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FTS 3 CODE B Sol

The document contains the answer key for the Final Test Series for NEET-2024, specifically Test - 3, with a total of 200 questions. Each question is followed by its corresponding answer, categorized under Physics and other subjects. The test has a maximum mark of 720 and a duration of 3 hours and 20 minutes.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views14 pages

FTS 3 CODE B Sol

The document contains the answer key for the Final Test Series for NEET-2024, specifically Test - 3, with a total of 200 questions. Each question is followed by its corresponding answer, categorized under Physics and other subjects. The test has a maximum mark of 720 and a duration of 3 hours and 20 minutes.

Uploaded by

aryanudaygiri
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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29/03/2024

Phase
CODE-B

Aakash
Medical IIT-JEE Foundations
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8. Pusa Road. New Delhi-110005. Ph.011-476234 56

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2024


MM: 720 Test - 3 Time: 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Answers
1 (2) 41. (2) 81. (2) 121. (4) 161.(1)
2 (4) 42. (4) 82. (1) 122. (3) 162.(2)
3 (1) 43. (2) 83. (4) 123. (2) 163.(4)
4. (4) 44. (4) 84 (1) 124. (3) 164.(3)
5 (1) 45. (1) 85. (1) 125. (3) 165.(2)
6 (2) 46. (4) 86. (1) 126. (4) 166.(1)
7 (3) 47. (4) 87. (3) 127. (2) 167.(4)
8. (2) 48. (1) 88. (3) 128. (1) 168.(1)
9 (1) 49. (3) 89. (4) 129. (4) 169.(2)
10. (4) 50. (4) 90. (1) 130. (4) 170.(2)
11. (1) 51. (3) 91. (3) 131. (2) 171.(2)
12. (3) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (4) 172.(4)
13. (3) 53. (2) 93. (4) 133. (2) 173.(3)
14. (3) 54. (1) 94. (2) 134. (2) 174.(3)
15. (1) 55. (3) 95. (4) 135. (3) 175.(2)
16. (4) 56. (3) 96. (1) 136. (4) 176.(4)
17. (2) 57. (4) 97. (4) 137. (4) 177.(3)
18. (3) 58. (3) 98. (2) 138. (4) 178.(3)
19. (2) 59. (4) 99. (3) 139. (2) 179.(1)
60. (1) 100. (3) 140. (3) 180.(4)
20. (1)
21. (4) 61. (1) 101. (3) 141. (2) 181.(3)
22. (2) 62. (2) 102. (3) 142. (2) 182.(1)
23. (1) 63. (3) 103. (1) 143. (1) 183.(3)
104. (2) 144. (1) 184.(4)
24. (4 ) 64. (1)
25. (4) 65. (3) 105. (2) 145. (3) 185.(1)
26. (3) 66. (3) 106. (1) 146. (3) 186.(2)
27. (2) 67. (3) 107. (3) 147. (3) 187.(1)
28. (2) 68. (2) 108. (4) 148. (1) 188.(3)
29. (4 ) 69. (1) 109. (2) 149. (4) 189.(4)
30. (2) 70. (3) 110. (2) 150. (1) 190.(2)
31. (4) 71. (1) 111. (4) 151.(3) 191.(3)
32. (3) 72. (1) 112. (1) 152. (3) 192.(2)
33. (2) 73. (2) 113. (4) 153.(1) 193.(2)
74 114. (2) 154.(2) 194.(3)
34. (1) (4)
35. (3) 75. (1) 115. (3) 155.(1) 195.(4)
36. (4) 76. (4) 116. (2) 156.(3) 196.(2)
37. (2) 77. (1) 117. (2) 157.(2) 197.(2)
38. (1) 78. (1) 118. (3) 158.(2) 198.(1)
39. (1) 79. (1) 119. (3) 159.(4) 199.(3)
40. (3) 80. (1) 120. (1) 160.(3) 200. (2)

(1)
Phase
29/03/2024 CODE-B

Aakash
Medicall IT-JEE| Foundations
Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8. Pusa Road, New

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2024


Test -3 Time:3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
MM: 720

Answers and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION -A 5 Answer (1)


1. Answer (2) AL =
FL =
4,A
Point B is elastic limit AY AL, L A,
2 Answer (4) 2
ALy 2L
Let Vis volume of body andp is density of oil. ALg
For equilibrium in water
=2x 1
60
Vdg = 100Vxp, xg ...(i)
6. Answer (2)
For equilibrium in oil 30°+ 40°+ 10° + 0°
-20°C
4
40
Vdg = 100-Vxpxg ...(ü)
7. Answer (3)
Height of liquid level will be maximum in vessel
Equate () and (i)
So the pressure at the base due to liquid will be
60 40
-Vxp Xg = Vxpxg maximum in vessel 'C.
100 100
As the base areaof all three vessels is same. the
maximum force on the base will be maximum for
=1.5 ’ R.D. = 1.5
Pw vessel ' .
3 Answer (1) 8 Answer (2)
T2 = kr FL
AL = La
AY
r
’=Yat
A
AT 3N
T 2 r Answer (1)
4 Answer (4) If a particle is fired from centre of Earth
Q= mciceAT + mL + mc, AT -3GMM 1
2R
= 10 x 0.5 x 10+ 10 x 80 +10 x 1x 20
3GM |3 2GM
= 50 + 800 + 200 = 1050 cal V
VR V2 R

(2)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers &Solutions)
10. Answer (4) 14. Answer (3)
From conservation of energy Force exerted on the side - P" A,
U + K,= U,+ K
-GMm 1 GMm Force exerted on the bottom = pghAz
mv²
R 2 (R+h) Pghg² Pgh h.d
2d
-GMm 4
1 2GMm GMm
R 2 16 x R R+h h= 2d

1 15 15. Answer (1)


R+h 16R FL
Y
R AAL
h=
15

11. Answer (1)


F-AL
YA
GM Hence, K
V= L
R
On decreasing R gravitational potential V 16. Answer (4)

decreases
Heat gained = Heat lost
mCe = m1L
12. Answer (3)
GMm mCe
U, = 6R L

GMm 17. Answer (2)


U, = 8R
F=:GM,M2
W= U,- U,
-GMm
8R
GMm
6R
GM,M2
d
-3GMm + 4GMm
24R
4GM,M2
GMm 9d²
24R
13. Answer (3)
m 18. Answer (3)
2p
m

4p (-2, 0) 1kg (4, 0)


2m 4 kg 8 kg
Pmix
4G 8G
m m 2m
2p 4p Pmix
G
2+1 2
4p Pmix
G
Pmix =
8p 2
3

(3)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)

19 Answer (2) 27. Answer (2)


According to the question,
GM
AL1 = AL2
R2
AL
As we know. u=
Mo Ry LAO
9m Mm Re
4 Me
Mm 5 L
Me 28. Answer (2)
80:1
Due to surface tension shape of small liquid drop
Mm is spherical and pressure inside the drop is greater
20. Answer (1) than outside.
29. Answer (4)
T=27GM GMm
Potential energy U=
R2 xR -GMm

T=ZiGM R
Total energy E 21

T -2r
21. Answer (4) 30. Answer (2)
Gis the universal constant. Assuming the temperature of surrounding be C
22. Answer (2) Case-l
The dimensional formula of water equivalent is (60- 50) = k(55 -t)...(1)
[M'LOTO] 4 min
23. Answer (1) Again, Case-l|
W= SAA
=4 x 10-2 x 47 (10)2 x 104x 2
(40-30) - k(35 -t)...(2)
8min
= 16x x 104 Jx 2 =3.2n mJ
10
24. Answer (4) (1) (55-t)
(2) 10 (35 t)
8
H ’ 2(35-t) =55-t
’ 70-2t= 55-t
h

2h 31. Answer (4)


V2gH -h)
Vg
3/2 3/2
2(H -h) /2gh TA RA
=8
g Tg Rg
h 32. Answer (3)
h'-h 1
h
25. Answer (4)
Water fils the tube entirely in gravity free
condition.
26. Answer (3)
Speed of the body initially increases and then
attained a constant value. mg

(4)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers &Solutions)

T= m (g+ a) 39. Answer (1)


dv
= maximum stress Av
A dt
100 x 106 = 0.1v
2x106 mg +a)2
100 x 10-6
1x10-1
V= 10-3
2x10 x IX =1 mm/s
-10 = a
1000 40. Answer (3)
a =5.7 m/s? Applying equation of continuity
33. Answer (2)
AA
2AV,-2+ Av
= Constant
At 2x 4 = 1 + v
V=7m/s
Ay AAg
3 6 2 41. Answer (2)
Rate of heat emission
’ 2A1 = A2 =3A3
34. Answer (1) dQ = GAT4
dt
GM
R
2R 2r -p3/2
dt
A,
T:
VGM
dQ Az
dt
35. Answer (3)
A 2H 124
Time required to emptied the tank, t=
Ao Vg A1
=4:1

.. -H- = 2 :h =21 42. Answer (4)


When a substance changes from one state to
SECTION B another then energy may be absorbed or released
36. Answer (4) but temperature remains same.

T°C-lce point F-32 43. Answer (2)


Steam Point -ice point 180 v=2gy
52-5 F-32 44. Answer (4)
=

99-5 180 Smaller bubble will have air at higher pressure in


flow
47 F-32 comparison to larger bubble and thus air will
180 from it to larger bubble.
94
1 F-32 45. Answer (1)
2 180
h
2T cos
F= 122°F fgr
flat.
37. Answer (2) If angle of contact is zero, meniscus wil be
Inside the water
Angle of contact will be obtuse for mercury glass
concave.
Weight = Upthrust pair and meniscus will be downward
.: Apparent weight = 0 46. Answer (4)
equal to heat
38. Answer (1) Heat flowing through AB should be
Water is more elastic than air and air is more passing from CD
compressible than water.

(5)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)
49.
<
Answer (3)
H= H2
AP
K;A,a, KzA,aT, K AV

2KA(100 -T) KA(T -0)


d 2d 1 2x106
x2x103
4(100 T) = T 4x10o-8 AV

400 =5T AV=4 x 10-8 x 2 x 106 x 2x 10-3


T =80
= 1.6 x 104 m3
Hence the temperature of the junction EF is 80°C.
= 160 cc
47. Answer (4)
50. Answer (4)
2/3 Assume temperature in equilibrium is 0
R
Rz Heat lost = Heat gain
4x 1[80 -0] = 20 x 1 (0 30)
80 -0 = 50 150
48. Answer (1)
From the Bernoulli's theorem 60 = 230

R-Pg-pv -vi)-*1.3x(120 -(901 = 230-= 38.3°C


6
= 4095 N/m2

CHEMISTRY
SECTION -A 10
-= 106
1000
51. Answer (3)
-441 0 +4-1 +1 -1 .:. pH =-log (106) = 6
CH, (9) +4CI, (9)CCI,() +4HCg) 57. Answer (4)
52. Answer (4) Initial pH= 2, [H'] = 102
NaOH + HCN NaCN + H20 Final pH= 6.0, [H*]= 105
0
Hence, [H*]reduced by a factor of 104
(i) 4 mmol 6 mmol So, acidic character decreases by a factor of 10+
2mmol 4 mmol
(f) 58. Answer (3)
Since final mixture contains weak acid (HCN) and B has empty p-orbital in Bl3, hence can act as
its salt (NaCN) with strong base, so it will act as Lewis acid
an acidic buffer.
59. Answer (4)
53. Answer (2) If Ke > 10, products predominate over reactants
Endothermic reactions move forward on
i.e. if Ke is very large, the reaction proceeds nearly
increasing the temperature. to completion.
54. Answer (1) 60. Answer (1)
In case of basic buffer
Due to common ion effect the solubility of AgCl is
minimum in 0.02 M NaC.
pOH = pK, + log
(NH,CI)
55. Answer (3) (NH,OH)
Keq Only changes with reaction temperature. pOH = 14 - pH
56. Answer (3) 5= pk, +log 0.1
NaCl solution is only diluting the acidic solution 0.1
and does not produce any H' ions. pK, = 5

(6)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-3 (Code-8)_(Answers &Solutions)
61 Answer (1)
0 P,(s)+ 30H (aq) +3H,0)>
C0, 1
3

,+6 PH,(9) H, PO, (a4)


HSO% HO
o-0-H 1

Ch(g) +2OH (aq)» CIO (aq) + CI (aq) +


1

H,O0)
o t4
68. Answer (2)
Br:OA 0= Br-B-B =0 The correct order of density in group 14 elernent
is Si < C< Ge < Sn < Pb

+2 69. Answer (1)


OF>
Buckminsterfullerene Gontains twenty
six-membered rings and twelve
62. Answer (2)
five- membered rings.
In pyrosilicates, one oxygen atom is shared All the carbon atoms are equal and they
between two SiO tetrahedron. undergo sp² hybridisation.
63. Answer (3) 70. Answer (3)
The species will be good reducing agent whose
Oxidation potential is high.
Redox couple E'N
64. Answer (1) Pb2"/Pb -0.13 V
3B,H, +6NH, ’3(BH,(NH,),] [BHJ Mg"/Mg -2.36 V

|Heat Zn2/Zn -0.76 V


2B,N,H, + 12H, .:: Correct order of reducing power, Mg > Zn > Pb
65. Answer (3) 71. Answer (1)
3B,H6 +6NHg ’ 3|BH,(NH, ]' [BH2B4NgHg +12Hy For the reaction,
66. Answer (3) NaOH +H,SO, ’ Na,SO, +H,0
In acidic medium Since there is no change in oxidation number.

2MnO, +101 +16H ’ 2Mn +8H,0+51, 72. Answer (1)


Addition of inert gas at constant volume does not
10 moleIrequired = 2mole MnO,
change the partial pressure or the molar
2 Concentrations of the substance involved in the
0.1 molet required= 0x0.1 =0.02 mole MnO,
reaction.
In neutral medium 73. Answer (2)
For salt of weak acid and strong base
2MnO, +H,0+ ’ 2MnO, +200HT +I03
1
1mole I required = 2 mole MnOa pH = pkw +pk, + log C]
2
2
0.1 mole I required = x0.1=0.2 mole MnO, 0.01 M(CH3CO0)2 Ca solution
’0.02:0.2 pH = (14 +4.74 + log101
2
’ 1: 10
1
67. Answer (3)
; (18.14 - 2]
In a disproportionation reaction an element in one
oxidation state is simultaneously oxidised and 1
16.74 = 8.37
reduced. 2

(7)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Solutions)
Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers & 2P 2P P
74. Answer (4) Total pressure at equilibrium = P 5 5 5
AG° = -RT In K P 6P
P.
x log(2 x
AG° =-8.314 JK-1mol 1 x 300 Kx 2.303 5 5

1013) 6 AKp
5 4
AG° =-7.64 x 104 J mol1
=-76.4 kJ mol 1
Total pressure at equilibrium=
75. Answer (1)
81. Answer (2)
Lead does not show catenation. equilibrium constant
A catalyst does not alter the
Catenation : C >> Si > Ge Sn of a reaction.
82. Answer (1)
76. Answer (4)
oxidation state.
and F2 does not show any positive
The species like, SiF. GeCls<? that's why Fz does not undergo disproportionation
[Sn(OH)6]2- exist where the hybridisation of central reaction.
atom is sp°d. 83. Answer (4)
2HNO3 + 3H2S ’ 2NO + 3S + 4H20
77. Answer (1)
Silicones are hydrophobic in nature. 84. Answer (1)
78. Answer (1) E =Egathode -anode
Lead is unaffected
by water, probably
E =0.8-(-0.76) =1.56 V
because of a protective oxide film formation.
85. Answer (1)
79. Answer (1)
The correct structure of tetrathionate ions is
NHNO, is composed of NH, and NO. N have
-3 and +5 Oxidation states respectively.
O=0==0 SECTION -B
0-S-s-S-`-0 86. Answer (1)
ZSM-5 used to convert alcohols directly into
80. Answer (1) gasoline.
87. Answer (3)
2x2(9) 2xl9 Y2(9) HCI is a strong acid and NaCl is a salt of strong
P
acid and strong base. Therefore, mixture of NaCI
2P and HCI is not a buffer.
5 5 5
88. Answer (3)
Exothermic reaction is favoured by low
temperature.
Kp
3P Increase in pressure shift equilibrium towards
5 lesser number of gaseous moles.
89. Answer (4)
4p' P
Let the volume of each solution be 1L.
25 5
gp? M,V, -M,V, =MV,
(NaOH) (HCI)
25
0.2xL -0.1xL
4P M.
2L
Kp 45
0.2-0.1
2
M,
P:
4
(8)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers &Solutions)
0.1 Ni(OH),(s) NI (aq) + 20H (aq)
2
M, S 2s

0.05 =M,= [NaOH)eft Kso =(s)1 (2s)? = 4s?


.. [OH ] =0.05 M 2x10-15 500 x 10-18
[OH ]= 5x 102 s =7.94 x 10-6 M
pOH =-log(5 x10) 95. Answer (4)
-2-log5 EN of Si, Ge and Sn is 1.8.
=1.3 SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature.
pH=14-1.3 96. Answer (1)
12.7 Due to the absence of vacant d-orbitals in carbon,
90. Answer (1) the central atom cannot accommodate the lone
Boric acid is a monobasic, Lewis acid. pair of electrons from oxygen atom of water
molecule.
B(OH), +2H,0 [B(OH)4J +H,0*
97. Answer (4)
H,BO,HBO,B,03 CoO + Glassy bead ’ Co(BO, ,
91. Answer (3) (Blue bead)
A+ 2B 2C, K1 = 4 x 104 ...(1) 98. Answer (2)
On reversing eq. (1) and divide by 2 COz, SiO2, GeO2 are acidic, SnO2 is amphoteric.
1
CA +B ...(2) 99. Answer (3)
2
1/2 (Silicate) (Formula)
1
() Orthosilicate siof
1 (i) Pyrosilicate Si,o
2x102 (ii)) Chain Silicate
2D E, K2 = 3 x 104
(SiO3nj2n
A+ B+E (iv) Sheet Silicate (Si,Os )
C+ 2D 2

3x10 = 1.5 x 102


100. Answer (3)
Knet =
Bond Bond enthalpy/kJ mot
2x102
92. Answer (4) C-C 348
H2CO3 can act as bronsted acid only. Si Si 297
93. Answer (4) Ge -Ge 260

Cr,0 +6Fe? +14H*’2Cr + 6Fe +7H,0 Sn - Sn 240

94. Answer (2)

BOTANY
SECTION-A It is mainly composed of lipids and proteins.
membrane
Water may move across the plasma
101. Answer (3) concentration. Movement of
from higher to lower
In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte
(RBC) has approximately 52% protein and 40%. water by diffusion is caled osmosis.
lipids. 103. Answer (1)
102. Answer (3) endoplasmic
One of the function of smooth
Neutral solute may move across the membrane by drugs.
the process of simple diffusion. reticulum (SER) is detoxification of

(9)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)
104. Answer (2) 115. Answer (3)
As the polar molecules cannot pass through the
Interphase, though called the resting phase, is the
nonpolar lipid bilayer, they require a carrier protein
time during which the cell is preparing for division of the membrane to facilitate their transport across
by undergoing both cell growth and DNA membrane.
replication in an orderly manner.
A few ions or molecules are transported across
105. Answer (2) concentration
the membrane against their
Each cell in G1 phase, after S phase and after M gradient., such transport is an energy dependent
phase will have 16 chromosomes.
process.
106. Answer (1)
116. Answer (2)
In animal cells, during the S phase. DNA The cell wall and middle lamella may be
replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole
transversed by plasmodesmata which connect the
duplicates in the cytoplasm. cytoplasm of neighbouring plant cells.
107. Answer (3)
Golgi apparatus in plant cells are called 117. Answer (2)
Metaphase is the stage at which morphology of
dictyosomes. Proteins are modified in cisternae of
chromosomes is more easily studied.
Golgi.
118. Answer (3)
108. Answer (4)
Acrosome of the sperm is modified Golgi The two asters together with spindle fibres forms
mitotic apparatus.
apparatus.
109. Answer (2) 119. Answer (3)
Mitochondria and chloroplasts have 70S In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of
a number of ions and other materials against
ribosome. Concentration gradient into the vacuole, hence
110. Answer (2) their concentration is significantly higher in the
In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by vacuole than in the cytoplasm.
cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate
120. Answer (1)
condition arises leading to the formation of The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
syncytium.
G1 (Post-mitotic gap phase) ’S (DNA
111. Answer (4)
synthesis) ’
In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last G2 (Pre-mitotic gap phase) M(Mitosis)
for months or years.
121. Answer (4)
In metaphase-I, the bivalent chromosomes align
on the equatorial plant. Centrioles are absent in higher plant cells.
During telophase, chromosomes cluster at pole. 122. Answer (3)
Nucleus, Golgicomplex and ER reform. A special membranous structure is the mesosome

112. Answer (1) which is formed by the invagination of the plasma


membrane into the cel. Pili are involved in mating
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter process. In some bacteria, fimbriae helps in
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent attaching the bacteria to the substratum.
of G1
stage (Go). This process occurs at the end Chromatophores (membranous extensions)
phase.
contain pigments
113. Answer (4)
123. Answer (2)
Osmotic expansion of cells kept in water is Rudolf Virchow explained that new cells are
regulated by vacuoles. formed from pre-existing cells.
114. Answer (2)
124. Answer (3)
Thylakoids are flat membranouS sacs in stroma of
Cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a
chloroplast. furrow, which moves centripetally in animal cell
Centrioles help in the formation of basal bodies and divides the cell into two halves.
which give rise to cilia and flagella. Chromatin is 125. Answer (3)
highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibre. Quiescent stage is also known as Go phase.
Cristae are infoldings in mitochondria.
(10)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)

126. Answer (4) 138. Answer (4)


Crossing over is exchange of genetic material By the end of diakinesis nucleolus disappear and
between the non-sister chromatids of homologous nuclear envelope also breaks down.
chromosomes and it occurs during pachytene 139. Answer (2)
stage. Crossing over involves activity of
Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
recombinase enzyme. meiosis II.
127. Answer (2) 140. Answer (3)
In acrOcentric chromosome, the centromere is
situated close to its end forming one extremely G1 to S transition is carried out by G1 cyclin + cdc2
kinase.
short and one very long arm.
128. Answer (1) 141. Answer (2)
Maturing face is concave or trans face. Cis face is The Golgi derived vesicles take part in formation
convex and receives vesicles from ER. of cell plate.
129. Answer (4) 142. Answer (2)
Cytoskeleton in a cell is involved in many functions At the end of prophase, Golgi complex, ER,
such as mechanical support, motility, nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear.
maintenance of the shape of the cell.
143. Answer (1)
130. Answer (4) Prophase Iis divided into five sub phases.
Cilia work as oars.
The longest phase of reduction division is
131. Answer (2)
Pollen is haploid and pollen mother cell is diploid. prophase I.
144. Answer (1)
G, ’ S ’ G, ’ MI ’ MII
24 pg 48 pg 48 pg 24 pg 12 pg Several ribosomes when attach toa single mRNA
132. Answer (4) and form achain then it is called polyribosomes or
Pollen (metacentric) chromosome appears polysome.
V- shaped during anaphase. 145. Answer (3)
fibres attach to
133. Answer (2) In metaphase, spindle
Lipids of plasma membrane contain polar heads kinetochores.
towards the outer sides and non-polar tails 146. Answer (3)
towards inner sides. Mesosomes are infoldings of plasma membrane
134. Answer (2) present in some bacteria. They are involved in
Plasmid DNAconfers unique phenotypic character respiration as they contain respiratory enzymes.
resistance to
to bacteria. One such character is
antibiotics. 147. Answer (3)
Nucleosome are composed of DNA and proteins.
135. Answer (3)
have nucleoid. Volvox, 148. Answer (1)
Prokaryotes of
Chlamydomonas and yeast are eukaryotic Golgi complex is involved in modification
organisms. proteins and lipids.
In Anabaena, no nuclear membrane is present. 149. Answer (4)
SECTION -B
In the given figure:
136. Answer (4) P’ G2 phase
Centrioles are made up of nine evenly spaced
peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein. X’ Metaphase
The matrix of mitochondria contains components Y’ Telophase
for protein synthesis. B ’ Cytokinesis
137. Answer (4) 150. Answer (1)
The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are 70S ChromOsomes form two parallel plates in
ribosomes consist of 30S smaller subunit and
metaphase Iand one plate in metaphase ll.
50S larger subunit.

(11)
Test-3 (Code-B) (Answers & Solutions)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024

Z00LOGY
SECTION-A 160. Answer (3)
151. Answer (3) Lungs

Destruction of RBCs occur in spleen, so spleen is Pulnionary atery


called 'graveyard' of RBCs. Also, it is one of the Pulrmonary Vain

secondary lymphoid organ in humans.


152. Answer (3)
Vena cava Dorsal aorta
Platelets are also known as thrombocytes, formed toreat veins) Heart

within red bone marrow from


megakaryocytes.
153. Answer (1) Smooth muscle

Semilunar valves remain open during ventricular Lumen


Veir
contraction, so that blood from right and left Body parts Lurmen Smooth muscle
ventricle flow into pulmonary artery and aorta Capillary Artery

respectively.
Vena
154. Answer (2) cava and pulmonary artery carry
deoxygenated blood whereas pulmonary vein and
During swallowing, glottis can be covered by aorta carry oxygenated blood.
epiglottis to prevent the entry of food into the 161. Answer (1)
larynx. Tricuspid valve is present between right atrium
155. Answer (1)
and right ventricle and if the chordae tendineae
A unique vascular connection exists between the attached to it gets damaged, it will result in
digestive tract and liver called hepatic portal reduced outflow to pulmonary artery as the blood
system. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from would regurgitate back from right ventricle to right
intestine to the liver before it is delivered to the atrium.
systemic circulation. 162. Answer (2)
Hypophyseal and hepatic portal system are The valves present in the blood vessels allow
present in humans. unidirectional flow of blood to prevent backflow of
156. Answer (3) blood.
Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is total volume of air 163. Answer (4)
accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced Human heart is made up of cardiac muscles. A
inspiration. It includes RV, ERV, TVand IRV. specialised cardiac musculature called the nodal
157. Answer (2) tissue is distributed in the heart and is
autoregulated. It means normal activities of the
Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers
heart are regulated intrinsically. Nodal tissue like
nearly 4 mL of CO, to the alveoli.
SAN and AV node does not require neural signals
4000 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers for stimulation and hence only stops when ATP
nearly 160 mL of CO2 to the alveoli. and O2 is limited in the cardiac musculature.
158. Answer (2) 164. Answer (3)
Lower invertebrates like sponges exchange O2 SA node has ability to generate electrical
with COz by simple diffusion over their entire body impulses. Cardiac muscle cells are electrically
surface. Earthworms use their moist cuticle for the
Coupled through gap junctions (communication
sarne. Specialised vascularised structures called junctions), through which impulses from the SA
gills (branchial respiration) are used by fishes node spread rapidly within the heart tissue.
whereas hurmans use lungs (pulmonary 165. Answer (2)
respiration). A healthy man can inspire and expire
159. Answer (4) approximately 6000 to 8000 mL of air per minute.
Fluids present in between the pleural membranes Minute volume of respiration = Tidal volume x
reduce friction during breathing. Breathing rate.

(12)
Finat Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-3 (Code-B)(Answers &Solutions)
173. Answer (3)
166 Answer (1)
Sympatthetic nervoUs system (part of ANS) can Blood Antigens Antibodies Donor's
Group on RBCs in Plasma Group
increase the rate of heart beat, the strength of
ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac Anti-B A,O
output. Parasympathetic neural signals (another B Anti-A B,O
components of ANS) decrease the rate of heart Nil AB, A, B.
beat, speed of conduction ol action potential and
AB A, B
thereby the cardiacoutput. Hence, when a person
starts running in a park, sympathetic nervous Nil Anti-A, B
system gets activated and when he relaxes by In 0' blood group, Rh antigens are present but in
sitting down parasympathetic neural system gets
B blood group Rh antigens are absent.
activated. 174. Answer (3)
167. Answer (4) The atrium and the ventricle of the same side are
The pulmonary circulation starts by the pumping separated by a thick fibrous tissue called the atrio
of deoxygenated blood by the right ventricle which ventricular septum.
is carried via pulmonary artery to the lungs, where 175. Answer (2)
it is oxygenated and returned to the left atrium via Cardiac output = Heart rate x Stroke volume
pulmonary vein.
= 100 x (EDV - ESV)
168. Answer (1) = 100 x (100 mL -50mL)
Annelids and chordates have a closed circulatory
=100 x 50 mL
system in which the blood pumped by the heart, is
=5000 mL = 5L
always circulated through a closed network of
blood vessels. This pattern is considered to be 176. Answer (4)
more advantageous as the flow of blood can be Factors that affect the rate of diffusion of gases
more precisely regulated. are:
169. Answer (2) (1) Solubility and partial pressure of a gas are
Serum is plasma without clotting factors. Lymph is directly proportional to the rate of diffusion.
a colourless fluid having specialised lymphocytes (2) More the thickness of the membrane, lesser
which are responsible for the immune responses willbe the rate of diffusion of a gas across it.
of the body. Blood is a red colour iquid having 177. Answer (3)
clotting factors. Plasma is straw coloured viscous The diffusion membrane is made up of three major
fluid which has clotting factors.
layers namely, the thin squamous epithelium of
170. Answer (2) alveoli, the endothelium of alveolar capillaries and
Inspiration is initiated by the acellular basement substance present in
(a) The contraction of diaphragm between them.
(b) The contraction of external inter-costal 178. Answer (3)
muscles In amphibians and reptiles (except crocodiles),
These results in increase in the volume of thoracic there is the presence of incomplete double
chamber and decreases the intra-pulmonary circulation because the blood gets mixed up in the
pressure less than the atmospheric pressure. single ventricle.
171. Answer (2) 179. Answer (1)
Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the Respir Atmos Alveo Blood Blood Tiss
(Oxygen ues
ventricles by about 30%. Rest 70% of ventricles atory pheric li (Deoxyg
enated) ated)
get filled with blood during jint diastole. Gas Air

159 104 40 95 40
172. Answer (4) pO2
45
Albumins help in osmotic balance but not in blood pCO: 0.3 40 45 40

clotting.
(13)
Final Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)
(iv) Diffusion of O and CO; between blood and
180. Answer (4)
tissues.
In the tissues, where low pO2. high pCO:. high H' (v) Utilisation of O, by the cells for
catabolic
the
concentration and higher temperature exist,
are favourable for dissociation of reactions and resultant release of CO,.
conditions
oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin. 188, Answer (3)
of
181. Answer (3) Leucocytes are colourless due to lack
WBCs
Receptors associated with aortic arch and
carotid haemoglobin. In normal individuals,
CO, and H' mm of blood.
artery can recognize changes in averages 6000 to 8000
the
Concentration and send necessary signals to 189. Answer (4)
rhythm centre for remedial actions. specialised
Lymph is a colourless fluid containing
for
182. Answer (1) lymphocytes. It is also an important carrier
Each haemoglobin molecule can carry nutrients, hormones, etc.
maximum of four molecules of O2. 190. Answer (2)
183. Answer (3) exists between
Hepatic portal system in humans
TV: Volume of air inspired or expired during a liver and intestine.
normal respiration. It is approx. 500 mL.
IRV: Additional volume of air, a person can inspire 191. Answer (3)
increase while
Stroke volume and cardiac output
by a forcible inspiration. This averages 2500 mL decreases during
to 3000 mL. duration of cardiac cycle
strenuous exercise.
ERV: Additional volume of air, a person can expire
1000 mL to 192. Answer (2)
by a forcible expiration. This averages Complex represents
1100 mL. In a standard ECG, the QRS
which initiates
RV: Volume of air remaining in the lungs even the depolarisation of the ventricles
systole).
after a forcible expiration. This averages 1100
mL the ventricular contraction (ventricular
shortly after Q-wave and
to 1200 mL. The contraction starts
ventricular systole.
184. Answer (4) marks the beginning of the
in human
Correct route of passage of air 193. Answer (2)
circulation, i.e.
respiratory tract is Humans have a complete double
Larynx pulmonary and
Nostrils ’ Nasal chamber ’ Pharynx ’ two circulatory pathways, namely,
72
’ Trachea ’Primary
bronchi ’Secondary systemic are present. Average heart rate is
bronchioles
bronchi ’ Tertiary bronchi ’ Initial beats min-1.
’ Alveoli.
’ Terminal bronchioles 194. Answer (3)
which is
185. Answer (1) Asthma is an allergic disorder
lungs in thorax is such characterised by difficulty in breathing with
The anatomical set up of
volume of the thoracic inflammation of bronchi
that any change in the wheezing sound due to
lung (pulmonary)
cavity will be reflected in the and bronchioles.
arrangement is essential for
cavity. Such an 195. Answer (4)
directly alter the
breathing. as we cannot The part starting with the external nostrils up
to the
pulmonary volume. conducting
terminal bronchioles constitute the
SECTION -B their ducts form the
part whereas the alveoli and
respiratory
186. Answer (2) respiratory or exchange part of the
arteries in comparison
Tunica media is thickest in system.
to corresponding veins.
196. Answer (2)
187. Answer (1) carried by
About 20-25 per cent of CO: is
Respiration involves the following steps haemoglobin as
carbamino-haemoglobin whereas
ventilation. bicarbonate. About 7% of
i) Breathing or pulmonary membrane. 70% of it is carried as
across alveolar state through plasma.
(ii) Diffusion of gases CO2 is carried in a dissolved
the blood.
(ii) Transport of gases by
(14)

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