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Sbi Po Prelims Model Test-90: English Language

The document is a model test for SBI PO prelims focusing on English language skills. It includes various sections such as sentence completion, error identification, and vocabulary exercises. The test assesses grammatical correctness, contextual understanding, and the ability to rearrange sentences.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
61 views12 pages

Sbi Po Prelims Model Test-90: English Language

The document is a model test for SBI PO prelims focusing on English language skills. It includes various sections such as sentence completion, error identification, and vocabulary exercises. The test assesses grammatical correctness, contextual understanding, and the ability to rearrange sentences.

Uploaded by

durgaraophoto
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

SBI PO PRELIMS MODEL TEST-90


ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1): In the following questions two columns are given containing three

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sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and
in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/phrase
from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase
from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually

1.
correct sentence.
Column I
ha
A. You can choose either a fixed or floating

E
B. In fact, many gourmets consider pheasant
C. Garway’s learning and his frugality was widely admired,
Column II
d
D. and grouse to be the most delectable of all game birds.
E. interest rate for the loan.
F. and he seems to have demanded of the government the same standards.
ee

1) CE and BD 2) CD and BF 3) AF 4) BF and AE 5) AE and BD


Directions(2-3): In the following questions, a word is given along with its usage in
sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the given word
C
is contextually and grammatically correct.
2. Wound
A. The wound healed without leaving a scar.
Sr

B. The string is wound round a cardboard cylinder.


C. The river wound along.
1) Only A 2) Both A and B 3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C 5) All the above
3. Unceremonious
A.They dumped his belongings unceremoniously on the floor.
B.He was bundled out of the room with unceremonious haste.
C
C.They’re both unceremonious about what to do.
1) Both A and B 2) Both C and B 3) Both A and C
4) All A,B and C 5) None of the above
Directions(4-5): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as
(A), (B), (C), (D) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be wrongly spelt.
The corresponding alphabet of that word is the answer. If all the four words are
correctly-spelt, mark (5) i.e. ‘All correct’ as the answer.
4. A passenger plane skidded (A) off a runway at a South Korean airport Sunday,
slamedd (B) into a concrete (C) fence and burst into flames after its front landing
gear apparently failed to deploy (D).
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All Correct
5. India will host the World Audio Visual Enterteinment (A) Summit (WAVES) for
the first time in February(B) next year which will be a global platform for its
creative talents, fostering collaborations (C) and showcasing the country’s potential
as a hub for world-class content creation. Prime Minister Narendra Modi spoke
extensively (D) about the WAVES Summit in his monthly ‘Mann ki Baat’ Radio
address on Sunday.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All Correct
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

Directions(6-7): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as


(A), (B), (C), (D) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be inappropriate
in the context to the sentence. The corresponding alphabet of that word is the
answer. If all the four words are appropriate (5) i.e. ‘All correct’ as the answer.
6. Men also have hair dryers and, if they suffer from baldness (A), they use a growth
stimulator (B), buy hairpieces (C), or have hair transplanted from the hirsute
part of the scalp to the bear (D) areas.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All Correct
7. Harrick said he may hold Dollar (A) out next week if doctors think it will allow his
injured (B) hand ligaments (C) to heel (D) completely.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All Correct

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Direction (8-9): In the given question, five words are printed in bold and are
marked A, B, C, D and E. The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect
and need to be exchanged with another highlighted word to make the sentence
correct. Find the pair of word(s) that need to be exchanged.
8. The price of cotton, known as ‘white gold,’ is declining, causing cultivated (A)
ha
among farmers. Farmers are worried that they will face severe losses and are
cultivation (B) an increase in prices. Due to the international demand for Adilabad
cotton, the area under demanding (C) in the district has been increasing every
year. This year, cotton was concern (D) on 4,20,000 acres. Officials estimate that

E
the district will produce (E) around 42 lakh quintals of cotton.
1) AE and CD 2) BC and AD 3) AB and DE 4) CE and BD 5) AD and CE
d
9. Since October 25 this year, cotton Corporation (A) has begun in the district
through 31 support (B) mills under private and Cotton procurement (C) of India
(CCI) management. CCI is purchasing (D) cotton with 8 per cent to 12 per cent
moisture at a ginning (E) price of Rs 7,521 per quintal.
ee

1) AC and DB 2) AE and CD 3) EB and AC 4) AB and CE 5) BD and CE


Direction(10-11) : In this question a paragraph is given, in which a phrase is
given in bold, the meaning of the phrase may have been given in the options.
C
Determine the meaning of the phrase and mark that as the answer.
10. The unexpected strike threw a spanner in the works, delaying the construction
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project by weeks.
1) To cause disruption or spoil plans.
2) The person who complains the most gets attention or help.
3) To delay or waste time before taking action.
4) To reach a point where something begins to decline in quality or popularity.
5) Don’t assume success or a positive outcome before it happens.
11. His suggestion to cut employee benefits was like putting a cat among the pigeons
at the meeting.
C
1) To introduce something that causes disturbance or controversy.
2) To make a bad situation worse.
3) To try any possible solution, no matter how unlikely, in a desperate situation.
4) To do something extraordinary or remarkable.
5) A big fuss about something unimportant.
Directions (12-16): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer
the given question.
A. Companies on the list are deemed a national security concern, and transfers
of technology to them are restricted.
B. The Commerce Department has traditionally focused on promoting the interests
of American business and increasing U.S. exports abroad. But in recent years, it
has taken on a national security role, working to defend the country by restricting
exports of America’s most powerful computer chips.
C. “I’m truthfully not terribly worried that the Trump administration will undo all
the great work we’ve done,” Gina Raimondo, the commerce secretary, said in an
interview.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

D. “Number one, it’s at its core national security, which I hope we can all agree
on. But two, it is the direction that they were going in.”
E. It was the first Trump administration that took the initial steps toward the
Commerce Department’s evolution, Ms. Raimondo noted, with its decision to put
the Chinese telecommunications company Huawei on the “entity list.”
F. While the Trump administration is likely to remake much of the Biden
administration’s economic policy, with a renewed focus on broad tariffs, it is
unlikely to roll back the Commerce Department’s evolution.
12. Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) F 4) E 5) C
13. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

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1) A 2) D 3) C 4) E 5) F
14. Which of the following will be SIXTH (Last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) F 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) E
15. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) C ha 3) E 4) D 5) B
16. Which of the following will be FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) C 4) D 5) B
Direction (17-18): In the question given below, two statements are provided.
Connect them by choosing the word given in options in the best possible way

17.

E
without changing the intended meaning.
A. The new eco-friendly initiative has significantly reduced plastic waste in the
d
city.
B. Authorities are encouraging other cities to adopt similar measures to combat
pollution.
A. Moreover B. Consequently C. However
ee

1) Both A and B 2) Only A 3) Only B 4) All A, B, and C 5) Both B and C


18. A. The charity manages over 400 historic sites, including a castle that is threatened
by coastal erosion and rising sea levels.
C
B. They are appealing for money to repair the walls and improve defense against
powerful waves and storms.
Sr

A. Therefore B. Hence C. Although


1) Both A and B 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) All A,B and C 5) Both B and C
Direction (19-20): Choose the word that means the same as the given word.
19. Gourmand
1) epicurean 2) stuffer 3) hog 4) overeater 5) sensor
20. Rout
1) calm 2) organization 3) bear 4) disaster 5) begin
Directions (21-25): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
C
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
21. The mill workers have (A)/ warned that they will go on (B)/ strike if their demand
for a rise in (C)/salary has not been accepted by the management.(D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
22. The frustrated employee, unable to contain his emotions any (A)/ longer, blown
out a deep sigh of exasperation, signaling his (B)/growing dissatisfaction with the
company’s unfulfilled promises (C)/and lack of clear direction for career
progression.(D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
23. All deserving candidate who have been enrolled in the (A)/prestigious scholarship
program offered by the management will have the (B)/ remarkable opportunity to
pursue their graduate studies at leading universities (C)/ in Germany, ensuring
a transformative academic and professional experience.(D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error

3
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

24. All the twists and turns in the intricate tales (A)/woven by the master storyteller
left the (B)/ audience captivated, eagerly anticipating (C)/the next revelation
that adds depth and intrigue to the narrative. (D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
25. The stationery store, bustling with customers and its shelves (A)/ filled with an
array of pens, books, and other essentials, was (B)/alive with activity when one
customer, list in hand, carefully examined (C)/the displays before finally
exclaiming, “Those are the pens she asked for!”(D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
Directions (26-28): In each question a sentence is given followed by a blank.
Each blank is followed by three options and you have to determine which option

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can be used in place of blank to make it a meaningful sentence and mark it as
your answer.
26. The team was __________, awaiting the final decision on their project funding.
i. on the tenterhooks
ii. in a state of uncertainty
ha
iii. experiencing complete calm
1) only i 2) both i & ii 3) both ii & iii 4) only iii 5) All are correct
27. The two candidates seemed __________, as they shared similar perspectives on

E
almost every issue raised during the debate.
i. cut from the same cloth
ii. entirely unrelated
d
iii. remarkably alike
1) only i 2) both i & ii 3) only iii 4) both i & iii 5) All are correct
28. When he was accused of negligence, the manager began to __________ instead of
ee

calmly addressing the issue.


i. handle the situation diplomatically
ii. lose his temper
C
iii. fly off the handle
1) only i 2) only iii 3) both ii & iii 4) both i & ii 5) All are correct
Directions(29): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
Sr

sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is


given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
Sometimes things have to fall apart from make way for better things.
1) have been to fall apart to 2) has to fall apart from
3) is to fall apart to 4) have to fall apart to
5) No correction required
Directions(30-34): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
C
been numbered. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately
to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
That was a ___(30)___ near-miss. Trump endured an assassination attempt,
and the ensuing spectacle was nothing short of fantastical. As he emerged,
___(31)___ and defiant, a self-proclaimed martyr rallying Americans to
“fight…fight…fight,” the undercurrent of turmoil in the U.S. political sphere became
irrefutable. Following the attack, responsibility was ___(32)___ placed on the Secret
Service, prompting the resignation of its chief, Kimberly Cheatle. However, the
pivotal question is not about security oversights but rather the significance of his
survival. The fact that Trump has now ___(33)___ from such an ordeal only solidifies
his centrality in American political discourse. His rhetoric will escalate to
unprecedented levels of provocation, further ___(34)___ a deeply divided nation.
30. 1) tormenting 2) traumatic 3) harrowing 4) pleasant 5) calming
31. 1) apathetic 2) buoyant 3) anticipating 4) hoping 5) emboldened
32. 1) just 2) squarely 3) fair 4) centre 5) flagship
33. 1) emerged 2) concluded 3) started 4) appear 5) derive
34. 1) worsening 2) sharpening 3) blunt 4) inflaming 5) tired

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

Directions (35-40): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
If there is one thing that we relentlessly pursue in life— the only thing we
put all our pennies on in this big worldly gamble—it is happiness. The ultimate
goal that we all crave is everlasting bliss. What charades and circuses we play to
attain the state of eternal joy! While this rigmarole governs our everyday thoughts
and actions, another element sneaks in as soon as we reach our dream: Fear—
the fear of losing the happiness that we know is ephemeral. Come to think of it,
much as we covet it, happiness frightens us. It also makes us wary of revealing
our joys, and we often hide good things to avoid getting jinxed. Why do we fear

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happiness? Why do we think every moment of joy comes at a price?
The fear of happiness is a paradox embedded in the human psyche. It’s
almost as if we’ve been conditioned to believe that joy is too fragile to last, that it
carries an expiry date we cannot predict. This belief turns happiness into a double-
edged sword: on one side, it is the elation we strive for; on the other, it is the
dread of its inevitable end. Where does this fear originate? Perhaps it stems from
ha
a deep-seated awareness of life’s impermanence.
We’ve all seen moments of bliss snatched away by unexpected turns of fate.
A child’s innocent laughter may be followed by tears, a promotion at work may

E
bring unforeseen stress, and a long anticipated celebration may be marred by
tragedy. These experiences condition us to approach happiness with caution, to
d
brace ourselves for the fall even as we revel in the peak. This trepidation finds
cultural expressions, too. Superstitions like “knock on wood” or “touch iron” are
more than quaint habits; they are safeguards against the perceived fragility of
ee

joy. Similarly, the kaala teeka or talisman traditions reflect a universal belief
that happiness attracts envy and, by extension, misfortune.
35. What is the primary paradox described in the passage regarding happiness?
1) Happiness is pursued but never truly desired.
C
2) Happiness is fleeting and leads to despair.
3) Happiness is both a source of joy and fear.
Sr

4) Happiness is only attainable through cultural practices.


5) Happiness is immune to the effects of fate.
36. According to the passage, what belief about happiness makes it fragile?
1) It is too complex to understand.
2) It comes at a significant financial cost.
3) It is only accessible to certain people.
4) It is immune to external factors.
C
5) It carries an unpredictable expiry date.
37. Which cultural practice mentioned in the passage is aimed at protecting happiness
from misfortune?
1) Using a kaala teeka or talisman. 2) Celebrating with grandeur.
3) Avoiding moments of joy entirely. 4) Following strict religious rituals.
5) Sharing happiness openly.
38. What does the author suggest might be a source of the fear associated with
happiness?
1) A lack of understanding of true joy. 2) Awareness of life’s impermanence.
3) Failure to achieve one’s goals. 4) Superstitions surrounding fate.
5) The envy of others.
39. Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word
paradox as given in the passage.
1) ambiguity 2) anamoly 3) enigma 4) normality 5) reverse
40. Choose the word which expresses the same meaning of the given word jinxed as
given in the passage.
1) fortunate 2) lucky 3) adverse 4) auspicious 5) proper

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction(41-44): In the question, two equations I and II are given. You have to
solve both the equations to establish the correct relation between x and y and
choose the correct option.
41. I . x2 – 24x + 80 = 0 II. y2 + 13y – 68 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
4) x  y 5) x  y
42. I. x2 – 24x + 135 = 0 II. y2 + 3y – 88 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y or the relationship cannot be established

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4) x  y 5) x  y
43. I. x2 – 15x + 36 = 0 II. y2 + 6y – 16 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
4) x  y 5) x  y
44. I. x2 – 16x + 63 = 0 ha II. y2 + 7y – 120 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
4) x  y 5) x  y
Direction(45-49): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given

E
number series?
45. 43 61 97 151 ? 313
1) 219 2) 231 3) 239 4) 223 5) 227
d
46. 21 23 29 41 ? 91
1) 51 2) 63 3) 65 4) 61 5) 57
47. 17 21 32 57 103 ?
ee

1) 169 2)171 3) 163 4) 185 5) 177


48. 96 94 88 76 56 ?
1) 32 2) 26 3) 30 4) 36 5) 22
C
49. 96 24 12 9 9 ?
1) 115 2) 13.25 3) 10.5 4) 12.75 5) 11.25
Sr

50. A chemist has 20 litres of a solution that has 20% sulphuric acid by volume. He
wants to dilute the solution, sulphuric acid to 5% strength by adding water. How
many litres of water must be added?
1) 45 2)52 3)60 4) 58 5)65
51. Sunil and Ravish, two shopkeepers, buy an article for Rs.800 and rs.1600
x
C
respectively. Ravish marks his article up by x% and offers a discount of %,
2
x
while Sunil also marks his article up by % but does not offer any discount. If
2
both of them earn the same profit, what is the value of x?
1) 60% 2) 45% 3) 72% 4) 50% 5) None of these
52. Train A crosses a pole in 40 seconds and another Train B crosses it in 50 seconds.
1
The length of Train A is of the length of Train B. What is the ratio of the speed
3
of Train A to that of Train B?
1) 5:12 2) 5:3 3) 7:4 4) 13:7 5) 11:5
53. The ratio of the ages of the father and mother was 9: 8 when their son was born.
The ratio of the ages of the father and mother after 6 years will be 10: 9. find the
the sum of ages of father and mother when their son was born?
1) 121 2)136 3)102 4) 109 5) 119

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

54. A shopkeeper purchases an artefact and marks its price up by 20%. He sells the
artefact to a customer at a certain discount, there by making a profit of 5% on the
whole transaction. What is the discount percentage given by the shopkeeper?
1 1
1) 9% 2) 7 % 3) 12 % 4) 13% 5) 10%
2 2
55. A can complete a given task in 20 days, while B is twice as efficient as A. A
started on the work initially, and was joined by B after a few days. If the whole
work was completed in 8 days, after how many days, from the time A started
working, did B join A?
1) 5 days 2) 3 days 3) 7 days 4) 2 days 5) 8 days

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56. The weights of A, B and C are in the ratio of 5:2:3. Find the weight of C if the
difference between A’s and B’s weight is 27kg.
1) 26 kg 2) 24 kg 3) 27 kg 4) 28 kg 5) 29 kg
57. The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the
end of two years was Rs.10. Find the total CI on the sum after 3 years.
1) 331 2)334 3)567 4) 441 5) 250
58.
ha
A invested Rs.20,000 and Rs.25,000 at simple interest with rate of interest as (x
+ 5)% and (x +9)% per annum for a period of (x+2) and (x+5) years in scheme P and
scheme Q respectively. If the interest earned by him on scheme P is one-third of

59.
1) 4 2) 3

E
the interest earned on scheme Q then find the value of x.
3) 5 4) 2 5) 9
Ramu marked up the price of both article A and article B 20% above the cost
d
price. The cost price of article A is double that of article B. At the time of sale
Ramu gave a total discount of Rs.120 on both the articles and earned 10% profit
on total. Find the cost price of article of article A?
ee

1) 200 2) 275 3) 320 4) 400 5) None of these


40
60. A and B can do a piece of work in days while B and C can do the same work in
C
3
120
days. If B and C start working together and both leave the work after 5 days,
Sr

7
then the remaining work can be completed by A in 17 days. Find in how many
days, A, B and C working together can complete the work
1) 10 days 2)12 days 3) 8 days 4) 15 days 5) 5 days
Direction (61-65): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
Three shopkeepers X, Y and Z sold two types of items i.e. item 1 and item 2
C
on Monday and Tuesday.
The number of items sold by X on Monday is 5p% of the number of items sold
by him on Tuesday. On Monday, Y sold 250 items out of which q% were item 2. Y
and Z together sold 305 items of item1 on Monday which is q less than the
number of items of item1 sold by them together on Tuesday. The respective ratio
of the number of items of item1 to the number of items of item 2 sold by Z on
Monday is 2:3. Total number of items sold by X and Y together on Monday is 490.
On Tuesday, Z sold r% more items as compared to that on previous day.
Note:
Value of p and q can be determined from the equations p2-3p-180 = 0 and 2q2-47q
-130 = 0, where p, q > 0 and 4p = r+10
61. The number of items sold by Z on Tuesday is approximately what percent more or
less than the number of items sold by X on the same day?
1) 20% 2) 30% 3) 40% 4) 50% 5) 60%
62. If the sum of the number of items of item 1 sold by X and Y together on Monday is
323, then X sold ___ item 2 on Monday?
1) 3q+2r+5 2) 3q+2p-6 3) 3r+5 4) 3p+2q-22 5)2r+3p+2q

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

63. What is the difference between the number of items of item 2 sold by Y and Z on
Monday?
1) 115 2) 47 3) 84 4) 56 5) 105
64. If the average number of items sold by Y on Monday and the number of items of
item1 sold by Z on Tuesday is 180, then how many item 2 sold by Z on Tuesday?
1) 300 2) 320 3) 340 4) 360 5) 380
65. If the ratio of the number of items of item 1 and item 2 sold by X on Tuesday is 3:5
respectively, then find the number of items of item 2 sold by X on Tuesday and
number of items of item 2 sold by Z on Monday together?
1) 240 2) 290 3) 320 4) 350 5) 380
Direction (66-70): Read the information carefully and answer the given question.

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The table given below shows the number of heavy vehicles (buses + trucks), ratio
of number of buses to number of jeeps, number of cars as percentage of number of
trucks and 50% of the number of light vehicles (cars and jeeps) operating in 5
different cities. Some of the information is given while some are missing (in the
form of variables). You have to find the missing the information and answer the
ha
questions that follow.
Number of
Ratio of 50% of the
Number of cars as

E
buses to number of
City heavy percentage of
number of light
vehicles number of
jeeps vehicles
d
trucks
Chennai 2310 13: 7 128% 900
Patna 1980 9: 7 M% 1050
ee

Ooty 2210 4: 5 (M – 60)% 1190


Agra 110N 9: 11 75% 1330
C
Noida 2160 5: 7 75% 10P

Note:
Sr

(i). Average number of cars in Patna and Chennai together is 510 more than the
difference between the number of buses and cars, operating in Chennai.
(ii). Average number of buses operating in Ooty and Agra together is 1400.
(iii). Ratio of number of buses to average of the number of Cars, jeeps and trucks
operating in Noida is 15: 14.
66. Find the difference between the average number of jeeps operating in Chennai
and Agra together and the average number of cars operating in Ooty and Noida
C
together?
1) 800 2) 900 3) 450 4) 600 5) 750
67. If N% of total number of trucks operating in Chennai, Patna and Ooty together are
tanker trucks, then find the number of tanker trucks operating in Chennai, Patna
and Ooty?
1) 900 2) 300 3) 400 4) 750 5) 600
68. The number of buses operating in Patna is Q% of the number of buses operating
in Noida. Find the value of (P – Q)?
1) 55 2) 20 3) 75 4) 30 5) 60
69. The number of buses operating in Agra and Noida together is Z and the number of
(2Y  Z )
trucks operating in Patna and Agra together is Y, then find the value of =?
2
1) 5520 2) 6540 3) 4560 4) 3960 5) 7650
70. The total number of buses operating in all cities together is what percent more or
less than the number of cars operating in all cities together? (Approximately)
1) 64% 2) 35% 3) 47% 4) 72% 5) 28%

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

REASONING
Direction (71-73): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, &, ~ and % used
with the following meaning as illustrated below.
A@B means A is not greater than B
A#B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B
A&B means A is not smaller than B
A~B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B
A%B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
Note: In each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true,

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find which of the two conclusions I, and II is/are definitely true and give your
answer accordingly.
71. Statements: G # U % T ~ K & M; R @ J % K # W ~ P
Conclusion I: T & P Conclusion II: M @ W
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Only Conclusion I is true
3) Only Conclusion II is true 4) Both Conclusions I and II are true

72.
ha
5) Either Conclusion I or II is true
Statements: E % A ~ D @ L & X; Z & S # L @ H ~ O

E
Conclusion I: Z # A Conclusion II: X @ O
1) Both Conclusions I and II are true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
d
5) Only Conclusion II is true
73. Statements: Q ~ P & V % S @ R; N % V # K ~ G @ B
Conclusion I: R # N Conclusion II: P # B
ee

1) Only Conclusion II is true 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true


3) Either Conclusion I or II is true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
5) Both Conclusions I and II are true
C
Direction (74-77): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions:
Six people viz. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a line facing south with equal
Sr

distance between each other. Each one likes different colours viz. Black, White,
Blue, Green, Pink and Yellow.
Only three people sit between C and B. The one who likes White sits immediate
left of C. Only one person sits between F and the one who likes White. E sits third
to the right of the one who likes Pink. Only one person sits between the one who
likes Pink and the one who likes Green. The one who likes Black sits immediate
C
right of the one who likes Green. A sits immediate left of the one who likes Blue.
Only one person sits between E and A.
74. How many people sit between D and the one who likes Blue?
1) Three 2) None 3) Two 4) One 5) More than three
75. E likes which of the following colour?
1) Blue 2) White 3) Yellow 4) Green 5) Black
76. Which of the following statement is true as per the given arrangement?
1) Only one person sits between D and C. 2) A likes White.
3) B sits second to the left of the one who likes Pink.
4) E sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
5) All the statements are true
77. As many people sit between F and the one who likes Blue as between ____ and
_____.
1) B, The one who likes Yellow 2) A, The one who likes Black
3) E, The one who likes Pink 4) D, The one who likes Green
5) C, The one who likes White

9
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

78. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the
first, the fourth, the sixth and the eight letters of the word “HIBERNATION”
using each letter only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following
will be the second letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word
can be formed give Q as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed
give Y as your answer.
1) E 2) Y 3) N 4) H 5) Q
Direction (79-82): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions:
Six people viz. A, B, C, D, E and F live on six different floors of a six storeyed
building where ground floor is numbered as one, the one above that is numbered

r’s
as two and so on till the topmost floor of the building is numbered as six. Only one
person lives on each floor. Also, each one of them likes different games viz. Cricket,
Football, Archery, Golf, Tennis and boxing. Note: None of the given information
is necessarily in the same order. No two people live immediately according to the
alphabetical order.
ha
C lives on an even numbered floor. Only two people live between C and the
one who likes Golf. F lives immediately above the one who likes Golf. B lives two
floors above the one who likes Boxing. Only one floor is between the one who likes

E
Boxing and the one who likes Tennis. As many people live above E as below the
one who likes Tennis. B does not like Tennis. Only two floors are between the one
d
who likes Football and the one who likes Archery. The one who likes Archery
lives above E.
79. Who amongst the following person likes Football?
ee

1) D 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) F
80. E likes which of the following game as per the given arrangement?
1) Boxing 2) Golf 3) Tennis 4) Football 5) Cricket
C
81. Which of the following statement is true as per the given arrangement?
1) E lives on an odd numbered floor. 2) Only one floor is between C and F.
Sr

3) B likes Archery.
4) D lives immediately below the one who likes Tennis.
5) All the statements are true
82. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) E – Football 2) A – Golf 3) C – Archery
C
4) F – Cricket 5) B – Boxing
Direction (83-86): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions:
Seven people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V were born on the same date of the
same month of the different years i.e., 1974, 1979, 1987, 1992, 1998, 2003 and
2012. The ages of the persons are calculated with the base year of 2023.
S was born in a leap year. Only two people were born between S and U. The
age difference between V and R is 24 years. At least one person was born between
S and P. P is younger than R. Q was born on an odd numbered year. Three people
were born between Q and T. More than two people were born between Q and R.
83. Who amongst the following person was born in 1979?
1) P 2) Q 3) V 4) T 5) R
84. V was born in which of the following year?
1) 2012 2) 1987 3) 1974 4) 1992 5) 1998
85. What is the sum of the ages of R and P (in years)?
1) 75 2) 80 3) 85 4) 74 5) 56

10
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

86. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) 1979 – R 2) 2003 – V 3) 1987 – T 4) 1998 – Q 5) 1992 – P
Direction (87-91): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions:
Seven boxes viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are kept one above the other in a
stack. Each box contains different colour balls viz. Green, White, Pink, Black,
Yellow, Orange and Blue but not necessarily in the same order.
Only three boxes are kept between box O and box P. Box P is kept immediately
below the box which contains Pink balls. Only two boxes are kept between the box

r’s
which contains Blue balls and the box which contains Pink balls. Box N is three
boxes above box Q. Box S contain White balls. The box which contains Orange
balls below box S. Only one box is kept between box R and the box which contains
Green balls. Box M is kept immediately below the box which contains Green balls.
The box which contains Green balls kept below the box which contains Blue balls.
ha
As many boxes are kept above the box which contains Orange balls as below the
box which contains Blue balls. Only one box is kept between box M and the box
which contains Yellow balls. More than two boxes are kept between box N and the

87.

E
box which contains Yellow balls.
Box N contains which of the following colour balls?
d
1) Blue 2) Yellow 3) Black 4) Orange 5) Pink
88. Which of the following box contains Orange balls?
1) Box R 2) Box M 3) Box P 4) Box O 5) Box Q
ee

89. Which of the following statement is true as per the given arrangement?
1) Box M is kept above box S.
2) Box R contains Pink balls.
C
3) Only two boxes are kept between box Q and box S.
4) The box which contains Yellow balls kept immediately above box R.
Sr

5) All the statements are true


90. As many boxes are kept above box S as below _______.
1) Box M 2) The box which contains Orange balls
3) The box which contains Pink balls
4) Box P 5) Box Q
91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
C
not belong to that group?
1) N – White 2) Q – Orange 3) O – Green 4) S – Black 5) M – Pink
92. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “WONDERFUL” each of
which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in English alphabetical order?
1) Three 2) Four 3) One 4) Two 5) More than four
Direction (93-95): Study the given information carefully to answer the question:
In a certain code language,
“search the tasty food” is coded as “pe xs ut mn”
“famous restaurant food likes” is coded as “vh rg qb xs”
“restaurant search people tasty” is coded as “az qb mn ut”
“tasty famous sandwich always” is coded as “ca rg gi mn”.
(Al the codes are two letter codes only)
93. What is the code for “always” in the given code language?
1) az 2) Either ‘rg’ or ‘ca’ 3) mn
4) qb 5) Either ‘gi’ or ‘ca’

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-90

94. In the given code language, what does the code “rg pe” stand for?
1) the restaurant 2) likes famous
3) food the 4) people famous 5) famous the
95. What is the code for “search likes food” in the given code language?
1) vh ut gi 2) xs qb ut 3) az vh ut 4) vh xs ut 5) xs mn vh
Direction (96-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions:
Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table with
equal distance between them. Some of them are facing the centre while some

r’s
are facing outside (i.e. opposite to centre). Each person got different marks viz.
32, 38, 49, 55, 64, 78, and 82.
G sits second to the left of D. D got one of the square numbered marks. D got
17 marks more than C. Only two people sit between G and C. E and G face
opposite directions. The one who got 82 marks sits second to the left of B. A got
ha
less marks than B. B sits immediate to the one who got 38 marks. Both B and A
face same direction. Immediate neighbours of E face same direction. Neither C
nor A sits immediate to D. E faces centre. E sits second to the right of C. Immediate

E
neighbours of D face same direction. The sum of the marks of G and E is 93. B
and D face opposite directions. E got more marks than D.
d
96. Who amongst the following person got 82 marks?
1) A 2) G 3) E 4) F 5) C
97. How many people are facing centre?
ee

1) Four 2) Two 3) Five 4) One 5) Three


98. Which of the following statement is true as per the given arrangement?
C
1) G got less marks than B.
2) Only one person sits between F and A from left of F.
Sr

3) E got 55 marks.
4) C and G face opposite directions.
5) All the statements are true
99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
C
1) E – 78 2) D – 32 3) B – 55 4) G – 49 5) A – 82
100. How many people sit between B and C from right of C as per the given arrangement?
1) Two 2) None 3) Three 4) One 5) More than three

KEY
1.5 2.5 3.1 4.2 5.1 6.4 7.4 8.2 9.3 10.1 SCAN QR FOR
11.1 12.5 13.5 14.3 15.5 16.2 17.3 18.1 19.1 20.4 OUR RESULTS
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12

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