Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

LOGICAL REASONING, DATA ANALYSIS & INTERPRETATION

Direction(Q.No:1-5) : Study the given information carefully and answer the given
question :

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When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words
and them follow a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement
(All the numbers are two digit numbers)
Input : 36 maps pain 42 89 hail lace 23 61 cute
ha
Step I : cute 36 maps pain 42 89 hail lace 61 23
Step II : hail cute maps pain 42 89 lace 61 23 36
Step III : lace hail cute maps pain 89 61 23 36 42

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Step IV : maps lace hail cute pain 89 23 36 42 61
Step V : pain maps lace hail cute 23 36 42 61 89
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of
d
arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the
appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 87 glue 27 jerk bull 68 stay 41 12 fake
ee

1. Which is the fifth element to the left of the ninth element from the left end in the
first step ?
1) 27 2) glue 3) 68 4) 87 5) stay
C
2. How many elements are there between ‘jerk’ and ‘87’ in the last step ?
1) Seven 2) One 3) Three 4) None 5) Five
Sr

3. What is the position of ‘41’ from the right of ‘fake’ in the second step ?
1) Third 2) Seventh 3) Fifth 4) Sixth 5) Second
4. In step 3, Which element/s appears exactly between ‘bull’ and ‘68’ ?
1) Only ‘12’ 2) Both ‘87’ and ‘jerk’ 3) Both ‘fake’ and ‘stay’
4) only ‘bull’ 5) Only ‘stay’
5. Which of the following represent the elements immediately before and immediately
after ‘bull’ in the second last step ?
C
1) fake, 87 2) fake, 12 3) 87, stay 4) glue, 87 5) 87, 12
Direction(Q.no:6-11) : Study the given information carefully and answer the given
question.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular area at equal distances
between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people
are facing the centre while some of the people are facing outside (i.e. in a
direction opposite to the centre).
Note:
• Facing the same direction means if one person faces the centre then the other
person also faces the centre and vice versa.
• Facing the opposite directions means if one person faces the centre then the
other person faces outside and vice versa
• Immediate neighbours face the same direction means if one neighbour faces
the centre then the other neighbour also faces the centre and vice versa.
• Immediate neighbours face the opposite directions means if one neighbour faces
the centre then the other neighbour faces outside and vice versa.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

R sits to the immediate right of S. Both R and S face the same direction. V
sits third to the left of R. Only three people sit between V and T. Q sits to the
immediate left of V. Neither Q nor U is an immediate neighbour of S. Both the
immediate neighbours of Q face opposite directions. U sits second to the right of
Q. Both the immediate neighbours of P face the centre. W sits third to the right of
P. Both U and Q face the same direction as T.
6. Who is sitting to the immediate right of V ?
1) T 2) Q 3) P 4) S 5) W
7. Which of the following is true regarding P as per the given seating arrangement ?
1) P faces the center. 2) Only three people sit between S and P.

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3) Q sits second to left of P. 4) None of the given statements is true.
5) W is one of the immediate neighbours of P
8. What is the position of R with respect to P?
1) Fourth to the right 2) Second to the left 3) Third to the right
4) Immediate right 5) Immediate left
9. Who amongst the following sits exactly between R and the one who sits to the
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immediate right of U(from the right side of R)?
1) S 2) No one 3) Q 4) W 5) P
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating

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arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group ?
d
1) T 2) Q 3) P 4) W 5) S
11. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre ?
1) Five 2) One 3) Four 4) Three 5) Two
ee

Direction(Q.No:12-16) : In this question, relationship between different elements

is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study
the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
C
12. Statements : S < A  M > E ; A  R ; M < Q
Conclusion I : M  R Conclusion II: S < Q
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
Sr

3) Only Conclusion II is true

4) Both Conclusions I and II are true 5) Only Conclusion I is true
13. Statements : Q  U = I < T ; P  U
Conclusion I : P  Q Conclusion II : T > P
1) Either Conclusion I or II is true
2) Both Conclusions I and II are true 3) Only Conclusion II is true
C
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 5) Only Conclusion I is true
14. Statements L > O = C  K ; J < P  K
Conclusion I : O  P Conclusion II: P < L
1) Either Conclusion I or II is true
2) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 3) Only Conclusion I is true
4) Both Conclusions I and II are true 5) Only Conclusion II is true
15. Statements : S < A  M > E ; A  R ; M < Q
Conclusion I : R  S Conclusion II : Q > E
1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Both Conclusions I and II are true
3) Only Conclusion II is true 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
5) Either Conclusion I or II is true
16. Statements : L > O = C  K ; J < P  K
Conclusion I : J  C Conclusion II : L > J
1) Either Conclusion I or II is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
5) Both Conclusions I and II are true

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

Direction (17-19): One statement is given in each question mentioned below,

follwed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the satement
and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in
the statement.
17. Statement:To attend a convocation ceremony scheduled to be held on Thursday
at GM University, Chennai, Mr X left for Chennai on Tuesday by train.
Assumption I: Mr X may reach home on Saturday.
Assumption II: Mr X may reach the University on Wednesday.
1) Both I and II are implicit. 2) Only II is implicit.
3) Only I is implicit.
4) Either I or II is implicit. 5) Neither I nor II is implicit.

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18. Statement:The next meeting of the executive board of a company will be held
after six months.
Assumption I: Existing executive board will be dissolved before six months.
Assumption II: The company will remain in function after six months.
1) Both I and II are implicit. 2) Only II is implicit.
3) Only I is implicit.

19.
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4) Either I or II is implicit. 5) Neither I nor II is implicit.
Statement: ‘The Nation Times’ is the most widely read newspaper across the
metro cities of our country.

metro cities.

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Assumption I: The Nation Times’ is not at all popular in other cities than the

Assumption II: The caricatures and jokes on current issues is the most popular
d
feature of The Nation Times’.
1) Both I and II are implicit. 2) Only II is implicit.
3) Only I is implicit.
ee

4) Either I or II is implicit. 5) Neither I nor II is implicit.

Direction(20-21): Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Gopal starts from Point B which is 5m to the south of Point G. He walks for
C
8m towards east, then takes a right turn and walks for 6m. He then takes a left
turn and stops at point Q after walking for 4m.
Sr

Lalita starts from point S which is 3m to the west of point G. She walks for
7m towards south, takes a left turn and walks for 7m. She then takes a right
turn, walks for 4m and stops at point X.
20. In which direction is Point B with respect to Point S ?
1) South-East 2) North 3) North-West 4) West 5) South-West
21. What is the distance between the final positions of Lalita and Gopal ?
1) 10m 2) 6m 3) 9m 4) 4m 5) 8m
C
22. Given below has a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and
II.You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of
the information given in the statement,decide which of the suggested couses of
action logically follows for pursuing.
Statement: Dr. Gill, the best gynecologist of city X, recently joined ‘Healthfit
hospital’ due to which the number of maternity cases have considerably increased
in the hospital. As a result, the number of beds in maternity ward is less than
needed.
Course of Action I: The other gynecologists of the hospital who are not as famous
as Dr. Gill should be shifted to other hospitals of the same city.
Course of Action II: Dr. Gill should be asked to increase his fees by 30% so that
the number of patients are reduced.
1) Either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
2) Both Course of action I and Course of action II follow.
3) Only Course of action I follows.
4) Only Course of action II follows.
5) Neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

Direction(23-28): Study the following information to answer the given question:

A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are seated in a straight line but not necessarily in
the same order. Some of them are facing South while some of them are facing
north.
NOTE :
Same direction means that if one person is facing the north then the other
also faces the north and vice versa
Opposite direction means that if one person is facing the north then the
other faces the south and vice versa
• Z faces the north. Only three people sit to the left of Z. Both A and D are

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immediate neighbours of Z.
• X sits second to right of D.
• C sits second to the left of W. W faces same direction as D.
• Y is an immediate neighbour of W. Immediate neighbours of Y face opposite
directions
• Persons sitting at extreme ends face opposite directions. Immediate neighbours
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of D face same direction. (i.e. if one person faces north then the other also faces
north and vice versa)
• Both the immediate neighbours of W face same direction as B.
23.

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Which of the following is True about B with respect to the given arrangement ?
1) None of the given options is true
d
2) W is one of the immediate neighbours of B
3) Only one person sits to the left of B
4) Only two people sit between B and C 5) B sits second to right of Z
ee

24. Who amongst the following sits to immediate right of W?

1) Y 2) A 3) X 4) C 5) B
25. How many persons are seated between D and Y?
C
1) More than four 2) Two 3) One 4) Three 5) Four
26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating
arrangement and so form a group. Which one that does not belong to that group ?
Sr

1) C 2) X 3) B 4) Y 5) A
27. What is the position of C with respect to A ?
1) Second to the left 2) Third to the right
3) Second to the right 4) Fifth to the left 5) Fourth to the right
28. Which of the following pair represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of
the line ?
1) Q, R 2) R, S 3) A, Y 4) B, A 5) X, C
C
29. Given below has a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and
II.You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of
the information given in the statement,decide which of the suggested couses of
action logically follows for pursuing.
Statement: ‘Global Girl”; a famous store exclusively for woman apparel, hired
new designers 16 months ago for a contract of minimum 3 years. Though ‘Global
Girl’ is dissatisfied with the repetitive designs, they cannot fire the designers
owing to the contract.
Course of Action I: A renowned designer should be hired by ‘Global Girl’ who can
guide their designers with new designs as per the current trends.
Course of Action II: The salaries of the designers should be considerably reduced and
moreover, they should be issued a letter stating their disappointment with the designers.
1) Either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
2) Both Course of action I and Course of action II follow.
3) Only Course of action I follows. 4) Only Course of action II follows.
5) Neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

Direction(Q.No:30-34) : Study the given information to answer the given question.

Eight people viz. L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S live on different floors of an 8-floor
building but not necessarily in the same order. Ground floor is numbered as 1. First
floor is numbered as 2 and so on until the top-most floor and is numbered as 8.
• N lives on floor no. 5. Only one person lives between N and S.
• Q lives on an even numbered floor. Only two people live between Q and O. O
lives on one of the floors below Q. O does not live on floor no. 3.
• Only three people live between Q and M.
• P lives on one of the floors above S.
• Neither L nor P live immediately above or immediately below N.

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30. Who lives on the floor immediately above P ?
1) M 2) R 3) Q 4) L 5) O
31. Which of the following is true with respect to R as per the given information ?
1) R lives immediately above P 2) R lives on the floor no. 6
3) Only three people live between R and O

32.
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4) None of the given options is true
Who among the following lives on floor no. 2 ?
5) Only three people live above R

1) O 2) L 3) R 4) Q 5) P
33.

34.

E
How many people live between the floors on which Q and S live ?
1) One 2) Three 3) Two 4) None
On which of the following floor numbers does M live ?
5) More than three
d
1) 7 2) 4 3) 1 4) 8 5) 3
Direction (35-40): In these questions three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the three given statements
ee

to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
C
35. Statements: Only a few Cats are Dogs. No Dog is Bat.
Each Rat is Bat.
Sr

Conclusions: I. All Rats can be Cats. II. Some Dogs are not Cats.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow 2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3) Only conclusion II follows 4) Only conclusion I follows
5) Either conclusion I or II follows
36. Statements: No Rose is Green. Few Greens are Leaves.
Only a few Leaves are Trees.
C
Conclusions: I. All Roses can be Leaves. II. Some Leaves are not Roses.
1) Either conclusion I or II follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Both conclusions I and II follow 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Only conclusion I follow
37. Statements: Only a few Pens are Pins. Most Pins are Phones.
Every Phone is Photo.
Conclusions: I. Some Photos are Pens. II. No Photo is Pen.
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Either conclusion I or II follows
3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 4) Only conclusion II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
38. Statements: Only a few Books are Papers.
All Papers are Pads. Some Pads are Pens.
Conclusions: I. Some Books are pens. II. No pen is a Book.
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both Conclusion I and II follow

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

39. Statements: All Apples are Banana. Only a few Bananas are Papaya.
No Papaya is Mango.
Conclusion: I. Some Papayas are not Banana.
II. Some Apples are not Mangoes.
1) Both Conclusion I and II follow 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
3) Only Conclusion I follows 4) Either Conclusion I or II follows
5) Only Conclusion II follows
40. Statements: No Pink is Blue. Only a few Blues are Yellow.
Only a few Yellows are Red.
Conclusions: I. All Red is Blue is a possibility.
II. Some Pink is not Yellow.

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1) Only Conclusion II follows 2) Either Conclusion I or II follows
3) Both Conclusion I and II follow 4) Only Conclusion I follows
5) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Direction (41-45) : Refer to the graph and answer the given question:
Data given are regarding number of girls and boys in five different schools.
ha Girls Boys
350
Number of students (girls/boys)

300

E
d
250
200
ee

150
100
C
50
0
Sr

A B C D E
Schools
41. Out of all the given schools, in which school the difference between the number
of girls and the number of boys was the minimum ?
1) E 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) D
42. What is the respective ratio between the total number of girls in schools A and B
C
together and the total number of boys in the same schools together ?
1) 11 : 16 2) 11 : 24 3) 12 : 25 4) 21 : 40 5) 12 : 23
43. What is the difference between the number of students (both boys and girls) in
school B and that in school D ?
1) 160 2) 180 3) 110 4) 120 5) 150
44. The number of students (both boys and girls) in school E are what percent less
than that in school D?
1) 20.25 2) 12 3) 15.5 4) 16 5) 18.75
45. What is the average number of boys in schools C, D and E ?
1) 270 2) 250 3) 275 4) 300 5) 240
Direction(46-50) : Study the following information carefully to answer the question.
In a medical college there are 1600 students studying Dentistry and
Homeopathy. Each student from each course knows one or more languages out of
English, Hindi and Bangla. 45% of the students study Dentistry and remaining
students study Homeopathy.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

Out of the students studying Dentistry, boys and girls are in the ratio of
5 : 3 respectively.
Out of the boys studying Dentistry. 16% know only English, 10% know only
Hindi and 4% know only Bangla. 24% know only English as well as Hindi, 20%
know only English as well as Bangla. 14% know only Hindi as well as Bangla
Remaining boys know all three languages.
Out of the girls studying Dentistry. 20% know only English. 10% know only
Hindi and 10% know only Bangla. 20% know only English as well as Hindi 20%
know English as well as Bangla. 10% know only Hindi as well as Bangla Remaining
girls know all three languages.

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Out of the students studying Homeopathy boys and girls are in the ratio of
4 : 7 respectively.
Out of the boys studying Homeopathy, 20% know only English, 15% know
only Hindi and 5% know only Bangla. 15% know only English as well as Hindi,
25% know English as well as Bangla, 10% know only Hindi as well as Bangla
ha
Remaining boys know all three languages.
Out of the girls studying Homeopathy, 15% know only English, 15% know
only Hindi and 5% know only Bangla. 20% know only English as well as Hindi,

46.

E
20% know English as well as Bangla, 15% know only Hindi as well as Bangla
Remaining girls know all three languages.
How many students studying Homeopathy, do not know English ?
d
1) 207 2) 228 3) 292 4) 298 5) 232
47. What percent of the total number of girls in the college know Bangla ?
1) 40 2) 42 3) 50 4) 48 5) 45
ee

48. What percent of the total number of girls in the college do not know Hindi ?
(rounded off to nearest integer)
1) 48 2) 36 3) 43 4) 38 5) 46
C
49. How many students studying Dentistry know English and Hindi only ?
1) 166 2) 162 3) 198 4) 248 5) 308
Sr

50. Total how many students in the college know all three languages ?
1) 169 2) 137 3) 132 4) 108 5) 142
Direction (51-55) : Refer the pie chart and answer the given question.
Distribution of total number of pants sold by 6 stores in 2019.
Total Number: 4200
U
C
P
8%
18%

T
24%
Q
14%

S R
16% 20%
51. What is the average number of pants sold by stores Q, R & U ?
1) 472 2) 484 3) 564 4) 588 5) 545

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

52. What is the difference between number of pants sold by store P and that by store T ?
1) 328 2) 292 3) 234 4) 264 5) 252
53. Store S sold only two types of shirts - Formal & Casual. If the number of Formal
pants sold by store S is 312, what is the respective ratio between the number of
Formal and Casual pants sold by store S ?
1) 13 : 15 2) 8 : 19 3) 11 : 7 4) 16 : 21 5) 16 : 23
54. If the average number of pants sold by store R in 2019 and 2020 is 750, number of
pants sold by store R in 2020 is what percent less than the number of pants sold
by the same store in 2019 ?

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2 3 2 1 7
1) 51 2) 21 3) 42 4) 33 5) 18
3 7 3 3 9
55. Number of pants sold by store T increased by 25% from 2019 to 2020 and decreased
by 15% from 2020 to 2021. What was the number of pants sold by store T in 2021 ?
1) 1050 2) 1480
ha 3) 1150 4) 1214
Direction (56-60) : Based on the following table answer the given question :
5) 1071

Universities

E
Total number of
Faculty members
Percentage of
Assistant professors
Number of
associate professors
d
J 250 60 75
K 180 75 24
ee

L 150 80 16
M 100 63 21
C
Note : The Faculty members include Assistant Professors, Associate Professors
and Professors only.
Sr

56. What is the difference between the total number of Associate Professors in
Universities J and M together and the total number of Professors in the same
Universities together ?
1) 68 2) 58 3) 54 4) 55 5) 70
8 3
C
57. In University M, 21 of the Assistant Professors are males and in University L, of
5
the Assistant Professors are males. What is the respective ratio between male
Assistant Professors in University M and that in University L ?
1) 2:5 2) 2:7 3) 1:4 4) 1:3 5) 3:5
58. In University J, 72% faculty members are females. If three-fifth of the total
Assistant Professors are females, what percent females are either Associate
Professors or Professors ?
1) 40 2) 50 3) 60 4) 33.33 5) 25
59. The total number of Professors in Universities J and K together is approximately
what percent less than the number of Assistant Professors in University M ?
1) 35 2) 22 3) 40 4) 27 5) 16
60. What is the average number of Assistant Professors in Universities K, L and M ?
1) 104 2) 106 3) 105 4) 102 5) 108

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (61-71): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
In a significant policy move aimed at bolstering agricultural sustainability,
the Union Cabinet has endorsed the extension of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata
Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) schemes for farmers. This extension
underscores the government’s commitment to reinforcing the economic stability
of the agricultural sector, which is the bedrock of India’s economy. The PM-AASHA
schemes, originally introduced to safeguard farmers’ income, are designed to
ensure fair pricing for their produce and offer a financial cushion against market

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fluctuations. These schemes encompass a range of support measures, including
Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for various crops, price assurance mechanisms,
and procurement support. By extending these schemes, the government aims to
alleviate the financial distress faced by farmers, particularly those in drought-
prone and economically vulnerable regions.
One of the pivotal elements of the extended scheme is the enhancement of
ha
the MSP for key crops. This adjustment is expected to provide farmers with a
more robust safety net, ensuring that their hard-earned produce is rewarded
with fair compensation. The Cabinet’s decision is a strategic move to

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counterbalance the unpredictable nature of agricultural markets, which often
leave farmers at the mercy of volatile prices. Moreover, the extension includes a
d
more comprehensive procurement process that will involve improved logistics and
streamlined operations. This initiative is set to minimize the bureaucratic bolster
(A) that have historically procurement (B) the plagued (C) system, ensuring that
ee

the benefits of MSP reach the farmers without unnecessary delays. The
government has also pledged to hurdles (D) the storage infrastructure, which will
mitigate the risk of crop wastage and enable better price realization for the
C
produce.
The move has been widely lauded as a proactive measure to address the
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plight of farmers, who have often been the unsung heroes of the nation’s food
security. The extension of the PM-AASHA schemes is seen as a substantial step
toward mitigating the longstanding issue of income disparity in agriculture. By
providing a most reliable/A/ safety net, the government is /B/not merely
putting a band-aid on/C/ the problem but addressing its root causes./D/ In
addition to these financial measures, the Cabinet has also approved increased
investment in agricultural research and development. This investment is expected
C
to drive innovation and improve crop yields, further supporting the income security
of farmers. With these measures, the government aims to turn the tide in favor of
those who toil tirelessly to feed the nation.
The extension of the PM-AASHA schemes is a classic example of how policy
can serve as a double-edged sword—providing immediate relief while also laying
the groundwork for long-term sustainability. As the adage goes, “You reap what
you sow,” and with these enhanced measures, the government hopes to sow the
seeds of a more resilient and prosperous agricultural sector. The continued support
for PM-AASHA reflects a broader commitment to ________ that the agricultural
sector remains a vibrant and integral part of India’s economic landscape, capable
of weathering the storms of market unpredictability and climatic challenges.
61. What is the primary objective of extending the PM-AASHA schemes?
1) To reduce agricultural exports
2) To increase import tariffs
3) To eliminate crop wastage
4) To enhance farmers’ income stability 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

62. What does the PM-AASHA scheme include to support farmers?

1) New farming techniques 2) Financial loans
3) Minimum Support Prices (MSP) 4) Crop insurance
5) Export subsidies
63. What additional measure has the Cabinet approved alongside the extension of
PM-AASHA?
1) Reduction of import duties
2) Increase in agricultural research and development investment
3) Introduction of new crop subsidies
4) Expansion of urban farming initiatives 5) None of these
64. What is the significance of improving storage infrastructure as part of the extended

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PM-AASHA schemes?
1) To reduce crop wastage and improve price realization
2) To increase import demands
3) To lower the cost of farm equipment
4) To promote crop diversification 5) To decrease export tariffs
65.
ha
How does the passage describe the extension of the PM-AASHA schemes?
1) As a temporary measure
3) As a proactive and substantial step
2) As a short-term fix
4) As an unnecessary expenditure
5) As a purely financial incentive
66.

E
In the context of the passage, what does the idiom “You reap what you sow”
imply about the government's approach to the PM-AASHA scheme?
d
1) The government expects immediate results without effort.
2) Long-term investments in agriculture will lead to future benefits.
3) Agricultural policies should be ignored for quick fixes.
ee

4) The government will only focus on urban development. 5) None of these

67. Which of the following statements are false according to the passage?
1) The Cabinet’s decision is seen as a proactive approach to mitigating the issue
C
of income disparity in agriculture.
2) The PM-AASHA schemes were initially introduced to ensure fair pricing for
farmers’ produce.
Sr

3) The government has pledged to improve storage infrastructure under the

extended PM-AASHA schemes. 4) Both 2 & 3
5) All the above statements are true
68. In the above passage four words are given in bold as (A), (B), (C), and (D).The given
bolded words are not in the correct positions. Rearrange them to form a meaningful
sentence and choose the option accordingly.
1) BADC 2) ACBD 3) CBAD 4)DCBA 5) DACB
C
69. Pick out the word that from passage which means same as the ‘Resilient’.
1) robust 2) volatile 3) cushion 4) toil 5) alleviate
70. In the passage a sentence given in bold and italic find the error .
1) A 2) B 3)C 4)D 5) No error
71. Choose the best word that fits in the given blank in the passage.
1) assuring 2) ensured 3) assured 4) ensure 5) ensuring
Direction (72-76): Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace
the word/phrase given below in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically
correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required,
mark ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
72. His dedication to educational advancement make him the first monarch to
institute a nationwide curriculum that emphasized both scientific inquiry and
the arts.
1) made him first monarch to 2) make him the first monarch for
3) made him the first monarch to
4) was made him the first monarch to 5) No correction required

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

73. During his travels through Europe, he discovered that his love with Italian art
profoundly shaped his appreciation for the diverse artistic traditions of the
continent.
1) his love with Italic 2) his loving for Italian
3) his love of Italian 4) his love for Italic
5) No correction required
74. The primary agenda has to negotiate contract labor provisions, aiming for mutually
beneficial terms between employers and the workforce.
1) agenda was to negotiate contract labor
2) agenda is negotiate contract labor of
3) agenda was too negotiate contract labor

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4) agenda were to negotiate contract labor for
5) No correction required
75. Rising greenhouse gas emissions have led on worldwide environmental
degradation, driving urgent global action.
1) lead to worldwide 2) leaded to worldwide 3) lead for worldwide

76.
4) led to worldwide
ha 5) No correction required
The actor’s remarkable performance in the film not only won him critical acclaim
but also propelled him to the highest echelons of Hollywood stardom.

E
1) propelled him to the highest echelon
2) propelled him into the highest echelons
3) propelled him towards the highest echelons
d
4) propelled him onto the highest echelons
5) No correction required
Direction (77-79): In the question given below two statements are given. Connect
ee

them by choosing the word given in options in the best possible way without
changing the intended meaning.
77. (A) All sorts of unusual kites were flown.
C
(B) There were a number of stalls and workshops.
1) when 2) in addition 3) where as 4) instead 5) finally
Sr

78. (A) As the man says, the French appear to value their right to drive and park
(B) They want above public safety.
1) Firstly 2) however 3) rather than 4) after 5) which
79. (A) Being great intellectuals, they pretend.
(B) Their yuppie entertainments are as worthy as any art through the ages.
1) which 2) when 3) for 4) until 5) that
Direction (80-82): In this question a word is given in bold and a part of the
C
sentence is suppressed. Determine the suppressed part of the sentence in which
the word given in bold has been appropriately used from the given options to form
a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence and mark your answer
accordingly
80. Discard
All his theories regarding black hole have been
1) moved forward to the Noble committee and his nomination was discarded.
2) discarded by the scientists all over the world.
3) appreciated and greatly discarded.
4) proved to be the best and have been discarded. 5) None of the above
81. Fade
Her worries about her job have
1) faded into the background since she learned about her father’s illness.
2) come true as the testimonials faded away.
3) pushed her to an extreme fading as she lost the grip on her subjects.
4) transformed into reality as she faded into oblivion. 5) None of the above

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

82. Disrupt
If this immigration regulation is deemed to be
1) disruptive to the rest of the EU, controls on free movement could be re-imposed.
2) encouraging to all the immigrants going from India and landing in London
disruptively.
3) innovative and disruptive as it could increase the number of immigrants to EU.
4) imposed it will leave no individual disruptive. 5) None of the above
Directions (83-87): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, do not fit
the blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
83. To teach a controversy requires __________ analysis and the airing of some opinions

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that student activists find insensitive.
1) unbiased 2) impersonal 3) dispassionate 4) impartial 5) interest
84. His father was descended from French-speaking African Americans who lived as
__________ and then freed people in Louisiana’s sugar parishes.
1) liberate 2) enslaved 3) confined 4) imprisoned 5) ensnared
85. _________ media literacy and technology classes into every school’s curriculum
ha
can help us stay safe and happy.
1) Combining 2) Joining 3) Rupture 4) Incorporating5) Assembling
86. Human settlement was still _____________ to the islands of the extreme

1) circumscribe

E
southwestern Pacific, for Asians still lacked the necessary boats and foods to
navigate far offshore.
2) restricted 3) cramped 4) restrained 5) confined
d
87. As the ice sheets of the north retreated, more temperate vegetational zones
____________ north.
1) covered 2) spread 3) extended 4) dispersed 5) direct
ee

Directions (88-90): In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/
C
phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
Sr

sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence.
88. Column I
A. It is shown in Interstellar that with the wormhole that takes Cooper
B. A broad anti-viral drug uses a compound that works against viral enzymes
C. The heart brain can process information and make decisions
C
Column II
D. theoretical research and experimental results
E. the fifth-dimensional space that occurs in the final act.
F. about its control symptoms and block the virus’ replication.
1) C-F 2) A-D and B-F 3) C-D
4) B-D 5) A-E and C-D
89. Column I
A. Open knowledge is knowledge that is free to
B. Open knowledge organisations and activists have proposed principles and
methodologies related
C. Knowledge is interpreted broadly to include data, content,
Column II
D. to the production and distribution of knowledge in an open manner.
E. it is part of the watershed of Chesapeake Bay.
F. use, reuse, and redistribute without legal, social or technological restriction.
1) A-F and B-D 2) B-D 3) A-D
4) C-D 5) B-F and C-E

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

90. Column I
A. The Rivanna River is a 42.1-mile-long tributary of the
B. The Rivanna’s tributaries originate in the Blue Ridge Mountains
C. According to the Geographic Names Information System, the Rivanna has also
been known
Column II
D. and both general and scientific information.
E. James River in central Virginia in the United States.
F. as “Mountain Falls Creek” and “River Anna”.
1) A- E and C-F 2) A-E and B-F 3) C-D

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4) B-D 5) A-F
Direction (91-95): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
ha
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
91. The board members had not been informed about the significant changes in the

E
project’s scope till they were convened for an emergency meeting last week.
1) The board members had not been
2) informed about the significant changes in
d
3) the project’s scope till they were
4) convened for an emergency meeting last week 5) No error
ee

92 . British financiers constructed compact, swift, steam-powered blockade vessels

that exchanged armaments and opulent goods imported from Britain via Bermuda,
Cuba, and the Bahamas.
C
1) British financiers constructed compact, swift,
2) steam-powered blockade vessels that exchanged
Sr

3) armaments and opulent goods imported from Britain

4) via Bermuda, Cuba, and the Bahamas. 5) No error
93. In 1940, presidential contender Wendell Willkie attempted once more to secure
the nomination, but after his defeat in the Wisconsin primary, the absent of
backing from the Republican Party became apparent.
1) In 1940, presidential contender
C
2) Wendell Willkie attempted once more to secure
3) the nomination, but after his defeat in the Wisconsin primary,
4) the absent of backing from the Republican Party became apparent.
5) No error
94. At the convention, the Billy Goat Tavern in Chicago became infamous for displayed
a sign that read “No Republicans Admitted.”
1) At the convention, 2) the Billy Goat Tavern in Chicago became infamous for
3) displayed a sign that read 4) “No Republicans Admitted.” 5) No error
95. The United States operates as a federal constitutional democracy, where the
president, Congress, and judiciary each holds authority delegated to the central
government.
1) The United States operates as
2) a federal constitutional democracy, where
3) the president, Congress, and judiciary each holds authority
4) delegated to the central government. 5) No error

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

Directions (96-100): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and
(E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions given below.
(A) During this journey, and in the subsequent weeks of wandering in Siberia
before rescue, twenty of the ship’s complement died, including De Long.
(B) The premise was that a temperate current flowed northwards into the strait,
providing a gateway to the Open Polar Sea and thus to the pole.
(C) This theory proved illusory; the expedition’s ship and its crew was trapped by
ice and drifted for nearly two years before she was crushed and sunk north of the
Siberian coast.

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(D) The Jeannette expedition of 1879–1881 was an attempt led by George W. De
Long to reach the North Pole by pioneering a route from the Pacific Ocean through
the Bering Strait.
(E) De Long then led his men on a perilous journey by sled, dragging the Jeannette’s
whaleboat and two cutters, eventually switching to these small boats to sail for
ha
the Lena Delta in Siberia.
96. Which of the following will be first sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

1) A 2) B

E
97. Which of the following will be second sentence after rearrangement?
3) C 4) D 5) E
98. Which of the following will be third sentence after rearrangement?
d
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
99. Which of the following will be fourth sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
ee

100. Which of the following will be last sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
C
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (101-105) : What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question ? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
Sr

101. 59.99% of 599 – 25.01  5.99 = ?

1) 270 2) 175 3) 290 4) 150 5) 210
102. 19.98% of 124.99 + 45.01% of 399 = ?
1) 205 2) 315 3) 175 4) 275 5) 145
103. (3449.65 – 1279.96)  7.01 = 449 – ?
1) 110 2) 140 3) 170 4) 190 5) 120
C
104. 1819.99 + ? = 769  4.01
1) 1290 2) 1260 3) 1380 4) 1200 5) 1340
105. 49  5 + 20.99  2 = ?
1) 20 2) 75 3) 30 4) 60 5) 50
Direction (106-110) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option :
106. I. 2x2 + 5x + 3 = 0 II. 3y2 + 7y + 4 = 0
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x  y
4) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) x  y
107. I. x2 + 5x + 6 = 0 II. 5y2 + 8y + 3 = 0
1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x  y
4) Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) x < y
108. I. x2 = 196 II. y2 – y – 56 = 0
1) x  y 2) x  y 3) x > y
4) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) x < y

14
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

109. I. x2 – 10x + 21 = 0 II. y2 – 16y + 63 = 0

1) x  y 2) x  y 3) x < y
4) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) x > y
110. I. x2 – 6x + 8 = 0 II. 3y2 –11y + 10 = 0
1) x  y 2) x < y
3) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established
4) x > y 5) x  y
111. A rectangular plot, 24m long and 16m wide, has two concrete crossroads (of same
width) running in the middle of the plot (one parallel to length and the other
parallel to breadth). The rest of the plot is used for gardening. If the area used for

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gardening is 240 sq m, what is the width of the roads ?
1) 3 m 2) 4 m 3) 4.5 m 4) 3.5 m 5) 2 m
112. The respective ratio between present ages of P and Q is 7 : 4. The respective ratio
between P’s age 2 years hence and Q’s age 6 years ago is 3 : 1. What is the
respective ratio between P’s age 4 years ago and Q’s age 12 years hence ?
1) 8 : 9
ha
2) 6 : 7 3) 5 : 7 4) 2 : 3 5) 4 : 5
113. A jar had a certain quantity (in litre) of water, to which pure milk of thrice the
quantity water was added. 16 litre of the mixture from the jar was taken out and

E
was replaced with 8 litre of pure milk, as result of which water constituted 20%
of the resultant mixture. What was the initial quantity of water in the jar ?
1) 8 litre 2) 10 litre 3) 16 litre 4) 24 litre 5) 12 litre
d
114. Cars M and N started at the same time from place A and place B respectively.
They travelled towards each other with the speed of 34 kmph and 48 kmph
ee

respectively. When these cars met it was found that one of the cars had travelled
119 km more than the other. What is the distance between the two places (A and
B) ? (in km)
C
1) 685 2) 714 3) 615 4) 697 5) 656
115. A and B started a business by investing Rs. 8,000 and Rs. 10,000 respectively.
After 4 months C joined them by investing Rs. 9000. After 2 months of C’s joining
Sr

1
A and B withdrew of their respective investments. If they earned an annual
2
profit of Rs. 31,200, What is B’s share of annual profit ?
1) Rs. 18,000 2) Rs. 16,000 3) Rs. 9,000 4) Rs. 10,000 5) Rs. 12,000
116. Naina purchased 15 kg of rice at Rs. 32 per kg and another 25 kg of rice at a
C
certain rate. She mixed the two varieties and sold the entire quantity at Rs.
34.20 per kg and made 20% overall profit. At what price per kg did she purchase
the another 25 kgs of rice ?
1) Rs. 26.40 2) Rs. 24 3) Rs. 28.20 4) Rs. 28 5) Rs. 27.80
117. A boat takes 15 hours to travel 120 km upstream. The speed of the same boat
upstream is half of that of the same boat downstream. How much time will the
boat take to cover 100 kms downstream ?
1) 7 hours 2) 6 hours 15min 3) 7 hours 30 mins
4) 6 hours 5) 9 hours 30 mins
118. Abhi invested a certain amount (Rs. X) in scheme A (offering simple interest p.a)
@ 12% per annum for four years and Rs. 2X in scheme B (offering compound
interest compounded annually) @ 10% per annum for two years. If the difference
between the interests he earned from both the schemes was Rs. 207, how much
had he invested in scheme A ?
1) Rs. 4500 2) Rs. 3450 3) Rs. 3500 4) Rs. 4125 5) Rs. 3600

15
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

119. A started a business. After 4 months from the start of the business, B and C
joined. The respective ratio between the amounts invested by A, B and C was 6 :
11 : 12. If the C’s share in annual profit was Rs.720 more than A’s share, what
was the total annual profit earned ?
1) Rs.7040 2) Rs.8000 3) Rs.8640 4) Rs.7680 5) Rs.3320
120. The average runs scored by a batsman in thirty-two matches was 60 runs. The
difference between his highest and lowest runs scored was 190. If those two
matches (in which he scored the highest and the lowest runs) are excluded, his
average score will be 56. What was his highest score ?
1) 165 2) 195 3) 205 4) 210 5) 215

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Direction (121-125) : Refer to the pie chart and answer the given question :
Distribution of total number of jackets sold by 6 store in 2022
Total Number : 2500
ha F
A
10%
23%

EE
d
17%
ee

B
D 18%
C
20% C
Sr

12%

121. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of jackets sold by store A
?
1) 82.8° 2) 88.6° 3) 76.2° 4) 84.4° 5) 78.4°
122. The average number of jackets sold by store B in 2022 and 2023 is 430. The
C
average number of jackets sold by store F in 2022 and 2023 is 183. What is the
difference between number of jackets sold by store B and that by store F in 2023
?
1) 294 2) 288 3) 278 4) 526 5) 410
123. What is the total number of jackets sold by stores E and F together ?
1) 575 2) 725 3) 675 4) 650 5) 625
124. Number of jackets sold by store D increased by 30% from 2022 to 2023 and
decreased by 20% from 2023 to 2024. What was the number of jackets sold by
store D in 2024 ?
1) 535 2) 510 3) 520 4) 540 5) 500
125. Store C sold only two types of jackets leather and woolen. If the number of leather
jackets sold by store C is 132, what is the respective ratio between the number of
leather and woolen jackets sold by store C ?
1) 11 : 14 2) 12 : 13 3) 3 : 4 4) 11 : 16 5) 11 : 12

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

Direction (126-130) : Study the following table and answer the given question :

Companies Total employees Number of Non- Out of the total number

(male+female) Gazetted Of Gazetted Employees,
Employees % of female G azetted
(male+female) Employees
A 1200 240 40
B 650 150 64
C 800 125 60
D 1500 250 70

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Note : Total Employees = Total Gazetted Employees + Total Non-Gazetted Employees
126. If in Company A, 128 females are non-gazetted employees, what percent females
are gazetted employees ?
1) 75 2) 65 3) 72 4) 70 5) 62.5
127. The number of gazetted employees (both male and female) in Company A are

2) 91
ha
what percent more than those in Company B ?
1) 93 3) 86 4) 88 5) 92
128. The number of male non-gazetted employees in Company B and those in Company

E
D are equal. If the respective ratio between female non-gazetted employees in
Company B and those in Company D is 9 : 19, what is the number of male non-
d
gazetted employees in Company B ?
1) 30 2) 60 3) 50 4) 40 5) 100
129. What is the difference between the number of male gazetted employees in Company
ee

B and those in Company D ?

1) 198 2) 195 3) 185 4) 205 5) 178
130. What is the average number of female gazetted employees in Company C and
C
those in Company D ?
1) 630 2) 610 3) 650 4) 620 5) 640
Sr

Direction (131-135) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
given number series
131. 0.5 2.3 7.7 23.9 ? 218.3
1) 98.2 2) 103.8 3) 84.4 3) 64.3 5) 72.5
132. 5 3 4 10 38 ?
1) 188 2) 174 3) 162 4) 142 5) 126
133. 322 160 78 36 14 ?
C
1) 7 2) 8 3) 6 4) 4 5) 2
134. 204 201 216 181 ? 145
1) 273 2) 256 3) 238 4) 244 5) 251
135. 4 3 5 14 64 ?
1) 632 2) 276 3) 345 4) 528 5) 482
Direction (136-140) : The question consists of a question and two statements I
and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the
appropriate option.
136. What is the difference between the time taken by the boat to travel 10 km upstream
and the time taken to cover the same distance downstream in the river ?
I. The boat covers 20 km upstream in 2 hours and the speed of the current is 5
km/hr
II. The boat travels 50 km downstream in 2.5 hours and 25 km upstream in the
same amount of time

17
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
3) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
4) The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question
5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

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137. Jack invested Rs. 1000 each in schemes A and B, offering simple interest and
compound interest (compounded annually) respectively. What is the difference
between the amounts (in Rs.) generated from schemes A and B ?
I. Interest obtained (in Rs.) from scheme B is 5% more than the interest obtained
(in Rs.) from scheme A.
ha
II. Time period for the investment is 2 years and rate of interest is 10% per
annum for each of the schemes A and B.
1) The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question

E
2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
d
3) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
4) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
ee

data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

5) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
C
138. Ramesh purchases an article from Mohit for Rs. 1250. What is the profit earned
by Mohit ?
Sr

I. Mohit would have made a profit of 20%, had he sold the article for Rs. 960.
II. Ramesh further sold the article to Jay and earned the profit of 20%
1) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
C
3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question
139. What is the sum (in Rs.) invested by Ram in scheme A, which offers compound
interest (compounded annually) ?
I. Interest received at the end of the two years was Rs. 1050
II. The rate of interest was 10% per annum for a period of 2 years
1) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

18
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

4) The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question
5) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
140. What is the sum of the first 11 terms of an Arithmetic progression ?
I. 4th term of the series is 20 and 7th term of the series is 35.
II. Sum of the first 8 terms of the series is 180.
1) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
2) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to

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answer the question
3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
ha
5) The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question
GENERAL /ECONOMY/BANKING AWARENESS/COMPUTER/IT

E
141. Which institution approved a $200 million loan to enhance solid waste
management and sanitation across 100 Indian cities as part of the Swachh Bharat
Mission 2.0?
d
1) World Bank 2) Asian Development Bank
3) International Monetary Fund 4) European Central Bank
ee

5) National Development Bank

142. In June 2024, the Union Cabinet has approved the proposal of Ministry of Home
Affairs for Central Sector Scheme 'National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement
C
Scheme (NFIES) with a total financial outlay of ________during the period from
2024-25 to 2028-29.
1) Rs. 1354.23 crore 2) Rs. 2254.43 crore
Sr

3) Rs. 858.43 crore 4) Rs. 5256.56 crore 5) Rs. 1754.65 crore

143. Ride-hailing startup Rapido has raised a funding of $120 million Capital in its
latest Series E funding round led by its existing investor WestBridge, thus making
it the latest company to join the coveted unicorn club. Who is the CEO of Rapido?
1) Akriti Chopra 2) Deepinder Goyal
3) Sriharsha Majety 4) Pankaj Chaddah 5) Aravind Sanka
C
144. According to Reserve Bank of India - RBI guidelines, which among the following
loan products is NOT considered as Priority Sector Lending?
1) Crop Loan 2) Loan extended to exporter
3) Education Loan 4) Car Loan 5) Home Loan
145. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by the United Nations
in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure
that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity. Consider the following pairs.
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) Target
I. SDG 3 Good health and well-being
II. SDG 5 Gender equality
III. SDG7 Affordable and clean energ y
IV. SDG16 Peace, justice and strong institutions

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1) Only (I), (II) and (IV) 2) Only (III) and (IV)
3) Only (II) and (III) 4) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) 5) Only (I) and (IV)

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

146. Which company introduced the Firefly Video Model in Premiere Pro, enhancing
video editing with AI-powered features such as text-to-video, image-to-video, and
generative extend.
1) Microsoft 2) Google 3) Adobe 4) Apple 5) Meta
147. Recently, the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India said that RBI has
been reviewing the investment limit for foreign investors in the overnight index
swap (OIS) market. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1) It is a derivative instrument where returns under a fixed rate asset are swapped
against a predetermined published index of a daily overnight reference rate for
an agreed period of time.
2) Purpose: The primary purpose of an OIS is to manage interest rate risk,

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particularly the risk associated with fluctuations in the overnight lending rate.
3) An overnight index swap rate is calculated each day.
4) This interest rate is based on the average interest rate institutions with loans
based on the overnight rate have paid for that day.
5) All the given statements are correct
ha
148. Mumbai and Delhi have secured positions among the top 50 wealthiest cities in a
global survey of wealth distribution according to the 2024 World's Wealthiest
Cities Report released by Henley & Partners and New World Wealth. Which of the

E
following city leads the global ranking according to the report?
1) Los Angeles 2) Beijing 3) Washington, DC 4) New York 5) Hong Kong
149. In September, the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) completed
d
five successful years, providing a pension safety net for small and marginal farmers.
Under the initiative, eligible small and marginal farmers are given a fixed monthly
pension of Rs. 3000. Farmers aged between 18 and 40 years need to contribute
ee

between _____per month until they turn 60.

1) Rs. 100 to Rs. 200 2) Rs. 45 to Rs. 100
3) Rs. 55 to Rs. 200 4) Rs. 65 to Rs. 200 5) Rs. 55 to Rs. 100
C
150. According to the Finance Minister, India is expected to overtake Japan and Germany
to emerge as the third-largest economy in the world by which year?
Sr

1) 2027 2) 2026 3) 2025 4) 2028 5) 2029

151. Monkeypox is classified as a global public health emergency by the World Health
Organization (WHO); which year was the first case of monkeypox in humans
found in the 'Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)'?
1) 1960 2) 2000 3) 1980 4) 1990 5) 1970
152. In August 2024, which company has partnered with OTO Capital to enable two-
wheeler loans. Additionally, the company has also partnered with Volt Money to
C
facilitate loans against Mutual Funds to its merchant partners.
1) Paytm 2) PhonePe 3) Google Pay 4) BharatPe 5) BHIM
153. In July 2024, which insurance company launched the Deferred Annuity Plan
aimed at providing a steady retirement income for customers. With an annuity
plan starting at Rs 60,000 a year, the entry age for the plan is from 40 to 75 years
and it includes payable with or without Return of Purchase Price.
1) HDFC Life Insurance 2) ICICI Prudential Life Insurance
3) Shriram Life Insurance 4) Max Life Insurance 5) Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
154. Which nation has appointed former Foreign Secretary Vinay Mohan Kwatra as
India’s Ambassador?
1) Russia 2) USA 3) UK 4) Japan 5) China
155. Which bank has responded to the rising incidence of cyber scams by implementing
a new security feature called “Safety Ring” into its online and mobile banking
systems?
1) Punjab National Bank 2) Indian bank
3) State Bank of India 4) Bank of India 5) Karnataka bank

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

156. The Department of Posts has issued a beta version of National Addressing Grid
under the brand name of DIGIPIN. Consider the following statements regarding
the Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN). Which of the statements given below
is/are incorrect?
1) It is an initiative to establish a standardized, geo-coded addressing system in
India.
2) It is developed by the Department of Posts in collaboration with the National
Informatics Centre.
3) The DIGIPIN layer will act as the addressing reference system which can be

r’s
used for logically locating addresses with directional properties built into it due
to the logical naming pattern followed in its construction.
4) This system will act as a robust pillar of Geospatial Governance, leading to
enhancements in public service delivery, faster emergency response and a
significant boost to logistics efficiency.
ha
5) All of the given statements are correct
157. In August Month 2024, which bank has entered into a co-lending partnership
with Newtap Finance Private Limited to provide personalised financing solutions

1) ICICI Bank

E
for creditworthy individuals on payments platform CRED?
2) Kotak Mahindra Bank
d
3) HDFC Bank 4) Yes Bank 5) Axis Bank
158. The Indian Army contingent departed for the 5th edition of India-Oman Joint
Military Exercise AL NAJAH. It has been held biennially since _________.
ee

1) 2014 2) 2015 3) 2019 4) 2020 5) 2017

159. Universal Account Number – UAN is a 12-digit code, and it will be allocated by ___
C
1) Securities & Exchange Board of India
2) Employee State Insurance Corporation
Sr

3) Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority

4) Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority of India
5) Employees Provident Fund Organization
160. Which company has partnered with global travel aggregators such as Skyscanner,
Google Flights, and Wego to increase its presence in the travel industry?
1) Paytm 2) Phonepe 3) Razorpay 4) Amazon Pay 5) Gpay
C
161. How many important documents were signed between India and Ukraine recently
under the direction of President Volodymyr Zelenskyy of Ukraine and Prime
Minister Narendra Modi?
1) Five 2) Two 3) Four 4) Six 5) Eight
162. Who is the first Indian female athlete to win 2 medals in track and field events at
either Paralympics or Olympics?
1) Rashmi Kumari 2) Vishakha Shukla
3) Harmanpreet Kaur 4) Preeti Pal 5) Jyoti Gaderiya
163. According to the Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority's (PFRD1) new
norms for partial withdrawal under National Pension Scheme (NPS), The
subscribers of NPS who have contributed for three years can withdraw up to
_______ of the corpus for meeting specified expenses namely purchase of residential
premises, treatment of critical illness, higher education and marriage of children.
1) 10% 2) 25% 3) 15% 3) 50% 5) 75%

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

164. Raksha Rajya Mantri Shri Sanjay Seth launched an innovative scheme that seeks
solution to the problems related to the shipyards and promotes technology
development using the start-ups created and nurtured in the country. What is
the name of this scheme?
1) GRCE Innovation scheme 2) GRSE Accelerated Innovation Nurturing Scheme
3) Shipyard Technological Advancement Scheme
4) MSME Shipbuilding Scheme 5) National Shipbuilders Support Scheme
165. NS Arighaat, dia’s second nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine, was
commissioned into service at Visakhapatnam. When was INS Arihant, the first
such submarine, commissioned?

r’s
1) 2016 2) 2019 3) 2010 4) 2014 5) 2005
166. The Reserve Bank of India has stated that cheque clearance will be expedited to
within a few hours. Currently, the process takes approximately two to three days.
This expedited cheque payment method will benefit both the payer and the payee.
Consider the following.
I) Micro Lettering
III) CTS India Watermar
ha II) New Rupee Symbol
IV) Void Pantograph
V) Specific Cheque Colors and Backgrounds

E
Which of the above are mandatory features specified in the Cheque Truncation
System (CTS) 2010 standards?
d
1) (I), (III) and (IV) only 2) (I), (II) and (III) only
3) (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V) 4) (III), (IV) and (V) only 5) (II), (IV) and (V) only
167. Which housing finance firm has recently (in August ‘24) launched ‘Griha Rakshak’
ee

home loan scheme for the Indian armed forces?

1) LIC Housing Finance Limited 2) Hero Housing Finance Limited
3) Aadhar Housing Finance Limited
C
4) Shriram Housing Finance Limited
5) Piramal Capital and Housing Finance Limited
Sr

168. Which among the following bank has launched a Generative AI-powered virtual
relationship manager (VRM), a first-of-its-kind initiative in the Indian banking
sector, provides real-time information about the bank’s products and services?
1) HDFC Bank 2) Bank of Baroda
3) Canara Bank 4) Axis Bank 5) State Bank of India
169. Which bank has recently partnered with the Society for Worldwide Interbank
C
Financial Telecommunications (SWIFT) to launch an artificial intelligence (AI)-
driven pilot to help combat payments fraud occurring in cross-border payments?
1) Punjab and Sind Bank 2) HDFC Bank
3) Axis Bank 4) Federal Bank 5) ICICI Bank
170. According to the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) revised guidelines,
the Average Daily Delivery Value (ADDV) of stocks in the cash market in the
previous 6 months must be a minimum of _________.
1) Rs. 15 crore 2) Rs. 50 crore 3) Rs. 35 crore 4) Rs. 25 crore 5) Rs. 40 crore
171. Japan won its maiden Sultan Azlan Shah trophy by defeating Pakistan in the
final. Sultan Azlan Shah Trophy is related to which sport?
1) Tennis 2) Hockey 3) Badminton 4) Football 5) Cricket
172. NASA is collaborating with which space agency on the X-ray Imaging and
Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM) satellite, demonstrating their commitment to
advancing X-ray astronomy despite encountering an instrument issue?
1) SpaceX 2) ESA 3) ISRO 4) Roscosmos 5) JAXA

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

173. Who has been appointed as the chairman-designate of the National Association of
Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM) in place of Debjani Ghosh?
1) Pranav Raj 2) Rajesh Nambiar
3) Debjani Ghosh 4) Ajay Agnihotri 5) Govind Mohan
174. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has announced the Prime Minister’s package
of 5 schemes and initiatives in Union Budget 2024 -25, which aims to facilitate
employment, skilling, and other opportunities for 4.1 crore youth over a 5-year
period with a central outlay of Rs. 2 lakh crores. Which of the following amount is
a direct benefit transfer of one-month salary in 3 installments to first-time
employees, as EPFO, according to Scheme A: First Timers?

r’s
1) 6,000 2) 20,000 3) 12,000 4) 10,000 5) 15,000
175. Which Union Ministry of India has inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
with Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL) to help facilitate STREE for
Self Help Group (SHG) Women under DAY-NRLM?
1) Ministry of Women & Child Development
ha
2) Ministry of Rural Development
3) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
4) Ministry of Finance 5) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare

E
176. As per a report titled 'Synchronising Energy Transitions Towards Possible Net
Zero for India: Affordable and Clean Energy for All' released by the Atomic Energy
Commission (AEC), India aims to increase its nuclear power production to 1 lakh
d
MW by which year?
1) 2025 2) 2040 3) 2030 4) 2035 5) 2047
177. Which team won against the Jaipur Patriots in the Ultimate Table Tennis 2024?
ee

1) Goa Challengers 2) Kolkata Royals

3) Delhi Smashers 4) Chennai Warriors 5) U Mumba TT
178. In April 2024, which of the following has handed over the first batch of the
C
indigenous Leading Edge Actuators and Airbrake Control Module to Hindustan
Aeronautics Limited, marking a significant leap towards self-reliance in
Sr

aeronautical technologies?
1) BHEL 2) Gliders India 3) BEL 4) BDL 5) DRDO
179. Punjab National Bank’s (PN2) Board has approved the initiation of process for
divesting ________ shareholding in its associate company Canara HSBC Life
Insurance through an initial public offering (IPO) route.
1) 20% 2) 10% 3) 30% 4) 15% 5) 23%
C
180. How many farmers' families have voluntarily surrendered the Pradhan Mantri
Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme benefits during the June Month 2023 to
May Month 2024 period?
1) 1,16,000 2) 1,15,000 3) 1,10,000 4) 1,25,000 5) 1,01,000
181. According to the Reserve Bank of India rules, 'Storage of Payment System Data'
advises all system providers to ensure that, within a period of _______ months,
the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them is stored in a
system only in India.
1) Three 2) Nine 3) Six 4) Twelve 5) Ten
182. Which Indian state introduced its first Witness Protection Scheme aimed at
ensuring fair justice by safeguarding witnesses during investigations and trials?
1) Karnataka 2) Bihar 3) Odisha 4) Maharashtra 5) Assam
183. What term is commonly used to refer to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)
due to their resemblance to traditional banks but with fewer regulatory controls?
1) Invisible Institutions 2) Semi-banks
3) Alternative Banks 4) Shadow Banks 5) Parallel Banks

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

184. The Indian women’s national volleyball team secured the gold medal at the 4th
CAVA Women’s Volleyball Nations League 2024 by defeating which country in the
final with a score of 3-2 sets.
1) Malaysia 2) Germany 3) Australia 4) Iran 5) Nepal
185. The Union Cabinet has approved how many new Greenfield Industrial Smart
Cities under the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme to transform
the industrial landscape of the country.
1) Twelve 2) Ten 3) Eight 4) Six 5) Seven
186. Recently (April 2024) , the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public
Grievances (DARPG) inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the

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Ministry of Civil Service, ______ on cooperation in the field of Human Resource
Development in Civil Service.
1) Sri Lanka 2) Cambodia 3) Nepal 4) Singapore 5) Philippines
187. Which organisation has been recognised as the 1st Self-Regulating Organisation
in the Fintech sector (SRO-FT) by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
ha
1) National Fintech Regulatory Board 2) Financial Technology Council of India
3) National Payments Corporation of India
4) Internet And Mobile Association Of India

E
5) Fintech Association for Consumer Empowerment
188. In May 2024, In a novel initiative, which of the following has brought together
start-ups/MSMEs, academia and research institutions under the "Telecom Design
d
Collaboration Sprint" to nurturing innovation and fostering industry collaboration
to propel India's telecommunications sector towards global leadership in the 5G
era and beyond?
ee

1) Central Bureau of Communication 2) Indian Telephone Industries Limited

3) Telecom Equipment and Services Export Promotion Council
4) Department of Telecommunications
C
5) Controller General Of Communication Accounts
189. In September 2024, The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
Sr

(DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry announced the launch of the BHASKAR,
a comprehensive digital platform aimed at centralizing and enhancing collaboration
between over 1,46,000 recognized startups, investors, mentors, service providers,
and government bodies. What does the letter ‘K’ represent in the acronym
‘BHASKAR’?
1) Kisan 2) Know 3) Knowledge 4) Key 5) knock
C
190. Tata Power Solar Systems Ltd has partnered with which bank to offer financing
solutions for rooftop solar installations and EV charging stations?
1) Bank of India 2) State Bank of India
3) HDFC Bank 4) Canara Bank 5) ICICI Bank
191. ___________ software creates a mirror image of the entire hard disk, including
the operating system, applications, files, and data.
1) Operating system 2) Backup software
3) Utility programs 4) Driver imaging 5) None
192. Imagine that a user has a WORD document open at a workstation and that
workstation is unexpectedly disconnected from the school network and from the
Internet. Where should the user BEST save her work?
1) USB key 2) P drive 3) E drive 4) S drive 5) H drive
193. A disk storage medium in the form of an assembly containing a single rigid magnetic
disk permanently is
1) Fixed disk 2) Card reader 3) Card punch 4) Disk cartridge 5) None

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 5

194. The Device which converts instructions into the binary form that is understood by
the computer and supply to the computer is known as___.
1) Memory 2) Output 3) Automatic 4) Input 5) None
195. In Microsoft Word shortcut SHIFT+DELETE is used for
1) Copy the selected item 2) Rename the selected item
3) Create a shortcut to the selected item
4) Delete the selected item permanently without placing the item in the Recycle
Bin
5) None
196. What type of software is used for creating letters papers and other documents?

r’s
1) Spreadsheet 2) Operating Program
3) Database 4) Word Processor 5) None
197. If you will be displaying or printing your document on another computer, you'll
want to make sure and select the ______ option under the 'Save' tab.
1) Embed Fonts 2) Embed True Type Fonts
3) Save True Type Fonts
198. Data dictionary is
ha 4) Save Fonts 5) None

1) Large collection of data mostly stored in a computer system

E
2) The removal of noise errors and incorrect input from a database
3) The systematic description of the syntactic structure of a specific database. It
d
describes the structure of the attributes the tables and foreign key relationships.
4) Both 2 and 3 5) None
199. The sharing of a medium and its path by 2 or more devices is called _.
ee

1) Multiplexing 2) Encoding 3) Line discipline

4) Modulation 5) None
200. Which of the cell pointer indicate that you can move the content to other cell?
C
1) Doctor's symbol (Big Plus) 2) Small thin plus icon
3) Mouse Pointer with anchor at the tip 4) All the above 5) None
Sr

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