how they look.

----------------- THE END -----------------

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ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH

TƯƠNG ĐƯƠNG CHUẨN CEFR (B1)

HỘI ĐỒNG KIỂM TRA TRÌNH ĐỘ CEFR Phần kiểm tra: VẤN ĐÁP
(B1) Ngày kiểm tra:
Thời gian làm bài: 10 phút/ thí sinh
(Đề có 02 trang)
Mã đề: B1-001

SPEAKING TEST
 Procedure: Candidates choose a random topic, prepare within 3 minutes and interact
with the examiner within 5-7 minutes.
Topic 1: Describe an interesting person that you have ever met in your life.
You should say:
 Who was this person?
 Where and when did you meet him/her?
 What were you doing at that time?
 What was he/she doing at that time?
 How interesting was he/she? / How did you feel when you met him/her?

Topic 2: Describe a movie that you particularly like.

You should say:
 What is the name of the movie?
 Who stars in the movie?
 What is it about?
 Why do you particularly like it?

Topic 3: Describe an activity you do when you are alone in your free time.
You should say:
 What activity is it?
 Is it easy or difficult to do?
 How do you feel when you do it?
 Are there any benefits of doing it?

Topic 4: Describe the job or career you have or hope to have.

You should say:
 What is the job?
 What does it involve?
 Why do you choose it?
 What should you do to be successful with it?

Topic 5: Describe someone you would like to study or work with.

You should say:
 Who is this person?
 How long have you known this person?

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 What have you done together?

 Why do you like to study or work with this person?

Topic 6: Describe an embarrassing moment that happened to you or someone you

know.
You should say:
 When did it happen?
 Where did it happen?
 Who was there?
 Why was it embarrassing?

----------------- THE END -----------------

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PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI

KỲ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH
TƯƠNG ĐƯƠNG CHUẨN CEFR (B1)
HỘI ĐỒNG KIỂM TRA TRÌNH ĐỘ CEFR (B1)
Phần kiểm tra: ĐỌC – VIẾT
Ngày kiểm tra: ....................................
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Mã đề (nếu có): ....................................
Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………………… SBD: …………………… Phòng thi: ………………

Cán bộ coi thi 1 Cán bộ coi thi 2 Só phách

....................................................................................................................................

Điẻ m (só ) Điẻ m (chữ) Cán bộ chấm thi 1 Cán bộ chấm thi 2 Só phách

Lưu ý: * Đánh dấu chéo (X) trên mẫu tự được Select A

chọn A B C D
Reject A, Select D A B C D
Reject D, Reselect A A B C D

PART I: READING (30 pts)

1. Vocabulary and grammar: (15 pts)
A. Incomplete sentences: Choose the best possible answer A, B, C or D for each sentence
below. (10 pts)

1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D 4 A B C D 5 A B C D
6 A B C D 7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D 10 A B C D
B. Signs: Read the signs and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D (5 pts)
11 A B C D 12 A B C D 13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
2. Reading comprehension: (15 pts)
A. Reading passage: Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer among A,
B, C, or D (5 pts)

16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D 19 A B C D 20 A B C D

B. Cloze text: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase. (10 pts)

21 A B C D 22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D 25 A B C D
26 A B C D 27 A B C D 28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D

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THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO PHẦN NÀY


_____________________________________________________________________________________________________

PART II: WRITING (30 pts)

1. Sentence transformation: Rewrite the sentences with the same meaning. (10 pts)

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

2. Composition: Write a composition (150-200 words) on one of the following topics. (20
pts)

Topic ……:

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...................................................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................................................

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THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO PHẦN NÀY

 .............................................................................................................................................................
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PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI

KỲ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH
TƯƠNG ĐƯƠNG CHUẨN CEFR (B1)
HỘI ĐỒNG KIỂM TRA TRÌNH ĐỘ CEFR (B1)
Phần kiểm tra: NGHE
Ngày kiểm tra: ....................................
Thời gian làm bài: 35 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
Mã đề (nếu có): ....................................
Họ tên thí sinh: ……………………………………… SBD: …………………… Phòng thi: ………………

Cán bộ coi thi 1 Cán bộ coi thi 2 Só phách

....................................................................................................................................

Điẻ m (só ) Điẻ m (chữ) Cán bộ chấm thi 1 Cán bộ chấm thi 2 Só phách

Lưu ý: * Đánh dấu chéo (X) trên mẫu tự được Select A

chọn A B C D
Reject A, Select D A B C D
Reject D, Reselect A A B C D

PART I: Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F). (5
pts)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10. _
PART I: Listen carefully and choose the best answers (A, B, C (or D)) to fill in the
blanks. (5 pts)
11. A B C D 16. A B C D
12. A B C D 17. A B C D
13. A B C D 18. A B C D
14. A B C D 19. A B C D
15. A B C D 20. A B C D

PART III: Listen carefully and fill the missing words in the blanks. (10 pts)
21. _ 22. _ 23. _ 24. _ 25. _
26. _ 27. _ 28. _ 29. _ 30. _

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