THE NAVIGATOR ENRANCE PREPARATIONS THATTA

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ETP2024 TEST - 11 07-08-2024

PHYSICS

1. An antiproton is an atomic particle that has:

a) the mass of a proton and the charge of an electron. b) the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton.
c) the mass of a neutron and the charge of a proton. d) the mass of an electron and the charge of a positron.
2. Conservation laws that describe events involving the elementary particles include the conservation of:
a) energy. b) linear and angular momentum. c) electric charge. d) All of these are correct.
3. The energy released by the nuclear bomb that destroyed Hiroshima was equivalent to 9.0 × 10 26 MeV. The mass that was
converted into energy in this explosion was:
a) 1.6 kg b) 1.6 x 10–3 kg c) 1.4 x 1014 kg d) 1.1 x 1010 kg
4. A moderator is used to slow:
a) protons b) alpha particles c) neutrons d) beta particles
5. A 100 g sample of a radioactive element has half-life of 5 days. How many grams of radioactive material will remain after 15
days?
a) 100 g b) 50 g c) 25 g d) 12.5 g
6. The length of a horizontal metre stick moving at 0.75c is
a) 1.00 m b) 0.56 m c) 0.66 m d) 1.51 m
7. A ship flies by at 0.82c and is observed by ground-based radar to be 55 m in length. What is the ship’s proper length?
a) 96 m b) 73 m c) 31 m d) 43 m
8. In the photoelectric effect, the work function is
a) the amount of energy required to release an electron b) the same as the threshold frequency
c) the amount of kinetic energy possessed by the electron d) dependent on the frequency of light
9. In the Compton effect
a) the energy of the system is conserved b) the momentum of the system is conserved
c) the energy of a photon is converted into an electron d) a. and b. are correct
10. Which characterizes a photon of light?
a) both energy and momentum b) energy, but not momentum
c) momentum, but not energy d) neither energy nor momentum
11. If a photon has a 6.6 × 10-32 m wavelength, what is its momentum?
a) 4.4 × 10-65 kg.m/s b) 1.0 × 10-1 kg.m/s c) 1.0 × 10-2 kg.m/s d) 2.4 × 1012 kg.m/s
12. Which property does the Compton Effect describe about photons?
a) mass b) momentum c) wave properties d) speed rates
13. What did Compton discover after bombarding electrons with high energy photons?
a) A photon’s momentum depends on its wavelength. b) A photon with a short wavelength can be ejected.
c) Electrons and positrons come in pairs. d) Electrons can be split into smaller particles.
14. What is the momentum of a photon of yellow light with a wavelength of 5.89 x 10-7 m?
a) 3.90 x 10-40 kgm/s b) 3.90 x 10-37 kgm/s c) 1.12 x 10-27 kgm/s d) 1.12 x 10-25 kgm/s
15. If a photon of light has a wavelength of 750 nm, what is its momentum?
a) 8.8 × 10-31 kgm/s b) 8.8 × 10-28 kgm/s c) 6.8 × 1010 kgm/s d) 1.1 × 1027 kgm/s
-27
16. What is the wavelength of a photon which has momentum of 5.60 × 10 kgm/s?
a) 1.98 × 10-12 m b) 3.64 × 10-9 m c) 1.18 × 10-7 m d) 8.45 × 106 m
17. What happens to a high energy photon after it strikes an electron?
a) decreases frequency b) decreases wavelength c) increases energy d) increases momentum
18. What is the frequency of photons that have a momentum of 2.80 x 10-27 kgm/s?
a) 1.75 x 1015 Hz b) 2.25 x 1015 Hz c) 5.25 x 1015 Hz d) 9.25 x 1015 Hz
19. The photon model of light is more appropriate than the wave model in explaining
a) interference b) refraction c) polarization d) photoelectric emission
20. Experiments performed with light indicate that light exhibits
a) particle properties, only b) wave properties, only
c) both particle and wave properties d) neither particle nor wave properties
21. Which phenomenon is best explained by the particle nature of light?
a) interference b) the Doppler effect c) polarization d) the photoelectric effect
22. What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 4.464 x 10 14 s-1?
a) 1.338 x 1023 m b) 1.489 x 10-6 m c) 6.716 x 10-7 nm d) 671.6 nm
23. What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 5.732 x 10 14 s-1?
a) 1.718 x 1023 m b) 1.912 x 106 m c) 5.230 x 10-7 m d) 523.0 m
24. What is the energy, in joules, of one photon of microwave radiation with a wavelength of 0.158 m?
a) 1.26 x 10-24 J b) 3.14 x 10-26 J c) 3.19 x 1025 J d) 3.49 x 10-43 J
25. What is the energy, in joules, of one photon of visible radiation with a wavelength of 464.1 nm?
a) 1.026 x 10-48 J b) 2.100 x 1035 J c) 2.341 x 1011 J d) 4.280 x 10-19 J
26. Which statement below is true with regard to Bohr's model of the atom?
a) The model accounted for the absorption spectra of atoms but not for the emission spectra.
b) The model could account for the emission spectrum of hydrogen and for the Rydberg equation.
c) The model was based on the wave properties of the electron.
d) The model accounted for the emission spectra of atoms, but not for the absorption spectra.
27. The definite energies associated with specific wavelengths in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen suggest that
a) electrons have a smaller rest mass than photons b) photons have a smaller rest mass than electrons
c) energy states in the hydrogen atom are quantized
d) atomic hydrogen is more stable and has a lower potential energy than molecular hydrogen
28. What distinctive phenomena are illustrated in X-ray spectra?
a) Bremsstrahlung - deceleration of the electrons striking the anode. b) Acceleration of the electrons after they strike the anode.
c) Internal atomic structure of the anode. d) Both A & C
29. Which of the following colors indicates an object of the lowest temperature?
a) Violet b) Blue c) Yellow d) Red
30. Which is a property of a black body radiator?
a) It absorbs all incident radiation, then re-emits it at a frequencies determined by its temperature.
b) It is always black, even when heated to high temperatures.
c) It absorbs all incident radiation and does not re-emit any radiation.
d) As it is heated, it changes color from black to blue to red.
31. Which of the following photons has the greatest energy?
a) Infrared b) Blue c) γ- photon d) ultraviolet – photon
32. What discrepancy between experiment and theory helped lead Max Planck to his quantum theory?
a) The discovery of Cathode Rays. b) The discovery of X-Rays.
c) The Ultraviolet Catastrophe. d) The discovery of electrons.
33. The energy of a photon depends on:
a) Amplitude b) Speed c) Temperature d) Frequency
34. How does the energy of a photon change if the wavelength is doubled?
a) Energy doubles b) Energy quadruples c) Energy stays the same d) Energy is halved
35. How does the momentum of a photon change if the wavelength is halved?
a) Doubles b) Quadruples c) Stays the same d) Is cut to one-half
36. The photoelectric effect explains:
a) The wave nature of light b) The particle nature of light
c) The wave properties of an electron d) The atomic structure
37. The kinetic energy of photo-electrons depends on:
a) Intensity of light b) Work function c) Wavelength of light d) Both B & C
38. Which of the following is the formula of the photon momentum?
a) p = hf/c b) p = cλ/h c) p = hc/f d) p = E/mc
39. The stopping potential of photo-electrons depends on which of the following.
a) The light intensity b The frequency of the photons c) The composition of the metal surface d) Both B & C
40. Which of the following formulas expresses the photoelectric effect?
a) hλ = W0 + KE b) hf = W0 - KE c) hf = W0 + KE d) hλ = -W0 + KE
41. All of the following are properties of γ-rays EXCEPT:
a) They discharge electrified objects b) They ionize gases
c) They are deflected by magnetic fields d) They penetrate objects
42. Which of the following phenomena provides the best evidence that light can have particle properties?
a) Diffraction of light b) Compton scattering c) Electron diffraction d) γ-ray diffraction
43. Which of the following phenomena provides the best evidence that particles can have wave properties?
a) The absorption of photons by electrons in an atom
b) The interference pattern produced by neutrons incident on a crystal
c) The production of x-rays by electrons striking a metal target d) Compton scattering
44. Which of the following formulas can be used to determine the de Broglie wavelength?
a) λ = hmv b) λ = h/mv c) λ = mv/h d) λ = mc/h
45. A photon can disappear producing an electron and positron. What is this phenomenon called?
a) X-Rays diffraction b) Electron scattering c) Annihilation d) Pair production
46. In a Compton Effect experiment a photon scattered from an electron at rest increases its wavelength. Which of the following
deflection angles θ provides the greatest increase in the wavelength of the scattered photon?
a) 0° b) 60° c) 90° d) 180°
47. If all of the following objects move at the same speed, which one will have the greatest deBroglie wavelength?
a) Neutron b) Electron c) Bowling ball d) α- Particle
48. Which of the following statement(s) can be associated with Bohr’s theory of the atom?
a) An electron orbiting the nucleus emits energy and falls on the nucleus
b) An electron can change its energy only by a certain portion when it jumps between the orbits
c) The angular momentum of an electron around the nucleus is equal an integer times h/2π
d) both b & c
49. When an electron falls from an orbit the first excited state (n=2) to the ground state (n=1):
a) A photon is emitted b) A photon is absorbed c) No photons are involved d) An electron is emitted
50. When an electron jumps from the n = 1 orbit (of radius r1) to the n = 3 orbit, what is its new orbital radius as a proportion of r1?
a) r1/9 b) r1/3 c) 3 r1 d) 9 r1
51. The wavelength of photon A is greater than that of photon B. Compared to the energy of photon A, the energy of photon B is
a) less b) greater c) the same
52. When incident on a given photoemissive surface, which color of light will produce photoelectrons with the greatest energy?
a) red b) orange c) violet d) green
53. When incident on a given photoemissive surface, which color of light will produce photoelectrons with the greatest energy?
a) wavelength b) period c) frequency d) path
54. Which characteristic of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to the energy of a photon?
a) electrons b) photons c) protons d) neutrons
55. Which transmits the energy in a light beam?
a) n = 6 to n = 5 b) n = 5 to n = 6 c) n = 5 to n = 2 d) n = 2 to n = 5
56. Which electron transition between the energy levels of hydrogen causes the emission of a photon of visible light?
a) red b) yellow c) green d) blue
57. The threshold frequency for a photoemissive surface is 4.0 × 1014 hertz. What is the work function of this surface?
a) 1.2 × 10–19 J b) 2.6 ×10–l9 J c) 6.0 × 1014 J d) 6.1 × 1047 J
58. Which determines the number of electrons emitted by a photoelectric material?
a) intensity b) color c) frequency d) wavelength
59. As the frequency of photons incident upon a photoemissive surface is increased, the maximum energy of the photoelectrons
a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same
60. Which of the following particles is NOT made of quarks?
a) proton b) electron c) pion d) neutron

CHEMISTRY

61. Which one of the species below should have the smallest radius?
a) Ca b) Ba c) K d) C
62. Which one of the species below should have the largest radius?
a) Ca b) Ba c) Al d) Mg
63. Which one of the species below should have the smallest radius?
a) Ar b) Ca c) K d) Mg
64. Which one of the atoms listed below has the largest value for its first ionization energy?
a) Al b) Sr c) Ga d) Cr
65. Which one of the species below should have the smallest value for its first ionization energy?
a) Rb b) Na c) Al d) Ne
66. Which one of the species below should have the smallest value for its first ionization energy?
a) Ba b) C c) Cs d) K
67. Which one of the atoms represented by its symbol below has the largest value for its electron affinity?
a) Al b) Sr c) Ga d) Cl
68. Metal carbonates decompose on heating to give metal oxide and carbon dioxide. Which of the metal carbonates is most stable?
a) MgCO3 b) CaCO 3 c) SrCO3 d) BaCO3
69. The order of decreasing ionisation enthalpy in alkali metal is
a) Na > Li > K > Rb b) Li > Na > K > Rb c) Rb > Na > K > Li d) K < Li < Na < Rb
70. Which alkali metal emits longest wavelength light in Flame test?
a) Na b) K c) Cs d) Li
71. Which of the following is not a normal oxide?
a) K2O3 b) KO3 c) K2O d) KO2
72. The active constituent of bleaching powder is ...
a) Ca(OCl)2 b) Ca(OCl)Cl c) Ca(C1O2)2 d) Ca(C1O2)Cl
73. Which of the following characteristics is not related to alkali metals ?
a) Their ions are iso electronic with noble gases. b) low melting point
c) low electronegativity d) high ionisation energy
74. The reaction of Cl2 with X gives bleaching powder X is:
a) CaO b) Ca(OH)2 c) Ca(OCl)2 d) Ca(O3Cl)2
75. Flame test is not given by:
a) Be b) Sr c) K d) Ca
76. Which of the following pairs of elements possess diagonal relationship?
a) Li and Mg b) Li and Al c) Na and Mg d) Cs and Ba
77. Two mole of magnesium nitride on reacting with an excess of water gives:
a) One mole of ammonia b) Two moles of nitric acid
c) Four moles of ammonia d) Three moles of ammonia
78. The electronic configuration of metal M is ls2 2s2 2p6 3s2. The formula of its normal oxide would be ...
a) MO b) M2O c) M2O3 d) MO2
79. When NaOH is made, the gas released at the anode is:
a) Cl2 b) H2 c) O2 d) H2O
80. Which of the following salts are composed of isoelectronic cations and anions?
a) NaCl b) MgF2 c) CaS d) b) and c) both
81. Boron form covalent compound due to:
a) Higher ionization enthalpy b) Lower ionization enthalpy
c) Small size d) Both a) and c)
82. Which of the following is most acidic
a) Na2O b) MgO c) Al2O3 d) CaO
83. When Al is added to KOH solution
a) No action takes place b) Oxygen is evolved c) Water is produced d) Hydrogen is evolved
84. Conc.HNO3
a) Reacts with aluminium vigorously b) Reacts with aluminium to form aluminium nitrate.
c) Doesn’t react with aluminium d) Reacts with platinum
85. Which is true for an element & present in III group of the periodic table
a) It is gas at room temperature b) It has oxidation state of +4
c) It forms R2O3 d) It forms RX2
86. Which of the following statement in incorrect
a) Al react with excess NaOH to give Al (OH)3 b) NaHCO3 on hating gives Na2CO3
c) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution
d) NaOH reats with glass to give sodium silicate
87. Which of the following is nonmetal
a) Ga b) In c) Th d) B
88. What happens when beryllium carbide reacts with water:
a) Nitrogen gas is released b) Hydrogen gas is released
c) Methane gas is released d) Beryllium oxide is released
89. In Pyrite burner, the gas produced is:
a) SO3 b) SO2 c) CO2 d) NO
90. Oleum is:
a) H2SO3 b) H2SO4 c) H2S2O7 d) None
91. SO3 is not directly dissolved in water to get sulphuric acid because:
a) The reaction does not go to completion b) The reaction is highly exothermic
c) The reaction is quite slow d) SO3 is insoluble in water
92. In group VA the most electronegative element is:
a) N b) P c) As d) Sb
93. The catalyst used in manufacturing of H2SO4 by Contact process is:
a) V2O5 b) Fe2O3 c) Ni d) Pt
94. Coordination number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]-4 ion is:
a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) - 4
95. In [Co(NH3)6]+3 the coordination number of cobalt is:
(a) Zero (b) Two (c) Four (d) Six
96. Interstitial compounds are formed by:
a) Fe b) Ni c) Co d) All
97. Which of the following transition elements show highest oxidation state?
a) Mn b) Cr c) Cr d) Zn
98. Group IB of transition elements contains:
a) Zn, Cd, Hg b) Fe, Ru, Os c) Cu, Au, Ag d) Cr, Mo,W
99. First transition series starts with:
a) Y b) Sc c) Zn d) Cd
100. Group IIB of transition elements contains
a) Zn, Cd, Hg b) Fe, Ru, Os c) Cu,Au, Ag d) Cr, Mo, W
101. There are ____ types of ligands in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]-2
a) 2 b) 3 c) 6 d) 7
102. Which property/properties is/are correct for a transition element?
1. The element has atoms with a partially filled d sub-shell. 2. The existence of more than one oxidation state in its compounds.
3. The formation of coloured ions.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) Only 1 and 2 c) Only 2 and 3 d) Only 1
103. Which electron configuration(s) is/are correct?
1. Cr atom: 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s1 2. Cu atom: 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1
2+ 2 2 6 2 6 5 1
3. Fe ion: 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) Only 1 and 2 c) Only 2 and 3 d) Only 1
104. What is the bonding between the ligands and the metal ion in [Fe(H2O)6]2+?
a) Metallic b) Ionic c) Hydrogen d) Dative covalent

105. What is the reason that zinc is not classified as a transition element?
a) Zinc atoms contain a full d-sub-shell. b) There are no zinc ions with an incomplete d-sub-shell.
c) Zinc does not form complex ions. d) Zinc ions are colorless.
106. [Co(NH3)5Br](NO3)2
a) bromopentaamminecobalt(III) nitrate b) pentaamminebromocobalt(II) nitrate
c) bromopentaamminecobalt(II) nitrate d) pentaamminebromocobalt(III) nitrate
107. K3[Fe(CN)6]
a) hexacyano potassium ferrate(III) b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c) potassium ferrate hexacyano (III) d) potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
108. [Al (H2O)6] Br3
a) Hexaaquaaluminum (III) bromide b) Hexaaquaaluminum (III) bromide
c) aluminum hexaaqua (II) bromide d) Hexaaquaaluminum (II) bromide
109. [Cr (NH3 )6] Cl3
a) Hexaamminechromium (II) chloride b) Hexaamminechromium (II) chloride
c) chromium hexaammine (III) chloride d) Hexaamminechromium (III) chloride
110. K3 [FeF6 ]
a) Potassium hexafluoroferrate (III) b) Potassium hexafluoroferrate (III)
c) Potassium hexafluoroferrate (II) d) hexafluoro potassium ferrate (II)
111. [Zn (OH)4 ] -2
a) Tetrahydroxozincate (III) ion b) Tetrahydroxozincate (III) ion
c) Tetrahydroxozincate (II) ion d) Tetrahydroxozinc (II) ion
112. [Co (H2O)4Cl 2] Cl
a) Tetraaquadichlorocobalt (II) chloride b) Tetraaquadichlorocobalt (II) chloride
c) Tetraaquadichlorocobalt (III) chloride d) Dichlorotetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
113. [Cu (NH3 )4] +2
a) Tetraamminecopperate (II) ion b) Tetraamminecopper (II) ion
c) Tetraamminecopper (III) ion d) Tetraamminecopper (III) ion
114. K2 [SnCl6 ]
a) Potassium hexachlorostannate (IV) b) Potassium hexachlorostannate (IV)
c) Potassium hexachlorostannate (III) d) Hexachloro potassium stannate (III)
115. [Co (NH3)6] Cl3
a) Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride b) Chloride hexaamminecobalt (III)
c) Hexaamminecobalt (II) chloride d) Hexaamminecobalt (II) chloride
116. [Cd (H2O)4] (NO3)2
a) Cadmium tetraaqua (II) nitrate b) Tetraaquacadmium (II) nitrate
c) Tetraaquacadmium (III) nitrate d) Tetraaquacadmium (III) nitrate
117. Na3[Cu (CN)4]
a) Sodium tetracyanocuprate (II) b) Tetracyano sodium cuprate (II)
c) Sodium tetracyanocuprate (I) d) Sodium tetracyanocuprate (I)
118. [Ni (NH3)4 C2O4]
a) Tetraammineoxalatonickel (III) b) Tetraammineoxalatonickel (III)
c) Oxalatotetraamminenickel (II) d) Tetraammineoxalatonickel (II)
119. Ethylene diamine tetra acetate is a - - - - - ligand.
a) Bidentate b) Tridentate c) Hexadentate d) Monodentate
120. Ethylene diamine is a - - - - - ligand.
a) Bidentate b) Tridentate c) Hexadentate d) Monodentate

BIOLOGY