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The document is an assignment booklet for Grade 10 students at Prime Scholars International School for the session 2024-25, covering various mathematical topics including real numbers, polynomials, and equations. It contains multiple-choice questions, subjective questions, and case studies aimed at enhancing students' understanding of the subjects. Each chapter includes exercises and assertions to test students' knowledge and reasoning skills.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
64 views85 pages

Ilovepdf Merged

The document is an assignment booklet for Grade 10 students at Prime Scholars International School for the session 2024-25, covering various mathematical topics including real numbers, polynomials, and equations. It contains multiple-choice questions, subjective questions, and case studies aimed at enhancing students' understanding of the subjects. Each chapter includes exercises and assertions to test students' knowledge and reasoning skills.

Uploaded by

examination
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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You are on page 1/ 85

PRIME SCHOLARS INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

GRADE: 10
SESSION: 2024-25

ASSIGNMENT BOOKLET
"Empowering Minds, Inspiring Futures:
Your Path to Success Begins Here!"
INDEX
Chapter1: Real Number
Chapter2: Polynomials
Chapter3: Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables
Chapter4: Quadratic Equations
Chapter5: Arithmetic Progressions
Chapter6: Triangles
Chapter7: Coordinate Geometry
Chapter8: Introduction to Trigonometry
Chapter9: Some Applications of Trigonometry
Chapter10: Circles
Chapter11: Areas Related to Circles
Chapter12: Surface Areas and Volumes
Chapter13: Statistics
Chapter14: Probability
CHAPTER 1

REAL NUMBERS

1. The largest number that divides 70 and 125, which leaves the remainders 5 and

8, is:

(a) 65 (b) 15 (c) 13 (d) 25


2. The values of x and y in the given figure are:

(a) x = 10; y = 14 (b) x = 21; y = 84

(c) x = 21; y = 25 (d) x = 10; y = 40

3. The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 5 is:

(a) 70 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 90


4. L.C.M. of 23 × 32 and 22 × 33 is :

(a) 23 (b) 33 (c) 23 × 33 (d) 22 × 32

5. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 33 and 264 respectively. When the first

number is completely divided by 2 the quotient is 33. The other number is:

(a) 66 (b) 130 (c) 132 (d) 196

6. What will be the least possible number of the planks, if three pieces of timber 42 m,

49 m and 63 m long have to be divided into planks of the same length?

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) none of these

7. What is the greatest possible speed at which a man can walk 52 km and 91 km in an

exact number of minutes?

(a) 17 m/min (b) 7 m/min (c) 13 m/min (d) 26 m/min

8. If A = 2n + 13, B = n + 7, where n is a natural number then HCF of A and B is:

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4

9. Pairs of natural numbers whose least common multiple is 78 and the greatest

common divisor is 13 are:

PagePSIS
3 of 308
(a) 58 and 13 or 16 and 29 (b) 68 and 23 or 36 and 49

(c) 18 and 73 or 56 and 93 (d) 78 and 13 or 26 and 39

10. Two natural numbers whose sum is 85 and the least common multiple is 102 are:

(a) 30 and 55 (b) 17 and 68 (c) 35 and 55 (d) 51 and 34

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of


Reason(R) .Mark the choice as :
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason ( R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A) .
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason ( R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A) .
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

11. Assertion: 2 is an example of a rational number.


Reason: The square roots of all positive integers are irrational numbers.

12. Assertion: 𝟏𝟐𝒏 ends with the digit zero, where n is any natural number.
Reason: Any number ends with digit zero, if its prime factor is of the form 2𝑚 x 5𝑛,
where m and n are natural numbers.
Subjective Questions:
1. Find the largest number which divides 70 and 125, leaving remainders 5 and 8
Respectively.
2. Find the sum of the exponents of the prime factors in the prime factorisation of 196.
3. Find the HCF of 1848, 3058 and 1331.
4. Express 140 as a product of its prime factors
5. Find LCM and HCF of 867 and 255 and verify that LCM × HCF = product of the two
numbers.
6. Find the HCF of 240 and 6552
7. Find the largest number which divides 615 and 963 leaving remainder 6 in each case.
8. Find whether the pair of numbers 847, 2160 are co-primes or not?
9. Find the number nearest to 110000 but greater than 100000 which is exactly divisible
by 8, 15 and 21.
10. Find the least number that is divisible by all numbers between 1 and 10 (both inclusive).

Page 4 of 308
11. The numbers 525 and 3000 are both divisible only by 3, 5, 15, 25 and 75. What is
HCF (525, 3000)? Justify your answer.
12. The LCM of 2 numbers is 14 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 600. If
one number is 280, then find the other number.
3√2
13. Prove that is irrational.
5

14. The length, breadth and height of a room are 8.25 m, 6.75 m and 4.50 m
Respectively. Determine the longest rod which can measure the three dimensions of
the room exactly.
15. A circular field has a circumference of 360 km. Three cyclists start together and can
cycle 60km, 48km and 72km a day, around the field. After how many days will they
meet again at the starting point.
16. Find the greatest number of 6 digits exactly divisible by 24, 15 and 36.
𝑎 𝑎−2𝑏
17. Let a and b be positive integers. Show that √2 always lies between 𝑏 and 𝑎+𝑏

18. Prove that (√𝑛 − 1 + √𝑛 + 1 ) is irrational, for every n∈N

19. Given that HCF (306, 657) = 9, find LCM (306, 657).

20. Prove that 3 + 2√5 is irrational.

21. Check whether 6n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n.

22. What is the HCF of the smallest prime number and the smallest composite number?

23. Prove that √3 – √2 and √3 + √5 are irrational.

24. Explain why 3 x 5 x 7 + 7 is a composite number.

25. Prove that √p + √q is irrational, where p,q are primes.

Answers:

Part : 1

1. c 2. b 3. b 4. 5. c

6. c 7. d 8. c 9.b 10. d

11. c 12. d

Part : 2

1. 13 2. 4 3. 11 4. 22 .5.7 5. 4335 , 51

Page 5 of 308
6. 24 7. 87 8. Yes 9. 109200 10. 2520

11.75 12. 80 14. 75 cm 15. 30 days 16. 9997201

19. 22338 22. 2

CASE STUDY 1.

To enhance the reading skills of grade X students, the school nominates you and two of your friends to
set up a class library. There are two sections- section A and section B of grade X. There are 32 students
in section A and 36 students in section B

1. What is the minimum number of books you will acquire for the class library, so that
they can be distributed equally among students of Section A or Section B?
2. If the product of two positive integers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM is
true then find the HCF (32, 36).
3. Express 36 as a product of its primes.
4. If p and q are positive integers such that p = ab2 and q=a2b, where a, b are prime
numbers, then the LCM (p, q) is
Answers :

1.288 2. 4 3. 22 × 32 4. a2b2

Page 6 of 308
CHAPTER 2 - POLYNOMIALS
ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct answer from the given four options
1. If the sum of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 3𝑥 2 – 𝑘𝑥 + 6 is 3, the value of 𝑘 is
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 9 (D) −9
2. If the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial are 5 and −6, then the coefficient of 𝑥 is
(A) −1 (B) 1 (C) 5 (D) −6
3. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial a𝑥 2 + b𝑥 + c are equal in magnitude but opposite in
sign then the coefficient of 𝑥 is
𝑐 𝑐
(A) 𝑎 (B) 0 (C) − 𝑎 (D) 1

4. The value of 𝑝 for which the polynomial 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 − 𝑝𝑥 + 8 is exactly divisible by


(𝑥 − 2) is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 16
5. For what value of 𝑘, is 3 a zero of the polynomial 2𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 𝑘?
(A) 21 (B) –21 (C) 22 (D) –22
6. If one of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 + 1 is (−3), then 𝑘 equals
to
4 4 2 2
(A) 3 (B) −3 (C) (D) − 3
3
1
7. The quadratic polynomial, sum and product of whose zeroes are 2 and –12 respectively is:

(A) 𝑥 2 – 𝑥– 12 (B) 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 – 12 (C) 2𝑥 2 – 𝑥 + 24 (D) 2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 24


8. If one zero of polynomial 𝑓(𝑦) = (𝑘 2 + 4)𝑦 2 + 13𝑦 + 4𝑘 is the reciprocal of the other, then
value of 𝑘 is
(A) 1 ( B) –1 (C) 2 (D) –2
9. The sum and product of the zeroes of the polynomial 9𝑥 2 − 5 respectively are :
9 9 5 5
(A) 0, − 5 (B) 0, 5 (C) 0, 9 (D) 0, − 9

10. The number to be added to the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 4, so that 3 is the zero of the polynomial is
:
(A) 2 (B) −2 (C) 0 (D) 3
11. In the figure, the number of zeroes of 𝑓(𝑥) are :

Page 10 of 308
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
12. The graph of a polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) passes through the points (−5, 0), (0, −40), (8, 0) and (5, −30).
Which among the following is a factor of 𝑝(𝑥)?
(A) (𝑥 − 5) (B) (𝑥 − 8) (C) (𝑥 + 30) (D) (𝑥 + 40)
DIRECTION: In the question number 13 and 14, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by
a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option
13. Statement A (Assertion): If 2 − √3 is one of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial, then the other
zero will be 2 + √3.
Statement R( Reason) : In a quadratic polynomial with rational coefficients, irrational zeroes occur
in conjugate pairs.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
14. Statement A (Assertion): The polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 2 has two real zeroes.
Statement R (Reason) : A quadratic polynomial can have at most two real zeroes.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Page 11 of 308
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
15. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of 𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 12, then find the sum of their reciprocals.
16. What will be number of zeroes of the polynomials whose graphs are either touching or
intersecting the axes only at the points: (–3, 0), (0, 2) & (3, 0)?
17. If one zero of the polynomial 4𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + (𝑘 − 4) is reciprocal of the other, find the value of 𝑘.
18. The sum and the product of the zeroes of the polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 4𝑥 2 − 27𝑥 + 3𝑘 2 are equal.
Find the value(s) of 𝑘.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
3−√3 3+√3
19. Form a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are and .
5 5

20. If one zero of 𝑝(𝑥) = 4𝑥 2 – (8𝑘 2 – 40𝑘) 𝑥 – 9 is negative of the other, find values of k.
21. Form a quadratic polynomial whose one zero is 3 − √5 and product of the zeroes is 4.
22. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 𝑎; find the value of 𝑎 if 3𝛼 +
2𝛽 = 20.
23. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the two zeroes of the polynomial 3𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − 2, find a quadratic
polynomial whose zeroes are 3𝛼 and 3𝛽.
24. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the two zeroes of the polynomial 6𝑦 2 − 7𝑦 + 2, find a quadratic
1 1
polynomial whose zeroes are and 𝛽.
𝛼

25. If one zero of the polynomial 3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 − 2𝑘 − 1 is seven times the other, find the zeroes and
the value of 𝑘.
2
26. If 3 and – 3 are the zeroes of the polynomial 𝑎𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 𝑏, then find the values of a and b.

27. If one zero of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 𝑘𝑥 + 16 is cube of the other, find the value of 𝑘 and hence
find the zeroes.
28. If the sum of squares of zeroes of the polynomial 𝑥 2 – 8𝑥 + 𝑘 is 40, find the value of k.
29. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 4, evaluate:
1 1 1 1
(i) + 𝛽2 (ii) 𝛼 − 𝛽 (iii) + 𝛽3 (iv) 𝛼 4 + 𝛽 4
𝛼2 𝛼3

30. Find the zeroes of the following quadratic polynomials and verify the relation between the zeroes
and coefficients of the polynomials:
(i) 4√3𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − 2√3
(ii) 4𝑥 2 + 5√2 𝑥 − 3

Page 12 of 308
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
31. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the two zeroes of the polynomial𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 3, find the quadratic
𝛼−1 𝛽−1
polynomial whose roots are 𝛼+1 , 𝛽+1.

32. If the zeroes of the polynomial 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 are double in value to the zeroes of the polynomial
2𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 3, then find the values of 𝑝 and 𝑞.

CASE STUDY BASED


33. Case Study -1
The figure given alongside shows the path of a diver,
when she takes a jump from the diving board. Clearly it is a
parabola. Annie was standing on a diving board, 48 feet
above the water level. She took a dive into the pool. Her
height (in feet) above the water level at any time ‘𝑡’ in
seconds is given by the polynomial ℎ(𝑡) such that
ℎ(𝑡) = −16𝑡² + 8𝑡 + 𝑘.

(i) What is the value of 𝑘?


(ii) At what time will she touch the water in the pool?
(iii) The zeroes of the polynomial 𝑟(𝑡) = −12𝑡² + (𝑘 − 3)𝑡 + 48 are negative of each other.
Then find the value of 𝑘.
34. Case Study – 2
Applications of Parabolas-Highway Overpasses/Underpasses

Page 13 of 308
A highway underpass is parabolic in shape. A parabola is the graph that results from 𝑝(𝑥) =
𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐.
(i) If the highway overpass is represented by −𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 8, then find its zeroes.
(ii) Find a quadratic polynomial which represents Highway Underpass whose one zero is 6 and
sum of the zeroes is 0.
(iii) Find the number of zeroes that polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑥 – 2)2 + 4 can have.

ANSWER KEY
1. C 5. B 9. D 13. A
2. B 6. A 10. A 14. D
3. B 7. D 11. C 7
15. − 12
4. D 8. C 12. B
16. 2
17. 𝑘 = 8 20. 𝑘 = 0, 5 23. 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − 6
18. 𝑘 = ±3 21. 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 4 24. 2𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 6
6 6 1 7 5
19. 𝑥 2 − 5 𝑥 + 25 22. 𝑎 = −16 25. , ; 𝑘 = −3
3 3

26. 𝑎 = 3, 𝑏 = −6
27. 𝑘 = ±10, zeroes are 2, 8 or −2, −8 28. 𝑘 = 12
9 13
29. (i) 16 (ii) ±√17 (iii) 64 (iv) 49
2 √3 3 1
30. (i) − , (ii) − , 2√2
√3 4 √2
2 1 32. 𝑝 = −5, 𝑞 = −6
31. 𝑘 (𝑥 2 − 3 𝑥 + 3)

33. (i) 48 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) 3


34. (i) 4, −2, (ii) 𝑘(𝑥 2 − 36) (iii) 0

Page 14 of 308
CHAPTER 3

PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES

For the following given questions choose the correct option

1. Customers are asked to stand in the lines. If one customer is extra in a line, then there would
be two less lines. If one customer is less in line, there would be three more lines. Find the
number of customers.

(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70

2. The value of k for which the system of equations 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 3𝑎𝑛𝑑 5𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 + 7 = 0 has


no solution is

(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 24 (d) 5

3. The sum of two digits and the number formed by interchanging its digit is 110. If ten is
subtracted from the first number, the new number is 4 more than 5 times of the sum of the
digits in the first number. Find the first number.

(a) 46 (b) 48 (c) 64 (d) 84

4. A fraction becomes 1 when 1 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes 1 when 8 is
3 4
added to its denominator. Find the fraction.

(a) 4/12 (b) 3/13 (c) 5/12 (d) 11/7

5. Five years ago, A was thrice as old as B and ten years later, A shall be twice as old as B.
What is the present age of A.

(a) 20 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 40

6. What will be the solution of these equations 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 𝑎 − 𝑏, 𝑏𝑥 − 𝑎𝑦 = 𝑎 + 𝑏

(a) 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑥 = 2, 𝑦 = −1 (c) 𝑥 = −2, 𝑦 = −2(d) 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = −1

7. If 𝑥 = 𝑎, 𝑦 = 𝑏 is the solution of the pair of equation 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4 then what


will be value of a and b

(a) 2,1 (b) 3,1 (c) 4,6 (d) 1,2

8. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 9. If 27 is added to it the digits of the number
get reversed. The number is.........
(a) 36 (b) 45 (c) 18 (d) 90

9. Which of the following is not a linear equation?

Page 17 of 308
(a)𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 (b) 0𝑥 + 0𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0
(c) 0𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 (d) 𝑎𝑥 + 0𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0

10. The condition that the equation 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 represent a linear equation in two
variables is
(a) 𝑎 ≠ 0, 𝑏 = 0 (b) 𝑏 ≠ 0, 𝑎 = 0
(c) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = 0 (d) 𝑎 ≠ 0, 𝑏 ≠ 0

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion(A) is followed by a statement of


Reason(R) .Mark the choice as :
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

11. Assertion: If the pair of lines are coincident, then we say that pair of lines is consistent and it
has a unique solution.
Reason: If the pair of lines are parallel, then the pairs has no solution and is called
inconsistent pair of equations.
12. Assertion: A pair of linear equations has no solution (s) if it is represented by intersecting
lines graphically.

Reason: If the pair of lines are intersecting, then the pair has unique solution and is called
consistent pair of equations.

Subjective questions:

1 Ten years ago, a father was twelve times as old as his son and ten years hence, he will be
twice as old as his son will be then. Find their present ages.

2. Find the area of triangle formed by the lines 𝑥 = 3 , 𝑦 = 4 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 = 𝑦

3. In ∆ABC, ∟C = 3∟B = 2(∟A+∟B), find the three angles.

4. Write the values of k for which the system of equations 𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 = 0 ,2𝑥 – 𝑦 = 0 has a
unique solution.
5. Sum of two numbers is 35 and their difference is 13. Find the numbers.

6. Draw the graphs of the equations: 𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 6 ; 2𝑥 – 3𝑦 = 12 and hence find the value of
𝑎 if 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 3 + 𝑎 .

Page 18 of 308
7. Draw the graphs of following pair of equations: 2x + y = 2; 2x + y − 6 = 0. On the
same graph paper. Find the area of trapezium formed by these lines along with both the axes.
8. Determine, graphically, the vertices of the triangle formed by the lines y = x, 3y =
x, x + . y = 8.
9. Solve the following system of linear equations graphically
2𝑥 – 𝑦 = 4 ; 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 1 = 0
10. For which values of p and q, will the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many
solutions? 4𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 2; (2𝑝 + 7𝑞) 𝑥 + (𝑝 + 8𝑞) 𝑦 = 2𝑞– 𝑝 + 1.

11. For what value of a and b the pair of linear equations has coincident lines on the graphical
representation: 2x − y = 5 ; (a − 2b)x − (a + b)y = 15

12. The sum of digits of a two digit number is 15. The number obtained by reversing the order of
digits of the given number exceeds the given number by 9. Find the given number.

13. A man sold a chair and a table together for Rs 1520 thereby making a profit of 25% on the chair
and 10% on the table. By selling them together for Rs 1535, he would have made a profit of
10% on the chair and 25% on the table. Find the cost price of each.

14. I am three times as old as my son. Five years later, I shall be two and a half times as old as my
son. How old am I and how did is my son?

15. The sum of a two digit number and the number formed by interchanging its digits is 110. If 20
is subtracted from the original number, the new number is 4 more than 4 times the sum of the
digits in the original number. Find the original number.

16. The population of the village is 5000. If in a year, the number of males were to increase by 5%
and that of a female by 3% annually, the population would grow to 5202 at the end of the year.
Find the number of males and females in the village.

17. Father’s age is three times the sum of ages of his two children. After 5 years his age will be
twice the sum of ages of two children. Find the age of father.

18. The largest angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the other two angles. The smallest angle
is one-fourth of the largest angle. Find the angles of the triangle.

19. A railway half- ticket costs half the full fare but the reservation charges are the same of a half
ticket as on a full ticket. One reserved full ticket from station A to station B costs Rs 216. Also,

Page 19 of 308
one full reserved and one reserved half ticket from station A to station B cost Rs 327. Find the
full fare from station A to station B and also the reservation charges for a ticket.

20. A bird flying in the same direction as that of the wind, covers a distance of 45 km in 2 hours
30 minutes. But it takes 4 hours 30 minutes to cover the same distance when it flies against the
direction of the wind. Ignoring conditions other than the wind conditions, find (i) the speed of
the bird in still air (ii) the speed of the wind.

21. In a School Assembly students are made to stand in rows. If one student is extra in a row there
would be 2 rows less. If one student is less in a row there would be 3 rows more. Find the
number of students in the class.
22. Amit and Sumit have certain number of oranges. Amit says to Sumit, "If you give me 10 of
your oranges, I will have twice the number of oranges left with you." Sumit replies, "if you
give me 10 of your oranges, I will have the same number of oranges as left with you." Find the
number of oranges with Amit and Sumit separately.

23. A chemist has one solution which is 50% acid and a second which is 25% acid. How much of
each should be mixed to make 10 litres of 40% acid solution?

24. A and B are two points 150 km apart on a highway. Two cars start with different speeds, from
A and B at the same time. If they move in the same direction, they meet in 15 hours but if they
move in the opposite directions they meet in one hour. Find their speeds.

25. At a certain time in a deer park, the number of heads and the number of legs of deer and human
visitors were counted and it was found there were 39 heads & 132 legs. Find the number of
deer and human visitors in the park.

ANSWERS

1. c 2.b 3.c 4.c 5.b 6.d 7.b 8.a 9.b 10.d 11. d 12. D

Part : 2

1. 34, 12 2. ½ sq unit 3. 200,400,1200 4. +1/2 , - 1/2

5. 24 and 11 6. 15 7.8 sq units 8. (0,0) (6,2) (4,4)

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9.(1,2) 10. 15,1 11. 4,-1 12. 78

13. 600,700 14. 60 , 20 15. 64 16. 2600,2400

17. 45 years 18. 90° , 67.5° , 22.5° 19. Rs 210 and Rs 6

20. 14km/hr, 4 km/hr 21. 60 22. 70,50

23. 6 , 4 24. 80 km /hr, 70 km/ hr 25. 27,12

CASE STUDY I
The scissors which is so common in our daily life use, its blades represent the graph of
linear equations.

Let the blades of a scissor are represented by the system of linear equations:
𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑥 – 3𝑦 = 12
(i) The pivot point (point of intersection) of the blades represented by the linear equation x +
3y = 6 and 2x – 3y = 12 of the scissor is
(ii) The points at which linear equations x + 3y = 6 and 2x – 3y = 12 intersect y – axis
respectively are
(iii) If (1, 2) is the solution of linear equations 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 12, then
values of a and b are respectively
(a) (b) 2, 3 (c) –1, 5 (d) 3, 5
(iv) If a pair of linear equations in two variables is consistent, then the lines represented by two
equations are

Case Study -1 Answers:


1 (6, 0) 2 (0, 2) and (0, –4) 3 (1, 5) 4 intersecting or coincident

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CHAPTER 4

QUADRATIC EQUATIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) The quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 − √5𝑥 + 1 = 0 has
(a) two distinct real roots (b) two equal real roots (c) no real roots (d) more than 2 real roots
2) If the equation 𝑥 2 − 𝑘𝑥 + 9 = 0 does not possess real roots, then
(a) −6 < 𝑘 < 6 (b) 𝑘 > 6 (c) 𝑘 < −6 (d) 𝑘 = ±6
1 5
3) If 2 is a root of the equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 − 4 = 0, then the value of k is
1 1
(a) 2 (b) -2 (c) 4 (d) 2
4) Root of the equation 𝑥 2 − 0.09 = 0 is
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.03 (c)± 0.3 (d) no root
5) The two consecutive odd positive integers, sum of whose squares is 290 are
(a) 13, 15 (b) 11,13 (c) 7,9 (d) 5,7
6) Value(s) of 𝑘 for which the quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 − 𝑘𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 has equal roots is
(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 0 and 8
7) Which of the following equations has the sum of its roots as 3?
3
(a) 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 6 = 0 (b) −𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 3 = 0 (c) √2𝑥 2 − 𝑥+1=0
√2

(d) 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 6 = 0
8) (𝑥 2 + 1)2 − 𝑥 2 = 0 has
(a) four equal roots (b) two equal roots (c) no equal roots (d) one equal roots
9) Which of the following is not a quadratic equation?
(a) 2(𝑥 − 1)2 = 4𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1 (b) 2𝑥 − 𝑥 2 = 𝑥 2 + 5
(c) (√2𝑥 + √3)2 + 𝑥 2 = 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 (d) (𝑥 2 + 2𝑥)2 = 𝑥 4 + 3 + 4𝑥 3
10) If 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 has equal roots, then the value of k is
(a) ±√𝑎𝑐 (b) ±2√𝑎𝑐 (c) √𝑎𝑐 (d) none of these
ASSERTION AND REASONING
Q11
Statement A (Assertion): The equation 8𝑥 2 + 3𝑘𝑥 + 2 = 0 has equal roots then the value of
8
𝑘 = ±3
Statement R (Reason): The equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 has equal roots if D = 0
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)

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(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Q12
Statement A (Assertion): The equation (2𝑥 − 1)2 − 4𝑥 2 + 5 = 0 is a quadratic equation.
Statement R (Reason): The equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0, 𝑎 ≠ 0 is called a quadratic equation
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Q13
Statement A (Assertion): The roots of the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 2 = 0 are imaginary.
Statement R (Reason): If discriminant 𝐷 = 𝑏 2 − 4𝑎𝑐 < 0 then the roots of the equation 𝑎𝑥 2 +
𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0, 𝑎 ≠ 0 are imaginary.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Q14
Statement A (Assertion): The quadratic equation 4𝑥 2 − 12𝑥 + 9 = 0 has repeated roots.
Statement R (Reason): The quadratic equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 has equal roots if D > 0
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

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Q15
Statement A (Assertion): The quadratic equation 9𝑥 2 + 3𝑘𝑥 + 4 = 0 has equal roots for
𝑘 = ±4
Statement R (Reason): If the discriminant of a quadratic equation is equal to zero, then the
roots of the equation are real and equal.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
16) Find the value of 𝑘 for which the quadratic equation 𝑘𝑥(𝑥 − 2) + 6 = 0 has two equal roots.
17) Write the discriminant of the quadratic equation:(𝑥 + 5)2 = 2(5𝑥 − 3).
18) If 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏 are the roots of the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑏 = 0, then find𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏.
19) Find the value of k for which the equation 𝑥 2 + 2𝑘𝑥 + (𝑘 2 − 𝑘 + 2) = 0 has real and equal
roots.
20) Show that 𝑥 = −2 is a solution of 3𝑥 2 + 13𝑥 + 14 = 0.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Solve the following quadratic equations for 𝑥:
(i) 𝑥 2 − 2𝑎𝑥 + (𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 ) = 0 (CBSE 2022)
(ii) 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑎 = 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑥
(iii) 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − (𝑎2 + 𝑎– 6) = 0
(iv) 4𝑥 2 − 4𝑝𝑥 + (𝑝2 − 𝑞 2 ) = 0
(v) 4𝑥 2 − 4(𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 )𝑥 + (𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 )2 = 0
(vi) 9𝑥 2 − 6𝑎2 𝑥 + (𝑎4 − 𝑏 4 ) = 0
(vii) 𝑎𝑏𝑥 2 + (𝑏 2 − 𝑎𝑐)𝑥 − 𝑏𝑐 = 0
(viii) 𝑥 2 − 2𝑎𝑥 − (4𝑏 2 − 𝑎2 ) = 0 (CBSE 2022)
(ix) 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − (𝑎 + 1)(𝑎 + 2) = 0
1 1 2
(x) + (𝑥−2)(𝑥−3) = 3 , 𝑥 ≠ 1,2 ,3
(𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)

2. Find the roots of the following quadratic equations, if they exist, using the quadratic
formula:

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(i) 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 2 = 0 (ii) 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 5 = 0 (iii) 2𝑥 2 − 2√2𝑥 + 1 = 0
3. Find the roots of the following equations:
1 1 1
(i) 𝑥 + 𝑥 = 3, 𝑥 ≠ 0 (ii) 𝑥 − = 3, 𝑥 ≠ 0, 2
𝑥−2

4. Find the value of m for which the quadratic equation (𝑚 − 1)𝑥 2 + 2(𝑚 − 1)𝑥 + 1 = 0
has two real and equal roots. (CBSE 2022)
5. Solve the following quadratic equation for 𝑥: (CBSE 2022)
(a) √3𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 + 7√3 = 0 (b) 𝑥 2 + 2√2𝑥 − 6 = 0
2
6. If 3 and −3 are the roots of the quadratic equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 𝑏 = 0, find the values of 𝑎

and 𝑏. [CBSE, 2016]


7. For what value of 𝑘 the equation 𝑘𝑥 2 − 2 (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + (𝑘 + 2) = 0 has real and equal
roots? (CBSE 2022)
8. Find the values of p for which the quadratic equation
(𝑝 − 12)𝑥 2 + 2 (𝑝 − 12)𝑥 + 2 = 0 has equal roots .
9. Find the positive value(s) of 𝑘 for which 𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 + 64 = 0 and𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 both will
have real roots. [CBSE 2016]
10. For what value(s) of k will the quadratic equation (𝑘 + 4)𝑥 2 + (𝑘 + 1)𝑥 + 1 = 0 have
real and equal roots?
11. Find the non - zero value of value of 𝑘, for which the quadratic equation
𝑘𝑥 2 + 1 − 2(𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + 𝑥 2 = 0 has equal roots. Hence find the roots of the equation.
[CBSE 2015]
12. If −4 is a root of the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 − 4 = 0 and the quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 +
𝑝𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 has equal roots, find the value of 𝑘.
13. If roots of a quadratic equation (𝑏 − 𝑐)𝑥 2 + (𝑐 − 𝑎)𝑥 + (𝑎 − 𝑏) = 0 are real and equal,
prove that 2𝑏 = 𝑎 + 𝑐.
14. If the roots of the equation (𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 )𝑥 2 − 2(𝑎𝑐 + 𝑏𝑑)𝑥 + (𝑐 2 + 𝑑 2 ) = 0 are equal, prove
that 𝑎𝑑 = 𝑏𝑐.
15. If the equation (1 + 𝑚2 )𝑥 2 + 2𝑚𝑐𝑥 + (𝑐 2 − 𝑎2 ) = 0 has equal roots, prove that
𝑐 2 = 𝑎2 (1 + 𝑚2 ). (CBSE 2022)
16. There are three consecutive positive integers such that the sum of the square of the first and
the product of the other two is 154. Find the integers.

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1
17. The difference of two numbers is 5 and the difference of their reciprocals is . Find the
10

numbers.
18. The numerator of a fraction is one less than its denominator. If three is added to each of its
3
numerator and denominator, the fraction is increased by . Find the fraction.
28

19. The denominator of a fraction is one more than twice the numerator. If the sum of the
16
fraction and its reciprocal is 2 21, find the fraction.

20. Find two consecutive odd positive integers, sum of whose squares is 290.
21. A motor boat whose speed is 18 km/h in still water takes 1 hour more to go 24 km upstream
than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
22. An aeroplane left 40 minutes late due to heavy rains and in order to reach its destination,
1600km away in time, it had to increase its speed by 400 km/hr from its original speed.
Find the original speed of the plane.
23. A rectangular park is to be designed whose breadth is 3 m less than its length. Its area is to
be 4 square metres more than the area of a park that has already been made in the shape of
an isosceles triangle with its base as the breadth of the rectangular park and of altitude 12
m. Find its length and breadth.

24. The sum of the reciprocals of Rehman’s ages, (in years) 3 years ago and 5 years from now
1
is 3 Find his present age.

25. In a class test, the sum of Shefali’s marks in Mathematics and English is 30. Had she got 2
marks more in Mathematics and 3 marks less in English, the product of their marks would
have been 210. Find her marks in the two subjects.

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26. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60 metres more than the shorter side. If the longer
side is 30 metres more than the shorter side, find the sides of the field. (CBSE 2022)
27. The difference of squares of two numbers is 180. The square of the smaller number is 8 times the
larger number. Find the two numbers. (CBSE 2022)
28. A train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 5 km/h more, it would
have taken 1 hour less for the same journey. Find the speed of the train.
29. The speed of a boat in still water is 11 km/hr. It can go 12 km upstream and return
downstream to the original point in 2 hours 45 minutes. Find the speed of the stream.
3
30. Two water taps together can fill a tank in 9 hours. The tap of larger diameter takes 10
8

hours less than the smaller one to fill the tank separately. Find the time in which each tap
can separately fill the tank.
31. An express train takes 1 hour less than a passenger train to travel 132 km between Mysore
and Bangalore (without taking into consideration the time they stop at intermediate
stations). If the average speed of the express train is 11km/h more than that of the passenger
train, find the average speed of the two trains.
32. Sum of the areas of two squares is 468 𝑚2 . If the difference of their perimeters is 24 m,
find the sides of the two squares.
33. To fill a swimming pool two pipes are used. If the pipe of larger diameter used for 4 hours
and the pipe of smaller diameter for 9 hours, only half of the pool can be filled. Find, how
long it would take for each pipe to fill the pool separately, if the pipe of smaller diameter
takes 10 hours more than the pipe of larger diameter to fill the pool?
(CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2022 – 23)
34. In a flight of 600km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed
for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr from its usual speed and the time of the flight
increased by 30 min. Find the scheduled duration of the flight.
(CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2022 – 23)
35. The product of the digits of a two digit positive number is 24. If 18 is added to the number
then the digits of the number are interchanged. Find the number. (CBSE 2022)
36. A two digit number is four times the sum of its digits. It is also equal to three times the
product of its digits. Find the number.
37. A vehicle travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a

Page 30 of 308
distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/h more than its original speed. If it takes 3
hours to complete the total journey, what is its original average speed?
38. A farmer wishes to grow a 100 sq m rectangular vegetable garden. Since he has with him
only 30 m barbed wire, he fences three sides of the rectangular garden letting compound
wall of his house act as the fourth side fence. Find the dimensions of his garden.
39. At t minutes past 2 p.m. the time needed by the minute hand of a clock to show 3 p.m. was
t2
found to be 3 minutes less than 4 minutes. Find t.

40. The sum of two numbers is 34. If 3 is subtracted from one number and 2 is added to another,
the product of these two numbers becomes 260. Find the numbers. (CBSE 2022)
41. The hypotenuse (in cm) of a right angled triangle is 6cm more than twice the length of the
shortest side. If the length of the third side is 6 cm less than thrice the length of the shortest
side, then find the dimensions of the triangle. (CBSE 2022)
OBJECTIVE ANSWERS
Q1 c Q2 a Q3 a Q4 c Q5 b
Q6 d Q7 b Q8 c Q9 c Q10 c
Q11 a Q12 d Q13 a Q14 c Q15 a
Q16 k = 6 Q17 D = -124 Q18 a= -1, b = 2 Q19 k = 2
ANSWERS
1) i) 𝑥 = 𝑎 + 𝑏, 𝑥 = 𝑎 − 𝑏
1
ii)𝑥 = ,𝑥 = 𝑎
𝑎

iii) 𝑥 = (𝑎 − 2), 𝑥 = −(𝑎 + 3)


𝑝+𝑞 𝑝−𝑞
iv)𝑥 = ,𝑥 =
2 2
𝑎2 − 𝑏2 𝑎2 − 𝑏2
v) 𝑥 = ,𝑥 =
2 2
𝑎2 + 𝑏2 𝑎2 − 𝑏2
vi) 𝑥 = ,𝑥 =
3 3
𝑏 −𝑐
vii) 𝑥 = ,𝑥 =
𝑎 𝑏

viii) 𝑥 = 𝑎 + 2𝑏, 𝑥 = 𝑎 − 2𝑏
ix) 𝑥 = (𝑎 + 1), 𝑥 = −(𝑎 + 2)
x) 𝑥 = 0, 𝑥 = 4

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2 1 1
2) (i) 𝑥 = ,𝑥 = 1 (ii) No real root exist (iii) 𝑥 = ,𝑥 =
3 √2 √2

3+√5 3−√5 3+√3 3−√3


3) (i) 𝑥 = ,𝑥 = (ii) 𝑥 = ,𝑥 =
2 2 3 3
4) 𝑚 = 2
−7
5) (i) 𝑥 = −√3, 𝑥 = (ii) 𝑥 = −3√2, √2
√3

6) 𝑎 = −10 . 5 , 𝑏 = 31.5
1
7) 𝑘=
4
8) 𝑝 = 16
9) 𝑘 = 16
10) 𝑘 = 3
1 1
11) 𝑘 = 3, 𝑥 = ,𝑥 = 2
2
9
12) 𝑘 = 8, p = 3

16) (16,17,18) or (19,20,21)


17) 𝑥 = 10, 𝑦 = 5
3
18) 𝑥= 4
3
19) Fraction = 7

20) 11 and 13
21) 6 km\hr
22) 800km/hr
23) 𝑙 = 7𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏 = 4𝑚
24) 7 years
25) (12, 18) 𝑜𝑟 (13, 17)
26) Shorter side = 90 m , longer side = 120 m
27) (12, 18) 𝑜𝑟 (−12, 18)
28) 40 km\hr
29) Speed of stream = 5km/hr
30) Smaller tap = 25 hrs larger tap = 15 hrs
31) Passenger train = 33 km\hr Express train = 44 km/hr
32) 12 m and 18 m

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33) Larger pipe = 20 hrs Smaller pipe = 30 hrs
34) Time = 1 hour
35) Number = 46
36) Number = 24
37) Original speed = 42km/hr
38) Square of 10m, rectangle of 5m by 10m
39) 𝑡 = 14 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠
40) (16, 18) or (23, 11)
41) (10, 24, 26)
CASE STUDY 1
In an auditorium, seats are arranged in rows and columns. The number of rows were equal to the
number of seats in each row. When the number of rows were doubled and the number of seats in
each row was reduced by 10, the total number of seats increased by 300.

(i) If 𝑥 is taken as number of row in original arrangement. How many number of rows
are there in the original arrangement?
(ii) How many number of seats are there in the auditorium after re-arrangement?

Page 33 of 308
CHAPTER 5–ARITHMETIC PROGRESSIONS

ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct answer from the given four options
1. If 𝑝 − 1, 𝑝 + 3 and 3𝑝 − 1 are three consecutive terms of in A.P, then 𝑝 is equal to
(A) 4 (B) −4 (C) 2 (D) −2
2. Which term of the A.P : 5, 2, −1,… is −49?
(A) 19th (B) 15th (C) 16th (D) 20th
3. Which term of the A.P. 45, 41, 37, 33,…… is the first negative term?
(A) 17th (B) 13th (C) 14th (D) 12th
4. Which term of the A.P. −120, −116, −112, ….. is its first positive term?
(A) 33rd (B) 32nd (C) 34th (D) 35th
5. Sum of first n terms of the series √2 + √8 + √18 …. is :
𝑛(𝑛+1) 𝑛(𝑛+1)
(A) (B) √2 𝑛 (C) (D) 1
2 √2

6. The tenth term from the end of the A.P. 4, 9, 14, ..........., 254 is :
(A) 214 (B) 209 (C) 208 (D) 204
7. If 18, 𝑎, 𝑏, − 3 are in A.P then 𝑎 + 𝑏 =
(A) 19 (B) 7 (C) 11 (D) 15
8. The common difference of an A.P. whose nth term is 𝑎𝑛 = 3𝑛 + 7 is
(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) −3
9. Which term of the A.P. : 92, 88, 84, 80, .... is 0?
(A) 23rd (B) 32nd (C) 22nd (D) 24th
10. The next term of the AP √7, √28, √63 … … ….is
(A) √70 (B) √84 (C) √97 (D) √112
DIRECTION: In the question number 11 and 12, a statement of assertion (A) is
followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option
11. Statement A (Assertion): 10th term from the end for the AP : 4, 9, 14, …, 254, is 209.
Statement R( Reason) : In an AP where first term, common difference and last term are
denoted by 𝑎, 𝑑 and 𝑙 respectively, the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term from end is given by

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𝑙 − (𝑛 − 1)𝑑.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
12. Statement A (Assertion): Sum of first 15 terms of 2+5+8+… is 345.
Statement R (Reason) : Sum of fist n terms in an A.P. is given by the formula,
𝑆𝑛 = 2𝑛 × [2𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑].
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS


13. Is 144 a term of the sequence 3, 7, 11 …… ?
14. Three numbers are in AP and their sum is 24. Find the middle term.
15. If the mean of first 𝑛 natural numbers is 15, then find 𝑛.
16. Find the number of odd integers between 2 and 100 divisible by 3.
17. Find the common difference of the Arithmetic Progression (A.P.)
1 3 − 𝑎 3 − 2𝑎
, , , … (𝑎 ≠ 0)
𝑎 3𝑎 3𝑎
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
18. The 8th term of an A.P is zero. Prove that its 38th term is three times its 18th term.
19. The 8th term of an A.P. is 20 and the 15th term is 12 more than the 11th term. Find the A.P.

20. Find the middle term of the A.P.: −11, −7, −3, ……. , 45.
21. Find the middle term(s) in the AP : 20, 16, 12, ………….., (−176).

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22. Sum of 𝑛 terms of an A.P. is 5𝑛2 − 3𝑛. Find the A.P. and the 10th term.
23. The sum of first 6 terms of an A.P. is 42. The ratio of its 10th term to its 30th term is 1:3.
Find the first term and the thirteenth term of the A.P.
24. Find the sum of all two-digit numbers which leave the remainder 2 when divided by 5.
25. In November 2009, the number of visitors to a zoo increased daily by 20. If a total of 12300
people visited the zoo in that month, find the number of visitors on 1st Nov. 2009.
26. Find the value of x, when in the A.P. given below
2 + 6 + 10 + . . . + 𝑥 = 1800.
27. Split 69 into three parts such that they are in AP and the product of two smaller parts is 483.
28. The sum of the first three numbers in an A.P. is 18. If the product of the first and the third
term is 5 times the common difference, find the three numbers.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1 2
29. How many terms of the A.P.: 20, 193 , 183…………. should be taken so that their sum is

300? Explain the double answer.


30. Find the number of terms of the A.P. : 54, 51, 48,… so that their sum is 513. Explain the
double answer.
31. Find the sum of the following series :
5 + (– 41) + 9 + (– 39) + 13 + (– 37) + 17 + . . . + (– 5) + 81 + (– 3)
32. The sum of first 20 terms of an A.P. is one third of the sum of next 20 terms. If first term is
1, find the sum of first 30 terms of this A.P.
33. An A.P. has 21 terms. The sum of the three middlemost terms is 129 and the sum of the last
3 terms is 237. Find the A.P.
34. In an AP, if 𝑆5 + 𝑆7 = 167 and 𝑆10 = 235, then find the AP, where Sn denotes the sum of
its first n terms. (CBSE 2015)
35. Find the 60th term of the AP 8, 10, 12, ..., if it has a total of 60 terms and hence find the sum
of its last 10 terms. (CBSE 2015)
36. In an A.P. of 50 terms, the sum of the first 10 terms is 210 and the sum of its last 15 terms is
2565. Find the A.P.
37. Divide 56 in four parts in A.P. such that the ratio of the product of their extremes (1st and
4th) to the product of means (2nd and 3rd) is 5: 6. (CBSE 2016)
38. Find four numbers in AP whose sum is 20 and the sum of whose squares is 120.

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39. If the sum of the first 𝑝 terms of an A.P. is same as the sum of the first 𝑞 terms, show that
the sum of its (𝑝 + 𝑞) terms is zero.
40. If the sum of the first 𝑝 terms of an A.P. is 𝑞 and the sum of the first 𝑞 terms is 𝑝; then show
that the sum of the first (𝑝 + 𝑞) terms is { – (𝑝 + 𝑞)}.
1 1
41. In an A.P., the nth term is 𝑚 and the mth term is 𝑛. Find

(i) (mn)th term, (ii) sum of first (𝑚𝑛) terms.


42. If 𝑚 times the mth term of an A. P. is equal to 𝑛 times its nth term and 𝑚 ≠ 𝑛, show that the
(𝑚 + 𝑛)th term of the A.P. is zero.
CASE STUDY BASED
43. Ravi wants to buy a car and plans to take loan from a bank for his car. He repays his total
loan of Rs 1,18,000 by paying every month starting with the first instalment of Rs 1000. If
he increases the instalment by Rs 100 every month , answer the following:

(i) Find the amount paid by him in 30th installment.


(ii) Find the amount paid by him in 30 installments.
(iii) What amount does he still have to pay after 30th installment?
(iv) If total installments are 40 then find the amount paid in the last installment?
(v) Find the ratio of the 1st installment to the last installment.
Answers: (i) 3900 (ii) 73500 (iii) 44500 (iv) 4900 (v) 10 : 49
44. Push-ups are a fast and effective exercise for building strength. These are helpful in almost
all sports including athletics. While the push-up primarily targets the muscles of the chest,
arms, and shoulders, support required from other muscles helps in toning up the whole
body.

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Nitesh wants to participate in the push-up challenge. He can currently make 3000 push-ups
in one hour. But he wants to achieve a target of 3900 push-ups in 1 hour for which he
practices regularly. With each day of practice, he is able to make 5 more push-ups in one
hour as compared to the previous day. If on first day of practice he makes 3000 push-ups
and continues to practice regularly till his target is achieved.
Keeping the above situation in mind answer the following questions:
(i) Form an A.P representing the number of push-ups per day
(ii) Find the minimum number of days he needs to practice before the day his goal is
accomplished.
(iii) Find the total number of push-ups performed by Nitesh up to the day his goal is
achieved.
Answers: (i) 3000, 3005, 3010, …, 3900 (ii) 180 (iii) 624450
45. The school auditorium was to be constructed to accommodate at least 1500 people. The
chairs are to be placed in concentric circular arrangement in such a way that each
succeeding circular row has 10 seats more than the previous one.

(i) If the first circular row has 30 seats, how many seats will be there in the 10th row?
(ii) For 1500 seats in the auditorium, how many rows need to be there?
(iii) If 1500 seats are to be arranged in the auditorium, how many seats are still left to be
put after 10th row?

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(iv) If there were 17 rows in the auditorium, how many seats will be there in the middle
row?
Answers: (i) 120 (ii) 15 (iii) 750 (iv) 110
ANSWER KEY
1. A 4. B 7. B 10. D
2. A 5. C 8. B 11. A
3. B 6. B 9. D 12. C
13. No 14. 8 15. 29 16. 17
17. 1/3 18. – 19. −1, 2,5, … 20. 17
21. −76, −80 22. 2, 12, 22, …; 𝑎10 = 92
23. 𝑎 = 2; 𝑎13 = 26 24. 981 25. 120
26. 118 27. 21, 23, 25
28. 15, 6, −3 or 2, 6, 10 29. 25 or 36 30. 18 or 19
31. 420 32. 900 33. 3, 7, 11, …
34. 1, 6, 11, … 35. 1170 36. 3, 7, 11, …
37. 8, 12, 16, 20 38. 2, 4, 6, 8

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Chapter - 7

Coordinate Geometry

MCQ (Q1-Q10)
1. The coordinates of the point equidistant from the points A(1, 2), B (3, –4) and
C(5, –6) are
(a) (2, 3) (b) (–1, –2) (c) (0, 3) (d) (1, 3)

2. Two of the vertices of a ∆ABC are given by A(6, 4) and B(–2, 2) and its centroid is

G(3, 4). The coordinates of the third vertex C of the ΔABC are

(a) (2, 3) (b) (4, 6) (c) (4, 3) (d) (5, 6)

3. The value of P for which the point (–1, 3), (2, p) and (5, –1) are collinear is

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

4. The distance of the point (–6, 8) from the origin.

(a) 8 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 9

5. In what ratio of line 𝑥 – 𝑦 – 2 = 0 divides the line segment joining (3, –1) and (8,

9)?

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 3

6. The points on x-axis at a distance of 10 units from (11, –8) are

(a)(5, 2) (17, 0) (b)(5, 0) (17, 0) (c)(6, 0) (17, 0) (d)(5, 0) (16, 0)

7. The point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, –5) and (–2, 9) is

(a)(7, 0) (b)(-7, 0) (c)(2, 0) (d)(-2, 0)

8. A point on the y – axis which is equidistant from the point A (6, 5) and B (-4, 3) is

(a)(0, 10) (b)(0, 9) (c)(0, -7) (d)(0, 6)

9. The distance between the points (a cos 250 , 0 ) and (0, a cos 650 ) is

(a) a (b) 2a (c) 3a (d) 0

10. The distance between the points (a cos A + b sin A ,0)

and (0 , a sin A – b cos A ) is

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(a) 𝑎2 +𝑏 2 (b) a + b (c) 𝑎2 - 𝑏 2 (d) √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2

Direction : In the following questions ,a statement of Assertion(A) is followed by a statement of


Reason(R) .Mark the choice as :

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason ( R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A) .
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason ( R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A) .
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

11. Assertion (A): The point (–1, 6) divides the line segment joining the points
(–3, 10) and (6, –8) in the ratio 2 : 7 internally.
Reason (R): Given three points, i.e. A, B, C form an equilateral triangle,

then AB = BC = AC.

12. Assertion (A): Mid-point of a line segment divides line in the ratio 1 : 1.
Reason (R): The ratio in which the point (–3, k) divides the line segment joining the points (–5, 4)
and (–2, 3) is 1 : 2.

Subjective Questions:

1. Find the value of a, so that the point (3, a) lie on the line 2𝑥 – 3𝑦 = 5
2. Find the distance between points (0,5) and (-5,0)
3. If the points A (1,2), B (0,0) and C (a,b) are collinear, then what is the relation between a and b?

4. The coordinates of the points P and Q are respectively (4, -3) and (-1, 7). Find the abscissa of a
𝑃𝑅 3
point R on the line segment PQ such that =5.
𝑃𝑄

5. In the given figure, if A (-1, 3) , B (1, -1) and C (5, 1) are the vertices of a triangle ABC, what is
the length of the median through vertex A? A (-1, 3)

B(1, -1) D(3, 0) C(5,1)

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6. Find the ratio in which y-axis divides the line segment joining the points A(5, -6) and B (-1, -4).
Also find the coordinates of the point of division.

7. Let P and Q be the points of trisection of the line segment joining the point A( 2, -2) and B (-7, 4)
such that P is nearer to A. Find the coordinates of P and Q
8. Find the ratio in which the point (-3, k) divides the line-segment joining the points (-5, -4) and (-
2, 3). Also find the value of k.
9. The x-coordinate of a point P is twice its y-coordinate. If P is equidistant from Q(2, -5) and R( -3,
6) , find the coordinates of P
10. If the point A (0, 2) is the equidistant from the points B( 3, p) and C(p, 5), find p. also find the
length of AB.
11. If the points A (-2, 1), B (a, b) and C (4, -1) are collinear and a – b =1, find the values of a and b.

12. If the point P (k-1, 2) is equidistant from the points A (3, k) and B (k, 5), find the value of k.
13. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points A (3, -3) and b (-2, 7) is divided by x-
axis. Also find the coordinates of the point of division.
14. Find the values of k if the points A(k + 1, 2k), B( 3k, 2k + 3) and C( 5k – 1 , 5k) are collinear.

15. If the point P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(a +b, b – a ) and B(a – b , a + b) ,Prove
𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑏𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦
16. If the point C (-1, 2) divides internally the line segment joining the points A(2, 5) and B(x, y) in
the ratio of 3 : 4, find the value of 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2
17. Find the ratio in which the point P (x, 2) divides the line segment joining the points A (12, 5) and
B (4, -3). Also find the value of x.
18. If A (4, 2), B (7, 6) and C (1, 4) are the vertices of a ABC and AD is its median, prove that the
median AD divides ABC into to triangles of equal areas.
19. If the point A (2, -4) is equidistant from P (3, 8) and Q (-10, y), find the values of y. also find
distance PQ.
20. The base BC of an equilateral triangle ABC lies on y-axis. The coordinates of point C are (0, -3).
The origin is the mid-point of the base. Find the coordinates of the points A and B. also find the
coordinates of another point D such that BACD is a rhombus.
21. If the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A (3, 4) and B (a, 4) is P (x, y) and 𝑥 +
𝑦 – 20 = 0,then find the value of a
22. If the point C(-1, 2) divides internally the line segment joining A(2, 5) and B(x, y) in the ratio 3 :
4, find the coordinates of B.

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23. If the coordinates of the mid-points of the sides of a triangle are (1, 1), (2, -3 )and (3,4). Find the
centroid
24. Show that ABC with vertices A (-2, 0), B (2, 0) and C (0, 2) is similar to DEF with vertices
D (-4, 0), E (4, 0) and F(0, 4)
25. If A(-2, 1), B(a, 0), C(4, b) and D(1, 2) are the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, find the values
of a and b. Hence, find the lengths of its sides.
ANSWERS
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. (b) 2.(d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)

11.b 12. c

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1
1. 𝑎 = 3 2. 5√2 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 3. 2a = b 4. 1 5. 5 units

−13 2
6. 𝑃 (0, ) 7. -4, 2 8. k = 3 9. (16, 8)
3

10. √10 units 11. a = 1 and b = 0 12. k = 1 or k = 5


3 1
13. k = 7 14. k = 2, 16. 9
2

3
17. x = 9, The ratio in which p divides the line segment is 5i.e., 3: 5

9
18. 2sq. Units 19. PQ = √290 and √338

20. Coordinates of point B are (0, 3), coordinates of point A = (±3√3 , 0),

Coordinates of point D =(∓3√3 , 0)


2 2
21. 45 22. (-5,-2) 23. (2, 3) 25. (2, 3), 5√2 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠

Case Study -1

In order to conduct Sports Day activities in your School, lines have been drawn with chalk powder at
a distance of 1 m each, in a rectangular shaped ground ABCD, 100 flowerpots have been placed at a
distance of 1 m from each other along AD, as shown in given figure below. Niharika runs 1/4 th the
distance AD on the 2nd line and posts a green flag. Preet runs 1/5 th distance AD on the eighth line
and posts a red flag.

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1. Find the position of green flag

2. Find the position of red flag

3. What is the distance between both the flags?

4. If Rashmi has to post a blue flag exactly halfway between the line segment joining the two flags,
where should she post her flag?

5. If Joy has to post a flag at one-fourth distance from green flag, in the line segment joining the
green and red flags, then where should he post his flag?

ANSWERS:

1. a) (2,25) 2. c) (8,20) 3. c) √61 4. a) (5, 22.5)

5. a) (3.5,24)

Case Study 2

The class X students school in Krishnagar have been allotted a rectangular plot of land for their
gardening activity. Saplings of Gulmohar are planted on the boundary at a distance of 1 m from each
other. There is triangular grassy lawn in the plot as shown in the figure. The students are to sow seeds
of flowering plants on the remaining area of the plot.

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1. Taking A as origin, find the coordinates of P

2. What will be the coordinates of R, if C is the origin?

3. What will be the coordinates of Q, if C is the origin?

ANSWERS:

1. a) (4,6) 2. c) (10,3) 3. d) (13,6)

Reference Links:

DISTANCE FORMULA
http://ndl.iitkgp.ac.in/document/NThHSnRlalBZZ3NaWC9rZlJIYXBWbk95bGxyankzS2NyQ
kpYOWQxaWJTOD0
SECTION FORMULA
http://ndl.iitkgp.ac.in/document/R1JtNk5rUjZuZ1pmdklDeFo1RE1MUzhxVm9pcHIwUlk0Z1
I2ZnhCbGJyaz0

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CHAPTER 8
INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
1
1. If sin A = 2 , then the value of cot A is
1 √3
(A) √3 (B) (C) (D) 1
√3 2
𝑎
2.If sin 𝜃 = 𝑏 ,then cos 𝜃 is
𝑏 𝑏 √𝑏𝑏−𝑎𝑎 𝑎
(𝐴) (B) (C) (D)
√𝑏𝑏−𝑎𝑎 𝑎 𝑏 √𝑏𝑏−𝑎𝑎
4𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃−cos 𝜃
3.If 4 tan 𝜃 =3 ,then the value of is
4 sin 𝜃+cos 𝜃
2 1 1 3
(A) (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
3
tan 30°
4.The value of cot 60° is
1 1
(A) (B) √3 (C) √3 (D) 1
√2

5.The value of ( sin 45°+ cos 45°) is


1 √3
(𝐴) √2 (B)√2 (C) (D)1
2

6.The value of (sin30° + cos 30°) – ( sin 60° + cos 60°) is


(𝐴) − 1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2
1 1
7.If sin 𝛼 = 2 and cos 𝛽 = 2 , then the value of ( 𝛼 + 𝛽) is

(A)0° (B) 30° (C) 60° (D) 90°


8.If ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is a right angled at C ,then the value of cos (A+ B) is
1 √3
(𝐴)0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 2

9.If sec A .sin A = 0 ,then the value of cos A is


1 1
(A) (B) √3 (C) √3 (D) 1
√2

10. sin A cos A = sin A is true when A =


(A)0° (B) 30° (C) 60° (D) 90°
ASSERATION AND REASONING
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).

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(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Q11. Assertion: The value of sin600 cos300 + sin300 cos600 is 1
Reason: sin900=1 and cos900=0
Q12. Assertion: sin (A+B) = sin A + sin B
Reason: For any value of θ, 1+tan2θ = sec2θ
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
20
1. If 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃 = 21, find the value of √(1 + sin 𝜃) √( 1- sin 𝜃
4𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 5
2. If 3𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 = 2, prove that =7
2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃+𝑐𝑠𝑜𝜃

3. Find the area and perimeter of a right-angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 25 cm and base angle
is 60°.
4. If 7sin2 θ + 3cos2 θ = 4, find tanθ.
5. A rhombus of side 20 cm has two angles of 60° each. Find the length of each diagonal.
6. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝐴 − 𝐵) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐵 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐵 and
𝑐𝑜𝑠 (𝐴 − 𝐵) = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐵 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐵
then find the values of sin 15° and cos15°.
7. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝐴 + 𝐵) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐵 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐵 and
𝑐𝑜𝑠 (𝐴 + 𝐵) = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐵 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐵
then find the values of sin 75° and cos75°.
8. If 𝜃 = 30°, verify that
(i) sin 3𝜃 = 3 sin 𝜃 − 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝜃
(ii) cos 3𝜃 = 4 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝜃 − 3 cos 𝜃
1 1
9. If A and B are acute angles such that tan A= 2 and tan B= 3 and
tan 𝐴+tan 𝐵
tan(𝐴 + 𝐵) = 1−tan 𝐴.𝑡𝑎𝑛𝐵 , find 𝐴 + 𝐵.

10. If sin5θ = cos4θ, where 5θ and 4θ are acute angles, find the value of θ.
11. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛2𝜃 = cot(𝜃 + 6°), where 2𝜃 and (𝜃 + 6°) are acute angles, find the value of 𝜃.
1 1
12. If sin(𝐴 − 𝐵) = 2 and cos(𝐴 + 𝐵) = 2 , 0° < 𝐴 + 𝐵 ≤ 90°, 𝐴 > 𝐵, find 𝐴 and 𝐵.
√3
13. If sin(𝐴 + 𝐵) = cos(𝐴 − 𝐵) = , 𝐴 and 𝐵 are acute angles( 𝐴 > 𝐵), find 𝐴 and 𝐵.
2
15 8
14. Given a right angled ∆ ABC, right angled at B in which tan A = and tan C = 15, then find the
8

value of sin(𝐴 + 𝐶).


15. Prove the following identities:

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1+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
a) √ = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃
1−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃

1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
b) √ + √1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 = 2𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃
1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃

𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃+𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 1+sin 𝜃 2


c) =( )
𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃−𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 cos 𝜃

d) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝐴 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝐴 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝐴 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴


e) √𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃
f) 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝐴 = 1 − 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝐴
g) 𝑠𝑖𝑛6 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 6 𝐴 = 1 − 3𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝐴
h) 𝑠𝑖𝑛8 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 8 𝐴 = (𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝐴)(1 − 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝐴)
i) 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝐴 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝐴 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝐴 = 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴 − 1 = 1 − 2𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝐴
2 1 2 1
j) − 𝑐𝑜𝑠4 𝜃 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝜃 = 𝑐𝑜𝑡 4 𝜃 − 𝑡𝑎𝑛4 𝜃
𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝜃
𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃−1 1+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
k) = = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃
𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃+1 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
l) = 2 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃
𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃

√2
16. If tan 𝐴 = √2 − 1, show that sin 𝐴 cos 𝐴 = 4
1
17. If 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 − tan 𝜃 = 𝑥, then show that 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 + tan 𝜃 = 𝑥. Hence find the value of cos 𝜃andsin 𝜃.
𝑎2 𝑏2
18. If 𝑥 = 𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 and 𝑦 = 𝑏 tan 𝜃, prove that 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 = 1

19. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 = 𝑚 and 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 = 𝑛, show that 𝑚2 − 𝑛2 = 4√𝑚𝑛


20. If 𝑥 = 𝑟 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐶, 𝑦 = 𝑟 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐶, 𝑧 = 𝑟 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴, prove that 𝑟 2 = 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 .
HOTS QUESTIONS
21. Solve for θ:
𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝜃
(i) =3
𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝜃

(ii) 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝜃 = 3


2x
22. If cot θ = √9−4x2, then evaluate: cosec θ − tan θ.

23. If sinθ + cosθ = p and secθ + cosecθ = q, then prove that q (p2 – 1) = 2p.
𝑝2 −1
24. If 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 + tan 𝜃 = 𝑝, then prove that s𝑖𝑛𝜃 = .
𝑝2 +1

25. If 𝑥 = 𝑎 sec 𝜃 + 𝑏 tan 𝜃 and 𝑦 = 𝑎 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 + 𝑏 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃, prove that 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 = 𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 .


26. If 𝑎 sin 𝐴 + 𝑏 cos 𝐴 = 𝑐, then prove that 𝑎 cos 𝐴 − 𝑏 sin 𝐴 = √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 − 𝑐 2
27. If cos θ − sin θ = √2 sin θ , prove that cos θ + sin θ = √2 cos θ.
28. If 15𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝜃 + 4𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 = 23, then find the value of (sec 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃)2 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃.

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1 1
29. If 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 = 𝑥 + 4𝑥, prove that 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 + cot 𝜃 = 2𝑥 𝑜𝑟 .
2𝑥

ANSWERS
OBJECTIVE

1. A
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. b
12. d
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS 1.
A right triangular signboard ABC is used by students of DPS to display “ SAVE WATER If AC =
1m and AB =√3𝑚 and ∠𝐴 = 90°. Answer the following questions

Q1 Find the value of ∠B


Q2. Find the value of sin B
𝐴
Q3. Find the value of sin B + cos C + tan 2

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS 2.


The rod AC of a TV disc antenna is fixed at right angle to the wall AB and a rod CD is supporting
the disc as shown in the figure .If AC = 1m and CD = 2m .Answer the following

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Q1.Find the value of 𝜃.
Q2.Find the value of tan 𝜃.
Q3. Find the value of 6 tan2 𝜃 - 6 sec2 𝜃

CASE STUYDY 1 300 1⁄ 2


2
CASE STUDY II 300 √3 −6
LINK FOR E- RESOURCES

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nbuyle1CsSM&t=2s&ab_channel=EDUMANTRAEDUMANT
RAVerified
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=T9lt6MZKLck&ab_channel=Don%27tMemorise

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CHAPTER 9
SOME APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY
Choose the correct answer from the given four options
1. A tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point on the ground which is 15 m away from
the foot of the tower, the angle of the top of the tower is found to be 60°. The height of the
tower is
(A) 15 m (B) 15√3 m (C) 30 m (D) 5√3 m
2. An observer 1.5 metre tall is 20.5 metre away from a tower 22 metres high. The angle of
elevation of the top of the tower from the eye of the observer is
(A) 60° (B) 45° (C) 30° (D) 90°
3. A kite is flying at a height of 50√3 m from the horizontal. It is attached with a string and makes
an angle 60° with the horizontal. The length of the string is
(A) 150 m (B) 50√3 m (C) 25 m (D) 100 m
4. The angle of elevation of the sun, when the shadow of a pole ℎ meters high is √3 ℎ is
(A) 60° (B) 45° (C) 30° (D) 90°
5. As observed from the top of a 75m high light house from the sea-level, the angle of depression
is 60°. The distance of the ship from the base of light house is
(A) 25 m (B) 75 m (C) 50 m (D) 25√3 m
6. A pole 6 m high casts a shadow 2√3 m long on the ground, then the Sun’s elevation is
(A) 60° (B) 45° (C) 30° (D) 90°
7. In given figure, if AB = 4 m and AC = 8 m, then angle of elevation of A as observed from C is :

(A) 60° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 90°


8. A ladder 10 m in length touches a wall at height of 5 m. The angle made by the ladder with the
horizontal is :
(A) 30° (B) 90° (C) 60° (D) 45°
1
9. The ratio of the length of a tree and its shadow is 1: . The angle of a sun’s elevation is
√3

(A) 30° (B) 90° (C) 60° (D) 45°


10. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point P on the ground is 𝛼. After walking a
distance d towards the foot of the tower, angle of elevation is found to be 𝛽. Then,
(A) 𝛼 < 𝛽 (B) 𝛼 > 𝛽 (C) 𝛼 = 𝛽 (D) 𝛼 + 𝛽 = 90°
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DIRECTION: In the question number 11 and 12, a statement of assertion (A) is followed
by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option
11. Statement A (Assertion): If the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the
ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower, is 30°, then the height of the tower is
10√3 m.
Statement R( Reason) : The angle of elevation of a point on the object being viewed is the
angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when the point is below the horizontal
level.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
12. Statement A (Assertion): The length of shadow of a tower decreases as the sun’s altitude
changes from 45° to 60°.
Statement R (Reason) : As sun’s altitude (𝜃) increases, tan 𝜃 decreases.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Short Answer Questions


13. The tops of the poles of height 16 m and 10 m are connected by a wire of length 𝑙 metres. If the
wire makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal, find 𝑙.
14. If two towers of height ℎ1 and ℎ2 subtend angles of 60° and 30° respectively at the mid-point of
the line joining their feet, then find the ratio ℎ1 : ℎ2 .
15. An observer, 1.7 m tall, is 20√3 m away from a tower. The angle of elevation from the eye of
observer to the top of tower is 30°. Find the height of tower. (CBSE 2016)
16. In the given figure find the perimeter of rectangle ABCD.

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17. A peacock is sitting on the top of a tree. It observes a snake on the ground at an angle of
depression of 30°. The peacock with a speed of 300 m/min catches the snake in 12 seconds.
What is the height of the tree?
18. In Figure, AB is a 6 m high pole and CD is a ladder inclined at an angle of 60° to the horizontal
and reaches up to a point D of pole. If AD = 2.54 m, find the length of the ladder. (use
√3 =1.73)(CBSE 2016)

19. A tree 12 m high, is broken by the wind in such a way that its top touches the ground and makes
an angle of 60° with the ground. At what height form the ground, is the tree broken by the
wind?
20. Trigonometry is used in architecture to ensure that buildings are built safely. For example,
architects have to calculate lengths of support cables for poles, suspension bridges, etc. to
ensure stability and safety. Based on the following figure , answer the questions:
A radio station tower is to be built in two sections. From a point 80 feet from the base of the
tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the first section is 45°, and the angle of elevation of
the top of the second section is 60°. What should be the lengths of the two supporting cables?
(Use √2 =1.4)

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21. ‘Skysails’ is that genre of engineering science that uses extensive utilization of wind energy to
move a vessel in the sea water. The ‘Skysails’ technology allows the towing kite to gain a
height of anything between 100 metres – 300 metres. The sailing kite is made in such a way that
it can be raised to its proper elevation and then brought back with the help of a ‘telescopic mast’
that enables the kite to be raised properly and effectively.
Based on the following figure related to sky sailing, answer the questions:

(i) In the given figure, if sin 𝜃 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (3𝜃 − 30°), where 𝜃 and 3 𝜃 − 30° are acute angles,
then find the value of 𝜃.
(ii)What should be the length of the rope of the kite sail in order to pull the ship at the angle 𝜃
(calculated above) and be at a vertical height of 200 m?
22. The rod AC of a TV disc antenna is fixed at right angles to the
wall AB and a rod CD is supporting the disc as shown in figure. If
AC = 1.5 m long and CD = 3 m, find
(i) tan 𝜃
(ii) sec 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃.

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Long Answer Questions
23. From the top of tower 60 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a building
whose base is in the same straight line with the base of the tower are observed to be 30° and 60°
respectively. Find the height of the building.
24. From a balloon vertically above a straight road, the angles of depression of two cars at an
instant are found to be 45° and 60°. If the cars are 100 m apart, find the height of the balloon.
25. From the top of a tower the angle of depression of an object on the horizontal ground is found to
be 60°. On descending 20 m vertically downwards from the top of the tower, the angle of
depression of the object is found to be 30°. Find the height of the tower.
26. The angle of elevation of the top of a rock from the top and foot of a 100 m high tower are
respectively 30° and 45°. Find the height of the rock.
27. An aeroplane when flying at a height of 3000 m above the ground passes vertically above
another aeroplane at an instant when the angles of elevation of the two planes from the same
point on the ground are 60° and 45° respectively. Find the vertical distance between the aero
planes at that instant. (Use √3 =1.732)
28. The angle of elevation of a jet plane from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 15
seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the jet plane is flying at a constant height of
1500√3 m, find the speed of the jet plane.
29. Determine the height of a mountain if the elevation of its top at an unknown distance from the
base is 45° and at a distance 10 km further off from the mountain, along the same line, the angle
of elevation is 30°. (Use √3 =1.732).
30. An aeroplane flying horizontally at a height of 1 km above the ground is observed at a certain
point on earth to subtend and angle of 60°. After 10 seconds, its angle of elevation at the same
point is observed to be 30°. Calculate the speed of the aeroplane in km/hr. (Use √3 =1.732)
31. The shadow of a tower standing on a level plane is found to be 50 m longer when Sun’s
elevation is 30° than when it is 60°. Find the height of the tower.
32. The angle of elevation of a jet aircraft from a point P on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 30
seconds, the angle of elevation becomes half of the previous angle. If the jet is flying at a speed
of 864 km/hr, find the constant height at which the jet is flying.(√3 = 1.73)
33. The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point on the ground is 60°. From
another point 10 m vertically above the first, its angle of elevation is 45°. Find the height of the
tower. (Use √3 =1.732)

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50. Gadisar Lake is located in the Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. It was built by the King of
Jaisalmer and rebuilt by Gadsi Singh in 14th century. The lake has many Chhatris. One of them
is shown below :

Observe the picture. From a point A, ℎ m above from water level, the angle of elevation of top
of Chhatri (point B) is 45° and angle of depression of its reflection in water (point C) is 60° . If
the height of Chhatri above water level is (approximately) 10 m, then
(i) draw a well-labelled figure based on the above information;
(ii) find the height (ℎ) of the point A above water level. (Use √3 = 1·73) (Ans : 2.67 m)
51. We all have seen the airplanes flying in the sky but might have not thought of how they actually
reach the correct destination. Air Traffic Control (ATC) is a service provided by ground-based
air traffic controllers who direct aircraft on the ground and through a given section of controlled
airspace, and can provide advisory services to aircraft in non-controlled airspace. Actually, all
this air traffic is managed and regulated by using various concepts based on coordinate
geometry and trigonometry.

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At a given instance, ATC finds that the angle of elevation of an airplane from a point on the
ground is 60°. After a flight of 30 seconds, it is observed that the angle of elevation changes to
30°. The height of the plane remains constantly as 3000√3 m. Use the above information to
answer the questions that follow-
(i) Draw a neat labelled figure to show the above situation diagrammatically.
(ii) What is the distance travelled by the plane in 30 seconds?
(iii) Keeping the height constant, during the above flight, it was observed that after 15(√3 -1)
seconds, the angle of elevation changed to 45°. How much is the distance travelled in
that duration.
(iv) What is the speed of the plane in km/hr?
Answers: (ii) 6000 m (iii) 3000(√3 -1)m (iv) 720 km/h

ANSWER KEY

1. B 5. D 9. C 13. 12 m
2. B 6. A 10. A 14. 3:1
3. D 7. B 11. B 15. 21.7 m
4. C 8. A 12. C 16. 20+20√3 m
17. 30 m 18. 4 m 19. 24√3 −36 m
20. 112 ft, 160 ft 21. 30°, 400 m 2
22. (i) 1/√3 (ii) 3 (3 + √3)

23. 40 m 24. 50(3 + √3) m 25. 30 m

26. 50(3 + √3) m 27. 1268 m 28. 720 km/h


29. 13.66 km 30. 415.68 km/h 31. 25√3 m
32. 6228 m 33. 23.66 m 34. 21.13 m
35. 8 m 80
36. √3 m 37. 10√3 m; 10 m
3

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CHAPTER 10

CIRCLES
1. The distance between two parallel tangents of a circle of radius 4 cm is

(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm

2. In the given figure, if ∟RPS = 25°, the value of ∟ROS is

(a) 135° (b) 145° (c) 165° (d) 155°

3. A tangent is drawn from a point at a distance of 17 cm of circle C(0, r) of radius 8 cm. The
length of its tangent is

(a) 5 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 23 cm

4. The length of tangents drawn from an external point to the circle:

(a) are equal (b) are not equal


(c) sometimes are equal (d) are not defined

5. Number of tangents drawn at a point of the , circle is/are

(a) one (b) two


(c) none (d) infinite

6. In the given figure, TP and TQ are two tangents to a circle with centre O, such that ∠POQ

= 110°. Then ∠PTQ is equal to

(a) 55° (b) 70°


(c) 110° (d) 90°

7. Tangents from an external point to a circle are

(a) equal (b) not equal


(c) parallel (d) perpendicular.

8. The length of a tangent drawn from a point at a distance of 10 cm of circle is 8 cm. The
radius of the circle is

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(a) 4 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 6 cm (d) 7 cm

9. In given figure, CP and CQ are tangents to a circle with centre O. ARB is another tangent
touching the circle at R. If CP = 11 cm and BC = 6 cm then the length of BR is

(a) 6 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 4 cm (d) 3 cm

10. From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from the centre O of a circle of radius 5
cm, the pair of tangents PQ and PR to the circle are drawn. Then the area of the quadrilateral
PQOR is

(a) 60 cm² (b) 65 cm²


(c) 30 cm² (d) 32.5 cm²

Direction : In the following questions ,a statement of Assertion(A) is followed by a statement


of Reason(R) .Mark the choice as :

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason ( R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason ( R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

11. Assertion: AB and CD are two parallel chords of a circle whose diameter is AC. Then AB
≠ CD.
Reason : Perpendicular from the centre of a circle does not bisects the chord.
12. Assertion: If length of a tangent from an external point to a circle is 8 cm, then length of
the other tangent from the same point is 8 cm.
Reason: length of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Solve the following :

1. In the given figure, AB and AC are tangents to the circle with centre O such that ∠BAC =
40°, then find ∠BOC

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2. In the given figure, point P is 26 cm away from the centre O of a circle and the length PT
of the tangent drawn from P to the circle is 24 cm. Then find the radius of the circle .

3. Two parallel lines touch the circle at points A and B respectively. If area of the circle is 25
cm2, then find the length AB .

4. From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from the centre O of a circle of radius 5 cm,
the pair of tangents PQ and PR to the circle are drawn. Then find the area of the quadrilateral
PQOR

5. In figure AT is a tangent to the circle with centre O such that OT = 4 cm and ∠OTA = 30°.
Then find AT

6. In figure if O is centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and the tangent PR at P makes an angle

of 50° with PQ, then find the measure of ∠ POQ

7. In figure, O is the centre of a circle, AB is a chord and AT is the tangent at A. If ∠AOB =

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100°, then find the measure of ∠BAT

8. In the figure PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O. If ∠APB = 60°, then find
∠OAB

9. In figure, AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O and AT is a tangent.

If ∠𝐴𝑂𝑄 = 58°, find ∠𝐴𝑇𝑄.

10. Tangents AC and AB are drawn to a circle from a point A such that ∠BAC = 30°. A chord
BD is drawn parallel to the tangent AC. Find ∠DBC.

11. PA and PB are two tangents drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O touching it at
A and B. If ∠𝑂𝐴𝐵 = 20°, find ∠𝐴𝑃𝐵.
12. A circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD whose sides AB, BC and CD
have length (in cm) 6, 7 and 4 respectively, find the length of AD.
13. Find the length of side OP of the ΔOTP.

14. In two concentric circles, prove that all chords of the outer circle which touch the
inner circle are of equal length.
15. TA and TB are two tangents drawn from a point T to a circle of radius 6 cm with
centre O, touching it at A and B. If the length of the chord AB=6 cm, find ∠𝐴𝑇𝐵.

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16. In the given figure, TP and TQ are tangents from T to the circle with centre O and
R is any point on the circle. If AB is a tangent to the circle at R, prove that : TA
+AR = TB +BR

18. In Figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is a tangent. If ∠QPT =


60°, find ∠PRQ.

19. In figure, PQ is a tangent at a point C to a circle with centre O. If AB is a diameter


and ∠CAB = 30°, find ∠PCA.

21. If PA and PB are two tangents drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O
touching it at A and B, prove that OP is the perpendicular bisector of AB.
22. PA and PB are two tangents drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O touching
it at A and B such that ∠𝐴𝑃𝐵 = 60°. If AP = 5 cm, find the length of chord AB and
also the radius of the circle.
23. The pair of tangents AP and AQ drawn from an external point A to a circle with
centre O are perpendicular to each other and length of each tangent is 5 cm. Find
the radius of the circle. Also prove that OA and PQ are perpendicular bisectors of
each other.
24. Two concentric circles are of radii (3𝑥 + 5) and (2𝑥 − 4)cm where (3𝑥 + 5) >
(2𝑥 − 4). Length of the chord of the outer circle which touches the inner circle is
48 cm. Find the radii of the two circles.
25. PA and PB are two tangents drawn to a circle with centre O and radius r. If OP =

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2r, show that ∆APB is equilateral.
26. In the figure a circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD in which ∠B = 90°. If AD
= 23 cm, AB= 29 cm and DS = 5 cm find the radius of the in-circle.

27. ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC which is circumscribed about a


circle as shown in the figure. Show that BC is bisected at the point of contact.

ANSWER KEY

1. d 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. c

Part 2

1. 2. 10cm 3. 10 cm 4. 60 cm2 5. 2√3 cm2

6. 100° 7. 50° 8. 30° 9. 61° 10. 75◦

11. 40◦ 12. 3 cm 13. 13 cm 15. 120° 17. 120°


5
18. 60◦ 20. 5 cm, cm 21. 5 cm 22. 26 cm , 10 cm
√3

24. 11 cm

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Case Study -1

A Ferris wheel (or a big wheel in the United Kingdom) is an amusement ride consisting of a
rotating upright wheel with multiple passenger-carrying components (commonly referred to as
passenger cars, cabins, tubs, capsules, gondolas, or pods) attached to the rim in such a way that
as the wheel turns, they are kept upright, usually by gravity.

After taking a ride in Ferris wheel, Aarti came out from the crowd and was observing her
friends who were enjoying the ride.She was curious about the different angles and measures
that the wheel will form. She forms the figure as given below.

1. In the given figure find ∟ROQ

2. Find ∟RQP

3. Find ∟RSQ

4. Find ∟ORP

5. RQ represents

ANSWERS:

1. c) 150 2. a) 75 3. b) 75 4. a) 90 5. Chord

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Case Study 2

Varun has been selected by his School to design logo for Sports Day T-shirts for students and
staff . The logo design is as given in the figure and he is working on the fonts and different
colours according to the theme. In given figure, a circle with centre O is inscribed in a ΔABC,
such that it touches the sides AB, BC and CA at points D, E and F respectively. The lengths of
sides AB, BC and CA are 12 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively

1. Find the length of AD

2. Find the Length of BE

3. Find the length of CF

4. If radius of the circle is 4cm, Find the area of ∆OAB

5. Find area of ∆ABC

ANSWERS:

1. a) 7 2. b) 5 3. d) 3 4. c) 24 5. b) 60

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CHAPTER 11

AREA RELATED TO CIRCLES

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. If the area of a circle is 154 𝑐𝑚2 , then its circumference is


(A) 11 cm (B) 22 cm (C) 44 cm (D) 55 cm
Q2. Area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r units is
(A) 𝑟 2 sq. units (B) ½ 𝑟 2 sq. units (C) 2 𝑟 2 sq. units (D) 2 𝑟 2 sq. units
Q3. A pendulum swings through an angle of 30° and describes an arc 8.8 cm in length. .
The length of the pendulum is
(A) 16.8 cm (B) 18.6 cm (C) 44.5 cm (D) 15.6 cm
Q4. The area of the square that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm is
(A) 256 𝑐𝑚2 (B) 128 𝑐𝑚2 (C) 64 √2 𝑐𝑚2 (D) 64 𝑐𝑚2
Q5. The area of a sector of circle of radius 21 cm and central angle 120°is
(A) 462 𝑐𝑚2 (B) 128 𝑐𝑚2 (C) 644√2 𝑐𝑚2 (D) 64 𝑐𝑚2
Q6. The ratio of the circumference to its diameter is defined as _____________.
It is a / an _______number.
22 22
(A) 𝜋 ,Rational (B) 𝜋 , Irrational (C) , Rational (D) , Irrational
7 7

Q7.The angle through which the minute hand of the clock moves 8 to 8:35
(A) 210° (B) 90° (C) 60° (D) 45°
Q8.The area of circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 6 cm is
(A) 36𝜋 𝑐𝑚2 (B) 18 𝜋 𝑐𝑚2 (C) 12 𝜋 𝑐𝑚2 (D) 9 𝜋 𝑐𝑚2
Q9.An arc of the circle is of length 5 𝜋 and the sector it bounds has an area of 20 𝜋 𝑚2
The radius of the circle is
(A) 1 m (B) 5 m (C) 8 m (D) 10 m
Q10.A chord 10 cm long is drawn in a circle whose radius is 5√2 cm.Find the area of minor
segment .
(A) 16 𝑐𝑚2 (B) 14.29 𝑐𝑚2 (C) 14.25 𝑐𝑚2 (D) 16.25 𝑐𝑚2
ASSERTION AND REASONING QUESTIONS
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of reason (R).
Mark the correct choice as:

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(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Q11. Assertion (A): The length of the minute hand of a clock is 7 cm ,then the area swept by
77
the minute hand in 5 minute is 𝑐𝑚2 .
6

Reason (R): The length of an arc of a sector of angle q and radius r is given by

Q12. Assertion (A): If the circumference of a circle is 176 cm, then its radius is 28 cm.
Reason (R): Circumference = 2π × radius.
Q13. Assertion (A): If a wire of length 22 cm is bent in the shape of a circle, then area of the
circle so formed is 40𝑐𝑚2 .
Reason (R): Circumference of the circle = length of the wire.
Q14. Assertion (A): In a circle of radius 6 cm, the angle of a sector is 60°. Then the area of
132
the sector is 𝑐𝑚2 .
7

Reason (R): Area of the circle with radius r is 𝜋𝑟 2 .


SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q15.The perimeter of a sector of a circle with radius 6.5 cm is 31cm ,then find the area of the
sector .
Q16. The perimeter of a semi circular protactor is 72 cm.Find the measure of its diameter.
( Use 𝜋 = 3.14 )
Q17. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 36 cm is 54 π 𝑐𝑚2 . Find the length of the
corresponding arc of the sector.(EXPRESS IN TERMS OF 𝜋 ) .
Q18. The minute hand of a clock is 3.5 cm long . What is the angle described by the minute
hand in 20 minutes.
Q19. The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius 5.2cm is 16.4 cm. Find the area of the
sector.
Q20. A cow is tied with a rope of length 14 m at the corner of a rectangular field of
22
dimensions 20m × 16m. Find the area of the field in which the cow can graze. (Use = )
7

Q21. Find the area of the sector of a circle of radius 5 cm, if the corresponding arc length is
3.3 cm.

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Q22. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon with verticals A, B, C, D, E, F as the centres, circles of
same radius 𝑟 are drawn. Find the area of the shaded portion. (Give answer in 𝜋 only)

Q23. A piece of wire 20 cm long is bent into the form of an arc of a circle subtending an angle
of 60° at its center. Find the radius of the circle.

Q24.Area of a sector of central angle 200° of a circle is 770 𝑐𝑚2 . Find the length of the
corresponding arc of this sector.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q25. In given figure, arcs are drawn by taking vertices A, B and C of an equilateral triangle of
side 10 cm. to intersect the sides BC, CA and AB at their respective mid-points D, E and F.
Find the area of the shaded region (Use π = 3.14).

Q26. A sector is cut from a circle of radius 21 cm .The angle of the sector is 150°.

Find the length of its arc and the area?

Q27. The minute hand of a clock is 10 cm long. Find the distance covered by the tip of the

minute hand between 9am and 9:35am?

Q28. Find the area of the minor segment of a circle of radius 14cm, when the central angle is
600 .

Also find the area of the corresponding major segment.

Q29. Find the distance covered by the tip of the minute hand, 14cm long in a day.

Q30. Find the area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 44 cm.

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Q31. A chord of a circle of radius 20 cm subtends an angle of 90° at the center.

Find the area of the corresponding major segment of the circle. (Use π = 3.14).

Q32. A table in a restaurant has a top of the shape as shown in the figure, where AOD = 120°
and OA = OB = OC = OD = 60 cm. Find the perimeter of the top of the table. (Take π = 3.14).

Q33. What is the ratio of the radii of two circles at the centre of which two arcs of the same
length subtend angles of 60° and 75°?

Q34. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 5 cm. Find the area swept by the minute hand
during the time period 6 : 05 a m and 6 : 40 a m. (CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2022-
23)

Q35. Sides of a triangular field are 15 m, 16 m and 17 m. With the three corners of the field a
cow, a buffalo and a horse are tied separately with ropes of length 7 m each to graze in the
field. Find the area of the field which cannot be grazed by the three animals.

Q36. In the given figure, arcs have been drawn of radius 7cm each with vertices A, B, C
and D of quadrilateral ABCD as centres. Find the area of the shaded region.

(CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2022-23)

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CASE STUDY 1

Sangeeta made a design on the red carpet. In each corner


of a square carpet of side 4m , a quadrant of a circle of
radius 1m is colored black and a circle of diameter 2m
is colored yellow as shown in figure.

Answer the following questions : 𝑈𝑠𝑒 𝜋 = 3.14


(i) Find the area of square ABCD.
(ii) Find the area of each quadrant with radius 1m.
(iii) Find the angle subtended by a quadrant.
(iv) Find the area of the remaining portion of the square.

CASE STUDY 2

Pendulum Clock: It is a clock that uses a pendulum, a swinging


weight, as its time keeping element. Pendulum clocks are now kept
mostly for their decorative and antique value.
Dhriti bought a pendulum clock for her living room. the
clock contains a small pendulum of length 45 cm. the minute
hand and hour hand of the clock are 7cm and 6 cm long
respectively.
(i) Find the area swept by the minute hand in 10 minutes.
(ii) Find the angle described by hour hand in 10 minutes.
(iii) Find the distance covered by the tip of hour hand in 3.5 hours.
(iv)If the tip of pendulum covers a distance of 66 cm in complete oscillation, then find the
angle described by pendulum at the centre.

CASE STUDY 3

Sprinkler: An irrigation sprinkler (also known as a water


sprinkler or simply a sprinkler) is a device used to irrigate
agricultural crops, lawns, landscapes, golf courses, and
other areas. A water sprinkler is set to shoot a stream of water
a distance of 21 m and rotate through an angle of 80 degrees.
(i) What is the area of the lawn it waters?

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(ii) For r = 28 m, what angle is required to water equal to previous area?
(iii) If the area of the garden to be sprinkled is 308 sq. m and it can shoot upto 21m then find
the angle through which it must rotate?

ANSWERS
Multiple choice Question

1. C , 44cm 2. A , 𝑟 2 sq. 3. A , 16.8 cm 4. B , 128 𝑐𝑚2 5. A , 462 𝑐𝑚2


units
6. B , 𝜋 , 7. A , 210° 8. D , 9𝜋 𝑐𝑚2 9. C , 8 m 10. B , 14.29
Irrational 𝑐𝑚2

Assertion And Reasoning Questions


11. B 12. A 13. B 14. B

Short Answer Type Questions

15. 58.5 𝑐𝑚2 16. 28 𝑐𝑚 17. 3π 18. 120° 19. 15.6


𝑐𝑚2
20. 154 𝑚2 21. 8.75𝑐𝑚2 22. 2𝜋𝑟 2 . 23. 60/𝜋 24. 770𝑐𝑚2

Long Answer Questions

25. 26. 55 cm, 27. 28. 29. 30.


39.2𝑐𝑚2 577.5 𝑐𝑚2 183.3𝑐𝑚2 598.11𝑐𝑚2 88 cm 154.06 𝑐𝑚2

31. 32. 33. 5 35. 36.


34. 45 6 𝑐𝑚2
1142𝑐𝑚2 252.56cm 5:4 (24√21−77)𝑚2 154𝑐𝑚2
Case study 1 :

1. 16𝑚2 2. 0.785𝑚2 3. 90 4. 9.72 𝑚2

Case study 2

1. 25.6 𝑐𝑚2 2. 60° 3. 2.2 cm 4 . 84°

Case study 3

1. 154𝑐𝑚2 2. 22.5° 3. 160°

Page 95 of 308
CHAPTER 12
SURFACE AREAS AND VOLUMES
1. How many balls, each of radius 1 cm, can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8
cm?
2. If the area of three adjacent faces of a cuboid are X, Y and Z respectively, then find the
volume of the cuboid.
3. Find the ratio of the volume of a cube to that of the sphere which fits inside the cube.
4. A cubical block of side 10 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. What is the largest diameter
of the hemisphere? Find the cost of painting the TSA of the solid so formed at the rate Rs
5 per 100 sq. cm. (use 𝜋 = 3.14)
5. Two cones with same base radius 8 cm and height 15 cm are joined together along their
bases. Find the surface area of the shape so formed.
6. A solid is in the form of a right circular cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total height
of the solid is 58 cm and the diameter of the cylinder is 28 cm. Find the total surface area
of the solid.
7. A barrel of a fountain pen, cylindrical in shape is 7 cm long and 5 mm in diameter. A full
barrel of ink pen is used up on writing 3300 words on an average. How many words can be
written in a bottle of ink containing one fifth of a litre.
8. A pen stand made of wood is in the shape of a cuboid with four conical depressions to hold
pens. The dimension of the cuboid are 15 cm by 10 cm by 3.5 cm. The radius of each of
the depressions is 0.5 cm and the depth is 1.4 cm. Find the volume of the wood in the entire
stand.
9. A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of radius 3.5 cm.The total height
of the toy is 15.5 cm. Find its surface area.
10. A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has a shape of frustum of a cone mounted on a
hemisphere. The external diameters of the frustum are 5 cm and 2 cm and the height of the
entire shuttle cock is 7 cm. Find its external surface area.
11. A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder.
If the height of the cylinder is 12 cm and its base is of radius 4.2 cm.Find the total surface
area of the article. Also, find the volume of wood left in the article.
12. In figure, is shown a cone of height 30 cm. A small cone is cut off from the top by a plane
1
parallel to its base. If the volume of the small cone is of the volume of the given cone,
27

find at what height above the baes is the section made?

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13. A building is in the form of a cylinder surrounded by a hemispherical dome and
19
contains 1421 m3 of air. If the internal diameter of the building is equal to its total height

above the floor. Find the height of the building.


14. An ice-cream cone consists of a right circular cone of height 14 cm and diameter of the
circular top is 5 cm. It has hemisphere on the top with the same diameter as of circular top.
Find the volume of ice-cream in the cone.
15. A spherical glass vessel has a cylindrical neck 7 cm and 4 cm in diameter. The diameter of
the spherical part is 21 cm. Find the quantity of water in litres it can hold.
16. A factory manufactures 1,20,000 pencils daily. The pencils are cylindrical in shape, each
of length 25 cm and circumference of the base as 1.5 cm. Find the cost of colouring the
CSA of the pencils manufactured in one day at Rs 0.05 per 𝑑𝑚2 .
17. Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km/h through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular
tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. Find the time in which the level of water in the
tank will rise by 21 cm?
18. Water in a canal, 6 m wide and 1.5 m deep, is flowing at a speed of 4 km/hr. How much
area will it irrigate in 10 minutes if 8 cm of standing water is required?
19. A plate of metal 1 cm thick ,9 cm broad and 81 cm long is melted into a cube. Find the
difference in the surface area of the two solids.
20. A solid iron pole having cylindrical portion 220 cm high and of base diameter 24 cm is
surmounted by another cylinder of height 60 cm and radius 8 cm. Find the mass of the pole,
given that mass of 1 cm3 of iron is 8 kg. (Use 𝜋 = 3.14).
21. There are two identical solid cubical boxes of side 7cm. From the top face of the first cube a
hemisphere of diameter equal to the side of the cube is scooped out. This hemisphere is inverted
and placed on the top of the second cube’s surface to form a dome. Find
(i) the ratio of the total surface area of the two new solids formed
(ii) volume of each new solid formed. (CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2022)

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22. A lampshade is made by cutting the top of a hollow cone by a plane parallel to its base.
The radii of the top and the base of the shade are 4 cm and 12 cm and the height of the
shade is 6 cm. Find the area of the curved surface of the lampshade.
23. Due to heavy floods in a state, thousands were rendered homeless. 50 schools collectively
decided to provide place and the canvas for 1500 tents and share the whole expenditure
equally. The lower part of each tent is cylindrical with base radius 2.8 m and height 3.5 m
and the upper part is conical with the same base radius, but of height 2.1 m. If the canvas
used to make the tents costs ₹120 per m sq, find the amount shared by each school to set
up the tents. (CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2022)
24. Three cubes of side 6 cm each, are joined .Find the total surface area of the resulting cuboid.

(CBSE PAPER 2022)


25. From a solid cylinder of height 30 cm and radius 7 cm, a conical cavity of height 24 cm
and same radius is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid.
(CBSE PAPER 2022)
26. ASSERATION AND REASONING
Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both Assertion (A) & Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) & Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

27. Assertion: If the height of a cone is 24 cm and diameter of the base is 14 cm, then the
slant height of the cone is 15 cm.
Reason: If r be the radius and h the slant height of the cone, then slant height = √ℎ2 + 𝑟 2

28. Assertion: Total surface area of the cylinder having radius of the base 14 cm and height
30 cm is 3872 cm2.

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Reason: If r be the radius and h be the height of the cylinder, then total surface area =
(2𝜋𝑟ℎ + 2𝜋𝑟 2 ).

29. Assertion: If the radius of a cone is halved and volume is not changed, then height
remains same.
Reason: If the radius of a cone is halved and volume is not changed then height must
become four times of the original height.

30. Assertion: No. of spherical balls that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge
is 44 cm, each ball being 4 cm. in diameter, is 2541
Reason: Number of balls = Volume of one ball / Volume of lead

31. Assertion: If a ball is in the shape of a sphere has a surface area of 221.76 cm2, then its
diameter is 8.4 cm.
Reason: If the radius of the sphere be r, then surface area, 𝑆 = 4𝜋𝑟 2 , 𝑖. 𝑒.,
𝑟 = √(𝑆/4𝜋)

ANSWERS

1. 512 2. √XYZ 3. 𝟔 ∶ 𝝅 4. Rs 33.90 5. 854.08 𝑐𝑚2


6.5104𝑐𝑚2 7. 480000 8. 523.532𝑐𝑚2 9. 214.5𝑐𝑚2 10. 74.5𝑐𝑚2
11. 538.56𝑐𝑚2 , 354.816𝑐𝑚3 12. 20 cm 13. 4 m 14. 124.4 𝑐𝑚3
15. 3.73 litres (approx.) 16. Rs 2250 17. 2 hours 18. 750000 𝑚2
1519 2597
19. 1152𝑐𝑚2 20. 892.26 kg 21. (i) 1:1 (ii) 𝑐𝑚3 , 𝑐𝑚3
6 6

22. 502.85𝑐𝑚2 23. Rs332, 640 24. 504 cm sq. 25. 2024 cm sq.
ASSERATION AND REASONING ANSWERS
27.d 28.a 29.d 30.c 31.a

CASE STUDY 1 Q1 1914 sq. m Q2 660 sq. m Q3 231


CASE STUDY II Q1 5 m Q2 264 cu. m Q3 66 m2

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CASE STUDY QUESTION 1
Kumbh Mela is a major pilgrimage and festival of Hinduism .It is celebrated in a cycle of
approximately 12 years. The festival is marked by a ritual dip in the holy waters. The
government of UP planned to procure tent for the pilgrims during Kumbh Mela .The
specification of the tent is given below.

Top conical part has a thick fabric whose cost is Rs. 60 per square meter .Lower cylindrical
part has PVC coated fabric whose cost is Rs.70 per square meter. The front view section of tent
is given below with dimensions :

Q1.How much thick fabric is required ?


Q2. How much PVC coated fabric is required?
Q3. If space requirement of a pilgrims is 6 sq. m , how many pilgrims can be accommodate in
a tent ?
CASE STUDY QUESTION 2
A village contractor was given a work of digging a well of diameter 4m and 21 m deep . He
was asked to spread evenly the earth taken out around the well to form an embankment in the
shape of a circular ring of width 3m. Answer the following questions

Q1. Find the radius of the outer ring ?


Q2.Find the volume of earth taken out from the well?
Q3. Find the area of the ring?Top of Form

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CHAPTER 14

STATISTICS

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
MCQ (Q1-Q10)
1. Mean of 100 items is 49. It was discovered that three items which should have been 60, 70,
80 were wrongly read as 40, 20, 50 respectively. The correct mean is
(a) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (d) 60
2. For the following distribution

Cl 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25

f 10 15 12 20 9

the difference of the upper limit of the median class and the lower limit of the modal class is
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) -5

3. What should be the modal class

Cl 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

f 6 5 20 28 19

(a) 10-20 (b) 30-40 (c) 20-30 (d) 40-50

4. If 35 is removed from the data, 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40 then the median increases by:

(a) 2 (b) 1.5 (c) 1 (d) 0.5

5. If the sum of all the frequencies is 24, then the value of z is:

(a) 4 (b). 6 (c) 8 (d) 10


6. The average weight of a group of 25 men was calculated to be 78.4 kg. It was discovered
later that one weight was wrongly entered as 69 kg instead of 96 kg. What is the correct
average?
(a) 75.76 (b) 77.56 (c) 79.48 (d) 80.30

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7. The mode of the following data is:

(a) 16 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 10


8. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?
(a) Mode (b) Range (c) Median (d) Mean
9. The mean of 20 observations was 60. It was detected on rechecking that the value of 125
was wrongly copied as 25 for computation of mean. Find the correct mean
(a) 67 (b) 66 (c) 65 (d) 60

10. For the following distribution

Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

No. of students 3 9 13 10 5

the number of students who got marks less than 30 is


(a) 13 (b) 25 (c) 10 (d) 12
Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion(A) is followed by a statement
of Reason(R) .Mark the choice as :

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

11. Assertion: If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively, then the value of
median is 64.

Reason: Median = (mode + 2 mean)/2

12. Assertion: If the median of the given data 26, 29, 42, 53, x, x + 2, 70, 75, 82, 93, is 65 then the
value of x is 64.
𝑛+1
Reason : When the number of observations(n) is odd the median is the value of the th
2

observation.
Solve the following :

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1. Calculate the mean of the scores of 20 students in a Mathematics Test:
Marks: 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60

Number of 2 4 7 6 1
students:

2. Calculate the arithmetic mean of the following frequency distribution:


Class: 0 – 100 100 – 200 200 – 300 300 – 400 400 – 500

Frequency: 12 20 45 38 35

3. Find the mean marks of the following data:


Marks: Below 20 Below 40 Below 60 Below 80 Below 100
Number of
15 31 55 70 80
students:

4. Calculate the arithmetic average for the following data by Step-deviation Method:
Marks: 70 60 50 40 30 20

Number of 7 18 40 40 63 65
students:

5. Determine the mean of the following distribution:


Marks: < 10 <20 <30 <40 <50 <60 <70 <80 <90 <100

Number of 5 9 17 29 45 60 70 78 83 85
students:

6. In the following distribution, the frequency of the class interval ( 40 – 50 ) is missing.


It is known that the mean of the distribution is 52.Find the missing frequency.
Wages(in Rs) 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 70 – 80

No: of workers: 5 3 4 x 2 6 13

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7. If the mean of the following frequency distribution is 188,find the missing
frequencies.
Classes 0 – 80 80 – 160 160 – 240 240 – 320 320 – 400 Total
Frequency 20 25 f1 f2 10 100

8. Calculate the median from:


Marks: 0 – 10 10 – 30 30 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100

Number of 5 15 30 8 2
students:

9. Find the median of the following frequency distribution:


Classes: 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50

Frequency: 3 4 2 5 6

10. Find the median wage of a worker from the following distribution table:
Wages(in More than More than More than More than More than More than More than More than
Rs) 150 140 130 120 110 100 90
80
No. of 0 10 29 60 104 134 151 160
workers :

11. If the median of the following frequency distribution is 28.5,find the values of

𝑥 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 :

Class 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 Total
Interval
Frequency 5 x 20 15 Y 5 60

12. Find the missing frequencies f1 and f2 in the following distribution. It is given that
median of the distribution is 41 and the total number of observations is 82.

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Class 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 Total
Interval
Frequency 10 f1 15 20 f2 11 82

13. Find the mode of the following data:

Class 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100
Interval
Frequency: 6 8 12 10 6

14. The weight of coffee in 70 packets are shown in the following data. Find the mode.

Weight(in 200-201 201-202 202-203 203-204 204-205 205-206


grams):
No.of packets: 12 26 20 9 2 1

15. The following table shows the marks obtained by 100 students of class X in a school
during a particular academic session. Find the mode of this distribution.

Marks: Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than
10 20 30 40 50 60 70
80
No. of 7 21 34 46 66 77 92 100
students :

16. Find the missing frequency of the following data if the mode is 48.6 :

Class
10 – 25 25 – 40 40 – 55 55 – 70 70 – 85
Interval:
Frequency : 6 20 44 y 3

17. Determine the missing frequencies f1 and f2 from the following data, when mode is 67
and the total number of frequencies is 47.

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Classes: 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 70 – 80 80 – 90

Frequency: 5 f1 15 f2 7

18. The Median and Mode of the following wage distribution are known to be Rs 33.5 and Rs
34 respectively. Three frequencies values from the table are however, missing. Find out the
missing frequencies.

Wages: 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 Total

No: of 4 16 x Y z 6 4 230
persons:

19. Find the mean, median and mode of the following distribution:

Classes: 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70

Frequency: 4 5 7 10 12 8 4

20. Find A and B

21. Find the mean.

Class interval 5-15 15-25 25-35 35-45 45-55 55-65

Frequency 6 11 21 23 14 4

22. Write the following distribution as ‘less than type’ cumulative frequency

distribution:

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Class Interval: 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 70 – 80

Frequency: 5 3 4 3 3 4 7 8

23. Write the following distribution as ‘more than type’ cumulative frequency

distribution :

Class Interval: 50 – 55 55 – 60 60 – 65 65 – 70 70 – 75 75 – 80

Frequency: 2 6 8 14 15 5

24. Find the mean of 32 numbers given mean of ten of them is 12 and the mean of

other 20 is 9 and mean of last 2 numbers is 10.

25. The following observations are arranged in ascending order :


20, 23, 42, 53, x, x + 2, 70, 75, 82, 96.If the median is 63, find the value of x.

ANSWERS
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. (c) 2.(a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)

11. ( c ) 12. ( a )

ANSWER KEY

1.35 2. 292.67 3. 47.25 4. 50.85 5. 48.41

6. 7 7. f1 = 15 , f2 = 30 8. 40. 9. 32 10. Rs 115.45

11. 𝑥 = 8, 𝑦 = 7 12. f1 = 14, f2 = 12. 13. 53.33 14. 201.7 kg 15.44.7

16. 26 17. f1 = 8, f2 = 12. 18. = 950 , 𝑦 = 100 , 𝑧 = 40


19. Mean= 37.2, Median= 39, Mode= 43.33 20. 2.5 ,7.5

21. 35.375 24. 10 25. 62

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Case Study 1

COVID-19 Pandemic The COVID-19 pandemic, also known as coronavirus pandemic, is an


ongoing pandemic of coronavirus disease caused by the transmission of severe acute
respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) among humans.

The following tables shows the age distribution of case admitted during a day in two different
hospitals

Refer to table 1

1. The average age for which maximum cases occurred is

2. The upper limit of modal class is

3. The mean of the given data is

Refer to table 2

4. The mode of the given data is

5. The median of the given data is

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ANSWERS

1. c) 36.82 2. d) 45 3. d) 35.4 4. a) 41.4 5. b) 40.2

CASE STUDY 2:

Electricity energy consumption is the form of energy consumption that uses electric energy.
Global electricity consumption continues to increase faster than world population, leading to
an increase in the average amount of electricity consumed per person (per capita electricity
consumption).

A survey is conducted for 56 families of a Colony A. The following tables gives the weekly
consumption of electricity of these families.

The similar survey is conducted for 80 families of Colony B and the data is recorded as
below:

Refer to data received from Colony A

1. The median weekly consumption is

2. The mean weekly consumption is

3. The modal class of the above data is I

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CHAPTER 14- PROBABILITY
ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct answer from the given four options
1. An event is very unlikely to happen, its probability is closest to
(A) 0.0001 (B) 0.001 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.1
2. If an event occurs surely, then its probability is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) ½ (D) ¾
3. The probability of getting a perfect square number from the numbers 1 to 10 is :
(A) 3/10 (B) ½ (C) 2/5 (D) 1/5
4. Two dice are thrown simultaneously, the probability of getting a doublet is
(A) 5/36 (B) 1/12 (C) 1/9 (D) 1/6
5. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 eggs is 0.035. The number of bad
eggs in the lot is
(A) 7 (B) 14 (C) 21 (D) 28
6. In tossing a die, the probability of getting an odd number or a number less than 4 is :
(A) 1 (B) ½ (C) 2/3 (D) ¾
7. Which of the following can be the probability of an event ?
(A) −0.05 (B) 1.005 (C) 0.375 (D) 9/7
8. A girl calculates the probability of her winning the game in a match is 0.08. What is the
probability of her losing the game,
(A) 91% (B) 8% (C) 92% (D) 80%
9. The probability of getting exactly two tails, when three coins are tossed simultaneously
is :
(A) 1/8 (B) ½ (C) 3/8 (D) 5/8
10. A box contains cards bearing numbers from 6 to 70. If one card is drawn at random from
the box, the probability that it bears a one digit number is
(A) 1/16 (B) 4/65 (C) 1/13 (D) 1/14
DIRECTION: In the question number 11 and 12, a statement of assertion (A) is
followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option
11. Statement A (Assertion): If you toss a coin 6 times and it comes down heads on each
occasion, then the probability of getting a head is 1.
Statement R( Reason) : The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an
experiment is 1.

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(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
12. Statement A (Assertion): When a die is rolled, the probability of getting a number
which is a multiple of 3 and 5 both is zero.
Statement R (Reason): The probability of an impossible event is zero.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS


13. Chances of winning a game are 60%. If Anil has played the game 20 times, find the
number of times he can expect to lose.
14. A jar contains 27 marbles. Some of them are green and other are blue. If a marble is
2
drawn at random from the jar, the probability that it is green is 3 . Find the number of

blue marbles in the jar.


𝑥 1
15. The probability of winning a game is 12 . The probability of losing it is 3. Find the value

of 𝑥.
16. A bag contains 4 red, 5 green and 3 yellow balls. A ball is drawn at random from the
bag. What is the probability that the drawn ball is not green?
17. A bundle of cards numbered from 5 to 20 are put in a box. One card is drawn at random
from the box. What is the probability that the number on the card is a multiple of both 2
and 5?
Short Answer Questions
18. The probability of selecting a blue marble at random from a jar that contains only blue,
1
black and green marbles is 5 . The probability of selecting a black marble at random

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1
from the same jar is 4. If the jar contains 11 green marbles, find the total number of

marbles in the jar.


19. A number 𝑥 is chosen at random from the numbers −3, −2, −1,0,1,2. What is the
probability that 𝑥 2 ≤ 4?
20. A number 𝑥 is chosen at random from the numbers −5, −4, −3, −2, −1,0,1,2,3. What is
the probability that |𝑥| < 3?
21. A number 𝑥 is selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4. Another number 𝑦 is
selected at random from the numbers 1, 4, 9 and 16. Find the probability that product of
𝑥 and 𝑦 is less than 16. (CBSE 2016)
𝑎
22. In figure, is shown a disc on which a player spins an arrow twice. The fraction 𝑏 is

formed, where ‘a’ is the number of sector on which arrow stops on the first spin and ‘b’
is the number of the sector in which the arrow stops on second spin. On each spin, each
sector has equal chance of selection by the arrow. Find the probability that the fraction
𝑎
> 1. (CBSE 2016)
𝑏

23. In a game, Raju asks his friend Karan to write down a two-digit number secretly. What is
the probability that Karan will write a doublet? What is the probability that Karan’s
number is divisible by 2, 3 and 5?
24. The army purchased 1250 guns from a dealer. If in every lot of 50 guns, there are only
47 good guns, find the probability that from a lot of 50 guns, we get a defective gun.
How many defective guns do you expect in the purchase of 1250 guns?
25. A two digit number is chosen at random such that the sum of its digits is 11.
a) Write the sample space.
b) Find the probability that the number is even.
c) Find the probability that the number is greater than 50.
d) Find the probability that the number is divisible by 11.
26. Two unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting
a) all heads?
b) at least one head?

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c) at most one tail?
27. Anjali draws a card from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the probability that
she draws :
a) a spade b) a card other than an ace.
c) spade or an ace d) Red and Queen
e) the seven of club f) neither an ace nor a king.
28. All the face cards are removed from a pack of 52 cards and are then shuffled well. One
card is selected from the remaining cards. What is the probability of
a) getting an ace? c) getting 10 of spade?
b) getting a red card? d) getting a number less than 5?
29. A cartoon consists of 100 shirts of which 88 are good, 8 have minor defects and 4 have
major defects. Jimmy, a trader, will only accept the shirts which are good, but Sujata,
another trader, will only reject the shirts which have major defects. One shirt is drawn at
random from the carton. What is the probability that
a) it is acceptable to Jimmy ?
b) it is acceptable to Sujata?
30. A bag contains 18 balls out of which 𝑥 balls are red.
a) If one ball is drawn at random from the bag, what is the probability that it is red ?
9
b) If 2 more red balls are put in the bag, the probability of drawing a red ball will be 8 times

the probability of drawing a red ball in the first case. Find the value of 𝑥.
31. Three different coins are tossed together. Write the sample space. Find the probability of
getting
a) exactly two heads d) at most two heads
b) at least two heads e) head and tail appear alternatively
c) at least two tails f) at most three heads
32. In a single throw of a pair of different dice, what is the probability of getting
a) Same number on both the dice.
b) Different numbers on both dice?
c) Sum at least 10
d) multiple of 2 on one dice and a multiple of 3 on the other.
e) the product of numbers on the top of dice as 12
f) prime number on each dice? (CBSE 2016)
33. Find the probability that a non-leap year chosen at random has

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a) 52 Sundays
b) 53 Sundays
34. What is the probability that a leap year chosen at random has
a) 53 Sundays
b) 53 Sundays and 53 Mondays
c) 53 Sundays or 53 Saturdays.
35. What is the probability that in a leap year chosen at random, the month of February has
a) 5 Mondays
b) 4 Mondays
36. Find the probability that in a year chosen at random, the month of November has
a) 5 Sundays
b) 4 Sundays
37. There are 500 sealed envelopes in a box, 10 of them contain a cash prize of Rs. 100
each, 50 of them contains a cash prize of Rs. 50 each and 100 of them contain a cash
prize of Rs. 10 each, and the rest do not contain any cash prize. If they are well shuffled
and then an envelope is picked up, what is the probability that it contains
a) no cash prize?
b) a cash prize of Rs. 100?
c) at least a prize?
38. A game of chance consists of an arrow which comes to rest,
pointing at one of the regions 1, 2, or 3. O is the centre of the
circle, OC ⊥AB. Find the probability that
(1) arrow is resting on 3
(2) arrow is resting on 1
(3) arrow is not resting on 2
39. A box contains cards bearing numbers from 6 to 70. If one card is drawn at random from
the box, find the probability that it bears
a) a number divisible by 5.
b) an odd number less than 30.
c) a composite number between 50 and 70. (CBSE 2015)
40. A die has its six faces marked 0,1,1,1, 6, 6. Two such dice are thrown together and the
total score is recorded.
a) How many different scores are possible ?
b) What is the probability of getting a total of 7 ?

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41. At a fete, cards bearing numbers 1 to 1000, one number on one card, are put in a box.
Each player selects one card at random and that card is not replaced. If the selected card
has a perfect square greater than 500, the player wins a prize. What is the probability that
(a) the first player wins a prize?
(b) the second player wins a prize, if the first has won?
CASE STUDY BASED
42. Dengue is one of the most prevalent public health issues in India. Over the decades,
dengue has flourished dramatically.
In a hospital there are 200 beds for patients. Of these 120 are occupied by males and
remaining by females. 20% of the males and 40% of the females are suffering from
malaria and rest of them from Dengue. If a patient is selected at random, find the
probability that he/she is :
(i) Female patient.
(ii) Male patient suffering from malaria.
(iii) Female patient suffering from dengue.
Answers (i) 2/5 (ii) 3/25 (iii) 6/25
43. A circular dartboard has sections numbered from 1 to 8 as shown below. Players have to
make a prediction and throw a dart. They win if their dart lands on the section that
matches their prediction.
Arya says, "My dart will land on a composite number."
Bashir says, "My dart will land on an even number."
Cathy says, "My dart will land on a number greater than 2."

Calculate the probability of each of their predictions occurring and determine who has
the highest chances of winning.
3 1 3
Answers: 8 , 2 , 4 Cathy has the highest chances of winning

ANSWER KEY

1. A
2. B

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3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. C
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. 8
14. 9
15. 8
16. 7/12
17. 1/8
18. 20
19. 5/6
20. 5/9

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21. 7/16 22. 5/12 23. 1/10; 1/30 24. 3/50; 75
25. (a) 𝑆 = {29, 92, 65, 56, 74, 47, 83, 38} (b) ½ (c) 5/8 (d) 0
26. (a) 1/4 (b) 3/4 (c) 3/4
27. (a) ¼ (b) 12/13 (c) 4/13 (d) 1/26 (e) 1/52 (f) 11/13
28. (a) 1/10 (b) ½ (c) 1/40 (d) 3/10
𝑥
29. (a) 0.88 (b) 0.96 30. (a) 18 (b) 8

31. 𝑆 = {𝐻𝐻𝐻, 𝐻𝐻𝑇, 𝐻𝑇𝐻, 𝐻𝑇𝑇, 𝑇𝐻𝐻, 𝑇𝐻𝑇, 𝑇𝑇𝐻, 𝑇𝑇𝑇}


(a) 3/8 (b) ½ (c) ½ (d) 7/8 (e) ¼ (f) 1
32. (a) 1/6 (b) 5/6 (c) 1/6 (d) 11/36 (e) 1/9 (f) ¼
33. (a) 6/7 (b) 1/7 34. (a) 2/7 (b) 1/7 (c) 3/7
35. (a) 1/7 (b) 6/7 36. (a) 2/7 (b) 5/7
37. (a) 17/25, (b) 1/50, (c) 8/25 38. (a) ½ (b) ¼ (c) ¾
39. (a) 1/5 (b) 12/65 (c) 3/13
40. (a) 6; 𝑆 = {0,1,2,6,7,12} , (b) 1/3
41. (i) 0.009 (ii) 8/999

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