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Project Analysis Beest Exam& Solutions

The document consists of a series of questions and statements related to project analysis and the systems development life cycle (SDLC). It covers various aspects such as project planning, phases of SDLC, roles of analysts, methodologies, feasibility analysis, and project management. The content is structured as a quiz format, testing knowledge on these topics.

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Habtamu Dugasa
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
55 views30 pages

Project Analysis Beest Exam& Solutions

The document consists of a series of questions and statements related to project analysis and the systems development life cycle (SDLC). It covers various aspects such as project planning, phases of SDLC, roles of analysts, methodologies, feasibility analysis, and project management. The content is structured as a quiz format, testing knowledge on these topics.

Uploaded by

Habtamu Dugasa
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as RTF, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Test of Project Analysis:

1. Describe how the project team will go about developing the proposed system
The project plan is the document that is used to _____.
A)describe how the project team will go about developing the proposed system
B)outline the tasks to be addressed in developing the proposed system and develop a time
estimate for each task.
C)outline the technical, economic, and organizational feasibility of the proposed system
D)summarize the business need and explain how the proposed system supports that need
and creates value
E)all of the above
2. Deciding how the hardware, software, and network infrastructure will operate occurs during
the _____ phase of the SDLC.
A)analysis
B)design
C)implementation
D)planning
E)strategy
3.The _____ is generated by the department or person that has an idea for a new information
system.
A)economic feasibility analysis
B)requirements document
C)project charter
D)system request
E)project plan
4. Overall, the consistent notation, integration among the diagramming techniques, and
application of the diagrams across the entire development process makes ________
a powerful and flexible tool set for analysts and developers.
A) CASE
B) UML
C) DFDs D) EPCs
E) Flow Charts
5.The primary goal of the systems analyst is to _____.
A) acquire a working tool
B) create a wonderful system
C) create value for the organization
D) establish the phases of the SDLC
E) identify opportunities for improvement
6. Interfaces (e.g., menus, reports, forms) are specified during the _____ phase of the SDLC.
A) analysis
B) design
C) implementation
D) planning
E)system delivery
7. Developing an information system is similar to building a house because you have to
A)start with a basic idea of what is needed
B) create simple drawings of what is needed and allow the customer to provide feedback
C) develop a detailed set of blueprints
D) actually build the project, often with some changes directed by the customer
E) all of the above
8. Understanding why an information system should be built and determining how the project
team will build it is part of the _____ phase of the SDLC.
A) analysis
B) system request
C) gathering
D) initiating
E) planning
9. _____ development is a structured design methodology that proceeds in a sequence from one
phase to the next.
A) analysis
B) design D) all of the above
C) implementation E) none of the above
10.The project sponsor is the _____.
A) lead systems analyst on the project team
B) person or department that requested the system
C) lead computer programmer charged with writing the code for the system
D) project team leader in charge of developing the system
E)any of the above may fill the role of the project sponsor
11.The phase of the SDLC when the system is actually built or purchased is the _____.
A)analysis
B)construction
C) design
D) implementation
E) planning
12.In which phase of the SDLC is the system specification developed?
A) analysis
B) design
C) implementation
D) planning
E) system delivery
13. The principal disadvantages(s) with the waterfall development methodology is (are) _____.
A) a long time elapses between completion of the system proposal and the delivery of
the system
B) if the team misses important requirements, expensive post-implementation
programming may be needed
C) the design must be completely specified on paper before programming begins
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
14. A development methodology that focuses on the processes as the core of the system is said
to be _____.
A) action-oriented
B) structure-oriented
C) process-centered
D) object-oriented
E) data-centered
15. The process of understanding how an information system can support business needs, design
the system, build it, and deliver it to users is the _____.
A) analysis phase of the SDLC
B) object oriented approach
C) rule for creating a CASE tool
D) systems development life cycle
E) waterfall development methodology
16.The business analyst serves as the primary contact point with the project.
A)True B) False
17.An analyst that focuses on the technical issues of the organization (hardware, software,
databases and networks) is commonly called a change management analyst.
A) True B) False
18.Determining who will use the system, what the system will do, and where and when it will
be used is performed during the analysis phase of the SDLC.
A) True B) False
19.The primary advantage of the Waterfall Development methodology is requirements are
completely specified and held relatively constant prior to programming.
A) True B) False
20.An analyst with business skills that understands the business issues surrounding a system is
commonly called a project manager.
A)True B) False
21.In the Unified Process, the analysis phase follows requirements.
A) True B) False
22.The primary objective of the systems analyst is to create a wonderful system.
A) True B) False
23. The new information system is purchased or built during the implementation phase of the
SDLC. A) True B) False
24.The planning phase is the fundamental process of understanding how an information system
should be built and determining who on the project team will build it.
A) True B) False
25. Phased development is considered a special case of RAD approach to developing systems.
A) True B) False
26. A project manager most likely would not have worked as a systems analyst in the past, since
project management career track is independent of the system analyst's career track.
A) True B) False
27. In extreme programming programmers pair up to write the code.
A) True B) False
28. Parallel development relies on only one iteration of the analysis phase.
A) True B) False
29. For urgent projects, it is a good idea to use a prototyping methodology.
A) True B) False
30.Project team members focus on getting the project done, leaving change management to the
business managers.
A) True B) False
31. The creation of a design prototype that is not a working information system, but represents a
part of the system that needs additional refinement happens with the prototyping methodology.
A) True B) False
32.Extreme programming is founded on core principles such as communication, simplicity,
feedback, and courage
A) True B) False
33. Scott has been assigned to focus on the users during the upcoming information systems
installation. Scott will provide user training and documentation. His role is to serve as a change
management analyst.
A) True B) False
34. The analyst that develops ideas and suggestions to improve the application of information
technology is commonly called a systems analyst.
A) True B) False
35. You are carrying out a project that involves information systems for the operation of
controls in a passenger jet craft. This is an ideal project for you to follow a throwaway
prototyping methodology.
A) True B) False
36. The waterfall development methodology derives its name from the salmon that swim up the
waterfall against the current.
A) True B) False
37.The business analyst is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed on time and
within budget and that the system delivers all benefits that were intended by the project
sponsor.
A) True B) False
38.The infrastructure analyst is responsible for the design of the new business policies and
processes.
A) True B) False
39.Throwaway prototyping balances the benefits of well-thought-out analysis and design phases
with the advantages of using prototypes to refine key issues before the system is built.
A) True B) False
40.Systems analysts Lori and Mark are employed by the local hospital. They have been
assigned to develop a very complex patient monitoring system for the cardio-care unit using a
new display technology. Throwaway prototyping is a very suitable methodology for this
project.
A)True B) False
41.Kim repeatedly performs the analysis, design, and implementation phases concurrently in a
cycle until the system is completed. She then goes back and from scratch does a thorough
design and implementation to complete the project. She is following a throwaway prototype
methodology.
A) True B) False
42. The role of the change management analyst includes ensuring that adequate documentation
and support are available to the users.
A) True B) False
43. The role of the project manager includes managing the team members, developing the
project plan, assigning resources and serving as the primary point of contact for people outside
the project team.
A) True B) False
44.For complex systems, throwaway prototyping is not a suitable methodology, since it will
lead to problems with maintaining the system.
A) True B) False
45.Agile development methodology aims at eliminating the modeling and documentation
overhead in IS projects, while emphasizing simple, iterative application development.
A) True B) False
46.Most system requests include all of the following except _____.
A) business need
B) business requirements
C) project sponsor
D) project manager
E) business value
47. Feasibility analysis may be defined as a(n)_____.
A) assessment of ability of the ultimate users of the system to accept the system and
incorporate it into the ongoing operations of the organization
B) determination of the extent to which the system can be technically designed, developed,
and installed
C) guide to determining whether to proceed with a project
D) identification of only the costs and benefits associated with the project
E) none of the above
48. In order to approve a system request, the approval committee must know
A) all of the details of the ultimate system to be developed.
B) the high level functionality of the system.
C) what the screens and reports will look like in the final system.
D) who the end users of the system will be and exactly how they will use it in their jobs.
E) all of the above.
49. Which of the following factors would tend to increase the technical risk of a project?
A) familiarity with the technology
B) large project size
C) creating an application that is familiar to the users and analysts
D) small project size
E) the number of other applications under development in the firm
50. Which of the following factors could be included in a technical risk assessment?
A) Cost of a new Web server
B) Cost of hiring a Webmaster
C) No previous experience with Java within the IS department
D) Some fear of job loss among order entry department personnel
E) All of the above
51.Peter is the vice president of accounting and finance. For the past year he has solely provided
the resources necessary to get the just-in-time accounting system through the planning and
analysis phases of the SDLC. Other managers have openly stated that the JIT system is not
worth the investment. The SEC has just placed Peter under investigation for insider trading
and the board has asked him to resign. This project is failing _____ feasibility analysis.
A) organizational
B) champion
C) functional
D) economic
E) technical
52. The project champion is a(n)_____.
A) high-level IS executive who is usually but not always the project sponsor who initiated
the system request
B) mid-level IS manager who has the responsibility of controlling and directing the
development process
C) high-level non-IS executive who is usually but not always the project sponsor who
initiated the system request
D) senior member of the user group who participated in the RAD sessions
E) none of the above
53. _____ value can be quantified during the project initiation phase.
A) Expected
B) Tangible
C) Intangible
D) Real
E) Salvage
54. Operational costs that are examined during feasibility analysis include _____.
A) data conversion cost
B) development training
C) user training
D) equipment upgrades
E) initial consultant fees
55._____ feasibility is determined by identifying costs and benefits associated with the system.
A) Economic
B) Functional
C) Organizational
D) Intangible
E) Technical
56. Examples of development costs include all EXCEPT _____.
A) consultant fees
B) hardware expenses
C) salaries for the project team
D) software licensing fees
E) none of the above
57. Explaining "the business capabilities of the information system" is written in the _____
section of the system request.
A) business need
B) business value
C) business requirements
D) project need
E) special issues
58.The four elements commonly found on a system request are _____.
A) economic, organizational, technical, and operational feasibility
B) project sponsor, business need, business requirements, and business value
C) risk analysis, familiarity, project size, and cost-benefit analysis
D) training, software, installation, and equipment
E) upgrades, licensing fees, repairs, and charges
59. _____ is the process of examining the technical, economic, and organizational pros and cons
of developing a new system.
A) Committee approval
B) Feasibility analysis
C) Functionality determination
D) Risk analysis
E) System request
60.The calculation that measures the amount of money an organization receives in return for the
money it spends is called the _____.
A) cash flow
B) net present value
C) total investment
D) tangible costs
E) return on investment
61. ROI calculations do not consider the present value of future money.
A) True B) False
62. It is not necessary to assign dollar values to intangible costs and benefits; it is almost
impossible to come up with reasonable numbers for all of the costs and benefits that haven't
happened yet. A) True B) False
63.Kelly Smith, the vice president of marketing, has provided resources and political support for
the new production management information system. She has acted as the project manager for
the project. A) True B)False
64. A feasibility analysis includes whether the project has been permitted by the CIO of the
company.
A) True B) False

65. Cost benefit analysis identifies the financial costs and benefits associated with a systems
project . A) True B) False
66. System requests often include the project team members including the project manager and
the analysts. A) True B) False
67. Organizational feasibility can be evaluated by conducting a(n) stakeholder analysis.
A) True B) False
68. The return on investment (ROI) should be used as the sole indicator of a project's worth
because it considers the end points of the investment, not the cash flow in between.
A) True B) False
69. The formula for net present value (NPV) is the ratio of (Total benefits - Total Costs) to Total
Costs. A) True B) False
70.User participation should be promoted throughout the development process to make sure that
the final system will be accepted and used.
A) True B) False
71. The champion is a high-level IS executive who initiates the system request and supports the
project by providing time, resources, and political support within the organization by
communicating the importance of the system to other organizational decision makers.
A) True B) False
72. Happy customers is a tangible cost that can be included in a cost-benefit analysis.
A) True B) False
73. How well a system is accepted by the users and incorporated into the ongoing operations of
the business is defined in the technical feasibility.
A) True B) False
74. Economic feasibility focuses on whether the system can be built by examining the risks
associated with the users' and analysts' familiarity with the application, familiarity with
the technology, and project size. A) True B) False
75. Familiarity with the application and technology are major factors considered under
economic feasibility.
A) True B) False
76. Project size is an important consideration in technical feasibility. Larger projects create more
risk, both because they are more complicated to manage and because there is a greater
chance that some important system requirements will be overlooked or misunderstood.
A) True B) False
77. During organizational feasibility analysis the system users are the stakeholders that are
responsible for providing enough budget and promoting the project.
A) True B) False
78. A limitation of a formal cost-benefits analysis is that it contains the costs and benefits for
just one year.
A) True B)nFalse
79. Calculating the break-even point helps in understanding how long it will take before the
system creates real value for the organization.
A) True B) False
80. A high return on investment (ROI) results when benefits far outweigh the cost of a new
project or information system.
A) True B) False
81. The organizational management of a business is involved in hands-on activities related to
the project. A) True B) False

82. To identify the costs and benefits related to the computer technology for a project the
systems analyst should rely on the business users.
A) True B) False
83. Economic feasibility is determined by identifying costs and benefits associated with the
system, assigning values to them, and then calculating the cash flow and return on
investment for the project. A)True B)False
84.Determining whether the new system will be compatible with the existing technology that
already exists in the organization is part of the organizational feasibility study.
A) True B) False
85. Present value calculation takes inflation and time into account.
A) True B) False
86. Kathryn has little experience estimating the time it will take to complete a systems project.
She has just completed the planning phase of the project. What method should she use to
estimate the time required to build the system?
A) adjusted project complexity
B) function points
C) industry standards
D) Microsoft Project
E) more complex approach
87. _____ is the process of planning and controlling the development of a system within a
specified time frame at a minimum cost with the right functionality.
A) Project management
B) Symantic timeline
C) Task identification
D) Time estimation
E)Work plan
88. One method of estimating project time is to use industry standard factors for each project
phase. With this method, if the planning phase typically takes 15% of total project time,
and a particular project requires three months for planning, then the remainder of the
project will require _____.
A) 15 months
B) 20 months
C) 3.5 months
D) 4.5 months
E) 3 months
89. When using a function point estimation worksheet, there are 14 factors that impact the
complexity of a project. These factors include _____.
A) data communications, time tradeoffs, and estimated effort
B) end-user efficiency, data communications, and reusability
C) performance and programming language
D) reports printed and PCA
E) x-rays, extensibility, and operational conversion
90.Adding people to a project team in order to speed up total development time _____.
A) organized in a standard manner across all projects
B) created in an iterative and incremental manner
C) designed so one can compare the current project to past projects
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
91. The three steps of project management are _____.
A) controlling the project, directing the project, and creating the work plan
B) creating the work plan, staffing the project, and controlling and directing the project
C) directing the project, creating the work plan, and naming the tasks
D) naming the tasks, creating the work plan, and completing the deliverables
E) setting the start date, estimating the time, and reading the actual time
92. The most significant challenge to project managers is _____.
A) lack of project management training
B) no one really understands how to manage a complex systems development project
C) the lack of tools that can assist in controlling project progress
D) unrealistic schedule demands by project sponsors
E) all of the above
93.Assume a systems development project effort calculation determines that the system will
require 240 function points. If the developers choose to implement this system in the C
programming language, approximately 31,200 lines of code will have to be written. If
the developers choose Visual Basic to implement the system, the number of lines of code
will be _____.
A) about the same
B) can't tell without more information
C) exactly the same
D) much greater
E) much less
94. To identify the tasks for a work plan the project manager can _____.
A) control and direct the project
B) estimate the size, staff the project, and remember technical skills
C) establish a possible reporting structure
D) list the four phases of the SDLC and the steps that occur in each
E) set conservative numbers for the project software
95. A (n) ____________ is a measure of program size based on the number and complexity of
inputs, outputs, queries, files, and program interfaces.
A) Function point
B) line of code
C) project plan
D) standard module
E) work plan
96. A normal system with 400 unadjusted function points would have _____ adjusted function
points when the shortcut method is use to determine the complexity of the project.
A) 200
B) 260
C) 400
D) 540
E) 600
97. The process of assigning values for the time and effort needed to perform a system project is
called _____.
A) analysis
B) estimation
C) identifying
D) planning
E) preparation
98. The _____ is a dynamic schedule that logs and monitors all of the tasks that need to be
accomplished for the length of the project.
A) margin of error
B) project manager
C) project objective
D)time box
E) work plan
99. A critical success factor for project management is to _____.
A) create a work plan
B) follow the three steps of project management
C) identify most project tasks
D) manage the hundreds of tasks
E)start with a realistic assessment of the work
100. Project managers can develop task lists for a project with the help of _____.
A) established methodologies
B) system proposals
C) system requests
D) user application hardware
E) user requirements
101. A highly effective motivational technique for technical staff is to provide recognition for
each team member's accomplishments. A) True B) False
102. The underlying cause of many missed project deadlines is scope creep.
A) True B) False
103. The most common reason for schedule and cost overruns that surface after the project is
underway is scope creep. A) True B) False
104. When planning a systems project, overly optimistic timetables are the cause of project
completion delays. A) True B) False
105. Using typical industry standards for estimating project time schedules, the estimated
analysis phase would be 10 person-months for a systems project where the planning
phase was completed in 7.5 person-months. A)True B)False
106. Scope creep is only a minor factor in projects running over schedule, and every effort
should be made to incorporate any changes into the present system if they would truly
be beneficial. A) True B) False
107. The project charter describes the qualifications of the people who will work on a project
and the reporting structure of the project team.
A) True B) False
108. Lower CASE tools are used to create integrated diagrams of the system and store
information about system components during the analysis phase.
A) True B) False
109. The COCOMO model to convert lines of code estimates into person-month estimates was
designed by Allen Albrecht of IBM. A) True B) False
110. Matching people's skills with the needs of the project, motivating employees, and
minimizing personnel conflict are all part of the staffing process.
A) True B) False
111. Sergei, the project manager, is worried about completing the project on time. To increase
the productivity of his 15-person team he should create subteams with no more than 10
people on a sub team. A) True B) False
112. A function point is a measure of program size based on the number and complexity of
inputs, outputs, queries, files and program interfaces. A) True B) False
113. One of the greatest weaknesses of systems consulting firms is that they try to apply
estimates and methodologies that they have developed over time and applied to other
projects, most of which are very different from the current project.
A) True B) False
114. The project team has just determined that the deadline for completion will not be met. In
order to deliver a high quality system on schedule, the team has requested that the
features be prioritized and that a fixed deadline be imposed for the project. This
technique is referred to as SDLC methodology. A) True B) False
115. A good technique to help minimize conflict among team members is to hold team members
accountable for their tasks. A) True B) False
116. The document that describes the project's objectives and rules is called the project charter.
A) True B) False
117. Christine does not have the skills that her project manager feels are necessary and no
money has been budgeted for outside consultants. Mentoring is a good option to
improve Christine's skills in this situation.
A) True B) False
118. Creating a work plan requires three steps: identify the tasks that need to be accomplished,
estimate the time that it will take to complete the tasks, and record the task completion
time in a Gantt Chart. A) True B) False
119. It is not wise to identify tasks for a current project using existing methodology, because
methodologies that have been used by an organization for other projects probably will
not work for this project without extensive changes.
A) True B)False
120.CASE tool is a popular graphic depiction of the work plan that lists project tasks along a y-
axis, time along an x-axis, and uses shaded boxes to represent tasks.
A) True B) False
121. Integrated CASE tools are used to support tasks that happen throughout the SDLC.
A) True B) False
122. Jim Smith, the project manager for a high-profile project, has permitted the users to add
additional features to the systems project. The schedule and costs are now running over.
This project suffers from poor standards.
A) True B) False
123. To complete a 20 person-month project in 10 months, a team should have 4 full-time staff
members assigned to the project. A) True B) False
124. Project management is the second major component of the planning phase of the systems
development life cycle (SDLC), and it includes three steps: creating the work plan,
staffing the project, and controlling and directing the project.
A) True B) False
125. According to leading experts in software development, the margin of error when estimating
project costs is 100% and the margin of error in project scheduling time is 25%.
A) True
B) False
126. A key factor in staffing a project involves motivating people to meet the project's
objectives, and the most effective way to do this is through the use of money and
bonuses. A) True B) False
127. Using the shortcut method to determine the complexity of a systems project, a very
complex system having 300 unadjusted function points would have 405 adjust function
points. A) True B) False
128. The work plan records and keeps track of all of the tasks that need to be accomplished over
the life of the project, listing each task, along with important information about it, such
as when it needs to be completed, the person assigned to do the work, and any
deliverables that will result. A) True B) False
129. Time boxing is a popular technique which sets a fixed deadline for a project and delivers
the system by that deadline no matter what, even if functionality needs to be reduced.
A) True B) False
130. When estimating project time schedules using industry standards for a systems project, the
following values are acceptable: 15% for planning, 25% for analysis, 50% for design,
and 10% for implementation. A) True B) False
131. Which of the following analysis strategies incurs the highest risk yet has the potential to
provide high value to the business?
A) Business Process Automation
B)Business Process Improvement
C) Business Process Reengineering
D) Business Process Renovation
E) Root cause analysis
132. What information-gathering strategy enables the analyst to see the reality of the situation
rather than listen to others describe it?
A) document analysis
B) interviewing
C) joint application design (JAD) sessions
D) observation
E) questionnaires
133.The information gathering technique that is most effective in combining information from a
variety of perspectives, building consensus, and resolving discrepancies is a(n) _____.
A) document analysis
B) interview
C) joint application development
D) observation
E) questionnaire
134. A JAD session can reduce scope creep by _____.
A) 10% B) 20% C) 40% D) 50% E) 75%
135. The goal of this analysis strategy is to change the fundamental way the organization
operates and to make major changes by taking advantage of new ideas, methods and
technology.
A) business process automation
B) business process benchmarking
C) business process improvement
D) business process reengineering
E) business process systemization
136. The analysis strategy that results in the existing business processes being left essentially
the same, but with a new system that makes them more efficient is _____.
A) BPA B) BPI C) BPR D) BPU E) Top-down approach
137. Sarah would like to give the interviewee more control over the interview and to gather rich
information. She should ask _____ questions.
A) closed-ended
B) inappropriate
C) open-ended
D) opinion
E) probing
138. Two BPI techniques used to identify possible improvements in the current system are____.
A) activity based costing and activity elimination
B) duration analysis and formal benchmarking
C) outcome analysis and problem analysis
D) problem analysis and root cause analysis
E) activity elimination and outcome analysis
139. A JAD facilitator is _____.
A) the person who sets the meeting agenda and guides the discussion
B) the person who records the discussion
C) participates in the discussion
D) is also a power user
E) none of the above
140. Two BPA techniques commonly used to identify possible problems in the current system
are _____.
A) activity based costing and benchmarking
B) duration analysis and formal benchmarking
C) outcome analysis and duration analysis
D) problem analysis and root cause analysis
E) process simplification and proxy benchmarking
141. Understanding the as-is system, identifying improvements, and developing requirements
for the to-be system are the steps of the _____ phase.
A) Analysis
B) design
C) implementation
D) planning
E) SDLC
142. The examination of existing paperwork in order to better understand the As-Is system is an
example of what information-gathering strategy?
A) Document analysis
B) interviewing
C) joint application design (JAD) sessions
D) observation
E) questionnaires
143. The most commonly used information-gathering technique is _____.
A) Interviewing
B) joint application design (JAD) sessions
C) document analysis
D) observation
E) questionnaires
144. The information gathering technique that enables the analyst to collect facts and opinions
from a wide range of geographically dispersed people quickly and with the least
expense is the _____.
A) document analysis
B) interview
C) JAD session
D) observation
E) questionnaire
145. The goal of ______ analysis strategy is to make minor or moderate changes to the business
processes so that they will become more efficient and effective.
A) business process automation
B) business process benchmarking
C) business process improvement
D) business process reengineering
E) business process systemization
146. The two general analysis techniques performed by the analyst for BPA during the analysis
phase are problem analysis and revise and resubmit modeling.
A) True B) False
147. The interview schedule lists all the people who will be interviewed, when, and for what
purpose. A) True B) False
148. When you begin an interview, the first goal is to establish control and let the interviewee
know that you have a mastery of the subject. A) True B) False
149. Kristin, a systems analyst, needs to know detailed information about the accounts
receivable process, but she is not concerned with accounts payable or general ledger, or
the integration of this information. Her analysis will assist her in designing a To-Be
system for the accounts receivable department. The appropriate requirements-gathering
technique to be used would be interviewing. A)True B)False
150. The systems analyst has recommended that the existing order entry system be totally re-
engineered. The risk to this BPR activity is low to moderate. A)True B)False
151.A systems analyst has prepared an interview agenda that begins with a number of specific,
detailed questions, and then asks the interviewee to make general statements about the
policies and procedure of the business process. The analyst is following a top-down
interview structure. A) True B) False
152. The standard approach to select who should complete a questionnaire during information
gathering is to sample only those departments that do not have direct contact with the
As-Is system. A)True B) False
153. Amanda had the managers at her company develop a list of important and interesting
technologies and how each technology could be applied to current business process.
Amanda is identifying improvement opportunities through technology analysis.
A) True B) False
154. BPI requires the least cost because it has the narrowest focus and seeks to make the least
changes. A) True B) False
155.A fundamental disadvantage of the JAD sessions is that they are subject to be dominated by
a few. e-JAD attempts to eliminate this disadvantage. A) .True B) .False
156. Open-ended questions gather rich information because they are questions that permit the
interviewee to elaborate on answer. A) True B) False
157. Activity-based costing is similar to duration analysis. While duration analysis attempts to
find the time taken to complete business processes, activity-based costing finds the costs
associated with each of the basic functional steps or processes.
A) True B) False
158.To better understand the As-Is system the project team members can perform document
analysis on existing forms, reports, and business process models.
A) True B) False
159. It is easier to ask an interviewee what is used to perform a task than it is to show the
interviewee a form and ask what information on the form is used.
A) True B) False
160. Document analysis and observation are commonly used for understanding the As-Is system
because they are useful for obtaining facts. A) True B) False
161. Because it is important not to disrupt the normal business function, joint application design
(JAD) sessions should be held at a location easily accessible to the participants' office
staffs, and attendees should be those most easily released from regular duties and least
likely to be missed. A) True B) False
162. Jessica has asked the users to generate a list of problems with the current system and to
prioritize the problems in order of importance. Jessica then generated all the possible
causes for the problems, starting with the most important. Jessica is identifying
improvement opportunities through root cause analysis. A) True B) False
163.Activity elimination technique of BPR focuses on understanding the fundamental outcomes
that provide value to customers.
A) True B) False
164. Observation is a powerful tool for gathering information about the As-Is system and may
be necessary because managers often do not remember how they work and how they allocate
their time. A) True B) False
165. Tracy has decided to ask the users and managers to identify problems with the current
system and to recommend how to solve these problems in the future system. They have
recommended small incremental changes. Tracy is identifying improvement
opportunities through problem analysis.
A) True B) False
166. An analyst for an insurance company determined that the overall time required to process a
property damage insurance claim is 21 business days. When the analyst decomposes the
process into steps and aggregates the total time requirements for all steps, she discovers
a total time of 12 hours. The analyst is employing the activity-based costing analysis
technique. A) True B) False
167. JAD is the appropriate technique for gathering information about the As-Is and To-Be
systems: it that identifies improvements, and has a high amount of user involvement.
A) True B) False
168. An interview style that seeks a broad and roughly defined set of information is commonly
called the unstructured interview style. A) True B) False
169. Questionnaires are often used when there is only a small number of people from which
information and opinions are needed, because it is difficult to get a large number of participants
to return questionnaires on a timely basis. A) True B) False
170. To identify improvements in BPR, the analyst should perform outcome analysis, activity
analysis, and technology elimination. A) True B) False
171. The users of the product-sales system would like to dramatically increase the use and value
of the new order-entry system by designing a front end for the Internet and letting customer
purchase goods without the aid of a customer service rep. The projected costs would be high
and the risk would be great. This is an example of BPR. A) True B) False
172.A systems analyst is participating in an exchange of services with another organization.
First, the analyst visits the partner organization, studies and evaluates their systems, and
recommends changes and improvements. Then, a team of analysts from the partner organization
visits the analyst's organization and performs the same service. This process is an example of
benchmarking. A) True B) False
173. Questions on questionnaires should be open-ended to allow the respondent the freedom to
express his/her opinion since the analyst will not be able to follow up with additional questions
as could be done in a one-on-one interview. A) True B) False
174. BPI typically has the greatest breadth of analysis, since it focuses on the entire business
function and beyond. A) True B) False
175. An analysis team consisting of users, managers, and analysts, are in the midst of a daylong
meeting. They are working on systematically evaluating the consequences of removing every
activity from the current business process. The team is performing activity-based costing.
A) True B) False
176. Identify the system boundary, draw the use cases on the diagram, place the actors on the
diagram, and draw the lines connecting the actors to the use cases
When drawing the use-case diagram, an analyst should do the steps in this order: _____.
A) draw the use cases on the diagram, identify the system boundary, place the actors on
the diagram, and draw the lines connecting the actors to the use cases
B) identify the system boundary, draw the use cases on the diagram, place the actors on
the diagram, and draw the lines connecting the actors to the use cases
C) place the actors on the diagram, draw the use cases on the diagram, identify the
system boundary, and draw the lines connecting the actors to the use cases
D) identify the system boundary, place the actors on the diagram, draw the use cases on
the diagram, and draw the lines connecting the actors to the use cases
E) none of the above gives the correct order of steps
177. The importance level of a use case increases for all of the following characteristics of the
use case EXCEPT _____.
A) the use case represents an important business process
B) the use case supports revenue generation
C) the technology is proven
D) the functionality is complex
E) the functionality is time-critical
178. The _____ relationship in use cases allows use cases to support the concept of inheritance.
A) association
B) extend
C) include
D) generalization
E) none of the above
179. A scenario is the same as a(n) _____.
A) use case
B) relationship
C) path through a use case
D) collection of use cases
E) role
180. Which of the following relationships represent the extension of the functionality of the use
case to cover optional behavior?
A) association relationship
B) extend relationship
C) include relationship
D) generalization relationship
E) optional relationship
181. The correct sequence of the major steps in creating use case diagrams is _____.
A) identify the major use cases, expand the major use cases, confirm the major use cases,
create the use-case diagram
B) identify the major use cases, expand the major use cases, create the use-case diagram,
confirm the major use cases
C) create the use-case diagram, identify the major use cases, expand the major use cases,
confirm the major use cases
D) create the use-case diagram, identify the major use cases, confirm the major use cases,
expand the major use cases
E)identify the major use cases, confirm the major use cases, expand the major use cases,
create the use-case diagram
182. Individual steps in a use case should be written in the form _____.
A) Direct Object, Verb, Subject, Preposition, Indirect Object
B) Direct Object, Subject, Verb, Preposition, Indirect Object
C) Subject, Verb, Preposition, Indirect Object, Direct Object
D) Subject, Verb, Indirect Object, Preposition, Direct Object
E) Subject, Verb, Direct Object, Preposition, Indirect Object
183. Which of the following relationships describe the communication between the use case and
the actors?
A) association relationship
B) extend relationship
C) include relationship
D) generalization relationship
E) none of the above
184. A (n) _____ is a formal way of representing how a business system interacts with its
environment.
A) use case
B) physical model
C) relationship
D) system boundary
E) trigger
185. A (n) ___________ actor is a separate system that interacts with the current system using
standard communication protocols, such as TCP/IP, FTP, or HTTP, or an external
database that can be accessed using standard SQL.
A) incremental
B) simple
C) open
D) average
E) complex
186 A(n) _____ use case is typically created early in the process of understanding the system
requirements as a way of documenting basic information about the use case.
A) overview
B) detail
C) essential
D) real
E) imaginary
187. An actor in a use case always represents a specific user.
A) True B) False
188. Object nodes in an activity diagram are depicted using rectangles.
A) True B) False
189. The use case Take Order has a temporal trigger if it begins when a customer calls to place
an order. A) True B) False

190. The first step in creating use case diagrams is to identify the primary actors and their goals.
A) True B) False
191. Each use case can be associated with one or more role(s) that users have in the system.
A) True B) False
192. A use case that begins at the end of the month has a temporal trigger.
A) True B) False
193.The primary actor is the person or thing that starts the execution of a use case.
A) True B) False
194. A decision node in an activity diagram is used to represent the actual test condition that is
used to determine which of the paths exiting the node is to be traversed.
A) True B) False
195.The include relationship represents the optional inclusion of another use case.
A) True B) False
196.Use cases can be used to document both the current (As-Is) system and the future (To-Be)
system. A) True B)False
197. When drawing use case diagrams, higher level use cases are drawn below lower level use
cases. A) True B) False
198. The value of the unadjusted use-case points weight total (UUCW) is the sum of the number
of unique transactions in each of the use cases. A) True B) False
199. Control flows in an activity diagram are shown using solid-lines with arrows while object
flows are shown using dashed lines with arrows. A) True B) False
200.An asterisk on a relationship in a use case diagram represents multiplicity of the
association. A) True B) False
201. As Felix is documenting an order entry system, he discovers that someone can call up to
place an order that is not a customer. In this case, the Take Order use case will use the Create
Customer use case to capture the customer information, and then the order will be taken. This is
an example of the extend relationship between use cases.
A) True B) False
202. Use cases are the primary drivers for all of the UML diagramming techniques.
A) True B) False
203. An essential use case describes the specific set of steps to be followed.
A) True B) False
204. Rectangles are used to represent association relationships in use case diagrams.
A) True B) False
205. Join nodes in an activity diagram are used to bring concurrent or parallel flows together
back into a single flow. A) True B) False
206. Inheritance is supported in use cases through the generalization relationship.
A) True B) False
207. An alternate or exceptional flow in a use case documents the decomposition of the normal
flow of events. A) True B) False
208. A use case that describes functionality that is complex and risky would be given a high
importance level. A) True B) False
209. Paths coming out of a decision node are always mutually-exclusive, while the paths coming
out of a fork node are sometimes concurrent and sometimes mutually-exclusive.
A) True B) False
210. The SVDPI form of sentences in use cases aids in the identification of classes.
A) True B) False
211. An include relationship is modeled in a use case diagram by an arrow with the word
<<include>> above it. A) True B) False
212. It is a good idea to have the users role play the use cases as a way of confirming them
during the analysis phase. A) True B) False
213.A use case that represents an important business process and involves the use of new
technology would likely be given an importance level of medium. A) True B) False.
214.Control flows in an activity diagram show the flow of objects into and out of activities.
A) True B) False
315.A solid line without arrows between an actor and a use case in a use case diagram
represents a one-way flow of communication from the actor to the use case.
A) True B) False
316. An actor in a use case must be a person.
A) True B) False

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