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PHD Studymateria

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to Electronics and Communication Engineering from the year 2012. It covers various topics including transistor characteristics, signal processing, circuit analysis, and communication systems. Each question is followed by four answer options, with questions numbered from 1 to 30.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

98 views502 pages

PHD Studymateria

Uploaded by

Angelien Silviya

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG.

- EC

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The current ib through the base of a silicon npn transistor is 1  0.1 cos(10000 t ) mA . At 300 K,
the r in the small signal model of the transistor is
ib B C

r r0

(A) 250  (B) 27.5  (C) 25  (D) 22.5 

Q.2 The power spectral density of a real process X(t) for positive frequencies is shown below. The
values of E[X2(t)] and E[ X (t )] , respectively, are
SX(ω)

400 d(w-104)
6

0 9 10 11 ω (103 rad/s)

(A) 6000/π, 0 (B) 6400/π, 0

(C) 6400/π, 20 /( 2 ) (D) 6000/π, 20 /( 2 )
Q.3 In a baseband communications link, frequencies upto 3500 Hz are used for signaling. Using a
raised cosine pulse with 75% excess bandwidth and for no inter-symbol interference, the maximum
possible signaling rate in symbols per second is
(A) 1750 (B) 2625 (C) 4000 (D) 5250

Q.4 A plane wave propagating in air with E  (8 aˆ x  6 aˆ y  5 aˆ z ) e j (w t 3 x 4 y ) V/m is incident on a

perfectly conducting slab positioned at x  0 . The E field of the reflected wave is

(A) ( 8 aˆ x  6 aˆ y  5 aˆ z ) e j (w t 3 x 4 y ) V/m
(B) ( 8 aˆ x  6 aˆ y  5 aˆ z ) e j (w t 3 x 4 y ) V/m
(C) ( 8 aˆ x  6 aˆ y  5 aˆ z ) e j (w t 3 x 4 y ) V/m
(D) ( 8 aˆ x  6 aˆ y  5 aˆ z ) e j (w t 3 x 4 y ) V/m
Q.5 The electric field of a uniform plane electromagnetic wave in free space, along the positive

x direction, is given by E  10 aˆ y  j aˆ z  e  j 25x . The frequency and polarization of the wave,
respectively, are
(A) 1.2 GHz and left circular (B) 4 Hz and left circular
(C) 1.2 GHz and right circular (D) 4 Hz and right circular
EC-A 2/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Q.6 Consider the given circuit.

CLK

B
In this circuit, the race around
(A) does not occur (B) occurs when CLK = 0
(C) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 1 (D) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 0
Q.7 The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2-bit input A is greater than the 2-bit
input B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1, is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
Q.8 The i-v characteristics of the diode in the circuit given below are
 v  0.7
 A, v  0.7 V
i   500

 0 A, v  0.7 V
1k
i
+ +
v
- 10V -

The current in the circuit is

(A) 10 mA (B) 9.3 mA (C) 6.67 mA (D) 6.2 mA
Q.9 In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors. C1 has been charged to 12 V before the ideal
switch S is closed at t = 0. The current i(t) for all t is
S t =0

C1 C2
i(t)

(A) zero (B) a step function

(C) an exponentially decaying function (D) an impulse function
Q.10 The average power delivered to an impedance (4  j3) by a current 5cos(100 t  100) A is

(A) 44.2 W (B) 50 W (C) 62.5 W (D) 125 W

1
Q.11 The unilateral Laplace transform of f (t) is 2 . The unilateral Laplace transform of t f (t ) is
s  s 1
s 2s  1
(A)  (B) 
( s  s  1) 2
2
( s  s  1) 2
2

s 2s  1
(C) (D)
( s  s  1) 2
2
( s  s  1) 2
2

EC-A 3/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Q.12 With initial condition x(1)  0.5 , the solution of the differential equation,
dx
t  x  t is
dt

(A) x  t 
1
(B) x  t 2 
1 t2 (D) x 
t
(C) x 
2 2 2 2
Q.13 The diodes and capacitors in the circuit shown are ideal. The voltage v(t) across the diode D1 is

C1 v(t)
D2

+
cos(wt) D1 C2
-

(A) cos(w t )  1 (B) sin (w t ) (C) 1  cos(w t ) (D) 1  sin (w t )

Q.14 In the circuit shown
5 Volts

A
C

B
Y

A B

(A) Y  A B  C (B) Y  ( A  B) C
(C) Y  ( A  B ) C (D) Y  A B  C
Q.15 A source alphabet consists of N symbols with the probability of the first two symbols being the
same. A source encoder increases the probability of the first symbol by a small amount  and
decreases that of the second by  . After encoding, the entropy of the source
(A) increases (B) remains the same
(C) increases only if N = 2 (D) decreases
Q.16 A coaxial cable with an inner diameter of 1 mm and outer diameter of 2.4 mm is filled with a
109
dielectric of relative permittivity 10.89. Given 0  4 107 H m ,  0  F m , the
36
characteristic impedance of the cable is
(A) 330  (B) 100  (C) 143.3  (D) 43.4 
Q.17 The radiation pattern of an antenna in spherical co-ordinates is given by
F ( )  cos4  ; 0     / 2
The directivity of the antenna is
(A) 10 dB (B) 12.6 dB (C) 11.5 dB (D) 18 dB
EC-A 4/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

If x [n]  (1 / 3)  (1 / 2) n u[n] , then the region of convergence (ROC) of its Z-transform in the
n
Q.18
Z-plane will be
(A) 1
3
 z 3 (B) 1
3
 z  1
2
(C) 1
2
 z 3 (D) 1
3
 z
Q.19 In the sum of products function f ( X , Y , Z )  (2, 3, 4, 5) , the prime implicants are
(A) X Y , X Y (B) X Y , X Y Z , X Y Z
(C) X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y (D) X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y Z
Q.20 A system with transfer function
( s 2  9 ) ( s  2)
G( s) 
( s  1) ( s  3) ( s  4)
is excited by sin (w t ) . The steady-state output of the system is zero at
(A) w  1 rad/s (B) w  2 rad/s
(C) w  3 rad/s (D) w  4 rad/s
Q.21 The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given circuit is
ib

1k 99ib

9k
1
100
2

(A) 50  (B) 100  (C) 5 k (D) 10.1 k

Q.22 In the circuit shown below, the current through the inductor is

j1 
1
1 0A

1 0V 1 0V
- + + -
1 0A

- j1  1

2 1 1
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) 0 A
1 j 1 j 1 j
Q.23 Given
1 2
f ( z)   . If C is a counterclockwise path in the z-plane such that z  1  1 , the value of
z 1 z  3
1
2 j C f ( z ) dz is

(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) 2

EC-A 5/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Q.24 Two independent random variables X and Y are uniformly distributed in the interval [–1, 1]. The
probability that max[X, Y] is less than 1 2 is

(A) 3 4 (B) 9 16 (C) 1 4 (D) 2 3

Q.25 If x   1 , then the value of x x is

(A) e  / 2 (B) e / 2 (C) x (D) 1

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The source of a silicon (ni = 1010 per cm3) n-channel MOS transistor has an area of 1 sq µm and a
depth of 1 µm. If the dopant density in the source is 1019/cm3, the number of holes in the source
region with the above volume is approximately
(A) 107 (B) 100 (C) 10 (D) 0

Q.27 A BPSK scheme operating over an AWGN channel with noise power spectral density of N 0 2 ,
2E 2E
uses equiprobable signals s1 (t )  sin (wc t ) and s2 (t )   sin (wc t ) over the symbol
T T
interval (0, T). If the local oscillator in a coherent receiver is ahead in phase by 45 with respect to
the received signal, the probability of error in the resulting system is

 2E   E   E   E 
(A) Q  
 (B) Q  
 (C) Q  
 (D) Q  

 N 0   N 0   2N 0   4N 0 

Q.28 A transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 100 is used to match a 50 section to a
200 section. If the matching is to be done both at 429 MHz and 1 GHz, the length of the
transmission line can be approximately
(A) 82.5 cm (B) 1.05 m (C) 1.58 m (D) 1.75 m
t
Q.29 The input x(t) and output y(t) of a system are related as y (t )   x( ) cos(3 ) d .

The system is

(A) time-invariant and stable (B) stable and not time-invariant

Q.30 The feedback system shown below oscillates at 2 rad/s when

R(s) + K ( s  1) Y(s)
s  as 2  2 s  1
3

(A) K = 2 and a = 0.75 (B) K = 3 and a = 0.75

Q.31 The Fourier transform of a signal h(t) is H ( j w)  (2 cosw) (sin 2w) / w . The value of h(0) is

(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2

EC-A 6/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Q.32 The state variable description of an LTI system is given by

 x1   0 a1 0   x1   0 
      
 x 2    0 0 a 2   x2    0  u
 x   a    
 3   3 0 0   x3   1 
 x1 
 
y  1 0 0  x2 
x 
 3
where y is the output and u is the input. The system is controllable for
(A) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0 (B) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0
(C) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0 (D) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0

Q.33 Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is
transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
2 R

+ - j1  +
10 V 3V
- -

Circuit A Circuit B

(A) 0.8  (B) 1.4  (C) 2  (D) 2.8 

Q.34 Consider the differential equation

d 2 y (t ) dy(t ) dy
2
2  y (t )  d (t ) with y (t ) t 0 
 2 and  0.
dt dt dt t 0

dy
The numerical value of is
dt t 0

(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) 1

Q.35 The direction of vector A is radially outward from the origin, with A  k rn
where r 2  x 2  y 2  z 2 and k is a constant. The value of n for which   A  0 is

(A) –2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0

Q.36 A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for the first time. The probability that the number of
required tosses is odd, is
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 3/4

EC-A 7/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Q.37 In the CMOS circuit shown, electron and hole mobilities are equal, and M1 and M2 are equally
sized. The device M1 is in the linear region if
5V

M1
|VTp|=1V
Vin

VTn=1V
M2

(A) Vin < 1.875 V

(B) 1.875 V < Vin < 3.125 V
(C) Vin > 3.125 V
(D) 0 < Vin < 5 V
Q.38 A binary symmetric channel (BSC) has a transition probability of 1/8. If the binary transmit symbol
X is such that P(X=0) = 9/10, then the probability of error for an optimum receiver will be
(A) 7/80 (B) 63/80 (C) 9/10 (D) 1/10

Q.39 The signal m(t) as shown is applied both to a phase modulator (with k p as the phase constant) and
a frequency modulator (with k f as the frequency constant) having the same carrier frequency.
m(t)
2

-2 0 2 4 6 8 t (seconds)

-2

The ratio k p k f (in rad/Hz) for the same maximum phase deviation is

(A) 8π (B) 4π (C) 2π (D) π

Q.40 The magnetic field along the propagation direction inside a rectangular waveguide with the cross-
section shown in the figure is
H z  3 cos(2.094  102 x) cos(2.618  102 y ) cos(6.283  1010 t   z )

1.2 cm

3 cm X
The phase velocity v p of the wave inside the waveguide satisfies

(A) v p  c (B) v p  c (C) 0  v p  c (D) v p  0

EC-A 8/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Q.41 The circuit shown is a

C R1 +5V
+ - +
Input Output
- + -
-5V

1
(A) low pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
( R1  R2 ) C
1
(B) high pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
R1C
1
(C) low pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
R1C
1
(D) high pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
( R1  R2 ) C

Q.42 Let y[n] denote the convolution of h[n] and g[n], where h [n]  (1 / 2) n u[n] and g[n] is a causal
sequence. If y[0] = 1 and y[1] = 1/2, then g[1] equals
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 3/2

Q.43 The state transition diagram for the logic circuit shown is

2-1 MUX
D Q
X1
Y
CLK X0
Q Select

A
A=1 A=0 A=0 A=0

A=1 A=1
(A) (B)
Q=0 Q=1 Q=0 Q=1
A=0 A=1

A=0 A=1 A=1 A=1

A=0 A=0
(C) (D)
Q=0 Q=1 Q=0 Q=1
A=1 A=0

EC-A 9/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Q.44 The voltage gain Av of the circuit shown below is

13.7 Volts

12k

C vo
100k
C
=100
vi 10k

(A) Av  200 (B) Av  100 (C) Av  20 (D) Av  10

Q.45 If VA  VB  6 V, then VC  VD is
R VA 2 VB R

R -
R R
10 V
R 1 R

+
R
+ - VC VD
5V 2A

(A) –5 V (B) 2 V (C) 3 V (D) 6 V

Q.46 The maximum value of f ( x)  x 3  9 x 2  24 x  5 in the interval [1, 6] is

(A) 21 (B) 25 (C) 41 (D) 46

Q.47 Given that

 5  3 1 0
A  and I    , the value of A 3 is
2 0 0 1 
(A) 15 A + 12 I (B) 19 A + 30 I
(C) 17 A + 15 I (D) 17 A + 21 I

EC-A 10/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

With 10 V dc connected at port A in the linear nonreciprocal two-port network shown below, the following
were observed:

(i) 1  connected at port B draws a current of 3 A

(ii) 2.5  connected at port B draws a current of 2 A

+
A B

-
Q.48 With 10 V dc connected at port A, the current drawn by 7  connected at port B is
(A) 3/7 A (B) 5/7 A (C) 1 A (D) 9/7 A

Q.49 For the same network, with 6 V dc connected at port A, 1  connected at port B draws 7/3 A.
If 8 V dc is connected to port A, the open circuit voltage at port B is
(A) 6 V (B) 7 V (C) 8 V (D) 9 V

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

In the three dimensional view of a silicon n-channel MOS transistor shown below, d= 20 nm. The
transistor is of width 1 m. The depletion width formed at every p-n junction is 10 nm. The relative
permittivities of Si and SiO2, respectively, are 11.7 and 3.9, and 0 = 8.9  10-12 F/m.

1m

D 1nm 1m

0.2m 0.2m
D d d S

0.2m p substrate 0.2m

Q.50 The gate-source overlap capacitance is approximately

(A) 0.7 fF (B) 0.7 pF (C) 0.35 fF (D) 0.24 pF

Q.51 The source-body junction capacitance is approximately

(A) 2 fF (B) 7 fF (C) 2 pF (D) 7 pF

EC-A 11/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:


An infinitely long uniform solid wire of radius a carries a uniform dc current of density j .

Q.52 The magnetic field at a distance r from the center of the wire is proportional to

(A) r for r < a and 1 r 2 for r > a (B) 0 for r < a and 1 r for r > a
(C) r for r < a and 1 r for r > a (D) 0 for r < a and 1 r 2 for r > a

Q.53 A hole of radius b (b < a) is now drilled along the length of the wire at a distance d from the center
of the wire as shown below.

b
d

The magnetic field inside the hole is

(A) uniform and depends only on d (B) uniform and depends only on b
(C) uniform and depends on both b and d (D) non uniform

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

The transfer function of a compensator is given as

sa
Gc ( s )  .
sb

Q.54 Gc (s) is a lead compensator if

(A) a =1, b = 2 (B) a = 3, b = 2
(C) a = –3, b = –1 (D) a = 3, b = 1

Q.55 The phase of the above lead compensator is maximum at

(A) 2 rad/s (B) 3 rad/s (C) 6 rad/s (D) 1 / 3 rad/s

EC-A 12/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory)

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then (1.001)3321 =

(A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.
(A) should take
(B) shall take
(C) should have taken
(D) will have taken

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive.
(A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance

Q.59 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

Latitude
(A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness

Q.60 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the
following is INCORRECT?

I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
(A) requested that
(B) should be given
(C) the driving test
(D) instead of tomorrow

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed
and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting,
even when the odds and conditions were against them.

Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
(A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in
adverse circumstances.
(B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals.
(C) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors.
(D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being
against them.
EC-A 13/20
2012 ELECTRONICS & COMMN. ENGG. - EC

Q.62 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total
money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10

Q.63 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly
heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number
of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8

Q.64 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household.

Category Amount (Rs.)

Food 4000
Clothing 1200
Rent 2000
Savings 1500
Other expenses 1800

The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is

(A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86%

Q.65 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a
condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The
probability that they will meet on that day is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

EC-A 14/20
GATE 2012 ‐ Answer Key ‐ Paper : EC

Paper Question no. Code : A Code : B Code : C Code : D

EC 1 C A D B
EC 2 B A D A
EC 3 C D B C
EC 4 Marks to All Marks to All D C
EC 5 A B D A
EC 6 A C B C
EC 7 B A A A
EC 8 D C A C
EC 9 D A Marks to All B
EC 10 B C C Marks to All
EC 11 D C B D
EC 12 D B C A
EC 13 A C A A
EC 14 A A B D
EC 15 D B C D
EC 16 Marks to All C C B
EC 17 B Marks to All A D
EC 18 C A C D
EC 19 A A A B
EC 20 C B C A
EC 21 A D B A
EC 22 C D Marks to All Marks to All
EC 23 C B D C
EC 24 B D A B
EC 25 A D A C
EC 26 D A A B
EC 27 B D C C
EC 28 C B D A
EC 29 D Marks to All A D
EC 30 A B D D
EC 31 C A C A
EC 32 D D A B
EC 33 A D D Marks to All
EC 34 D A C B
EC 35 A C B D
EC 36 C B D A
EC 37 A D B C
EC 38 D B C A
EC 39 B C A D
EC 40 Marks to All D D A
GATE 2012 ‐ Answer Key ‐ Paper : EC

Paper Question no. Code : A Code : B Code : C Code : D

EC 41 B A D D
EC 42 A C A C
EC 43 D D B A
EC 44 D A Marks to All D
EC 45 A D B C
EC 46 C A A B
EC 47 B C D D
EC 48 C C A B
EC 49 C C B A
EC 50 A B C C
EC 51 B A C C
EC 52 C A C A
EC 53 A A A A
EC 54 A C A C
EC 55 A A A A
EC 56 D A D B
EC 57 A D B B
EC 58 D B B D
EC 59 B B D A
EC 60 B D A D
EC 61 A A A D
EC 62 A A D C
EC 63 A D C A
EC 64 D C A A
EC 65 C A A A
SESSION - 1
GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.

11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.

Choosing a Section :

13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.

Changing the Optional Section :

18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.

19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section?” If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.

20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.
GATE 2014 Examination
EC: Electronics & Communications Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.
GATE 2014 SET- 3 General Aptitude -GA

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Choose the most appropriate phrase from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

The aircraft take off as soon as its flight plan was filed.
(A) is allowed to (B) will be allowed to
(C) was allowed to (D) has been allowed to

Q.2 Read the statements:

All women are entrepreneurs.

Some women are doctors.

)
14
Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) All women are doctors (B) All doctors are entrepreneurs
(C) All entrepreneurs are women (D) Some entrepreneurs are doctors

20
Q.3 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

Many ancient cultures attributed disease to supernatural causes. However, modern science has
largely helped _________ such notions.
(A) impel (B) dispel
E (C) propel (D) repel
AT
Q.4 The statistics of runs scored in a series by four batsmen are provided in the following table. Who is
the most consistent batsman of these four?

Batsman Average Standard deviation

K 31.2 5.21
L 46.0 6.35
M 54.4 6.22
N 17.9 5.90
(A) K (B) L (C) M (D) N
3

Q.5 What is the next number in the series?

12 35 81 173 357 ____

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one from the following group:

W,E,K,O I,Q,W,A F,N,T,X N,V,B,D

(A) W,E,K,O (B) I,Q,W,A (C) F,N,T,X (D) N,V,B,D

GA 1/2
GATE 2014 SET- 3 General Aptitude -GA
Q.7 For submitting tax returns, all resident males with annual income below Rs 10 lakh should fill up
Form P and all resident females with income below Rs 8 lakh should fill up Form Q. All people
with incomes above Rs 10 lakh should fill up Form R, except non residents with income above Rs
15 lakhs, who should fill up Form S. All others should fill Form T. An example of a person who
should fill Form T is
(A) a resident male with annual income Rs 9 lakh
(B) a resident female with annual income Rs 9 lakh
(C) a non-resident male with annual income Rs 16 lakh
(D) a non-resident female with annual income Rs 16 lakh

Q.8 A train that is 280 metres long, travelling at a uniform speed, crosses a platform in 60 seconds and
passes a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. What is the length of the platform in metres?

)
Q.9 The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.) of a country from 2000 to 2007 are given in the

14
following bar chart. If the trade deficit is defined as excess of imports over exports, in which year is
the trade deficit 1/5th of the exports?

120

20
110 Exports Imports
100
90
80
70
60
E
50
AT
40
30
20
10
(G

0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

(A) 2005 (B) 2004 (C) 2007 (D) 2006

Q.10 You are given three coins: one has heads on both faces, the second has tails on both faces, and the
A0

third has a head on one face and a tail on the other. You choose a coin at random and toss it, and it
comes up heads. The probability that the other face is tails is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/3 (C) 1/2 (D) 2/3
G

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 2/2
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 For matrices of same dimension M, N and scalar c, which one of these properties DOES NOT
ALWAYS hold?
(A)(𝑀𝑀𝑇𝑇 )𝑇𝑇 = 𝑀𝑀
(B) (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)𝑇𝑇 = 𝑐𝑐(𝑀𝑀)𝑇𝑇
(C) (𝑀𝑀 + 𝑁𝑁)𝑇𝑇 = 𝑀𝑀𝑇𝑇 + 𝑁𝑁 𝑇𝑇
(D) 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 = 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁

Q.2 In a housing society, half of the families have a single child per family, while the remaining half
have two children per family. The probability that a child picked at random, has a sibling is _____

)
Q.3 𝑧𝑧 2 −𝑧𝑧+4𝑗𝑗
𝐶𝐶 is a closed path in the 𝑧𝑧-plane given by |𝑧𝑧| = 3. The value of the integral ∮𝐶𝐶 � 𝑧𝑧+2𝑗𝑗
� 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 is

14
(A) −4𝜋𝜋(1 + 𝑗𝑗2) (B) 4𝜋𝜋(3 − 𝑗𝑗2) (C) −4𝜋𝜋(3 + 𝑗𝑗2) (D) 4𝜋𝜋(1 − 𝑗𝑗2)

Q.4 A real (4 × 4) matrix 𝐴𝐴 satisfies the equation 𝐴𝐴2 = 𝐼𝐼, where 𝐼𝐼 is the (4 × 4) identity matrix. The

20
positive eigen value of 𝐴𝐴 is _________.

Q.5 Let X1, X2, and X3 be independent and identically distributed random variables with the uniform
distribution on [0, 1]. The probability P{X1 is the largest} is ________
E
Q.6 For maximum power transfer between two cascaded sections of an electrical network, the
relationship between the output impedance Z1 of the first section to the input impedance Z2 of the
AT
second section is
(A) 𝑍𝑍2 = 𝑍𝑍1 (B) 𝑍𝑍2 = −𝑍𝑍1 (C) 𝑍𝑍2 = 𝑍𝑍1∗ (D) 𝑍𝑍2 = −𝑍𝑍1∗

Q.7 Consider the configuration shown in the figure which is a portion of a larger electrical network
(G

i5
i2
01

R R
i3
i4 R

i1 i6
EC

For R = 1 Ω and currents 𝑖𝑖1 = 2 A, 𝑖𝑖4 = −1 A, 𝑖𝑖5 = −4 A, which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) 𝑖𝑖6 = 5 𝐴𝐴
(B) 𝑖𝑖3 = −4 𝐴𝐴
(C) Data is sufficient to conclude that the supposed currents are impossible
(D) Data is insufficient to identify the currents 𝑖𝑖2 , 𝑖𝑖3 , and 𝑖𝑖6

Q.8 When the optical power incident on a photodiode is 10µW and the responsivity is 0.8 A/W, the
photocurrent generated (in µA) is ________.

EC 1/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.9 In the figure, assume that the forward voltage drops of the PN diode D1 and Schottky diode D2 are
0.7 V and 0.3 V, respectively. If ON denotes conducting state of the diode and OFF denotes non-
conducting state of the diode, then in the circuit,
1 kΩ 20 Ω

10 V D1 D2

(A) both D1 and D2 are ON

(B) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF
(C) both D1 and D2 are OFF
(D) D1 is OFF and D2 is ON

)
14
Q.10 If fixed positive charges are present in the gate oxide of an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET,
it will lead to
(A) a decrease in the threshold voltage
(B) channel length modulation

20
(C) an increase in substrate leakage current
(D) an increase in accumulation capacitance

Q.11 A good current buffer has

(A) low input impedance and low output impedance
(B)
E
low input impedance and high output impedance
(C) high input impedance and low output impedance
(D) high input impedance and high output impedance
AT
Q.12 In the ac equivalent circuit shown in the figure, if 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 is the input current and 𝑅𝑅𝐹𝐹 is very large, the
type of feedback is
(G

RD
RD
01

vout
M2
M1
EC

small signal iin RF

input

(A) voltage-voltage feedback

(B) voltage-current feedback
(C) current-voltage feedback
(D) current-current feedback

EC 2/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.13 In the low-pass filter shown in the figure, for a cut-off frequency of 5 kHz , the value of R 2 (in kΩ)
is _____________.

Q.14 In the following circuit employing pass transistor logic, all NMOS transistors are identical with a

)
threshold voltage of 1 V. Ignoring the body-effect, the output voltages at P, Q and R are,

14
5V 5V 5V

20
P Q R

(A) 4 V, 3 V, 2 V
(B) 5 V, 5 V, 5 V
(C)
(D)
4 V, 4 V, 4 V
5 V, 4 V, 3 V
E
AT
Q.15 The Boolean expression (X + Y) (X + � ��
Y) + (X �
Y) + � X simplifies to
(A) X (B) Y (C) XY (D) X+Y

Q.16 Five JK flip-flops are cascaded to form the circuit shown in Figure. Clock pulses at a frequency of
(G

1 MHz are applied as shown. The frequency (in kHz) of the waveform at Q3 is __________ .
01

1 J4 1 J2 1 1
Q4 1 J3 Q3 Q2 J1 Q1 J0 Q0
clk clk clk clk clk
1 K4 1 K3 1 K2 1 K1 K0
1
EC

clock

Q.17 A discrete-time signal 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛] = sin(𝜋𝜋 2 𝑛𝑛) , 𝑛𝑛 being an integer, is

(A) periodic with period 𝜋𝜋. (B) periodic with period 𝜋𝜋 2 .
(C) periodic with period 𝜋𝜋/2. (D) not periodic.

Q.18 Consider two real valued signals, 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) band-limited to [− 500 Hz, 500 Hz] and 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) band-limited
to [−1 kHz, 1 kHz]. For 𝑧𝑧(𝑡𝑡) = 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) ∙ 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡), the Nyquist sampling frequency (in kHz) is ______.

EC 3/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.19 A continuous, linear time-invariant filter has an impulse response ℎ(𝑡𝑡) described by
3 for 0 ≤ 𝑡𝑡 ≤ 3
ℎ(𝑡𝑡) = �
0 otherwise

When a constant input of value 5 is applied to this filter, the steady state output is _____.

Q.20 The forward path transfer function of a unity negative feedback system is given by

𝐾𝐾
𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) =
(𝑠𝑠 + 2)(𝑠𝑠 − 1)

The value of 𝐾𝐾 which will place both the poles of the closed-loop system at the same location,
is ______ .

)
14
Q.21 Consider the feedback system shown in the figure. The Nyquist plot of 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) is also shown. Which
one of the following conclusions is correct?

20
(A) 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) is an all-pass filter
E
(B) 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) is a strictly proper transfer function
AT
(C) 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) is a stable and minimum-phase transfer function
(D) The closed-loop system is unstable for sufficiently large and positive 𝑘𝑘

Q.22 In a code-division multiple access (CDMA) system with N = 8 chips, the maximum number of
users who can be assigned mutually orthogonal signature sequences is ________
(G

Q.23 The capacity of a Binary Symmetric Channel (BSC) with cross-over probability 0.5 is ________

Q.24  s11 s12 

A two-port network has scattering parameters given by [ S ] = 
01

s22 
. If the port-2 of the two-
 s21
port is short circuited, the s11 parameter for the resultant one-port network is

s11 − s11s22 + s12 s21 s11 + s11s22 − s12 s21

(A) (B)
1 + s22 1 + s22
s +s s +s s s −s s +s s
(C) 11 11 22 12 21 (D) 11 11 22 12 21
1 − s22 1 − s22

Q.25 The force on a point charge +𝑞𝑞 kept at a distance 𝑑𝑑 from the surface of an infinite grounded metal
plate in a medium of permittivity 𝜖𝜖 is
(A) 0 𝑞𝑞 2
(B) 16𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 𝑑𝑑 2 away from the plate

𝑞𝑞 2 𝑞𝑞 2
(C) 16𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 𝑑𝑑 2 towards the plate (D) 4𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 𝑑𝑑 2 towards the plate

EC 4/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The Taylor series expansion of 3 sin 𝑥𝑥 + 2 cos 𝑥𝑥 is

𝑥𝑥 3
(A) 2 + 3𝑥𝑥 − 𝑥𝑥 2 − + . . . ..
2

𝑥𝑥 3
(B) 2 − 3𝑥𝑥 + 𝑥𝑥 2 − 2
+ … ..

𝑥𝑥 3
(C) 2 + 3𝑥𝑥 + 𝑥𝑥 2 + 2
+ .....

𝑥𝑥 3
(D) 2 − 3𝑥𝑥 − 𝑥𝑥 2 + 2
+ .....

)
14
+∞ 2
Q.27 For a function 𝑔𝑔(𝑡𝑡), it is given that ∫−∞ 𝑔𝑔(𝑡𝑡)𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = 𝜔𝜔𝑒𝑒 −2𝜔𝜔 for any real value 𝜔𝜔.
𝑡𝑡 +∞
If 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = ∫−∞ 𝑔𝑔(𝜏𝜏) 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑, then ∫−∞ 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡)𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 is

20
(A) 0 (B) −𝑗𝑗 𝑗𝑗 𝑗𝑗
(C) − (D)
2 2

Q.28 The volume under the surface 𝑧𝑧(𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦) = 𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 and above the triangle in the x-y plane defined by
{0 ≤ 𝑦𝑦 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 and 0 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 12} is _________.
E
Q.29 Consider the matrix
0 0 0 0 0 1
AT
⎡0 0 0 0 1 0⎤
⎢ ⎥
0 0 0 1 0 0⎥
𝐽𝐽6 = ⎢
⎢0 0 1 0 0 0⎥
⎢0 1 0 0 0 0⎥
⎣1 0 0 0 0 0⎦
(G

which is obtained by reversing the order of the columns of the identity matrix 𝐼𝐼6 .
Let 𝑃𝑃 = 𝐼𝐼6 + 𝛼𝛼 𝐽𝐽6 , where 𝛼𝛼 is a non-negative real number. The value of 𝛼𝛼 for which det(𝑃𝑃) = 0
is ________.
01

Q.30 A Y-network has resistances of 10Ω each in two of its arms, while the third arm has a resistance of
11Ω. In the equivalent ∆-network, the lowest value (in Ω) among the three resistances is ________.
EC

Q.31 A 230 V rms source supplies power to two loads connected in parallel. The first load draws 10 kW
at 0.8 leading power factor and the second one draws 10 kVA at 0.8 lagging power factor. The
complex power delivered by the source is
(A) (18 + j 1.5) kVA (B) (18 – j 1.5) kVA
(C) (20 + j 1.5) kVA (D) (20 – j 1.5) kVA

EC 5/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.32 A periodic variable x is shown in the figure as a function of time. The root-mean-square (rms) value
of x is _________.

Q.33 In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of capacitor C (in mF) needed to have critically damped
response i(t) is________.

)
40 Ω 4H C

14
+ -
i(t) Vo

20
Q.34 A BJT is biased in forward active mode. Assume VBE = 0.7 V, kT/q = 25 mV and reverse saturation
current IS = 10-13 A. The transconductance of the BJT (in mA/V) is __________.
E
Q.35 The doping concentrations on the p-side and n-side of a silicon diode are 1 × 1016 cm-3 and
1 × 1017 cm-3, respectively. A forward bias of 0.3 V is applied to the diode. At T = 300 K, the
AT
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon ni = 1.5 × 1010 cm-3 and 𝑞𝑞
= 26 mV. The electron
concentration at the edge of the depletion region on the p-side is
(A) 2.3 × 109 cm-3
(B) 1 × 1016 cm-3
(G

(C) 1 × 1017 cm-3

(D) 2.25 × 106 cm-3
01

Q.36 A depletion type N-channel MOSFET is biased in its linear region for use as a voltage controlled
resistor. Assume threshold voltage VTH = -0.5 V, VGS = 2.0 V, VDS = 5 V, W/L = 100,
Cox = 10-8 F/cm2 and µn = 800 cm2/V-s. The value of the resistance of the voltage controlled resistor
(in Ω) is __________.
EC

EC 6/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.37 In the voltage regulator circuit shown in the figure, the op-amp is ideal. The BJT has VBE = 0.7 V
and β = 100, and the zener voltage is 4.7 V. For a regulated output of 9 V, the value of R (in Ω)
is _______.

VI = 12 V VO = 9 V

+
1 kΩ 1 kΩ
–

VZ = 4.7 V R

)
14
Q.38 In the circuit shown, the op-amp has finite input impedance, infinite voltage gain and zero input
offset voltage. The output voltage Vout is

20
R2

R1
E
I1
AT
Vout
I2
(G

(A−𝐼𝐼2 (𝑅𝑅1 + 𝑅𝑅2 )

(B) 𝐼𝐼2 𝑅𝑅2
01

(C)) 𝐼𝐼1 𝑅𝑅2

(D) −𝐼𝐼1 (𝑅𝑅1 + 𝑅𝑅2 )
EC

EC 7/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.39 For the amplifier shown in the figure, the BJT parameters are VBE = 0.7 V, β = 200, and thermal
voltage VT = 25 mV. The voltage gain (vo/vi) of the amplifier is _______ .

VCC = +12 V

RC
R1 5 kΩ
33 kΩ
vo
1 µF
1 µF
vi •

R2
11 kΩ RS
10 Ω

)
14
RE CE
1 kΩ 1 mF

20
Q.40 The output 𝐹𝐹 in the digital logic circuit shown in the figure is

XOR
E
X
AND
AT
Y
F

Z
(G

XNOR

(A) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑋𝑋�𝑌𝑌𝑌𝑌 + 𝑋𝑋𝑌𝑌�𝑍𝑍

(B) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑋𝑋�𝑌𝑌𝑍𝑍̅ + 𝑋𝑋𝑌𝑌�𝑍𝑍̅
01

(C) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑋𝑋�𝑌𝑌�𝑍𝑍 + 𝑋𝑋𝑋𝑋𝑋𝑋

(D) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑋𝑋�𝑌𝑌�𝑍𝑍̅ + 𝑋𝑋𝑋𝑋𝑋𝑋
EC

Q.41 Consider the Boolean function, 𝐹𝐹(𝑤𝑤, 𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦, 𝑧𝑧) = 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 + 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 𝑤𝑤
�𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 𝑤𝑤
�𝑥𝑥̅ 𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 𝑥𝑥̅ 𝑦𝑦�𝑧𝑧̅. Which
one of the following is the complete set of essential prime implicants?
(A) 𝑤𝑤, 𝑦𝑦, 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥, 𝑥𝑥̅ 𝑧𝑧̅
(B) 𝑤𝑤, 𝑦𝑦, 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
(C) 𝑦𝑦, 𝑥𝑥̅ 𝑦𝑦�𝑧𝑧̅
(D) 𝑦𝑦, 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥, 𝑥𝑥̅ 𝑧𝑧̅

EC 8/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.42 The digital logic shown in the figure satisfies the given state diagram when Q1 is connected to
input A of the XOR gate.

S=0

S=1
00 01
A
S=0
D1 Q1 S=1 S=1
D2 Q2
S=0
S 10 11
Q1 Q2 S=1
CLK

S=0

Suppose the XOR gate is replaced by an XNOR gate. Which one of the following options preserves

)
the state diagram?

14
��
(A) Input A is connected to 𝑄𝑄2
(B) Input A is connected to 𝑄𝑄2
(C) Input A is connected to ��
𝑄𝑄1 and S is complemented
��
(D) Input A is connected to 𝑄𝑄1

20
Q.43 1 𝑛𝑛 1 𝑛𝑛
Let 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛] = �− � 𝑢𝑢(𝑛𝑛) − �− � 𝑢𝑢(−𝑛𝑛 − 1). The Region of Convergence (ROC) of the z-
9 3
transform of 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛]
1
(A) is |𝑧𝑧| > 9 .
E 1
(B) is |𝑧𝑧| < 3 .
1 1
(C) is 3 > |𝑧𝑧| > 9 . (D) does not exist.
AT

Q.44 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
Consider a discrete time periodic signal 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛] = 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 � 5 �. Let 𝑎𝑎𝑘𝑘 be the complex Fourier series
coefficients of 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛]. The coefficients {𝑎𝑎𝑘𝑘 } are non-zero when 𝑘𝑘 = 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 ± 1, where 𝑚𝑚 is any
integer. The value of 𝐵𝐵 is______.
(G

Q.45 A system is described by the following differential equation, where 𝑢𝑢(𝑡𝑡) is the input to the system
and 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) is the output of the system.
𝑦𝑦̇ (𝑡𝑡) + 5𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝑢𝑢(𝑡𝑡)
01

When 𝑦𝑦(0) = 1 and 𝑢𝑢(𝑡𝑡) is a unit step function, 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) is

(A) 0.2 + 0.8𝑒𝑒 −5𝑡𝑡 (B) 0.2 − 0.2𝑒𝑒 −5𝑡𝑡 (C) 0.8 + 0.2𝑒𝑒 −5𝑡𝑡 (D) 0.8 − 0.8𝑒𝑒 −5𝑡𝑡
EC

Q.46 Consider the state space model of a system, as given below

𝑥𝑥̇ 1 −1 1 0 𝑥𝑥1 0 𝑥𝑥1

�𝑥𝑥̇ 2 � = � 0 −1 0 � �𝑥𝑥2 � + �4� 𝑢𝑢; 𝑦𝑦 = [1 1 1] �𝑥𝑥2 �.
𝑥𝑥̇ 3 0 0 −2 𝑥𝑥3 0 𝑥𝑥3

The system is
(A) controllable and observable
(B) uncontrollable and observable
(C) uncontrollable and unobservable
(D) controllable and unobservable

EC 9/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.47 10
The phase margin in degrees of 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) = (𝑠𝑠+0.1)(𝑠𝑠+1)(𝑠𝑠+10)
calculated using the asymptotic Bode
plot is ________.

1
Q.48 For the following feedback system 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) = (𝑠𝑠+1)(𝑠𝑠+2). The 2%-settling time of the step response is
required to be less than 2 seconds.

)
Which one of the following compensators 𝐶𝐶(𝑠𝑠) achieves this?

14
1 (B) 5(0.03 + 1)
(A 3� � 𝑠𝑠
𝑠𝑠+5
(C) 2(𝑠𝑠 + 4) 𝑠𝑠+8
(D) 4� �
𝑠𝑠+3

20
Q.49 Let 𝑋𝑋 be a real-valued random variable with 𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋] and 𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋 2 ] denoting the mean values of 𝑋𝑋 and
𝑋𝑋 2 , respectively. The relation which always holds true is

(A) (𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋])2 > 𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋 2 ]

(B) 𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋 2 ] ≥ (𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋])2
E
(C) 𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋 2 ] = (𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋])2
(D) 𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋 2 ] > (𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋])2
AT

Q.50 Consider a random process 𝑋𝑋(𝑡𝑡) = √2sin(2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 + 𝜑𝜑), where the random phase 𝜑𝜑 is uniformly
distributed in the interval [0,2𝜋𝜋]. The auto-correlation 𝐸𝐸[𝑋𝑋(𝑡𝑡1 )𝑋𝑋(𝑡𝑡2 )] is
(G

(A) cos�2𝜋𝜋(𝑡𝑡1 + 𝑡𝑡2 )�

(B) sin�2𝜋𝜋(𝑡𝑡1 − 𝑡𝑡2 )�

(C) sin�2𝜋𝜋(𝑡𝑡1 + 𝑡𝑡2 )�

(D) cos�2𝜋𝜋(𝑡𝑡1 − 𝑡𝑡2 )�

EC 10/11
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.51 Let 𝑄𝑄(√𝛾𝛾) be the BER of a BPSK system over an AWGN channel with two-sided noise power
spectral density 𝑁𝑁0 ⁄2. The parameter 𝛾𝛾 is a function of bit energy and noise power spectral
density.

A system with two independent and identical AWGN channels with noise power spectral density
𝑁𝑁0 ⁄2 is shown in the figure. The BPSK demodulator receives the sum of outputs of both the
channels.

AWGN
Channel 1

0 /1 BPSK BPSK 0 /1
Modulator Demodulator

)
AWGN
Channel 2

14
If the BER of this system is 𝑄𝑄(𝑏𝑏√𝛾𝛾), then the value of 𝑏𝑏 is _____.

20
Q.52 A fair coin is tossed repeatedly until a ‘Head’ appears for the first time. Let L be the number of
tosses to get this first ‘Head’. The entropy H(L) in bits is ________.

Q.53 In spherical coordinates, let 𝑎𝑎�𝜃𝜃 , 𝑎𝑎�𝜙𝜙 denote unit vectors along the 𝜃𝜃, 𝜙𝜙 directions.
E100
𝑬𝑬 = sin 𝜃𝜃 cos(𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 − 𝛽𝛽𝛽𝛽) 𝑎𝑎�𝜃𝜃 𝑉𝑉/𝑚𝑚
𝑟𝑟
and
AT
0.265
𝑯𝑯 = sin 𝜃𝜃 cos(𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 − 𝛽𝛽𝛽𝛽) 𝑎𝑎�𝜙𝜙 𝐴𝐴/𝑚𝑚
𝑟𝑟

represent the electric and magnetic field components of the EM wave at large distances 𝑟𝑟 from a
(G

dipole antenna, in free space. The average power (W) crossing the hemispherical shell located at
𝑟𝑟 = 1𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘, 0 ≤ 𝜃𝜃 ≤ 𝜋𝜋/2 is ________

Q.54 For a parallel plate transmission line, let 𝑣𝑣 be the speed of propagation and 𝑍𝑍 be the characteristic
01

impedance. Neglecting fringe effects, a reduction of the spacing between the plates by a factor of
two results in
(A) halving of 𝑣𝑣 and no change in 𝑍𝑍
(B) no changes in 𝑣𝑣 and halving of 𝑍𝑍
EC

(C) no change in both 𝑣𝑣 and 𝑍𝑍

(D) halving of both 𝑣𝑣 and 𝑍𝑍

Q.55 λ
The input impedance of a section of a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance
8
50 Ω is found to be real when the other end is terminated by a load Z L ( =R + jX )Ω . If X is
30Ω , the value of R ( in Ω ) is _______

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

EC 11/11
GATE 2014
Answer Keys for EC ‐ Electronics and Communication Engineering
SESSION ‐ 1 SESSION ‐ 1
Section Q. No. Section Q. No.
Key / Range Marks Key / Range Marks
GA 1 C 1 EC 24 B 1
GA 2 D 1 EC 25 C 1
GA 3 B 1 EC 26 A 2
GA 4 A 1 EC 27 B 2
GA 5 725 to 725 1 EC 28 862 to 866 2
GA 6 D 2 EC 29 0.99 to 1.01 2
GA 7 B 2 EC 30 29.08 to 29.10 2
GA 8 560 to 560 2 EC 31 B 2
GA 9 D 2 EC 32 0.39 to 0.42 2
GA 10 B 2 EC 33 9.99 to 10.01 2
EC 1 D 1 EC 34 5.7 to 5.9 2
EC 2 0.65 to 0.68 1 EC 35 A 2
EC 3 C 1 EC 36 499 to 501 2
EC 4 0.99 to 1.01 1 EC 37 1092 to 1094 2
EC 5 0.32 to 0.34 1 EC 38 C 2
EC 6 C 1 EC 39 ‐240 to ‐230 2
EC 7 A 1 EC 40 A 2
EC 8 7.99 to 8.01 1 EC 41 D 2
EC 9 D 1 EC 42 D 2
EC 10 A 1 EC 43 C 2
EC 11 B 1 EC 44 9.99 to 10.01 2
EC 12 B 1 EC 45 A 2
EC 13 3.1 to 3.26 1 EC 46 B 2
EC 14 C 1 EC 47 42 to 48 2
EC 15 A 1 EC 48 C 2
EC 16 62.4 to 62.6 1 EC 49 B 2
EC 17 D 1 EC 50 D 2
EC 18 2.99 to 3.01 1 EC 51 1.4 to 1.42 2
EC 19 44 to 46 1 EC 52 1.99 to 2.01 2
EC 20 2.24 to 2.26 1 EC 53 55.4 to 55.6 2
EC 21 D 1 EC 54 B 2
EC 22 7.99 to 8.01 1 EC 55 39 to 41 2
EC 23 ‐0.01 to 0.01 1
SESSION - 2
GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

Choosing a Section :

Changing the Optional Section :

Read the following instructions carefully.

Declaration by the candidate:

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

Communication and interpersonal skills are important in their own ways.

(A) each (B) both (C) all (D) either

Q.2 Which of the options given below best completes the following sentence?

She will feel much better if she ________________.

(A) will get some rest (B) gets some rest

)
(C) will be getting some rest (D) is getting some rest

14
Q.3 Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

20
She could not _____ the thought of _________ the election to her bitter rival.
(A) bear, loosing (B) bare, loosing (C) bear, losing (D) bare, losing

Q.4 A regular die has six sides with numbers 1 to 6 marked on its sides. If a very large number of
throws show the following frequencies of occurrence: 1 → 0.167; 2 → 0.167; 3 → 0.152; 4 →
0.166; 5 → 0.168; 6 → 0.180. We call this die
E
(A) irregular (B) biased (C) Gaussian (D) insufficient
AT
Q.5 Fill in the missing number in the series.

2 3 6 15 157.5 630
(G

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group

Q,W,Z,B B,H,K,M W,C,G,J M,S,V,X

(A) Q,W,Z,B (B) B,H,K,M (C) W,C,G,J (D) M,S,V,X

Q.7 Lights of four colors (red, blue, green, yellow) are hung on a ladder. On every step of the ladder
G

there are two lights. If one of the lights is red, the other light on that step will always be blue. If one
of the lights on a step is green, the other light on that step will always be yellow. Which of the
following statements is not necessarily correct?
(A) The number of red lights is equal to the number of blue lights
(B) The number of green lights is equal to the number of yellow lights
(C) The sum of the red and green lights is equal to the sum of the yellow and blue lights
(D) The sum of the red and blue lights is equal to the sum of the green and yellow lights

Q.8 The sum of eight consecutive odd numbers is 656. The average of four consecutive even numbers is
87. What is the sum of the smallest odd number and second largest even number?

GA 1/2
GATE 2014 SET- 4 General Aptitude -GA
Q.9 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two charts shown
below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item exported as a percentage of the
total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue
generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 500 thousand
tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. Which item among the following has generated
the maximum revenue per kg?

Exports Revenues

Item 6 Item 1 Item 1

11% Item 6 12%
16%
19%

)
Item 5 Item 2 Item 2
12% 20% Item 5

14
20%
20%
Item 3 Item 3
Item 4 19% Item 4 23%
22% 6%

20
(A) Item 2 (B) Item 3 (C) Item 6 (D) Item 5

Q.10
E
It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank by draining it at a constant rate. It is decided to
simultaneously pump water into the half-full tank while draining it. What is the rate at which water
has to be pumped in so that it gets fully filled in 10 minutes?
AT
(A) 4 times the draining rate (B) 3 times the draining rate
(C) 2.5 times the draining rate (D) 2 times the draining rate
(G

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

4
A0
G

GA 2/2
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The determinant of matrix 𝐴 is 5 and the determinant of matrix 𝐵 is 40. The determinant of matrix
𝐴𝐵 is ________.

Q.2 Let X be a random variable which is uniformly chosen from the set of positive odd numbers less
than 100. The expectation, 𝐸[𝑋], is __________.
Q.3 For 0 ≤ 𝑡 < ∞, the maximum value of the function 𝑓(𝑡) = 𝑒 −𝑡 − 2 𝑒 −2𝑡 occurs at
(A) 𝑡 = log 𝑒 4 (B) 𝑡 = log 𝑒 2 (C) 𝑡 = 0 (D) 𝑡 = log 𝑒 8

Q.4 The value of

1 𝑥

)
lim �1 + �
𝑥→∞ 𝑥

14
is

(A) 𝑙𝑛2 (B) 1.0 (C) 𝑒 (D) ∞

20
Q.5 If the characteristic equation of the differential equation

𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
2
+2𝛼 +𝑦 =0
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
E
has two equal roots, then the values of α are
AT
(A) ±1 (B) 0,0 (C) ±j (D) ±1/2

Q.6 Norton’s theorem states that a complex network connected to a load can be replaced with an
(G

equivalent impedance
(A) in series with a current source
(B) in parallel with a voltage source
(C) in series with a voltage source
(D) in parallel with a current source
02

Q.7 In the figure shown, the ideal switch has been open for a long time. If it is closed at 𝑡 = 0, then the
magnitude of the current (in mA) through the 4 kΩ resistor at 𝑡 = 0+ is _______.
EC

Q.8 A silicon bar is doped with donor impurities ND = 2.25 x 1015 atoms / cm3. Given the intrinsic
carrier concentration of silicon at T = 300 K is ni = 1.5 x 1010 cm-3. Assuming complete impurity
ionization, the equilibrium electron and hole concentrations are
(A) n0 = 1.5 x 1016 cm-3, p0 = 1.5 x 105 cm-3
(B) n0 = 1.5 x 1010 cm-3, p0= 1.5 x 1015 cm-3
(C) n0 = 2.25 x 1015 cm-3, p0 = 1.5 x 1010 cm-3
(D) n0 = 2.25 x 1015 cm-3, p0 = 1 x 105 cm-3

EC 1/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q.9 An increase in the base recombination of a BJT will increase

(A) the common emitter dc current gain β
(B) the breakdown voltage BVCEO
(C) the unity-gain cut-off frequency fT
(D) the transconductance gm

Q.10 In CMOS technology, shallow P-well or N-well regions can be formed using
(A) low pressure chemical vapour deposition
(B) low energy sputtering
(C) low temperature dry oxidation
(D) low energy ion-implantation

)
Q.11 The feedback topology in the amplifier circuit ( the base bias circuit is not shown for simplicity) in

14
the figure is

20
E
AT
(G

(A) Voltage shunt feedback

(B) Current series feedback
02

(C) Current shunt feedback

(D) Voltage series feedback
EC

EC 2/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.12 In the differential amplifier shown in the figure, the magnitudes of the common-mode and
differential-mode gains are 𝐴𝑐𝑚 and 𝐴𝑑 , respectively. If the resistance RE is increased, then

)
14
(A) 𝐴𝑐𝑚 increases (B) common-mode rejection ratio increases
(C) 𝐴𝑑 increases (D) common-mode rejection ratio decreases

Q.13 A cascade connection of two voltage amplifiers A1 and A2 is shown in the figure. The open-loop

20
gain Av0 , input resistance R in , and output resistance R o for A1 and A2 are as follows:
A1: Av0 = 10, R in = 10 kΩ, R o = 1 kΩ.
A2: Av0 = 5, R in = 5 kΩ, R o = 200 Ω.
The approximate overall voltage gain vout/vin is __________.
E
AT
(G

Q.14 For an n-variable Boolean function, the maximum number of prime implicants is
(A) 2(n-1) (B) n/2 (C) 2n (D) 2(n-1)

Q.15 The number of bytes required to represent the decimal number 1856357 in packed BCD (Binary
Coded Decimal) form is __________ .
02

Q.16 In a half-subtractor circuit with X and Y as inputs, the Borrow (M) and Difference (N = X - Y) are
given by
EC

(A) 𝑀 = 𝑋 ⊕ 𝑌, 𝑁 = 𝑋𝑌
(B) 𝑀 = 𝑋𝑌, 𝑁 =𝑋⊕𝑌
(C) 𝑀 = 𝑋�𝑌, 𝑁 = 𝑋⊕𝑌
(D) 𝑀 = 𝑋𝑌� , 𝑁 = ��
𝑋⊕𝑌

Q.17 An FIR system is described by the system function

7 3
𝐻(𝑧) = 1 + z −1 + z −2
2 2
The system is
(A) maximum phase (B) minimum phase (C) mixed phase (D) zero phase

EC 3/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.18 Let 𝑥[𝑛] = 𝑥[−𝑛]. Let 𝑋(𝑧) be the 𝑧-transform of 𝑥[𝑛]. If 0.5 + 𝑗 0.25 is a zero of 𝑋(𝑧), which
one of the following must also be a zero of 𝑋(𝑧).
(A) 0.5 − 𝑗 0.25 (B) 1/(0.5 + 𝑗 0.25) (C) 1/(0.5 − 𝑗 0.25) (D) 2+𝑗 4

Q.19 Consider the periodic square wave in the figure shown.

)
The ratio of the power in the 7th harmonic to the power in the 5th harmonic for this waveform is

14
closest in value to _______.

Q.20 The natural frequency of an undamped second-order system is 40 rad/s. If the system is
damped with a damping ratio 0.3, the damped natural frequency in rad/s is ________.

20
Q.21 For the following system,

X2 (s)
E +
X1 (s) s + Y(s)
+ 1
AT
s+1 s
-
(G

𝑌(𝑠)
when 𝑋1 (𝑠) = 0, the transfer function 𝑋 is
2 (𝑠)

𝑠+1 1 𝑠+2 𝑠+1

(A) 𝑠2
(B) 𝑠+1 (C) 𝑠(𝑠+1) (D) 𝑠(𝑠+2)
02

Q.22 The capacity of a band-limited additive white Gaussian noise (AWGN) channel is given by
𝑃
𝐶 = 𝑊 log 2 �1 + 𝜎2 𝑊� bits per second (bps), where 𝑊 is the channel bandwidth, 𝑃 is the
average power received and 𝜎 2 is the one-sided power spectral density of the AWGN.
EC

𝑃
For a fixed 2 = 1000, the channel capacity (in kbps) with infinite bandwidth (𝑊 → ∞) is
𝜎
approximately
(A) 1.44 (B) 1.08 (C) 0.72 (D) 0.36

Q.23 Consider sinusoidal modulation in an AM system. Assuming no overmodulation, the modulation

index (𝜇) when the maximum and minimum values of the envelope, respectively, are 3 V and 1 V,
is ________.

EC 4/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.24 To maximize power transfer, a lossless transmission line is to be matched to a resistive load
impedance via a λ/4 transformer as shown.

lossless transmission line

λ/4 transformer
ZL = 100 Ω
Zin =50 Ω

The characteristic impedance (in Ω) of the λ/4 transformer is _________.

)
14
Q.25 Which one of the following field patterns represents a TEM wave travelling in the positive 𝑥
direction?
(A) 𝐸 = +8𝑦�, 𝐻 = −4𝑧̂ (B) 𝐸 = −2𝑦�, 𝐻 = −3𝑧̂

20
(C) 𝐸 = +2𝑧̂ , 𝐻 = +2𝑦� (D) 𝐸 = −3𝑦�, 𝐻 = +4𝑧̂

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The system of linear equations

E
AT
2 1 3 𝑎 5
�3 0 1� �𝑏� = �−4� has
1 2 5 𝑐 14

(A) a unique solution

(B) infinitely many solutions

Q.27 The real part of an analytic function 𝑓(𝑧) where 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑗𝑦 is given by 𝑒 −𝑦 cos(𝑥). The imaginary
02

part of 𝑓(𝑧) is
(A) 𝑒 𝑦 cos(𝑥) (B) 𝑒 −𝑦 sin(𝑥) (C) −𝑒 𝑦 sin(𝑥) (D) −𝑒 −𝑦 sin(𝑥)

Q.28 The maximum value of the determinant among all 2 × 2 real symmetric matrices with trace 14 is
EC

________.
 
Q.29 If r = xaˆ x + yaˆ y + zaˆ z and r = r , then div�𝑟 2 ∇(ln 𝑟)� = ______ .

Q.30 A series LCR circuit is operated at a frequency different from its resonant frequency. The operating
frequency is such that the current leads the supply voltage. The magnitude of current is half the
value at resonance. If the values of L, C and R are 1 H, 1 F and 1 Ω, respectively, the operating
angular frequency (in rad/s) is ________.

EC 5/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.31 In the h-parameter model of the 2-port network given in the figure shown, the value of ℎ22 (in S) is
______ .

3Ω

1 3Ω 3Ω 2

2Ω
1' 2'
2Ω 2Ω

)
Q.32 In the figure shown, the capacitor is initially uncharged. Which one of the following expressions

14
describes the current I(t) (in mA) for 𝑡 > 0?

20
5 2 5 2
(A) I(𝑡) = �1 − 𝑒 −𝑡/𝜏 �, 𝜏= (B) I(𝑡) = �1 − 𝑒 −𝑡/𝜏 �, 𝜏 =
3
5
3
msec
E 2
5
3
msec
(C) I(𝑡) = 3
�1 − 𝑒 −𝑡/𝜏 �, 𝜏 = 3 msec (D) I(𝑡) =
2
�1 − 𝑒 −𝑡/𝜏 �, 𝜏 = 3 msec
AT
Q.33 In the magnetically coupled circuit shown in the figure, 56 % of the total flux emanating from one
coil links the other coil. The value of the mutual inductance (in H) is ______ .

10 Ω M
(G

4H 5H (1/16) F
60cos(4t + 300 ) V
02

Q.34 Assume electronic charge q = 1.6×10-19 C, kT/q = 25 mV and electron mobility µn = 1000 cm2/V-s.
If the concentration gradient of electrons injected into a P-type silicon sample is 1×1021/cm4, the
magnitude of electron diffusion current density (in A/cm2) is _________.
EC

Q.35 Consider an abrupt PN junction (at T = 300 K) shown in the figure. The depletion region width Xn
on the N-side of the junction is 0.2 µm and the permittivity of silicon (εsi) is 1.044×10-12 F/cm. At
the junction, the approximate value of the peak electric field (in kV/cm) is _________.

EC 6/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q.36 When a silicon diode having a doping concentration of NA = 9 × 1016 cm-3 on p-side and
ND = 1 × 1016 cm-3 on n-side is reverse biased, the total depletion width is found to be 3 µm.
Given that the permittivity of silicon is 1.04 × 10–12 F/cm, the depletion width on the p-side and
the maximum electric field in the depletion region, respectively, are
(A) 2.7 µm and 2.3 × 105 V/cm
(B) 0.3 µm and 4.15 × 105 V/cm
(C) 0.3 µm and 0.42 × 105 V/cm
(D) 2.1 µm and 0.42 × 105 V/cm

Q.37 The diode in the circuit shown has Von = 0.7 Volts but is ideal otherwise.
If Vi = 5 sin(𝜔𝑡)Volts, the minimum and maximum values of Vo (in Volts) are, respectively,

)
14
20
(A) −5 and 2.7 (B) 2.7 and 5
(C) −5 and 3.85
E (D) 1.3 and 5

For the n-channel MOS transistor shown in the figure, the threshold voltage VTh is 0.8 V. Neglect
AT
Q.38
channel length modulation effects. When the drain voltage VD = 1.6 V, the drain current ID was
found to be 0.5 mA. If VD is adjusted to be 2 V by changing the values of R and VDD , the new value
of ID (in mA) is
(G
02

(A) 0.625 (B) 0.75 (C) 1.125 (D) 1.5

EC 7/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.39 For the MOSFETs shown in the figure, the threshold voltage |Vt| = 2 V and
1 W 
K= µ Cox  2
 = 0.1 mA/V . The value of ID (in mA) is _______ .
2 L 

VDD = +12 V

R1
10 kΩ

R2 ↓ ID
10 kΩ

)
14
VSS = –5 V

20
Q.40 In the circuit shown, choose the correct timing diagram of the output (y) from the given waveforms
W1, W2, W3 and W4.

E
AT
(G
02
EC

(A) W1 (B) W2 (C) W3 (D) W4

EC 8/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q.41 The outputs of the two flip-flops Q1, Q2 in the figure shown are initialized to 0, 0. The sequence
generated at Q1 upon application of clock signal is

Q1
J1 Q1 J2 Q2

K1 Q1 K2 Q2

CLK

)
14
(A) 01110…
(B) 01010…
(C) 00110…

20
(D) 01100…

Q.42 For the 8085 microprocessor, the interfacing circuit to input 8-bit digital data (DI0 – DI7) from an
external device is shown in the figure. The instruction for correct data transfer is

3-to-8 7
Decoder 6
EI/O Device
A2 C 5
AT
4
A1 B 3 Digital
DI0– DI7 DO0– DO7 Data Bus
2 Inputs (D0– D7)
A0 A 1
0
G 2A G 2B G1 DS1 DS2
(G

IO/M
RD
A8
A3
A9
A4 A10
A5
A11
A6
A12
A7
02

A13
A14
A15

(A) MVI A, F8H (B) IN F8H (C) OUT F8H (D) LDA F8F8H
EC

Q.43 Consider a discrete-time signal

𝑛 for 0 ≤ 𝑛 ≤ 10
𝑥[𝑛] = � .
0 otherwise

If 𝑦[𝑛] is the convolution of 𝑥[𝑛] with itself, the value of 𝑦[4] is _________.

Q.44 The input-output relationship of a causal stable LTI system is given as

𝑦[𝑛] = 𝛼 𝑦[𝑛 − 1] + 𝛽 𝑥[𝑛]

If the impulse response ℎ[𝑛] of this system satisfies the condition ∑∞

𝑛=0 ℎ[𝑛] = 2, the relationship
between α and β is
(A) 𝛼 = 1 − 𝛽/2 (B) 𝛼 = 1 + 𝛽/2 (C) 𝛼 = 2𝛽 (D) 𝛼 = −2𝛽

EC 9/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

∞
Q.45 The value of the integral ∫−∞ sinc 2 (5𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 is ________.

Q.46 An unforced linear time invariant (LTI) system is represented by

𝑥̇ −1 0 𝑥1
� 1� = � ��
𝑥̇ 2 0 −2 𝑥2

If the initial conditions are 𝑥1 (0) = 1 and 𝑥2 (0) = −1, the solution of the state equation is
(A) 𝑥1 (𝑡) = −1, 𝑥2 (𝑡) = 2
(B) 𝑥1 (𝑡) = −𝑒 −𝑡 , 𝑥2 (𝑡) = 2𝑒 −𝑡
(C) 𝑥1 (𝑡) = 𝑒 −𝑡 , 𝑥2 (𝑡) = −𝑒 −2𝑡
(D) 𝑥1 (𝑡) = −𝑒 −𝑡 , 𝑥2 (𝑡) = −2𝑒 −𝑡

)
14
Q.47 The Bode asymptotic magnitude plot of a minimum phase system is shown in the figure.

20
E
AT

If the system is connected in a unity negative feedback configuration, the steady state error of the
closed loop system, to a unit ramp input, is_________.
(G

Q.48 Consider the state space system expressed by the signal flow diagram shown in the figure.
02
EC

The corresponding system is

(A) always controllable (B) always observable

EC 10/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.49 The input to a 1-bit quantizer is a random variable 𝑋 with pdf 𝑓𝑋 (𝑥) = 2𝑒 −2𝑥 for 𝑥 ≥ 0 and
𝑓𝑋 (𝑥) = 0 for 𝑥 < 0. For outputs to be of equal probability, the quantizer threshold should be
_____.

Q.50 Coherent orthogonal binary FSK modulation is used to transmit two equiprobable symbol
waveforms 𝑠1 (𝑡) = 𝛼 cos 2𝜋𝑓1 𝑡 and 𝑠2 (𝑡) = 𝛼 cos 2𝜋𝑓2 𝑡, where 𝛼 = 4 mV. Assume an AWGN
𝑁
channel with two-sided noise power spectral density 0 = 0.5 × 10−12 W/Hz. Using an optimal
2
1 ∞ 2
receiver and the relation 𝑄(𝑣) = 2𝜋
∫𝑣 𝑒 −𝑢 ⁄2 𝑑𝑢, the bit error probability for a data rate of
√
500 kbps is
(A) 𝑄(2) (B) 𝑄�2√2� (C) 𝑄(4) (D) 𝑄�4√2�

)
14
Q.51 The power spectral density of a real stationary random process 𝑋(𝑡) is given by
1
, | 𝑓| ≤ 𝑊
𝑆𝑋 (𝑓) = �𝑊 .
0, |𝑓| > 𝑊

20
1
The value of the expectation 𝐸 �π 𝑋(𝑡) 𝑋 �𝑡 − �� is_________.
4𝑊

In the figure, 𝑀(𝑓) is the Fourier transform of the message signal 𝑚(𝑡) where A = 100 Hz and
Q.52
E
B = 40 Hz. Given 𝑣(𝑡) = cos(2𝜋𝑓𝑐 𝑡) and 𝑤(𝑡) = cos(2𝜋(𝑓𝑐 + 𝐴)𝑡), where 𝑓𝑐 > 𝐴. The cutoff
frequencies of both the filters are 𝑓𝑐 .
AT
M(f)
1
(G

-A -B B A f

m(t) High Pass Low Pass s(t)

Filter Filter
02

v(t) w(t)

The bandwidth of the signal at the output of the modulator (in Hz) is _____.
EC

Q.53 If the electric field of a plane wave is

𝐸�⃗ (𝑧, 𝑡) = 𝑥�3cos(𝜔𝑡 − 𝑘𝑧 + 30°) − 𝑦�4sin(𝜔𝑡 − 𝑘𝑧 + 45°) (mV/m),

the polarization state of the plane wave is

(A) left elliptical
(B) left circular
(C) right elliptical
(D) right circular

EC 11/12
GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.54 In the transmission line shown, the impedance Zin (in ohms) between node A and the ground is
_________.

Q.55 For a rectangular waveguide of internal dimensions 𝑎 × 𝑏 (𝑎 > 𝑏), the cut-off frequency for the
TE11 mode is the arithmetic mean of the cut-off frequencies for TE10 mode and TE20 mode. If

)
𝑎 = √5 cm, the value of 𝑏 (in cm) is _____.

14
20
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
E
AT
(G
02
EC

EC 12/12
GATE 2014
Answer Keys for EC ‐ Electronics and Communication Engineering
SESSION ‐ Ϯ SESSION ‐ Ϯ
Section Q. No. Section Q. No.
Key / Range Marks Key / Range Marks
GA 1 B 1 EC 24 70 to 72 1
GA 2 B 1 EC 25 B 1
GA 3 C 1 EC 26 B 2
GA 4 B 1 EC 27 B 2
GA 5 45 to 45 1 EC 28 48.9 to 49.1 2
GA 6 C 2 EC 29 2.9 to 3.1 2
GA 7 D 2 EC 30 0.45 to 0.47 2
GA 8 163 to 163 2 EC 31 1.24 to 1.26 2
GA 9 D 2 EC 32 A 2
GA 10 A 2 EC 33 2.49 to 2.52 2
EC 1 199 to 201 1 EC 34 3990 to 4010 2
EC 2 49.9 to 50.1 1 EC 35 30 to 32 2
EC 3 A 1 EC 36 B 2
EC 4 C 1 EC 37 C 2
EC 5 A 1 EC 38 C 2
EC 6 D 1 EC 39 0.88 to 0.92 2
EC 7 1.2 to 1.3 1 EC 40 C 2
EC 8 D 1 EC 41 D 2
EC 9 B 1 EC 42 D 2
EC 10 D 1 EC 43 9.9 to 10.1 2
EC 11 B 1 EC 44 A 2
EC 12 B 1 EC 45 0.19 to 0.21 2
EC 13 34.0 to 35.3 1 EC 46 C 2
EC 14 D 1 EC 47 0.49 to 0.51 2
EC 15 3.9 to 4.1 1 EC 48 A 2
EC 16 C 1 EC 49 0.34 to 0.36 2
EC 17 C 1 EC 50 C 2
EC 18 B 1 EC 51 3.9 to 4.1 2
EC 19 0.50 to 0.52 1 EC 52 59.9 to 60.1 2
EC 20 38.13 to 38.19 1 EC 53 A 2
EC 21 D 1 EC 54 32.99 to 34.01 2
EC 22 A 1 EC 55 1.9 to 2.1 2
EC 23 0.45 to 0.55 1
SESSION - 3
GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

Choosing a Section :

Changing the Optional Section :

Read the following instructions carefully.

Declaration by the candidate:

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “India is a country of rich heritage and cultural diversity.”

Which one of the following facts best supports the claim made in the above sentence?
(A) India is a union of 28 states and 7 union territories.
(B) India has a population of over 1.1 billion.
(C) India is home to 22 official languages and thousands of dialects.
(D) The Indian cricket team draws players from over ten states.

Q.2 The value of one U.S. dollar is 65 Indian Rupees today, compared to 60 last year. The Indian Rupee
has ____________.

)
(A) depressed (B) depreciated (C) appreciated (D) stabilized

14
Q.3 'Advice' is ________________.
(A) a verb (B) a noun (C) an adjective (D) both a verb and a noun

20
Q.4 The next term in the series 81, 54, 36, 24, … is ________

Q.5 In which of the following options will the expression P < M be definitely true?

(A) M < R > P > S (B) M > S < P < F

E (C) Q < M < F = P (D) P = A < R < M
AT
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the next term in the sequence: 7G, 11K, 13M, ___
(A) 15Q (B) 17Q (C) 15P (D) 17P
(G
5
A0
G

GA 1/3
GATE 2014 SET- 5 General Aptitude -GA
Q.7 The multi-level hierarchical pie chart shows the population of animals in a reserve forest. The
correct conclusions from this information are:

)
14
20
E
AT
(i) Butterflies are birds
(ii) There are more tigers in this forest than red ants
(iii) All reptiles in this forest are either snakes or crocodiles
(iv) Elephants are the largest mammals in this forest
(G

(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Q.8 A man can row at 8 km per hour in still water. If it takes him thrice as long to row upstream, as to
5

row downstream, then find the stream velocity in km per hour.

A0
G

GA 2/3
GATE 2014 SET- 5 General Aptitude -GA
Q.9 A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units in 2012. The following pie chart presents the share of
raw material, labour, energy, plant & machinery, and transportation costs in the total manufacturing
cost of the firm in 2012. The expenditure on labour in 2012 is Rs. 4,50,000. In 2013, the raw
material expenses increased by 30% and all other expenses increased by 20%. If the company
registered a profit of Rs. 10 lakhs in 2012, at what price (in Rs.) was each air purifier sold?

)
14
20
E
Q.10 A batch of one hundred bulbs is inspected by testing four randomly chosen bulbs. The batch is
AT
rejected if even one of the bulbs is defective. A batch typically has five defective bulbs. The
probability that the current batch is accepted is
(G

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

5
A0
G

GA 3/3
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The maximum value of the function 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙(1 + 𝑥𝑥) − 𝑥𝑥 (where 𝑥𝑥 > −1) occurs at 𝑥𝑥 =______.

Q.2 Which ONE of the following is a linear non-homogeneous differential equation, where x and y are
the independent and dependent variables respectively?

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
(A) + 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 = 𝑒𝑒 −𝑥𝑥
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
(B) 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
+ 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 = 0
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
(C) + 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 = 𝑒𝑒 −𝑦𝑦

)
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
(D) + 𝑒𝑒 −𝑦𝑦 = 0

14
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

Q.3 Match the application to appropriate numerical method.

20
Application Numerical |Method

P1: Numerical integration M1: Newton-Raphson Method

P2: Solution to a transcendental equation M2: Runge-Kutta Method
P3: Solution to a system of linear equations M3: Simpson’s 1/3-rule
P4: Solution to a differential equation
E M4: Gauss Elimination Method
AT
(A) P1—M3, P2—M2, P3—M4, P4—M1
(B) P1—M3, P2—M1, P3—M4, P4—M2
(C) P1—M4, P2—M1, P3—M3, P4—M2
(D) P1—M2, P2—M1, P3—M3, P4—M4
(G

Q.4 An unbiased coin is tossed an infinite number of times. The probability that the fourth head appears
at the tenth toss is
03

(A) 0.067 (B) 0.073 (C) 0.082 (D) 0.091

Q.5 If z = xy ln( xy ), then

∂z ∂z ∂z ∂z
(A) x +y =
0 (B) y =x
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y
∂z ∂z ∂z ∂z
(C) x =y (D) y +x = 0
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y

EC 1/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.6 A series RC circuit is connected to a DC voltage source at time t = 0. The relation between the
source voltage VS, the resistance R, the capacitance C, and the current i(t) is given below:
1 𝑡𝑡
𝑉𝑉𝑠𝑠 = 𝑅𝑅 𝑖𝑖(𝑡𝑡) + ∫𝑜𝑜 𝑖𝑖(𝑢𝑢)𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑.
𝐶𝐶

Which one of the following represents the current i(t)?

(A) (B)

i(t) i(t)

)
14
20
0 t 0 t

0 t 0 t
03

Q.7 In the figure shown, the value of the current I (in Amperes) is __________.
EC

Q.8 In MOSFET fabrication, the channel length is defined during the process of

(A) isolation oxide growth

(B) channel stop implantation
(C) poly-silicon gate patterning
(D) lithography step leading to the contact pads

EC 2/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.9 A thin P-type silicon sample is uniformly illuminated with light which generates excess carriers.
The recombination rate is directly proportional to
(A) the minority carrier mobility
(B) the minority carrier recombination lifetime
(C) the majority carrier concentration
(D) the excess minority carrier concentration

𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
Q.10 At T = 300 K, the hole mobility of a semiconductor 𝜇𝜇𝑝𝑝 = 500 cm2 /V-s and 𝑞𝑞
= 26 mV. The
hole diffusion constant 𝐷𝐷𝑝𝑝 in cm2 /s is ________

)
14
Q.11 The desirable characteristics of a transconductance amplifier are
(A) high input resistance and high output resistance
(B) high input resistance and low output resistance

20
(C) low input resistance and high output resistance
(D) low input resistance and low output resistance

Q.12 In the circuit shown, the PNP transistor has |𝑉𝑉𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 | = 0.7 Vand β = 50. Assume that 𝑅𝑅𝐵𝐵 = 100 𝑘𝑘Ω.
For V0 to be 5 V, the value of 𝑅𝑅𝐶𝐶 (in 𝑘𝑘Ω) is _______
E
AT
RC
V0
(G

RB V EE = 10 V
03

Q.13 The figure shows a half-wave rectifier. The diode D is ideal. The average steady-state current (in
Amperes) through the diode is approximately ____________.
EC

Q.14 An analog voltage in the range 0 to 8 V is divided in 16 equal intervals for conversion to 4-bit
digital output. The maximum quantization error (in V) is _________

EC 3/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.15 The circuit shown in the figure is a

D
Q Q
D Latch D Latch
En En
Q Q

Clk

(A) Toggle Flip Flop

(B) JK Flip Flop
(C) SR Latch

)
(D) Master-Slave D Flip Flop

14
Q.16 Consider the multiplexer based logic circuit shown in the figure.

20
W 0
MUX 0
1 MUX F
E 1

S1
S2
AT
Which one of the following Boolean functions is realized by the circuit?
(A) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑊𝑊𝑆𝑆�1 𝑆𝑆
��2
(B) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑊𝑊𝑆𝑆1 + 𝑊𝑊𝑆𝑆2 + 𝑆𝑆1 𝑆𝑆2
� + 𝑆𝑆1 + 𝑆𝑆2
(C) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑊𝑊
(G

(D) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑊𝑊 ⊕ 𝑆𝑆1 ⊕ 𝑆𝑆2

Q.17 Let 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) = cos(10𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋) + cos(30𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋) be sampled at 20 Hz and reconstructed using an ideal low-pass
filter with cut-off frequency of 20 Hz. The frequency/frequencies present in the reconstructed signal
is/are
03

(A) 5 Hz and 15 Hz only (B) 10 Hz and 15 Hz only

Q.18 (𝑧𝑧 −1 −𝑏𝑏 )

For an all-pass system 𝐻𝐻(𝑧𝑧) = (1− 𝑎𝑎𝑧𝑧 −1 )
, where �𝐻𝐻�𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗 �� = 1, for all 𝜔𝜔.
If Re(𝑎𝑎) ≠ 0, Im(𝑎𝑎) ≠ 0, then b equals
(A) 𝑎𝑎 (B) 𝑎𝑎∗ (C) 1/𝑎𝑎∗ (D) 1/𝑎𝑎

EC 4/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.19 A modulated signal is 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝑚𝑚(𝑡𝑡) cos(40000𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋), where the baseband signal 𝑚𝑚(𝑡𝑡) has frequency
components less than 5 kHz only. The minimum required rate (in kHz) at which 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) should be
sampled to recover 𝑚𝑚(𝑡𝑡) is _______.

Q.20 Consider the following block diagram in the figure.

)
14
𝐶𝐶(𝑠𝑠)
The transfer function is
𝑅𝑅(𝑠𝑠)

1𝐺𝐺 𝐺𝐺2

20
(A)1+𝐺𝐺
1 𝐺𝐺2
(B)𝐺𝐺1 𝐺𝐺2 + 𝐺𝐺1 + 1
(C)𝐺𝐺1 𝐺𝐺2 + 𝐺𝐺2 + 1
𝐺𝐺
(D)1+𝐺𝐺1 𝐺𝐺
1 2
E
Q.21 The input −3e2𝑡𝑡 𝑢𝑢(𝑡𝑡), where 𝑢𝑢(𝑡𝑡) is the unit step function, is applied to a system with transfer
AT
𝑠𝑠−2
function 𝑠𝑠+3. If the initial value of the output is −2, then the value of the output at steady state is
_______.
(G

Q.22 The phase response of a passband waveform at the receiver is given by

𝜑𝜑(𝑓𝑓) = −2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋(𝑓𝑓 − 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐 ) − 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐
where 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐 is the centre frequency, and 𝛼𝛼 and 𝛽𝛽 are positive constants. The actual signal propagation
03

delay from the transmitter to receiver is

𝛼𝛼 −𝛽𝛽 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼
(A) 𝛼𝛼 +𝛽𝛽 (B) 𝛼𝛼+𝛽𝛽
(C) 𝛼𝛼 (D) 𝛽𝛽
EC

Q.23 Consider an FM signal 𝑓𝑓(𝑡𝑡) = cos[2𝜋𝜋𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐 𝑡𝑡 + 𝛽𝛽1 sin 2𝜋𝜋𝑓𝑓1 𝑡𝑡 + 𝛽𝛽2 sin 2𝜋𝜋𝑓𝑓2 𝑡𝑡 ]. The maximum deviation
of the instantaneous frequency from the carrier frequency 𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐 is
(A) 𝛽𝛽1 𝑓𝑓1 + 𝛽𝛽2 𝑓𝑓2 (B) 𝛽𝛽1 𝑓𝑓2 + 𝛽𝛽2 𝑓𝑓1
(C) 𝛽𝛽1 + 𝛽𝛽2 (D) 𝑓𝑓1 + 𝑓𝑓2

Q.24 Consider an air filled rectangular waveguide with a cross-section of 5 cm × 3 cm. For this
waveguide, the cut-off frequency (in MHz) of TE21 mode is _________.

EC 5/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.25 In the following figure, the transmitter Tx sends a wideband modulated RF signal via a coaxial
cable to the receiver Rx. The output impedance ZT of Tx, the characteristic impedance Z0 of the
cable and the input impedance ZR of Rx are all real.

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the distortion of the received signal due to
impedance mismatch?

)
(A) The signal gets distorted if ZR ≠ Z0, irrespective of the value of ZT

14
(B) The signal gets distorted if ZT ≠ Z0, irrespective of the value of ZR
(C) Signal distortion implies impedance mismatch at both ends: ZT ≠ Z0 and ZR ≠ Z0
(D) Impedance mismatches do NOT result in signal distortion but reduce power transfer efficiency

20
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The maximum value of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 2𝑥𝑥 3 − 9𝑥𝑥 2 + 12𝑥𝑥 − 3 in the interval 0 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 3 is _______.
E
Q.27 Which one of the following statements is NOT true for a square matrix 𝐴𝐴?
(A) If 𝐴𝐴 is upper triangular, the eigenvalues of 𝐴𝐴 are the diagonal elements of it
AT
(B) If 𝐴𝐴 is real symmetric, the eigenvalues of 𝐴𝐴 are always real and positive
(C) If 𝐴𝐴 is real, the eigenvalues of 𝐴𝐴 and 𝐴𝐴𝑇𝑇 are always the same
(D) If all the principal minors of 𝐴𝐴 are positive, all the eigenvalues of 𝐴𝐴 are also positive
(G

Q.28 A fair coin is tossed repeatedly till both head and tail appear at least once. The average number of
tosses required is ______ .

Q.29 Let X1, X2, and X3 be independent and identically distributed random variables with the uniform
distribution on [0, 1]. The probability P{X1+ X2≤ X3} is ________.
03
EC

EC 6/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.30 Consider the building block called ‘Network N’ shown in the figure.
Let C = 100 µF and R = 10 kΩ.
Network N

+ +
C
V1(s) R V2(s)

- -

Two such blocks are connected in cascade, as shown in the figure.

)
+ + +

14
C
V1(s) R N
Network Network N V3(s)

- - -

20
𝑉𝑉 (𝑠𝑠)
The transfer function 𝑉𝑉3 (𝑠𝑠) of the cascaded network is
1
𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑠 2 2 𝑠𝑠
(A) 𝑠𝑠 (D)
1+𝑠𝑠 (B) 1+3𝑠𝑠+𝑠𝑠 2 E (C) �1+𝑠𝑠� 2+𝑠𝑠

Q.31 In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of node voltage 𝑉𝑉2 is
AT
(G
03

(A) 22 + j 2 V (B) 2 + j 22 V (C) 22 – j 2 V (D) 2 – j 22 V

Q.32 In the circuit shown in the figure, the angular frequency ω (in rad/s), at which the Norton equivalent
impedance as seen from terminals b-b′ is purely resistive, is _________.

EC 7/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.33 For the Y-network shown in the figure, the value of R1 (in Ω) in the equivalent ∆-network is ____.

5Ω 3Ω

7.5 Ω

)
14
The donor and accepter impurities in an abrupt junction silicon diode are 1 x 1016 cm-3 and 5 x 1018

20
Q.34
cm-3, respectively. Assume that the intrinsic carrier concentration in silicon ni = 1.5 x 1010 cm-3 at
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
300 K, = 26 mV and the permittivity of silicon 𝜖𝜖𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 1.04 × 10−12 F/cm. The built-in potential
𝑞𝑞
and the depletion width of the diode under thermal equilibrium conditions, respectively, are
E
(A) 0.7 V and 1 x 10-4 cm
(B) 0.86 V and 1 x 10-4 cm
AT
(C) 0.7 V and 3.3 x 10-5 cm
(D) 0.86 V and 3.3 x 10-5 cm

Q.35 The slope of the 𝐼𝐼𝐷𝐷 vs. 𝑉𝑉𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 curve of an n-channel MOSFET in linear regime is 10−3 Ω−1 at
(G

𝑉𝑉𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 = 0.1 V. For the same device, neglecting channel length modulation, the slope of the �𝐼𝐼𝐷𝐷 vs.
𝑉𝑉𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 curve (in √A/V) under saturation regime is approximately _________.

Q.36 An ideal MOS capacitor has boron doping-concentration of 1015 cm-3 in the substrate. When a gate
03

voltage is applied, a depletion region of width 0.5 µm is formed with a surface (channel) potential
of 0.2 V. Given that ε0 = 8.854 × 10-14 F/cm and the relative permittivities of silicon and silicon
dioxide are 12 and 4, respectively, the peak electric field (in V/µm) in the oxide region is
_____________.
EC

EC 8/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.37 In the circuit shown, the silicon BJT has β = 50. Assume VBE = 0.7 V and VCE(sat) = 0.2 V. Which
one of the following statements is correct?

(A) For RC = 1 kΩ, the BJT operates in the saturation region

(B) For RC = 3 kΩ, the BJT operates in the saturation region
(C) For RC =20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the cut-off region

)
(D) For RC =20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the linear region

14
Q.38 Assuming that the Op-amp in the circuit shown is ideal, Vo is given by

20
E
AT
5 5
(A) V
2 1
− 3V2 (B) 2V1 − 2 V2

3 7 11
(C) − V1 + V2 (D) −3V1 + V
2 2 2 2
(G

Q.39 For the MOSFET M1 shown in the figure, assume W/L = 2, VDD = 2.0 V, 𝜇𝜇𝑛𝑛 𝐶𝐶𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 100 μA/V 2 and
VTH = 0.5 V. The transistor M1 switches from saturation region to linear region when Vin (in Volts)
is__________.
VDD
03

R= 10 kΩ
EC

Vout
Vin M1

EC 9/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.40 If WL is the Word Line and BL the Bit Line, an SRAM cell is shown in

(A) (B)

)
14
(C) (D)

20
E
AT

Q.41 In the circuit shown, 𝑊𝑊 and 𝑌𝑌 are MSBs of the control inputs. The output 𝐹𝐹 is given by

4:1 MUX
(G

4:1 MUX

I0 I0

I1 I1 F
VCC Q Q
03

I2 I2

I3 I3
EC

W X Y Z

(A) 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑊𝑊𝑋𝑋� + 𝑊𝑊
� 𝑋𝑋 + 𝑌𝑌�𝑍𝑍̅
(B) �
𝐹𝐹 = 𝑊𝑊𝑋𝑋 + 𝑊𝑊� 𝑋𝑋 + 𝑌𝑌�𝑍𝑍
(C) � � � 𝑋𝑋𝑌𝑌�
𝐹𝐹 = 𝑊𝑊𝑋𝑋𝑌𝑌 + 𝑊𝑊
(D) � + 𝑋𝑋�)𝑌𝑌�𝑍𝑍̅
𝐹𝐹 = (𝑊𝑊

EC 10/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q.42 If X and Y are inputs and the Difference (D = X – Y) and the Borrow (B) are the outputs, which
one of the following diagrams implements a half-subtractor?

(A) (B)
Y I0 X I0
2:1 2:1
MUX D MUX D
I1 I1
S S
X Y
S S
Y I0 2:1 X I0 2:1
MUX
B MUX
B
I1 I1

)
(C) (D)

14
Y I0 X I0
2:1 2:1
MUX B MUX B
I1 I1
S S
X Y

20
S S
Y I0 2:1 X I0
D 2:1
MUX MUX
D
I1 I1

Q.43
E
Let 𝐻𝐻1 (𝑧𝑧) = (1 − 𝑝𝑝𝑧𝑧 −1 )−1 , 𝐻𝐻2 (𝑧𝑧) = (1 − 𝑞𝑞𝑧𝑧 −1 )−1 , 𝐻𝐻(𝑧𝑧) = 𝐻𝐻1 (𝑧𝑧) + 𝑟𝑟 𝐻𝐻2 (𝑧𝑧). The quantities 𝑝𝑝, 𝑞𝑞,
1 1
𝑟𝑟 are real numbers. Consider 𝑝𝑝 = , 𝑞𝑞 = − , |𝑟𝑟| < 1. If the zero of 𝐻𝐻(𝑧𝑧) lies on the unit circle,
AT
2 4
then 𝑟𝑟 = ________

Q.44
(G

1
Let ℎ(𝑡𝑡) denote the impulse response of a causal system with transfer function 𝑠𝑠+1. Consider the
following three statements.
S1: The system is stable.
ℎ (𝑡𝑡+1)
S2: is independent of 𝑡𝑡 for 𝑡𝑡 > 0.
ℎ (𝑡𝑡)
03

S3: A non-causal system with the same transfer function is stable.

For the above system,
(A) only S1 and S2 are true (B) only S2 and S3 are true
EC

Q.45 1
The z-transform of the sequence 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛] is given by X(𝑧𝑧) = (1−2 𝑧𝑧 −1 )2 , with the region of
convergence |𝑧𝑧| > 2. Then, 𝑥𝑥[2] is ________.

EC 11/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.46 The steady state error of the system shown in the figure for a unit step input is _______.

Q.47 The state equation of a second-order linear system is given by

)
𝒙𝒙̇ (𝑡𝑡) = 𝐴𝐴𝒙𝒙(𝑡𝑡), 𝒙𝒙(0) = 𝒙𝒙0

14
1 −𝑡𝑡 0 −𝑡𝑡 −2𝑡𝑡
For 𝒙𝒙0 = � � , 𝒙𝒙(𝑡𝑡) = � 𝑒𝑒 −𝑡𝑡 � and for 𝒙𝒙0 = � � , 𝒙𝒙(𝑡𝑡) = � 𝑒𝑒 −𝑡𝑡 − 𝑒𝑒 −2𝑡𝑡 �.
−1 −𝑒𝑒 1 −𝑒𝑒 + 2𝑒𝑒

3
When 𝒙𝒙0 = � �, 𝒙𝒙(𝑡𝑡) is

20
5
−𝑡𝑡 −2𝑡𝑡 −𝑡𝑡 −2𝑡𝑡
(A) �−8𝑒𝑒−𝑡𝑡 + 11𝑒𝑒−2𝑡𝑡 � (B) � 11𝑒𝑒 −𝑡𝑡 − 8𝑒𝑒 −2𝑡𝑡 �
8𝑒𝑒 − 22𝑒𝑒 −11𝑒𝑒 + 16𝑒𝑒
−𝑡𝑡 −2𝑡𝑡 −𝑡𝑡 −2𝑡𝑡
(C) � 3𝑒𝑒 −𝑡𝑡 − 5𝑒𝑒 −2𝑡𝑡 � (D) � 5𝑒𝑒 −𝑡𝑡− 3𝑒𝑒 −2𝑡𝑡 �
−3𝑒𝑒 + 10𝑒𝑒 −5𝑒𝑒 + 6𝑒𝑒
E
AT
Q.48 In the root locus plot shown in the figure, the pole/zero marks and the arrows have been removed.
Which one of the following transfer functions has this root locus?
(G
03

𝑠𝑠+1 𝑠𝑠+4
(A) (𝑠𝑠+2)(𝑠𝑠+4)(𝑠𝑠+7)
(B) (𝑠𝑠+1)(𝑠𝑠+2)(𝑠𝑠+7)
EC

𝑠𝑠+7 (𝑠𝑠+1)(𝑠𝑠+2)
(C) (𝑠𝑠+1)(𝑠𝑠+2)(𝑠𝑠+4)
(D) (𝑠𝑠+7)(𝑠𝑠+4)

Q.49 Let 𝑋𝑋(𝑡𝑡) be a wide sense stationary (WSS) random process with power spectral density 𝑆𝑆𝑋𝑋 (𝑓𝑓). If
𝑌𝑌(𝑡𝑡) is the process defined as 𝑌𝑌(𝑡𝑡) = 𝑋𝑋(2𝑡𝑡 − 1), the power spectral density 𝑆𝑆𝑌𝑌 (𝑓𝑓) is
𝑓𝑓 𝑓𝑓
(A) 𝑆𝑆𝑌𝑌 (𝑓𝑓) = 1
2
𝑆𝑆𝑋𝑋 �2 � 𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗 (B) 𝑆𝑆𝑌𝑌 (𝑓𝑓) = 1
2
𝑆𝑆𝑋𝑋 �2 � 𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗 /2
𝑓𝑓 𝑓𝑓
(C) 𝑆𝑆𝑌𝑌 (𝑓𝑓) = 1
2
𝑆𝑆𝑋𝑋 �2 � (D) 𝑆𝑆𝑌𝑌 (𝑓𝑓) = 1
2
𝑆𝑆𝑋𝑋 �2 � 𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋

EC 12/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.50 A real band-limited random process 𝑋𝑋(𝑡𝑡) has two-sided power spectral density
−6 (3000 − |𝑓𝑓|) Watts/Hz for |𝑓𝑓| ≤ 3 kHz
𝑆𝑆𝑋𝑋 (𝑓𝑓) = � 10
0 otherwise
where 𝑓𝑓 is the frequency expressed in Hz. The signal 𝑋𝑋(𝑡𝑡) modulates a carrier cos 16000 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 and
the resultant signal is passed through an ideal band-pass filter of unity gain with centre frequency of
8 kHz and band-width of 2 kHz. The output power (in Watts) is _______.

Q.51 In a PCM system, the signal 𝑚𝑚(𝑡𝑡) = {sin(100𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋) + cos(100𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋)} V is sampled at the Nyquist rate.
The samples are processed by a uniform quantizer with step size 0.75 V. The minimum data rate of
the PCM system in bits per second is _____.

)
14
Q.52 A binary random variable 𝑋𝑋 takes the value of 1 with probability 1⁄3. 𝑋𝑋 is input to a cascade of 2
independent identical binary symmetric channels (BSCs) each with crossover probability 1⁄2. The
output of BSCs are the random variables 𝑌𝑌1 and 𝑌𝑌2 as shown in the figure.

20
X Y1 Y2
BSC BSC

The value of 𝐻𝐻(𝑌𝑌1 ) + 𝐻𝐻(𝑌𝑌2 ) in bits is _____.

E
Q.53 Given the vector 𝑨𝑨 = (cos 𝑥𝑥)(sin 𝑦𝑦)𝑎𝑎�𝑥𝑥 + (sin 𝑥𝑥)(cos 𝑦𝑦)𝑎𝑎�𝑦𝑦 , where𝑎𝑎�𝑥𝑥 , 𝑎𝑎�𝑦𝑦 denote unit vectors along
AT
x,y directions, respectively. The magnitude of curl of 𝑨𝑨 is ________

Q.54 A region shown below contains a perfect conducting half-space and air. The surface current ��⃗ 𝐾𝐾𝑠𝑠 on
(G

the surface of the perfect conductor is ��⃗ �⃗ field in the air

𝐾𝐾𝑠𝑠 = 𝑥𝑥�2 amperes per meter. The tangential 𝐻𝐻
just above the perfect conductor is
y
03

��⃗
𝐾𝐾𝑠𝑠 Air
x
EC

Perfect conductor

(A) (𝑥𝑥� + 𝑧𝑧̂ )2 amperes per meter

(B) 𝑥𝑥�2 amperes per meter
(C) −𝑧𝑧̂ 2 amperes per meter
(D) 𝑧𝑧̂ 2 amperes per meter

EC 13/14
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q.55 =
Assume that a plane wave in air with an electric field ( )
E 10 cos ωt − 3 x − 3 z aˆ y V/m is
incident on a non-magnetic dielectric slab of relative permittivity 3 which covers the region z > 0 .
The angle of transmission in the dielectric slab is ________ degrees.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

)
14
20
E
AT
(G
03
EC

EC 14/14
GATE 2014
Answer Keys for EC ‐ Electronics and Communication Engineering
SESSION ‐ ϯ SESSION ‐ ϯ
Section Q. No. Section Q. No.
Key / Range Marks Key / Range Marks
GA 1 C 1 EC 24 7750 to 7850 1
GA 2 B 1 EC 25 C 1
GA 3 B 1 EC 26 5.9 to 6.1 2
GA 4 16 to 16 1 EC 27 B 2
GA 5 D 1 EC 28 2.9 to 3.1 2
GA 6 B 2 EC 29 0.15 to 0.18 2
GA 7 D 2 EC 30 B 2
GA 8 4 to 4 2 EC 31 D 2
GA 9 20000 to 20000 2 EC 32 1.9 to 2.1 2
GA 10 0.80 to 0.82 2 EC 33 9 to 11 2
EC 1 ‐0.01 to 0.01 1 EC 34 D 2
EC 2 A 1 EC 35 0.06 to 0.08 2
EC 3 B 1 EC 36 2.3 to 2.5 2
EC 4 C 1 EC 37 B 2
EC 5 C 1 EC 38 D 2
EC 6 A 1 EC 39 1.4 to 1.6 2
EC 7 0.49 to 0.51 1 EC 40 B 2
EC 8 C 1 EC 41 C 2
EC 9 D 1 EC 42 A 2
EC 10 12.9 to 13.1 1 EC 43 ‐0.6 to ‐0.4 2
EC 11 A 1 EC 44 A 2
EC 12 1.04 to 1.12 1 EC 45 11.9 to 12.1 2
EC 13 0.08 to 0.12 1 EC 46 0.49 to 0.51 2
EC 14 0.24 to 0.26 1 EC 47 B 2
EC 15 D 1 EC 48 B 2
EC 16 D 1 EC 49 C 2
EC 17 A 1 EC 50 2.4 to 2.6 2
EC 18 B 1 EC 51 199 to 201 2
EC 19 9.5 to 10.5 1 EC 52 1.9 to 2.1 2
EC 20 C 1 EC 53 ‐0.01 to 0.01 2
EC 21 ‐0.01 to 0.01 1 EC 54 D 2
EC 22 C 1 EC 55 29 to 31 2
EC 23 A 1
SESSION - 4
GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

Choosing a Section :

Changing the Optional Section :

Read the following instructions carefully.

Declaration by the candidate:

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word underlined in the sentence
below?

In a democracy, everybody has the freedom to disagree with the government.

(A) dissent (B) descent (C) decent (D) decadent

Q.2 After the discussion, Tom said to me, 'Please revert!'. He expects me to _________.
(A) retract (B) get back to him (C) move in reverse (D) retreat

Q.3 While receiving the award, the scientist said, "I feel vindicated". Which of the following is closest

)
in meaning to the word ‘vindicated’?

14
(A) punished (B) substantiated (C) appreciated (D) chastened

Q.4 Let 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦) = 𝑥𝑥 𝑛𝑛 𝑦𝑦 𝑚𝑚 = 𝑃𝑃. If x is doubled and y is halved, the new value of f is
(A) 2𝑛𝑛−𝑚𝑚 𝑃𝑃 (B) 2𝑚𝑚 −𝑛𝑛 𝑃𝑃 (C) 2(𝑛𝑛 − 𝑚𝑚)𝑃𝑃 (D) 2(𝑚𝑚 − 𝑛𝑛)𝑃𝑃

20
Q.5 In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd numbers, the sum of the first 5 numbers is 425. What is the
sum of the last 5 numbers in the sequence?
E
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
AT

Q.6 Find the next term in the sequence: 13M, 17Q, 19S, ___
(G

(A) 21W (B) 21V (C) 23W (D) 23V

Q.7 If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the
following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
(A) MCHTX (B) MXHTC (C) XMHCT (D) XMHTC
6

Q.8 Industrial consumption of power doubled from 2000-2001 to 2010-2011. Find the annual rate of
A0

increase in percent assuming it to be uniform over the years.

(A) 5.6 (B) 7.2 (C) 10.0 (D) 12.2

GA 1/2
GATE 2014 SET- 6 General Aptitude -GA
Q.9 A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units in 2012. The following pie chart presents the share of
raw material, labour, energy, plant & machinery, and transportation costs in the total manufacturing
cost of the firm in 2012. The expenditure on labour in 2012 is Rs. 4,50,000. In 2013, the raw
material expenses increased by 30% and all other expenses increased by 20%. What is the
percentage increase in total cost for the company in 2013?

)
14
20
E
AT
Q.10 A five digit number is formed using the digits 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any of them. What is
the sum of all such possible five digit numbers?
(A) 6666660 (B) 6666600 (C) 6666666 (D) 6666606
(G

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

6
A0
G

GA 2/2
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1
Q.1 The series ∑∞
𝑛𝑛=0 𝑛𝑛! converges to

(A) 2 ln 2 (B) √2 (C) 2 (D) 𝑒𝑒

Q.2 The magnitude of the gradient for the function 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦, 𝑧𝑧) = 𝑥𝑥 2 + 3𝑦𝑦 2 + 𝑧𝑧 3 at the point (1,1,1)
is _________.

Q.3 Let 𝑋𝑋 be a zero mean unit variance Gaussian random variable. 𝐸𝐸[|𝑋𝑋|] is equal to _____

Q.4 If 𝑎𝑎 and 𝑏𝑏 are constants, the most general solution of the differential equation

)
𝑑𝑑2 𝑥𝑥 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
+2 + 𝑥𝑥 = 0 is

14
𝑑𝑑𝑡𝑡 2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
(A) 𝑎𝑎𝑒𝑒 −𝑡𝑡 (B) 𝑎𝑎𝑒𝑒 −𝑡𝑡 + 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑒𝑒 −𝑡𝑡 (C) 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑡𝑡 + 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 −𝑡𝑡 (D) 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 −2𝑡𝑡

Q.5 xy
( x + y ) at (1, 1) in the direction of the unit vector at an

20
The directional derivative of f (=
x, y )
2
π
angle of with y-axis, is given by ______ .
4 E
Q.6 The circuit shown in the figure represents a
AT

Ii AIIi R
(G
04

(A) voltage controlled voltage source

(B) voltage controlled current source
(C) current controlled current source
(D) current controlled voltage source
EC

Q.7 The magnitude of current (in mA) through the resistor R2 in the figure shown is_______.

EC 1/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.8 At T = 300 K, the band gap and the intrinsic carrier concentration of GaAs are 1.42 eV and
106 cm-3, respectively. In order to generate electron hole pairs in GaAs, which one of the
wavelength (λC) ranges of incident radiation, is most suitable? (Given that: Plank’s constant is
6.62 × 10-34 J-s, velocity of light is 3 × 1010 cm/s and charge of electron is 1.6 × 10-19 C)
(A) 0.42 µm < λC < 0.87 µm (B) 0.87 µm < λC < 1.42 µm
(C) 1.42 µm < λC < 1.62 µm (D) 1.62 µm < λC < 6.62 µm

Q.9 In the figure, ln (ρi) is plotted as a function of 1/T, where ρi is the intrinsic resistivity of silicon, T
is the temperature, and the plot is almost linear.

ln (ρi)

)
14
1/T

20
The slope of the line can be used to estimate
(A) band gap energy of silicon (Eg)
(B) sum of electron and hole mobility in silicon (µn + µp)
(C) reciprocal of the sum of electron and hole mobility in silicon (µn + µp) -1
(D) intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon (ni)
E
AT
Q.10 The cut-off wavelength (in µm) of light that can be used for intrinsic excitation of a semiconductor
material of bandgap Eg= 1.1 eV is ________

Q.11 If the emitter resistance in a common-emitter voltage amplifier is not bypassed, it will
(G

(A) reduce both the voltage gain and the input impedance
(B) reduce the voltage gain and increase the input impedance
(C) increase the voltage gain and reduce the input impedance
(D) increase both the voltage gain and the input impedance
04

Q.12 Two silicon diodes, with a forward voltage drop of 0.7 V, are used in the circuit shown in the
figure. The range of input voltage 𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖 for which the output voltage 𝑉𝑉𝑜𝑜 = 𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖 , is
R
EC

Vi D1 D2
VO
-1 V 2V

(A) −0.3 𝑉𝑉 < 𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖 < 1.3 𝑉𝑉

(B) −0.3 𝑉𝑉 < 𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖 < 2 𝑉𝑉
(C) −1.0 𝑉𝑉 < 𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖 < 2.0 𝑉𝑉
(D) −1.7 𝑉𝑉 < 𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖 < 2.7 𝑉𝑉

EC 2/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.13 The circuit shown represents

C2 +12 V
vi –
vo
R2 +
–12 V
R1

–2 V C1

(A) a bandpass filter (B) a voltage controlled oscillator

)
14
Q.14 For a given sample-and-hold circuit, if the value of the hold capacitor is increased, then
(A) droop rate decreases and acquisition time decreases
(B) droop rate decreases and acquisition time increases
(C) droop rate increases and acquisition time decreases

20
(D) droop rate increases and acquisition time increases

Q.15 In the circuit shown in the figure, if 𝐶𝐶 = 0, the expression for 𝑌𝑌 is

E
AT
(G

(A) 𝑌𝑌 = 𝐴𝐴 𝐵𝐵� + 𝐴𝐴̅ 𝐵𝐵 (B) 𝑌𝑌 = 𝐴𝐴 + 𝐵𝐵 (C) 𝑌𝑌 = 𝐴𝐴̅ + 𝐵𝐵� (D) 𝑌𝑌 = 𝐴𝐴 𝐵𝐵

04
EC

EC 3/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.16 The output (Y) of the circuit shown in the figure is

VDD

A B C

Output (Y)
A

)
14
B

20
C

(A) A+B+C
E
(B) A + B⋅C + A⋅C
AT
(C) A+B+ C
(D) A ⋅B⋅ C
(G

Q.17 A Fourier transform pair is given by

2 𝑛𝑛 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝐴𝐴 𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗 6𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋

� � 𝑢𝑢[𝑛𝑛 + 3] ⇔
3 2
1 − �3� 𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
04

where 𝑢𝑢[𝑛𝑛] denotes the unit step sequence. The values of 𝐴𝐴 is _________.
EC

𝑊𝑊
Q.18 A real-valued signal 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) limited to the frequency band |𝑓𝑓| ≤ is passed through a linear time
2
invariant system whose frequency response is

𝑊𝑊
𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗 4𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 , |𝑓𝑓| ≤
𝐻𝐻(𝑓𝑓) = � 2 .
𝑊𝑊
0, |𝑓𝑓| >
2

The output of the system is

(A) 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡 + 4) (B) 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡 − 4) (C) 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡 + 2) (D) 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡 − 2)

EC 4/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.19 The sequence 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛] = 0.5𝑛𝑛 𝑢𝑢[𝑛𝑛] , where 𝑢𝑢[𝑛𝑛] is the unit step sequence, is convolved with itself to
obtain 𝑦𝑦[𝑛𝑛]. Then ∑+ ∞
𝑛𝑛= − ∞ 𝑦𝑦[𝑛𝑛] is _______.

Q.20 In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high
frequencies by a 4th order all-pole system?
(A) – 80 dB/decade (B) – 40 dB/decade (C) +40 dB/decade (D) +80 dB/decade

Q.21 For the second order closed-loop system shown in the figure, the natural frequency (in rad/s) is

)
U(s) Y(s)
+ 4

14
s(s+4)
-

20
(A) 16 (B) 4 E (C) 2 (D) 1

Q.22 If calls arrive at a telephone exchange such that the time of arrival of any call is independent of the
AT
time of arrival of earlier or future calls, the probability distribution function of the total number of
calls in a fixed time interval will be
(A) Poisson (B) Gaussian (C) Exponential (D) Gamma

Q.23 In a double side-band (DSB) full carrier AM transmission system, if the modulation index is
(G

doubled, then the ratio of total sideband power to the carrier power increases by a factor of ______.

Q.24 For an antenna radiating in free space, the electric field at a distance of 1 km is found to be 12
mV/m. Given that intrinsic impedance of the free space is 120π Ω , the magnitude of average
04

power density due to this antenna at a distance of 2 km from the antenna (in nW/m2 ) is ____.

Q.25 Match column A with column B.

Column A Column B
1. Point electromagnetic source P. Highly directional
2. Dish antenna Q. End fire
3. Yagi-Uda antenna R. Isotropic
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 → 𝑃𝑃 1 → 𝑅𝑅 1 → 𝑄𝑄 1 → 𝑅𝑅
2 → 𝑄𝑄 2 → 𝑃𝑃 2 → 𝑃𝑃 2 → 𝑄𝑄
3 → 𝑅𝑅 3 → 𝑄𝑄 3 → 𝑅𝑅 3 → 𝑃𝑃

EC 5/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 With initial values 𝑦𝑦(0) = 𝑦𝑦 ′ (0) = 1, the solution of the differential equation
𝑑𝑑2 𝑦𝑦 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
2
+4 + 4𝑦𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
at 𝑥𝑥 = 1 is _____.

Q.27 Parcels from sender S to receiver R pass sequentially through two post-offices. Each post-office has
1
a probability of losing an incoming parcel, independently of all other parcels. Given that a parcel
5
is lost, the probability that it was lost by the second post-office is_________.

)
14
Q.28 1
The unilateral Laplace transform of 𝑓𝑓(𝑡𝑡) is 𝑠𝑠 2 +𝑠𝑠+1. Which one of the following is the unilateral
Laplace transform of 𝑔𝑔(𝑡𝑡) = 𝑡𝑡 ∙ 𝑓𝑓(𝑡𝑡)?
− 𝑠𝑠 −(2𝑠𝑠+1)

20
(A)(𝑠𝑠 2 +𝑠𝑠+1)2 (B)(𝑠𝑠 2 +𝑠𝑠+1)2
𝑠𝑠 2𝑠𝑠+1
(C)(𝑠𝑠 2 +𝑠𝑠+1)2 (D)(𝑠𝑠 2 +𝑠𝑠+1)2

Q.29
E
For a right angled triangle, if the sum of the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side is kept constant, in
order to have maximum area of the triangle, the angle between the hypotenuse and the side is
(A) 12o (B) 36o (C) 60o (D) 45o
AT
Q.30 The steady state output of the circuit shown in the figure is given by
𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝐴𝐴(𝜔𝜔) sin( 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 + 𝜙𝜙(𝜔𝜔)). If the amplitude | 𝐴𝐴(𝜔𝜔)| = 0.25 , then the frequency 𝜔𝜔 is
(G

R C y(t)

sin(ωt) C
04

C
EC

1 2 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
√ 𝑅𝑅 𝐶𝐶
3 √ 𝑅𝑅 𝐶𝐶
3 𝑅𝑅 𝐶𝐶 𝑅𝑅 𝐶𝐶

Q.31 In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of v0 (t) (in Volts) for t → ∞ is ______.

2H
+ 2ix +
10 u(t) A - 5Ω vo (t)
-
5Ω

EC 6/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC

Q.32 The equivalent resistance in the infinite ladder network shown in the figure, is Re.

The value of R e /R is ________

Q.33 For the two-port network shown in the figure, the impedance (Z) matrix (in Ω) is

)
14
20
6 24 9 8 9 6 42 6
(A) � � (B) � � (C) � � (D) � �
42 9 8 24 6 24 6 60

Q.34
E
Consider a silicon sample doped with ND = 1×1015/cm3 donor atoms. Assume that the intrinsic
carrier concentration ni = 1.5×1010/cm3. If the sample is additionally doped with NA = 1×1018/cm3
AT
acceptor atoms, the approximate number of electrons/cm3 in the sample, at T=300 K,
will be ______.
Q.35 Consider two BJTs biased at the same collector current with area A1 = 0.2 µm × 0.2 µm and
A2 = 300 µm × 300 µm. Assuming that all other device parameters are identical, kT/q = 26 mV,
(G

the intrinsic carrier concentration is 1 × 1010 cm-3, and q = 1.6 × 10-19 C, the difference between the
base-emitter voltages (in mV) of the two BJTs (i.e., VBE1 – VBE2) is _____.
04
EC

EC 7/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.36 An N-type semiconductor having uniform doping is biased as shown in the figure.

If EC is the lowest energy level of the conduction band, EV is the highest energy level of the valance
band and EF is the Fermi level, which one of the following represents the energy band diagram for
the biased N-type semiconductor?
(A) (B)

)
EC EC
EF

14
EF

EV EV

20
EC
EF
EC
EF
EV E EV
AT
Q.37 Consider the common-collector amplifier in the figure (bias circuitry ensures that the transistor
operates in forward active region, but has been omitted for simplicity). Let IC be the collector
current, VBE be the base-emitter voltage and VT be the thermal voltage. Also, 𝑔𝑔𝑚𝑚 and 𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜 are the
small-signal transconductance and output resistance of the transistor, respectively. Which one of the
(G

following conditions ensures a nearly constant small signal voltage gain for a wide range of values
of R E ?
04
EC

(A) 𝑔𝑔𝑚𝑚 R E ≪ 1 (B) IC R E ≫ VT (C) 𝑔𝑔𝑚𝑚 𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜 ≫ 1 (D) VBE ≫ VT

Q.38 A BJT in a common-base configuration is used to amplify a signal received by a 50 Ω antenna.

Assume kT/q = 25 mV. The value of the collector bias current (in mA) required to match the input
impedance of the amplifier to the impedance of the antenna is________.

EC 8/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.39 For the common collector amplifier shown in the figure, the BJT has high β, negligible VCE(sat), and
VBE = 0.7 V. The maximum undistorted peak-to-peak output voltage vo (in Volts) is _______.

VCC = +12 V

R1
5 kΩ
1 µF
vi •
1 µF
R2 vo
10 kΩ
RE
1 kΩ

)
14
Q.40 An 8-to-1 multiplexer is used to implement a logical function 𝑌𝑌 as shown in the figure. The output
𝑌𝑌 is given by

20
E
AT
(G

(A) 𝑌𝑌 = 𝐴𝐴 𝐵𝐵� 𝐶𝐶 + 𝐴𝐴 𝐶𝐶̅ 𝐷𝐷 (B) 𝑌𝑌 = 𝐴𝐴̅ 𝐵𝐵 𝐶𝐶 + 𝐴𝐴 𝐵𝐵� 𝐷𝐷

Q.41 A 16-bit ripple carry adder is realized using 16 identical full adders (FA) as shown in the figure.
The carry-propagation delay of each FA is 12 ns and the sum-propagation delay of each FA is
15 ns. The worst case delay (in ns) of this 16-bit adder will be __________.

A0 B0 A1 B1 A14 B14 A15 B15

C0 C1 C14 C15
FA0 FA1 FA14 FA15

S0 S1 S14 S15

Q.42 An 8085 microprocessor executes “STA 1234H” with starting address location 1FFEH (STA copies
the contents of the Accumulator to the 16-bit address location). While the instruction is fetched and
executed, the sequence of values written at the address pins A15 − A8 is
(A) 1FH, 1FH, 20H, 12H (B) 1FH, FEH, 1FH, FFH, 12H
(C) 1FH, 1FH, 12H, 12H (D) 1FH, 1FH, 12H, 20H, 12H

EC 9/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.43 1
A stable linear time invariant (LTI) system has a transfer function 𝐻𝐻(𝑠𝑠) = 𝑠𝑠 2 +𝑠𝑠−6. To make this
system causal it needs to be cascaded with another LTI system having a transfer function 𝐻𝐻1 (𝑠𝑠). A
correct choice for 𝐻𝐻1 (𝑠𝑠) among the following options is
(A) 𝑠𝑠 + 3 (B) 𝑠𝑠 − 2 (C) 𝑠𝑠 − 6 (D) 𝑠𝑠 + 1

Q.44 A causal LTI system has zero initial conditions and impulse response ℎ(𝑡𝑡). Its input 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) and
output 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) are related through the linear constant-coefficient differential equation

𝑑𝑑2 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑(𝑡𝑡)

2
+ 𝛼𝛼 + 𝛼𝛼 2 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡).
𝑑𝑑𝑡𝑡 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

Let another signal 𝑔𝑔(𝑡𝑡) be defined as

)
14
𝑡𝑡
2
𝑑𝑑ℎ(𝑡𝑡)
𝑔𝑔(𝑡𝑡) = 𝛼𝛼 � ℎ(𝜏𝜏)𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 + + 𝛼𝛼ℎ(𝑡𝑡).
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
0

20
If 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) is the Laplace transform of 𝑔𝑔(𝑡𝑡), then the number of poles of 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) is _____.

Q.45 The 𝑁𝑁-point DFT 𝑋𝑋 of a sequence 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛], 0 ≤ 𝑛𝑛 ≤ 𝑁𝑁 − 1 is given by

𝑁𝑁−1

𝑋𝑋[𝑘𝑘] =
1
� 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛]𝑒𝑒 −𝑗𝑗
E2𝜋𝜋
𝑁𝑁
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
, 0 ≤ 𝑘𝑘 ≤ 𝑁𝑁 − 1.
√𝑁𝑁 𝑛𝑛=0
AT

Denote this relation as 𝑋𝑋 = 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷(𝑥𝑥). For 𝑁𝑁 = 4, which one of the following sequences satisfies
𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷(𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷(𝑥𝑥)) = 𝑥𝑥 ?
(A) 𝑥𝑥 = [1 2 3 4] (B) 𝑥𝑥 = [1 2 3 2]
(G

Q.46 𝑥𝑥̇ 0 1 𝑥𝑥1

The state transition matrix 𝜙𝜙(t) of a system � 1 � = � � � � is
𝑥𝑥̇ 2 0 0 𝑥𝑥2
04

𝑡𝑡 1 1 0 0 1 1 𝑡𝑡
(A) � � (B) � � (C) � � (D) � �
1 0 𝑡𝑡 1 1 𝑡𝑡 0 1
EC

Q.47 𝑝𝑝𝑠𝑠 2 +3𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 −2

Consider a transfer function 𝐺𝐺𝑝𝑝 (𝑠𝑠) = with 𝑝𝑝 a positive real parameter. The
𝑠𝑠 2 +(3+𝑝𝑝)𝑠𝑠+(2−𝑝𝑝)
maximum value of 𝑝𝑝 until which 𝐺𝐺𝑝𝑝 remains stable is ________.

EC 10/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.48 The characteristic equation of a unity negative feedback system is 1 + 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾(𝑠𝑠) = 0. The open loop
transfer function 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) has one pole at 0 and two poles at -1. The root locus of the system for
varying K is shown in the figure.

jω

ξ=0.5
A

)
(0,0)
σ

14
−1 −1/3 O

20
E
AT
The constant damping ratio line, for ξ=0.5, intersects the root locus at point A. The distance from
the origin to point A is given as 0.5. The value of 𝐾𝐾 at point A is ________ .
(G

Q.49 Consider a communication scheme where the binary valued signal X satisfies 𝑃𝑃{𝑋𝑋 = +1} = 0.75
and 𝑃𝑃{𝑋𝑋 = −1} = 0.25. The received signal Y = X + Z, where Z is a Gaussian random variable
with zero mean and variance 𝜎𝜎 2 . The received signal Y is fed to the threshold detector. The output
of the threshold detector 𝑋𝑋� is:

+1, 𝑌𝑌 > 𝜏𝜏
04

𝑋𝑋� = �
−1, 𝑌𝑌 ≤ 𝜏𝜏.

To achieve a minimum probability of error 𝑃𝑃�𝑋𝑋� ≠ 𝑋𝑋�, the threshold τ should be

(A) strictly positive

(B) zero
(C) strictly negative
(D) strictly positive, zero, or strictly negative depending on the nonzero value of 𝜎𝜎 2

EC 11/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.50 Consider the Z-channel given in the figure. The input is 0 or 1 with equal probability.

1.0
0 0

INPUT 0.25 OUTPUT

1 1
0.75

If the output is 0, the probability that the input is also 0 equals ______________

)
Q.51 An M-level PSK modulation scheme is used to transmit independent binary digits over a band-pass
channel with bandwidth 100 kHz. The bit rate is 200 kbps and the system characteristic is a raised-

14
cosine spectrum with 100% excess bandwidth. The minimum value of M is ________.

Q.52 Consider a discrete-time channel 𝑌𝑌 = 𝑋𝑋 + 𝑍𝑍, where the additive noise 𝑍𝑍 is signal-dependent.

20
In particular, given the transmitted symbol 𝑋𝑋 ∈ {−𝑎𝑎, +𝑎𝑎} at any instant, the noise sample 𝑍𝑍 is
chosen independently from a Gaussian distribution with mean 𝛽𝛽𝑋𝑋 and unit variance. Assume a
threshold detector with zero threshold at the receiver.

When 𝛽𝛽 = 0, the BER was found to be 𝑄𝑄(𝑎𝑎) = 1 × 10−8 .

(𝑄𝑄(𝑣𝑣) = 12𝜋𝜋 ∫𝑣𝑣∞ 𝑒𝑒 −𝑢𝑢 2 ⁄2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑, and for 𝑣𝑣 > 1, use 𝑄𝑄(𝑣𝑣) ≈ 𝑒𝑒 −𝑣𝑣 2 ⁄2 )
√
E
When 𝛽𝛽 = −0.3, the BER is closest to
AT
(A) 10−7 (B) 10−6 (C) 10−4 (D) 10−2
(G

Q.53 The electric field (assumed to be one-dimensional) between two points A and B is shown. Let 𝜓𝜓𝐴𝐴
and 𝜓𝜓𝐵𝐵 be the electrostatic potentials at A and B, respectively. The value of 𝜓𝜓𝐵𝐵 – 𝜓𝜓𝐴𝐴 in Volts is
________.
04
EC


Q.54 Given F = zaˆ x + xaˆ y + yaˆ z . If S represents the portion of the sphere x + y + z =
1 for z ≥ 0 ,
2 2 2

𝐹𝐹 ∙ ��⃗
then ∫𝑠𝑠 ∇ × ��⃗ 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 is______________.

EC 12/13
GATE 2014 SET4 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING – EC
Q.55 If 𝐸𝐸�⃗ = −(2𝑦𝑦 3 − 3𝑦𝑦𝑧𝑧 2 )𝑥𝑥� − (6𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 2 − 3𝑥𝑥𝑧𝑧 2 )𝑦𝑦� + (6𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥)𝑧𝑧̂ is the electric field in a source free
region, a valid expression for the electrostatic potential is

(A) 𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦 3 − 𝑦𝑦𝑧𝑧 2 (B) 2𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦 3 − 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑧𝑧 2 (C) 𝑦𝑦 3 + 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑧𝑧 2 (D) 2𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦 3 − 3𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑧𝑧 2

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

)
14
20
E
AT
(G
04
EC

EC 13/13
GATE 2014
Answer Keys for EC ‐ Electronics and Communication Engineering
SECTION ‐ 4 SECTION ‐ 4
Section Q. No. Section Q. No.
Key / Range Marks Key / Range Marks
GA 1 A 1 EC 24 47.6 to 47.8 1
GA 2 B 1 EC 25 B 1
GA 3 B 1 EC 26 0.53 to 0.55 2
GA 4 A 1 EC 27 0.43 to 0.45 2
GA 5 495 to 495 1 EC 28 D 2
GA 6 C 2 EC 29 C 2
GA 7 B 2 EC 30 B 2
GA 8 B 2 EC 31 31.24 to 31.26 2
GA 9 22 to 22 2 EC 32 2.60 to 2.64 2
GA 10 B 2 EC 33 C 2
EC 1 D 1 EC 34 224.9 to 225.1 2
EC 2 6.8 to 7.2 1 EC 35 378 to 381 2
EC 3 0.79 to 0.81 1 EC 36 D 2
EC 4 B 1 EC 37 B 2
EC 5 2.99 to 3.01 1 EC 38 0.49 to 0.51 2
EC 6 C 1 EC 39 9.39 to 9.41 2
EC 7 2.79 to 2.81 1 EC 40 C 2
EC 8 A 1 EC 41 194.9 to 195.1 2
EC 9 A 1 EC 42 A 2
EC 10 1.12 to 1.14 1 EC 43 B 2
EC 11 B 1 EC 44 0.99 to 1.01 2
EC 12 D 1 EC 45 B 2
EC 13 D 1 EC 46 D 2
EC 14 B 1 EC 47 1.9 to 2.1 2
EC 15 A 1 EC 48 0.32 to 0.41 2
EC 16 A 1 EC 49 C 2
EC 17 3.36 to 3.39 1 EC 50 0.79 to 0.81 2
EC 18 D 1 EC 51 15.9 to 16.1 2
EC 19 3.9 to 4.1 1 EC 52 C 2
EC 20 A 1 EC 53 ‐15.1 to ‐14.9 2
EC 21 C 1 EC 54 3.13 to 3.15 2
EC 22 A 1 EC 55 D 2
EC 23 3.95 to 4.05 1
SESSION - 1
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering

Notations :

Question Paper Name: EC: ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING 31st Jan Shift1
Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0

Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.

Number of Questions: 10
Section Marks: 15.0

Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
3

Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Number of Questions: 55
Section Marks: 85.0

Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each & Q.36 to Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 11 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
2

Question Number : 12 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 13 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 14 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 15 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
16.5 to 17.5

Question Number : 16 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
24 to 26

Question Number : 17 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
99.5 to 100.5

Question Number : 18 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 19 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 20 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.50 to 0.54

Question Number : 21 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 22 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
5

Question Number : 23 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 24 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 25 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
7

Question Number : 26 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.93 to 0.94

Question Number : 27 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 28 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
2

Question Number : 29 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 30 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
12

Question Number : 31 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 32 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 34 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 35 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
8.85 to 8.92

Question Number : 36 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 37 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 38 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 39 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
0.95 to 1.05

Question Number : 40 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 41 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
2.48 to 2.58

Question Number : 42 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
1.6 to 1.7

Question Number : 43 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
2.4 to 2.6

Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
19 to 21

Question Number : 45 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
28 to 30

Question Number : 46 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 47 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
40
Question Number : 48 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 49 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 50 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
249 to 251

Question Number : 51 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 52 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
83.5 to 84.0

Question Number : 53 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 54 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 55 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 56 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
25 to 26

Question Number : 57 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.5

Question Number : 58 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 59 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.39 to 0.41

Question Number : 60 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
400

Question Number : 61 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
349 to 350

Question Number : 62 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 63 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 64 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
53 to 54

Question Number : 65 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.08 to 0.12
SESSION - 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering

Notations :

Question Paper Name: EC: ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING 31st Jan Shift2
Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0

Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.

Number of Questions: 10
Section Marks: 15.0

Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
800

Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Number of Questions: 55
Section Marks: 85.0

Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each & Q.36 to Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 11 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 12 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 13 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
9.9 to 10.1

Question Number : 14 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 15 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 16 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
100

Question Number : 17 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
4.9 to 5.1

Question Number : 18 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 19 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
14
Question Number : 20 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.8 to 2.0

Question Number : 21 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 22 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.5

Question Number : 23 Question Type :NAT

Correct Answer:
1

Question Number : 24 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 25 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 26 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
7

Question Number : 27 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 28 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0

Question Number : 29 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 30 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 31 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
400

Question Number : 32 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
32

Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 34 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
-3.1 to -2.9

Question Number : 35 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 36 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 37 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
3

Question Number : 38 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
0.5

Question Number : 39 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.5

Question Number : 40 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 41 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.30 to 1.35
Question Number : 42 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
1.4 to 1.6

Question Number : 43 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
95 to 105

Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
4.3 to 4.4

Question Number : 45 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 46 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 47 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 48 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 49 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.59 to 0.61

Question Number : 50 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
11 to 12

Question Number : 51 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
2.7 to 2.9

Question Number : 52 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
-1.1 to -0.9

Question Number : 53 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 54 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
10.9 to 11.1

Question Number : 55 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
-2

Question Number : 56 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 57 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 58 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.10 to 0.13

Question Number : 59 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 60 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 61 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 62 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 63 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
13.5 to 13.8

Question Number : 64 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
49 to 51

Question Number : 65 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
SESSION - 3
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering

Notations :

Question Paper Name: EC : ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING 1st Feb Shift 1
Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0

Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.

Number of Questions: 10
Section Marks: 15.0

Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.9 to 2.2

Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Number of Questions: 55
Section Marks: 85.0

Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each & Q.36 to Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 11 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 12 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 13 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 14 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.14 to 0.16

Question Number : 15 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
2

Question Number : 16 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
10

Question Number : 17 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
7.95 to 8.05

Question Number : 18 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.49 to 0.51

Question Number : 19 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 20 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 21 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
2

Question Number : 22 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
159 to 160

Question Number : 23 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
100

Question Number : 24 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 25 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 26 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 27 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 28 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 29 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
8970

Question Number : 30 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
84.0 to 84.5

Question Number : 31 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 32 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 34 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 35 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 36 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
4.25 to 4.35

Question Number : 37 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
6

Question Number : 38 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.83 to 0.88

Question Number : 39 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
78 to 79

Question Number : 40 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
20

Question Number : 41 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 42 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 43 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.018 to 0.026

Question Number : 45 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1465 to 1485

Question Number : 46 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 47 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 48 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 49 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1

Question Number : 50 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
2.9 to 3.1

Question Number : 51 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
4.85 to 5.15

Question Number : 52 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 53 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 54 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.48 to 0.52

Question Number : 55 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.39 to 0.41

Question Number : 56 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
-0.51 to -0.49

Question Number : 57 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.29 to 0.31

Question Number : 58 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
2

Question Number : 59 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.49 to 1.51

Question Number : 60 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
6

Question Number : 61 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 62 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.24 to 0.26

Question Number : 63 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 64 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
29 to 31

Question Number : 65 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
120.0 to 120.4
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-1

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to grammar and usage?

Mount Everest is ____________.

(A) the highest peak in the world

(B) highest peak in the world

(C) one of highest peak in the world

(D) one of the highest peak in the world

Q.2 The policeman asked the victim of a theft, “What did you ?”
(A) loose (B) lose (C) loss (D) louse

Q.3 Despite the new medicine’s ______________ in treating diabetes, it is not ______________widely.
(A) effectiveness --- prescribed (B) availability --- used
(C) prescription --- available (D) acceptance --- proscribed

Q.4 In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe and unripe mixed together, 15% are unripe fruits. Of
the unripe fruits, 45% are apples. Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If the pile contains a total of
5692000 fruits, how many of them are apples?

(A) 2029198 (B) 2467482 (C) 2789080 (D) 3577422

Q.5 Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan lives 7 km away
from where I live. Arun is farther away than Ahmed but closer than Susan from where I live. From
the information provided here, what is one possible distance (in km) at which I live from Arun’s
place?

(A) 3.00 (B) 4.99 (C) 6.02 (D) 7.01

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 A person moving through a tuberculosis prone zone has a 50% probability of becoming infected.
However, only 30% of infected people develop the disease. What percentage of people moving
through a tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does not show symptoms of disease?

(A) 15 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 37

1/2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-1

Q.7 In a world filled with uncertainty, he was glad to have many good friends. He had always assisted
them in times of need and was confident that they would reciprocate. However, the events of the
last week proved him wrong.

Which of the following inference(s) is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
passage?

(i) His friends were always asking him to help them.

(ii) He felt that when in need of help, his friends would let him down.

(iii) He was sure that his friends would help him when in need.

(iv) His friends did not help him last week.

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only

Q.8 Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithra’s brother Shiva is older than Leela. When Pavithra
and Shiva are visiting Leela, all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins more often than Leela does.

Which one of the following statements must be TRUE based on the above?
(A) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and Pavithra, he often loses.

(B) Leela is the oldest of the three.

(C) Shiva is a better chess player than Pavithra.

(D) Pavithra is the youngest of the three.

1 1 1
If 𝑞𝑞 −𝑎𝑎 and 𝑟𝑟 −𝑏𝑏 and 𝑠𝑠 −𝑐𝑐
Q.9
= = = , the value of abc is .
𝑟𝑟 𝑠𝑠 𝑞𝑞

(A) (𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟)−1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) r+q+s

Q.10 P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can finish the task in 25 days, working alone for 12
hours a day. R can finish the task in 50 days, working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked 12
hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all days.
What is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7 days from the start of the project?

(A) 10:11 (B) 11:10 (C) 20:21 (D) 21:20

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

2/2
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Let M4 = I, (where I denotes the identity matrix) and M ≠ I, M2 ≠ I and M3 ≠ I. Then, for any
natural number k, M−1 equals:
(A) M4k + 1 (B) M4k + 2 (C) M4k + 3 (D) M4k

Q.2 The second moment of a Poisson-distributed random variable is 2. The mean of the random
variable is _______

Q.3 Given the following statements about a function 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ, select the right option:

P: If f(x) is continuous at 𝑥 = 𝑥0 , then it is also differentiable at 𝑥 = 𝑥0 .

Q: If f(x) is continuous at 𝑥 = 𝑥0 , then it may not be differentiable at 𝑥 = 𝑥0 .
R: If f(x) is differentiable at 𝑥 = 𝑥0 , then it is also continuous at 𝑥 = 𝑥0 .

(A) P is true, Q is false, R is false (B) P is false, Q is true, R is true

Q.4 Which one of the following is a property of the solutions to the Laplace equation: ∇2 𝑓 = 0?
(A) The solutions have neither maxima nor minima anywhere except at the boundaries.
(B) The solutions are not separable in the coordinates.
(C) The solutions are not continuous.
(D) The solutions are not dependent on the boundary conditions.

EC (1) 1/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.5 Consider the plot of 𝑓(𝑥) versus 𝑥 as shown below.

𝑥
Suppose 𝐹(𝑥) = ∫−5 𝑓(𝑦)𝑑𝑦. Which one of the following is a graph of 𝐹(𝑥)?

(A) (B)

Q.6 Which one of the following is an eigen function of the class of all continuous-time, linear, time-
invariant systems (𝑢(𝑡) denotes the unit-step function)?
(A) 𝑒 𝑗𝜔0 𝑡 𝑢(𝑡) (B) cos (𝜔0 𝑡)

(C) 𝑒 𝑗𝜔0 𝑡 (D) sin (𝜔0 𝑡)

Q.7 A continuous-time function x(t) is periodic with period T. The function is sampled uniformly with
a sampling period 𝑇𝑠 . In which one of the following cases is the sampled signal periodic?
(A) 𝑇 = √2 𝑇𝑠 (B) 𝑇 = 1.2 𝑇𝑠
(C) Always (D) Never

Q.8 Consider the sequence 𝑥[𝑛] = 𝑎𝑛 𝑢[𝑛] + 𝑏 𝑛 𝑢[𝑛], where 𝑢[𝑛] denotes the unit-step sequence and
0 < |𝑎| < |𝑏| < 1. The region of convergence (ROC) of the z-transform of 𝑥[𝑛] is
(A) |𝑧| > |𝑎| (B) |𝑧| > |𝑏| (C) |𝑧| < |𝑎| (D) |𝑎| < |𝑧| < |𝑏|

EC (1) 2/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.9 𝐴 𝐵
Consider a two-port network with the transmission matrix: 𝑇 = � �. If the network is
𝐶 𝐷
reciprocal, then
(A) 𝑇 −1 = 𝑇 (B) 𝑇 2 = 𝑇
(C) Determinant (T) = 0 (D) Determinant (T) = 1

Q.10 A continuous-time sinusoid of frequency 33 Hz is multiplied with a periodic Dirac impulse train of
frequency 46 Hz. The resulting signal is passed through an ideal analog low-pass filter with a cutoff
frequency of 23 Hz. The fundamental frequency (in Hz) of the output is _________

Q.11 A small percentage of impurity is added to an intrinsic semiconductor at 300 K. Which one of the
following statements is true for the energy band diagram shown in the following figure?

(A) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with pentavalent atoms to form n-type semiconductor
(B) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with trivalent atoms to form n-type semiconductor
(C) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with pentavalent atoms to form p-type semiconductor
(D) Intrinsic semiconductor doped with trivalent atoms to form p-type semiconductor

Q.12 Consider the following statements for a metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor
(MOSFET):

P: As channel length reduces, OFF-state current increases.

Q: As channel length reduces, output resistance increases.
R: As channel length reduces, threshold voltage remains constant.
S: As channel length reduces, ON current increases.

Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

(A) P and Q (B) P and S (C) Q and R (D) R and S

EC (1) 3/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.13 Consider the constant current source shown in the figure below. Let 𝛽 represent the current gain of
the transistor.

∙
Vref

∙
The load current 𝐼0 through RL is

𝛽+1 𝑉𝑟𝑒𝑓 𝛽 𝑉𝑟𝑒𝑓 𝛽+1 𝑉𝑟𝑒𝑓 𝛽 𝑉𝑟𝑒𝑓

(A) 𝐼0 = � 𝛽
� 𝑅 (B) 𝐼0 = �𝛽+1� 𝑅
(C) 𝐼0 = � 𝛽
� 2𝑅 (D) 𝐼0 = �𝛽+1� 2𝑅

EC (1) 4/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.14 The following signal Vi of peak voltage 8 V is applied to the non-inverting terminal of an ideal
opamp. The transistor has VBE = 0.7 V, β =100; VLED = 1.5 V, VCC = 10 V and −VCC = −10 V.

The number of times the LED glows is ________

EC (1) 5/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.15 Consider the oscillator circuit shown in the figure. The function of the network (shown in dotted
lines) consisting of the 100 kΩ resistor in series with the two diodes connected back-to-back is to:

(A) introduce amplitude stabilization by preventing the op amp from saturating and thus producing
sinusoidal oscillations of fixed amplitude
(B) introduce amplitude stabilization by forcing the opamp to swing between positive and negative
saturation and thus producing square wave oscillations of fixed amplitude
(C) introduce frequency stabilization by forcing the circuit to oscillate at a single frequency
(D) enable the loop gain to take on a value that produces square wave oscillations

EC (1) 6/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.16 The block diagram of a frequency synthesizer consisting of a Phase Locked Loop (PLL) and a
divide-by-𝑁 counter (comprising ÷ 2 ,÷ 4, ÷ 8, ÷ 16 outputs) is sketched below. The
synthesizer is excited with a 5 kHz signal (Input 1). The free-running frequency of the PLL is set to
20 kHz. Assume that the commutator switch makes contacts repeatedly in the order 1-2-3-4.

The corresponding frequencies synthesized are:

(A) 10 kHz, 20 kHz, 40 kHz, 80 kHz
(B) 20 kHz, 40 kHz, 80 kHz, 160 kHz
(C) 80 kHz, 40 kHz, 20 kHz, 10 kHz
(D) 160 kHz, 80 kHz, 40 kHz, 20 kHz

Q.17 The output of the combinational circuit given below is

(A) A+B+C (B) A(B+C) (C) B(C+A) (D) C(A+B)

EC (1) 7/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.18 What is the voltage Vout in the following circuit?

VDD

(A) 0 V (B) (|VT of PMOS| + VT of NMOS) / 2

Q.19 Match the inferences X, Y, and Z, about a system, to the corresponding properties of the elements
of first column in Routh’s Table of the system characteristic equation.

X: The system is stable … P: … when all elements are positive

Y: The system is unstable … Q: … when any one element is zero
Z: The test breaks down … R: … when there is a change in sign of coefficients

(A) X→P, Y→Q, Z→R (B) X→Q, Y→P, Z→R

Q.20 A closed-loop control system is stable if the Nyquist plot of the corresponding open-loop transfer
function
(A) encircles the s-plane point (−1 + j0) in the counterclockwise direction as many times as the
number of right-half s-plane poles.
(B) encircles the s-plane point (0 − j1) in the clockwise direction as many times as the number of
right-half s-plane poles.
(C) encircles the s-plane point (−1 + j0) in the counterclockwise direction as many times as the
number of left-half s-plane poles.
(D) encircles the s-plane point (−1 + j0) in the counterclockwise direction as many times as the
number of right-half s-plane zeros.

Q.21 Consider binary data transmission at a rate of 56 kbps using baseband binary pulse amplitude
modulation (PAM) that is designed to have a raised-cosine spectrum. The transmission bandwidth
(in kHz) required for a roll-off factor of 0.25 is ________

EC (1) 8/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.22 A superheterodyne receiver operates in the frequency range of 58 MHz − 68 MHz. The
intermediate frequency 𝑓𝐼𝐹 and local oscillator frequency 𝑓𝐿𝑂 are chosen such that 𝑓𝐼𝐹 ≤ 𝑓𝐿𝑂 . It is
required that the image frequencies fall outside the 58 MHz − 68 MHz band. The minimum
required 𝑓𝐼𝐹 (in MHz) is ________

Q.23 The amplitude of a sinusoidal carrier is modulated by a single sinusoid to obtain the amplitude
modulated signal 𝑠(𝑡) = 5 cos 1600𝜋𝑡 + 20 cos 1800𝜋𝑡 + 5 cos 2000𝜋𝑡. The value of the
modulation index is __________

Q.24 Concentric spherical shells of radii 2 m, 4 m, and 8 m carry uniform surface charge densities of
20 nC/m2, −4 nC/m2 and ρs, respectively. The value of ρs (nC/m2) required to ensure that the
�⃗ at radius 10 m is _________
�⃗ = 0
electric flux density 𝐷

Q.25 The propagation constant of a lossy transmission line is (2 + 𝑗5) m−1 and its characteristic
impedance is (50 + 𝑗0) Ω at 𝜔 = 106 rad s−1. The values of the line constants L, C, R, G are,
respectively,
(A) L = 200 µH/m, C = 0.1 µF/m, R = 50 Ω/m, G = 0.02 S/m
(B) L = 250 µH/m, C = 0.1 µF/m, R = 100 Ω/m, G = 0.04 S/m
(C) L = 200 µH/m, C = 0.2 µF/m, R = 100 Ω/m, G = 0.02 S/m
(D) L = 250 µH/m, C = 0.2 µF/m, R = 50 Ω/m, G = 0.04 S/m

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

1
Q.26 The integral ∬ (𝑥
2𝜋 𝐷
+ 𝑦 + 10)𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦, where 𝐷 denotes the disc: 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ≤ 4, evaluates to_____

Q.27 A sequence x[n] is specified as

𝑥[𝑛] 1 1𝑛 1
� �= � � � �, for 𝑛 ≥ 2.
𝑥[𝑛 − 1] 1 0 0

The initial conditions are x[0] = 1, x[1] = 1, and x[n] = 0 for n < 0. The value of x[12] is ______

Q.28 In the following integral, the contour C encloses the points 2πj and −2πj
1 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑧
− � 𝑑𝑧
2𝜋 𝐶 (𝑧 − 2𝜋𝑗)3
The value of the integral is ________

π π
Q.29 The region specified by {( 𝜌, 𝜑, 𝑧): 3 ≤ 𝜌 ≤ 5, 8 ≤ 𝜑 ≤ 4 , 3 ≤ z ≤ 4.5} in cylindrical coordinates
has volume of _______

EC (1) 9/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.30 The Laplace transform of the causal periodic square wave of period T shown in the figure below is

1 1
(A) 𝐹(𝑠) = (B) 𝐹(𝑠) = 𝑠𝑇
1+𝑒 −𝑠𝑇/2 −
𝑠�1+𝑒 2 �
1 1
(C) 𝐹(𝑠) = (D) 𝐹(𝑠) =
𝑠(1−𝑒 −𝑠𝑇 ) 1−𝑒 −𝑠𝑇

Q.31 A network consisting of a finite number of linear resistor (R), inductor (L), and capacitor (C)
elements, connected all in series or all in parallel, is excited with a source of the form
3

� 𝑎𝑘 cos(𝑘𝜔0 𝑡) , where 𝑎𝑘 ≠ 0, 𝜔0 ≠ 0.
𝑘=1

The source has nonzero impedance. Which one of the following is a possible form of the output
measured across a resistor in the network?
(A) (B)
3 4

� 𝑏𝑘 cos(𝑘𝜔0 𝑡 + 𝜙𝑘 ) , where 𝑏𝑘 ≠ 𝑎𝑘 , ∀ 𝑘 � 𝑏𝑘 cos(𝑘𝜔0 𝑡 + 𝜙𝑘 ) , where 𝑏𝑘 ≠ 0, ∀ 𝑘

𝑘=1 𝑘=1
(C) (D)
3 2

� 𝑎𝑘 cos(𝑘𝜔0 𝑡 + 𝜙𝑘 ) � 𝑎𝑘 cos(𝑘𝜔0 𝑡 + 𝜙𝑘 )
𝑘=1 𝑘=1

Q.32 A first-order low-pass filter of time constant T is excited with different input signals (with zero
initial conditions up to t = 0). Match the excitation signals X, Y, Z with the corresponding time
responses for t ≥ 0:

X: Impulse P: 1 − 𝑒 −𝑡/𝑇
Y: Unit step Q: t − T(1 − 𝑒 −𝑡/𝑇 )
Z: Ramp R: 𝑒 −𝑡/𝑇

(A) X→R, Y→Q, Z→P (B) X→Q, Y→P, Z→R

EC (1) 10/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.33 An AC voltage source V = 10 sin(t) volts is applied to the following network. Assume that R1 = 3
kΩ, R2 = 6 kΩ and R3 = 9 kΩ, and that the diode is ideal.

Irms ↑

RMS current Irms (in mA) through the diode is ________

Q.34 In the circuit shown in the figure,

the maximum power (in watt) delivered to the resistor R is __________

3 kΩ 10 kΩ
100 v0
5V 2 kΩ v0 40 kΩ R

Q.35 Consider the signal

𝑥[𝑛] = 6 𝛿[𝑛 + 2] + 3𝛿[𝑛 + 1] + 8𝛿[𝑛] + 7𝛿[𝑛 − 1] + 4𝛿[𝑛 − 2] .

If 𝑋(𝑒 𝑗𝜔 ) is the discrete-time Fourier transform of x[n] ,

1 𝜋
then 𝜋 ∫−𝜋 𝑋�𝑒 𝑗𝜔 � sin2(2𝜔) 𝑑𝜔 is equal to _________

EC (1) 11/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.36 Consider a silicon p-n junction with a uniform acceptor doping concentration of 1017 cm−3 on the p-
side and a uniform donor doping concentration of 1016 cm−3 on the n-side. No external voltage is
applied to the diode. Given: kT/q = 26 mV, ni =1.5 ×1010 cm−3, εSi = 12ε0, ε0 = 8.85 × 10−14 F/m,
and q = 1.6 ×10−19 C.
The charge per unit junction area (nC cm−2) in the depletion region on the p-side is ___________

Q.37 Consider an n-channel metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor (MOSFET) with a gate-to-
𝑊
source voltage of 1.8 V. Assume that 𝐿 = 4, 𝜇𝑁 𝐶𝑜𝑥 = 70 × 10−6 AV −2 , the threshold voltage is
0.3V, and the channel length modulation parameter is 0.09 V−1. In the saturation region, the drain
conductance (in micro seimens) is ________

Q.38 The figure below shows the doping distribution in a p-type semiconductor in log scale.

The magnitude of the electric field (in kV/cm) in the semiconductor due to non uniform doping
is _________

Q.39 Consider a silicon sample at T = 300 K, with a uniform donor density 𝑁𝑑 = 5 × 1016 cm−3,
illuminated uniformly such that the optical generation rate is 𝐺𝑜𝑝𝑡 = 1.5 × 1020 cm−3 𝑠 −1
throughout the sample. The incident radiation is turned off at 𝑡 = 0. Assume low-level injection to
be valid and ignore surface effects. The carrier lifetimes are 𝜏𝑝0 = 0.1 µs and 𝜏𝑛0 = 0.5 µs.

The hole concentration at 𝑡 = 0 and the hole concentration at 𝑡 = 0.3 µs, respectively, are
(A) 1.5 × 1013 cm−3 and 7.47 × 1011 cm−3
(B) 1.5 × 1013 cm−3 and 8.23 × 1011 cm−3
(C) 7.5 × 1013 cm−3 and 3.73 × 1011 cm−3
(D) 7.5 × 1013 cm−3 and 4.12 × 1011 cm−3

EC (1) 12/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.40 An ideal opamp has voltage sources V1, V3, V5, …, VN-1 connected to the non-inverting input and V2,
V4, V6, …, VN connected to the inverting input as shown in the figure below (+VCC = 15 volt,
−VCC = −15 volt). The voltages V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6,… are 1, − 1/2, 1/3, −1/4, 1/5, −1/6, … volt,
respectively. As N approaches infinity, the output voltage (in volt) is ___________

Q.41 A p-i-n photodiode of responsivity 0.8A/W is connected to the inverting input of an ideal opamp as
shown in the figure, +Vcc = 15 V, −Vcc = −15V, Load resistor RL = 10 kΩ. If 10 µW of power is
incident on the photodiode, then the value of the photocurrent (in µA) through the load is ________

EC (1) 13/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.42 Identify the circuit below.

(A) Binary to Gray code converter (B) Binary to XS3 converter

Q.43 The functionality implemented by the circuit below is

(A) 2-to-1 multiplexer (B) 4-to-1 multiplexer

EC (1) 14/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.44 In an 8085 system, a PUSH operation requires more clock cycles than a POP operation. Which one
of the following options is the correct reason for this?

(A) For POP, the data transceivers remain in the same direction as for instruction fetch (memory to
processor), whereas for PUSH their direction has to be reversed.

(B) Memory write operations are slower than memory read operations in an 8085 based system.

(C) The stack pointer needs to be pre-decremented before writing registers in a PUSH, whereas a
POP operation uses the address already in the stack pointer.

(D) Order of registers has to be interchanged for a PUSH operation, whereas POP uses their natural
order.

Q.45 The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system is

𝐾
𝐺(𝑠) = 𝑠2 +5𝑠+5

The value of K at the breakaway point of the feedback control system’s root-locus plot is ________

Q.46 The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system is given by

𝐾
𝐺(𝑠) =
𝑠(𝑠 + 2)

For the peak overshoot of the closed-loop system to a unit step input to be 10%, the value of K is
____________

Q.47 The transfer function of a linear time invariant system is given by

H(s) = 2𝑠 4 − 5𝑠 3 + 5𝑠 − 2

The number of zeros in the right half of the s-plane is ________

Q.48 Consider a discrete memoryless source with alphabet 𝑆 = {𝑠0 , 𝑠1 , 𝑠2 , 𝑠3 , 𝑠4 , … } and respective
1 1 1 1 1
probabilities of occurrence P = �2 , 4 , 8 , 16 , 32 , … �. The entropy of the source (in bits) is _______

Q.49 A digital communication system uses a repetition code for channel encoding/decoding. During
transmission, each bit is repeated three times (0 is transmitted as 000, and 1 is transmitted as 111).
It is assumed that the source puts out symbols independently and with equal probability. The
decoder operates as follows: In a block of three received bits, if the number of zeros exceeds the
number of ones, the decoder decides in favor of a 0, and if the number of ones exceeds the number
of zeros, the decoder decides in favor of a 1. Assuming a binary symmetric channel with
crossover probability p = 0.1, the average probability of error is ________

EC (1) 15/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.50 An analog pulse s(t) is transmitted over an additive white Gaussian noise (AWGN) channel. The
received signal is r(t) = s(t) + n(t), where n(t) is additive white Gaussian noise with power spectral
𝑁
density 0 . The received signal is passed through a filter with impulse response h(t). Let 𝐸𝑠 and 𝐸ℎ
2
denote the energies of the pulse s(t) and the filter h(t), respectively. When the signal-to-noise ratio
(SNR) is maximized at the output of the filter (SNRmax), which of the following holds?
2𝐸𝑠 𝐸
(A) 𝐸𝑠 = 𝐸ℎ ; SNR max = 𝑁0
(B) 𝐸𝑠 = 𝐸ℎ ; SNR max = 2𝑁𝑠
0
2𝐸𝑠 2𝐸ℎ
(C) 𝐸𝑠 > 𝐸ℎ ; SNR max > 𝑁0
(D) 𝐸𝑠 < 𝐸ℎ ; SNR max = 𝑁0

Q.51 The current density in a medium is given by

400 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
�𝐽⃗ = 𝑎� Am−2
2𝜋(𝑟 2 + 4) 𝑟
The total current and the average current density flowing through the portion of a spherical surface
𝜋 𝜋
r = 0.8 m,
12
≤ 𝜃 ≤ , 0 ≤ 𝜙 ≤ 2𝜋 are given, respectively, by
4

(A) 15.09 A, 12.86 Am-2 (B) 18.73 A, 13.65 Am-2

Q.52 An antenna pointing in a certain direction has a noise temperature of 50 K. The ambient
temperature is 290 K. The antenna is connected to a pre-amplifier that has a noise figure of 2 dB
and an available gain of 40 dB over an effective bandwidth of 12 MHz. The effective input noise
temperature Te for the amplifier and the noise power Pao at the output of the preamplifier,
respectively, are
(A) Te = 169.36 K and Pao = 3.73×10-10 W (B) Te = 170.8 K and Pao = 4.56×10-10 W
(C) Te = 182.5 K and Pao = 3.85×10-10 W (D) Te = 160.62 K and Pao = 4.6×10-10 W

Q.53 Two lossless X-band horn antennas are separated by a distance of 200λ. The amplitude reflection
coefficients at the terminals of the transmitting and receiving antennas are 0.15 and 0.18,
respectively. The maximum directivities of the transmitting and receiving antennas (over the
isotropic antenna) are 18 dB and 22 dB, respectively. Assuming that the input power in the lossless
transmission line connected to the antenna is 2 W, and that the antennas are perfectly aligned and
polarization matched, the power ( in mW) delivered to the load at the receiver is ________

EC (1) 16/17
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 1)

Q.54 The electric field of a uniform plane wave travelling along the negative z direction is given by the
following equation:
𝐸�⃗𝑤𝑖 = �𝑎�𝑥 + 𝑗𝑎�𝑦 �𝐸0 𝑒 𝑗𝑘𝑧

This wave is incident upon a receiving antenna placed at the origin and whose radiated electric field
towards the incident wave is given by the following equation:

1
𝐸�⃗𝑎 = �𝑎�𝑥 + 2𝑎�𝑦 �𝐸𝐼 𝑒 −𝑗𝑘𝑟
𝑟

The polarization of the incident wave, the polarization of the antenna and losses due to the
polarization mismatch are, respectively,
(A) Linear, Circular (clockwise), −5dB (B) Circular (clockwise), Linear, −5dB
(C) Circular (clockwise), Linear, −3dB (D) Circular (anti clockwise), Linear, −3dB

Q.55 The far-zone power density radiated by a helical antenna is approximated as:
1
𝑊��⃗𝑟𝑎𝑑 = 𝑊
��⃗𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 ≈ 𝑎
�𝐶 4
𝑟 0 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ
𝑟
The radiated power density is symmetrical with respect to φ and exists only in the upper
𝜋
hemisphere: 0 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ ; 0 ≤ 𝜙 ≤ 2𝜋; 𝐶0 is a constant. The power radiated by the antenna (in
2
watts) and the maximum directivity of the antenna, respectively, are
(A) 1.5C0 , 10dB (B) 1.256C0 , 10dB (C) 1.256C0 , 12dB (D) 1.5C0 , 12dB

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

EC (1) 17/17
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA A 1
4 MCQ GA A 1
5 MCQ GA C 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA B 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ EC-1 C 1
2 NAT EC-1 0.9 : 1.1 1
3 MCQ EC-1 B 1
4 MCQ EC-1 A 1
5 MCQ EC-1 C 1
6 MCQ EC-1 C 1
7 MCQ EC-1 B 1
8 MCQ EC-1 B 1
9 MCQ EC-1 D 1
10 NAT EC-1 12 : 14 1
11 MCQ EC-1 A 1
12 MCQ EC-1 C 1
13 MCQ EC-1 B 1
14 NAT EC-1 2.9 : 3.1 1
15 MCQ EC-1 A 1
16 MCQ EC-1 A 1
17 MCQ EC-1 C 1
18 MCQ EC-1 C 1
19 MCQ EC-1 D 1
20 MCQ EC-1 A 1
21 NAT EC-1 34.5 : 35.5 1
22 NAT EC-1 4.9 : 5.1 1
23 NAT EC-1 0.49 : 0.51 1
24 NAT EC-1 -0.28 : -0.22 1
25 MCQ EC-1 B 1
26 NAT EC-1 18 : 22 2
27 NAT EC-1 230 : 240 2
28 NAT EC-1 -136 : -132 2
29 NAT EC-1 4.66 : 4.76 2
30 MCQ EC-1 MTA 2
31 MCQ EC-1 A 2
32 MCQ EC-1 C 2
33 NAT EC-1 0.9 : 1.1 2
34 NAT EC-1 0.78 : 0.82 2
35 NAT EC-1 7.9 : 8.1 2
36 NAT EC-1 -5.0 : -4.6 2
37 NAT EC-1 28 : 29 2
38 NAT EC-1 1.10 : 1.25 2
39 MCQ EC-1 A 2
40 NAT EC-1 14.9 : 15.5 2
41 NAT EC-1 790 : 810 ; -810 : -790 2
42 MCQ EC-1 MTA 2
43 MCQ EC-1 B 2
44 MCQ EC-1 C 2
45 NAT EC-1 1.2 : 1.3 ; -1.3 : -1.2 2
46 NAT EC-1 2.7 : 3.0 2
47 NAT EC-1 3:3 2
48 NAT EC-1 1.8 : 2.2 2
49 NAT EC-1 0.025 : 0.030 2
50 MCQ EC-1 A 2
51 MCQ EC-1 MTA 2
52 MCQ EC-1 A 2
53 NAT EC-1 2.7 : 3.3 2
54 MCQ EC-1 C;D 2
55 MCQ EC-1 B 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-3

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Based on the given statements, select the appropriate option with respect to grammar and usage.

Statements
(i) The height of Mr. X is 6 feet.
(ii) The height of Mr. Y is 5 feet.

(A) Mr. X is longer than Mr. Y.

(B) Mr. X is more elongated than Mr. Y.

(C) Mr. X is taller than Mr. Y.

(D) Mr. X is lengthier than Mr. Y.

Q.2 The students ___________ the teacher on teachers’ day for twenty years of dedicated teaching.

(A) facilitated (B) felicitated (C) fantasized (D) facillitated

Q.3 After India’s cricket world cup victory in 1985, Shrotria who was playing both tennis and cricket
till then, decided to concentrate only on cricket. And the rest is history.

What does the underlined phrase mean in this context?

(A) history will rest in peace (B) rest is recorded in history books

(C) rest is well known (D) rest is archaic

Q.4 ½ ½
Given (9 inches) = (0.25 yards) , which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) 3 inches = 0.5 yards (B) 9 inches = 1.5 yards

(C) 9 inches = 0.25 yards (D) 81 inches = 0.0625 yards

Q.5 S, M, E and F are working in shifts in a team to finish a project. M works with twice the efficiency
of others but for half as many days as E worked. S and M have 6 hour shifts in a day, whereas E
and F have 12 hours shifts. What is the ratio of contribution of M to contribution of E in the
project?

(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:4 (D) 2:1

1/3
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-3

Q.10 A wire of length 340 mm is to be cut into two parts. One of the parts is to be made into a square and
the other into a rectangle where sides are in the ratio of 1:2. What is the length of the side of the
square (in mm) such that the combined area of the square and the rectangle is a MINIMUM?

(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 120 (D) 180

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

3/3
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1
3 2 4
The value of 𝑥 for which the matrix 𝐴 = � 9 7 13 �
−6 −4 −9 + 𝑥
has zero as an eigenvalue is ________

Q.2 Consider the complex valued function 𝑓(𝑧) = 2𝑧 3 + 𝑏 |𝑧|3 where 𝑧 is a complex variable.
The value of 𝑏 for which the function 𝑓(𝑧) is analytic is ________

Q.3 As 𝑥 varies from −1 to +3, which one of the following describes the behaviour of the function
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 – 3𝑥 2 + 1?
(A) 𝑓(𝑥) increases monotonically.
(B) 𝑓(𝑥) increases, then decreases and increases again.
(C) 𝑓(𝑥) decreases, then increases and decreases again.
(D) 𝑓(𝑥) increases and then decreases.

Q.4 How many distinct values of 𝑥 satisfy the equation sin(𝑥) = 𝑥/2, where 𝑥 is in radians?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 or more

Q.5 Consider the time-varying vector 𝐈 = 𝐱� 15 cos(𝜔𝑡) + 𝐲� 5 sin(𝜔𝑡) in Cartesian coordinates, where
𝜔 > 0 is a constant. When the vector magnitude |𝐈| is at its minimum value, the angle 𝜃 that 𝐈
makes with the 𝑥 axis (in degrees, such that 0 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 180) is ________

Q.6 In the circuit shown below, 𝑉𝑆 is a constant voltage source and 𝐼𝐿 is a constant current load.

The value of 𝐼𝐿 that maximizes the power absorbed by the constant current load is
𝑉𝑆 𝑉𝑆 𝑉𝑆 (D) ∞
(A) (B) (C)
4𝑅 2𝑅 𝑅

EC (2) 1/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)

Q.7 The switch has been in position 1 for a long time and abruptly changes to position 2 at 𝑡 = 0.

If time 𝑡 is in seconds, the capacitor voltage VC (in volts) for 𝑡 > 0 is given by
(A) 4(1 − exp(−𝑡/0.5))
(B) 10 − 6 exp(−𝑡/0.5)
(C) 4(1 − exp(−𝑡/0.6))
(D) 10 − 6 exp(−𝑡/0.6)

Q.8 The figure shows an RLC circuit with a sinusoidal current source.

At resonance, the ratio |𝐈𝐋 |/|𝐈𝐑 |, i.e., the ratio of the magnitudes of the inductor current phasor and
the resistor current phasor, is ________

Q.9 The z-parameter matrix for the two-port network shown is

2𝑗𝜔 𝑗𝜔
� �,
𝑗𝜔 3 + 2𝑗𝜔

where the entries are in Ω. Suppose 𝑍𝑏 (𝑗𝜔) = 𝑅𝑏 + 𝑗𝜔 .

Then the value of 𝑅𝑏 (in Ω) equals ________

Q.10 sin(4𝜋𝑡)
The energy of the signal 𝑥 (𝑡 ) = is ________
4𝜋𝑡

EC (2) 2/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)

Q.11 The Ebers-Moll model of a BJT is valid

(A) only in active mode
(B) only in active and saturation modes
(C) only in active and cut-off modes
(D) in active, saturation and cut-off modes

Q.12 A long-channel NMOS transistor is biased in the linear region with 𝑉𝐷𝑆 =50 mV and is used as a
resistance. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(A) If the device width 𝑊 is increased, the resistance decreases.
(B) If the threshold voltage is reduced, the resistance decreases.
(C) If the device length 𝐿 is increased, the resistance increases.
(D) If 𝑉𝐺𝑆 is increased, the resistance increases.

Q.13 Assume that the diode in the figure has 𝑉𝑜𝑛 = 0.7 𝑉, but is otherwise ideal.

The magnitude of the current i2 (in mA) is equal to ________

Q.14 Resistor R1 in the circuit below has been adjusted so that I1 = 1 mA. The bipolar transistors Q1 and
Q2 are perfectly matched and have very high current gain, so their base currents are negligible. The
supply voltage Vcc is 6 V. The thermal voltage 𝑘𝑇/𝑞 is 26 mV.

The value of R 2 (in Ω) for which I2 =100 µA is ________

EC (2) 3/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)

Q.15 Which one of the following statements is correct about an ac-coupled common-emitter amplifier
operating in the mid-band region?
(A) The device parasitic capacitances behave like open circuits, whereas coupling and bypass
capacitances behave like short circuits.
(B) The device parasitic capacitances, coupling capacitances and bypass capacitances behave like
open circuits.
(C) The device parasitic capacitances, coupling capacitances and bypass capacitances behave like
short circuits.
(D) The device parasitic capacitances behave like short circuits, whereas coupling and bypass
capacitances behave like open circuits.

Q.16 Transistor geometries in a CMOS inverter have been adjusted to meet the requirement for worst
case charge and discharge times for driving a load capacitor C. This design is to be converted to
that of a NOR circuit in the same technology, so that its worst case charge and discharge times
while driving the same capacitor are similar. The channel lengths of all transistors are to be kept
unchanged. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Widths of PMOS transistors should be doubled, while widths of NMOS transistors should be
halved.
(B) Widths of PMOS transistors should be doubled, while widths of NMOS transistors should not
be changed.
(C) Widths of PMOS transistors should be halved, while widths of NMOS transistors should not be
changed.
(D) Widths of PMOS transistors should be unchanged, while widths of NMOS transistors should be
halved.

Q.17 Assume that all the digital gates in the circuit shown in the figure are ideal, the resistor 𝑅 = 10 𝑘Ω
and the supply voltage is 5 𝑉. The D flip-flops D1, D2, D3, D4 and D5 are initialized with logic
values 0,1,0,1 and 0, respectively. The clock has a 30% duty cycle.

The average power dissipated (in mW) in the resistor 𝑅 is ________

EC (2) 4/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)

Q.18 A 4:1 multiplexer is to be used for generating the output carry of a full adder. A and B are the bits
to be added while 𝐶in is the input carry and 𝐶out is the output carry. A and B are to be used as the
select bits with A being the more significant select bit.

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the choice of signals to be connected to
the inputs I0 , I1 , I2 and I3 so that the output is Cout ?
(A) I0 =0, I1 =Cin, I2 =Cin and I3 =1
(B) I0 =1, I1 =Cin, I2 =Cin and I3 =1
(C) I0 =Cin, I1 =0, I2 =1 and I3 =Cin
(D) I0 =0, I1 =Cin, I2 =1 and I3 =Cin

Q.19 𝑠−2
The response of the system 𝐺(𝑠) = (𝑠+1)(𝑠+3) to the unit step input 𝑢(𝑡) is 𝑦(𝑡).
𝑑𝑦
The value of 𝑑𝑡
at 𝑡 = 0+ is _________

Q.20 The number and direction of encirclements around the point −1 + 𝑗0 in the complex plane by the
1−𝑠
Nyquist plot of 𝐺(𝑠) = 4+2𝑠 is

(A) zero. (B) one, anti-clockwise.

Q.21 A discrete memoryless source has an alphabet {𝑎1 , 𝑎2 , 𝑎3 , 𝑎4 } with corresponding probabilities
1 1 1 1
�2 , 4 , 8 , 8 �. The minimum required average codeword length in bits to represent this source for
error-free reconstruction is ________

Q.22 A speech signal is sampled at 8 kHz and encoded into PCM format using 8 bits/sample. The PCM
data is transmitted through a baseband channel via 4-level PAM. The minimum bandwidth (in kHz)
required for transmission is ________

Q.23 A uniform and constant magnetic field 𝐁 = 𝐳�𝐵 exists in the 𝐳� direction in vacuum. A particle of
mass 𝑚 with a small charge 𝑞 is introduced into this region with an initial velocity 𝐯 = 𝐱�𝑣𝑥 + 𝐳�𝑣𝑧 .
Given that 𝐵, 𝑚, 𝑞, 𝑣𝑥 and 𝑣𝑧 are all non-zero, which one of the following describes the eventual
trajectory of the particle?
(A) Helical motion in the 𝐳� direction.
(B) Circular motion in the 𝑥𝑦 plane.
(C) Linear motion in the 𝐳� direction.
(D) Linear motion in the 𝐱� direction.

EC (2) 5/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)

Q.24 Let the electric field vector of a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in a homogenous medium
be expressed as 𝐄 = 𝐱�𝐸𝑥 𝑒 −𝑗(𝜔𝑡−𝛽𝑧) , where the propagation constant 𝛽 is a function of the angular
frequency 𝜔. Assume that 𝛽(𝜔) and 𝐸𝑥 are known and are real. From the information available,
which one of the following CANNOT be determined?
(A) The type of polarization of the wave.
(B) The group velocity of the wave.
(C) The phase velocity of the wave.
(D) The power flux through the 𝑧 = 0 plane.

Q.25 Light from free space is incident at an angle 𝜃𝑖 to the normal of the facet of a step-index large core
optical fibre. The core and cladding refractive indices are 𝑛1 = 1.5 and 𝑛2 = 1.4, respectively.

The maximum value of 𝜃𝑖 (in degrees) for which the incident light will be guided in the core of the
fibre is ________

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The ordinary differential equation

𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑡
= −3 𝑥 + 2, with 𝑥(0) = 1
is to be solved using the forward Euler method. The largest time step that can be used to solve the
equation without making the numerical solution unstable is ________

Q.27 Suppose C is the closed curve defined as the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 1 with C oriented anti-clockwise.
The value of ∮(𝑥𝑦 2 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥 2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦) over the curve C equals ________

Q.28 Two random variables 𝑋 and 𝑌 are distributed according to

(𝑥 + 𝑦), 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1, 0 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 1
𝑓𝑋,𝑌 (𝑥, 𝑦) = �
0, otherwise.

The probability 𝑃(𝑋 + 𝑌 ≤ 1) is ________

EC (2) 6/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)

Q.29 a 0 3 7
2 5 1 3
The matrix A =  has det(𝐴) = 100 and trace(𝐴) = 14.
0 0 2 4
 
0 0 0 b

The value of |𝑎 − 𝑏| is ________

Q.30 In the given circuit, each resistor has a value equal to 1 Ω.

What is the equivalent resistance across the terminals 𝑎 and 𝑏?

(A) 1/6 Ω (B) 1/3 Ω (C) 9/20 Ω (D) 8/15 Ω

Q.31 In the circuit shown in the figure, the magnitude of the current (in amperes) through R 2 is ___

Q.32 2𝑠 + 6
A continuous-time filter with transfer function 𝐻(𝑠) = is converted to a discrete-
𝑠2 + 6𝑠 + 8
2𝑧 2 − 0.5032 𝑧
time filter with transfer function 𝐺(𝑧) = so that the impulse response of the
𝑧2 − 0.5032 𝑧 + 𝑘
continuous-time filter, sampled at 2 Hz, is identical at the sampling instants to the impulse response
of the discrete time filter. The value of 𝑘 is ________

EC (2) 7/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)
Q.33 The Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) of the 4-point sequence
𝑥[𝑛] = {𝑥[0], 𝑥[1], 𝑥[2], 𝑥[3]} = {3, 2, 3, 4} is
𝑋[𝑘] = {𝑋[0], 𝑋[1], 𝑋[2], 𝑋[3]} = {12, 2𝑗, 0, −2𝑗}.
If X1[k] is the DFT of the 12-point sequence 𝑥1 [𝑛] = {3, 0, 0, 2, 0, 0, 3, 0, 0, 4, 0, 0},
𝑋1 [8]
the value of � � is ________
𝑋1 [11]

Q.34 The switch S in the circuit shown has been closed for a long time. It is opened at time 𝑡 = 0 and
remains open after that. Assume that the diode has zero reverse current and zero forward voltage
drop.

The steady state magnitude of the capacitor voltage 𝑉C (in volts) is ______

Q.35 A voltage 𝑉𝐺 is applied across a MOS capacitor with metal gate and p-type silicon substrate at
T=300 K. The inversion carrier density (in number of carriers per unit area) for 𝑉𝐺 = 0.8 V is
2 × 1011 cm−2. For 𝑉𝐺 = 1.3 V, the inversion carrier density is 4 × 1011 cm−2 . What is the value
of the inversion carrier density for 𝑉𝐺 = 1.8 V?
(A) 4.5 × 1011 cm−2 (B) 6.0 × 1011 cm−2
(C) 7.2 × 1011 cm−2 (D) 8.4 × 1011 cm−2

Q.36 Consider avalanche breakdown in a silicon 𝑝+ 𝑛 junction. The 𝑛-region is uniformly doped with a
donor density 𝑁𝐷 . Assume that breakdown occurs when the magnitude of the electric field at any
point in the device becomes equal to the critical field 𝐸𝑐𝑟𝑖𝑡 . Assume 𝐸𝑐𝑟𝑖𝑡 to be independent of 𝑁𝐷 .
If the built-in voltage of the 𝑝+ 𝑛 junction is much smaller than the breakdown voltage, 𝑉𝐵𝑅 , the
relationship between 𝑉𝐵𝑅 and 𝑁𝐷 is given by

(A) 𝑉𝐵𝑅 × �𝑁𝐷 = constant (B) 𝑁𝐷 × �𝑉𝐵𝑅 = constant

EC (2) 8/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)
Q.37 Consider a region of silicon devoid of electrons and holes, with an ionized donor density of
𝑁𝑑+ = 1017 cm−3 . The electric field at 𝑥 = 0 is 0 V/cm and the electric field at 𝑥 = 𝐿 is
50 kV/cm in the positive 𝑥 direction. Assume that the electric field is zero in the 𝑦 and 𝑧 directions
at all points.

Given 𝑞 = 1.6 × 10−19 coulomb, 𝜖0 = 8.85 × 10−14 F/cm, 𝜖𝑟 = 11.7 for silicon, the value of 𝐿 in
nm is ________

Q.38 Consider a long-channel NMOS transistor with source and body connected together. Assume that
the electron mobility is independent of 𝑉𝐺𝑆 and 𝑉𝐷𝑆 . Given,

𝑔𝑚 = 0.5 𝜇A/V for 𝑉𝐷𝑆 = 50 mV and 𝑉𝐺𝑆 = 2 V,

𝑔𝑑 = 8 𝜇A/V for 𝑉𝐺𝑆 = 2 V and 𝑉𝐷𝑆 = 0 V,

𝜕𝐼 𝜕𝐼
where 𝑔𝑚 = 𝜕𝑉 𝐷 and 𝑔𝑑 = 𝜕𝑉 𝐷
𝐺𝑆 𝐷𝑆

The threshold voltage (in volts) of the transistor is ________

Q.39 The figure shows a half-wave rectifier with a 475 𝜇F filter capacitor. The load draws a constant
current 𝐼𝑂 = 1 A from the rectifier. The figure also shows the input voltage 𝑉𝑖 , the output voltage
𝑉𝐶 and the peak-to-peak voltage ripple 𝑢 on 𝑉𝐶 . The input voltage 𝑉𝑖 is a triangle-wave with an
amplitude of 10 V and a period of 1 ms.

The value of the ripple 𝑢 (in volts) is ________

EC (2) 9/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)
Q.40 In the opamp circuit shown, the Zener diodes 𝑍1 and 𝑍2 clamp the output voltage 𝑉𝑂 to +5 V or
−5 V. The switch S is initially closed and is opened at time 𝑡 = 0.

The time 𝑡 = 𝑡1 (in seconds) at which 𝑉𝑂 changes state is ________

Q.41 An opamp has a finite open loop voltage gain of 100. Its input offset voltage Vios (= +5mV) is
modeled as shown in the circuit below. The amplifier is ideal in all other respects. Vinput is 25 mV.

The output voltage (in millivolts) is ________

Q.42 An 8 Kbyte ROM with an active low Chip Select input (CS ��) is to be used in an 8085
microprocessor based system. The ROM should occupy the address range 1000H to 2FFFH. The
address lines are designated as 𝐴15 to 𝐴0 , where 𝐴15 is the most significant address bit.
Which one of the following logic expressions will generate the correct ��CS signal for this ROM?
(A) 𝐴15 + 𝐴14 + (𝐴13 ⋅ 𝐴12 + 𝐴 ��
13 ⋅ 𝐴12 )
(B) 𝐴15 ⋅ 𝐴14 ⋅ (𝐴13 + 𝐴12 )
(C) ��
𝐴 ��
15 ⋅ 𝐴14 ⋅ (𝐴13 ⋅ 𝐴12 + 𝐴13 ⋅ 𝐴12 )
(D) ��
𝐴 ��
15 + 𝐴14 + 𝐴13 ⋅ 𝐴12

EC (2) 10/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)
Q.43 In an N bit flash ADC, the analog voltage is fed simultaneously to 2𝑁 − 1 comparators. The output
of the comparators is then encoded to a binary format using digital circuits. Assume that the analog
voltage source Vin (whose output is being converted to digital format) has a source resistance of
75 Ω as shown in the circuit diagram below and the input capacitance of each comparator is 8 pF.
The input must settle to an accuracy of 1/2 LSB even for a full scale input change for proper
conversion. Assume that the time taken by the thermometer to binary encoder is negligible.

If the flash ADC has 8 bit resolution, which one of the following alternatives is closest to the
maximum sampling rate ?
(A) 1 megasamples per second
(B) 6 megasamples per second
(C) 64 megasamples per second
(D) 256 megasamples per second

Q.44 The state transition diagram for a finite state machine with states A, B and C, and binary inputs X,
Y and Z, is shown in the figure.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Transitions from State A are ambiguously defined.
(B) Transitions from State B are ambiguously defined.
(C) Transitions from State C are ambiguously defined.
(D) All of the state transitions are defined unambiguously.

EC (2) 11/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)
Q.45 1
In the feedback system shown below 𝐺(𝑠) = .
(𝑠 2 +2𝑠)
The step response of the closed-loop system should have minimum settling time and have no
overshoot.

The required value of gain 𝑘 to achieve this is ________

Q.46 1
In the feedback system shown below 𝐺(𝑠) = (𝑠+1)(𝑠+2)(𝑠+3) .

The positive value of 𝑘 for which the gain margin of the loop is exactly 0 dB and the phase margin
of the loop is exactly zero degree is ________

Q.47 𝑘
The asymptotic Bode phase plot of 𝐺(𝑠) = (𝑠+0.1)(𝑠+10)(𝑠+𝑝 , with 𝑘 and 𝑝1 both positive,
1)
is shown below.

The value of 𝑝1 is ________

Q.48 An information source generates a binary sequence {𝛼𝑛 }. 𝛼𝑛 can take one of the two possible
values −1 and +1 with equal probability and are statistically independent and identically
distributed. This sequence is precoded to obtain another sequence {𝛽𝑛 }, as 𝛽𝑛 = 𝛼𝑛 + 𝑘 𝛼𝑛−3 .
The sequence {𝛽𝑛 } is used to modulate a pulse 𝑔(𝑡) to generate the baseband signal
1, 0≤𝑡≤𝑇
𝑋(𝑡) = ∑∞ 𝑛=−∞ 𝛽𝑛 𝑔(𝑡 − 𝑛𝑇), where 𝑔(𝑡) = � 0, otherwise.
1
If there is a null at 𝑓 = 3𝑇 in the power spectral density of 𝑋(𝑡), then 𝑘 is ________

EC (2) 12/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)
Q.49 An ideal band-pass channel 500 Hz - 2000 Hz is deployed for communication. A modem is
designed to transmit bits at the rate of 4800 bits/s using 16-QAM. The roll-off factor of a pulse with
a raised cosine spectrum that utilizes the entire frequency band is ________

Q.50 Consider a random process 𝑋(𝑡) = 3𝑉(𝑡) − 8, where 𝑉(𝑡) is a zero mean stationary random
process with autocorrelation 𝑅𝑣 (𝜏) = 4𝑒 −5|𝜏| . The power in 𝑋(𝑡) is ________

Q.51 A binary communication system makes use of the symbols “zero” and “one”. There are channel
errors. Consider the following events:
𝑥0 : a "zero" is transmitted
𝑥1 : a "one" is transmitted
𝑦0 : a "zero" is received
𝑦1 : a "one" is received
1 3 1
The following probabilities are given: 𝑃(𝑥0 ) = , 𝑃(𝑦0 |𝑥0 ) = , and 𝑃(𝑦0 |𝑥1 ) = . The
2 4 2
information in bits that you obtain when you learn which symbol has been received (while you
know that a “zero” has been transmitted) is ________

Q.52 The parallel-plate capacitor shown in the figure has movable plates. The capacitor is charged so that
the energy stored in it is 𝐸 when the plate separation is 𝑑. The capacitor is then isolated electrically
and the plates are moved such that the plate separation becomes 2𝑑.

At this new plate separation, what is the energy stored in the capacitor, neglecting fringing effects?
(A) 2𝐸 (B) √2𝐸 (C) 𝐸 (D) 𝐸 ⁄2

Q.53 A lossless microstrip transmission line consists of a trace of width 𝑤. It is drawn over a practically
infinite ground plane and is separated by a dielectric slab of thickness 𝑡 and relative permittivity
𝜀𝑟 > 1. The inductance per unit length and the characteristic impedance of this line are 𝐿 and 𝑍0 ,
respectively.

Which one of the following inequalities is always satisfied?

𝐿𝑡 𝐿𝑡
(A) 𝑍0 > �𝜀 (B) 𝑍0 < �𝜀
0 𝜀𝑟 𝑤 0 𝜀𝑟 𝑤

𝐿𝑤 𝐿𝑤
(C) 𝑍0 > �𝜀 (D) 𝑍0 < �𝜀
0 𝜀𝑟 𝑡 0 𝜀𝑟 𝑡

EC (2) 13/14
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 2)
Q.54 A microwave circuit consisting of lossless transmission lines T1 and T2 is shown in the figure.
The plot shows the magnitude of the input reflection coefficient Γ as a function of frequency 𝑓.
The phase velocity of the signal in the transmission lines is 2 × 108 m/s.

The length 𝐿 (in meters) of T2 is ________

Q.55 A positive charge 𝑞 is placed at 𝑥 = 0 between two infinite metal plates placed at 𝑥 = −𝑑 and at
𝑥 = +𝑑 respectively. The metal plates lie in the 𝑦𝑧 plane.

The charge is at rest at 𝑡 = 0, when a voltage +𝑉 is applied to the plate at – 𝑑 and voltage −𝑉 is
applied to the plate at 𝑥 = +𝑑. Assume that the quantity of the charge 𝑞 is small enough that it does
not perturb the field set up by the metal plates. The time that the charge 𝑞 takes to reach the right
plate is proportional to
(A) 𝑑 / 𝑉 (B) √𝑑 / 𝑉 (C) 𝑑 / √𝑉 (D) �𝑑/𝑉

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

EC (2) 14/14
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA C 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA D 2
7 MCQ GA A 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA B 2
1 NAT EC-2 0.95 : 1.05 1
2 NAT EC-2 0.0 : 0.0 1
3 MCQ EC-2 B 1
4 MCQ EC-2 C 1
5 NAT EC-2 90 : 90 1
6 MCQ EC-2 B 1
7 MCQ EC-2 D 1
8 NAT EC-2 0.30 : 0.34 1
9 NAT EC-2 2.98 : 3.02 1
10 NAT EC-2 0.24 : 0.26 1
11 MCQ EC-2 D 1
12 MCQ EC-2 D 1
13 NAT EC-2 0.25 : 0.25 1
14 NAT EC-2 570 : 610 1
15 MCQ EC-2 A 1
16 MCQ EC-2 B 1
17 NAT EC-2 1.45 : 1.55 1
18 MCQ EC-2 A 1
19 NAT EC-2 0.96 : 1.04 1
20 MCQ EC-2 A 1
21 NAT EC-2 1.74 : 1.76 1
22 NAT EC-2 15.9 : 16.1 1
23 MCQ EC-2 A 1
24 MCQ EC-2 D 1
25 NAT EC-2 32:33 1
26 NAT EC-2 0.6 : 0.7 2
27 NAT EC-2 -0.03 : 0.03 2
28 NAT EC-2 0.32 : 0.34 2
29 NAT EC-2 2.9 : 3.1 2
30 MCQ EC-2 D 2
31 NAT EC-2 4.9 : 5.1 2
32 NAT EC-2 0.04 : 0.06 2
33 NAT EC-2 5.9 : 6.1 2
34 NAT EC-2 99 : 101 2
35 MCQ EC-2 B 2
36 MCQ EC-2 C 2
37 NAT EC-2 30:34 2
38 NAT EC-2 1.18 : 1.22 2
39 NAT EC-2 1.9 : 2.2 2
40 NAT EC-2 0.7 : 0.9 2
41 NAT EC-2 400 : 425 2
42 MCQ EC-2 A 2
43 MCQ EC-2 A 2
44 MCQ EC-2 C 2
45 NAT EC-2 0.95 : 1.05 2
46 NAT EC-2 59.5 : 60.5 2
47 NAT EC-2 0.95 : 1.05 2
48 NAT EC-2 -1.01 : -0.99 2
49 NAT EC-2 0.24 : 0.26 2
50 NAT EC-2 99 : 101 2
51 NAT EC-2 0.80 : 0.82 2
52 MCQ EC-2 A 2
53 MCQ EC-2 B 2
54 NAT EC-2 0.09 : 0.11 2
55 MCQ EC-2 C 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.

Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
(A) The price of an apple is greater than an onion.

(B) The price of an apple is more than onion.

(C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion.

(D) Apples are more costlier than onions.

Q.2 The Buddha said, “Holding on to anger is like grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at
someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.”

Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above.

(A) burning (B) igniting (C) clutching (D) flinging

Q.3 M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-in-
law of M. How is P related to M?

(A) P is the son-in-law of M. (B) P is the grandchild of M.

(C) P is the daughter-in law of M. (D) P is the grandfather of M.

Q.4 The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________.

(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64

Q.5 It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to
completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is
150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________.

(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0

1/3
GATE 2016 General Ap
ptitude - GA Set-44

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
Q.6 Thee velocity V of a vehiclle along a sttraight line is
i measured in m/s and plotted as shown
s with
resppect to timee in seconds. At the endd of the 7 seconds,
s howw much willl the odomeeter reading
incrrease by (in m)?

(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.7 Thee overwhelm ming numberr of people innfected with h rabies in Inndia has beenn flagged by
y the World
Heaalth Organizzation as a soource of conncern. It is esstimated thatt inoculatingg 70% of petts and stray
doggs against rabbies can leadd to a significcant reductio
on in the num
mber of peoplle infected with
w rabies.

Whhich of the foollowing can be logicallyy inferred from

m the above sentences?
(A)) The numbber of people in India infeected with raabies is high.

(B)) The number of people in other partts of the world who are innfected with rabies is low
w.

(C)) Rabies cann be eradicated in India by

b vaccinatin
ng 70% of strray dogs.

(D)) Stray dogss are the main source of rabies

r worldw
wide.

Q.8 f is shared by four firstt year underggraduate stud

A flat dents. They agreed
a to alloow the oldestt of them to
enjoy some exttra space in the flat. Maanu is two months
m olderr than Sravann, who is thhree months
youunger than Trrideep. Pavaan is one monnth older than
n Sravan. Who
W should occcupy the ex xtra space in
the flat?

(A)) Manu (B) Sravan (C) Trideep (D) Pavan

Q.9 Finnd the area boounded by thhe lines 3x+22y=14, 2x-3y

y=5 in the firrst quadrant.
(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35

2/33
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4

Q.10 A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a
slope of −0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?

(A) −0.030 (B) −0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

3/3
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Consider a 2 × 2 square matrix
σ x 
A= ,
ω σ 
where x is unknown. If the eigenvalues of the matrix A are (σ + jω ) and (σ − jω ) , then x is
equal to

(A) + jω (B) − jω (C) +ω (D) −ω

Q.2 sin ( z )
For f ( z ) = , the residue of the pole at z = 0 is __________
z2

Q.3 The probability of getting a “head” in a single toss of a biased coin is 0.3. The coin is tossed
repeatedly till a “head” is obtained. If the tosses are independent, then the probability of getting
“head” for the first time in the fifth toss is __________

Q.4 1
dx
The integral ∫
0 (1 − x)
is equal to __________

Q.5 Consider the first order initial value problem

y' = y + 2x − x2, y(0) = 1, (0 ≤ x < ∞)

with exact solution y(x) = x2 + ex. For x = 0.1, the percentage difference between the exact solution
and the solution obtained using a single iteration of the second-order Runge-Kutta method with
step-size h = 0.1is __________

Q.6 Consider the signal 𝑥(𝑡) = cos(6𝜋𝑡) + sin(8𝜋𝑡), where 𝑡 is in seconds. The Nyquist sampling
rate (in samples/second) for the signal 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑥(2𝑡 + 5) is

(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 32

sin(𝑡) sin(𝑡)
Q.7 If the signal 𝑥(𝑡) = ∗ with ∗ denoting the convolution operation, then x(t) is equal to
𝜋𝑡 𝜋𝑡

sin(𝑡) sin(2𝑡) 2 sin(𝑡) sin(𝑡) 2

(A)
𝜋𝑡
(B)
2𝜋𝑡
(C)
𝜋𝑡 (D) � �
𝜋𝑡

EC (3) 1/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)

Q.8 A discrete-time signal 𝑥[𝑛] = 𝛿[𝑛 − 3] + 2 𝛿[𝑛 − 5] has z-transform X(z). If 𝑌(𝑧) = 𝑋(−𝑧) is the
z-transform of another signal y[n], then

(A) 𝑦[𝑛] = 𝑥[𝑛] (B) 𝑦[𝑛] = 𝑥[−𝑛]

Q.9 In the RLC circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage is given by

𝑣𝑖 (𝑡) = 2 cos(200𝑡) + 4 sin(500𝑡).

The output voltage 𝑣𝑜 (𝑡) is

0.25 H 100 µF

+ +
2Ω
0.4 H 10 µF

vi(t) vo(t)
2Ω

- -

(A) cos(200𝑡) + 2 sin(500𝑡) (B) 2cos(200𝑡) + 4 sin(500𝑡)

Q.10 The I-V characteristics of three types of diodes at the room temperature, made of semiconductors
X, Y and Z, are shown in the figure. Assume that the diodes are uniformly doped and identical in
all respects except their materials. If EgX, EgY and EgZ are the band gaps of X, Y and Z, respectively,
then

X Y Z

(A) EgX > EgY > EgZ (B) EgX = EgY = EgZ
(C) EgX < EgY < EgZ (D) no relationship among these band gaps exists.

EC (3) 2/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.11 The figure shows the band diagram of a Metal Oxide Semiconductor (MOS). The surface region of
this MOS is in

SiO2
EM
ΦB EC
EFS
ΦB
Ei

(A) inversion (B) accumulation (C) depletion (D) flat band

Q.12 The figure shows the I-V characteristics of a solar cell illuminated uniformly with solar light of
power 100 mW/cm2. The solar cell has an area of 3 cm2 and a fill factor of 0.7. The maximum
efficiency (in %) of the device is __________

I
ISC = 180mA

(0, 0) V
VOC=0.5V

EC (3) 3/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.13 The diodes D1 and D2 in the figure are ideal and the capacitors are identical. The product RC is
very large compared to the time period of the ac voltage. Assuming that the diodes do not
breakdown in the reverse bias, the output voltage VO (in volt) at the steady state is __________

C +
10sinωt
R Vo

ac -
C

Q.14 Consider the circuit shown in the figure. Assuming VBE1 = VEB2 = 0.7 volt, the value of the dc
voltage VC2 (in volt) is __________

VCC = 2.5V

β1 =100
Q2
Q1
β2 = 50
10 kΩ
VC2
1V
1 kΩ

EC (3) 4/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.15 In the astable multivibrator circuit shown in the figure, the frequency of oscillation (in kHz) at the
output pin 3 is __________

Vcc

RA = 2.2 kΩ 8 4
Vcc Res
7
Disch

RB = 4.7 kΩ
555 Timer
6 3
Thresh Out

2
Trig

Gnd
C = 0.022 µF 1

Q.16 In an 8085 microprocessor, the contents of the accumulator and the carry flag are A7 (in hex) and 0,
respectively. If the instruction RLC is executed, then the contents of the accumulator (in hex) and
the carry flag, respectively, will be

(A) 4E and 0 (B) 4E and 1 (C) 4F and 0 (D) 4F and 1

Q.17 The logic functionality realized by the circuit shown below is

(A) OR (B) XOR (C) NAND (D) AND

Q.18 The minimum number of 2-input NAND gates required to implement a 2-input XOR gate is

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

EC (3) 5/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.19 The block diagram of a feedback control system is shown in the figure. The overall closed-loop
gain G of the system is

+ +
X G2 G1 Y
− −
H1

G1G2 G1G2
(A) G = (B) G =
1 + G1 H1 1 + G1G2 + G1 H1
G1G2 G1G2
(C) G = (D) G =
1 + G1G2 H1 1 + G1G2 + G1G2 H1

Q.20 For the unity feedback control system shown in the figure, the open-loop transfer function G(s) is
given as
2
G (s) = .
s ( s + 1)

The steady state error ess due to a unit step input is

+ e(t)
x(t) G(s) y(t)
−

(A) 0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) ∞

Q.21 For a superheterodyne receiver, the intermediate frequency is 15 MHz and the local oscillator
frequency is 3.5 GHz. If the frequency of the received signal is greater than the local oscillator
frequency, then the image frequency (in MHz) is __________

Q.22 An analog baseband signal, bandlimited to 100 Hz, is sampled at the Nyquist rate. The samples are
quantized into four message symbols that occur independently with probabilities p1 = p4 = 0.125
and p2 = p3. The information rate (bits/sec) of the message source is __________

EC (3) 6/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.23 A binary baseband digital communication system employs the signal

 1
 , 0 ≤ t ≤ TS
p ( t ) =  TS
0,
 otherwise

for transmission of bits. The graphical representation of the matched filter output y(t) for this signal
will be

(A) (B)
y(t) y(t)

1/Ts 0.5

t t
0 Ts 2Ts 0 Ts 2Ts
(C) (D)
y(t) y(t)

1 1

t t
0 Ts 2Ts 0 Ts/2 Ts

Q.24 If a right-handed circularly polarized wave is incident normally on a plane perfect conductor, then
the reflected wave will be

(A) right-handed circularly polarized

(B) left-handed circularly polarized
(C) elliptically polarized with a tilt angle of 450
(D) horizontally polarized

Q.25 Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction is mathematically described by which one of the
following equations?
 
(A) ∇ • B = 0 (B) ∇ • D = ρV
 
 ∂B   ∂D
(C) ∇ × E = − (D) ∇ × H = σE +
∂t ∂t

EC (3) 7/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The particular solution of the initial value problem given below is

d2y dy dy
2
+ 12 + 36 y =
0 with y (0) =
3 and =
−36
dx dx dx x =0

(A) (3 – 18x) e−6x (B) (3 + 25x) e−6x

Q.27 If the vectors e1 = (1, 0, 2), e2 = (0, 1, 0) and e3 = (−2, 0, 1) form an orthogonal basis of the three-
dimensional real space ℝ3 , then the vector u = (4, 3,−3) ∈ ℝ3 can be expressed as

2 11 2 11
(A) u = − e1 − 3e 2 − e3 (B) u = − e1 − 3e 2 + e3
5 5 5 5
2 11 2 11
(C) u = − e1 + 3e 2 + e3 (D) u = − e1 + 3e 2 − e3
5 5 5 5

Q.28 A triangle in the xy-plane is bounded by the straight lines 2x = 3y, y = 0 and x = 3. The volume
above the triangle and under the plane x + y + z = 6 is __________

Q.29 1 ez
2π j ∫c
The values of the integral dz along a closed contour c in anti-clockwise direction for
z−2

(i) the point z0 = 2 inside the contour c, and

(ii) the point z0 = 2 outside the contour c,

respectively, are

(A) (i) 2.72, (ii) 0 (B) (i) 7.39, (ii) 0

(C) (i) 0, (ii) 2.72 (D) (i) 0, (ii) 7.39

EC (3) 8/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.30 2𝜋
A signal 2 cos � 3 𝑡� − cos (𝜋𝑡) is the input to an LTI system with the transfer function

𝐻(𝑠) = 𝑒 𝑠 + 𝑒 −𝑠 .
If 𝐶𝑘 denotes the kth coefficient in the exponential Fourier series of the output signal, then 𝐶3 is
equal to

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q.31 The ROC (region of convergence) of the z-transform of a discrete-time signal is represented by the
=
shaded region in the z-plane. If the signal x[n] ( 2.0 ) n , −∞ < n < +∞ , then the ROC of its
z-transform is represented by

(A) (B)
Im Im

Unit circle z-plane Unit circle z-plane

×0.5 ×2 Re ×0.5 ×2 Re

Unit circle z-plane Unit circle z-plane

×0.5 ×2 Re ×0.5 ×2 Re

(ROC does not exist)

EC (3) 9/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.32 Assume that the circuit in the figure has reached the steady state before time 𝑡 = 0 when the 3 Ω
resistor suddenly burns out, resulting in an open circuit. The current 𝑖(𝑡) (in ampere) at 𝑡 = 0+ is
__________

3F 2Ω
1Ω

i(t) 2Ω
12 V

2F 3Ω

Q.33 In the figure shown, the current 𝑖 (in ampere) is __________

1A 5Ω
8V
1Ω

1Ω 1Ω
8V

i
1Ω

EC (3) 10/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)

Q.34  z11 z12 

The z-parameter matrix   for the two-port network shown is
 z 21 z 22 

3Ω

input port output port

6Ω

2 − 2  2 2 9 − 3 9 3
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
− 2 2  2 2 6 9  6 9

Q.35 A continuous-time speech signal xa(t) is sampled at a rate of 8 kHz and the samples are
subsequently grouped in blocks, each of size N. The DFT of each block is to be computed in real
time using the radix-2 decimation-in-frequency FFT algorithm. If the processor performs all
operations sequentially, and takes 20 µs for computing each complex multiplication (including
multiplications by 1 and −1) and the time required for addition/subtraction is negligible, then the
maximum value of N is __________

Q.36 The direct form structure of an FIR (finite impulse response) filter is shown in the figure.

Unit Unit
x[n]
Delay Delay

5 5

−
y[n]
+
The filter can be used to approximate a

(A) low-pass filter (B) high-pass filter

EC (3) 11/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.37 The injected excess electron concentration profile in the base region of an npn BJT, biased in the
active region, is linear, as shown in the figure. If the area of the emitter-base junction is 0.001 cm2,
µn = 800 cm2/(V-s) in the base region and depletion layer widths are negligible, then the collector
current IC (in mA) at room temperature is __________

(Given: thermal voltage VT = 26 mV at room temperature, electronic charge q = 1.6 × 10−19 C)

n p n
1014 cm-3
Excess electron
IE profile
IC

0
0.5µm

Q.38 Figures I and II show two MOS capacitors of unit area. The capacitor in Figure I has insulator
materials X (of thickness t1 = 1 nm and dielectric constant ε1 = 4) and Y (of thickness t2 = 3 nm and
dielectric constant ε2 = 20). The capacitor in Figure II has only insulator material X of thickness tEq.
If the capacitors are of equal capacitance, then the value of tEq (in nm) is __________

Metal Metal
t2 ε2
t1 ε1 ε1 tEq

SiSi SiSi

Figure I Figure II

EC (3) 12/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.39 The I-V characteristics of the zener diodes D1 and D2 are shown in Figure I. These diodes are used
in the circuit given in Figure II. If the supply voltage is varied from 0 to 100 V, then breakdown
occurs in

-80V
-70V D1
V

0-100V D2
D1
D2

Figure I Figure II

(A) D1 only (B) D2 only

Q.40 For the circuit shown in the figure, R1 = R2 = R3 = 1 Ω, L = 1 µH and C = 1 µF. If the input
( )
Vin = cos 106 t , then the overall voltage gain (Vout /Vin) of the circuit is __________

R1
R3
L

-
- Vout
+ R2
C
+
Vin

EC (3) 13/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.41 In the circuit shown in the figure, the channel length modulation of all transistors is non-zero
(λ ≠ 0). Also, all transistors operate in saturation and have negligible body effect. The ac small
signal voltage gain (Vo/Vin) of the circuit is

VDD

M3 M2

vin M1

(A) −𝑔𝑚1 (𝑟𝑜1 ||𝑟𝑜2 || 𝑟𝑜3 ) 1

(B) −𝑔𝑚1 (𝑟𝑜1 || || 𝑟𝑜3 )
𝑔𝑚3

1 1
(C) −𝑔𝑚1 �𝑟𝑜1 || �𝑔 ||𝑟𝑜2 � || 𝑟𝑜3 � (D) −𝑔𝑚1 (𝑟𝑜1 || �𝑔 ||𝑟𝑜3 � || 𝑟𝑜2 )
𝑚2 𝑚3

Q.42 In the circuit shown in the figure, transistor M1 is in saturation and has transconductance
gm = 0.01 siemens. Ignoring internal parasitic capacitances and assuming the channel length
modulation λ to be zero, the small signal input pole frequency (in kHz) is __________

VDD

1kΩ

50pF
vin
M1
5kΩ

EC (3) 14/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)

Q.43 Following is the K-map of a Boolean function of five variables P, Q, R, S and X. The minimum
sum-of-product (SOP) expression for the function is

PQ PQ
00 01 11 10 00 01 11 10
RS RS

00 0 0 0 0 00 0 1 1 0

01 1 0 0 1 01 0 0 0 0

11 1 0 0 1 11 0 0 0 0

10 0 0 0 0 10 0 1 1 0

X=0 X=1

(A) P Q S X + P Q S X + Q R S X + Q R S X

(B) Q S X + Q S X

(D) Q S + Q S

Q.44 For the circuit shown in the figure, the delays of NOR gates, multiplexers and inverters are 2 ns,
1.5 ns and 1 ns, respectively. If all the inputs P, Q, R, S and T are applied at the same time instant,
the maximum propagation delay (in ns) of the circuit is __________

Q
0 0

R MUX MUX Y

S 1 1
S0 S0

EC (3) 15/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)

Q.45 For the circuit shown in the figure, the delay of the bubbled NAND gate is 2 ns and that of the
counter is assumed to be zero.

Q0 (LSB)

3-bit Q1
Synchronous
Counter
Q2 (MSB)

Clk

RESET

If the clock (Clk) frequency is 1 GHz, then the counter behaves as a

(A) mod-5 counter (B) mod-6 counter (C) mod-7 counter (D) mod-8 counter

Q.46 The first two rows in the Routh table for the characteristic equation of a certain closed-loop control
system are given as

s3 1 (2K + 3)

s2 2K 4

The range of K for which the system is stable is

(A) −2.0 < K < 0.5 (B) 0 < K < 0.5 (C) 0 < K < ∞ (D) 0.5 < K < ∞

Q.47 A second-order linear time-invariant system is described by the following state equations

x1 (t ) + 2 x1 (t ) = 3u (t )
d
dt

x2 (t ) + x2 (t ) = u (t )
d
dt
where x1(t) and x2(t) are the two state variables and u(t) denotes the input. If the output c(t) = x1(t),
then the system is

(A) controllable but not observable

(B) observable but not controllable
(C) both controllable and observable
(D) neither controllable nor observable

EC (3) 16/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)
Q.48 The forward-path transfer function and the feedback-path transfer function of a single loop negative
feedback control system are given as

K ( s + 2)
G ( s) = and H ( s ) = 1 ,
s 2 + 2s + 2

respectively. If the variable parameter K is real positive, then the location of the breakaway point on
the root locus diagram of the system is __________

Q.49 A wide sense stationary random process 𝑋(𝑡) passes through the LTI system shown in the figure. If
the autocorrelation function of 𝑋(𝑡) is 𝑅𝑋 (𝜏), then the autocorrelation function 𝑅𝑌 (𝜏) of the output
𝑌(𝑡) is equal to

X(t) Y(t)

Delay = T0

(A) 2𝑅𝑋 (𝜏) + 𝑅𝑋 (𝜏 − 𝑇0 ) + 𝑅𝑋 (𝜏 + 𝑇0 ) (B) 2𝑅𝑋 (𝜏) − 𝑅𝑋 (𝜏 − 𝑇0 ) − 𝑅𝑋 (𝜏 + 𝑇0 )

Q.50 A voice-grade AWGN (additive white Gaussian noise) telephone channel has a bandwidth of
η
4.0 kHz and two-sided noise power spectral density = 2.5 ×10 −5 Watt per Hz. If information at
2
the rate of 52 kbps is to be transmitted over this channel with arbitrarily small bit error rate, then the
minimum bit-energy Eb (in mJ/bit) necessary is __________

Q.51 The bit error probability of a memoryless binary symmetric channel is 10−5. If 105 bits are sent over
this channel, then the probability that not more than one bit will be in error is __________

Q.52 Consider an air-filled rectangular waveguide with dimensions a = 2.286 cm and b = 1.016 cm. At
10 GHz operating frequency, the value of the propagation constant (per meter) of the corresponding
propagating mode is __________

EC (3) 17/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)

Q.53 Consider an air-filled rectangular waveguide with dimensions a = 2.286 cm and b = 1.016 cm. The
increasing order of the cut-off frequencies for different modes is

(A) TE01 < TE10 < TE11 < TE20 (B) TE20 < TE11 < TE10 < TE01

Q.54 A radar operating at 5 GHz uses a common antenna for transmission and reception. The antenna has
a gain of 150 and is aligned for maximum directional radiation and reception to a target 1 km away
having radar cross-section of 3 m2. If it transmits 100 kW, then the received power (in µW) is
__________

EC (3) 18/19
GATE 2016 Electronics and Communication Engineering (Set 3)

Q.55 Consider the charge profile shown in the figure. The resultant potential distribution is best
described by

(B)
(A)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

EC (3) 19/19
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA C 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA C;D 1
5 MCQ GA A 1
6 MCQ GA D 2
7 MCQ GA A 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA A 2
1 MCQ EC-3 D 1
2 NAT EC-3 1.0 : 1.0 1
3 NAT EC-3 0.07 : 0.08 1
4 NAT EC-3 2.0 : 2.0 1
5 NAT EC-3 0.060 : 0.063 1
6 MCQ EC-3 C 1
7 MCQ EC-3 A 1
8 MCQ EC-3 C 1
9 MCQ EC-3 B 1
10 MCQ EC-3 C 1
11 MCQ EC-3 A 1
12 NAT EC-3 20.5 : 21.5 1
13 NAT EC-3 0.0 : 0.0 1
14 NAT EC-3 0.45 : 0.55 1
15 NAT EC-3 5.55 : 5.75 1
16 MCQ EC-3 D 1
17 MCQ EC-3 D 1
18 MCQ EC-3 A 1
19 MCQ EC-3 B 1
20 MCQ EC-3 A 1
21 NAT EC-3 3485 : 3485 1
22 NAT EC-3 360 : 363 1
23 MCQ EC-3 C 1
24 MCQ EC-3 B 1
25 MCQ EC-3 C 1
26 MCQ EC-3 A 2
27 MCQ EC-3 D 2
28 NAT EC-3 10.0 : 10.0 2
29 MCQ EC-3 B 2
30 MCQ EC-3 B 2
31 MCQ EC-3 D 2
32 NAT EC-3 0.98 : 1.02 ; -1.02 : -0.98 ; 1.96 : 2.04 ; -2.04 : -1.96 2
33 NAT EC-3 -1.05 : -0.95 2
34 MCQ EC-3 A 2
35 NAT EC-3 4096 : 4096 2
36 MCQ EC-3 C 2
37 NAT EC-3 6.55 : 6.75 2
38 NAT EC-3 1.55 : 1.65 2
39 MCQ EC-3 A 2
40 NAT EC-3 -1.0 : -1.0 2
41 MCQ EC-3 C 2
42 NAT EC-3 56 : 63 2
43 MCQ EC-3 B 2
44 NAT EC-3 6.0 : 6.0 2
45 MCQ EC-3 D 2
46 MCQ EC-3 D 2
47 MCQ EC-3 A 2
48 NAT EC-3 -3.45 : -3.35 2
49 MCQ EC-3 B 2
50 NAT EC-3 30.0 : 33.0 2
51 NAT EC-3 0.70 : 0.75 2
52 NAT EC-3 155.0 : 162.0 2
53 MCQ EC-3 C 2
54 NAT EC-3 0.01 : 0.02 2
55 MCQ EC-3 D 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Electronics and Communication Engineering 5th Feb 2017 session 2
Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100
Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 2 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 3 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 4 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 5 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 6 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 7 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 8 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 9 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 10 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 11 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 12 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 13 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33
Question Number : 14 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0
Question Number : 15 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33
Question Number : 16 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 17 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 18 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 19 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 20 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 21 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 22 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 23 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 24 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 25 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 26 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 27 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 28 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 29 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 30 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 31 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 32 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 33 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 34 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 35 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 36 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 37 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 38 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 39 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 40 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 41 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 42 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0
Question Number : 43 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0
Question Number : 44 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0
Question Number : 45 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66
Question Number : 46 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 47 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 48 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 49 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 50 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 51 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 52 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 53 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 54 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 55 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 56 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 57 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 58 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 59 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 60 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 61 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 62 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 63 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 64 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 65 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 NAT EC-2 4 to 4 1
2 MCQ EC-2 A 1
3 NAT EC-2 54.0 to 55.0 1
4 MCQ EC-2 B 1
5 NAT EC-2 0.19 to 0.21 1
6 NAT EC-2 2.12 to 2.16 1
7 MCQ EC-2 C 1
8 MCQ EC-2 B 1
9 MCQ EC-2 C 1
10 MCQ EC-2 C 1
11 NAT EC-2 0.45 to 0.55 1
12 NAT EC-2 3.15 to 3.21 1
13 MCQ EC-2 A 1
14 NAT EC-2 5.5 to 6.5 1
15 MCQ EC-2 Mark to all 1
16 MCQ EC-2 B 1
17 MCQ EC-2 B 1
18 NAT EC-2 0.95 to 1.05 1
19 NAT EC-2 4.99 to 5.01 1
20 MCQ EC-2 D 1
21 MCQ EC-2 C 1
22 NAT EC-2 2.0 to 2.0 1
23 NAT EC-2 7 to 7 1
24 MCQ EC-2 C 1
25 NAT EC-2 48.0 to 51.0 1
26 MCQ EC-2 C 2
27 MCQ EC-2 D 2
28 MCQ EC-2 B 2
29 NAT EC-2 2.4 to 2.6 2
30 NAT EC-2 -100.01 to -99.99 2
31 NAT EC-2 8.0 to 8.3 2
32 NAT EC-2 -1.01 to -0.99 2
33 NAT EC-2 7.95 to 8.05 2
34 NAT EC-2 0.45 to 0.55 2
35 NAT EC-2 7.0 to 7.0 2
36 NAT EC-2 6.85 to 6.95 2
37 NAT EC-2 0.51 to 0.62 2
38 MCQ EC-2 B 2
39 MCQ EC-2 A 2
40 MCQ EC-2 C 2
41 NAT EC-2 49.0 to 51.0 2
42 NAT EC-2 1.1 to 1.2 2
43 NAT EC-2 4 to 4 2
44 NAT EC-2 50.0 to 50.0 2
45 MCQ EC-2 C 2
46 NAT EC-2 0.74 to 0.76 2
47 MCQ EC-2 D 2
48 MCQ EC-2 C 2
49 MCQ EC-2 B 2
50 NAT EC-2 5.19 to 5.23 2
51 NAT EC-2 69.9 to 70.1 2
52 MCQ EC-2 C 2
53 NAT EC-2 4.55 to 5.55 2
54 MCQ EC-2 B 2
55 NAT EC-2 4.2 to 4.4 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA A 1
58 MCQ GA B 1
59 MCQ GA A 1
60 MCQ GA D 1
61 MCQ GA A 2
62 MCQ GA D 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA C 2
65 MCQ GA B 2
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-5

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “By giving him the last ______ of the cake, you will ensure lasting _____ in our house
today.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) peas, piece (B) piece, peace

Q.2 “Even though there is a vast scope for its ________, tourism has remained a/an _________
area.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) improvement, neglected

(B) rejection, approved
(C) fame, glum
(D) interest, disinterested

Q.3 If the number 715∎423 is divisible by 3 (∎ denotes the missing digit in the thousandths
place), then the smallest whole number in the place of ∎ is _________.

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6

Q.4 1 1 1 1
What is the value of 1 + + + + + ⋯?
4 16 64 256

(A) 2 7 3 4
(B) (C) (D)
4 2 3

Q.5 A 1.5 m tall person is standing at a distance of 3 m from a lamp post. The light from the
lamp at the top of the post casts her shadow. The length of the shadow is twice her height.
What is the height of the lamp post in meters?

(A) 1.5 (B) 3 (C) 4.5 (D) 6

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Leila aspires to buy a car worth Rs. 10,00,000 after 5 years. What is the minimum amount
in Rupees that she should deposit now in a bank which offers 10% annual rate of interest, if
the interest was compounded annually?

(A) 5,00,000 (B) 6,21,000

Q.7 Two alloys A and B contain gold and copper in the ratios of 2:3 and 3:7 by mass,
respectively. Equal masses of alloys A and B are melted to make an alloy C. The ratio of
gold to copper in alloy C is ______.

(A) 5:10 (B) 7:13 (C) 6:11 (D) 9:13

Q.8 The Cricket Board has long recognized John’s potential as a leader of the team. However,
his on-field temper has always been a matter of concern for them since his junior days.
While this aggression has filled stadia with die-hard fans, it has taken a toll on his own
batting. Until recently, it appeared that he found it difficult to convert his aggression into
big scores. Over the past three seasons though, that picture of John has been replaced by a
cerebral, calculative and successful batsman-captain. After many years, it appears that the
team has finally found a complete captain.

Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(i) Even as a junior cricketer, John was considered a good captain.
(ii) Finding a complete captain is a challenge.
(iii) Fans and the Cricket Board have differing views on what they want in a captain.
(iv) Over the past three seasons John has accumulated big scores.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q.9 A cab was involved in a hit and run accident at night. You are given the following data
about the cabs in the city and the accident.
(i) 85% of cabs in the city are green and the remaining cabs are blue.
(ii) A witness identified the cab involved in the accident as blue.
(iii) It is known that a witness can correctly identify the cab colour only 80% of the
time.

Which of the following options is closest to the probability that the accident was caused by
a blue cab?

(A) 12% (B) 15% (C) 41% (D) 80%

GA 2/3
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-5
Q.10 A coastal region with unparalleled beauty is home to many species of animals. It is dotted
with coral reefs and unspoilt white sandy beaches. It has remained inaccessible to tourists
due to poor connectivity and lack of accommodation. A company has spotted the
opportunity and is planning to develop a luxury resort with helicopter service to the nearest
major city airport. Environmentalists are upset that this would lead to the region becoming
crowded and polluted like any other major beach resorts.

Which one of the following statements can be logically inferred from the information given
in the above paragraph?

(A) The culture and tradition of the local people will be influenced by the tourists.
(B) The region will become crowded and polluted due to tourism.
(C) The coral reefs are on the decline and could soon vanish.
(D) Helicopter connectivity would lead to an increase in tourists coming to the region.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 3/3
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Two identical nMOS transistors M1 and M2 are connected as shown below. The circuit is
used as an amplifier with the input connected between G and S terminals and the output taken
between D and S terminals. Vbias and VD are so adjusted that both transistors are in saturation.
𝜕𝑖𝐷
The transconductance of this combination is defined as 𝑔𝑚 = while the output
𝜕𝑣𝐺𝑆
𝜕𝑣𝐷𝑆
resistance is 𝑟𝑜 = , where 𝑖𝐷 is the current flowing into the drain of M2 . Let 𝑔𝑚1 ,
𝜕𝑖𝐷
𝑔𝑚2 be the transconductances and 𝑟𝑜1 , 𝑟𝑜2 be the output resistances of transistors M1 and
M2 , respectively.

Which of the following statements about estimates for 𝑔𝑚 and 𝑟𝑜 is correct?

(A) 𝑔𝑚 ≈ 𝑔𝑚1 . 𝑔𝑚2 . 𝑟𝑜2 and 𝑟𝑜 ≈ 𝑟𝑜1 + 𝑟𝑜2 .
(B) 𝑔𝑚 ≈ 𝑔𝑚1 + 𝑔𝑚2 and 𝑟𝑜 ≈ 𝑟𝑜1 + 𝑟𝑜2 .
(C) 𝑔𝑚 ≈ 𝑔𝑚1 and 𝑟𝑜 ≈ 𝑟𝑜1 . 𝑔𝑚2 . 𝑟𝑜2.
(D) 𝑔𝑚 ≈ 𝑔𝑚1 and 𝑟𝑜 ≈ 𝑟𝑜2 .

Q.2 In the circuit shown below, the op-amp is ideal and Zener voltage of the diode is 2.5 volts.
At the input, unit step voltage is applied, i.e. 𝑣𝐼𝑁 (𝑡) = 𝑢(𝑡) volts. Also, at 𝑡 = 0, the
voltage across each of the capacitors is zero.

The time 𝑡, in milliseconds, at which the output voltage 𝑣𝑂𝑈𝑇 crosses −10 V is
(A) 2.5 (B) 5 (C) 7.5 (D) 10

Q.3 A good transimpedance amplifier has

(A) low input impedance and high output impedance.
(B) high input impedance and high output impedance.
(C) high input impedance and low output impedance.
(D) low input impedance and low output impedance.

EC 1/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.4 Let the input be u and the output be y of a system, and the other parameters are real
constants. Identify which among the following systems is not a linear system:
d3y d2y dy du d 2u
(A)  a1 2  a2  a3 y  b3 u  b2  b1 2 (with initial rest conditions)
dt 3 dt dt dt dt
t
(B) y  t    e t    u   d
0
(C) y  au  b, b  0
(D) y  au

Q.5 The Nyquist stability criterion and the Routh criterion both are powerful analysis tools for
determining the stability of feedback controllers. Identify which of the following statements
is FALSE:
(A) Both the criteria provide information relative to the stable gain range of the system.
(B) The general shape of the Nyquist plot is readily obtained from the Bode magnitude plot
for all minimum-phase systems.
(C) The Routh criterion is not applicable in the condition of transport lag, which can be
readily handled by the Nyquist criterion.
(D) The closed-loop frequency response for a unity feedback system cannot be obtained
from the Nyquist plot.

Q.6 Consider 𝑝(𝑠) = 𝑠 3 + 𝑎2 𝑠 2 + 𝑎1 𝑠 + 𝑎0 with all real coefficients. It is known that its
derivative 𝑝′(𝑠) has no real roots. The number of real roots of 𝑝(𝑠) is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q.7 In a p-n junction diode at equilibrium, which one of the following statements is
NOT TRUE?
(A) The hole and electron diffusion current components are in the same direction.
(B) The hole and electron drift current components are in the same direction.
(C) On an average, holes and electrons drift in opposite direction.
(D) On an average, electrons drift and diffuse in the same direction.

EC 2/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.8 The logic function f ( X , Y ) realized by the given circuit is

VDD

X X

Y Y
f (X , Y )

(A) NOR (B) AND (C) NAND (D) XOR

Q.9 A function 𝐹(𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶) defined by three Boolean variables A, B and C when expressed as sum
of products is given by
𝐹 = 𝐴̅ ⋅ 𝐵̅ ⋅ 𝐶̅ + 𝐴̅ ⋅ 𝐵 ⋅ 𝐶̅ + 𝐴 ⋅ 𝐵̅ ⋅ 𝐶̅
̅ ̅ ̅
where, 𝐴, 𝐵 , and 𝐶 are the complements of the respective variables. The product of sums
(POS) form of the function F is

(A) 𝐹 = (𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐶) ⋅ (𝐴 + 𝐵̅ + 𝐶) ⋅ (𝐴̅ + 𝐵 + 𝐶)
(B) 𝐹 = (𝐴̅ + 𝐵̅ + 𝐶̅ ) ⋅ (𝐴̅ + 𝐵 + 𝐶̅ ) ⋅ (𝐴 + 𝐵̅ + 𝐶̅ )
(C) 𝐹 = (𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐶̅ ) ⋅ (𝐴 + 𝐵̅ + 𝐶̅ ) ⋅ (𝐴̅ + 𝐵 + 𝐶̅ ) ⋅ (𝐴̅ + 𝐵̅ + 𝐶) ⋅ (𝐴̅ + 𝐵̅ + 𝐶̅ )
(D) 𝐹 = (𝐴̅ + 𝐵̅ + 𝐶) ⋅ (𝐴̅ + 𝐵 + 𝐶) ⋅ (𝐴 + 𝐵̅ + 𝐶) ⋅ (𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐶̅ ) ⋅ (𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐶)

EC 3/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.10 The points P, Q, and R shown on the Smith chart (normalized impedance chart) in the
following figure represent:

P Q R

(A) P: Open Circuit, Q: Short Circuit, R: Matched Load

(B) P: Open Circuit, Q: Matched Load, R: Short Circuit
(C) P: Short Circuit, Q: Matched Load, R: Open Circuit
(D) P: Short Circuit, Q: Open Circuit, R: Matched Load

Q.11 Let M be a real 4  4 matrix. Consider the following statements:

S1: M has 4 linearly independent eigenvectors.
S2: M has 4 distinct eigenvalues.
S3: M is non-singular (invertible).
Which one among the following is TRUE?
(A) S1 implies S2 (B) S1 implies S3
(C) S2 implies S1 (D) S3 implies S2

Q.12 ax 2  by 2 f f
Let f ( x, y )  , where a and b are constants. If  at x  1 and y  2 , then
xy x y
the relation between a and b is
b b
(A) a  (B) a  (C) a  2b (D) a  4b
4 2

Q.13 A discrete-time all-pass system has two of its poles at 0.250 and 230 . Which one of the
following statements about the system is TRUE?
(A) It has two more poles at 0.530 and 40 .
(B) It is stable only when the impulse response is two-sided.
(C) It has constant phase response over all frequencies.
(D) It has constant phase response over the entire z-plane.

EC 4/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.14 Let 𝑥(𝑡) be a periodic function with period 𝑇 = 10. The Fourier series coefficients for this
series are denoted by 𝑎𝑘 , that is
∞
2𝜋
𝑥(𝑡) = ∑ 𝑎𝑘 𝑒 𝑗𝑘 𝑇 𝑡
𝑘=−∞

The same function 𝑥(𝑡) can also be considered as a periodic function with period 𝑇 ′ = 40.
Let 𝑏𝑘 be the Fourier series coefficients when period is taken as 𝑇′. If ∑∞
𝑘=−∞|𝑎𝑘 | = 16, then
∞
∑𝑘=−∞|𝑏𝑘 | is equal to
(A) 256 (B) 64 (C) 16 (D) 4

Q.15 Consider the following amplitude modulated signal:

𝑠(𝑡) = cos(2000 𝜋𝑡) + 4 cos(2400 𝜋𝑡) + cos(2800 𝜋𝑡).

The ratio (accurate to three decimal places) of the power of the message signal to the power
of the carrier signal is __________.

Q.16 Consider a binary channel code in which each codeword has a fixed length of 5 bits. The
Hamming distance between any pair of distinct codewords in this code is at least 2. The
maximum number of codewords such a code can contain is _________.

Q.17 A binary source generates symbols 𝑋 ∈ {−1,1} which are transmitted over a noisy channel.
The probability of transmitting 𝑋 = 1 is 0.5. Input to the threshold detector is 𝑅 = 𝑋 + 𝑁.
The probability density function 𝑓𝑁 (𝑛) of the noise 𝑁 is shown below.

𝑓𝑁 (𝑛)

0.5

−2 2 𝑛

If the detection threshold is zero, then the probability of error (correct to two decimal
places) is __________.

Q.18 A p-n step junction diode with a contact potential of 0.65 V has a depletion width of 1μm
at equilibrium. The forward voltage (in volts, correct to two decimal places) at which this
width reduces to 0.6 μm is _______.

EC 5/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.19 A traffic signal cycles from GREEN to YELLOW, YELLOW to RED and RED to GREEN.
In each cycle, GREEN is turned on for 70 seconds, YELLOW is turned on for
5 seconds and the RED is turned on for 75 seconds. This traffic light has to be implemented
using a finite state machine (FSM). The only input to this FSM is a clock of 5 second period.
The minimum number of flip-flops required to implement this FSM is _______.

Q.20 There are two photolithography systems: one with light source of wavelength λ1 = 156 nm
(System 1) and another with light source of wavelength λ2 = 325 nm (System 2). Both
photolithography systems are otherwise identical. If the minimum feature sizes that can be
realized using System1 and System2 are Lmin1 and Lmin2 respectively, the ratio Lmin1/Lmin2
(correct to two decimal places) is__________.

Q.21 A lossy transmission line has resistance per unit length R  0.05  / m . The line is
distortionless and has characteristic impedance of 50 . The attenuation constant (in Np/m,
correct to three decimal places) of the line is _______.

Q.22  k 2k  x 
Consider matrix A   2 2
and vector x   1  . The number of distinct real values
k  k k   x2 
of k for which the equation Ax  0 has infinitely many solutions is _______.

Q.23 Let X 1 , X 2 , X 3 and X 4 be independent normal random variables with zero mean and unit
variance. The probability that X 4 is the smallest among the four is _______.

Q.24 𝑡2
𝑥 −( )
Taylor series expansion of 𝑓(𝑥) = ∫0 𝑒 2 𝑑𝑡 around 𝑥 = 0 has the form

𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑎0 + 𝑎1 𝑥 + 𝑎2 𝑥 2 + ⋯

The coefficient 𝑎2 (correct to two decimal places) is equal to _______.

EC 6/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.25 The ABCD matrix for a two-port network is defined by:

V1   A B   V2 
 I   C D    I 
 1   2

I1 2 2 I2
 

V1 5 V2
 

The parameter B for the given two-port network (in ohms, correct to two decimal places)
is _______.

EC 7/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The circuit shown in the figure is used to provide regulated voltage (5 V) across the 1k
resistor. Assume that the Zener diode has a constant reverse breakdown voltage for a current
range, starting from a minimum required Zener current, I Z min  2 mA to its maximum
allowable current. The input voltage VI may vary by 5% from its nominal value of 6 V. The
resistance of the diode in the breakdown region is negligible.
R

VI 5V 1kΩ

The value of R and the minimum required power dissipation rating of the diode,
respectively, are
(A) 186  and 10 mW (B) 100  and 40 mW

(C) 100  and 10 mW (D) 186  and 40 mW

Q.27 Let c(t )  Ac cos(2 f c t ) and m(t )  cos(2 f mt ). It is given that f c  5 f m . The signal
c(t )  m(t ) is applied to the input of a non-linear device, whose output vo (t ) is related to
the input vi (t ) as vo (t )  avi (t )  bvi (t ) , where a and b are positive constants. The
2

output of the non-linear device is passed through an ideal band-pass filter with center
frequency f c and bandwidth 3 f m , to produce an amplitude modulated (AM) wave. If it is
desired to have the sideband power of the AM wave to be half of the carrier power, then
a b is

(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2

Q.28 Consider a white Gaussian noise process 𝑁(𝑡) with two-sided power spectral density
2
𝑆𝑁 (𝑓) = 0.5 W/Hz as input to a filter with impulse response 0.5𝑒 −𝑡 /2 (where 𝑡 is in
seconds) resulting in output 𝑌(𝑡). The power in 𝑌(𝑡) in watts is
(A) 0.11 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.44

EC 8/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.29 The state equation and the output equation of a control system are given below:

 4 1.5  2
x  x  u ,
4 0  0
y  1.5 0.625 x .

The transfer function representation of the system is

3s  5 3s  1.875
(A) (B)
s  4s  6
2
s 2  4s  6
4s  1.5 6s  5
(C) (D)
s  4s  6
2
s  4s  6
2

Q.30 Red (R), Green (G) and Blue (B) Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) were fabricated using p-n
junctions of three different inorganic semiconductors having different band-gaps. The built-
in voltages of red, green and blue diodes are VR, VG and VB, respectively. Assume donor and
acceptor doping to be the same (NA and ND, respectively) in the p and n sides of all the three
diodes.
Which one of the following relationships about the built-in voltages is TRUE?
(A) VR > VG > VB
(B) VR < VG < VB
(C) VR = VG = VB
(D) VR > VG < VB

Q.31 A four-variable Boolean function is realized using 4 1 multiplexers as shown in the

figure.

I0 I0 F (U , V ,W , X )
I1 4 1 I1
VCC 4 1
I2 MUX MUX
I2

I3 S1 S0 I3 S1 S0

U V W X

The minimized expression for F (U , V ,W , X ) is

(A) (U V  U V ) W (B) (U V  U V )(W X  W X )

(C) (U V  U V ) W (D) (U V  U V )(W X  W X )

EC 9/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.32 A 2  2 ROM array is built with the help of diodes as shown in the circuit below. Here W0
and W1 are signals that select the word lines and B0 and B1 are signals that are output of the
sense amps based on the stored data corresponding to the bit lines during the read operation.

B0 B1
Sense amps
B0 B1
W0
W0 D00 D01
W1 D10 D11
W1
Bits stored in the ROM Array
VDD

During the read operation, the selected word line goes high and the other word line is in a
high impedance state. As per the implementation shown in the circuit diagram above, what
are the bits corresponding to Dij (where i = 0 or 1 and j = 0 or 1) stored in the ROM?
(A) 1 0 (B) 0 1 (C) 1 0 (D) 1 1
0 1 1 0 1 0 0 0

Q.33 The distance (in meters) a wave has to propagate in a medium having a skin depth of 0.1 m
so that the amplitude of the wave attenuates by 20 dB, is
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.23 (C) 0.46 (D) 2.3

Q.34 A curve passes through the point  x  1, y  0  and satisfies the differential equation
dy x 2  y 2 y
  . The equation that describes the curve is
dx 2y x

 2
 1  y2 
(A) ln 1  y2   x  1 (B) ln 1    x  1
 x  2  x2 

 y 1  y
(C) ln 1    x  1 (D) ln 1    x  1
 x 2  x

EC 10/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.35 For the circuit given in the figure, the voltage VC (in volts) across the capacitor is

(A) 1.25 2 sin(5t  0.25 ) (B) 1.25 2 sin(5t  0.125 )

(C) 2.5 2 sin(5t  0.25 ) (D) 2.5 2 sin(5t  0.125 )

Q.36 For the circuit given in the figure, the magnitude of the loop current (in amperes, correct to
three decimal places) 0.5 second after closing the switch is _______.

1V
1

1 1H

Q.37 A dc current of 26 μA flows through the circuit shown. The diode in the circuit is forward
biased and it has an ideality factor of one. At the quiescent point, the diode has a junction
capacitance of 0.5 nF . Its neutral region resistances can be neglected. Assume that the room
temperature thermal equivalent voltage is 26 mV.

5 sin( t ) mV 100 
V

For   2 106 rad/s , the amplitude of the small-signal component of diode current (in μA,
correct to one decimal place) is _______.

EC 11/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.38 An op-amp based circuit is implemented as shown below.

31 k

+15 V
1 k
+ –
A +
1V
+ vo
–
–
–15 V

In the above circuit, assume the op-amp to be ideal. The voltage (in volts, correct to one
decimal place) at node A, connected to the negative input of the op-amp as indicated in the
figure is _________.

Q.39 The input 4sinc(2𝑡) is fed to a Hilbert transformer to obtain 𝑦(𝑡), as shown in the figure
below:

sin(𝜋𝑥) ∞
Here sinc(𝑥) = . The value (accurate to two decimal places) of ∫−∞|𝑦(𝑡)|2 𝑑𝑡
𝜋𝑥
is _______.

Q.40 1 3
A random variable 𝑋 takes values −0.5 and 0.5 with probabilities and , respectively.
4 4
The noisy observation of 𝑋 is 𝑌 = 𝑋 + 𝑍, where 𝑍 has uniform probability density over
the interval (−1, 1). 𝑋 and 𝑍 are independent. If the MAP rule based detector outputs 𝑋̂ as

−0.5, 𝑌<𝛼
𝑋̂ = {
0.5, 𝑌 ≥ 𝛼,

then the value of 𝛼 (accurate to two decimal places) is _______.

EC 12/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.41 For a unity feedback control system with the forward path transfer function

K
G s 
s  s  2

The peak resonant magnitude M r of the closed-loop frequency response is 2. The

corresponding value of the gain K (correct to two decimal places) is _________.

Q.42 The figure below shows the Bode magnitude and phase plots of a stable transfer function
𝑛0
𝐺 (𝑠 ) = 3 2 .
𝑠 +𝑑2 𝑠 +𝑑1 𝑠+𝑑0

Consider the negative unity feedback configuration with gain 𝑘 in the feedforward path.
The closed loop is stable for 𝑘 < 𝑘0 . The maximum value of 𝑘0 is ______.

Q.43 In the circuit shown below, the (𝑊/𝐿) value for M2 is twice that for M1. The two nMOS
transistors are otherwise identical. The threshold voltage 𝑉𝑇 for both transistors is 1.0V.
Note that 𝑉𝐺𝑆 for M2 must be > 1.0 V.

Current through the nMOS transistors can be modeled as

𝑊 1 2
𝐼𝐷𝑆 = 𝜇𝐶𝑜𝑥 ( ) ((𝑉𝐺𝑆 − 𝑉𝑇 )𝑉𝐷𝑆 − 𝑉𝐷𝑆 ) for 𝑉𝐷𝑆 ≤ 𝑉𝐺𝑆 − 𝑉𝑇
𝐿 2

𝑊
𝐼𝐷𝑆 = 𝜇𝐶𝑜𝑥 ( ) (𝑉𝐺𝑆 − 𝑉𝑇 )2 /2 for 𝑉𝐷𝑆 ≥ 𝑉𝐺𝑆 − 𝑉𝑇
𝐿

The voltage (in volts, accurate to two decimal places) at 𝑉𝑥 is _______.

EC 13/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.44 A solar cell of area 1.0 cm 2 , operating at 1.0 sun intensity, has a short circuit current of
20 mA, and an open circuit voltage of 0.65 V. Assuming room temperature operation and
thermal equivalent voltage of 26 mV, the open circuit voltage (in volts, correct to two
decimal places) at 0.2 sun intensity is _______.

Q.45 A junction is made between p Si with doping density NA1 = 1015 cm3 and p Si with doping
density NA2 = 1017 cm3.

Given: Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 x 1023 JK1, electronic charge q = 1.6 x 1019 C.
Assume 100% acceptor ionization.

At room temperature (T = 300K), the magnitude of the built-in potential (in volts, correct to
two decimal places) across this junction will be _________________.

Q.46 In the circuit shown below, a positive edge-triggered D Flip-Flop is used for sampling input
data 𝐷𝑖𝑛 using clock 𝐶𝐾. The XOR gate outputs 3.3 volts for logic HIGH and 0 volts for
logic LOW levels. The data bit and clock periods are equal and the value of Δ𝑇/𝑇𝐶𝐾 = 0.15,
where the parameters Δ𝑇 and 𝑇𝐶𝐾 are shown in the figure. Assume that the Flip-Flop and the
XOR gate are ideal.

If the probability of input data bit (𝐷𝑖𝑛 ) transition in each clock period is 0.3, the average
value (in volts, accurate to two decimal places) of the voltage at node 𝑋, is _______.

EC 14/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.47 The logic gates shown in the digital circuit below use strong pull-down nMOS transistors for
LOW logic level at the outputs. When the pull-downs are off, high-value resistors set the
output logic levels to HIGH (i.e. the pull-ups are weak). Note that some nodes are
intentionally shorted to implement “wired logic”. Such shorted nodes will be HIGH only if
the outputs of all the gates whose outputs are shorted are HIGH.

The number of distinct values of 𝑋3 𝑋2 𝑋1 𝑋0 (out of the 16 possible values) that give
𝑌 = 1 is _______.

Q.48 The cutoff frequency of TE01 mode of an air filled rectangular waveguide having inner
dimensions a cm  b cm ( a  b ) is twice that of the dominant TE10 mode. When the
waveguide is operated at a frequency which is 25% higher than the cutoff frequency of the
dominant mode, the guide wavelength is found to be 4 cm. The value of b (in cm, correct to
two decimal places) is _______.

Q.49 A uniform plane wave traveling in free space and having the electric field

𝐸⃗ = (√2𝑎̂𝑥 − 𝑎̂𝑧 ) cos[6√3𝜋 × 108 𝑡 − 2𝜋(𝑥 + √2𝑧)] 𝑉/𝑚

is incident on a dielectric medium (relative permittivity > 1, relative permeability = 1) as

shown in the figure and there is no reflected wave.
z
Free space
Dielectric
Medium (r >1)

The relative permittivity (correct to two decimal places) of the dielectric medium is
___________.

EC 15/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.50 The position of a particle 𝑦(𝑡) is described by the differential equation:

𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦 5𝑦
= − − .
𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑡 4
𝑑𝑦
The initial conditions are 𝑦(0) = 1 and | = 0. The position (accurate to two
𝑑𝑡 𝑡=0
decimal places) of the particle at 𝑡 = 𝜋 is _______.

Q.51 The contour C given below is on the complex plane z  x  jy , where j  1 .

C y

1 1 x

1 dz
 j C
The value of the integral is _______.
z 1
2

Q.52 Let 𝑟 = 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 and 𝑧 3 − 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦𝑧 + 𝑦 3 = 1. Assume that 𝑥 and 𝑦 are independent

𝜕𝑟
variables. At (𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = (2, −1,1), the value (correct to two decimal places) of is
𝜕𝑥
_________ .

Q.53 Consider the network shown below with 𝑅1 = 1Ω, 𝑅2 = 2Ω and 𝑅3 = 3Ω. The network is
connected to a constant voltage source of 11V.

The magnitude of the current (in amperes, accurate to two decimal places) through the
source is _______.

EC 16/17
GATE 2018 Electronics and Communication Engineering

Q.54 A band limited low-pass signal 𝑥(𝑡) of bandwidth 5 kHz is sampled at a sampling rate 𝑓𝑠 .
The signal 𝑥(𝑡) is reconstructed using the reconstruction filter 𝐻(𝑓) whose magnitude
response is shown below:

The minimum sampling rate 𝑓𝑠 (in kHz) for perfect reconstruction of 𝑥(𝑡) is _______.

Q.55 Let 𝑋[𝑘] = 𝑘 + 1, 0 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ 7 be 8-point DFT of a sequence 𝑥[𝑛],

−𝑗2𝜋𝑛𝑘/𝑁
where 𝑋[𝑘] = ∑𝑁−1
𝑛=0 𝑥[𝑛]𝑒 .

The value (correct to two decimal places) of ∑3𝑛=0 𝑥[2𝑛] is ______.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

EC 17/17
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

1 MCQ GA B 1

2 MCQ GA A 1

3 MCQ GA B 1

4 MCQ GA D 1

5 MCQ GA B 1

6 MCQ GA B 2

7 MCQ GA B 2

8 MCQ GA C 2

9 MCQ GA C 2

10 MCQ GA D 2

1 MCQ EC C 1

2 MCQ EC C 1

3 MCQ EC D 1

4 MCQ EC C 1

5 MCQ EC D 1

6 MCQ EC B 1

7 MCQ EC D 1

8 MCQ EC D 1

9 MCQ EC C 1

10 MCQ EC C 1

11 MCQ EC C 1

12 MCQ EC D 1

13 MCQ EC B 1

14 MCQ EC C 1
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

15 NAT EC 0.12 to 0.13 1

16 NAT EC 16 to 16 1

17 NAT EC 0.12 to 0.14 1

18 NAT EC 0.40 to 0.43 1

19 NAT EC 5 to 5 1

20 NAT EC 0.47 to 0.51 1

21 NAT EC 0.001 to 0.001 1

22 NAT EC 2 to 2 1

23 NAT EC 0.25 to 0.25 1

24 NAT EC ‐0.01 to 0.01 1

25 NAT EC 4.3 to 5.3 1

26 MCQ EC B 2

27 MCQ EC D 2

28 MCQ EC B 2

29 MCQ EC A 2

30 MCQ EC B 2

31 MCQ EC C 2

32 MCQ EC A 2

33 MCQ EC B 2

34 MCQ EC A 2

35 MCQ EC C 2

36 NAT EC 0.284 to 0.348 2

37 NAT EC 6.2 to 6.6 2

38 NAT EC 0.4 to 0.6 2

Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

39 NAT EC 8 to 8 2

40 NAT EC ‐0.5 to ‐0.5 2

41 NAT EC 14 to 17 2

42 NAT EC 0.1 to 0.1 2

43 NAT EC 0.41 to 0.435 2

44 NAT EC 0.59 to 0.63 2

45 NAT EC 0.11 to 0.13 2

46 NAT EC 0.82 to 0.86 2

47 NAT EC 8 to 8 2

48 NAT EC 0.7 to 0.8 2

49 NAT EC 1.9 to 2.1 2

50 NAT EC ‐0.23 to ‐0.19 2

51 NAT EC 2 to 2 2

52 NAT EC 4.4 to 4.6 2

53 NAT EC 7.9 to 8.1 2

54 NAT EC 13 to 13 2

55 NAT EC 2.90 to 3.10 2

GATE 2020 IIT Delhi
Organising Institute
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2020
Home Information Brochure GATE International Pre Examination Important Dates FAQs Contact Us

EC: Electronics and Communication Engg.

GA - General Aptitude
Q1 - Q5 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 2

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 3

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 4

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 5

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q6 - Q10 carry two marks each.
Q.No. 6

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 7

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 8

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 9

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 10
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

EC: Electronics and Communication Engg.

Q1 - Q25 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 3

(A)
(B)

Q.No. 4

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 5

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 6

(A)
(B)

Q.No. 7

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 8

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 9
(A)
(B)

Q.No. 10

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 11

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q.No. 12

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 13

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 14

(A)

(B)

Q.No. 15

Q.No. 16

Q.No. 17
Q.No. 18

Q.No. 19

Q.No. 20

Q.No. 21

Q.No. 22

Q.No. 23

Q.No. 24
Q.No. 25

Q26 - Q55 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 26

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 27

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 28

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q.No. 29

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 30

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 31

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)
Q.No. 32

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 33

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 34

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q.No. 35

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 36

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 37
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 38

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 39

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 40
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 41

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 42

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 43
(A)

(B)

Q.No. 44

Q.No. 45
Q.No. 46

Q.No. 47

Q.No. 48

Q.No. 49
Q.No. 50

Q.No. 51

Q.No. 52
Q.No. 53

Q.No. 54

Q.No. 55

GATE 2020 IIT Delhi
Organising Institute
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2020
Home Information Brochure GATE International Pre Examination Important Dates FAQs Contact Us

Answer Key - EC: Electronics and Communication Engg.

Q.No. Session Que.Type Sec. Name Key Marks

1 4 MCQ GA A 1

2 4 MCQ GA B 1

3 4 MCQ GA B 1

4 4 MCQ GA C 1

5 4 MCQ GA A 1

6 4 MCQ GA A 2

7 4 MCQ GA B 2

8 4 MCQ GA C 2

9 4 MCQ GA C 2

10 4 MCQ GA B 2

1 4 MCQ EC C 1

2 4 MCQ EC C 1

3 4 MCQ EC B 1

4 4 MCQ EC C 1

5 4 MCQ EC C 1

6 4 MCQ EC B 1

7 4 MCQ EC B 1

8 4 MCQ EC D 1

9 4 MCQ EC C 1

10 4 MCQ EC A 1

11 4 MCQ EC B 1

12 4 MCQ EC D 1

13 4 MCQ EC A 1

14 4 MCQ EC A 1

15 4 NAT EC 48 to 48 1

16 4 NAT EC 2.80 to 2.85 1

17 4 NAT EC 644 to 657 1

18 4 NAT EC 6 to 6 1

19 4 NAT EC 14 to 14 1

20 4 NAT EC 3.050 to 3.080 1

21 4 NAT EC 6.25 to 6.25 1

22 4 NAT EC 0.5 to 0.5 1

23 4 NAT EC 160 to 160 1

24 4 NAT EC 6 to 6 1

25 4 NAT EC 0.25 to 0.25 1

26 4 MCQ EC A 2

27 4 MCQ EC A 2

28 4 MCQ EC C 2

29 4 MCQ EC C 2

30 4 MCQ EC A 2

31 4 MCQ EC MTA 2

32 4 MCQ EC A 2

33 4 MCQ EC MTA 2
34 4 MCQ EC A 2

35 4 MCQ EC A 2

36 4 MCQ EC C 2

37 4 MCQ EC B 2

38 4 MCQ EC A 2

39 4 MCQ EC A 2

40 4 MCQ EC A 2

41 4 MCQ EC D 2

42 4 MCQ EC B 2

43 4 MCQ EC A 2

44 4 NAT EC 800 to 800 2

45 4 NAT EC 1 to 1 2

46 4 NAT EC 0.8 to 0.8 2

47 4 NAT EC 2 to 2 2

48 4 NAT EC 3 to 3 2

49 4 NAT EC 3.95 to 4.05 2

50 4 NAT EC 76 to 77 2

51 4 NAT EC 2.25 to 2.25 2

52 4 NAT EC 58.50 to 58.80 2

53 4 NAT EC -2 to -2 2

54 4 NAT EC 0.299 to 0.301 2

55 4 NAT EC 30 to 30 2

GATE 2022 General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.1 Mr. X speaks _ Japanese _ Chinese.

(A) neither / or

(B) either / nor

(C) neither / nor

(D) also / but

Q.2 A sum of money is to be distributed among P, Q, R, and S in the

proportion 5 : 2 : 4 : 3, respectively.

If R gets ₹ 1000 more than S, what is the share of Q (in ₹)?

(A) 500

(B) 1000

(D) 2000

Page 1
Q.3 A trapezium has vertices marked as P, Q, R and S (in that order anticlockwise).
The side PQ is parallel to side SR.

Further, it is given that, PQ = 11 cm, QR = 4 cm, RS = 6 cm and SP = 3 cm.

What is the shortest distance between PQ and SR (in cm)?

(A) 1.80

(B) 2.40

(D) 5.76

Page 2
Q.4 The figure shows a grid formed by a collection of unit squares. The unshaded
unit square in the grid represents a hole.

What is the maximum number of squares without a “hole in the interior” that
can be formed within the 4 × 4 grid using the unit squares as building blocks?

(A) 15

(B) 20

(D) 26

Page 3
Q.5 An art gallery engages a security guard to ensure that the items displayed are
protected. The diagram below represents the plan of the gallery where the
boundary walls are opaque. The location the security guard posted is identified
such that all the inner space (shaded region in the plan) of the gallery is within
the line of sight of the security guard.

If the security guard does not move around the posted location and has a 360o
view, which one of the following correctly represents the set of ALL possible
locations among the locations P, Q, R and S, where the security guard can be
posted to watch over the entire inner space of the gallery.

(A) P and Q

(B) Q

(D) R and S

Page 4
Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.6 Mosquitoes pose a threat to human health. Controlling mosquitoes using

chemicals may have undesired consequences. In Florida, authorities have used
genetically modified mosquitoes to control the overall mosquito population. It
remains to be seen if this novel approach has unforeseen consequences.

Which one of the following is the correct logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?

(A) Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes is better than using genetically modified
mosquitoes because genetic engineering is dangerous

(B) Using genetically modified mosquitoes is better than using chemicals to kill
mosquitoes because they do not have any side effects

(D) Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes may have undesired consequences but it is
not clear if using genetically modified mosquitoes has any negative
consequence

Page 5
Consider the following inequalities.
Q.7
(i) 2𝑥 − 1 > 7
(ii) 2𝑥 − 9 < 1

Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two
inequalities?

(A) 𝑥 ≤ −4

(B) −4 < 𝑥 ≤ 4

(C) 4 < 𝑥 < 5

(D) 𝑥 ≥ 5

Four points P(0, 1), Q(0, −3), R(−2, −1), and S(2, −1) represent the vertices
Q.8
of a quadrilateral.

What is the area enclosed by the quadrilateral?

(A) 4

(B) 4 2

(D) 8√2

Page 6
Q.9 In a class of five students P, Q, R, S and T, only one student is known to have
copied in the exam. The disciplinary committee has investigated the situation
and recorded the statements from the students as given below.

Statement of P: R has copied in the exam.

Statement of Q: S has copied in the exam.

Statement of R: P did not copy in the exam.

Statement of S: Only one of us is telling the truth.

Statement of T: R is telling the truth.

The investigating team had authentic information that S never lies.

Based on the information given above, the person who has copied in the exam is

(A) R

(B) P

(D) T

Page 7
Q.10 Consider the following square with the four corners and the
center marked as P, Q, R, S and T respectively.

Let X, Y and Z represent the following operations:

X: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the

S-Q axis.

Y: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the P-R axis.

Z: rotation of the square by 90 degree clockwise with respect to the axis

perpendicular, going into the screen and passing through the point T.

Consider the following three distinct sequences of operation (which are applied
in the left to right order).

(1) XYZZ
(2) XY
(3) ZZZZ

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the information

provided above?

(A) The sequence of operations (1) and (2) are equivalent

(B) The sequence of operations (1) and (3) are equivalent

(C) The sequence of operations (2) and (3) are equivalent

(D) The sequence of operations (1), (2) and (3) are equivalent

Page 8
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 Consider the two-dimensional vector field 𝐹⃗ (𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥 𝚤⃗ + 𝑦 𝚥⃗, where 𝚤⃗ and 𝚥⃗ denote
the unit vectors along the 𝑥-axis and the 𝑦-axis, respectively. A contour 𝐶 in the 𝑥-
𝑦 plane, as shown in the figure, is composed of two horizontal lines connected at the
two ends by two semicircular arcs of unit radius. The contour is traversed in the
counter-clockwise sense. The value of the closed path integral
𝐹⃗ (𝑥, 𝑦) ⋅ (𝑑𝑥 𝚤⃗ + 𝑑𝑦 𝚥⃗ )

is _________.

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) −1

Page 9
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.12 Consider a system of linear equations 𝐴𝑥 = 𝑏, where

1 −√2 3 1
𝐴= , 𝑏= .
−1 √2 −3 3

This system of equations admits _________.

(A) a unique solution for 𝑥

(B) infinitely many solutions for 𝑥

(C) no solutions for 𝑥

(D) exactly two solutions for 𝑥

Page 10
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.13 The current 𝐼 in the circuit shown is ________.

(A) 1.25 × 10 A

(B) 0.75 × 10 A

(D) 1.16 × 10 A

Page 11
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.14 Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The current 𝐼 flowing through the 10 Ω
resistor is _________.

(A) 1A

(B) 0A

(D) -0.1 A

Page 12
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.15 The Fourier transform 𝑋(𝑗𝜔) of the signal

𝑡
𝑥 (𝑡) =
(1 + 𝑡 )

is _________.

(A) 𝜋 | |
𝜔𝑒
2𝑗

(B) 𝜋 | |
𝜔𝑒
2

(D) 𝜋 | |
𝑒
2

Page 13
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.16 Consider a long rectangular bar of direct bandgap p-type semiconductor. The
equilibrium hole density is 10 cm3 and the intrinsic carrier concentration is
10 cm3 . Electron and hole diffusion lengths are 2 𝜇m and 1 𝜇m, respectively.

The left side of the bar (𝑥 = 0) is uniformly illuminated with a laser having photon
energy greater than the bandgap of the semiconductor. Excess electron-hole pairs
are generated ONLY at 𝑥 = 0 because of the laser. The steady state electron density
at 𝑥 = 0 is 10 cm3 due to laser illumination. Under these conditions and ignoring
electric field, the closest approximation (among the given options) of the steady state
electron density at 𝑥 = 2 𝜇m, is ___________ .

(A) 0.37 × 10 cm3

(B) 0.63 × 10 cm3

(C) 3.7 × 10 cm3

(D) 10 cm3

Page 14
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.17 In a non-degenerate bulk semiconductor with electron density 𝑛 = 10 cm3 , the

value of 𝐸 − 𝐸 = 200 meV, where 𝐸 and 𝐸 denote the bottom of the
conduction band energy and electron Fermi level energy, respectively. Assume
thermal voltage as 26 meV and the intrinsic carrier concentration is 10 cm3 . For
𝑛 = 0.5 × 10 cm3 , the closest approximation of the value of (𝐸 − 𝐸 ), among
the given options, is __________.

(A) 226 meV

(B) 174 meV

(C) 218 meV

(D) 182 meV

Page 15
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.18 Consider the CMOS circuit shown in the figure (substrates are connected to their
respective sources). The gate width (𝑊) to gate length (𝐿) ratios of the
transistors are as shown. Both the transistors have the same gate oxide capacitance
per unit area. For the pMOSFET, the threshold voltage is 1 V and the mobility of
cm2
holes is 40 . For the nMOSFET, the threshold voltage is 1 V and the mobility
V.s
cm2
of electrons is 300 . The steady state output voltage 𝑉 is ________.
V.s

(A) equal to 0 V

(B) more than 2 V

(C) less than 2 V

(D) equal to 2 V

Page 16
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.19 Consider the 2-bit multiplexer (MUX) shown in the figure. For OUTPUT to be the
XOR of C and D, the values for 𝐴 , 𝐴 , 𝐴 , and 𝐴 are ____________.

(A) 𝐴 = 0, 𝐴 = 0, 𝐴 = 1, 𝐴 = 1

(B) 𝐴 = 1, 𝐴 = 0, 𝐴 = 1, 𝐴 = 0

(D) 𝐴 = 1, 𝐴 = 1, 𝐴 = 0, 𝐴 = 0

Page 17
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.20 The ideal long channel nMOSFET and pMOSFET devices shown in the circuits
have threshold voltages of 1 V and −1 V, respectively. The MOSFET substrates are
connected to their respective sources. Ignore leakage currents and assume that the
capacitors are initially discharged. For the applied voltages as shown, the steady
state voltages are _________________.

(A) 𝑉 = 5 V, 𝑉 =5V

(B) 𝑉 = 5 V, 𝑉 =4V

(D) 𝑉 = 4 V, 𝑉 = −5 V

Page 18
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.21 Consider a closed-loop control system with unity negative feedback and 𝐾𝐺(𝑠) in
the forward path, where the gain 𝐾 = 2. The complete Nyquist plot of the transfer
function 𝐺(𝑠) is shown in the figure. Note that the Nyquist contour has been chosen
to have the clockwise sense. Assume 𝐺(𝑠) has no poles on the closed right-half of
the complex plane. The number of poles of the closed-loop transfer function in the
closed right-half of the complex plane is ___________.

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) 3

Page 19
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.22 The root-locus plot of a closed-loop system with unity negative feedback and
transfer function 𝐾𝐺(𝑠) in the forward path is shown in the figure. Note that 𝐾 is
varied from 0 to ∞.

Select the transfer function 𝐺(𝑠) that results in the root-locus plot of the closed-loop
system as shown in the figure.

(A) 1
𝐺(𝑠) =
(𝑠 + 1)

(B) 1
𝐺(𝑠) =
𝑠 +1

(D) 𝑠+1
𝐺(𝑠) =
𝑠 +1

Page 20
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.23 The frequency response 𝐻(𝑓) of a linear time-invariant system has magnitude as
shown in the figure.

Statement I: The system is necessarily a pure delay system for inputs which are
bandlimited to −𝛼 ≤ 𝑓 ≤ 𝛼.

Statement II: For any wide-sense stationary input process with power spectral
density 𝑆 (𝑓), the output power spectral density 𝑆 (𝑓) obeys 𝑆 (𝑓 ) = 𝑆 (𝑓) for
−𝛼 ≤ 𝑓 ≤ 𝛼.

Which one of the following combinations is true?

(A) Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct

(B) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect

(C) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct

(D) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

Page 21
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.24 In a circuit, there is a series connection of an ideal resistor and an ideal capacitor.
The conduction current (in Amperes) through the resistor is 2sin(𝑡 + 𝜋/2).
The displacement current (in Amperes) through the capacitor is _________.

(A) 2sin(𝑡)

(B) 2sin(𝑡 + 𝜋)

(C) 2sin(𝑡 + 𝜋/2)

(D) 0

Page 22
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.25 Consider the following partial differential equation (PDE)

𝜕 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) 𝜕 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦)
𝑎 +𝑏 = 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦),
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦
where 𝑎 and 𝑏 are distinct positive real numbers. Select the combination(s) of values
of the real parameters 𝜉 and 𝜂 such that 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑒 ( )
is a solution of the
given PDE.

(A) 1 1
𝜉= , 𝜂=
√2𝑎 √2𝑏

(B) 1
𝜉= , 𝜂=0
√𝑎

(D) 1 1
𝜉= , 𝜂=
√𝑎 √𝑏

Page 23
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.26 An ideal OPAMP circuit with a sinusoidal input is shown in the figure. The 3 dB
frequency is the frequency at which the magnitude of the voltage gain decreases by
3 dB from the maximum value. Which of the options is/are correct?

(A) The circuit is a low pass filter.

(B) The circuit is a high pass filter.

(C) The 3 dB frequency is 1000 rad/s.

(D) The 3 dB frequency is rad/s.

Page 24
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.27 Select the Boolean function(s) equivalent to 𝑥 + 𝑦𝑧, where 𝑥, 𝑦, and 𝑧 are Boolean
variables, and + denotes logical OR operation.

(A) 𝑥 + 𝑧 + 𝑥𝑦

(B) (𝑥 + 𝑦)(𝑥 + 𝑧)

(D) 𝑥 + 𝑥𝑧 + 𝑥𝑦

Q.28 Select the correct statement(s) regarding CMOS implementation of NOT gates.

(A) Noise Margin High (𝑁𝑀 ) is always equal to the Noise Margin Low (𝑁𝑀 ),
irrespective of the sizing of transistors.

(B) Dynamic power consumption during switching is zero.

(D) Mobility of electrons never influences the switching speed of the NOT gate.

Page 25
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.29 Let 𝐻(𝑋) denote the entropy of a discrete random variable 𝑋 taking 𝐾 possible
distinct real values. Which of the following statements is/are necessarily true?

(A) 𝐻 (𝑋) ≤ log 𝐾 bits

(B) 𝐻(𝑋) ≤ 𝐻(2𝑋)

(C) 𝐻 (𝑋) ≤ 𝐻(𝑋 )

(D) 𝐻 (𝑋) ≤ 𝐻(2 )

Q.30 Consider the following wave equation,

𝜕 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑡) 𝜕 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑡)
= 10000
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑥
Which of the given options is/are solution(s) to the given wave equation?

(A) 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑡) = 𝑒 ( )
+𝑒 ( )

(B) 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑡) = 𝑒 ( )
+ 0.5𝑒 ( )

(D) 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑡) = 𝑒 ( )
+𝑒 ( )

Page 26
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.31 The bar graph shows the frequency of the number of wickets taken in a match by a
bowler in her career. For example, in 17 of her matches, the bowler has taken 5
wickets each. The median number of wickets taken by the bowler in a match
is __________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Page 27
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.32 A simple closed path 𝐶 in the complex plane is shown in the figure. If

2
𝑑𝑧 = −𝑖𝜋𝐴,
𝑧 −1

where 𝑖 = √−1, then the value of 𝐴 is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.33 Let 𝑥 (𝑡) = 𝑒 𝑢(𝑡) and 𝑥 (𝑡) = 𝑢(𝑡) − 𝑢(𝑡 − 2), where 𝑢(⋅) denotes the unit step
function.

If 𝑦(𝑡) denotes the convolution of 𝑥 (𝑡) and 𝑥 (𝑡), then lim 𝑦(𝑡) = _________
→
(rounded off to one decimal place).

Page 28
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.34 An ideal MOS capacitor (p-type semiconductor) is shown in the figure. The MOS
capacitor is under strong inversion with 𝑉 = 2 V. The corresponding inversion
charge density (𝑄 ) is 2.2 𝜇C/cm2 . Assume oxide capacitance per unit area as
𝐶 = 1.7 𝜇F/cm2 . For 𝑉 = 4 V, the value of 𝑄 is ______ 𝜇C/cm2 (rounded off
to one decimal place).

Q.35 A symbol stream contains alternate QPSK and 16-QAM symbols. If symbols from
this stream are transmitted at the rate of 1 mega-symbols per second, the raw
(uncoded) data rate is _______ mega-bits per second (rounded off to one decimal
place).

Page 29
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)
Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.36 The function 𝑓(𝑥) = 8 log 𝑥 − 𝑥 + 3 attains its minimum over the interval
[1, 𝑒] at 𝑥 = _________.

(Here log 𝑥 is the natural logarithm of 𝑥.)

(A) 2

(B) 1

(D) 1+𝑒
2

Q.37 Let 𝛼, 𝛽 be two non-zero real numbers and 𝑣 , 𝑣 be two non-zero real vectors of
size 3 × 1. Suppose that 𝑣 and 𝑣 satisfy 𝑣 𝑣 = 0, 𝑣 𝑣 = 1, and
𝑣 𝑣 = 1. Let 𝐴 be the 3 × 3 matrix given by:

𝐴 = 𝛼𝑣 𝑣 + 𝛽𝑣 𝑣
The eigenvalues of 𝐴 are __________.

(A) 0, 𝛼, 𝛽

(B) 0, 𝛼 + 𝛽, 𝛼 − 𝛽

(D) 0, 0, 𝛼 +𝛽

Page 30
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.38 For the circuit shown, the locus of the impedance 𝑍(𝑗𝜔) is plotted as 𝜔 increases
from zero to infinity. The values of 𝑅 and 𝑅 are:

(A) 𝑅 = 2 kΩ, 𝑅 = 3 kΩ

(B) 𝑅 = 5 kΩ, 𝑅 = 2 kΩ

(C) 𝑅 = 5 kΩ, 𝑅 = 2.5 kΩ

(D) 𝑅 = 2 kΩ, 𝑅 = 5 kΩ

Page 31
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.39 Consider the circuit shown in the figure with input 𝑉(𝑡) in volts. The sinusoidal
steady state current 𝐼(𝑡) flowing through the circuit is shown graphically (where 𝑡 is
in seconds). The circuit element 𝑍 can be ________.

(A) a capacitor of 1 F

(B) an inductor of 1 H

(D) an inductor of √3 H

Page 32
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.40 Consider an ideal long channel nMOSFET (enhancement-mode) with gate length
10 µm and width 100 µm. The product of electron mobility (µ ) and oxide
capacitance per unit area (𝐶 ) is µ 𝐶 = 1 mA/V 2 . The threshold voltage of the
transistor is 1 V. For a gate-to-source voltage 𝑉 = [2 − sin(2𝑡 )] V and drain-to-
source voltage 𝑉 = 1 V (substrate connected to the source), the maximum value
of the drain-to-source current is ________.

(A) 40 mA

(B) 20 mA

(D) 5 mA

Page 33
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.41 For the following circuit with an ideal OPAMP, the difference between the maximum
and the minimum values of the capacitor voltage (𝑉 ) is __________.

(A) 15 V

(B) 27 V

(D) 14 V

Page 34
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.42 A circuit with an ideal OPAMP is shown. The Bode plot for the magnitude (in dB)
of the gain transfer function (𝐴 (𝑗𝜔) = 𝑉 (𝑗𝜔)/𝑉 (𝑗𝜔)) of the circuit is also
provided (here, 𝜔 is the angular frequency in rad/s). The values of 𝑅 and 𝐶 are
____________.

(A) 𝑅 = 3 kΩ, 𝐶 = 1 𝜇F

(B) 𝑅 = 1 kΩ, 𝐶 = 3 𝜇F

(D) 𝑅 = 3 kΩ, 𝐶 = 2 𝜇F

Page 35
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.43 For the circuit shown, the clock frequency is 𝑓 and the duty cycle is 25%. For the
signal at the Q output of the Flip-Flop, _______.

(A) frequency is 𝑓 /4 and duty cycle is 50%

(B) frequency is 𝑓 /4 and duty cycle is 25%

(C) frequency is 𝑓 /2 and duty cycle is 50%

(D) frequency is 𝑓 and duty cycle is 25%

Page 36
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.44 Consider an even polynomial 𝑝(𝑠) given by

𝑝(𝑠) = 𝑠 + 5𝑠 + 4 + 𝐾 ,

where 𝐾 is an unknown real parameter. The complete range of 𝐾 for which 𝑝(𝑠) has
all its roots on the imaginary axis is ________.

(A) 9
−4 ≤ 𝐾 ≤
4

(B) 9
−3 ≤ 𝐾 ≤
2

(D) −5 ≤ 𝐾 ≤ 0

Page 37
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.45 Consider the following series:

𝑛
𝑐
For which of the following combinations of 𝑐, 𝑑 values does this series converge?

(A) 𝑐 = 1, 𝑑 = −1

(B) 𝑐 = 2, 𝑑 = 1

(C) 𝑐 = 0.5, 𝑑 = −10

(D) 𝑐 = 1, 𝑑 = −2

Page 38
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.46 The outputs of four systems (𝑆 , 𝑆 , 𝑆 , and 𝑆 ) corresponding to the input signal
sin(𝑡), for all time 𝑡, are shown in the figure.

Based on the given information, which of the four systems is/are definitely NOT
LTI (linear and time-invariant)?

(A) 𝑆

(B) 𝑆

(D) 𝑆

Page 39
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.47 Select the CORRECT statement(s) regarding semiconductor devices.

(A) Electrons and holes are of equal density in an intrinsic semiconductor at equilibrium.

(B) Collector region is generally more heavily doped than Base region in a BJT.

(D) Mobility of electrons always increases with temperature in Silicon beyond 300 K.

Page 40
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.48 A state transition diagram with states 𝐴, 𝐵, and 𝐶, and transition probabilities
𝑝 , 𝑝 , … , 𝑝 is shown in the figure (e.g., 𝑝 denotes the probability of transition from
state 𝐴 to 𝐵). For this state diagram, select the statement(s) which is/are universally
true.

(A) 𝑝 +𝑝 =𝑝 +𝑝

(B) 𝑝 +𝑝 =𝑝 +𝑝

/(D) 𝑝 +𝑝 +𝑝 =1

Page 41
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.49 Consider a Boolean gate (D) where the output 𝑌 is related to the inputs 𝐴 and 𝐵 as,
𝑌 = 𝐴 + 𝐵 , where + denotes logical OR operation. The Boolean inputs ‘0’ and ‘1’
are also available separately. Using instances of only D gates and inputs ‘0’ and ‘1’,
__________ (select the correct option(s)).

(A) NAND logic can be implemented

(B) OR logic cannot be implemented

(C) NOR logic can be implemented

(D) AND logic cannot be implemented

Q.50 Two linear time-invariant systems with transfer functions

10 10
𝐺 (𝑠) = and 𝐺 (𝑠) =
𝑠 +𝑠+1 𝑠 + 𝑠√10 + 10

have unit step responses 𝑦 (𝑡) and 𝑦 (𝑡), respectively. Which of the following
statements is/are true?

(A) 𝑦 (𝑡) and 𝑦 (𝑡) have the same percentage peak overshoot.

(B) 𝑦 (𝑡) and 𝑦 (𝑡) have the same steady-state value.

(D) 𝑦 (𝑡) and 𝑦 (𝑡) have the same 2% settling time.

Page 42
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.51 Consider an FM broadcast that employs the pre-emphasis filter with frequency
response

𝐻 (𝜔) = 1 + ,

where 𝜔 = 10 rad/sec.

For the network shown in the figure to act as a corresponding de-emphasis filter, the
appropriate pair(s) of (𝑅, 𝐶) values is/are ________.

(A) 𝑅 = 1 𝑘Ω, 𝐶 = 0.1 𝜇𝐹

(B) 𝑅 = 2 𝑘Ω, 𝐶 = 1 𝜇𝐹

(D) 𝑅 = 2 𝑘Ω, 𝐶 = 0.5 𝜇𝐹

Page 43
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.52 A waveguide consists of two infinite parallel plates (perfect conductors) at a

separation of 10 cm, with air as the dielectric. Assume the speed of light in air to
be 3 × 10 m/s. The frequency/frequencies of TM waves which can propagate in
this waveguide is/are _______.

(A) 6 × 10 Hz

(B) 0.5 × 10 Hz

(D) 1 × 10 Hz

Page 44
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.53 The value of the integral

3(𝑥 + 𝑦 )𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 ,

where 𝐷 is the shaded triangular region shown in the diagram, is _____ (rounded off
to the nearest integer).

Page 45
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.54 A linear 2-port network is shown in Fig. (a). An ideal DC voltage source of 10 V is
connected across Port 1. A variable resistance 𝑅 is connected across Port 2. As 𝑅 is
varied, the measured voltage and current at Port 2 is shown in Fig. (b) as a 𝑉 versus
−𝐼 plot. Note that for 𝑉 = 5 V, 𝐼 = 0 mA, and for 𝑉 = 4 V, 𝐼 = −4 mA.

When the variable resistance 𝑅 at Port 2 is replaced by the load shown in Fig. (c),
the current 𝐼 is _______ mA (rounded off to one decimal place).

(a)

(b) (c)

Page 46
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.55 For a vector 𝒙 = 𝑥[0], 𝑥[1], … , 𝑥[7] , the 8-point discrete Fourier transform (DFT)
is denoted by 𝑿 = 𝐷𝐹𝑇 (𝒙) = 𝑋[0], 𝑋[1], … , 𝑋[7] , where

2𝜋
𝑋 [𝑘 ] = 𝑥[𝑛] exp −𝑗 𝑛𝑘 .
8

Here, 𝑗 = √−1. If 𝒙 = [1, 0, 0, 0, 2, 0, 0, 0] and 𝒚 = 𝐷𝐹𝑇 𝐷𝐹𝑇 (𝒙) , then the value
of 𝑦[0] is _________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.56 A p-type semiconductor with zero electric field is under illumination (low level
injection) in steady state condition. Excess minority carrier density is zero at
𝑥 = ±2𝑙 , where 𝑙 = 10 cm is the diffusion length of electrons. Assume
electronic charge, 𝑞 = −1.6 × 10 C. The profiles of photo-generation rate of
carriers and the recombination rate of excess minority carriers (𝑅) are shown. Under
these conditions, the magnitude of the current density due to the photo-generated
electrons at 𝑥 = +2𝑙 is _________ mA/cm2 (rounded off to two decimal places).

Page 47
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.57 A circuit and the characteristics of the diode (D) in it are shown. The ratio of the
minimum to the maximum small signal voltage gain is ________ (rounded
off to two decimal places).

Q.58 Consider the circuit shown with an ideal OPAMP. The output voltage 𝑉 is
__________V (rounded off to two decimal places).

Page 48
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.59 Consider the circuit shown with an ideal long channel nMOSFET (enhancement-
mode, substrate is connected to the source). The transistor is appropriately biased in
the saturation region with 𝑉 and 𝑉 such that it acts as a linear amplifier. 𝑣 is the
small-signal ac input voltage. 𝑣 and 𝑣 represent the small-signal voltages at the
nodes A and B, respectively. The value of is ________ (rounded off to one
decimal place).

Q.60 The block diagram of a closed-loop control system is shown in the figure. 𝑅(𝑠), 𝑌(𝑠),
and 𝐷(𝑠) are the Laplace transforms of the time-domain signals 𝑟(𝑡), 𝑦(𝑡), and 𝑑(𝑡),
respectively. Let the error signal be defined as 𝑒(𝑡) = 𝑟(𝑡) − 𝑦(𝑡). Assuming the
reference input 𝑟(𝑡 ) = 0 for all 𝑡, the steady-state error 𝑒(∞), due to a unit step
disturbance 𝑑(𝑡), is _________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Page 49
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.61 The transition diagram of a discrete memoryless channel with three input symbols
and three output symbols is shown in the figure. The transition probabilities are as
marked.

The parameter 𝛼 lies in the interval [0.25, 1]. The value of 𝛼 for which the capacity
of this channel is maximized, is ________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.62 Consider communication over a memoryless binary symmetric channel using a

(7, 4) Hamming code. Each transmitted bit is received correctly with probability
(1 − 𝜖), and flipped with probability 𝜖. For each codeword transmission, the receiver
performs minimum Hamming distance decoding, and correctly decodes the message
bits if and only if the channel introduces at most one bit error.

For 𝜖 = 0.1, the probability that a transmitted codeword is decoded correctly is

_________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Page 50
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.63 Consider a channel over which either symbol 𝑥 or symbol 𝑥 is transmitted. Let the
output of the channel 𝑌 be the input to a maximum likelihood (ML) detector at the
receiver. The conditional probability density functions for 𝑌 given 𝑥 and 𝑥 are:
( )
𝑓 | (𝑦) = 𝑒 𝑢(𝑦 + 1),

𝑓 | (𝑦) = 𝑒 ( )
1 − 𝑢(𝑦 − 1) ,

where 𝑢(⋅) is the standard unit step function. The probability of symbol error for this
system is _________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.64 Consider a real valued source whose samples are independent and identically
distributed random variables with the probability density function, 𝑓(𝑥), as shown in
the figure.

Consider a 1 bit quantizer that maps positive samples to value 𝛼 and others to value
𝛽. If 𝛼 ∗ and 𝛽 ∗ are the respective choices for 𝛼 and 𝛽 that minimize the mean square
quantization error, then (𝛼 ∗ − 𝛽∗ ) = _________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Page 51
GATE 2022 Electronics and Communications Engineering (EC)

Q.65 In an electrostatic field, the electric displacement density vector, 𝐷⃗, is given by

𝐷⃗ (𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = (𝑥 𝚤⃗ + 𝑦 𝚥⃗ + 𝑥𝑦 𝑘⃗ ) C/m2,

where 𝚤⃗, 𝚥⃗, 𝑘⃗ are the unit vectors along 𝑥-axis, 𝑦-axis, and 𝑧-axis, respectively.
Consider a cubical region 𝑅 centered at the origin with each side of length 1 m, and
vertices at (±0.5 m, ±0.5 m, ±0.5 m). The electric charge enclosed within 𝑅 is
_________ C (rounded off to two decimal places).

Page 52
Q. No. Session Question Subject Key/Range Mark
Type Name
1 3 MCQ GA C 1
2 3 MCQ GA D 1
3 3 MCQ GA B 1
4 3 MCQ GA B 1
5 3 MCQ GA C 1
6 3 MCQ GA D 2
7 3 MCQ GA C 2
8 3 MCQ GA C 2
9 3 MCQ GA B 2
10 3 MCQ GA B 2
11 3 MCQ EC A 1
12 3 MCQ EC C 1
13 3 MCQ EC B 1
14 3 MCQ EC B 1
15 3 MCQ EC A 1
16 3 MCQ EC A 1
17 3 MCQ EC C 1
18 3 MCQ EC C 1
19 3 MCQ EC C 1
20 3 MCQ EC C 1
21 3 MCQ EC C 1
22 3 MCQ EC A 1
23 3 MCQ EC C 1
24 3 MCQ EC C 1
25 3 MSQ EC A,B 1
26 3 MSQ EC B,C 1
27 3 MSQ EC B,C 1
28 3 MSQ EC C 1
29 3 MSQ EC A,B,D 1
30 3 MSQ EC A,C 1
31 3 NAT EC 4.0 to 4.0 1
32 3 NAT EC 0.50 to 0.50 1
33 3 NAT EC 0.0 to 0.0 1
34 3 NAT EC 5.5 to 5.7 1
35 3 NAT EC 2.99 to 3.01 1
36 3 MCQ EC B 2
37 3 MCQ EC A 2
38 3 MCQ EC A 2
39 3 MCQ EC B 2
40 3 MCQ EC C 2
41 3 MCQ EC C 2
42 3 MCQ EC A 2
43 3 MCQ EC A 2
44 3 MCQ EC A 2
45 3 MSQ EC B,D 2
46 3 MSQ EC C,D 2
47 3 MSQ EC A,C 2
48 3 MSQ EC A,C 2
49 3 MSQ EC A,C 2
50 3 MSQ EC A 2
51 3 MSQ EC A 2
52 3 MSQ EC MTA 2
53 3 NAT EC 512 to 512 2
54 3 NAT EC 3.9 to 4.1 2
55 3 NAT EC 7.9 to 8.1 2
56 3 NAT EC 0.57 to 0.61 2
57 3 NAT EC 0.70 to 0.80 2
58 3 NAT EC -0.55 to -0.45 2
59 3 NAT EC -2.1 to -1.9 2
60 3 NAT EC -0.11 to -0.09 2
61 3 NAT EC 1.00 to 1.00 2
62 3 NAT EC 0.84 to 0.86 2
63 3 NAT EC 0.22 to 0.25 2
64 3 NAT EC 1.15 to 1.18 2
65 3 NAT EC 0.48 to 0.52 2

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