Number System

1.How many pairs of positive integers x, y exist such that HCF of x, y = 5 and sum of x and y = 25?
a) 2​ ​ ​ b) 3​ ​ ​ c) 5 ​ ​ ​ d) 4

2.Product of two positive numbers x, y = 32400 . What is the maximum value of the HCF of x and y?
a) 180​ ​ ​ b) 32400​ ​ c) 16200​ ​ d) None of these

3.Find the smallest number that leaves a remainder of 6 on division by 8, 5 on division by 7, 4 on division
by 6, 3 on division by 5 and 1 on division by 3?
a) 1682​​ ​ b) 842​ ​ ​ c) 1678​​ ​ d) 838

4.In a large school auditorium, the students are made to sit to watch the programmes. If the teachers
make a row of students of 16 each, there will be 12 students left. If they make rows of 24 each, then there
will be 20 students left, if they make rows of 25 each, there will be 21 students left and if they make rows
of 30 each, there will be 26 students left. What is the minimum number of students present in the school?
a) 1196​​ ​ b) 1216​​ ​ c) 1784​​ ​ d) 2396

5.How many natural numbers less than 1000 are divisible by neither 7 nor 9 ?
a) 762​ ​ ​ b) 986​ ​ ​ c) 761​ ​ ​ d) None of these

6.How many digits are required to number a book of 2500 pages? (Page number starts with 1)
a) 2500​​ ​ b) 8000​​ ​ c) 8889​​ ​ d) 8893

7.If M39048458N0 is divisible by 180, What is the largest value of M+N?

a) 12​ ​ ​ b) 13​ ​ ​ c) 17​ ​ ​ d) None of these

8.X is a 95 digit number formed by writing the natural numbers next to each other. X =
12345678910111213….
Is X divisible by 8?
a) Yes​ ​ ​ b) No​ ​ ​ c) Cannot say

9.If a number 4A6576B98A77B is exactly divisible by 24, then find the minimum value of A + B.
a) 8​ ​ ​ b) 6​ ​ ​ c) 7​ ​ ​ d) 12

10.Find the unit digit of 32^67

a) 2​ ​ ​ b) 4​ ​ ​ c) 8​ ​ ​ d) 6

11.What is the digit in the unit position of (39)^39! * (127)^127! ?

a) 1​ ​ ​ b) 9 ​ ​ ​ c) 3 ​ ​ ​ d) 7

12.Find the unit digit of (1!)^99 + (2!)^98 + (3!)^97 + (4!)^96 + ……+ (99!)^1
a) 0​ ​ ​ b) 1​ ​ ​ c) 5​ ​ ​ d) 7

13.Find the unit digit of (((62)^62)^62)^62

a) 2​ ​ ​ b) 4​ ​ ​ c) 6​ ​ ​ d) 8

14.Find the number of factors of 5040.

a) 42​ ​ ​ b) 46​ ​ ​ c) 48​ ​ ​ d) 60

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15.If 146! is divisible by 5^n, then find the maximum value of n.
a) 34​ ​ ​ b) 35​ ​ ​ c) 36​ ​ ​ d) 37

16.Find the number of zeroes at the end of 179!.

a) 28​ ​ ​ b) 32​ ​ ​ c) 43​ ​ ​ d) 51

17.What is the remainder when 2^96 is divided by 96?

a) 36​ ​ ​ b) 49​ ​ ​ c) 64​ ​ ​ d) 72

18.Find the remainder when 5^668 is divided by 7.

a) 5​ ​ ​ b) 4​ ​ ​ c) 3​ ​ ​ d) 6

19.Find the rightmost non zero digit of the following value.

(1230^343) + (36570^344)
a) 0​ ​ ​ b) 3​ ​ ​ c) 7​ ​ ​ d) 8
​
20.X = (10^57 )– 450
Consider the following two statements.
X is divisible by 11
X leaves the remainder 4 when divided by 7
Which of the two statements is/are true?
a) Only 1​ ​ b) Only 2​ ​ c) Both 1 & 2​ ​ d) Neither 1 nor 2

Percentage
​
1. What is 66.66..% of 240?
a) 160​ ​ ​ b) 159​ ​ ​ c) 159.999​ ​ d) None of these

2. What is 44.44..% of 180?

a) 79.9​ ​ ​ b) 79.999..​ ​ c) 80​ ​ ​ d) None of these

3. What is 72.7272..% of 330?

a) 239​ ​ ​ b) 239.9​ ​ c) 240​ ​ ​ d) None of these

4. What is 61.11..% of 180?

a) 109​ ​ ​ b) 109.99​ ​ c) 110​ ​ ​ d) None of these

5. What is 63.33..% of 300?

a) 189.9​ ​ b) 189.99​ ​ c) 190​ ​ ​ d) None of these

6. The volume of ice is decreased by 10% when it’s melted into water. If the same water is frozen, then by
what percentage the volume of the water is increased?
a) 10%​ ​ ​ b) 11%​ ​ ​ c) 11.11..%​ ​ d) None of these

7. A person buys a ‘Y’ quantity of wheat every month by spending ‘X’ amount. If the price of the wheat
increases by 25% and he spends the same ‘X’ amount to buy wheat, what will be the percentage change
in the quantity of wheat purchased?
a) 25% increase​ b) 20% increase​ c) 25% decrease​ d) 20% decrease

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8. A person buys a ‘Y’ quantity of wheat every month by spending ‘X’ amount. If the price of the wheat
decreases by 25% and he spends the same ‘X’ amount to buy wheat, what will be the percentage change
in the quantity of wheat purchased?
a) 25% increase​ b) 33.33..% increase​ c) 25% decrease​ d) 33.33..% decrease

9. Sixty five percent of a number is 21 less than four fifth of that number. What is the number?
a) 150​ ​ ​ b) 140​ ​ ​ c) 130​ ​ ​ d) 160

10. If 75% of the total number of cars is equal to 50% of the total number of vans, then what percent of
vans is equal to 20% more than cars ?
a) 60​ ​ ​ b) 20​ ​ ​ c) 80​ ​ ​ d) Cannot say​

Profit & loss

​
1. A shopkeeper offers a 15% discount on all plastic toys. He offers a further discount of 4% on the
reduced price to those customers who pay in cash. What does a customer have to pay in cash for a toy of
Rs.200?
a) Rs.150.50 ​ ​ b) Rs.165.80 ​ ​ c) Rs.163.20 ​ ​ d) Rs.173.50

2. A trader purchased 180 bags of cement at Rs.900 per bag. He sold 70 bags at 20% profit and 50 bags
at 6% loss. At what rate per bag should the remaining bags be sold so as to gain 9% on the whole
transaction?
a) Rs.900 ​ ​ b) Rs.951 ​ ​ c) Rs.978 ​ ​ d) Rs.975

3. Bala purchased a pen and sold it at a gain of 10%. If he had bought it at 6% less and sold it for Rs.5
less, the profit would have been 15%. Find the C.P of the pen.
a) Rs.452.61 ​ ​ b) Rs.461.52 ​ ​ c) Rs.263.16 ​ ​ d) Rs.216.63

4. A shop keeper buys oranges at the rate of 4 for Rs.20 and sells them at the rate of 5 for Rs.30. What is
his profit percentage?
a) 20 ​ ​ ​ b) 25 ​ ​ ​ c) 10 ​ ​ ​ d) 30

5. I bought 15 pens and sold 12 of them at the cost price of 18 pens. What is the profit percentage?
a) 20 ​ ​ ​ b) 30 ​ ​ ​ c) 40 ​ ​ ​ d) 50

6. A retailer cheats both while buying and selling goods. While buying the goods, he uses a weighing
machine that shows 1000 g when the actual weight is 1100 g and while selling he uses a machine that
shows 1100 g when the actual weight is 1000 g. If he sells goods at the cost price, determine his profit
percentage?
a) 21 ​ ​ ​ b) 23.5 ​​ ​ c) 28 ​ ​ ​ d) 19.7

7. A dishonest dealer marks up the price of his goods by 20% and gives a discount of 10% to the
customer. He also uses a 900 gram weight instead of a 1 kilogram weight. Find his percentage profit due
to these manoeuvres.
a) 8% ​ ​ ​ b) 12%​ ​ ​ c) 20%​​ ​ d) 16%

8. A dishonest shopkeeper sells goods at a price 6.25% less than the C.P but uses 12.5% less weight.
Find his profit percentage.
a) 7.14% ​ ​ b) 7.54% ​ ​ c) 6.84% ​ ​ d) 7.24%

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9. Amit bought two cars. He then sold the first car at 10% profit and the second one at 25% profit. The
selling price of the second car is 25% more than the selling price of the first car. What is the approximate
profit percent in the sale of both the cars together?
a) 17.85% ​ ​ b) 18.36% ​ ​ c) 16.19% ​ ​ d) Cannot be determined

10. A person sold two articles at the same selling price. He incurred a 20% loss in one article and gained
20% profit in another article. What is the overall profit/loss?
a) Neither profit nor loss b) 4% loss​ ​ c) 4% profit​ ​ d) None of these

11. A man would gain 25% by selling a chair for Rs.47.5 and would gain 15% by selling a table for
Rs.57.5. He sells the chair for Rs.35.5. What is the least price for which he must sell the table to avoid
any loss on the two together?
a) Rs.51.2 ​ ​ b) Rs.58.5 ​ ​ c) Rs.62.5 ​ ​ d) Rs.52.5

12. Amit bought two cars. He then sold the first car at 10% profit and the second one at 25% profit. The
selling price of the second car is 25% more than the selling price of the first car. What is the approximate
profit percent in the sale of both the cars together?
a) 17.85% ​ ​ b) 18.36% ​ ​ c) 16.19% ​ ​ d) Cannot be determined

13. By selling a watch at a profit of 10%, a man got Rs.15 more than half its price. What is the price of the
watch?
a) Rs.10 ​ ​ b) Rs.15 ​ ​ c) Rs.25 ​ ​ d) Rs.5

14. The profit earned when an article is sold for Rs.800 is 20 times the loss incurred when it is sold for
Rs.275. At what price should the article be sold if it is desired to make a profit of 25%?
(a Rs.300 ​ ​ (b Rs.350 ​ ​ (c Rs.375 ​ ​ (d Rs.400

15. The shopkeeper sells 3/4th of chocolates at 15% profit and the remaining at a loss of 10%. If the total
profit is Rs 2450, then what is the total cost price of the chocolates?
a) Rs 28,000​ ​ b) Rs 31,500​ ​ c) Rs 26,000​ ​ d) Rs 22,500​
​

Ratio & proportion

1. If two numbers are in the ratio 4:13 and their least common multiple is 312, then the larger number is
a) 72​ ​ ​ b) 76​ ​ ​ c) 78​ ​ ​ d) 44

2. The difference between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 36.
What is the difference between the sum and the difference of the digits of the number, if the ratio between
the digits of the number is 2:1?
a) 16​ ​ ​ b) 4​ ​ ​ c) 8​ ​ ​ d) None of these

3. The wages of labourers in a factory have increased in the ratio 22:25 and their number has decreased
in the ratio 15:11. What was the original wage bill of the factory if the present bill is Rs.5000?
a) Rs.4000​ ​ b) Rs.5000​ ​ c) Rs.6000​ ​ d) Rs.7000

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4. Ramu spends Rs.3620 for buying pants at the rate of Rs.480 each and shirts at the rate of Rs.130
each. What will be the ratio of the number of pants to the number of shirts when the maximum number of
pants is bought?
a) 7:2​ ​ ​ b) 7:3​ ​ ​ c) 2:7​ ​ ​ d) None of these

5. A bag contains Rs.600 in the form of one-rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio 3:4:12. The
number of 25 paise coins is
a) 600​ ​ ​ b) 900​ ​ ​ c) 1200​​ ​ d) 1376

6. Rs.79.20 is divided among 7 men, 11 women and 5 boys, so that each woman may have thrice as
much as a boy and a man as much as a woman and a boy together. Find the share of a man.
a) Rs.1.20​ ​ b) Rs.2.40​ ​ c) Rs.4.80​ ​ d) Rs.5

7. The monthly income of A and B are in the ratio 4:5 and their expenses are in the ratio 5:6. If A saves
Rs.25 per month and B saves Rs.50 per month, what are their respective incomes in rupees?
a) 400 and 500​ ​ b) 240 and 300 ​​ c) 320 and 400​ ​ d) 440 and 550

8. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Basu is 6:5. If the combined average of their percentage is
68.75 and the sum of their marks is 275, find the total marks for which examination was conducted.
a) 150​ ​ ​ b) 200​ ​ ​ c) 400​ ​ ​ d) None of these

9. The marks scored by a student in three subjects are in the ratio of 4:5:6. If the candidate scored an
overall aggregate of 60% of the sum of the maximum marks and the maximum marks is the same in all
three subjects, in how many subjects did he score more than 60%?
a) 1​ ​ ​ b) 2​ ​ ​ c) 3​ ​ ​ d) None of the subjects

10. The value of a diamond is directly proportional to the square of its weight. If a large diamond is broke
into exactly three pieces and the weight ratio of the three pieces is 2:3:5. What is the percentage change
in the value of the diamond due to breakage?
a) 62% decrease​ b) 62% increase​ d) 38% increase​ d) None of these​

​
Problems on age

1.What is Roger’s age 20 years later, if 10 years later his age will be 5 times his age 6 years ago?
a) 25​ ​ ​ b) 35​ ​ ​ c) 30​ ​ ​ d) 40

2.A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth". If the father's
age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
a) 14 years​ ​ b) 19 years​ ​ c) 33 years​ ​ d) 38 years

3.Present ages of arun and Ajay are in the ratio of 4 : 3 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their
ages will become 9 : 7 respectively. What is Arun's present age in years?
a) 28​ ​ ​ b) 24​ ​ ​ c) 33​ ​ ​ d) Cannot be determined

4.In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If A is now 9 years older than B, the present
age of B is
a) 33​ ​ ​ b) 29​ ​ ​ c) 37​ ​ ​ d) 39

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5.Two years ago, Arya was three times as old as his cousin and two years hence, five times his age will
be equal to eleven times that of his cousin . Find Arya's present age.
a) 20​ ​ ​ b) 18​ ​ ​ c) 24​ ​ ​ d) 16

Partnership

1. A, B and C started a business each investing Rs.10000. After 4 months A withdraws Rs.3000, B
withdraws Rs.4000, C invests Rs.3000 more At the end of the year, a total profit was Rs.32800. The
share of C is what % more than the share of B?
a) 52.52%​ b) 63.63%​ c) 46%​ ​ d) 58%​ ​ e) None of These
​
2. Joey started a business and he invested in 38000. After a few months, Amar came to join with him and
invested 28500.The end of the year the total profit was divided among them into ratio form 16: 8.Find the
investment period of Amar.
a) 4​ ​ b) 6​ ​ c) 8​ ​ d) 3​ ​ e) None of These

3. Shakeel started a software business by investing Rs. 20,000. After six months, Neel joined him with a
capital of Rs. 30,000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 13,950. What will be the difference
between the share of Shakeel and Neel?
a) Rs. 1550​ b) Rs. 1650​ c) Rs. 1700​ d) Rs. 1850​ e) None of These

4. A, B and C started a business by investing Rs. 250000 Rs. 300000 and Rs.350000 respectively. Find
the share of each, out of an annual profit of Rs.187200.
a) Rs. 53000, Rs. 61000, Rs. 72000​ ​ ​ b) Rs. 52000, Rs. 62400, Rs. 72800
c) Rs. 53400, Rs. 63500, Rs. 75400​ ​ ​ d) Rs. 56000, Rs. 65000, Rs. 76000
e) None of These

5. Abu and Salim started a partnership business investing some amount of money in the ratio of 4 : 6 .
Shakeel joined them after six months with an amount equal to that of Salim . In what proportion should
the profit at the end of one year be distributed among Abu, Salim and Shakeel ?
a) 5:3:4​​ b) 4:6:2​​ c) 5:3:2​​ d) 4:6:3​​ e) None of These

6. Munna received Rs. 3000 as his share out of the total profit of Rs. 4500 which he and Raju earned at
the end of one year. If Munna invested Rs.60000 for 6 months, whereas Raju invested his amount for the
whole year, what was the amount invested by Raju and the percentage of share received by munna from
the total share?
a) Rs. 15000, 50%​ ​ ​ ​ b) Rs. 15000, 33.33%​ ​
c) Rs. 18000, 33.33%​ ​ ​ ​ d) Rs. 18000, 50%
e) None of These

7.Three partners Meena, Sheena and Love shared the profit in a partnership business in the ratio 3:4:7.
They had partnered for 7 months, 7 months and 9 months respectively. Find their investment ratio?
a) 27:36:49​ ​ b) 29:37:49​ ​ c) 30:29:47​ ​ d) None of these

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 Time & work
​
1. 20 elephants can finish eating 120 kg of sugarcane in 15 days. How long will it take for 30 elephants to
eat 240 kg of sugarcane?
a) 15 days​ ​ b) 18 days​ ​ c) 20 days​ ​ d) 16 days

2. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 9 days. After 3 days of the start of the work, six men joined the
team to replace the 2 men who left. How many days will be required to complete the remaining work?
a) 4​ ​ ​ b) 4.5​ ​ ​ c) 7​ ​ ​ d) 6 ​
​
3.4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10
days. How long will it take for 10 women to complete the work?
a) 24​ ​ ​ b) 36​ ​ ​ c) 40​ ​ ​ d) 48
​
4.12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the same work in 4
days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for 2 days, all of them stopped working. How many
women should be put on the job to complete the remaining work, if it is to be completed in 3 days?
a) 15​ ​ ​ b) 30​ ​ ​ c) 20​ ​ ​ d) 10

5. A Frog needs to climb a bore well of height 120 ft for survival. It follows a series of pattern to reach the
top of the well i.e in the first minute it climbs 4 ft, in the second minute it climbs 3ft and in the third minute
it retards 2 ft and the series continues. Calculate how much time it takes to climb or cross 120 ft ?
a) 71 minutes​ ​ b) 65 minutes​ ​ c) 77 minutes​ ​ d) None of these​

6.Vijay can complete a movie in 18 days and Ajith can do the same work in half the time taken by Vijay to
complete a movie. If both Vijay and Ajith are working together, what part of the movie can they finish in a
day ?
a) 1/9​ ​ ​ b) 1/18​ ​ ​ c) 1/27​ ​ ​ d) 1/6
​
7.Tony Stark can create an Arc reactor in 15 days whereas Bruce Banner can do the same in 20 days. If
both of them join hands in creating the reactor, then how many days would they require to complete the
task ?
a) 7 days​ ​ b) 8 days​ ​ c) 7 4/7 days​ ​ d) 8 4/7 days

8.Ar Rahman, Anirudh and Santhosh Narayan can finish scoring music for a movie in 24, 6 and 12 days
respectively. Working together, they will complete scoring music for a movie in how many days ?
a) 1/24 day​ ​ b) 4 days​ ​ c) 3.5 days​ ​ d) 3 3/7 days
​
9.A can finish a work in 24 days, B in 9 days and C in 12 days. B and C start the work but are forced to
leave after 3 days. The remaining work was done by A. How long did A work?
a) 5 days ​ ​ b) 6 days​ ​ c) 10 days ​ ​ d) 10 1/2 days

10.A Printing machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same number of
books in 10 hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at 9 a.m.
while machine P is closed at 11 a.m. and the remaining two machines complete the work. Approximately
at what time will the work be finished?
a) 11:30 a.m.​ ​ b) 12 noon​ ​ c) 2 p.m.​ ​ d) 1 p.m

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11.A does 4/5th of the work in 20 days. He then calls B and they together finish the remaining work in 3
days. How long B alone would take to do the whole work?
a) 23 days ​ ​ b) 37 days​ ​ c) 37 1/2days ​ ​ d) 40 days
​
12.A and B together can do work in 12 days, B and C can do it together in 6 days while C and A together
can do it in 10 days. In how many days C alone will complete the work ?
a) 12 4/5 days​ ​ b) 10 10/11 days​ c) 14 5/6 days​ ​ d) 11 days
​
13.A and B together can do a work in 12 days, while B and C can do a work in 16 days. After A did it for 5
days and B did it for 7 days, C completed it in 13 days . In how many days can B complete the work ?
a) 24 days​ ​ b) 12 days​ ​ c) 48 days​ ​ d) 60 days
​
14.A can do a piece of work in 21 days. B is 40 percent more efficient than A. Then in how many days the
work gets completed when both are working simultaneously?
a) 10 days​ ​ b) 12 days​ ​ c) 8 3/4 days​ ​ d) 9 1/2 days
​
15.A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs.
3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
a) Rs 200​ ​ b) Rs 300​ ​ c) Rs 400​ ​ d) Rs 800

16.Pipe A and B can fill a cistern in 10 hours and 15 hours respectively. When a third pipe C which works
as an outlet pipe is also open then the cistern can be filled in 18 hours. How long does the outlet pipe
alone can empty the full cistern?
a) 12 hours​ ​ b) 11 hours​ ​ c) 10 hours​ ​ d) 9 hours

17.​​Daku and Tamatar can do a piece of work in 70 and 60 days respectively. They began the work
together, but Daku left after some days and Tamatar finished the remaining work in 47 days. After how
many days did Daku leave?
a) 6​ ​ ​ b) 14​ ​ ​ c) 12​ ​ ​ d) 7
​
18.A is thrice as efficient as B and is, therefore, able to finish a piece of work 10 days earlier than B. In
how many days A and B will finish it together?
a) 4​ ​ ​ b) 5​ ​ ​ c) 3​ ​ ​ d) 6

19.Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B
would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the
cistern separately?
a) 1 hr​ ​ ​ b) 2 hrs​​ ​ c) 6 hrs​​ ​ d) 8 hrs

20. There are three pipes A, B & C. A and B are filling pipes and C is a leaking pipe. A alone can fill a
tank in 10mins, B alone can fill the tank in 20mins and C alone can empty the whole tank in 30mins. The
tank is empty, pipe A alone is opened for the first minute, pipe B alone is opened for the 2nd minute and
pipe C alone is opened for the third minute. The cycle goes on till the tank gets filled. How long will it take
to fill the tank?
a) 24 4/6 mins​ ​ b) 8 4/7 mins​ ​ c) 24 4/7 mins​ ​ d) None of these​

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 Time speed distance​

1.A man walks from his home to his office daily. He starts from his home at 8 : 15 AM and reaches his
office at 9:00AM. If he walks at 6kmph, he reaches the office 15minutes earlier than usual. Find his usual
Speed.
a) 2kmph​ ​ b) 3kmph​ ​ c) 4kmph​ ​ d) 4.5kmph

2.A person walking at 5/6th of his usual speed is 40minutes late to his office. What is his usual travel time
to his office?
a) 3hrs 20min​ ​ b) 3hrs 15min​ ​ c) 3hrs 30min​ ​ d) 3hrs

3.A car travels 50% faster than a bike. Both start at the same time from A to B. The car reaches
25minutes earlier than the bike. If the distance from A to B is 100km, find the speed of the bike.
a) 120km​ ​ b) 100km​ ​ c) 80km​​ ​ d) 75km

4.Vijay and Saran start at the same time from points A and B and travel towards B and A respectively.
After they meet, Vijay takes 40minutes to reach B and Saran takes 1.5hrs to reach A. If Vijay’s speed is
36kmph, find Saran’s speed.
a) 24km/h​ ​ b) 30km/h​ ​ c) 48km/h​ ​ d) 54km/h

5.A train is travelling from a station P to another station Q at a speed of 60 km/hr. Another train is
travelling at a speed of 30kmph from station Q to P. The relative speed of train P with respect to Q is?
a) 12m/s​ ​ b) 25m/s​ ​ c) 30m/s​ ​ d) 45m/s

6.The distance between two cities A and B is 80 km. A motorcycle rider starts from A towards B at 7 am
at a speed of 10 km/hr. Another motorcyclist starts from B towards A at 8 am at a speed of 25 km/hr. At
what time will they cross each other?
a) 9AM​ ​ ​ b) 10 AM​ ​ c) 9PM ​​ ​ d) 10PM

7.A starts from X at 9:00 am and reaches Y at 1:00 pm. B starts from Y at 9:00 am and reaches X at 3
pm. At what time do the two meet?
a) 11:24 AM​ ​ b) 11:45 AM​ ​ c) 12:05 PM​ ​ d) 12:24 PM

8.Two trains start at the same time from two stations and proceed towards each other at the rate of
20kmph and 25kmph respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 80 km more
than the other. Find the distance between the two stations.
a) 360km​ ​ b) 480km​ ​ c) 540km​ ​ d) 720km

9.Two trains 210 meters and 180 meters are running on parallel track at the speed of 72kmph and
45kmph respectively. What is the time taken by them to cross each other, if they run in opposite
directions?
a) 8sec​​ ​ b) 12sec​ ​ c) 10sec​ ​ d) 9sec

10.An express train moving at a speed of 80kmph overtakes a goods train twice as long as the express
train moving in the same direction at 40kmph in 54s. What will be the time taken by the express train to
cross a 400m platform?
a) 27s​ ​ ​ b) 54s​ ​ ​ c) 18s​ ​ ​ d) 45s

9
11.The speed ratio of 2 trains is 3:4 and the trains are moving in opposite directions. The time taken by
the trains to cross a post is 5 and 10 sec respectively. What is the time required for the trains to cross
each other?
a) 4(5/7) s​ ​ b) 6(4/7) s​ ​ c) 1(3/7) s​ ​ d) 7(6/7) s

12.A boat rowed down a 28 km river in 4 hours and up a river 12 km in 6 hours. Find the speed of the
boat.
a) 2.5kmph​ ​ b) 3kmph​ ​ c) 4kmph​ ​ d) 4.5kmph

13.The speed of the boat in the still water is 6kmph, and the speed of the stream is 2kmph. The boat goes
a certain distance down the stream and comes back upstream to the same place from where it started. In
the journey, the boat didn’t stop at any point. Find the average speed of the boat in the entire journey.
a) 3 1/3kmph​ ​ b) 5 1/3kmph​ ​ c) 5 1/2kmph​ ​ d) 6 1/5kmph

14.A boat takes 6 hours to go downstream and comes back upstream in 12 hours. Find the ratio of the
speed of the boat and the speed of the stream.
a) 2 : 1​ ​ ​ b) 3 : 1​ ​ ​ c) 1 : 2​ ​ ​ d) 1 : 3

15.In a 100m race, Sam beats Baskar by 10m and Chand by 20m. In a 180m race, by how many meters
will Baskar beat Chand?
a) 10m​ ​ ​ b) 18m​ ​ ​ c) 20m​ ​ ​ d) 25m

16.A scooter Dio has 2 tyres and one Stepney (i.e. total of 3 tyres). Each tyre can run up to a maximum of
10 km. How long will the Dio run?
a) 10 km​ ​ b) 20 km​ ​ c) 15 km​ ​ d) 7.5 km

17.In a circular race of 1200m, A and B start from the same point and at the same time with speeds of
27kmph and 45kmph respectively. Find when they meet again for the first time on the track when they are
running in the same direction.
a) 120 seconds​​ b) 240 seconds​​ c) 360 seconds​ ​ d) 420 seconds

18. A, B, and C run simultaneously, starting from a point, around a circular track of length 1200m, with
respective speeds of 2m/s, 4m/s, and 6m/s. A and B run in the same direction while C runs in the
opposite direction to the other two. After how much time will they meet for the first time? (in sec)
a) 200 seconds​​ b) 400 seconds​​ c) 600 seconds​ ​ d) 800 seconds​

19. In the 100 m race, A covers the total distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race A beats
B by
a) 9m​ ​ ​ b) 20m​ ​ ​ c) 22m​ ​ ​ d) None of these
​
20. Starting from the same point at the same time, Sachin, Sajith and Survesh run on a circular path at
the speed of 20 m/s, 30 m/s and 50 m/s respectively in the same direction. The circumference of the track
(or path) is 600 m. When will they meet for the first time at the starting point? (counting time from the
start)
a) 30 sec​ ​ b) 60 sec​ ​ c) 90 sec​ ​ d) 12 sec

10
 Permutation & Combination
​
1.If a team of 4 persons have to be selected from 8 males and 8 females, find the number of ways in
which the selection is made to include at least 1 male.
a) 3500​​ ​ b) 875​ ​ ​ c) 1200​​ ​ d) 1750
​
2.Suppose an automobile number plate contains two letters followed by three digits with the first digit not
zero. How many different number plates can be printed? (Assuming repetition allowed). ​
a) 754320​ ​ b) 608400​ ​ c) 546754​ ​ d) 875640

3.Three persons enter a railway carriage, where there are 5 vacant seats. In how many ways can they
seat themselves?
a) 60​ ​ ​ b) 70​ ​ ​ c) 80​ ​ ​ d) 90

4.Find the number of ways in which five men and three ladies can be seated in a row so that no two
ladies are together.
a) 720​ ​ ​ b) 7,200​ ​ c) 14,400​ ​ d) 5,040

5.In how many ways 3 boys and 3 girls can be seated in a row so that boys and girls are alternate?​
a) 6!​ ​ ​ b) 3!​ ​ ​ c) 3! × 3!​ ​ d) None of these

6.There are 5 different boxes and 7 different balls. All the 7 balls are to be distributed in the 5 boxes
placed in a row so that any box can receive any number of balls. In how many ways can these balls be
distributed into these boxes if ball 2 can be put into either box 2 or box 4? ​
a) 12360​ ​ b) 31250​ ​ c) 13490​ ​ d) 31526

7.Five balls of different colours are to be placed in three boxes of different sizes. Each box can hold all
the five balls. In how many ways can we place the balls so that no box remains empty?​
a) 5C3​ ​ ​ b) 5!​ ​ ​ c) 150​ ​ ​ d) 53

8.In how many ways can 12 persons among whom are 2 brothers be arranged along a circle so that there
is exactly one person between the 2 brothers?
a) 9! X 2!​ ​ b) 11!​ ​ ​ c) 10! X 2!​ ​ d) 10!

9.These are 3 different rings to be worn in 4 fingers with at most one in each finger. Find the number of
ways in which this is done.​
a) 6​ ​ ​ b) 12​ ​ ​ c) 24​ ​ ​ d) 36

10.How many numbers between 0 and one million can be formed using 0, 7 and 8?​
a) 486​ ​ ​ b) 1086​​ ​ c) 728​ ​ ​ d) None of these

11.A palindrome is a number that reads the same left to right as it does from right to left, such as 252.
How many six-digit even palindromes are there? ​
a) 900​ ​ ​ b) 500​ ​ ​ c) 9 × 105​ ​ d) 400

12.How many numbers between 2000 and 3000 can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 ?
(repetition of digits not allowed)​
a) 210​ ​ ​ b) 300​ ​ ​ c) 420​ ​ ​ d) 360

11
13.How many 4 digit numbers divisible by 5 can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 (When
Repetition Allowed)​
​a) 220​ ​ ​ b) 249​ ​ ​ c) 588​ ​ ​ d) 288

14.In how many ways can the letters of the English alphabet be arranged so that there are 7 letters
between A and B?​
a) 31! X 2!​ ​ b) 24 P7 × 18! ​ ​ c) 36 × 24!​ ​ d) None of these

15.In how many different ways can the letters of the word "CHARGES" be arranged in such a way that
the vowels always come together?
a) 1440​​ ​ b) 720​ ​ ​ c) 360 ​ ​ ​ d) 240

16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word "COMPLAINT" be arranged in such a way that
the vowels occupy only the odd positions?
a) 1440 ​ ​ b) 43200 ​ ​ c) 1440 ​ ​ d) 5420

17. A question paper has 10 questions and each question has 4 options. In how many ways can a person
attempt the question paper if all the questions have to be answered?​
a) 4^10​​ ​ b) 10^4​​ ​ c) 10C4​​ ​ d) None of these
​
18. A question paper has 10 questions and each question has 4 options. In how many ways can a person
attempt the question paper if at least one question has to be answered?​
a) 4^10​​ ​ b) 5^10​​ ​ c) 5^10 - 1​ ​ d) None of these​
​
19. In how many ways the letters of the word FAVORITE can be arranged such that vowels are not
together?​
a) 8!-(5!*4!)​ ​ b) 5!*4!​​ ​ c) 8!*4!​ ​ ​ d) None of these
​
20. In how many ways the letters of the word FAVORITE can be arranged such that no vowel is together?
a) 2880​​ ​ b) 8! * 4!​ ​ c) 4!*4!*2​ ​ d) None of these​
​

Probability

1.A bag contains 63 cards (numbered 1,2,3,4,……,63). Two cards picked at random from the bag (one
after another and without replacement), what is the probability that the sum of the number of both cards
drawn is even?
a) 5/21​ ​ ​ b) 34/63​ ​ c) 7/11​ ​ ​ d) 11/63

2.The probability that a man can hit a target is 3/4. He tries 5 times. What is the probability that he will hit
the target at least three times?
a) 291/364​ ​ b) 371/464​ ​ c) 471/502​ ​ d) 459/512

3.A bag contains 20 books out of which 5 are defective. If 3 of the books are selected at random and
removed from the bag in succession without replacement, then what is the probability that all three books
are defective?​
a) 0.0087​ ​ b) 0.016​ ​ c) 0.026​ ​ d) 0.047

12
4.In a ward-robe , Nitish has 3 trousers. One of them is black , second is blue and third is brown. In this
ward-robe , he also has 4 shirts. One of them is black and the other three are white. He opens his
ward-robe in the dark and picks out one shirt-trouser pair without examining the colour. What is the
likelihood that neither the shirts nor trousers are black?
a) 1/12​ ​ ​ b) ⅙​ ​ ​ c) ¼​ ​ ​ d) 1/2

5.Four boys and three girls stand in a queue for an interview. What is the probability that they stand in an
alternate position?
a) 1/34​ ​ ​ b) 1/35​ ​ ​ c)1/17​ ​ ​ d) 1/68

6.If a four digit is formed at random using the digits 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repetition, then the probability
that it is divisible by 5, is
a) 4/5​ ​ ​ b) 3/5​ ​ ​ c) 1/5​ ​ ​ d) none of these

7.A cricket club has 15 members, of whom only 5 can bowl. If the names of 15 members are put into a
box, and 11 are drawn at random, then the probability of getting an 11 containing at least 3 bowlers is
a) 7/13​ ​ ​ b) 6/13​ ​ ​ c) 11/15​​ ​ d) 12/13

8. A box contains 3 white and 2 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random one after the other. If the balls
are not replaced, what is the probability that both the balls are black?.
a) 2/5​ ​ ​ b) 1/5​ ​ ​ c) 1/10​ ​ ​ d) none of these

9. In a class, there are 15 boys and 10 girls. Three students are selected at random. The probability that 1
girl and 2 boys are selected, is:?
a) 21/46​ ​ b) 25/56​ ​ c) 3/50​ ​ ​ d) None of these

10.Two cards are drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards one by one, the card which was picked first
has been replaced. What is the probability that both cards are either queens or red?
a) 49/169​ ​ b) 47/169​ ​ c) 47/167​ ​ d) None of these

11.Two cards are drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the probability that both cards are
either queens or red?
a) 64/223​ ​ b) 61/222​ ​ c) 67/224​ ​ d) None of these
​
12.What is the probability of choosing three distinct numbers randomly from (1,2,3,4,…..,100) such that all
are divisible by both 2 and 3
a) 4/1125​ ​ b) 5/1126​ ​ c) 3/1125​ ​ d) 4/1155

13.There are two bags, one has 4 green balls and the other bag has 2 green balls and 4 white balls. A
ball is picked randomly from one of the two bags, what is the probability that the ball is white?
a) ⅓​ ​ ​ b) ⅖​ ​ ​ c) ⅔​ ​ ​ d) None of these

14.There are two bags, one has 4 green balls and the other bag has 2 green balls and 4 white balls. A
ball is picked randomly from one of the two bags, what is the probability that the ball is green?
a) 3/5​ ​ ​ b) 5/6​ ​ ​ c) ⅔​ ​ ​ d) None of these

13
 Simple interest & Compound interest
​
​
1 A man borrowed a loan at 20% per annum at simple interest. After 5 years, he repaid Rs 10,000. Find
the amount borrowed by the man.
a) Rs 5000​ ​ b) Rs 5500​ ​ c) Rs 6500​ ​ d) Rs 6000

2. The difference between C.I and S.I on a certain sum at 10% per annum for 2 years is Rs 60.Find the
amount after 3 years at S.I for the same principal.
a) Rs 6000​ ​ b) Rs 7800​ ​ c) Rs 8000​ ​ d) None of these​
At a certain rate per annum, the simple interest on a sum of money for one year is Rs. 260 and the
compound interest on the same sum for two years is Rs. 540.80. What is the rate of interest per annum?
a) 6%​ ​ ​ b) 7%​ ​ ​ c) 8%​ ​ ​ d) None of these​
​
3.A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 2,420 in 2 years and Rs. 2,662 in 3 years at the same rate of
compound interest, compounded annually. Find the rate of interest per annum.
a) 6%​ ​ ​ b) 8%​ ​ ​ c) 10%​ ​ ​ d) None of these

4.X amount becomes 2X in 3 years. How many more years will it take to become 16X using simple
interest.
a) 10 years​ ​ b) 42 years​ ​ c) 16 years​ ​ d) None of these

5.X amount becomes 2X in 3 years if compounded annually. How many more years will it take to become
16X.
a) 9 years​ ​ b) 12 years​ ​ c) 14 years​ ​ d) None of these​
​

Progression
​
1. How many terms are there in the A.P. 20, 25, 30, … 130.
a) 22​ ​ ​ b) 23​ ​ ​ c) 21​ ​ ​ d) 24

2. The sum of numbers between 100 and 500 which are divisible by 6 is
a) 67​ ​ ​ b) 498​ ​ ​ c) 2010​​ ​ d) 20100

3. If the first, second and the last terms of an A.P. are a, b, c respectively, find the number of terms.
a) 1/2 * (𝑎 + 𝑏+𝑐)​ b) 1/2 *(𝑏 +𝑐 −2𝑎)​ c) (𝑏+𝑐−2𝑎)/(𝑏−𝑎)​ d) None of these
​
4. The sum of the first 4 terms of an A.P. is 28 and the sum of the first 8 terms of the same A.P. is 88. Find
the sum of the first 16 terms of the A.P.
a) 346​ ​ ​ b) 340​ ​ ​ c) 304​ ​ ​ d) 268​
​
5. The sum of an infinite G.P. is 23 and the sum of the squares of infinite terms is 69. Find the first term.
a) 69/13​ ​ b) 10/3​ ​ ​ c) 9/10​ ​ ​ d) 13/69

6. The sum of the first three terms of an increasing G.P. is 13 and their product is 27. Find the sum of the
first 5 terms.
a) 121​ ​ ​ b) 40/3​ ​ ​ c) 243​ ​ ​ d) 363

14
7.The sum of the first five terms of a geometric progression is 62, and the sum of the infinite series of the
same progression is 64. What is the common ratio of the progression?​
a) ½​ ​ ​ b) ¾​ ​ ​ c) ⅝​ ​ ​ d) None of these​
​
8.In a geometric progression, the 4th term is 16, and the 7th term is 128. What is the first term of the
progression?
a) 4 ​ ​ ​ b) 2​ ​ ​ c) 8 ​ ​ ​ d) None of these

Series

1.Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ...

2.Determine the missing number: 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, ...

3.What comes next in the sequence: 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ...?

4.Identify the next number: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ...

5.Complete the sequence: 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ...

6.Find the missing term: 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ...

7.Predict the next number: 1, 2, 6, 24, 120, ...

8.Fill in the blank: 101, 103, 107, 113, 127, ...

9.What is the next term: 8, 27, 64, 125, ...?

10.Identify the pattern: 121, 144, 169, 196, ...

11.Complete the series: A, C, F, J, O, ...

12.Determine the next letters: Z, X, U, Q, L, ...

13.Fill in the missing letter: B, E, I, N, ...

14.Predict the sequence: D, G, K, P, ...

15.What comes next: Z, W, S, N, ...?

16.Identify the next term: A, E, I, M, Q, ...

17.Find the missing letters: C, F, J, O, ...

18.Complete the sequence: M, P, S, V, Y, ...

19.Predict the next letter: A, Z, Y, X, ...

15
20.Fill in the blank: T, R, P, N, ...

21.Find the next term: 2A, 4D, 6G, 8J, ...

22.Complete the sequence: 1Z, 2X, 3V, 4T, ...

23.Predict the pattern: 5P, 10Q, 15R, 20S, ...

24.What comes next: A1, C4, F9, J16, ...?

25.Fill in the blank: 3B, 6D, 12G, 24J, ...

26.Determine the next term: 1C, 4F, 9I, 16L, ...

27.What is the next sequence: 2M, 6P, 12S, 20V, ...?

28.Identify the missing term: 3Z, 8X, 15V, 24T, ...

29.Predict the next in line: 7Q, 14R, 21S, 28T, ...

30.Fill in the blank: 2A, 3C, 5F, 8J, ...

31.Determine the next item: A2, B6, D24, H120, ...

32.Complete the series: 4P, 8R, 14T, 22V, ...

33.Predict the pattern: Z2, X6, V12, T20, ...

34.Fill in the blank: A3, D8, G15, J24, ...

35.Find the missing term: 2Z, 6X, 12V, 20T, ...

36.What comes next: P1, R4, T9, V16, ...?

37.Complete the series: A5, C13, E29, G61, ...

38.Predict the next term: B2, D8, F18, H32, ...

39.Identify the pattern: 1A, 4D, 9G, 16J, ...

40.Fill in the blank: Z1, X8, V27, T64, ...

16
 Coding and Decoding:

1.In a certain code, APPLE is written as DSSOH. How is ORANGE written in that code?

2.If CAT is coded as XZG, how is DOG written?

3.In a code, HELLO is written as KHOOR. How is WORLD coded?

4.If SUN is coded as RVM, what is the code for MOON?

5.In a certain language, SMART is written as TNBSU. How is BRAIN written?

6.If READ is written as VIEH, how is BOOK written?

7.In a code, WATER is written as XBUFS. How will RIVER be written?

8.If HOUSE is coded as IQVTF, how is TREES coded?

9.If LIGHT is written as NJIKV, how is BRIGHT written?

10.In a language, FLOWER is coded as GMPXFS. How will GARDEN be written?

11.If HEN is coded as 852, PEN is coded as 652, and POT as 643, what is the code for TEN?

12.In a certain code, CAB is written as 312 and DOG as 764. How is BAD coded?

13.If DATA is written as 4141, how is CODE written?

14.In a code, PHONE is written as 73852. What is the code for HOME?

15.If KING is coded as 1347, how is RING coded?

16.In a certain language, DOG is written as 468, CAT as 324. How is BAT written?

17.If CARE is coded as 3175, how is RACE coded?

18.In a certain code, DOOR is written as 4669. How is ROOM written?

19.If FOUR is written as 9642, how is FIVE written?

20.In a code, EAR is written as 417 and TEAR as 5417. How is TEA written?

21.In a certain code, MANGO is written as 51379. How is GRAPE written if APPLE is coded as 37865?

22.If FISH is written as GJTJ, how is WATER written?

23.If TABLE is coded as ZFXRI, what is the code for CHAIR?

24.In a code, SING is written as UJOH. How is KING coded?

25.If PLAN is coded as MKBQ, how is BUILD coded?

26.In a certain code, LION is written as KMPM. How is TIGER coded?

27.If BEAR is written as 7G11, how is LION written?

28.If CODE is written as 3124, and MEET is written as 5277, how is COME written?

29.If TIME is coded as UJOF, what is the code for MONEY?

30.In a certain code, JUMP is written as LTOQ. How is HAPPY written?

17
 Syllogism​

Directions for Q1-Q10 : Find which of the conclusions follow if the given statements are
considered to be true.
​
1. Statements
All clocks are fans.
Some fans are walls
Conclusions
Some fans are clocks.
Some clocks are not walls.

2. Statements
All tables are cars.
Some dusters are tables.
Conclusions
Some cars are not dusters.
Some dusters are cars.​

3. Statements
Some birds are hens.
Some hens are trees.
Conclusions
Some birds are trees.
All hens are birds.

4. Statements
All politicians are intelligent.
Some women are politicians.
Conclusions
Some women are intelligent.
All who are intelligent are women.

5. Statements
Some teachers are adults.
Some adults are poets.​
Conclusions
Some teachers are poets.
Some poets are teachers.

6. Statements:
No rice is curd
All rice is grain
All oats are grains
No flour is grain
Conclusions:
I.No curd is grain
II.All grain is rice
III.Some flour are not rice
IV.No curd is flour

a) Only 1 , 2 and 3 follows​ ​ ​ b) Only 3 follows

c) Only 2 and 3 follows​ ​ ​ ​ d)Only 3 and 2 or 4 follows

18
7.Statements:​
All flowers are beautiful.
No beautiful is ugly.
All coal are ugly.
All beautiful is attractive.

Conclusion:
I.Flowers are attractive.
II.No flower is coal.
III.Some flowers are not ugly
IV.Some attractive are not coal

a) Only 1 follows​ ​ ​ ​ b) Only 1 , 2 and 3 follows

c) Only 2 , 3 and 4 follows​ ​ ​ d) All follow

8.Statements:​
Some watches are clocks.
Some clocks are times.
Some times are fast.
Life is fast.

Conclusions:
I.Some watches are life.
II.Some life are time.
III.Some clocks are fast is a possibility.
IV.Some watches are fast is not a possibility.

a) Only 1 and 2 follows.​​ ​ ​ b) Only 3 follows.

c) Only 2 , 3 and 4 follows.​ ​ ​ d) All follow

9.Statements:​
All pedals are frames.
All frames are roses.
All hubs are roses.
All keys are hubs.

Conclusions:
I.All roses are pedals.
II.All keys are roses.
III.Some hubs are frames.
IV.Some frames are keys.

a) Only 2 follows.​ ​ ​ ​ b) Only 2 and 3 follow.

c) Only 3 and 4 follow.​ ​ ​ ​ d) Only 1 , 2 and 3 follow.

19
10. Out of the five statements, three are logically connected. From the answer choices, pick the one in
which the first 2 statements give the third as the conclusion:
a. Some caps are tanks.
b. Some bulbs are not caps.
c. All caps are bulbs.
d. All tanks are caps.
e. Some bulbs are tanks.
a)c,e,d ​​ ​ b)a,c,d​ ​ ​ c)a,b,c​ ​ ​ d) a.c.e

Cubes​

1.A cube is coloured orange on one face, pink on the opposite face, brown on one face and silver on one
face adjacent to the brown face. The other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut into 125 smaller
cubes of equal size. ​
​
2.How many cubes have at least one face painted pink?​
a) 1​ ​ ​ b) 9​ ​ ​ c) 16​ ​ ​ d) None of these

3.How many cubes are coloured silver on one face, orange or pink on another face and have four
uncoloured faces?
a) 8 ​ ​ ​ b) 10 ​ ​ ​ c) 12 ​ ​ ​ d) 16

4.How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured?

a) 24 ​ ​ ​ b) 36 ​ ​ ​ c) 48 ​ ​ ​ d) 64

5.How many cubes are coloured orange on one face and have the remaining faces uncoloured?
a) 16 ​ ​ ​ b) 20 ​ ​ ​ c) 21 ​ ​ ​ d) 23

6.How many cubes have at least two faces coloured?

a) 16 ​ ​ ​ b) 20 ​ ​ ​ c) 21 ​ ​ ​ d) 23

7.A cube is segmented into 125 cubes. Before dividing the cube, each face of it is varnished with different
colours. How many tiny cubes will be formed having more than one colour?​
a) 44​ ​ ​ b) 32​ ​ ​ c) 45​ ​ ​ d) 53​
​
8.Two adjacent portions of a big cube are varnished in green and other two portions are varnished in
white and the rest of the two portions are varnished in blue. The cube is segmented into 125 tiny and
equal cubes.​
How many tiny cubes will be formed having all the three colours?​
a) 7​ ​ ​ b) 9​ ​ ​ c) 10​ ​ ​ d) 8​

9.A Cube is coloured red on all the sides. It is cut into 64 smaller cubes of the same size. Now, answer
the following question based on this statement : how many cubes are there which have only one face
coloured?​
a) 4​ ​ ​ b) 8​ ​ ​ c) 16​ ​ ​ d) 24​
​

20
A Cube is coloured red on all the sides. It is cut into 64 smaller cubes of the same size. Now, answer the
following question based on this statement.​
10.how many cubes have two red opposite faces​
a) 0​ ​ ​ b) 4​ ​ ​ c) 8​ ​ ​ d) 16​
​
11.how many cubes will have three faces painted.​
a) 24​ ​ ​ b) 16​ ​ ​ c) 8​ ​ ​ d) 4​
​

Data arrangement
​
Directions for question 1-2- Answer the questions based on the given data:​
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre:
P is second to the right of T, who is the neighbour of R and V.
S is not the neighbour of P.
V is the neighbour of U.
Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S.
1.Which two of the following are not neighbours?
a) RV​ ​ ​ b) UV​ ​ ​ c) RP​ ​ ​ d) QW

2.Which one is immediate right to the V?

a) P​ ​ ​ b) U​ ​ ​ c) R​ ​ ​ d) T

Directions for question 3-4 -Answer the questions based on the given data:
Four persons A,B,C,D were there. All were of different weights. All Four gave a statement. Among the
four statements only the person who is the lightest in weight of all others gave a true statement.
A Says : B is heavier than D.
B Says : A is heavier than C.
C Says : I am heavier than D.
D Says : C is heavier than B.

3.Find the lightest person.

a) A​ ​ ​ b) B​ ​ ​ c) C​ ​ ​ d) D
​
4.Who is the heaviest person?
a) A​ ​ ​ b) B​ ​ ​ c) C​ ​ ​ d) D

Directions for question 5-9 -Answer the questions based on the given data:
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated in a row facing north. There are exactly two persons
sitting to the left of B. Three people sit between A and H and neither of A or H is a neighbour of B. C sits
to the left of A. Only one person is sitting between D and F and none of them is sitting at a corner seat. G
is a neighbour of F.
​
5.Who is sitting at the extreme right end?
a) A ​ ​ b) H ​ ​ c) E ​ ​ d) F ​ ​ e) None of these

6. How many people sit between G and C?

a) 1 ​ ​ b) 2 ​ ​ c) 3​ ​ d) 4​ ​ e) Cannot be determined

21
7. Which of the following is a neighbour of A?
a) D ​ ​ b) F​ ​ c) C​ ​ d) D and C​ e) D and F

8. Who is sitting to the immediate left of E?

a) F ​ ​ b) D​ ​ c) A ​ ​ d) C​ ​ e) None of these

9. What is F’s position with respect to C?

a) Fourth to the right​ ​ ​ ​ b) Fourth to the left
c) Second to the right ​ ​ ​ ​ d) Second to the left
e) Cannot be determined

Directions for question 10-14 -Answer the questions based on the given data:​
Eight World's most influential personalities are standing in a straight line facing North. Vladimir Putin and
Narendra Modi are standing at the extremities. Xi Jinping is standing to the immediate left of Shinzo Abe.
Justin Trudeau is adjacent to the left of Vladimir Putin. Donald Trump who is standing adjacent to David
Cameron is standing to the immediate right of Narendra Modi. Pope Francis is one of the influential
personalties.

10. Who is to the immediate right of Shinzo Abe ?

a) Justin Trudeau ​ b) David Cameron ​ c) Pope Francis​​ d) Either 1 or 3

11. From the previous question, If all the personalities are made to sit according to their names in
alphabetical order from left, whose positions remain unchanged ?
a) Justin Trudeau and David Cameron​ ​ b) David Cameron
c) Xi Jinping​ ​ ​ ​ ​ d) Donald Trump and Shinzo Abe

12.Who is/are sitting between David Cameron and Shinzo Abe ?

a) Justin Trudeau and Pope Francis​ ​ b) Xi Jinping
c) Donald Trump​ ​ ​ ​ d) Xi Jinping and Pope Francis
e) Either b or d

13.Who is standing to the immediate left of the person sitting at the end end ?
a) Justin Trudeau​ b) David Cameron ​ c) Xi Jinping​ ​ d) Shinzo Abe

14.What is the position of Pope Francis from the right end ?

a) 3rd​ ​ ​ b) 5th​ ​ ​ c) 4th​ ​ ​ d) Cannot be determined.

Directions for question 15-19 -Answer the questions based on the given data:
Seven people – J, K, L, M, N, O and P – are sitting in a straight line with equal distance between each
other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing north and some are facing south.
Only two people are sitting to the left of P. Only two people sit between P and K. J sits second to the left
of K. The immediate neighbours of J face opposite directions (i.e. if one of the neighbours faces south
then the other faces north and vice versa). Only one person sits between J and L. O sits third to the left of
L. M is not an immediate neighbour of K. Both the immediate neighbours of L face the same direction (i.e.
if one neighbour faces south then the other neighbour also faces south and if one neighbour faces north
then the other neighbour also faces north). J faces the same direction as L. N faces north. K sits on the
immediate left of N.

22
15. Who among the following sits exactly between P and the one who is sitting on the immediate left of K?
a) J​ ​ b) L​ ​ c) Other than those given as options ​ ​ d) N ​ ​ e) O

16. Who among the following sits exactly in the middle of the line?
a) M ​ b) J ​c) O ​ d) N ​ e) L

17. Who among the following sits second to the right of M?

a) O ​​ b) P ​c) K ​​ d) Other than those given as options e) J

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE as per the given information?
a) M faces south ​ ​ ​ ​ b) P sits third to the left of K
c) None of the given options is true ​ ​ d) M sits exactly between L and J
e) O sits on the immediate right of J

19. Which of the following pairs represents the people sitting at the two extreme ends of the line?
a) KL ​ b) Other than those given as options ​ c) NO ​ d) MK ​ e) MN

Directions for question 20-24 -Answer the questions based on the given data:
Pinku, Quincy, Rana, Sanam, Thanu, Vamshi, William and Yamini are sitting around a circular table facing
the center. Pinku sits second to the left of Thanu. Only two people sit between Thanu and William. Quincy
sits third to the left of William. Vamshi and Yamini are immediate neighbors of each other. Only one
person sits between Yamini and Rana.

20. Who is sitting second to the left of William ?

a) Vamshi​ ​ b) Yamini​ ​ c) Quincy​ ​ d) Thanu

21. Four of the five are alike in a certain way. Identify the odd pair
a) Pinku and Sanam​ ​ ​ ​ b) Sanam andThanu
c) Rana and Thanu ​ ​ ​ ​ d) William and Vamshi
e) Rana and William

22.How many people are sitting between Vamshi and Sanam when counted from the right of Vamshi ?
a) One​ ​ ​ b) Four​ ​ ​ c) Two​ ​ ​ d) Three

23.Who is sitting opposite to Yamini?

a) Pinku​ ​ b) Quincy​ ​ c) Rana​​ ​ d) Sanam

24.Who is sitting second to the right of Sanam ?

a) Vamshi​ ​ b) Rana​​ ​ c) Thanu ​ ​ d) Yamini

Directions for question 25-28 -Answer the questions based on the given data:
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a circle facing outwards. Each of them belongs to –
Economist, Minister, Engineer and Mathematician but not necessary in the same order. There are four
Engineers. R sits third to the left of S. T is neither an immediate neighbour of S nor of R. The one sitting
exactly between S and U is a Mathematician. V sits third to the left of P and V is a Minister. Q is an
Engineer. One of Q’s neighbours is a Economist. Economist is not sitting between Engineer and Minister.

25. Who is sitting second to the left of P ?

a) R​ ​ ​ b) Q ​ ​ ​ c) S​ ​ ​ d) T

23
26. Who is sitting to the immediate left of T ?
a) R​ ​ ​ b) Q​ ​ ​ c) S​ ​ ​ d) T

27. What is the position of U with respect to Q ?

a) Second to the left​ b) Fourth to the left​ c) Third to the left​ d) Third to the right

28. Who is the Economist ?

a) T​ ​ ​ b) S​ ​ ​ c) P​ ​ ​ d) U

Directions for question 29-33 -Answer the questions based on the given data:
Eight friends- Amul, Bobby, Chinnu, Dinnu, Esha, Fathima, Ganga and Hari are sitting around a circular
table not necessarily in the same order. Three of them are facing outward while five are facing towards
the center. There are equal number of males and females in the group.
Chinnu is facing the center. Esha is sitting third to the right of Chinnu. Fathima is sitting third to the left of
Esha. Three persons are sitting between Fathima and Bobby. The immediate neighbors of Bobby are
females. Ganga is sitting third to the right of Fathima. Dinnu is sitting third to the right of Amul. Amul is not
an immediate neighbor of Esha. The immediate neighbors of Esha are males and are facing the centre.
The immediate neighbors of Dinnu are females and face outside. The one sitting third to the left of Bobby
is a male. No female is an immediate neighbor of Ganga.

29.Who is sitting second to the right of Esha?

a) Chinnu​ ​ b) Ganga​ ​ c) Bobby​ ​ d) Hari

30.What is Dinnu’s position with respect to Ganga?

a) Third to the right​ b) Second to the right​ c)Third to the left​ d) Second to the left

31.Which of the following information is true regarding Hari?

a) The immediate neighbors of Hari are facing outside.​ ​ b) Hari is facing the center.
c) The one who is second to the right of Hari is a female.​​ d) None is true

32.Who among the sits second to the left of the one who like Cricket?
a) Cannot be determined​ ​ ​ b) One who like Hockey
c) One who like Football​​ ​ ​ d) One who like Table Tennis

33.Who sits exactly between the one who likes badminton and the one who like tennis, when counted left
from the one who likes badminton?
a) One who like Football​​ ​ ​ b) One who like Hockey
c) One who like Cricket​ ​ ​ ​ d) One who like Table Tennis

Clocks
​
1.How many times in a day do the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock meet?
a) 22 times​ ​ b) 24 times​ ​ c) 26 times ​ ​ d) 28 times

2.How many times in a day do the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock make 180 degrees?
a) 32 times​ ​ b) 44 times​ ​ c) 36 times ​ ​ d) 48 times

24
3.How many times in a day do the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock make 45 degrees?
a) 48 times​ ​ b) 49 times​ ​ c) 51 times ​ ​ d) 53 times​

4.How many degrees will the hour hand cover, at the same time in which the minute hand covers
54degree ?
a) 18degree​ ​ b) 9degree​ ​ c) 4.5degree​ ​ d) 27degree​

5.What will be the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock at 6 : 30 ?
a) 15° ​ ​ ​ b) 10°​ ​ ​ c) 20° ​ ​ ​ d) 16°​
​
6.What will be the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock at 4 : 20 ?
a) 5° ​ ​ ​ b) 10°​ ​ ​ c) 3° ​ ​ ​ d) 0°​

7.A clock which loses uniformly was observed to be 5 minutes fast at 3:00 p.m. on a Friday. On the
subsequent Sunday at 7:00 a.m., the watch was 3 minutes slow. When did the watch show the correct
time?
a) 6 : 00 pm on Saturday​ ​ ​ b) 7 : 00 pm on Saturday
c) 4: 00 pm on Saturday​​ ​ ​ d) 5 : 00 pm on Saturday

8.A clock that gains time uniformly was observed to be 10 minutes slow at 4:00 p.m. on a Monday. By
Wednesday at 10:00 a.m., the clock was 8 minutes fast. When did the clock show the correct time?​
a) 11:55pm Tuesday​ b) 2:20am Tuesday​ c) 3:20pm Tuesday​ d) None of the above​

9.Martha left her house between 2 o’ clock and 3 o’ clock in the afternoon. She returned home between 5
o’ clock and 6 o’ clock in the evening and noticed that the hours and minutes hand interchanged their
positions with what they were when she went out. At what time did she return?
a) 5:10 p.m​ ​ b) 5 :12 (8/143) p.m ​ c) 5: 12 (24/143) p.m​ d) None of these

Calendar
​
1.If 6th March, 2005 is Monday, what was the day of the week on 6th March, 2004?
a) Sunday​ ​ b) Saturday​ ​ c) Tuesday​ ​ d) Wednesday​

2.Given that January 22, 2025, is a Wednesday, determine the day of the week for February 22, 2029.
a) Monday​ ​ b) Tuesday​ ​ c) Wednesday​ ​ d) Thursday​
​
3.Given that September 13, 1996, is a Wednesday, determine the day of the week for August 12, 1993.
a) Monday​ ​ b) Tuesday​ ​ c) Wednesday​ ​ d) Thursday
​
4.What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?
a) Thursday​ ​ b) Friday​ ​ c) Saturday​ ​ d) Sunday​
​

Blood relation
1.​​Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is
Suresh related to that boy?
a) Brother​ ​ b) Uncle​ ​ c) Father​ ​ d) None of these

25
​
​2.If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B
and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
a) Q - N + M x P​ b) P + S x N - Q​c) P - M + N x Q​d) None of these

3.If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
a) Brother​ ​ b) Sister​ ​ c) Nephew​ ​ d) Cannot be determined

4.If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of
B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?
a) M - N x C + F​b) F - C + N x M​c) M x N - C + F​d) None of these​
​
5.​​Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy
related to the girl?
a) Brother​ ​ b) Nephew​ ​ c) Uncle​ ​ d) None of these​
​
6.Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the man in
the photograph related to Lata?
a) Brother​ ​ b) Uncle​ ​ c) Cousin​ ​ d) Data is inadequate

7.If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of B; and A % B means B is the daughter
of A then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N?
a) M + O x N​ ​ b) M % O x N + P​ c) M + O % N​ ​ d) None of these

8.If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question, which of the statements is/are
necessary?
1.The son of D is the grandson of C.
2.B is the sister of D.
a) Only 1​ ​ b) Only 2​ ​ c) Either 1 or 2​ d) 1 and 2 both are required

​9 .Pointing to a woman, Abhijit said, "Her granddaughter is the only daughter of my brother." How is the
woman related to Abhijit?
a) Grandmother​​ b) Mother-in-law​ c) Mother​ ​ d) None of these

10. A3P means A is the mother of P

A4P means A is the brother of P
A9P means A is the husband of P
A5P means A is the daughter of P
Which of the following means that K is the mother-in-law of M?
a) M9N3K4J​ ​ b) M9N5K3J​ ​ c) K5J9M3N​ ​ d) None of these

26
 Data interpretation
Directions for Q1 to Q4: Answer these questions based on the following pie chart which represents the
production of certain types of oil seeds in the year 2008.

​
1.What is the production of castor seeds? (in tonnes)
a) 36​ ​ ​ b) 45​ ​ ​ c) 54​ ​ ​ d) 63

2.By how much (in tones) is the production of soybean seeds less than that of groundnut seeds?
a) 75​ ​ ​ b) 85​ ​ ​ c) 92.50​ ​ d) 112.50

3.The production of how many types of oil seeds is more than 108 tones?
a) 2​ ​ ​ b) 1​ ​ ​ c) 4​ ​ ​ d) 3

4.The production of sun flower seeds was approximately what percentage of the total oil seeds
production?
a) 20%​ ​ ​ b) 21%​ ​ ​ c) 22%​ ​ ​ d) 23%

Directions for Q5 to Q8: Answer these questions based on the following graph.

27
5.What is the percentage increase or decrease in the number of trees planted by the voluntary
organization in West India from 2000 to 2006?
a) 25%​ ​ ​ b) 50%​ ​ ​ c) 20%​ ​ ​ d) 30%

6.In which of the following years was the trend of alternate increase or decrease in the number of trees
planted by the voluntary organization in East India not observed?
a) 2002​​ b) 2003​​ c) 2001​​ d) 2004

7.What is the total number of trees (in thousands) planted in East and West India in the years 2003 and
2006 together?
a) 360​ ​ ​ b) 535​ ​ ​ c) 480​ ​ ​ d) 465

8.By what percentage is the number of trees planted in East India in 2000 more than that in West India in
2005?
a) 66.66%​ ​ b) 50%​ ​ ​ c) 40%​ ​ ​ d) 33.33%​

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 13: The following data is about the organization of the Nimbu Paani Cup.
The event was jointly organized by the cricketing boards of India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. The event was
held between 01-Mar and 31-Mar.
Inflow = Outflow = Rs 120 cr
No of players-180
No of officials-1,400
No of spectators-760,000
No of security-17,000
No of volunteers-14,000

​
​
9.Profits among Sri Lanka, Pakistan and India Cricket boards are split in the ratio 1:2:3. The Board of
Control for cricket in India (BCCI) pays a tax of 30%. Find the post tax profit of BCCI.
a) Rs 8.4 cr​ ​ b) Rs 2.8 cr​ ​ c) Rs 5.9 cr​ ​ d) Rs 16.8 cr

10.If 25% of operational costs can be attributed to security, then what is the average cost of a security
personnel (Lakh)?
a) Rs 1.11​ ​ b) Rs 0.18​ ​ c) Rs 2.18​ ​ d) None of these

28
11.What was the average realization per spectator in the course of the games? (Assuming no overlaps of
spectators)
a) Rs 435​ ​ b) Rs 521​ ​ c) Rs 400​ ​ d) None of these

12.Volunteers had been given tickets at subsidized rates of Rs 50. If they were charged the rates of 300,
ticket sales would have changed by
a) Rs 42 lakhs​ ​ b) Rs 4.2 cr​ ​ c) Rs 35,000,000​ d) None of these

13. Prize money as a %age of TV rights and sponsorship was approximately

a) 5.83​ ​ ​ b) 8.4​ ​ ​ c) 12​ ​ ​ d) 14
DIRECTIONS for questions 14 - 18: Refer to the following bar graph of monthly cumulative sales over the
last three years of star budget.

​
​
14. If the sales of three consecutive years are steadily increasing or steadily decreasing, then it is called a
steady trend. The only months in which increasing steady trend is observed are​
a) March & June​ b) Jan & June​ ​ c) April & March​​ d) Feb & May

15. In 2000, the ratio of actual to budget was highest in the month of​
a) Jan​ ​ ​ b) Feb​ ​ ​ c) Mar​ ​ ​ d) Apr

16. Total approximate growth in sales in year 1999, over the previous year was
a) 20%​ ​ ​ b) 25%​ ​ ​ c) -15%​​ ​ d) -18%

17.The annual budget for 2000 was achieved during

a) May​ ​ ​ b) June​​ ​ c) July​ ​ ​ d) August

29
18.Predictor is the ratio of sales during Jan-Mar quarter to annual sales (budgeted for current year &
actual for previous years). The predictor was highest in
a) 1998​​ ​ b) 1999​​ ​ c) 2000​​ ​ d) Can't say

DIRECTIONS for questions 16-20: Refer to the pie charts given below and answer the questions that
follow.

YEAR 1995, REGIONAL MARKET SHARES

​
​

30
The pie charts above give the sales wise distribution (Market shares) of the major oil producing giants in
India. The Total sales for these major oil giants (all over India) in 1995 were $ 600 bn (where $ 1bn = Rs.
3,300 crores). The total demand for oil in 1995 was 100,000 crore kgs (all India).

19. Which can be inferred from the graphs that in 1995

a) IOC is the largest oil company in India.​
b) HPCL is the smallest oil company in India​
c) The greatest consumption of oil is by the ‘agriculture’ sector.​
d) None of the above.

20.If total sales (in kg), all over India, by the given oil giants in 1995 is 80% of the total demand, the price
of oil (on an average) in 1995 must have been
a) Rs. 18.2 / kg​ ​ b) Rs. 13.6 / kg​ ​ c) Rs. 15.84 / kg​ d) None of these

21.The total all India sales of IOC were approximately

a) $ 300 bn​ ​ b) $ 310 bn​ ​ c) $ 331.2 bn​ ​ d) $ 340.1 bn

22.The sales of HPCL in West exceeded the sales of BPCL in North by

a) Rs. 3,397crores​ b) Rs. 44946 crores​ c) Rs. 5,479 crores​ d) $ 4.3 bn

23.The total all India sales of all the given companies other than IOC in 1996 was
a) $ 268.8 bn​ ​ b) $ 372.9 bn​ ​ c) $ 280 bn​ ​ d) None of these

Study the following table and answer the questions(24 - 28).

Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination from Different States Over
the Years.

​
​
24.Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is approximately what
percentage of the total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1998.
a) 72%​ ​ ​ b) 77%​ ​ ​ c) 80%​ ​ ​ d) 83%

31
25.What is the average candidates who appeared from State Q during the given years?
a) 8700​​ ​ b) 8760​​ ​ c) 8920​​ ​ d) 8990

26.In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P has maximum
percentage of qualified candidates?
a) 1997​​ ​ b) 1998​​ ​ c) 1999​​ ​ d) 2001

27.What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years together, over the
candidates appeared from State N during all the years together?
a) 11.15 %​ ​ b) 12.16%​ ​ c) 11.47%​ ​ d) 12.36 %​

28.Combining the states P and Q together in 1998, what is the percentage of the candidates qualified to
that of the candidate appeared?
a) 10.87%​ ​ b) 11.49%​ ​ c) 12.35%​ ​ d) 12.54%

Sentence correction

Identify the part of the sentences that has errors.​

​
1.The creature on Mars, if any, (A) / are bound to be very different from us (B) / not only in shape but also
in size (C) / because of different gravitational conditions (D).
​
2.Each of the speakers whom I invited (A) / to participate in the debate has (B) / indicated their
unwillingness (C) / because of the short notice (D).
​
3.She was wearing a wig that was (A) / far more attractive than (B) / the other women who had (C) / their
natural hair (D)​
​
4.There is only the plantain (A) / and an apple in the refrigerator; (B) / so let us go to the market (C) / and
buy some more fruits (D).
​
5.In tropical climate, it is necessary (A) / that a person drinks (B) / several cups of water daily (C) / if he
wishes to remain healthy (D).

6.The part of Madras that interested us the most (A) / were the beach and the museum (B) / which we
recommend to all friends (C) / who plan to visit that city (D).
​
7.If one reads the newspaper regularly (A) / you will be surprised at the improvement (B) / in your overall
reading skills (C) / from day to day (D).
​
8.The young man was surprised to find (A) / that his experience as a tutor had been used (B) / as the
basis for the protagonist in a short story (C) / written by a former girlfriend (D).

9.Many working men and women have been (A) / able to acquire a university degree (B) / during the last
ten years after (C) / many universities started correspondent courses (D).

10.His father advised him to forget the past, (A) / to stop crying on split milk (B) / and to work hard in the
future (C) / avoiding the mistakes he had committed earlier (D).

32
11.To this day, the Pythagoras theorem (A) / remains the very important single theorem (B) / in the realm
of mathematics, (C) / including algebra, geometry and trigonometry (D).

12.Psychiatrists claim that the dream process (A) / can offer insights into (B) / how the brain has worked,
though (C) / it cannot be taken as the final evidence (D).

13.It is futile to discuss this further (A) / since neither him nor you (B) / are going to agree (C) / with the
other on this issue (D).

Pick the correct answer from the given options to replace the underlined part of the below sentence​

14.Mahatma Gandhi is credited as having championed a nonviolent approach to reform as a practical and
moral means to struggle against social injustice.
a) As having​ ​ b) With having​ ​ ​ c) To have​
​
15.The granddaddy of manufacturers, the Shutters Company, headquartered in Milton, is nearly 50 years
as old as any of their supposed predecessors.
a) As old as any of their supposed​ b) Older than any of their supposed​
c) As old as their supposed

16.Studies conducted in the 1990’s indicate that even after fifty years, patients are still suffering the long
term effects of polio contracted when a child.
a) Contracted when a child​ ​ b) Contracted when children​
c) Contracted when they were children​

17.The woodland sub-species were in isolation from contact with humans longer than either their marsh
cousins or the tree-dwelling sub-species.​
a) In isolation from contact with humans longer than
b) Isolated from contact with humans longer than
c) In isolation from contact with humans longer than were

18.The strand fills with water during the rainy season that the peat then holds and keeps it humid, all of
which creates conditions enabling trees to grow.
a) That enable the trees to grow​​ b) Enabling trees to grow
c) For growing trees​
​
19.Its collection includes such treasures as a woven funerary headdress, one that they believe is a type
unique to ancient Thebes.
a) that they believe is​ ​ ​ b) that they believe it to be
c) they believe to be
​
20.In addition to having more engineers than Brunswick Inc. has, the qualifications of the engineers in
Harvey's are better than Newton, the other top firm in the city.
a) the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than those of the engineers in Newton’s
b) the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than Newton
c) the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than they are of Newton​
​

33
21.George’s personal diary and album formed the basis for his book about the places he had visited.
a) the basis for his book about the places he had visited.
b) the basis for his book regarding the places he had visited.
c) the basis of his book about the places he visited.
d) the basis of his book about the places which he had visited.
e) the basis of his book about the places he had visited.​

22.By next month Ms. Jones will be Mayor of Tallahassee for two years.
a) will be Mayor of Tallahassee ​ ​ ​ b) will have been Mayor of Tallahassee
c) will be mayor of Tallahassee ​ ​ ​ d) will have been mayor of Tallahassee
e) could have been mayor of Tallahassee

23.If he would have revised his first draft, he would have received a better grade.
a) would have revised ​ b) had revised​ ​ ​ c) could of revised
d) had of revised ​ ​ e) would revise ​

24.Candice claims that cats made the best pets.

a) made the best pets. ​ ​ b) could be the best pets. ​ c) are the best pets.
d) make of the best pets ​ e) make the best pets.

25.The government requires that these forms should be submitted before the end of the financial year.
a) that these forms should be submitted ​​ b) that these forms be submitted
c) for these forms to be submitted ​ ​ d) these forms submission
e) these forms should be submitted

26.A conjunction is used to connect words and sentences together.

a) words and sentences together. ​ ​ b) words or sentences together.
c) words and sentences. ​ ​ ​ d) words or sentences.
e) words to sentences.

27.Citing the recent rise in violence against foreigners, the Embassy urged expats to remain vigilant,
avoid the Blackburn district, and refraining from travelling late at night.
a) refraining from travelling late at night​
b) travelling during the day instead of the night
c) as an imperative, refrain from travel at night​
d) as an imperative, refrain from travel at night
e) refrain from travelling at night

28.The protestors campaigned against whale hunting, didn’t they?

a) didn’t they ​ b) weren’t they​ ​ c) were they​ ​ d) isn’t it​ e) wasn’t it

29.The sports writer questioned the skill of basketball players compared to tennis players.
a) skill of basketball players compared to tennis players
b) skills of basketball players compared to tennis players
c) skill of basketball players to tennis players
d) skill of basketball players compared to that of tennis players
e) skill of basketball players compared to those of tennis players

34
30.It is a special feature of cell aggregation in the developing nervous system that in most regions of the
brain the cells not only adhere to one another and also adopt some preferential orientation.
a) to one another and also adopt ​ ​ b) one to the other, and also they adopt
c) one to the other, but also adopting ​ ​ d) to one another but also adopt
e) to each other, also adopting

31.The reason why Alpa wrote the letter was because she could not contact him over the phone.
a) wrote the letter was because​ ​ ​ b) wrote the letter was the reason that
c) wrote the letter was that ​ ​ ​ d) had written the letter was because
e) wrote the letter was since

32.After the heavy rains last week, the water in the reservoir raised another two feet.
a) raised another two feet​ ​ ​ b) risen another two feet ​
c) have risen by two feet ​ ​ ​ d) would raise another two feet​
e) rose another two feet

33.The drama enacted by the students had many scenes which were so humorous that it was hardly
possible to keeping a straight face.
a) hardly possible to keeping ​ ​ b) hardly impossible keeping​ ​ ​ ​
c) hardly possible to keep​ ​ ​ d) hardly impossible to keep ​
e) hardly possible for keeping

34.If you had attended the seminar you could benefit a great deal.
a) could benefit​​ b) would have benefited​​ c) would benefit
d) might benefit​​ e) should have benefit

35.Each group have their own ideology which it is bound to abide by.
a) Each group have their own ideology​ ​ b) Every group has its own ideology
c) Each group has their own ideologies​ ​ d) Each group has ideologies
e) Every group have their own ideology

36.Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option

I hope you …………1……….. my last letter. A lot has …………2………. since I wrote to you. I
…………3……….. with an accident about a week ago while ………4……….. football. Actually I
………5………. in hospital since then but I am …………6……… myself here because I ……7………. a lot
of good friends. Actually I have not …………8………. Hindi since I came here which, of course, is good
for my English. On my first day, I ………9……… a nurse called Candice and ………10…….. in love with
her almost instantly.

1. a) received; b) will receive; c) receive

2. a) happening; b) happened; c) happen
3. a) meet; b) met; c) am meeting; d) would meet
4. a) played; b) playing; c) was playing
5. a) am; b) had been; c) have been
6. a) enjoy; b) enjoyed; c) enjoying
7. a) have made; b) had made; c) making
8. a) speaking; b) spoken; c) spoke
9. a) meet; b) meeting; c) met
10. a) fall; b) fallen; c) fell

35
 Vocabulary
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word from the given options.​

1.Although Ms. Harvey's disposition was generally______, she could become enraged when
sufficiently_________. ​.
a) vicious…ignored ​ ​ b) serene…provoked ​ ​ c) energetic … disappointed ​
d) meek … complimented ​ e) perverse …betrayed​
​
2.The candidate met many challenges during her arduous campaign, but she did not
______________and ultimately attained the office she had so passionately sought.
a)Reluctant ….. Concede ​ b) dogged ….. Falter ​ ​ c) tireless ….. Defame

3.After a brief and violent ______ that ousted the president, General Hitler declared himself the dictator of
the country.
a) Nuance​ b) coup ​ c) solicitation​ ​ d) upbraiding ​ ​ e) lament

4.She hadn’t eaten all day, and by the time she got home she was ______.
a) blighted ​ b) confutative ​ c) ravenous ​ ​ d) ostentatious ​​ e) blissful

5.The movie offended many of the parents of its younger viewers by including unnecessary ______ in the
dialogue.
a) vulgarity ​ b) verbosity​ c) vocalizations​ d) garishness​ ​ e) tonality

6.His neighbors found his ______ manner bossy and irritating, and they stopped inviting him to backyard
barbeques.
a) insentient ​ b) magisterial ​ c) repertory ​ ​ d) restorative ​ ​ e) Modest

7.Steven is always ______ about showing up for work because he feels that tardiness is a sign of
irresponsibility.
a) legible ​ b) tolerable ​ c) punctual ​ ​ d) literal ​ ​ e) Belligerent

8.After centuries of obscurity, this philosopher’s thesis is enjoying a surprising ____ .

a) remission ​ ​ b) decimation ​ ​ c) longevity ​ ​ d) Renaissance

9.There is a general ____ in the United States that our ethics are declining and that our moral standards
are ____.
a) feeling idea - futile ​ ​ b) optimism - improving ​​ c) complaint - deteriorating

10.After our team _____ the game, everybody _____.

a) lost … cheered ​ b) won … celebrated ​ c) tied … smiled ​ d) watched … laughed

11.Regardless of the fact that she doesn’t speak Chinese, Candice was able to _____ with the waiter at
the Chinese restaurant.
a) communicate ​ b) chat ​​ ​ c) speak ​ ​ d) converse

12.Lisa doesn’t want to _____, but her husband wants a large family.
a) get married ​ ​ b) buy a house ​​ c) go to school ​ ​ d) have children

36
13.While other corporations have _____ as a result of the economic depression, ours has _____.
a) decreased … declined ​ ​ ​ ​ b) improved … spread
c) suffered … grown ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ d) disappeared … retreated

14.The yellow jacket is _____ than the black one.

a) brighter ​ ​ b) newer ​ ​ c) nicer ​ d) less expensive

15.The golf tournament is _____ due to rain. It is scheduled to _____ tomorrow at 8:00.
a) over … start​ b) cancelled … pause c) delayed … resume d) finished … begin

16.Clara felt _____; the committee rejected her proposal.

a) overjoyed ​ ​ b) cheerful ​ ​ c) pleased ​ ​ d) miserable

17.John told me the store was _____. However, it was _____.

a) organized … great​ b) open … closed​ c) cheap … inexpensive d) popular … large

18.Sarah is very _____. She waited for two hours to see the doctor and did not complain.
a) nervous ​ ​ b) patient ​ ​ c) intelligent ​ ​ d) brave

19.I found it _____ that the rude man was _____ the party.
a) ridiculous … denied from ​ ​ ​ b) reasonable … invited to
c) illogical … ejected from ​ ​ ​ d) understandable … asked to leave

20.My boss said that the project needs to be _____, so I _____ it.
a) longer … shortened ​ ​ ​ b) smaller … enlarged
c) less complicated … simplified ​ d) more advanced … organized

21.Jacob was _____ from his job because he was always _____.
a) appreciated … slow ​ ​ ​ b) fired … late ​
c) expelled … working ​ ​ ​ d) hired … rude

22.Tigers are extremely _____. They can leap onto rocks, climb tall trees, and evade even the fastest of
predators.
a) sluggish ​ ​ b) interesting ​ ​ c) invisible ​ ​ d) Agile

23.Compared to the American Civil War (1861-1865), the technology used to fight the Vietnam War
(1955-1975) was _____.
a) louder ​ ​ b) older ​ ​ c) more modern ​ d) less dangerous

24.Not a single person remained in the burned-down house. It was _____.

a) abandoned ​ ​ b) spooky ​ ​ c) repaired ​ ​ d) Unsteady

25) Even though they have been working on it for three years, the bridge is still _____ completion.
a) close to ​ ​ b) near ​​ ​ c) far from ​ ​ d) at

26) John found it terribly difficult to write his novel. Nevertheless, he managed to _____ it in less than two
years.
a) forget ​ ​ b) plan ​​ ​ c) begin ​ ​ d) Complete

37
26.Although Janice played well, she didn’t _____ the game.
a) win ​ ​ ​ b) forfeit ​ ​ c) cheat ​ ​ d) lose

27.I am tired, but I am not going to _____.

a) rest ​ ​ ​ b) exercise ​ ​ c) study ​ ​ d) play

28.I don’t like to read. Surprisingly, I found the book _____.

a) boring ​ ​ b) tiresome ​ ​ c) uninteresting ​d) Entertaining

29.Despite _____ in sales, the company’s profits _____.

a) an improvement ... grew ​ ​ ​ b) a decrease … went down
c) an incline … enlarged ​ ​ ​ d) an increase … declined

30.Baby lion cubs are not _____ enough to hunt with the adults.
a) smart ​ ​ b) hungry ​ ​ c) mature ​ ​ d) Passionate

​31.Mary was not sick. She was just _____ to be sick so she would not have to go to school.
a) pretending ​ ​ b) expecting ​ ​ c) trying ​ ​ d) Wanting

32.Unlike her _____ brother, Ella is very _____.

a) outgoing … talkative ​​ ​ ​ b) shy … social
c) uneducated … friendly ​ ​ ​ d) serious … intense

33.Nostradamus was able to make amazing _____. Many of the events he envisioned came true in the
future.
a) predictions ​ ​ b) announcements ​ c) ideas ​ ​ d) Potions

34.The decision _____ the president his career. Nevertheless, he felt that he made the right choice.
a) won ​​ ​ b) earned ​ ​ c) cost ​ ​ ​ d) got

35.After committing such _____ crime, many people thought it would be _____ if the criminal received the
harshest penalty.
a) a terrible … wrong ​ ​ ​ ​ b) an insignificant … reasonable
c) an unimportant … understandable ​ ​ d) a horrible … fair

36.Moana is never _____ with the things she has. She always wants more. She is _____.
a) generous … annoying ​ ​ ​ b) gentle … selfish
c) satisfied … greedy ​ ​ ​ ​ d) picky … easygoing

37.The _____ suit does not fit the _____ man.

a) wool … elderly ​ b) tight … skinny ​ c) small … overweight d) elegant … rich

38.Although it is _____, the coral snake is very _____.

a) quick … slow ​ ​ ​ ​ b) colorful … fancy
c) small … dangerous ​ ​ ​ ​ d) uncommon … rare

39.Examples are commonly used to _____ one’s argument.

a) deny ​ ​ b) weaken ​ ​ c) declare ​ ​ d) Support

38
40.Scientists tried for years to explain the _____ phenomenon.
a) simple ​ ​ b) plain ​ ​ c) strange ​ ​ d) Ordinary

41.Ginny is a very _____ of rich and famous celebrities. It is her dream to be like them one day.
a) bored ​ ​ b) nervous ​ ​ c) excited ​ ​ d) jealous

42.Angel is _____ about starting her new job. She has wanted to work for this company for a long time. ​
a) excited ​ ​ b) upset ​ ​ c) indifferent ​ ​ d) selfish

43.Even though Jimmy’s presentation was _____, his message was _____.
a) interesting … funny ​ ​ ​ ​ b) comical ... Serious
c) long ... complicated ​ ​ ​ ​ d) new ... Strange

44.Ew … gross! I think sushi is _____. It makes me sick!

a) tasty ​ ​ b) attractive ​ ​ c) delicious ​ ​ d) disgusting

45.Although most Japanese maple trees don’t get very tall, some can reach astounding _____.
a) heights ​ ​ b) varieties ​ ​ c) abilities ​ ​ d) colors

46.Although most ancient Greek sculptures have been destroyed over time, the Pantheon has managed
to _____.
a) survive ​ ​ b) perish ​ ​ c) dissolve ​ ​ d) die

Synonyms
1. Pick a synonym of Obstinate:
a) Flexible​ ​ b) Stubborn​ ​ c) Gentle​ ​ d) Agreeable

2. Pick a synonym of Ephemeral:

a) Permanent​ ​ b) Temporary​ ​ c) Endless​ ​ d) Unchanging

3. Pick a synonym of Abstruse:

a) Simple​ ​ b) Obvious​ ​ c) Complex​ ​ d) Clear

4. Pick a synonym of Mellifluous:

a) Harsh​ ​ b) Harmonious​ ​ c) Noisy​ ​ d) Rigid

5. Pick a synonym of Perfidious:

a) Loyal​​ ​ b) Deceptive​ ​ c) Trustworthy​ ​ d) Genuine

6. Pick a synonym of Laconic:

a) Wordy​ ​ b) Concise​ ​ c) Talkative​ ​ d) Expressive

7. Pick a synonym of Truculent:

a) Calm​​ ​ b) Aggressive​ ​ c) Friendly​ ​ d) Cooperative

8. Pick a synonym of Quixotic:

a) Realistic​ ​ b) Idealistic​ ​ c) Practical​ ​ d) Logical

39
9. Pick a synonym of Profligate:
a) Economical​ ​ b) Extravagant​ ​ c) Stingy​ ​ d) Careful

10. Pick a synonym of Ebullient:

a) Reserved​ ​ b) Enthusiastic​ ​ c) Gloomy​ ​ d) Calm

11. Pick a synonym of Indigent:

a) Wealthy​ ​ b) Impoverished​​ c) Generous ​ ​ d) Independent

12. Pick a synonym of Pernicious:

a) Harmless​ ​ b) Destructive​ ​ c) Beneficial​ ​ d) Safe

13. Pick a synonym of Capricious:

a) Predictable​ ​ b) Stable​ ​ c) Erratic​ ​ d) Consistent

14. Pick a synonym of Erudite:

a) Ignorant​ ​ b) Scholarly​ ​ c) Uneducated​ ​ d) Ordinary

15. Pick a synonym of Lethargic:

a) Energetic​ ​ b) Sluggish​ ​ c) Active​ ​ d) Alert

16. Pick a synonym of Acrimonious:

a) Friendly​ ​ b) Bitter​​ ​ c) Gentle​ ​ d) Peaceful

17. Pick a synonym of Irascible:

a) Cheerful​ ​ b) Irritable​ ​ c) Forgiving​ ​ d) Calm

18. Pick a synonym of Surreptitious:

a) Open​ ​ b) Secretive​ ​ c) Honest​ ​ d) Transparent

19. Pick a synonym of Belligerent:

a) Hostile​ ​ b) Friendly​ ​ c) Peaceful​ ​ d) Cooperative

20. Pick a synonym of Magnanimous:

a) Generous​ ​ b) Selfish​ ​ c) Greedy​ ​ d) Stingy​
​
21. Pick a synonym of Ostentatious:
a) Showy​ ​ b) Subtle​ ​ c) Modest​ ​ d) Plain

22. Pick a synonym of Esoteric:

a) Common​ ​ b) Specialized​ ​ c) Popular​ ​ d) Basic

23. Pick a synonym of Obfuscate:

a) Simplify​ ​ b) Clarify​ ​ c) Complicate​ ​ d) Illuminate

24. Pick a synonym of Ineffable:

a) Inexpressible​​ b) Ordinary​ ​ c) Unremarkable​ d) Commonplace

40
25. Pick a synonym of Impecunious:
a) Wealthy​ ​ b) Penniless​ ​ c) Affluent​ ​ d) Prosperous

26. Pick a synonym of Ameliorate:

a) Worsen​ ​ b) Improve​ ​ c) Aggravate​ ​ d) Hinder

27. Pick a synonym of Tenacious:

a) Persistent​ ​ b) Indecisive​ ​ c) Weak​ ​ d) Yielding

28. Pick a synonym of Cacophony:

a) Melody​ ​ b) Harmony​ ​ c) Noise​ ​ d) Silence

29. Pick a synonym of Impertinent:

a) Polite​ ​ b) Rude​​ ​ c) Respectful​ ​ d) Courteous

30. Pick a synonym of Magnanimous:

a) Selfish​ ​ b) Generous​ ​ c) Greedy​ ​ d) Miserly
​
Antonyms

1. Pick an antonym of Abrogate:

a) Revoke​ ​ b) Enforce​ ​ c) Cancel​ ​ d) Annul

2. Pick an antonym of Chicanery:

a) Honesty​ ​ b) Deception​ ​ c) Trickery​ ​ d) Fraud

3. Pick an antonym of Obfuscate:

a) Clarify​ ​ b) Confuse​ ​ c) Complicate​ ​ d) Blur

4. Pick an antonym of Pulchritude:

a) Beauty​ ​ b) Ugliness​ ​ c) Grace​ ​ d) Elegance

5. Pick an antonym of Lugubrious:

a) Mournful​ ​ b) Joyful​ ​ c) Somber​ ​ d) Melancholy

6. Pick an antonym of Taciturn:

a) Quiet​​ b) Talkative​ ​ ​ c) Reserved​ ​ d) Reticent

7. Pick an antonym of Perfunctory:

a) Casual​ ​ b) Thoughtful​ ​ c) Superficial​ ​ d) Negligent

8. Pick an antonym of Sycophant:

a) Flatterer​ ​ b) Critic​​ ​ c) Obsequious​ ​ d) Servile

9. Pick an antonym of Obsequious:

a) Submissive​ ​ b) Assertive​ ​ c) Compliant​ ​ d) Servile

10. Pick an antonym of Inchoate:

a) Developed​ ​ b) Preliminary​ ​ c) Rudimentary​ ​ d) Nascent

41
11. Pick an antonym of Prosaic:
a) Ordinary​ ​ b) Imaginative​ ​ c) Dull​ ​ ​ d) Commonplace

12. Pick an antonym of Iconoclast:

a) Traditionalist​ ​ b) Rebel​ ​ c) Dissenter​ ​ d) Radical

13. Pick an antonym of Parsimonious:

a) Stingy​ ​ b) Generous​ ​ c) Frugal​ ​ d) Economical

14. Pick an antonym of Munificent:

a) Stingy​ ​ b) Generous​ ​ c) Benevolent​ ​ d) Lavish

15. Pick an antonym of Bellicose:

a) Hostile​ ​ b) Peaceful​ ​ c) Aggressive​ ​ d) Warlike

16. Pick an antonym of Ephemeral:

a) Temporary​ ​ b) Permanent​ ​ c) Fleeting​ ​ d) Momentary

17. Pick an antonym of Equanimity:

a) Composure​ ​ b) Agitation​ ​ c) Serenity​ ​ d) Calmness

18. Pick an antonym of Diffident:

a) Reserved​ ​ b) Confident​ ​ c) Reticent​ ​ d) Shy

19. Pick an antonym of Garrulous:

a) Quiet​​ ​ b) Talkative​ ​ c) Verbose​ ​ d) Chatty

20. Pick an antonym of Hackneyed:

a) Trite​ ​ ​ b) Original​ ​ c) Clichéd​ ​ d) Overused

21. Pick an antonym of Insipid:

a) Tasteless​ ​ b) Exciting​ ​ c) Dull​ ​ ​ d) Bland

22. Pick an antonym of Impecunious:

a) Wealthy​ ​ b) Poor​​ ​ c) Destitute​ ​ d) Penniless

23. Pick an antonym of Nefarious:

a) Wicked​ ​ b) Virtuous​ ​ c) Evil​ ​ ​ d) Sinister

24. Pick an antonym of Ostentatious:

a) Showy​ ​ b) Subtle​ ​ c) Flashy​ ​ d) Extravagant

25. Pick an antonym of Recalcitrant:

a) Obedient​ ​ b) Resistant​ ​ c) Stubborn​ ​ d) Unyielding

26. Pick an antonym of Quixotic:

a) Realistic​ ​ b) Romantic​ ​ c) Dreamy​ ​ d) Idealistic

42
27. Pick an antonym of Ubiquitous:
a) Rare​​ ​ b) Omnipresent​​ c) Common​ ​ d) Pervasive

28. Pick an antonym of Voracious:

a) Insatiable​ ​ b) Satisfied​ ​ c) Greedy​ ​ d) Ravenous

29. Pick an antonym of Zealous:

a) Enthusiastic​ ​ b) Apathetic​ ​ c) Passionate​ ​ d) Devoted

30. Pick an antonym of Ebullient:

a) Joyful​ ​ b) Gloomy​ ​ c) Cheerful​ ​ d) Enthusiastic

Verbal analogy
​
1.Astrology : Stars :: Geology : ?
a) Rocks​ ​ b) Mountains​ ​ c) Earthquakes​ ​ d) Volcanoes

2.Chronic : Acute :: Prolonged : ?

a) Temporary​ ​ b) Instantaneous​ c) Continuous​ ​ d) Progressive

3.Enigma : Mystery :: Antithesis : ?

a) Paradox​ ​ b) Contrast​ ​ c) Contradiction​​ d) Similarity

4.Somber : Cheerful :: Eloquent : ?

a) Inarticulate​ ​ b) Silent​ ​ c) Mute​​ ​ d) Hesitant

5.Luminous : Dull :: Transparent : ?

a) Opaque​ ​ b) Reflective​ ​ c) Murky​ ​ d) Shiny

6.Vocal : Quiet :: Perceptive : ?

a) Oblivious​ ​ b) Keen​​ ​ c) Sensitive​ ​ d) Reactive

7.Novel : Book :: Sculpture : ?

a) Marble​ ​ b) Museum​ ​ c) Gallery​ ​ d) Art

8.Velocity : Speed :: Mass : ?

a) Weight​ ​ b) Volume​ ​ c) Density​ ​ d) Force

9.Harmony : Discord :: Tranquility : ?

a) Chaos​ ​ b) Peace​ ​ c) Order​ ​ d) Silence

10.Horizon : Distance :: Summit : ?

a) Peak​​ ​ b) Valley​ ​ c) Base​​ ​ d) Cliff

11.Mortal : Immortal :: Definite : ?

a) Infinite​ ​ b) Undefined​ ​ c) Indefinite​ ​ d) Certain

12.Serene : Turbulent :: Complex : ?

a) Simple​ ​ b) Intricate​ ​ c) Detailed​ ​ d) Ordinary

43
13.Revolution : Change :: Tradition : ?
a) Continuity​ ​ b) Instability​ ​ c) Innovation​ ​ d) Transition

14.Flammable : Combustible :: Edible : ?

a) Digestible​ ​ b) Poisonous​ ​ c) Inedible​ ​ d) Unpalatable

15.Innocuous : Harmful :: Subtle : ?

a) Obvious​ ​ b) Bold​ ​ ​ c) Overpowering​ d) Unnoticed

16.Cacophony : Sound :: Glare : ?

a) Light​​ ​ b) Color​​ ​ c) Darkness​ ​ d) Image

17.Strategic : Tactics :: Visionary : ?

a) Idealist​ ​ b) Pragmatist​ ​ c) Realist​ ​ d) Dreamer

18.Proficient : Skillful :: Transparent : ?

a) Clear​​ ​ b) Opaque​ ​ c) Muddy​ ​ d) Difficult

19.Chronic : Acute :: Expansive : ?

a) Limited​ ​ b) Contracted​ ​ c) Narrow​ ​ d) Restrained

20.Salient : Obscure :: Prominent : ?

a) Inconspicuous​ b) Visible​ ​ c) Important​ ​ d) Noteworthy

Reading Comprehension
​
Answer the questions based on the given passage​
​
In an age dominated by rapid technological advancement, the ethical implications of artificial intelligence
(AI) have emerged as a critical area of debate. While AI-driven systems hold the potential to revolutionize
industries, from healthcare to transportation, they also pose significant ethical dilemmas. One pressing
concern is the question of accountability. When an AI system makes a consequential error—such as a
misdiagnosis in a hospital or an accident involving an autonomous vehicle—who should be held
responsible? The creators of the algorithm, the users of the system, or the organizations deploying the
technology?

Furthermore, AI systems are increasingly influencing social structures, often in ways that perpetuate
existing inequalities. Algorithms trained on biased data sets can unintentionally reinforce discrimination,
marginalizing already vulnerable populations. For example, hiring algorithms have been shown to exhibit
biases against women and minority groups due to the historical data they are trained on. This raises
questions about transparency and fairness: should companies be required to disclose how their
algorithms operate?

Finally, the issue of privacy cannot be overlooked. As AI-powered systems process vast amounts of
personal data, the potential for misuse is enormous. The balance between harnessing data for innovation
and protecting individuals' rights is fraught with challenges. These ethical concerns compel policymakers,
technologists, and ethicists to collaborate in crafting regulations that ensure AI’s benefits do not come at
an unacceptable cost to society.

44
Questions:
1.What is the central ethical concern discussed in the passage regarding the use of AI in decision-making
systems?
a) Technological inefficiency​ ​ ​ b) Privacy violations
c) Accountability for errors​ ​ ​ d) Lack of innovation

2.According to the passage, how do biased datasets affect AI algorithms?

a) They make algorithms less efficient.​
b) They lead to errors in technical calculations.
c) They perpetuate discrimination and inequalities.
d) They improve decision-making for organizations.

3.Why does the author suggest collaboration among policymakers, technologists, and ethicists?
a) To develop advanced AI algorithms.
b) To ensure AI is used responsibly and equitably.
c) To improve the accuracy of AI systems.
d) To reduce the cost of AI deployment.

4.What example is provided in the passage to illustrate the ethical dilemmas of AI?
a) Data privacy breaches in social media platforms.
b) Hiring algorithms exhibiting gender and racial bias.
c) Autonomous vehicles improving transportation.
d) AI applications in healthcare and diagnosis.

5.Which of the following best summarizes the author’s stance on AI regulation?

a) AI development should be halted until ethical concerns are resolved.
b) Regulation is necessary to balance innovation with societal welfare.
c) Ethical concerns are exaggerated and do not need urgent attention.
d) Companies should self-regulate their AI systems without external oversight.​
​
Answer the questions based on the given passage​
​
The Anthropocene, a term increasingly used by scientists and environmentalists, describes the current
epoch in Earth's history, characterized by the dominant influence of human activity on the planet's
geology and ecosystems. From altering the composition of the atmosphere to reshaping landscapes and
extinguishing species, humans have become the single most transformative force on Earth. While the
exact starting point of the Anthropocene remains debated, many scholars trace it to the Industrial
Revolution of the 18th century, when fossil fuel use began reshaping economies and ecosystems at an
unprecedented scale. Others argue for an earlier marker, such as the advent of agriculture thousands of
years ago, or even the Columbian Exchange, when the widespread movement of species between
continents profoundly affected global biodiversity.

One of the most significant indicators of the Anthropocene is climate change. Driven by greenhouse gas
emissions from industrial activity, deforestation, and agriculture, climate change has manifested through
rising global temperatures, melting polar ice, and increasingly extreme weather events. These changes
threaten not only human societies but also countless plant and animal species that struggle to adapt to
rapidly shifting habitats. Sea levels are projected to rise by several feet within the next century, posing
existential risks to island nations and coastal communities. Yet, despite the mounting evidence,
meaningful global action remains elusive, hindered by political, economic, and cultural barriers.

45
Equally alarming is the loss of biodiversity, often described as the "sixth mass extinction." Scientists
estimate that species are vanishing at rates 1,000 to 10,000 times higher than the natural background
extinction rate. Habitat destruction, pollution, overexploitation, and invasive species are the main drivers
of this crisis. The consequences are profound: ecosystems lose resilience, food webs collapse, and vital
ecosystem services—such as pollination, water purification, and climate regulation—are undermined. The
disappearance of a seemingly insignificant species can trigger cascading effects, disrupting entire
ecosystems in ways that are often difficult to predict.

Technology, paradoxically, plays both a destructive and a restorative role in the Anthropocene. On one
hand, industrial processes, mechanized agriculture, and large-scale deforestation have accelerated
environmental degradation. On the other, technological innovations offer solutions to some of these
challenges. Renewable energy technologies like solar and wind power, advancements in carbon capture,
and the development of biodegradable materials represent significant strides in reducing humanity's
ecological footprint. However, the adoption of these solutions is uneven, often constrained by economic
and political inertia.

The Anthropocene poses a profound ethical question: what responsibilities do humans bear as the
dominant force on Earth? Some argue for an "anthropocentric" approach, focusing on human well-being
while ensuring sustainability. Others advocate for a more "ecocentric" perspective, emphasizing the
intrinsic value of non-human life and ecosystems. These debates are more than academic; they influence
policies, from international climate agreements to local conservation strategies.

As humanity grapples with these challenges, one thing is clear: the Anthropocene demands a
reevaluation of humanity's role within the natural world. It is a call to balance progress with preservation,
to wield technology responsibly, and to redefine prosperity in harmony with the Earth's finite resources.
The decisions made in this epoch will not only shape the future of human civilization but also determine
the fate of countless other species sharing this planet.

6.What does the term “Anthropocene” primarily refer to?

a) The study of ancient human civilizations.
b) The era dominated by human influence on Earth.
c) A geological period marked by natural evolution.
d) The time before industrialization.

7.What are the primary drivers of the "sixth mass extinction" mentioned in the passage?
a) Renewable energy and technological advances.
b) Habitat destruction, pollution, and invasive species.
c) Climate change and agricultural practices.
d) Overpopulation and global migration.

8.What ethical perspective emphasizes the intrinsic value of non-human life?

a) Anthropocentric
b) Ecocentric
c) Technocentric
d) Pragmatic

46
9.According to the passage, what is one major barrier to adopting environmental solutions?
a) A lack of technological advancements.
b) Economic and political inertia.
c) The absence of international agreements.
d) Declining public interest in sustainability.

10.Which of the following best summarizes the author’s viewpoint on the Anthropocene?
a) It represents an irreversible era of destruction.
b) It highlights humanity's power to balance progress with preservation.
c) It demonstrates the failure of technological innovation to solve crises.
d) It demands a shift away from technological reliance.
​
Answer the questions based on the given passage​
The epistemological conundrum of human perception has occupied the minds of philosophers, cognitive
scientists, and artists alike, given its paradoxical nature. Perception, at its core, serves as the gateway
through which we interact with reality, yet it is fundamentally fallible. Our sensory faculties, which are
responsible for translating external stimuli into mental representations, are often subject to error. This
discrepancy between perception and objective reality is the crux of what Edmund Husserl termed
"phenomenal objectivity"—the notion that what we experience, while seemingly real, is always mediated
by our subjective consciousness.

This subjective nature of perception has profound implications for the concept of truth. If truth is inherently
tied to individual experience, does it not become relative, confined within the boundaries of each
observer's unique cognitive framework? The philosopher Immanuel Kant posited that while the
phenomena we perceive are shaped by our senses, the noumenon—the thing-in-itself—remains beyond
the grasp of human cognition. Kant’s assertion challenges the idea that we can ever access objective
truth, placing limits on our understanding of the universe.

Furthermore, the role of language in shaping our perceptions cannot be understated. Linguist Benjamin
Lee Whorf’s theory of linguistic relativity suggests that the structure of a language can influence the way
its speakers perceive the world. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, as it is also known, argues that language
not only reflects but also constrains cognition. For instance, certain languages have multiple words for
snow, each capturing a different nuance of its nature, while others may have only one term, influencing
how speakers perceive the phenomenon itself.

In modern cognitive science, the notion that perception is shaped by both biological imperatives and
cultural context has gained traction. Neuroplasticity, the brain’s ability to reorganize itself in response to
new experiences, illustrates the malleability of human perception. An individual raised in an urban
environment will have a fundamentally different perceptual framework than someone from a rural setting,
owing to the distinct stimuli encountered throughout their lives. This highlights the intersection of nature
and nurture in the shaping of perceptual experiences, emphasizing that perception is not solely an innate,
biological function but is also a product of environmental conditioning.

The implications of these theories extend beyond philosophical inquiry and touch upon the realms of
ethics and societal constructs. If our perceptions are so inherently subjective and malleable, to what
extent can we trust the veracity of our judgments and beliefs? This issue becomes particularly relevant in
a world increasingly mediated by digital technology, where algorithms curate the information we consume,
further distorting our perception of reality. In this context, epistemological questions about the nature of

47
truth and perception have never been more urgent, as they challenge the foundations upon which we
build our collective understanding of the world.

11.Which of the following best encapsulates Edmund Husserl’s concept of "phenomenal objectivity"?
a) The belief that perception provides a direct representation of external reality.
b) The idea that reality is entirely constructed by subjective experience.
c) The notion that perception is always mediated by individual consciousness, despite seeming to reflect
objective reality.
d) The assertion that all knowledge is rooted in empirical evidence and observation.

12.According to the passage, what is the central challenge posed by Immanuel Kant’s philosophy in
relation to truth?
a) The idea that human cognition can apprehend objective truth without limitation.
b) The argument that truth is entirely relative and subjective.
c) The claim that humans can never access objective truth due to the limitations of human perception.
d) The assertion that perception is unaffected by cultural context.

13.Which aspect of perception does the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis emphasize, as described in the
passage?
a) The biological underpinnings of perceptual experiences.
b) The inherent relativity of truth based on individual experience.
c) The influence of language structure on the way people perceive and categorize the world.
d) The distinction between phenomena and noumena in human perception.

14.What does the concept of neuroplasticity contribute to the understanding of human perception in the
passage?
a) It highlights the brain’s ability to form rigid, unchangeable perceptual structures.
b) It emphasizes the importance of genetic predispositions in shaping perceptual experiences.
c) It demonstrates that perception is a dynamic and adaptable process shaped by both biology and
environment.
d) It suggests that perception is solely a consequence of innate biological factors.

15.In the context of the passage, why is the question of perception and truth considered increasingly
urgent in the digital age?
a) Because digital media allows for a more accurate and objective representation of reality.
b) Due to the increasing role of algorithms in curating information, which may distort individual
perceptions of truth.
c) Because human perception is becoming more uniform across global societies.
d) Because technology has made it easier to access objective, universal truths.
​
Read the passage and answer the question accordingly​
Whether you can accomplish a specific goal or meet a specific deadline depends first on how much time
you need to get the job done. What should you do when the demands of the job exceed the time you
have available? The best approach is to divide the project into smaller pieces. Different goals will have to
be divided in different ways, but one seemingly unrealistic goal can often be accomplished by working on
several smaller, more reasonable goals.​

48
16. The main idea of the passage is that
a) jobs often remain only partially completed because of lack of time.
b) the best way to complete projects is to make sure your goals are achievable.
c) the best way to tackle a large project is to separate it into smaller parts.
d) the best approach to a demanding job is to delegate responsibility.​
​
Read the passage and answer the question accordingly​
First language, also known as mother tongue, is generally the language a person learns first. However,
one can have two or more native languages thus being a native bilingual or indeed multilingual. The order
in which these languages are learned is not necessarily the order of proficiency. Incomplete first language
skills often make learning other languages difficult. Often a child learns the basics of his or her first
language or languages from his or her family. The term mother tongue, however, should not be
interpreted to mean that it is the language of one's mother. For instance, in some paternal societies, the
wife moves in with the husband and thus may have a different first language or dialect than the local
language of the husband. Yet their children usually only speak their local language.

17. One can infer from the reading that ----.

a) one cannot be a native speaker of more than two languages
b) very few children throughout the world learn to speak two languages
c) it is possible for a bilingual to become more competent in his second language
d) bilinguals use their two languages for different purposes and functions
e) only a few people learn to speak his or her mother's language like a native

Read the passage and answer the question accordingly​

“Fifteen years ago I came here with Lily,” he thought. “We sat somewhere over there by a lake and I
begged her to marry me all through the hot afternoon. How the dragonfly kept circling round us: how
clearly I see the dragonfly and her shoe with the square silver buckle at the toe. All the time I spoke I saw
her shoe and when it moved impatiently I knew without looking up what she was going to say: the whole
of her seemed to be in her shoe. And my love, my desire, were in the dragonfly; for some reason I
thought that if it settled there, on that leaf, she would say ‘Yes’ at once. But the dragonfly went round and
round: it never settled anywhere — of course not, happily not, or I shouldn’t be walking here with Eleanor
and the children.”

18.In this passage, the speaker’s attitude may best be characterized as

a) mocking​ ​ b) confused​ ​ ​ c) nostalgic​ ​ d) argumentative

Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Statement-If we throw ethics to the winds and dance with the powerful, we must remember that we may
step on the devil’s tail. So let’s dance with caution.

19.Which of the following can be inferred from the above statement?

a) Dancing with the powerful is necessary.
b) One has to throw ethics to the winds if one wants to dance with the devil.
c) The powerful are devils.
d) None of these

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20.Fill in the blank with the best option​
It weighs less than three pounds and is hardly more interesting to look at than an overly ripe cauliflower.
___________________________. It has created poetry and music, planned and executed horrific wars,
and devised intricate scientific theories. It thinks and dreams, plots and schemes, and easily holds more
information than all the libraries on Earth.
a) The human brain is made of gelatinous matter and contains no nerve endings.
b) The science of neurology has found a way to map the most important areas of the human brain.
c) Nevertheless, the human brain is the most mysterious and complex object on Earth.
d) However, scientists say that each person uses only 10% of his or her brain over the course of a
lifetime!

21.Fill in the blank with the best option

Gary is a distinguished looking man with a touch of grey at the temples. Even in his early 50s, he still
turns heads. He enjoys spending most of his time admiring his profile in the mirror. In fact, he considers
his good looks to be his second-most important asset. The first, however, is money. He is lucky in this
area, too, having been born into a wealthy family. __________. He loves the power his wealth has given
him. He could buy whatever he desires, whether that be people, places, or things. Gary checks that mirror
often and feels great delight with what he sees.
a) Gary’s grey hair is his worst characteristic.
b) Conceit is the beginning and the end of Gary’s character; conceit of person and situation.
c) Gary feels blessed to be wealthy and the joy consumes his every thought.
d) The only objects of Gary’s respect are others who hold positions in society above him.​

Verbal reasoning
​
1. Statement: Country Y has sought the help of country X, to catch the notorious don. Because of this
request, country X is caught between the devil and the deep sea.​

Which of the following can be inferred from the above statement?

a) Country X does not want to antagonize Country Y or the don.

b) The don is in country X.
c) Country X can find out the whereabouts of the don.
d) The don is involved in illegal activities.

2. All the cars, when considered together, use a lot of iron. So, Stanley’s car also uses a lot of iron.
​
The pattern of reasoning in the argument above is similar to that in which one of the following?

a) Joan loves democracy. So, the people of her country also love democracy.
b) All the fruits are healthy to eat. So, the apples are healthy to eat.
c) All the trucks, when considered together, pollute the air very much. So, Nancy’s truck also pollutes the
air very much.

50
3. If a person plays the piano, that person must be talented. Tina plays the piano and therefore she must
be talented.

The reasoning in the argument above is parallel in its structure to which one of the following?

a)If a person drives a car, that person must be a good driver. Sam does not drive a car and so he must
not be a good driver.
b)If a person draws well, that person must be creative. Todd draws well and consequently he must be
creative.

4. Bicycles are​ safer than scooters. 50 percent of scooter accidents result​ in death, while only 10
percent of bicycle accidents result in death.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?
a) Bicycles are inspected more often than scooters.
b) The number of bicycle accidents is several hundred thousand times higher than the number of scooter
accidents.
c) Many bicycle owners are known not to stop at traffic lights whereas most scooter owners follow the
regulation.
d) Scooter accidents are generally the fault of car owners, who bang into them and​ not those of the
ones driving the scooters.
e) Bicycles do not carry pillions generally but scooters do.
​
5. A world-renowned painter has recently won a lawsuit against an​ ice-cream manufacturer for
commiserating another graphic designer to design the ice-cream’s packing in a style similar to the
painter. Because of the judgment of the case, manufacturers will have to stop asking graphic designers
now to copy the freely available designs of famous painters. And the end result will be an increase in the
cost of package design as employing the services of known artists would cost more than those of
graphic designers that merely imitate their style.

The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?

a) People cannot distinguish between an original work and its imitation.

b) Manufacturers will continue to use well-known painting styles in their packaging.
c) Ice-ream manufacturers around the country are shocked by this judgment.
d) Manufacturers will continue to use graphic artists to imitate the artistic style of famous painters.
The sale of the product depends on its packaging.
​
6.Navneet Pencils manufactures and sells the same pencils as Camlin does. Employee
wages account for forty percent of the cost of manufacturing pencils at both factories. Navneet is seeking
a competitive edge over Camlin’s supply. Therefore, to promote this end, Navneet’s should lower
employee wages.

51
Which of the following, if true, seriously weakens the argument above?

a) Because they make a small number of specialty artist’s pencils, pencil manufacturers cannot receive
volume discounts on raw materials.
b) Lowering wages would reduce the quality of employee work and this reduced quality would lead to
lowered sales.
c) Navneet’s Pencils has taken away twenty percent of Camlin’s Supply business the last year.
d) Camlin’s Supply pays its employees, on average, ten percent more than Navneet's Pencils.
e) Many people who work for manufacturing plants live in areas in which the manufacturing plant they
work for is the only industry.

7. In some cities, many writers have been winning acclaim as artists. But since writing must be useful,
writers must exercise their craft with an eye to the practical utility of their product. For this reason, writing
is not an art.

Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reason
given for that conclusion?

a) Some books are written to be placed in research labs where they will not be used by anyone.
b) Some writers are more concerned than others with the practical utility of the products they produce.
c) Writers should be more concerned with the practical utility of their products than they currently are.
d) Artists are not concerned with the monetary value of their products.
e) An object is not an art object if its maker pays attention to the objects’ practical utility.

8. Unlike the price of gold, the price of silver has fallen considerably in the last year. Thus, although the
retail price of jewelry made with silver other than gold has not yet fallen, it will inevitably fall.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

a) Changes in retail prices always lag behind changes in raw-material prices.

b) The price of gold is typically higher than that of the same volume of silver.
c) The operating costs of the average retail jewelry shop have remained constant during the last year.
d) The cost of mining all expensive metals other than gold has increased in the last year.
e) The cost of processing silver has increased during the last year.

9. Physician: In itself, exercise does not cause heart attacks; rather, a sudden increase in an exercise
regimen can be a cause. When people of any physical condition suddenly increase their amount of
exercise, they also increase their risk of heart attack. As a result, there will be an increased risk of heart
attack among employees of this company due to the new health program.

The conclusion drawn by the physician follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

a) Employees will abruptly increase their amount of exercise as a result of the new health program.
b) The exercised involved in the new health program are more strenuous than those in the previous
health program.
c) The new health program will force employees of all levels of health to exercise
regularly.
c) The new health program constitutes a sudden change in the company’s policy
d) All employees, no matter what their physical condition, will participate in the new health program.

52
10. Economist: Technology now changes so rapidly that workers need periodic retraining. Such retraining
can be efficient only if it allows individual companies to meet their own short-term needs. Hence, large
governmental job retraining programs are no longer a viable option in the effort to retrain workers
efficiently.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the economist’s argument?

a)Workers did not need to be retrained when the pace of technological change
was slower than it is currently.
b) Large job retraining programs will be less efficient than smaller programs if the pace of technological
change slows.
c) No single type of retraining program is most efficient at retraining technological workers.
d) Large governmental job retraining programs do not meet the short-term needs
of different individual companies.
e) Technological workers are more likely now than in the past to move in order to find work for which they
are already trained.

11. Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who vacationed in foreign countries was very
small compared with the large percentage of the British population who travel abroad for vacations now.
Foreign travel is, and always has been, expensive from Britain. Therefore, British people must have, on
average, more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.
The argument requires assuming which one of the following?​

a) If foreign travel had been less expensive 30 years ago, British people would still not have had enough
money to take vacation abroad.
b) If travel to Britain were less expensive, more people from other countries would travel to Britain for
their vacations.
c) If the percentage of British people vacationing abroad was lower 30 years ago, then the British people
of 30 years ago must have spent more money on domestic vacations.
d) If more of the British people 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more would
have done so.
e) If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, then they must have more money to
spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.

12. Some teachers claim that students would not learn curricular content without the incentive of grades.
But students with intense interest in the material would learn it without this incentive, while the behavior
of students lacking all interests in the material is unaffected by such an incentive. The incentive of
grades, therefore, serves no essential academic purpose.

The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument

a) take for granted that the only purpose of school is to convey a fixed body of information to students
b) takes for granted that students who are indifferent to the grades they receive are genuinely interested
in the curricular material
c) fails to consider that the incentive of grades may serve some useful nonacademic purpose
d) ignore the possibility that students who lack interest in the curricular material would be quite interested
in it if allowed to choose their own curricular material
e) fails to consider that some students may be neither fascinated by nor completely indifferent to the
subject being taught

53
​
13. Last year a large firm set a goal of decreasing its workforce by 25%. Three divisions, totaling 25% of
its workforce, were to be eliminated and no new people hired. These divisions have since been
eliminated and no new people have joined the firm, but its workforce has decreased by only 15%.
Which one of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of the difference in the planned
versus the actual reduction in the workforce?​

a) The three divisions that were eliminated were well run and had the potential to earn profits.
b) Normal attrition in the retained divisions continued to reduce staff because no new people were added
to the firm.
c) Some of the employees in the eliminated divisions were eligible for early retirement and chose that
option.
d) As the divisions were being eliminated some of their employees were assigned
to other divisions.
d) Employees in the retained divisions were forced to work faster to offset the loss of the eliminated
divisions.

14. Every year, new reports appear concerning the health risks posed by certain substances, such as
coffee and sugar. One year an article claimed that coffee is
dangerous to one’s health. The next year, another article argued that coffee has some benefits for one’s
health. From these contradictory opinions, we see that experts are useless for guiding one’s decisions
about one’s health.
Which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the argument above?
a) The argument takes for granted that coffee is dangerous to one’s health.
b) The argument presumes, without providing warrant, that one always wants expert guidance in making
decisions about one’s health.
c) The argument fails to consider the nature of expert opinion in areas other than health.
d) The argument presumes, with out providing justification, that because expert
opinion is trustworthy in one case, it must therefore be trustworthy in all cases.
e) The argument fails to consider that coffee may be harmful to one’s health in some respects and
beneficial in others.

15. Mystery stories often feature a brilliant detective and the detective’s dull companion. Clues are
presented in the story, and the companion wrongly infers an inaccurate solution to the mystery using the
same clues that the detective uses to deduce the correct solution. Thus, the author’s strategy of including
the dull companion gives readers a chance to solve the mystery while also diverting them from the
correct solution.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above?​

a) Most mystery stories feature a brilliant detective who solves the mystery presented in the story.
b) Mystery readers often solve the mystery in a story simply by spotting the mistakes in the reasoning of
the detective’s dull companion in that story.
c) Some mystery stories give readers enough clues to infer the correct solution to the mystery.
d) The actions of the brilliant detective in a mystery story rarely divert readers from the actions of the
detective’s dull companion.
e) The detective’s dull companion in a mystery story generally uncovers the misleading clues that divert
readers from the mystery’s correct solution.

54
16. In speech, when words or sentences are ambiguous, gesture and tone of voice are used to indicate
the intended meaning. Writers, of course, cannot use gesture or tone of voice and must rely instead on
style; the reader detects the writer’s intention from the arrangement of words and sentences.
Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by the information above?

a) The primary function of style in writing is to augment the literal meanings of the words and sentences
used.
b) The intended meaning of a piece of writing is indicated in part by the writer’s arrangement of words and
sentences.
c) It is easier for a listener to detect the tone of a speaker than for a reader to detect the style of the
writer.
d) A writer’s intention will always be interpreted differently by different readers. The writer’s arrangement
of words/sentences completely determines the aesthetics of writing.
​
17. Bureaucratic mechanisms are engineered to resist change. Thus, despite growing dissatisfaction with
complex bureaucratic systems, it is unlikely that bureaucracies will be simplified.

The claim that bureaucratic mechanisms are engineered to resist change plays which one of the
following roles in the argument?
a) It is a premise offered in support of the claim that it is unlikely that bureaucracies will be simplified.
b) It is a conclusion for which the only support offered is the claim that dissatisfaction with complex
bureaucratic systems is growing.
c) It is cited as evidence that bureaucratic systems are becoming more and more complex.
d) It is used to weaken the claim that bureaucracies should be simplified.
e) It is a conclusion for which the claim that bureaucracies are unlikely to be simplified is offered as
support.

18. Philosopher: Scientists talk about the pursuit of truth, but like most people, they are self-interested.
Accordingly, the professional activities of most scientists are directed toward personal career
enhancement, and only incidentally toward the pursuit of truth. Hence, the activities of the scientific
community are largely directed toward enhancing the status of that community as a whole, and only
incidentally toward the pursuit of truth.

The reasoning in the philosopher’s argument is flawed because the argument

a) Improperly infers that each and every scientist has a certain characteristic from premise that most
scientists have that characteristic
b) Improperly draws an inference about the scientific community as a whole from a premise about
individual scientists
c) Presumes, without giving justification, that the aim of personal career enhancement never advances
the pursuit of truth
d) Illicitly takes advantage of an ambiguity in the meaning of “self-interested” (E)Improperly draws an
inference about a cause from premises about its effects

55
 Parajumble

Directions for Q1 to Q20: Each question has a number of sentences which, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most
logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

1.A. Tigers have been known to eat up to 60 pounds (27 kilograms) of meat in one night, but more often
they consume about 12 pounds (5 kilograms) during a meal.
B. It may take days for a tiger to finish eating its kill. The cat eats until it's full, and then covers the carcass
with leaves and dirt.
C. When it's hungry again, the tiger comes back to feed some more, until the meat is gone.
a) ABC​ ​ ​ b) BAC​ ​ ​ c) BCA​ ​ ​ d) None of these

2. A. Reasons include demand for tiger fur as well as for other body parts that many people use in
traditional medicines.
B. Tigers' habitat has also dwindled seriously as humans have developed land for uses such as farming
and logging.
C. The whole tiger species is endangered throughout its range.
a) ABC​ ​ ​ b) BAC​ ​ ​ c) CAB​ ​ ​ d) None of these​
​
3. A. Connie St Louis, who wrote the original account of Sir Tim’s speech which prompted the row that led
him to resign from his posts at University College London and the Royal Society, told The London
Evening Standard she has received “unpleasant” emails and tweets from his supporters.
B. The journalist who accused Nobel Prize-winning scientist Sir Tim Hunt of sexism said she has been the
victim of Twitter trolls and accused the “establishment” of “bullying” and “protecting their own”.
C. Ms St Louis, a lecturer in science journalism at City University, added: “It doesn’t make me change my
mind. I am standing by my story.”
a) ABC​ ​ ​ b) CAB​ ​ ​ c) BCA​ ​ ​ d) BAC

4. A. Hamlet is an enigma.
B. His challenge to Guildenstern rings true for everyone who seeks to know him: "You would pluck out the
heart of my mystery."
C. None of us ever really does.
D. No matter how many ways critics examine him, no absolute truth emerges.
a) ABCD​ ​ b) ADBC​ ​ c) BCAD​ ​ d) None of these

5. A. The results, presented on Tuesday at the Alzheimer’s Society annual research conference in
Manchester, have been hailed as “hugely promising” because they involve medicines that are already
known to be safe and well-tolerated in people – potentially cutting years from the timeline for drugs to
reach patients.
B. Speaking ahead of her presentation, Giovanna Mallucci, professor of clinical neuroscience at the
University of Cambridge, said: “It’s really exciting. They’re licensed drugs.
C. This means you’d do a straightforward basic clinical trial on a small group of patients because these
are not new compounds, they’re known drugs.”
D. Two licensed drugs have been shown to halt brain degeneration in mice, raising the prospect of a rapid
acceleration in the search for a medicine to beat Alzheimer’s disease.
a) ACBD​ ​ b) BDAC​ ​ c) CDAB​ ​ d) DABC

56
6. A. The latest research suggests that the build-up of abnormal amyloid proteins seen in Alzheimer’s,
Parkinson’s and CJD are simply a visible symptom of neuro-degeneration, but not the root cause.
B. Instead, Prof Mallucci argues, the damage really occurs when a natural defence mechanism in the
brain responds to the accumulation of plaques by switching off the production of all new proteins,
wrecking the brain’s ability to carry out essential repairs.
C. In mice with prion disease, a neurodegenerative disorder that scientists use as a model for dementia in
mice, both treatments were shown to restore protein production, stop brain cells from dying off and
prevent memory loss.
D. The drugs work by inhibiting an enzyme, called Perk that activates the defence mechanism.
a) ABCD​ ​ b) BACD​ ​ c) DCBA​ ​ d) CABD

7. A. Now, you can get a keyring-friendly mini-pack, meaning that it can be on hand at all times.
B. It may be derided as a modish condiment, but it is extremely tasty, and sparks the kind of devotion that
prompts fans of the bright red bottle to buy T-shirts with it on the front and say things like: “Oh, I have it
with everything.”
C. So, I decided to spend a day having it with everything.
D. Sriracha hot sauce, which originated in eastern Thailand, is a mix of garlic, sugar, chillis, vinegar and
salt.
a) ABCD​ ​ b) DBAC​ ​ c) CADB​ ​ d) BDAC

8. A. And dropped out after the first year.

B. Deep down I knew that what I really wanted to do was to write stories.
C. When I was growing up in Nigeria I was expected, as every student who did well was expected, to
become a doctor.
D. But I did what I was supposed to do and I went into medical school.
a) CBDA​ ​ b) ACBD​ ​ c) DCBA​ ​ d) BCDA

9. A. This is because at 11pm on Tuesday night Greece failed to make a €1.6bn payment due to the
International Monetary Fund, one of the country’s creditors, thus becoming the first developed nation to
go into “arrears” with the fund.
B. The effective sovereign default has ratcheted up pressure on the ECB to further restrict the funding
available to banks, which have been swapping Greek government bonds for funding from the
Frankfurt-based central bank.
C. Greece’s banks have been shut since 29 June, after Mr Tsipras’ surprise decision to hold a referendum
prompted the European Central Bank (ECB) to limit the emergency lending available.
D. The ECB decided to maintain the current funding limit.
a) CABD​ ​ b) BADC​ ​ c) DCBA​ ​ d) CBDA

10. A. "My opinion is that we need to invest for something to grow, whether that is a person, a company or
a nation like Greece," Feeney explained to i100.co.uk.
B. His reasoning: there are 503 million people in the EU. We would only need to chip in about €3 each
(the same price as a feta and olive salad) to raise the money.
C. With Greece's government and its European creditors hitting loggerheads over the impending deadline
for its debt repayments, one 29-year-old from Yorkshire has come up with a novel solution.
D. Thom Feeney, who says he is fed up of "dithering" politicians, has set up a crowd funding page on
IndieGoGo where he hopes to raise €1.6bn (£1.14bn) to help bail out the country.
a) ABCD​ ​ b) CDBA​ ​ c) ACBD​ ​ d) DCBA

57
11. A. A story not only allows us to understand ourselves and how we live, it can also bring about change.
B. Forced Entertainment’s retelling of the entire Shakespearean canon using household objects, from salt
and pepper cellars to bottles of olive oil, is entirely serious.
C. One is simply the bare bones, but a story is something more; its meanings depend on the storyteller
and how the tale is delivered, which parts are emphasised and which downplayed.
D. As the Mahabharata tells us at its beginning: “If you listen carefully, at the end you’ll be someone else.”
E. Not least because it points up the vast difference between telling a plot and telling a story.
a) ACDBE​ ​ b) BECAD​ ​ c) DACBE​ ​ d) BEACD

12. A. But seen from abroad, the UK looks a haven of stability.

B. Consumers are spending and businesses are investing.
C. In the past, news of a deficit would have alarmed foreign holders of sterling.
D. They would have pulled their money out of the UK, prompting a fall in the value of the pound, which
would have helped boost exports and trim imports, leading to an improvement in the balance of
payments.
E. Growth was stronger in the first quarter at 0.4% than previously believed.
a) CDAEB​ ​ b) ABDCE​ ​ c) CADBE​ ​ d) BADCE

13. A. At the age of twenty-one he wrote a treatise upon the binomial theorem which has had a European
vogue.
B. But the man had hereditary tendencies of the most diabolical kind.
C. Moriarty is a man of good birth and excellent education, endowed by nature with a phenomenal
mathematical faculty.
D. A criminal strain ran in his blood, which, instead of being modified, was increased and rendered
infinitely more dangerous by his extraordinary mental powers.
E. On the strength of it, he won the mathematical chair at one of our smaller universities, and had, to all
appearances, a most brilliant career before him.
a) ACDEB​ ​ b) ABCED​ ​ c) CAEBD​ ​ d) CEBAD

14. A. Since then, intelligence tests have been mostly used to separate dull children in school from
average or bright children, so that special education can be provided to the dull.
B. In other words, intelligence tests give us a norm for each age.
C. Intelligence is expressed as intelligence quotient and tests are developed to indicate what an average
child of a certain age can do-what a 5-year-old can answer, but a 4-year-old cannot, for instance.
D. Binet developed the first set of such tests in the early 1900s to find out which children in school needed
special attention.
E. Intelligence can be measured by tests.
a) CDABE​ ​ b) DECAB​ ​ c) EDACB​ ​ d) CBADE

15. A. If the market falls to reflect our notions of equity, government intervention may be needed to
redistribute income.
B. Beyond the question of what to produce, we are also concerned about for whom output is to be
produced.
C. In general, the market mechanism tends to answer the basic question of for whom to produce by
distributing a larger share of total output to those with the most income.
D. Although this result may be efficient, it is not necessarily equitable.
E. Is the distribution of goods and services generated by the marketplace “fair”?
a) BEACD​ ​ b) DCBEA​ ​ c) CBEAD​ ​ d) DACBE

58
16. A. I wanted to be taken seriously.
B. Not about the teaching material, because I was well prepared and I was teaching what I enjoyed.
C. The first time I taught a writing class in graduate school, I was worried.
D. I really wanted to wear my shiny lip gloss and my girly skirt, but I decided not to.
E. Instead I was worried about what to wear.
F. And I was worried that if I looked too feminine, I would not be taken seriously.
a) ABDCEF​ ​ b) CBFDAE​ ​ c) CBEADF​ ​ d) ABCFED

17. A. One was in The Famous Victories of Henry V, created for the RSC’s First Encounters programme,
which cleverly takes a knife to both text and plot in a significantly pared-down version of both parts of
Henry IV, plus Henry V.
B. And not a single one of them was exactly as it appears on the page.
C. The second was near the beginning of Ivo van Hove’s Kings of War, performed in Dutch, which
condenses several of Shakespeare’s plays to explore the nature of kingship and the responsibilities of
leaders.
D. The last was on Sunday night, watching some of Forced Entertainment’s table-top Shakespeare
live-streamed on the Guardian’s website.
E. Were any of these performances less Shakespearean than a full, uncut performance of the original text
in English?
F. Over the last couple of weeks I’ve seen three very different versions of the scene in Henry IV Part II, in
which the future Henry V tries on his ailing father’s crown.
G. I’d say a resounding no.
a) ACBDEFG​ ​ b) GFEDACB​ ​ c) FBACDEG​ ​ d) DEGACBF

18. A. A bowl of hummus weighing 4,090kg.

B. The Lebanese fought back, making 10,452kg worth of hummus.
C. Its response?
D. As a Palestinian citizen of Israel, he takes his food history seriously, as do most residents of Abu
Ghosh.
E. That’s why they were so affronted when in 2009 Lebanon unilaterally declared hummus Lebanese and
made a bowl of it weighing 2,056kg to prove it.
F. The chef’s hummus has been voted by the Jewish Journal’s food blog as the best in Israel and his
village once held the Guinness world record for the biggest bowl of hummus.
G. The village of Abu Ghosh wasn’t having it.
(a) GBCDEAF​ ​ (b) FDEGCAB​ ​ (c) AFBGDCE​ ​ (d) ABCDEFG

19. A. Although there are large regional variations, it is not infrequent to find a large number of people
sitting here and there and doing nothing.
B. Once in office, they receive friends and relatives who feel free to call any time without prior
appointment.
C. While working, one is struck by the slow and clumsy actions and reactions, indifferent attitudes,
procedure rather than outcome orientation, and the lack of consideration for others.
D. Even those who are employed often come late to the office and leave early unless they are forced to
be punctual.
E. Work is not intrinsically valued in India.
F. Quite often people visit ailing friends and relatives or go out of their way to help them in their personal
matters even during office hours.
(a) ECADBF​ ​ (b) EADCFB​ ​ (c) EADBFC​ ​ (e) None of these

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20. A. It wasn’t reviewed by any of the national newspapers or tipped to be a Christmas chart topper.
B. But Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie’s We Should All Be Feminists might just be the most important book
you read all year.
C. Based on a TEDx talk the Nigerian writer gave in 2012, We Should All Be Feminists is a potent tour de
force on the subject of gender equality; one that whispers rather than shouts and confides rather than
chides.
D. There is no excuse not to read it – particularly as it is just 52 pages long.
E. A lunch break or commute would provide ample opportunity.
F. Earlier this month, a short essay by a bestselling, prize-winning author was published with little fanfare.
(a) FBDCAE​ ​ (b) FADCBA​ ​ (c) FADCBE​ ​ (d) FABCDE

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