MENTAL HEALTH MCQS

Psychology Quiz

1. Behaviourism, ‘the science of behaviour” was proposed by:

A. Sigmond Freud

B. Erik Erickson

C. JB Watson

D. Ivan Pavlov

2. What did Freud believe most, if not all, of all our behaviour?

A. Conscious experiences

B. Gestalt perceptions

C. The unconscious mind

D. Observable experiences

3. Who among the following would be LEAST likely to talk about

unconscious mind and conflicts?

A. Wundt

B. James

C. Watson

D. Wertheimer
4. Behaviour means:

A. Outward or overt action and reactions

B. Mental processes

C. Internal covert process

D. Meaningful thoughts

5. Operant conditioning was proposed by:

A. Ivan pavlov

B. BF Skinner

C. Sigmond Freud

D. Abraham Maslow

6. Which theory views that people have free-will and potential for self-
actualization?

A. Behaviourism

B. Psychodynamic theory

C. Cognitive theory

D. Humanism

7. Indian Psychoanalytic Society was established by:

A. Prof. S. M Mohisin
B. Dr. NN Sengupta

C. Prof. Girindra Sehkhar Bose

D. H.P Maiti

8. Which of the following specialization in psychology deals with diagnosis

and treatment of mental disorders?

A. Clinical

D. Developmental

C. Experimental

D. Personality

9. Gestalt is a German term meaning:

A. "Self- reliance"

B. "Good form"

C. "Internal conflicts“

D. "Meaning"”

10“ Cognitiv” Diss“nance as a Theory ”f the“Self wa” proposed by:

A. Leon Festinger

B. Abraham Maslow

C. Abraham Maslow

D. Eroc Burne
 Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) Quiz

1. Which of the following conditions is known to have the best response to

ECT?

A. Depression with suicidal tendency

B. Simple schizophrenia

C. Paranoid schizophrenia

D. Obsessive compulsive disorder

2. The commonest side effect of ECT is

A. Dehydration

B. Dementia

C. Amnesia

D. Fractures

3. Which of the following is TRUE about electroconvulsive therapy?

A. Contraindicated in brain tumor

B. Requires more than 70 volts

C. Treatment of major depression

D. All are true

4. Best response to ECT is seen in

A. Catatonic schizophrenia

B. Paranoid schizophrenia

C. Hebiphreniac Schizophrenia

D. Simple schizophrenia

E. Residual schizophrenia
5. Which of the following component is least important in ECT?

A. Voltage and amperage of current

B. AC or DC current

C. Duration of current

D. Interval and type of therapy

6. Which of the following parameters is TRUE about ECT?

A. 40-60 volts, 2 seconds

B. 80-90 volts, 0.01 seconds

C. 90-120 volts, 0.3 seconds

D. 120-150 volts, 3 minutes

7. Which of the following characteristics is associated with unilateral ECT?

A. Less amnesia

B. High voltage current

C. Rapid improvement

D. Effective in schizophrenia

8. Absolute contraindication for ECT is

A. Pregnancy

B. Lactation

C. Old gae

D. Raised intracranial pressure

9. Advantages of unilateral ECT include

A. More effective than bilateral ECT

B. More prefferable in schizophrenua

C. Less number of treatments

D. Less confusion and amnesia

10. Use of succinylecholine in ECT is

A. Safer than curare

B. May cause prolonged apnea

C. Reduces possibility of fractures

D. All are true

11. Less memory disturbance is seen with

A. Bilateral ECT

B. Unilateral ECT

C. Direct ECT

D. Modified ECT

Psychotherapy Quiz

1. Systematic desensitization consist of following steps, except:

A. Relaxation training

B. Hierarchy construction

C. Desensitization of stimulus

D. Resolving unconscious conflicts

2. The patient should try and say everything that comes into his mind without
self-control or censure, is a fundamental rule in

A. Interpersonal psychotherapy

B. Cognitive behavioural psychotherapy

C. Long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy

D. Acceptance and commitment therapy

3. Who is considered as father of group therapy?

A. Joseph Wolpe

B. Aron Bech

C. SIgmond Freud

D. Joseph Pratt

4. Who is NOT related to group therapy?

A. Kurt Lewin

B. Yalom

C. H.S Sullivan

D. Juan

5. An effective therapy for sexual dysfunction was developed by

A. Masters & Johnson

B. Alfred Adler

C. Kurt Lewin

D. Aron Beck

6. Who is NOT related to behaviour therapy?

A. Joseph Wolpe

B. Watson

C. Ivan Pavlov

D. Melanie Klein

7. Which of the following therapy is based on learning theory?

A. Logotherapy

B. Psychoanalysis

C. Behaviour therapy

D. Interpersonal therapy

8. Which of the following is considered to be most effective and treatment of

choice for phobic disorders?

A. Behaviour therapy

B. Interpersonal psychotherapy

C. Family therapy

D. Psychoanalysis

9. Behaviour psychotherapy techniques include all, except

A. Exposure

B. Modelling

C. Response prevention
D. Reinforcement schedules

E. Free association

10. A psychotherapy technique effective in obsessive ruminations is

A. Exposure

B. Thought stopping

C. Flooding

D. Sensitization

11. The cognitive triad of depression, negative views of self, the world, and
future, was explained by

A. Aron Beck (1967)

B. Frankl (1988)

C. Joseph Wolpe

D. Winnicott

12. According to cognitive psychotherapy, cognitive phenomena which

determine psychopathology are all, except:

A. Automatic thoughts

B. Cognitive distortions

C. Schemata

D. Basic Instincts
13. 'Socratic questioning' as a tool for therapeutic process is employed in

A. Psychodynamic psychotherapy

B. Logotherapy

C. Behaviour therapy

D. Cognitive psychotherapy

14. 'Enmeshment, homeostasis, circular causality' are concepts related to

A. System approach to couple therapy

B. Psychodynamic couple therapy

C. Behaviour approach to couple therapy

D. Cognitive behavioural approach to couple therapy

15. Which is NOT true about psychoanalytic psychotherapy?

A. Insight-oriented

B. Consider disorders as arising from unresolved conflicts

C. Focused on past

D. Emphasize modeling and operant conditioning

E. Long-term duration

Biological psychiatry

1. Which of the following manifestations is associated with a raised level of

cortosone and ACTH?

A. Schizophrenia

B. Affective disturbances

C. Confusion

D. Dementia

2. An important part of the limbic system, a cortical region that regulates

motivation, emotion, learning, and memory.

A. Corpus callosum

B. Basal ganglia

C. Hippocampus

D. Cerebral cortex

3. Recognized functions of reticular activating system includes

A. Sleep and arousal

B. Fine motor skills

C. Memory and higher order thinking

D. Vision and recognition

4. The limbic system regulates

A. Sex and mating activity

B. Fighting and fleeing

C. Feeding

D. Aggression

E. All of the above

5. Which of the following conditions have the best evidence for brain
dysfunction?

A. Delirium

B. Simple phobia

C. Generalized anxiety disorder

D. Brief psychotic disorder

6. The monoamines neurotransmitters are all the following except:

A. Serotonin

B.N orepinephrine

C. Dopamine

D. GABA

7. Brain neurotransmitter serotonin is produced from:

A. Raphe nuclei

B. Substantia niagra

C. locus ceruleus
D. Amygdala

y
8. Dopamine pathways in the brain include all except:

A. Nigrostriatal pathway
B. Mesocorticolimbic pathway
C. Mesopontine complex
D. Tuberohypophyseal pathway

9. The catecholamines are synthesized from the amino acid:

A. Alanine
B. Tyrosine
C. Taurine
D. Glycine

10. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT an amine:

A. dopamine

B. norepinephrine

C. serotonin

D. glutamate
Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) Quiz – 1

1. The first use of convulsive therapy for the treatment of a psychiatric

disorder in modern times is attributed to

A. Ladislaus von Meduna

B. A. E. Bennett

C. Egas Moniz

D. Kurt Schneider

2. The first therapeutic use of electrically induced seizures in the treatment of

mental disorders is related to

A. Harold Sackeim

B. Luigi Bini and Ugo Cerletti

C. D. Goldman

D. G. Holmberg and S. Thesieff

3. The sequece of administration of medications in anesthesia for ECT is:

A. Atropine---thiopentone/methohexitol---succinylcholine

B. Succinylcholine---atropine---thiopentone/methohexitol

C. Atracurium---succinylcholine---atropine

D. Atropine--- succinylecholine---thiopentone/methohexitol

4. As per the current evidence, which statement is NOT correct?

A. Bilateral ECT is superior in efficacy to unilateral ECT.

B. Unilateral ECT is more likely to cause cognitive deficits.

C. Brief-pulse ECT delivery is associated with decreased cognitive deficits.

D. Unilateral ECT is administered to the non-dominant hemisphere

5. Which of the following drugs is associated with lower seizure thresholds
when administering ECT?

A. Lithium

B. Anticonvulsants

C. Benzodiazepines

D. Barbiturates

6. What is the minimum seizure duration required for effectiveness of ECT?

A. 1 to 3 seconds

B. 5 to 10 seconds

C. 30 to 90 seconds

D. 180 to 200 seconds

7. What is the best accepted placement of electrodes in unilateral ECT?

A. Bifrontotemporal

B. Paritotemporal

C. Occipital

D. D'Elia position

8. What is considered as the gold standard for confirmation of seizure in

ECT?

A. Cuff method
B. Electroencephalography (EEG)

C. Electromyogram (EMG)

D. Galvanic Skin Response (GSR)

9. What is the average mortality rate with ECT (modified)?

A. 3-4 per 100,000

B. 10-25 per 100,000

C. 10-20 per 10,000

D. 50-60 per 1000,00

10. Factors predisposing to postictal confusional state include, all EXCEPT:

A. Sine wave ECT

B. High-dose ECT

C. Existing CNS disease

D. Multiple ECT

E. A younger age group

11. Which is the best unit for quantification of ECT stimuli?

A. Millicoulombs (mC)

B. Joules

C. Watts

D. Volt
12. Which of the following is NOT a recommended preparation for ECT
procedure?

A. Informed consent in writing

B. Pre-ECT investigations

C. Morning bath, cleaning the oil from the head, overnight fast

D. Premedication with an anticholinergic agent

E. Administration of an anticonvulsant 30 minutes before ECT

13. The most common indication of ECT is:

A. Schizophrenia

B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

C. Manic episodes

D. Major depression

14. rTMS is found to have antidepressant properties when applied to

A. Temporal– parietal regions of the cortex

B. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC)

C. Occipital cortex

D. Parieto-occipital cortex

15. The most persistent adverse effect of ECT is

A. Retrograde amnesia

B. Fractures

C. Seizures

D. Hypertension

Biological psychiatry - 4

1. Brodmann's area 46 refers to:

A. Primary motor cortex

B. Primary auditory cortex

C. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

D. Primary visual cortex

Answer Key
2. The neuronal fibre bundles connecting opposite hemispheres are called:

A. Association fibers

B. Commissural fibers

C. Afferent fibres

D. Efferent fibres

Answer Key
3. The brain area involved in receptive language functions that are localized
to the left hemisphere is called:
A. Wernicke's area

B. Broca’s area

C. Cuadate Nucleus

D. Hippocampus

Answer Key
4. The cerebellum is located in the:

A. Middle cranial fossa

B. Posterior cranial fossa

C. Anterior cranial fossa

D. Cella tursica

Psychopharmacology

PsychopharmacologyPsychopharmacologAnswer Key
1. The usual dose range of trifluperazine is:

A. 100-1000 mg/day
B. 10-30 mg/day
C. 2-8 mg/day
D. 80-160 mg/day

Answer Key
2. Depot preparation for which of the following drugs is not available:

A. Haloperidol
B. Fluphenazine
C. Flupenthixol
D. Pimozide

3. Which is not an anticholinegic:

A. Trihexiphenidyl
B. Procyclidine
C. Buspirone
D. Benztropine

4. Fluoxamine belong to which class of drug:

A. TCAs
B. SSRIs
C. MAOIs
D. SNRIs

5. A psychotropic drug commonly used in Tourette disorder is:

A. Haloperidol
B. Phenelzine
C. L-tryptophan
D. Mianserin

6. The reference TCA, against which new antidepressants are tested in

clinical trials is:

A. Clomipramine
B. Amoxapine
C. Imipramine
D. Dothiepin

7. The commonly used TCA in obsessive compulsive disorder is:

A. Amitryplyline
B. Clomipramine
C. Nortryptyline
D. Dothiepin

8. Which drug in the SSRI group of antidepressant has a half-life of 2-4 days:

A. Paroxetine
B. Escitalopram
C. Sertraline
D. Fluoxetine

9. Varenicline is a:

A. Atypical antipsychotic
B. Nicotine receptor antagonist for nicotine dependence
C. Antidepressant
D. Hypnotic without hangover effect

10. A drug which is postulated to be an inhibitor of dopamine-β-hydroxylase,

which catalyzes the conversion of dopamine into norepinephrine,leads to an
increase in brain dopamine levels:

A. Disulfiram
B. Phenelezine
C. Aripiprazole
D. Desipramine

11. Who first proposed that lithium has antimanic properties?

A. John Cade
B. Delay and Denikar
C. Eagaz Moniz
D. Hippocrates

12. Which of the following term refers to the way the body handles the drug?

A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacoceutics
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Pharmacotherapeutics

13. Rivastigmine belongs to

A. Inorganic ions
B. MAOIs
C. Butyrophenones
D. Stimulants
E. Cholinesterase Inhibitors

14. Which of the following statements about benzodiazepines is WRONG?

A. BDZs suppress REM sleep

B. BDZs prolongs REM sleep
C. BDZs interact strongly with alcohol to produce CNS depression
D. BDZs raise the ECT seizure threshold

15. The most important adverse effect of Zopiclone is:

A. Dependence
B. Bitter taste
C. Convulsion
D. EPS
E. Sedation

Personality Disorder
1. According to DSM-IV-TR classification, antisocial personality disorders is
classified under

A. Cluster-A

B. Cluster-B

C. Cluster-C

D. Cluster-D

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of schizotypal personality

disorder?

A. Inappropriate, inconsistent affect

B. Odd eccentric appearance/behaviour

C. Odd beliefs or magical thinking

D. Excessive sensitiveness to set backs and rebuffs

3. Pathological fire-setting is also called

A. Pyromania

B. Kleptomania

C. Trichotillomania

D. Dipsomania

4. Which of the following drug is found to be effective in intermittent

explosive disorders?

A. Fluoxetine

B. Topiramate

c. Fluoxamine

D. Carbamazepine

5. As per DSM-IV-TR classification, personality disorders with odd and

eccentric behaviours are classified under

A. Cluster - A

B. Cluster- B

C. Cluster- C

D. Cluster- E

6. Which of the following condition is not classified under personality

disorders in ICD-10 classification?

A. Paranoid

B. Schizoid

C. Schizotypal

C. Dissocial

7. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by

A. Callous unconcern for feelings of others

B. Self-dramatization, theatricality
C. Ideas of grandiosity and inflated sense of self-importance

D. Significant and persistent disturbances of identity of self.

8. Incapacity to experience guilt and to profit from experience, particularly

punishment is seen in

A. Antisocial personality disorder

B. Schizotypal personality disorder

C. Schizoid personality disorders

D. Dependent personality disorder

9. Which of the following instrument is related to assessment of personality

traits?

A. BPRS

B. PANSS

C. MMSE

D. AIMS

E. MMPI

10. Trichotillomania refers to

A. Pathological fire-setting

B. Pathological-stealing

C. Compulsive-hair pulling
D. Compulsive-drinking

11. Which of the following is WRONG about personality disorders?

A. Relatively persistent traits

B. May show spontaneous exacerbations and remissions

C. Resistant to treatment

D. Results in dementia

12. A large percentage of cases of paranoid personality occur among people of

A. Average intelligence

B. Low intelligence

C. Subnormal intelligence

D. Superior intelligence

13. Personality with traits disciplined, parsimonious, punctuality, liking

cleanliness is

A. Paranoid

B. Anankastic

C. Antisocial

D. Schizoid

14. The following features are characteristics of antisocial (dissocial)

personality, except
A. Pleasure seeking

B. Inability to work under supervision

C. Deep emotional relationship

D. Drug abuse and alcohol dependence

15. Antisocial personality disorders are characterized by all, except

A. Low frustration tolerance

B. Drug abuse

C. Learning from past experience

D. Criminal activities

Bipolar Quiz – 1

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of manic episode?

A. Elevated, expansive, irritable mood

B. Increased psychomotor activity

C. Thought echo, thought insertion or thought withdrawal

D. Flight of ideas

2. Somatic syndrome in depression as per ICD-10 include:

A. Significant decrease in appetite or weight

B. Early morning awakening

C. Diurinal variation

D. Psychomotor aggitation

E. All the above

3. Mood-congruent psychotic features in depressed patients include all,

EXCEPT:

A. Nihilistic delusions

B. Delusion of guilt

C. Delusion of poverty

D. Delusion of love

4. Which is the most appropriate ICD-10 diagnosis for a patient admitted

with current episode of moderate depression and history of two manic
episodes in the past?

A. Bipolar affective disorders current episode moderate depression

B. Recurrent depressive disorder

C. Manic-depressive psychosis- depression

D. Moderate depression

5. Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic entity in ICD-10 classification?

A.Bipolar affective disorders

B. Recurrent depressive disorders

C. Recurrent manic disorders

D. Dysthymia

6. ____________ is a disorder charecterised by persistent depressive features,

not amounting to depressive disorder, which last for more than 2 years?

A. Cyclothymia

B. Dysthymia

C. Melancholia

D. Euthymia

7. ______________ is a poor prognostic factor in mood disorders.

A. Acute or abrupt onset of illness

B. Typical Clinical Features

C. Well-adjusted premorbid-personality

D. Comorbid personality disorders

8. The therapeutic blood level of sodium valproate in mood disorders is

A. 0.8 - 1.2 mEq/L

B. 10 - 20 mEq/L

C. 20 - 40 mcg/mL

D. 45 and 100 mcg/mL

9. Mania represents a ______________ to depression according to

psychodynamic theory.

A. Reaction formualtion

B. Repression

C. Sublimation

D. Displacement

10. ______________ is a tricyclic antidepressant drug.

A. Escitalopram

B. Imipramine

C. Paroxetine

D. Fluoxetine

11. Which of the following antidepressant is known for its high

anticholinergic side effects?

A. Mirtazapine

B. Sertraline

C. Amitriptyline

D. Fluoxetine

12. ECT is indicated in which of the following conditions?

A. Severe depression

B. Hypomania
C. Autistic disorders

D. Tourette ssyndrome

13. The usual therapeutic dose range of lithium carbonate in the treatment of
bipolar disorders is:

A. 30-60 mg/day

B. 900-1500 mg/day

C. 2000-3000 mg/day

D. 15-30 mg/day

14. Therapeutic blood level of lithium is:

A. 11 to 20 mg/dL

B. 1.5 to 2 mEq/L

C. 0.8 to 1.2 mEq/L

D. 150 to 200 mg/dL

15. ______________ is a clinical term used to explain a major depressive

disorder superimposed on an underlying dysthymia.

A. Agitated depression

B. Double depression

C. Secondary depression

D. Neurotic depression
 Substance use disorders Quiz

1. The drug of choice in the management of alcohol withdrawal is

A. Barbiturates

B. Benzodiazepines

C. Disulfiram

D. Acamprosate

2. Which of the following is the most dependence-producing derivative of

opium?

A. Meperidine

B. Diphenoxylate

C. Methadone

D. Heroin

3. Common street name of cocaine is

A. Smack

B. Brown sugar

C. Crack
D. Angel dust

4. Which of the following is known to cause disulfiram-ethanol like reaction?

A. Propranolol

B. Haloperidol

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Metronidazole

5. Which of the following is NOT a cannabis preparation?

A. Smack

B. Charas

C. Ganja

D. Hashish

6. Elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV) value is an indicator of

A. Thiamine deficiency

B. Nicotine dependence

C. Alcohol dependence

D. Opium dependence

7. Which of the following term is NOT used in ICD-10 classification on

substance use disorders?

A. Acute intoxication

B. Harmful use

C. Dependence syndrome

D. Addiction syndrome

E. Withdrawal state

8. Which of the following investigation is related to diagnosis of alcohol

dependence?

A. MCV

B. Serum CPK-MB

C. Serum Prolactin Levels

D. VDRL

9. Which of the following instrument is used for alcohol dependence

screening?

A. SANS

B. HDRS

C. T-BOCS

D. MAST

E. SCAN

10.GGT (gamma-glutyl transaminase) is elevated in

A. Cannabis dependence

B. Nicotine dependence

C. Heroin dependence

D. Alcohol dependence

Anxiety disorders
1. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by

A. Free-floating anxiety

B. Acute exacerbation

C. Restlessness

D. Palpitation and dizziness

E. All of the above

2. Claustrophobia means fear of

A. Open spaces
B. Closed spaces

C. Height

D. Lizards

3. Agoraphobia is characterized by

A. Fear of lifts and heights

B. Association with schizophrenia

C. Often associated with panic attacks

D. Fear of closed spaces

4. Which of the following may be seen in dissociative

disorders?

A. Hallucinations
B. Delusions

C. Amnesia

D. Phobias

5. Respiratory alkalosis is seen in

A. Depression of respiratory center

B. Hysterical hyperventilation

C. Morphine poisoning

D. Obsessive compulsive disorders

6. Sudden "loss of memory" or "blackouts" related to

painful or humiliating experience is seen in

A. Generalized anxiety disorders

B. Obsessive compulsive disorders

C. Dissociative disorders

D. Bipolar affective disorders

7. La belle indifference may be seen in

A. Dissociative disorders

B. Phobic anxiety disorders

C. Schizophrenia

D. Bipolar affective disorders

8. Which of the following is characteristic of paraplegia

seen in dissociative conversion disorder?

A. No Babinski reaction
B. Deep reflexes present or exaggerated

C. No myoclonus

D. Paralysis of proximal muscles greater than peripheral

ones

E. All of the above

9. Which of the following may clearly differentiate

attacks of pseudoseizures and epileptic seizures?

A. Tongue biting

B. EEG recording

C. Preceding emotional disturbance

D. Leg movements

10. Psychogenic seizures are characterized by all,

 except

A. Dramatic staging

B. Preceding emotional disturbance

C. Presence of others

D. Frequent injuries

Bipolar Quiz - 2
1. Drug-induced Parkinsonism is most commonly presents in

A. Schizophrenia

B. Mania

C. Obsessive compulsive disorders

D. Phobia

2. Which of the following drugs precipitate depression?

A. Reserpine

B. Clonidine

C. Methyldopa

D. All of the above

3. Classical depression is characterized by all, except

A. Psychomotor retardation

B. Loosening of association

C. Retardation of thinking process

D. Pervasive mood of sadness

4. Insomnia in endogenous depression is

A. Early

B. Middle

C. Late

D. Total

5. "Learned helplessness" is typically seen in

A. Delirium

B. Dementia

C. Schizophrenia

D. Depression

6. In grief as in depression, there are similar features, EXCEPT

A. Loss of self-esteem

B. Sense of loss

C. Sadness

D. Loss of interest in outside world

7. A biological symptom which is NOT associated with depression is

A. Increased sexual interest

B. Diurnal variation

C. Sleep disturbance

D. Loss of appetite

8. Common risk of severe depression is

A. Fatiguability

B. Hallucinations

C. Thought block

D. Suicide

9. Treatment of choice in depression with suicidal tendencies is

A. Tricyclic antidepressants

B. Lithium therapy

C. MAO inhibitors

D. ECT

10. Which of the following is NOT used in resistant depression?

A. Low dose antipsychotics

B. Thyroxine
C. Lithium

D. Propranolol

11. Cognitive behaviour therapy is bet indicated in

A. Schizophrenia

B. Depression

C. Dissociative disorders

D. OCD

12. Average duration of untreated depressive episode is

A. 1 month

B. 9 months

C. 6 months

D. 3 months

13. Mania is a

A. Thouhgt disorder

B. Mood disorder

C. Personality disorder

D. Hypersexuality disorder

14. Which of the following disturbances is the basic defect in mania?

A. Ideas of reference

B. coining of new words

C.Delusion of grandiosity

D. Elation

15. The following are clinical features of mania, EXCEPT

A. Elation of mood

B. Disorientation

C. Pressure of speech

D. Grandiose delusions