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SFG Economy

The document is a test booklet for SFG 2025 Level 2 Test 1, containing instructions and 50 questions related to general studies and CSAT. It outlines the examination rules, including the marking scheme, responsibilities of candidates, and information on the test format. The test is designed to assess knowledge in various subjects, including economics and current affairs.

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33 views84 pages

SFG Economy

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sifovi7904

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SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T1 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 221151

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES & CSAT

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and
Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and
Name:
Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box Email Id:
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything
Mobile No:
else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

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[1]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

Q.1) Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP c) Both 1 and 2
do not connote a higher level of economic d) Neither 1 nor 2
development if:
a) industrial output fails to keep pace with Q.5) With reference to Payment banks in India,
agricultural output. consider the following statements:
b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with 1. They can accept demand deposits up to 2
industrial output. lakhs.
c) poverty and unemployment increase. 2. They cannot issue credit cards.
d) imports grow faster than exports. 3. They must maintain a minimum Capital
Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of 9% to buffer their
Q.2) In which of the following situations would risks.
opportunity cost be zero? Which of the statements given above are
1. When there is no alternative use for the good. correct?
2. When the economic cost of the good is zero. a) 1 and 2 only
3. When the good is a public good. b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given c) 1 and 3 only
below. d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only Q.6) With reference to micro economics, if both
c) 2 and 3 only the demand and supply curves for a good shift
d) 1, 2 and 3 rightward, how will the price of the good
change?
Q.3) In the context of Indian economy, consider a) Definitely Increases
the following: b) Definitely Decreases
1. India's embassies and consulates located in c) Definitely Remains Constant
the foreign countries. d) May not be determined
2. India's military stations in foreign countries.
3. Foreign embassies located within India. Q.7) Consider the following:
In the calculation of Gross Domestic Product 1. Bills Receivable
(GDP), which of the above are considered part of 2. Debtors
India's ‘Domestic or Economic Territory’? 3. Cash at Bank
a) 1 and 2 only 4. Finished goods inventory
b) 2 and 3 only 5. Raw materials
c) 1 and 3 only How many of the above assets are considered as
d) 1, 2 and 3 part of Working Capital of a company?
a) Only two
Q.4) Consider the following statements about b) Only three
Monopolistic competition: c) Only four
1. It refers to a kind of competition in which a d) All five
large number of competitors exist, and they
offer products which are similar but not Q.8) The Misery Index is an economic indicator
perfect substitutes. that measures the level of economic distress felt
2. In this type of competition, consumption by the general public. It is calculated based on
patterns of buyers determine the price at which of the following factors?
which the goods are sold in the market. a) Inflation and unemployment
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Climate change and natural disasters
correct? c) Fiscal deficit and public debt
a) 1 only d) Income inequality and poverty
b) 2 only

[1]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

Q.9) The Kuznets Curve represents the c) A decrease in direct taxes and an increase in
relationship between economic growth and subsidies.
income inequality. Which one of the following d) Both indirect taxes and subsidies are
statements best describes this relationship? increased in the same amount.
a) Income inequality continuously decreases
with economic growth. Q.13) In the context of Indian economy, consider
b) Income inequality continuously increases the following statements:
with economic growth. Statement I: The GDP deflator is generally
c) Income inequality first increases and then considered a more comprehensive measure of
decreases with economic growth. inflation than the Consumer Price of Index.
d) Income inequality remains constant with Statement II: With respect to the GDP deflator
economic growth. the weight of basket of goods can change and
depends on the market value of the total
Q.10) With reference to Bharat Ratna Awards, consumption of each good every year.
consider the following statements: Statement III: The GDP deflator takes into
1. The recommendations for the award are account imported goods and services while
made by the Prime Minister to the President calculating inflation.
of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect
2. The number of annual awards is restricted to of the above statements?
a maximum of two in a particular year. a) Both Statement II and Statements III are
3. There is no monetary grant associated with correct and both of them explain
the award. Statement I.
4. Recipients of the award are permitted to use b) Both Statement II and Statement III are
"Bharat Ratna" as a prefix or suffix to their correct but only one of them explains
names. Statement I.
Which of the statements given above are c) Only one of Statements II and III is correct
correct? and that explains Statement I.
a) 1 and 3 only d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is
b) 1, 3 and 4 correct.
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.14) Which of the following best describes the
chain-based mechanism of GDP calculation?
Q.11) Despite being a high savings economy, a) It calculates the value of goods and services
capital formation may not result in significant produced this year using the fixed base year
increase in output due to- which is revised every five years.
a) weak administrative machinery b) It calculates the value of goods and services
b) illiteracy produced this year without adjusting it with
c) high population density base year only adjusting the changes in the
d) high capital-output ratio money supply.
c) It calculates the value of goods and services
Q.12) Which of the following scenarios would produced this year using the prices these
lead to an increase in the gap between market goods and services cost last year.
prices and factor costs while estimating national d) It calculates the value of goods and services
income? produced this year without adjusting it with
a) An increase in direct taxes and a decrease in the base year.
subsidies.
b) An increase in indirect taxes and a decrease
in subsidies.

[2]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

Q.15) With reference to Lepakshi temple, Q.19) Which of the following best describes the
consider the following statements: meaning of Potential GDP?
1. It is located in Tamil Nadu. a) The maximum level of output of an economy
2. It is dedicated to Veerabhadra, an predicted based on current government
incarnation of Lord Shiva. spending and fiscal policies.
3. The temple features fresco paintings b) The maximum level of output an economy
depicting scenes from the Ramayana and can achieve during a period of peak
Mahabharata. economic growth, regardless of inflationary
4. It has been recognized as a UNESCO World pressures.
Heritage Site. c) The maximum level of output an economy
Which of the statements given above are can produce when factors of production such
correct? as labor, capital, and technology etc. are fully
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 and efficiently utilized, without causing
b) 2 and 3 only excessive inflation.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) The actual level of output of an economy
d) 2 and 4 only during a specific financial year, adjusted for
inflation.
Q.16) When the marginal utility is zero, the total
utility is: Q.20) Which one of the following best reflects
a) at the maximum level. the meaning of the term 'Domestic Systemically
b) at the minimum level. Important Banks (D-SIBs)' in India?
c) zero. a) Banks that have secured customer
d) average of maximum and minimum utility. confidence owing to their robust
performance.
Q.17) Consider the following statements: b) Banks whose potential failure might disrupt
Other things remaining constant, the market the domestic financial system.
demand for normal goods might increase if: c) Banks exhibiting a higher return on
1. the price of their substitute goods increases. investment and lower Non-Performing
2. the price of their complementary goods Assets (NPAs).
increases. d) Banks which majorly operate within India and
3. the income of the buyer increases. are resilient to external shocks.
4. it is expected that the price of these normal
goods would increase in the future. Q.21) Which one of the following statements is
Which of the statements given above are true with regard to an economy which is on its
correct? production possibility frontier?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only a) The economy has to sacrifice some
b) 2 and 4 only production of one commodity in order to
c) 1, 3 and 4 only increase the production of another
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 commodity.
b) There is no limit or constraint for the
Q.18) The Easterlin Paradox is best described as: economy in the production of goods and
a) beyond a certain point, higher income does services.
not necessarily lead to greater happiness. c) The economy can produce more of one
b) beyond a certain point, rapid economic commodity up to a point without reducing
growth leads to higher levels of inequality. the production of any other commodity.
c) beyond a certain point, higher income does d) Its production possibility frontier is an
not necessarily lead to higher levels of upward-sloping curve.
savings.
d) beyond a certain point, higher income does
not necessarily lead to higher levels of
inflation.

[3]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

Q.22) Which of the following are included in the c) United Arab Emirates (UAE), Indonesia and
ambit of Gross Fixed Capital Formation in the Qatar.
Indian economy? d) Angola, Iraq and Ecuador.
1. Increments in livestock in respect of
breeding stock Q.26) With reference to Micro Economics, which
2. Intangible assets like softwares of the following best describes the concept of
3. Transactions which are part of intermediate Engel’s Law?
consumption a) As income increases, the proportion of
4. Durable goods in the hands of the income spent on food decreases.
households. b) As income increases, the proportion of
Select the correct answer using the code given income spent on food increases.
below. c) As income increases, the proportion of
a) 1 and 2 only income spent on luxury goods decreases.
b) 1 and 4 d) As income increases, the proportion of
c) 1, 2 and 3 income spent on necessities remains
d) 2 and 4 constant.

Q.23) Which one of the following is not a Q.27) In the context of free goods, consider the
parameter of the Global Gender Gap Index following statements:
published by the World Economic Forum (WEF)? Statement I: Air and sunlight are examples of
a) Economic Participation and Opportunity free goods.
b) Political Empowerment Statement II: Air and Sunlight are non-
c) Health and Survival excludable and non-rivalrous.
d) Employment Generation Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
Q.24) Consider the following statements a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
regarding the demerits of Gross Domestic correct and Statement II explains
Product (GDP): Statement I.
1. It does not differentiate between b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
developmental and non-developmental correct, but Statement II does not explain
government expenditure. Statement I.
2. It excludes from its calculation, the profits c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
earned domestically by foreign companies. incorrect.
3. It does not account for income inequality and d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
environmental degradation. correct.
4. It does not consider unpaid domestic work
like household labor and caregiving. Q.28) With reference to the Purchasing
Which of the statements given above are Managers' Index (PMI) in India, consider the
correct? following statements:
a) 1 and 2 only 1. It is prepared and published by NITI Aayog.
b) 2 and 3 only 2. It considers only manufacturing activity and
c) 1, 3 and 4 does not include services.
d) 1, 2, and 4 3. A PMI value above 50 indicates contraction in
the economy.
Q.25) Which of the following groups of Which of the statements given above are
countries are members of the Organization of incorrect?
the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)? a) 1 and 2 only
a) Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates (UAE) and b) 2 and 3 only
Iran c) 1 and 3 only
b) Saudi Arabia, Iraq and Qatar d) 1, 2, and 3

[4]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

Q.29) Which one of the following is an example Q.33) Consider the following statements about
of a price-ceiling? the Indian economy:
a) Fares charged by railways in India Between the Financial Year 2020-21 and 2023-
b) Maximum Retail Price printed on biscuit 24:
packets 1. the capital expenditure as a percentage of
c) Minimum support price for rice in India the GDP has been steadily increasing.
d) Minimum wages fixed by State governments 2. the Index of Industrial Production has been
steadily increasing.
Q.30) With reference to ANEEL (Advanced Which of the statements given above is/are
Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life) nuclear fuel, correct?
consider the following statements: a) 1 only
1. It uses the combination of radioactive b) 2 only
materials such as Thorium and Uranium to c) Both 1 and 2
produce energy. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It can be used efficiently in the existing
Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) Q.34) Consider the following steps:
in India. 1. Following a dovish monetary policy
3. It burns more efficiently and produces less 2. Discouraging investments in capital markets
amount of nuclear waste compared to 3. Increasing expenditure on public projects
conventional nuclear fuels. 4. Increasing tax rates on the income of the
Which of the statements given above are public
correct? Which of the given above are least likely to be
a) 1 and 2 only undertaken in an economy when the economy is
b) 2 and 3 only facing a recession?
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
Q.31) Multipliers will be lower with which one of d) 2 and 4
the following?
a) High marginal propensity to consume Q.35) With reference to the Aral Sea, consider
b) Low marginal propensity to consume the following statements:
c) High marginal propensity to invest 1. It is situated between Kazakhstan and
d) Low marginal propensity to save Uzbekistan.
2. The two major rivers that drained into the
Q.32) Consider the following type of costs that Aral Sea were the Amu Darya and Syr Darya.
are incurred by a firm while producing and 3. The primary cause of the Aral Sea's drying up
selling goods: was a water diversion project initiated by the
1. Wages paid to workers former Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
2. Rent on land (USSR).
3. Commission paid to salesmen Which of the statements given above are
4. Cost of raw materials correct?
5. Loan repayments by the firm a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the costs given above are considered b) 2 and 3 only
examples of variable costs? c) 1 and 3 only
a) 2 and 5 only d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

[5]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

Q.36) The term ‘Middle Income Trap’ often seen b) When the value of exports is greater than the
in the news refers to: value of imports.
a) the direct shift of the labour force from the c) When the Net Factor Income from abroad is
primary to the service sector as seen in positive.
middle-income economies. d) When the total government spending is
b) the rapidly growing economies stagnant at higher than total tax revenues.
middle-income levels and struggle to attain
high income status. Q.40) Which one of the following statements
c) the belief in the middle class that they bear a correctly represents the teachings of ‘Maharishi
larger burden of income tax that is paid to Valmiki’?
the government, compared to the lower and a) Achieving salvation is possible through
higher class. conducting elaborate rituals.
d) the inability of the middle class to get the b) Individuals must renounce all their wealth
benefit of government subsidies, due to their and desire to achieve salvation.
income. c) Salvation lies in the moderate approach in
one's pursuit of religion, material wealth, and
Q.37) One of the following graphical personal desires.
representations of economics highlights that an d) Individuals’ knowledge about Atman and
increase in the per capita income of a country Brahman is a crucial path to attain Salvation.
does not cause much of a rise in the average life
expectancy of its population, after a certain Q.41) In National Income (NI) accounts, Personal
point. This is because there is a natural limit to Income (PI) is defined as?
human lifespan. Which among the following is a) NI - undistributed profits - net interest
that graphical representation? payments made by households - corporate
a) J-Curve tax + transfer payments to the households
b) Lorenz Curve from the government and firms
c) Preston Curve b) NI - undistributed profits - corporate tax +
d) Laffer Curve transfer payments to the households from
the government and firms
Q.38) Which of the following can be considered c) undistributed profits-net interest payments
to be feature(s) of perfect competition in a made by households + transfer payments to
market? the households from the government and
1. Free entry and exit for the firms firms
2. Firm sets the price of goods and services d) undistributed profits - net interest payments
3. Perfect knowledge with buyers and sellers made by households - corporate tax
regarding goods and their prices
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.42) Consider the following types of goods:
below. 1. Veblen goods
a) 1 and 3 2. Giffen goods
b) 1 only 3. Normal goods
c) 1 and 2 For how many of the above does the demand for
d) 3 only goods generally increase with the increase in the
price of those goods?
Q.39) Under which of the following conditions a) Only one
would a nation's Gross National Product (GNP) b) Only two
be higher than its Gross Domestic Product c) All three
(GDP)? d) None
a) When the inflow of Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) is greater than the outflow
of FDI.

[6]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

Q.43) With reference to Base year, consider the Passage I

following statements: Aging brings a unique set of challenges, from
1. The base year for GDP calculation in India health concerns to the emotional changes that
currently is 2022-2023. come with shifting roles in family and society.
2. It is changed periodically to capture the An approach that can help elderly people
structural changes in the country, experience peace and happiness is learning to
3. The Office of Economic Advisor, Ministry of live with a “sense of detachment”. Detachment
Commerce and Industry announces the base does not mean cutting off from life’s experiences
year periodically for India’s national or relationships. Instead, it is a mindset of not
accounts. clinging tightly to specific expectations,
Which of the statements given above is/are outcomes, possessions, or ideas. Detachment
correct? teaches us to appreciate without possessing, to
a) 2 only love without expectation of reciprocation, and
b) 1 and 2 to live without dependence but with a sense of
c) 3 only inter-dependence. This approach allows the
d) 2 and 3 elderly to feel more connected to themselves
and their surroundings, enjoying each moment
Q.44) Consider the following statements about without worry about what may come next.
Net Domestic Product (NDP) and Gross
Domestic Product (GDP): Q.46) Which one of the following statements
Statement I: In a functional economy, NDP is best reflects the central idea of the passage?
always less than GDP. a) The sense of detachment can help elderly
Statement II: Depreciation (consumption of people experience peace and happiness.
fixed capital) is subtracted from GDP to b) Ageing brings a unique set of challenges,
calculate NDP. including physical health and emotional well-
Statement III: Net Factor Income from Abroad being.
(NFIA) is subtracted from GDP to calculate NDP. c) Elderly, in the modern day society, must
Which of the above is correct in respect of the exercise detachment, cutting off from life’s
above statements? experiences, relationships and
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are responsibilities.
correct and both of them explain d) Clinging to specific outcomes, expectations
Statement I. or ideas may prove to be detrimental to the
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are well-being of the elderly people.
correct, but only one of them explains
Statement I. Passage II
c) Only one of the Statement II and III is correct The art of dressing is a very powerful way of
and that explains Statement I. expressing oneself. In ancient civilisations,
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is clothing was used as a way to signify which
correct. social strata a person was from. Today, the art of
dressing is multilayered and versatile. We have
Q.45) With reference to the history of early moved from the stiffness of English members-
medieval India, which of the following best only clubs to the relaxed opulence of art clubs.
describes the terms Herjunka, Bilkode, Kirukula, In India, we live amongst a diverse population
and Pannaya? with multiple dressing styles. While a faction of
a) Types of taxes society is luxury brand conscious, another is
b) Types of agricultural lands environmentally conscious and still another
c) Types of coins believes in comfort fashion. The modern world
d) Types of administrative divisions today spends time and effort on dressing and
making a statement. Just as a picture speaks a
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: thousand words, the outfit too can be a
Read the following two passages and answer the communicative conduit.
items that follow the passages. Your answers to
these items should be based on the passages
only.

[7]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 1 |

Q.47) Based on the above passage, the following

assumptions have been made:
1. Fashion consciousness is a symbol of
increased materialism in society.
2. Dressing is like an art which is used as a tool
of self-expression.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.48) Ram enjoys monopoly as a dealer of

ceramic pipes in Durgapur. He has kept the
price of each pipe to be proportional to the
square of length of that pipe. While delivering
one of the orders of one pipe, the pipe broke in
two pieces by accident. The broken pipes had
lengths in the ratio 4:9. Considering each broken
piece as a separate pipe, how much approximate
gain or loss will incur to Ram if sold separately,
with respect to the original price of the pipe
before the accident?
a) 31.77% loss
b) 42.60% loss
c) 57.40% gain
d) 68.23% gain

Q.49) Which of the following is the largest 5-

digit number that is exactly divisible by 28, 42,
and 56.
a) 99989
b) 99960
c) 99999
d) 99980

Q.50) Find the missing term in the following

series.
ADD, AFI, AIF, ?, BEF, BHI
a) BBE
b) BBC
c) BCD
d) BCC

[8]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T2 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 221152

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES & CSAT

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

[1]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital 3. It is allowed to raise funds by issuing bonds
currencies, consider the following statements: in the financial market.
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital Which of the statements given above is/are
currency without using the US dollar or correct?
SWIFT system. a) 1 only
2. A digital currency can be distributed with b) 1 and 3 only
conditions programmed into it such as a c) 2 and 3 only
time- frame for spending it. d) None of the above
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.5) The United Nations has named 2024 as the
a) 1 only International Year of Camelids to emphasize
b) 2 only their vital role in the lives of global communities.
c) Both 1 and 2 In this context, consider the following
d) Neither 1 nor 2 statements regarding ‘Camelids’:
1. All camelids have humps on their back.
Q.2) In context to the capital market in India, 2. All camelids are carnivorous in nature.
which of the following correctly explains the 3. All camelids have stomachs with three
meaning of ‘short selling’? compartments.
It refers to the selling of shares 4. Wild camelids are solitary creatures.
a) at a loss due to the fear of further decline in Which of the statements given above is/are
stock prices. correct?
b) at a price lower than their face value. a) 1 and 2
c) outside the stock exchanges. b) 1, 3 and 4
d) which the seller does not own himself. c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3
Q.3) Consider the following statements about
Cash Management Bills (CMBs): Q.6) Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the state Governments cannot issue Statement-I: Full reserve banking provides
CMBs. greater stability against bank runs than
2. The investments made by scheduled fractional reserve banking.
commercial banks in CMBs are eligible to be Statement-II: Unlike in Fractional Reserve
counted under their Statutory Liquidity Ratio Banking, in Full Reserve Banking the banks are
requirements. not allowed to lend out money that they receive
Which of the statements given above is/are from customers in the form of demand deposits.
correct? Which one of the following is correct in respect
a) 1 only of the above statements?
b) 2 only a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
c) Both 1 and 2 correct and Statement II explains Statement
d) Neither 1 nor 2 I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Q.4) Consider the following statements about correct, but Statement II does not explain
the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure Statement I.
and Development (NaBFID): c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of incorrect.
Finance, Government of India. d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
2. It primarily issues short-term loans to the correct.
corporates to meet their working capital
requirements.

[1]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Q.7) Consider the following statements: 3. Risa Textile Meghalaya

Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs): How many of the pairs given above are correctly
1. must be registered as special financial matched?
institutions under Banking Regulation Act, a) Only one
1949. b) Only two
2. cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves. c) All three
3. are not part of the Payment and Settlement d) None
System.
4. cannot accept demand deposits
Q.11) In the context of finance, the term “beta”
How many of the above given statements are
refers to:
correct?
a) the process of simultaneous buying and
a) Only one
selling of an asset from different platforms
b) Only two
b) an investment strategy of portfolio manager
c) Only three
to balance risk versus reward
d) All four
c) a type of systemic risk that arises where
perfect hedging is not possible
Q.8) In the context of primary capital markets,
d) a numeric value that measures the
which of the following refers to the actual
fluctuations of a stock to change in the
amount of money for which the company issued
overall stock market.
shares to the shareholders and payment was
made by the shareholders?
Q.12) Consider the following types of banks :
a) Authorised Share Capital
1. Foreign banks with less than 20 branches in
b) Paid-Up Share Capital
India
c) Subscribed Share Capital
2. Small finance banks
d) Issued Share Capital
3. Urban cooperative banks
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms set by
Q.9) With reference to banking sector in India,
Reserve Bank of India apply to how many of the
consider the following pairs:
above types of banks?
Ratio Indicates a) Only one
b) Only two
1. Credit Percentage of loans a bank c) All three
Deposit Ratio has issued relative to its d) None
total deposits.
Q.13) Consider the following statements in the
2. Liquidity The percentage of current context of Additional Tier-1 (AT-1) bonds:
Coverage Ratio and saving deposits in the Statement I: Investors investing in these bonds
total deposits of the bank. generally receive a higher yield than investment
in traditional bonds.
3. Provisioning Percentage of funds that a Statement II: They are perpetual bonds with no
Coverage Ratio bank sets aside for covering maturity date.
losses due to bad debts. Which one of the following is correct in respect
How many of the above pairs are correctly of the above statements?
matched? a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
a) Only one correct and Statement II explains
b) Only two Statement I.
c) All three b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
d) None correct, but Statement II does not explain
Statement I.
Q.10) Consider the following pairs: c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
Geographical Indication Associated
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(GI) tag states
correct.
1. Majuli Mask Assam
2. Rupa Tarakasi (Silver Odisha
Filigree)

[2]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Q.14) Which of the following is/are benchmarks 2. It is owned by the 63 central banks
that banks in India can use for setting lending representing countries from around the
rates under the External Benchmark-based world.
Lending Rate (EBLR) system? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Reserve Bank of India policy Repo rate. correct?
2. 3 months Treasury bill yield published by a) 1 only
Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd. b) 2 only
3. Yield on corporate bonds. c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code given d) Neither 1 nor 2
below:
a) 1, 2, and 3 Q.18) Which one of the following can increase
b) 1 and 2 only the money multiplier in an economy?
c) 1 and 3 only a) Increased banking habits of the people
d) 1 only b) Increase in the interest rates by Central bank
c) Higher cash reserve ratio (CRR)
Q.15) Consider the following sites in India: d) Increase in the yield of Government Bonds
1. Lonar, Maharashtra
2. Ramgarh, Rajasthan Q.19) With reference to the Securitisation and
3. Pandavula Gutta, Telangana Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
4. Morodharo, Gujarat Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI)
How many of the above are Meteorite Impact Act, 2002, consider the following statements:
Crater sites in India? 1. It is applicable only to scheduled commercial
a) Only one banks and does not cover cooperative banks.
b) Only two 2. The act provides the legal basis for the set up
c) Only three of Asset Reconstruction Companies.
d) All four 3. A borrower has the right to appeal against
actions taken under SARFAESI before the
Q.16) As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) within 30 days.
which of the following are among the criteria Which of the statements given above are
required for the transition of Small Finance correct?
Banks (SFBs) into Universal Banks? a) 1 and 3 only
A Small Finance Bank must: b) 2 and 3 only
1. have a minimum audited net worth of ₹1,000 c) 1 and 2 only
crore at the end of the previous quarter. d) 1, 2, and 3
2. must have its shares listed on a recognized
stock exchange. Q.20) With reference to the International Court
3. must maintain a minimum capital adequacy of Justice (ICJ), consider the following
ratio of 10%. statements:
Select the answer using the code given below: 1. It is a principal organ of the United Nations.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. Judges of the ICJ are not eligible for re-
b) 2 and 3 only election after their term expires.
c) 1 and 3 only 3. Judges of ICJ are not the representatives of
d) 1, 2, and 3 their respective national governments.
Which of the statements given above are
Q.17) Consider the following statements about correct?
the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial a) 1 and 2 only
Telecommunication (SWIFT): b) 2 and 3 only
1. It is a messaging system that facilitates safe c) 1 and 3 only
and secure financial transactions but does d) 1, 2 and 3
not settle such transactions.

[3]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Q.21) In India, the central bank’s function as the 1. It is a facility for Non-Resident Indians to
‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of deposit their earnings from abroad.
the following? 2. Both deposits into and withdrawals from the
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when account can only be done in foreign
they fail to borrow from other sources. currency.
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a 3. Under NRE Accounts, the Non-Resident
temporary crisis. Indians can only open Term deposit
3. Lending to governments to finance accounts.
budgetary deficits. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code given correct?
below. a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Q.25) Recently, the Reserve Bank of India
Q.22) In the context of Indian economy, consider released a report on the finances of Panchayati
the following: Raj Institutions for 2022-23. In this context,
1. Currency with the public. consider the following source of revenues of
2. Demand Deposits (DDs) with banks. panchayats:
3. Time Deposits (TDs) with banks. 1. Non-tax revenue.
4. Certificates of Deposit issued by Banks. 2. Tax revenue.
5. Deposits of international agencies such as 3. Grants from the Union Government.
the International Monetary Fund with RBI. 4. Grants from the State Governments.
How many of the above are included under the Which of the following is the correct decreasing
monetary aggregate of Broad Money (M3)? order in terms of their share to the total average
a) Only two revenue of PRIs?
b) Only three a) 4-3-1-2
c) Only four b) 4-3-2-1
d) All five c) 3-4-1-2
d) 3-4-2-1
Q.23) With reference to Reserve Bank –
Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS), 2021, Q.26) With reference to Urban Cooperative
consider the following statements: Banks (UCBs) in India, consider the following
1. It aims to provide cost-free redressal of statements:
customer complaints against RBI regulated 1. They are exempted from obtaining licenses
entities. from RBI for commencing banking
2. The Credit Information Companies come operations.
under the ambit of the scheme. 2. They can issue equity shares and preference
Which of the statements given above is/are shares.
correct? 3. They are not allowed to lend money for
a) 1 only agricultural purposes.
b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 and 3
b) 2 only
Q.24) With reference to the Non-Resident c) 2 and 3
External (NRE) Account, consider the following d) 1 and 2
statements:

[4]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Q.27) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Mudra In how many of the above rows is the given
Yojana, consider the following statements: information correctly matched?
1. It aims to facilitate collateral free loans of up a) Only one
to 1 crore to small and micro businesses. b) Only two
2. Under the scheme, commercial banks are c) Only three
mandated to provide a minimum 25% loans d) All four
to the agriculture sector.
3. Loans under the yojana can be issued by both Q.29) With reference to Operation Twist,
Commercial Banks and Non-Banking consider the following statements:
Financial Companies (NBFCs). Statement I: Through Operation Twist, RBI aims
Which of the statements given above is/are to reduce interest rates on long-term
correct? government bonds.
a) 1 and 2 only Statement II: Operation Twist of RBI involves
b) 2 only the simultaneous purchase of short-term
c) 1 and 3 only government bonds and the sale of long-term
d) 3 only government bonds.
Which one of the following is correct regarding
Q.28) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses various the above statements?
Monetary Policy tools to control the inflation in a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
the economy. In this context, consider the correct, and Statement II is the correct
following information: explanation for Statement I.
Monetary Description RBI’s b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Policy approach correct, but Statement II is not the correct
instrument to control explanation for Statement I.
inflation c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
1. Repo Rate Interest rate at Increase incorrect.
which RBI lends d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
money to correct.
commercial banks
by keeping Q.30) With reference to the recently added
collaterals wetlands from India to the list of Ramsar sites,
2. Reverse Interest rate at Decrease consider the following pairs:
Repo Rate which banks Wetlands Associated
deposit their states
funds with the
RBI with collateral 1. Karaivetti Bird Odisha
requirement. Sanctuary
3. Bank Interest rate at Increase
Rate which RBI lends 2. Magadi Kere Karnataka
money to Conservation Reserve
commercial banks
3. Aghanashini Estuary Kerala
without keeping
collaterals How many of the above given pairs are correctly
4. Standing Interest rate at Decrease matched?
Deposit which banks a) Only one
Facility deposit their b) Only two
funds with the c) All three
RBI without any d) None
collateral
requirement.

[5]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Q.31) For anything to be recognised as money, it b) Only two

needs to have which of the following c) Only three
characteristics? d) All four
1. Act as an intermediate in the exchange
process Q.34) Consider the following financial
2. Standard unit for quoting prices instruments:
3. Must be easily divisible 1. Options
4. Have higher value in alternative uses 2. Swaps
Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. Commercial Paper
below. 4. Futures
a) 1, 2 and 4 5. Forwards
b) 2 and 3 only How many of the above are examples of
c) 1, 2 and 3 derivatives?
d) 1, 3 and 4 a) Only two
b) Only three
Q.32) Consider the following pairs: c) Only four
Terms Description d) All five
1. Kerb Trading that takes place
Trading outside the purview of Q.35) Which of the following statements
exchanges after official trading correctly explains the term ‘Juice Jacking’,
hours. recently seen in the news?
2. Share Investment strategy wherein a) It is a type of cyberattack that uses email to
Warrants money is borrowed in a entice a victim to share his sensitive
currency with low interest information.
rates and reinvests the b) It is a form of cyberattack where hackers
proceeds in higher-yielding flood servers or networks with fake traffic to
assets elsewhere. exhaust resources and bandwidth.
3. Carry Entities which give buyers the c) It is a form of cyberattack where hackers
Trade right to buy shares of a manipulate public USB charging ports to
company at a specific price on steal data from connected devices.
a future date. d) It is a type of cyberattack that prevents or
How many of the pairs given above are correctly limits users from accessing their system.
matched?
a) Only one Q.36) With reference to the Corporate Bonds in
b) Only two India, consider the following statements:
c) All three 1. When a person buys a Corporate Bond, he
d) None gets a partial ownership in the issuing
company.
Q.33) With reference to the Reserve Bank of 2. As the market interest rate increases,
India (RBI), consider the following functions: generally the yield on corporate bonds also
1. Issuing commemorative coins. increases.
2. Collection and compilation of data relating to 3. A company incorporated outside India
foreign exchange reserves cannot issue corporate bonds in India.
3. Regulating all the Merchant Banks in India. Which of the statements given above are
4. Operating the NEFT (National Electronic correct?
Funds Transfer) system. a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above are functions of the b) 1 and 3 only
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? c) 2 and 3 only
a) Only one d) 1, 2 and 3

[6]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Q.37) In context to the digital payment Q.40) With reference to Mitakshara and
infrastructure in India, consider the following Dayabhaga Schools of Civil Law, consider the
statements: following statements:
1. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is built 1. In Mitakshara School, a son inherits a share
over the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) of ancestral property at birth, while in
infrastructure. Dayabhaga law, a son acquires ownership
2. ‘UPI Lite X’ allows for offline payments right on the death of his father.
without internet connectivity. 2. Mitakshara school is primarily followed in
3. The ‘UPI 123 PAY’ which is an instant West Bengal and Assam, while Dayabhaga
payment system for feature phones, allows a school is followed in the rest of India.
per day transaction limit of Rs.5,000. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.41) With reference to Convertible Bonds,
Q.38) With reference to the ‘Chit Funds’ in India, consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond
1. It is a type of pooled fund where members for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower
make periodical subscriptions to the fund. rate of interest.
2. Unlike a Nidhi Company, a Chit Fund 2. The option to convert to equity affords the
company can distribute funds both to its bondholder a degree of indexation to rising
members as well as outsiders. consumer prices.
3. Similar to Nidhi companies, Chit fund Which of the statements given above is/are
companies are regulated by the Ministry of correct?
Corporate Affairs, Government of India. a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 only
correct? c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 Q.42) With reference to Banking operations in
d) 3 only India, what is the primary objective of the
Variable Rate Repo (VRR)?
Q.39) In context to financial markets in India, a) To inject short-term liquidity into the
consider the following activities: banking system.
1. Impact Investing b) To give loans to banks without any
2. Front Running requirement for collaterals.
3. Circular Trading c) To provide long term loans to banks typically
4. Cross Margining with a tenure of more than 3 years.
5. Dabba Trading d) To provide loans to banks at an interest rate
Which of the above mentioned activities are lower than Reverse Repo rate.
prohibited in India?
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 5
c) 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

[7]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Q.43) Consider the following statements about a) 1

the Financial Stability and Development Council: b) 2
1. It is a statutory body. c) 3
2. It is headed by the Governor of the Reserve d) Infinite
Bank of India.
3. Its primary function is to frame the Q.48) If 'ROHAN' is coded as '96815' in a certain
guidelines based on which grants-in-aid are code language then what will be the code for
given by the centre to states. 'KIRAN' in that code language?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 29815
correct? b) 28755
a) 1 only c) 29915
b) 1 and 2 only d) 32145
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the
Q.44) Consider the following options: items that follow the passages. Your answers to
1. Deposits of Commercial Banks held with RBI these items should be based on the passages
2. Foreign Exchange Reserves held by RBI only.
3. Loans given by RBI to the Government
4. Currency notes issued by the RBI Passage I
How many of the above are assets of the Reserve Affirmative action began as a government
Bank of India (RBI)? remedy to the effects of long-standing
a) Only one discrimination against minority groups and
b) Only two consists of policies, programs, and procedures
c) Only three that give preference to minorities and women in
d) All four job hiring, admission to institutions of higher
education, the awarding of government
Q.45) India recently signed a trade agreement contracts, and other social benefits. The typical
with the European Free Trade Association criteria for affirmative action are race, disability,
(EFTA). In this context, which of the following gender, ethnic origin, and age.
groups of countries are members of EFTA?
a) Austria, Iceland, Greece and Iceland. Q.49) Which one of the following statements
b) Germany, Liechtenstein, Italy and France. best reflects the most logical and rational
c) Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and inference that can be made from the passage?
Switzerland. a) The educational and employment
d) Norway, Denmark, Sweden and Finland. opportunities of minority groups are largely
improved by governmental policies that give
Q.46) The perimeter of a square is equal to that them preferential treatment.
of a rectangle, and the area of the square is 1296 b) Affirmative action guarantees preferential
sq.cm. The area of the rectangle is numerically 8 treatment to minorities based on their race,
times its perimeter. What is the ratio of the disability, gender, and age.
longer side to the shorter side of the rectangle? c) Affirmative action is an active effort to
a) 4 : 3 improve employment or educational
b) 3 : 2 opportunities for minority groups and
c) 2 : 1 women.
d) 4 : 1 d) Government policies for preferential
treatment to minorities can remedy the
Q.47) Two natural numbers 'm' and 'n' are such effect of long-standing discrimination in
that their product is equal to 7 times their sum. society.
If m > 7, find the number of possible values of 'n'.

[8]
SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 2 |

Passage II
Last month, the Deep Carbon Observatory
announced an interesting fact: the mass of the
microbes living beneath Earth’s surface amounts
to 15 to 23 billion tons of carbon, a sum some
245 to 385 times greater than the carbon mass
of all humans. That’s amazing. A growing
number of papers published in the last decade
indicate that bacteria living – many of them in a
hydrated, active state -- in sediments, in rocks,
and in pockets and fissures buried deep
underground are old beyond belief – 300 million
years. They are not alive in the sense that the
bacteria in your gut are alive. Rather, dried up
and in suspended animation. To sum up, Earth’s
crust appears to be simply lousy with idling,
ancient bacteria parked in power-save mode,
ready at nearly a moment’s notice to throw the
gearshift into drive.

Q.50) Which one of the following statements

best reflects the most logical and rational
inference that can be made from the passage?
a) A number of papers claim the existence of an
amazing mass of microbes as old as 300
million years living inside the earth ready to
come to life at a moment’s notice.
b) In a shocking announcement, the Deep
Carbon Observatory said that the mass of
subterranean microbes and their age were
hundreds of times greater than those of all
humans.
c) Inside the Earth, microbes approach
immortality in a state of being almost dead,
but slightly alive and ready for revivification
at a moment’s notice.
d) Inside Earth, there is an amazing mass of
ancient bacteria parked in suspended
animation ready to spring to life even after
millions of years.

[9]
Page 1

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T3 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 221153

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES & CSAT

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.1) Which one of the following statements c) 1-4-3-2

appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”? d) 3-1-4-2
a) It is a massive investment by the Government
in the manufacturing sector to ensure the Q.4) Consider the following statements:
supply of goods to meet the demand surge Statement-I: Fiscal Drag may lead to reduction
caused by rapid economic growth. in the effective demand in the economy.
b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Statement-II: Fiscal drag increases the overall
Government to boost economic activity in tax burden on the taxpayers in an economy.
the country. Which one of the following is correct in respect
c) It is the Government's intensive action on of the above statements?
financial institutions to ensure disbursement a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to correct and Statement-II explains
promote greater food production and Statement-I
contain food inflation. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the correct, but Statement-II does not explain
Government to pursue its policy of financial Statement-I
inclusion c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
incorrect
Q.2) In the context of Union Budget, consider d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
the following: correct
1. Proceeds collected through imposition of
Capital Gains Tax. Q.5) Recently, the town 'Kulasekarapattinam',
2. Grants in aid received from foreign countries appeared in the news, in context of the
and multilateral banks. establishment of India’s:
3. Government borrowings through the a) dedicated astronaut training center.
issuance of Treasury Bills b) spaceport dedicated to Small Satellite
4. Fees paid by the citizens for use of services Launch Vehicles (SSLVs).
offered by the government. c) largest ground based telescope for
5. Recoveries of loans that were given to the astronomical research.
State Governments. d) multidisciplinary nuclear research Centre.
How many of the above are a part of the revenue
receipts of the Union Government? Q.6) With reference to the Sovereign Green
a) Only two Bonds in India recently seen in news, consider
b) Only three the following statements:
c) Only four 1. These bonds were launched with the
d) All five ambition to reduce the Indian economy's
Carbon Intensity.
Q.3) As per the Union Budget 2025-26, arrange 2. Only resident Indians are allowed to invest in
the following sources of government revenue in Sovereign Green Bonds.
ascending order of their share in the 3. The interest received on these bonds is not
government's total receipts: taxable.
1. Union excise duties Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Borrowing and other liabilities correct?
3. Income Tax a) 1 only
4. Corporation Tax b) 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given c) 1 and 3
below: d) 1 and 2
a) 1-3-2-4
b) 4-3-2-1

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.7) Consider the following statements: d) It generally involves the creation of assets
Statement-I: It is compulsory for the Reserve which may have little impact on the fiscal
Bank of India (RBI) to purchase government deficit although they can later increase debt
securities that remain unsold in the primary or reduce liquidity.
market.
Statement-II: The Reserve Bank of India acts as Q.10) Which of the following statements is
“Banker to the Government”. incorrect regarding the ‘State of the World’s
Which one of the following is correct in respect Migratory Species Report’, released in February
of the above statements? 2024?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are a) It was prepared by the United Nations
correct and Statement-II is the correct Environment Programme World
explanation for Statement-I. Conservation Monitoring Centre (UNEP-
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are WCMC).
correct and Statement-II is not the correct b) It was the first ever edition of the State of the
explanation for Statement-I. World’s Migratory Species Report.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is c) It says that over two-third of species listed in
incorrect. the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is are threatened with extinction.
correct. d) It indicated that the most significant threats
to migratory species are overexploitation and
Q.8) Consider the following policy changes: habitat loss, degradation and fragmentation
1. Increasing the tax rates caused by human activities.
2. Increasing the spending on welfare schemes
3. Increasing the investments in the Q.11) With reference to the expenditure made by
infrastructure sector an organisation or a company, which of the
4. Reducing the amount of subsidies given by following statements is/are correct?
the government 1. Acquiring new technology is capital
If the Indian government adopts a counter- expenditure.
cyclical fiscal policy during the boom period of 2. Debt financing is considered capital
the economic cycle, it follows how many of the expenditure, while equity financing is
above policies? considered revenue expenditure.
a) Only one Select the correct answer using the code given
b) Only two below:
c) Only three a) 1 only
d) All four b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q.9) In the context of fiscal policy, what are d) Neither 1 nor 2
“Above-the-line” measures?
a) It includes those measures for which full cost Q.12) In the context of the Indian economy, the
is reflected in the fiscal deficit, government Twin Deficit best refers to the simultaneous
debt, and increased borrowing needs in the occurrence of:
short term. a) Revenue Deficit and Fiscal Deficit
b) It is the measures taken by the government b) Current Account Deficit and Capital Account
to achieve fiscal consolidation in the long Deficit
term. c) Fiscal Deficit and Current Account Deficit
c) It includes borrowing by the government d) High Budget Deficit and high levels of Non-
bodies but is not included in the Performing Assets (NPAs) in the Banking
governmental debt and has no impact on the Sector
fiscal deficit.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.13) With reference to Fiscal Responsibility and c) 1-2-4-3

Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, consider d) 2-1-4-3
the following statements:
As per the act: Q.16) With reference to the Indian economy,
1. the Fiscal Deficit can exceed the prescribed consider the following measures:
targets on the grounds of national security. 1. Reducing off-budget borrowings by public
2. Fiscal Council has been established to sector enterprises.
suggest a debt and fiscal framework for the 2. Expanding the personal income tax base.
country. 3. Rationalization of food subsidy.
3. the Union Government is mandated to How many of the above measures contribute to
present the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement reducing the fiscal deficit?
with the Union Budget in Parliament. a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Only two
correct? c) All three
a) 1 and 3 d) None
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only Q.17) Which of the following concepts states a
d) 1 only country cannot simultaneously pursue the
targets of fixed exchange rate, Free capital
Q.14) Consider the following statements: movement and independent monetary policy?
Statement-I: Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB) was a) Earth Trilemma
first introduced in India in 2016. b) Impossible Trinity/Trilemma
Statement-II: The NK Singh Committee (2016) c) International Relations Trilemma
recommended fiscal consolidation mechanisms d) Financial Stability Trilemma
for India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect Q.18) In the context of the recommendations of
of the above statements? the 15th Finance Commission, arrange the
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are following parameters in the descending order as
correct, and Statement-II explains per their assigned weightage for determining
Statement-I. horizontal distribution of taxes among the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are states:
correct, but Statement-II does not explain 1. Demographic Performance
Statement-I. 2. Income Distance
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is 3. Forest and Ecology
incorrect. 4. Area
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is Select the correct answer using the code given
correct. below:
a) 2-4-1-3
Q.15) Consider the following: b) 4-2-1-3
1. Solar Energy c) 2-1-3-4
2. Wind Energy d) 4-1-2-3
3. Small Hydropower
4. Nuclear Energy
Which of the following is the correct decreasing
order of above sources in terms of their share to
total electricity generation capacity of India?
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 2-1-3-4

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.19) Consider the following statements about b) promote crop diversification and sustainable
the Small savings schemes in India: agriculture practices in identified districts.
1. Interest rates on the Small Savings Schemes c) provide direct income support to organic
are decided by the Parliament. farmers for various backward linkage
2. Deposits under the Small savings schemes requirements in Organic farming.
are credited to the Consolidated Fund of d) fight the menace of stubble burning by
India. encouraging farmers to sell their stubble to
3. Funds availed through the small savings biomass plants at fixed prices.
schemes can be invested in the government
securities. Q.23) Consider the following statements
Which of the above given statements is/are regarding the initiatives announced in the Union
correct? Budget 2025-26 for the agriculture and allied
a) 3 only sector:
b) 1 and 3 only 1. The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) credit limit
c) 2 and 3 only under modified interest subvention scheme
d) None of the above has been enhanced to ₹25 lakh.
2. A Makhana Board will be established in Bihar
Q.20) With reference to the recent regulations to promote makhana cultivation and
on surrogacy procedures in India, consider the processing.
following statements: 3. In order to give impetus to Atmanirbharta
1. A couple can have a child born through (self-reliance) in Urea production, a new
surrogacy if at least one gamete comes from urea plant with 12.7 lakh tonnes of annual
the intending couple. capacity will be set up at Namrup in
2. Currently, no single woman (widow or Dibrugarh district of Assam.
divorcee) is permitted to have a child Which of the above statements are correct?
through the means of surrogacy. a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only d) 1, 2, and 3
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.24) Consider the following statements about
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Ways and Means Advances (WMA) of the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
Q.21) In the context of the Indian economy, non- 1. Both central and state governments are
financial debt includes which of the following? eligible to avail funds under the scheme
1. Housing loans owed by households 2. Funds availed by the government under the
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards WMA mechanism are primarily to fund long
3. Treasury bills term developmental projects.
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. The limits of WMAs is decided by the RBI.
below: 4. The interest charged on WMA is generally
a) 1 only kept lower than the reverse repo rate.
b) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above are
c) 3 only correct?
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
Q.22) Recently announced in the Union Budget c) 2 and 3 only
2025-26, the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya d) 1 and 3 only
Krishi Yojana aims to:
a) give impetus to the food processing sector in
the economy.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.25) With reference to National Financial Q.28) Which of the following best describes the
Reporting Authority (NFRA) consider the aim of the Gyan Bharatam Mission, recently
following statements: launched by the Government of India?
1. It is a statutory body established under the a) Promotion of research and development in
provisions of the International Financial emerging areas like Artificial Intelligence.
Services Centers Authority Act. b) Documentation and conservation of India's
2. Chairperson of the Securities and Exchange manuscript heritage.
Board of India (SEBI) is its ex-officio c) Enhancement of foundational literacy and
chairperson. numeracy skills among students.
3. It monitors and enforces compliance with d) Development of skill-based vocational
accounting standards and auditing standards training programs for youth.
of companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.29) With reference to Indian Economy,
correct? consider the following measures:
a) 3 only 1. Implementation of Production Linked
b) 1 and 3 Incentive(PLI) scheme for the automobile
c) 2 and 3 sector.
d) 1 and 2 2. Removal of basic custom duties on lithium-
ion battery scraps.
Q.26) Consider the following : 3. 100% exemption from road tax on purchase
1. Fiscal deficit of Electric Vehicles by all Indian states.
2. Primary deficit Which of the above given measures has/have
3. Effective revenue deficit been taken to promote Electric Vehicles(EVs) in
4. Revenue deficit India?
5. Monetized deficit a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above deficits are part of b) 2 and 3 only
deficit statistics presented every year in India’s c) 1 and 3 only
annual budget? d) 2 only
a) Only two
b) Only three Q.30) Consider the following statements
c) Only four regarding tiger population and tiger reserves in
d) All five India:
1. India has more than two thirds of the global
Q.27) With reference to Indian Economy, wild tiger population.
consider the following: 2. More than half of the Tiger Reserves in India
1. Provident Fund Deposits currently have received a status of
2. National Disaster Response Fund Conservation Assured' Tiger Standards
3. Remittances (CA|TS).
How many of the above are included in the Which of the statements given above is/are
Public Account of India? correct?
a) Only one a) 1 only
b) Only two b) 2 only
c) All three c) Both 1 and 2
d) None d) Neither 1 nor 2

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.31) The proceeds from disinvestment are 3. The Union government’s total debt as a
included as? percentage of GDP has continuously
a) non-tax revenue increased between the Financial Year 2020-
b) revenue receipts 21 and 2023-24.
c) capital receipts Which of the statements given above is/are
d) tax revenue correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.32) With reference to Off budget borrowings b) 1 only
of union government, consider the following c) 1 and 3 only
statements: d) 1,2 and 3
Statement-I: Off-budget borrowings are not
reflected in annual budget document. Q.35) With reference to initiatives in the Union
Statement-II: Off-Budget Borrowings are loans Budget 2025-26 related to the MSME sector,
raised by Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and consider the following statements :
other government agencies. 1. The investment and turnover limits for the
Which one of the following is correct in respect classification of MSMEs have been increased
of the above statements? by 2.5 times and 2 times, respectively
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. The credit guarantee cover for micro and
correct, and Statement-II is the correct small enterprises has been increased from ₹5
explanation of Statement-I. crore to ₹10 crore.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct, but Statement-II is not the correct correct?
explanation of Statement-I. a) 1 only
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is b) 2 only
incorrect. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct.
Q.36) In the context of fiscal policy, a negative
Q.33) In the context of Indian Economy, ‘Interest Rate Growth Rate Differential (IRGD)’
consider the following items: likely indicates:
1. Treasury Bills a) Low government debt sustainability
2. Special securities issued against small savings b) High government debt sustainability
3. Securities issued to International Financial c) High fiscal deficit of the government
Institutions d) Low fiscal deficit of the government
4. Government-dated securities
How many of the above items are marketable Q.37) Consider the following sectors:
debt under the component internal public debt? 1. Defence
a) Only one 2. Education
b) Only two 3. Health
c) Only three 4. Energy
d) All four Arrange the above sectors in descending order
based on the allocation made to them under the
Q.34) With reference to Public Debt of Union expenditures proposed as per Union Budget
government of India, consider the following 2025-26?
statements: a) 1, 2, 3, 4
1. It refers to the total liabilities owed by the b) 1, 4, 2, 3
government, including both borrowings from c) 4, 1, 2, 3
domestic and external sources. d) 4, 3, 1, 2
2. India’s ‘Internal debt and other liabilities’ is
more than 90 percent of total public debt.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.38) In the context of economics, the term Q.42) Consider the following statement
‘Fiscal Neutrality’ refers to a situation where: regarding fisheries sector in India:
a) both fiscal and revenue deficits of the 1. India ranks first in the world in fish
governments are zero. production and aquaculture.
b) the adverse impacts of external events on the 2. The fish farmers are eligible for loan under
domestic economy is reduced. the Kisan Credit Card scheme.
c) taxation and government spending do not 3. The Union Budget 2025-26 has proposed to
have a net effect on the overall demand in set up, first of its kind, Fisheries and
the economy. Aquaculture Infrastructure Development
d) there is no crowding-out effect in the Fund (FIDF) to intensify development of
economy due to government borrowing. fisheries infrastructures in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q.39) Consider the following types of payments a) 1 only
by the Government of India: b) 2 only
1. Pensions given to old age people. c) 2 and 3
2. Education grants. d) 1 and 3
3. Grants-in-aid provided to the state
governments. Q.43) Consider the following:
4. Bailout provided to a company facing a 1. Salaries of Union government employees
potential bankruptcy. 2. Interest payments on the loans taken by the
How many of the above are commonly Union government
considered examples of ‘transfer payments’? 3. Loans by the Union Government to state
a) Only one governments
b) Only two How many of the above are part of committed
c) Only three expenditures of the Union Government of India?
d) All four a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.40) Recently the Japan Aerospace Exploration c) All three
Agency (JAXA)’s SLIM mission garnered global d) None
attention as the mission aims to:
a) demonstrate precise landing capabilities on Q.44) With reference to Indian economy,
the Moon. consider the following:
b) explore the possible reason for dark spots on 1. Fiscal Deficit
the Sun’s surface. 2. Revenue Deficit
c) survey the amount of Greenhouse gas in the 3. Primary Deficit
Earth’s atmosphere. How many of the above have been consistently
d) study the atmosphere of Saturn. declining for the period starting from the
Financial Years 2020-21 to 2023-24?
Q.41) Which one of the following expenditures is a) Only one
subtracted from Fiscal Deficit to arrive at b) Only two
Primary Deficit? c) All three
a) Defence expenditure d) None
b) Expenditure on subsidies
c) Interest payments
d) Pension

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.45) With reference to Stratospheric Aerosol Passage I

Intervention (SAI) method, consider the Many people dismiss social psychologists'
following statements: research on love, questioning the need for
Statement-I: It aims to lower the Earth's surface studies on topics like "Does effective
temperature by reflecting a portion of the communication lead to successful
incoming solar radiation back into space. relationships?" They assume that common sense
Statement-II: It involves the spraying of large already provides all the necessary insights into
quantities of Sulphur dioxide into the Earth’s love. Others believe that love is an unexplainable
lower stratosphere. mystery. However, these assumptions are
Which one of the following is correct in respect incorrect. Relying too much on traditional
of the above statements? beliefs passed down from caregivers or on
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are advice found in popular magazines may not
correct and Statement-II is the correct always be wise. Some widely held notions about
explanation for Statement-I. relationships are accurate, while others are
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are misleading or only partially true.
correct but Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I. Q.48) Which one of the following statements
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is best captures the essence of the passage?
incorrect. a) The focus should be on experiencing love
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is rather than questioning where knowledge
correct. about it comes from.
b) Since public opinion considers love a matter
Q.46) Suppose 'n' workers with equal efficiency of common sense, studying it scientifically is
can complete a job in 10 days. Also, (n + 6) unnecessary.
workers with 25% higher efficiency can c) Advice from family, upbringing, or
complete the same job in 5 days. If (n – 2) relationship literature is not always a reliable
workers with 25% lesser efficiency (as compared source of knowledge about love.
to the workers who completed the job in 10 d) Social psychologists must adopt a scientific
days) can complete the same job on which day? approach to educate people about love.
a) 14th day
b) 15th day Passage II
c) 16th day German sociologist Max Weber contextualized
d) 17th day the role of journalism in relation to academic
scholarship. He wrote: “Not everyone realizes
Q.47) Three non-negative consecutive integers that to write a really good piece of journalism is
are such that the sum of the smallest integer at least as demanding intellectually as the
and the cube of the largest integer is greater achievement of any scholar. This is particularly
than twice the middle integer by 6. Which of the true when we recollect that it has to be written
following can be the value of the largest integer on the spot, to order, and that it must create an
amongst the three consecutive intergers? immediate effect, even though it is produced
a) 2 under completely different conditions from that
b) 3 of scholarly research. It is generally overlooked
c) 5 that a journalist’s actual responsibility is far
d) 7 greater than the scholar’s.” While many
recognize the act of verification as the central
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: function of journalism, very few recognize
Read the following two passages and answer the journalism’s role of bearing witness to events. It
items that follow the passages. Your answers to remains the voice of the people.
these items should be based on the passages
only.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 3 |

Q.49) Which one of the following statements

best reflects the most logical and rational
inference that can be made from the passage?
a) Few realize that journalism and academic
scholarship are different in scope,
responsibility, and function.
b) The role and responsibility of journalism is to
report events instantly and act as a voice of
the people.
c) Journalism and academic scholarship though
intellectually demanding have different levels
of responsibility.
d) Max Weber contextualizes journalism and
academic scholarship at intellectual and
functional levels.

Q.50) A Question is given followed by two

Statements I and II. Consider the Question and
the Statements.
Question: If x, y and d are positive integers and
d is odd, are both x and y divisible by d?
Statements:
Ι. x + y is divisible by d.
ΙΙ. x – y is divisible by d.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above Question and the Statements?
a) The Question can be answered by using one
of the Statements alone, but cannot be
answered using the other Statement alone.
b) The Question can be answered by using
either Statement alone.
c) The Question can be answered by using both
the Statements together, but cannot be
answered using either Statement alone.
d) The Question cannot be answered even by
using both the Statements together.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T4 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 221154

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES & CSAT

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.1) With reference to casual workers employed a) 1 and 3

in India, consider the following statements: b) 3 only
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees c) 2 and 3
Provident Fund Coverage. d) 2 and 4
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular
working hours and overtime payment. Q.5) In the context of Indian Polity, consider the
3. The government can by a notification specify following statements:
that an establishment or industry shall pay 1. A foreigner can claim the Right to reside in
wages only through its bank account. India under Article 19 of the Constitution of
Which of the above statements are correct? India.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. A foreigner residing in India can claim the
b) 2 and 3 only Right to life and personal liberty under
c) 1 and 3 only Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.2) In the context of Indian Economy, consider a) 1 only
the following: b) 2 only
1. An individual aged 68 years and is actively c) Both 1 and 2
employed in a firm. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. A working individual aged 16 years.
3. An unemployed individual pursuing job Q.6) Consider the following pairs:
opportunities. Government Objectives
4. A retired individual receiving pension. Initiatives
How many of the above are included in the 1. U-WIN To provide telemedicine
country’s labour force? services to the people
a) Only one 2. E-Sanjeevani To create a digital vaccine
b) Only two immunization registry
c) Only three 3. Tele MANAS To provide mental health
d) All four services to people
How many of the above given pairs are correctly
Q.3) The Phillips Curve in an Economy illustrates matched?
the relationship between- a) Only one
a) Growth rate and inequality b) Only two
b) Tax rate and tax revenue c) All three
c) Population and National Income d) None
d) Inflation and Unemployment
Q.7) In an economy, the non-accelerating
Q.4) Consider the following statements inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU) refers
regarding the Right of Children to Free and to:
Compulsory Education Act, 2009: a) the lowest rate of inflation at which the
1. It provides the right to free and compulsory employment rate remains the same in the
education to all the children below the age of economy.
18 years. b) the highest rate of unemployment that can
2. It prohibits the detention of any student until sustain without causing a rise in the general
Class 8th. price level.
3. It prohibits conducting any screening tests c) the highest rate of inflation at which the
by the schools for admission of the children. employment rate remains the same in the
4. It prohibits the deployment of teachers for economy.
any non-educational purpose. d) the lowest rate of unemployment that can
Which of the statements given above is/are sustain without causing a rise in the general
correct? price level.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.8) Consider the following statements with a) Only 1

reference to the Household Consumption b) Only 2
Expenditure Survey (2023-24): c) 1 and 2 only
1. At all-India level, the urban-rural gap in d) 1, 2 and 3
Monthly Per Capita Consumption
Expenditure (MPCE) has increased since Q.12) Which one of the following statements
2011-12. best describes ‘Engles’ pause’?
2. In both rural and urban areas, expenditure on It is a situation where:
food constituted more than 50% of the total a) a rapidly growing economy stagnates for a
MPCE. short period of time due to structural
Which of the statements given above is/are changes in the economy.
correct? b) existing firms sell their goods at a low price
a) 1 only for a short period of time to prevent the
b) 2 only entry of new firms in the market.
c) Both 1 and 2 c) firms reap the benefits of new technology
d) Neither 1 nor 2 while real wages stagnate.
d) manufacturers cut down on new investments
Q.9) Navchetna and Aadharshila initiatives, following a contraction in the business cycle.
sometimes seen in news, are related to which
one of the following? Q.13) In context of Post-Independent India,
a) To strengthen the Early Childhood Care and arrange the following events in chronological
Education landscape. order:
b) Prevention of sexual harassment of women at 1. Establishment of Planning Commission
workplaces. 2. Nationalization of RBI
c) Capacity building and financial support to 3. Announcement of first Industrial Policy
women entrepreneurs in rural areas. 4. Enactment of the Industries (Development
d) Promotion of socio-economic welfare of the and Regulation) Act
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups Select the correct answer using the codes given
(PVTGs). below:
a) 1-2-3-4
Q.10) The Weimar Triangle, recently seen in b) 3-1-2-4
news, is a regional alliance of which of the c) 3-2-1-4
following groups of countries? d) 4-3-2-1
a) Denmark, Finland and Norway
b) United Kingdom, Scotland and Ireland Q.14) Consider the following objectives:
c) Poland, France and Germany 1. Providing direct monthly financial assistance
d) Italy, Spain and Greece to families with girl children below 18 years
of age.
Q.11) Which of the following statement(s) is/are 2. Supporting parents in promoting the
false? financial security of the girl child.
1. Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with 3. Ensuring proper nutritious meals to be given
representatives from workers, employers and to girl child.
independent members. 4. Providing skill-based training to school drop-
2. Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists out girls above the age of 14 years.
and Non-Journalists all the other wage How many of the above are the objectives of the
boards are statutory in nature Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY)?
3. The Second National Commission on Labour a) Only one
has recommended against the utility of wage b) Only two
boards. c) Only three
Select the correct answer using the codes given d) All four
below

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.15) With reference to Eurasian Otter, consider uniform all-India urban Poverty Line Basket
the following statements: (PLB), across rural and urban India.
1. They are mammals that inhabit both Which among the following committees is being
terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. talked about in the above given information?
2. They are mainly nocturnal and carnivorous in a) Alagh Committee
nature. b) Lakdawala Committee
3. They are declared as ‘critically endangered’ c) Tendulkar Committee
under the IUCN Red List of threatened d) Rangrajan Committee
species of flora and fauna.
Which of the statements given above are Q.19) Consider the following statements:
correct? Human Capital Formation as a concept is better
a) 1 and 2 only explained in terms of a process which enables:
b) 2 and 3 only 1. Accumulation of tangible assets
c) 1 and 3 only 2. Accumulation of intangible assets
d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Educating the population
4. On the job training of human resources
Q.16) With reference to the India's health sector Which of the statements given above are
during the Financial Year 2014-15 to 2021-22, correct?
consider the following statements: a) 1 and 4 only
During this period: b) 2 and 3 only
1. the Government Health Expenditure (GHE) c) 2, 3 and 4 only
as a percentage of GDP has constantly d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
increased.
2. the share of Out-of-Pocket Expenditure Q.20) Which of the following best reflects the
(OOPE) as in total health expenditure meaning of the term “Grey zone warfare",
constantly declined. sometimes seen in the news?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) Diplomatic negotiations aimed at resolving
correct? disputes between two or more nations.
a) 1 only b) An indirect warfare strategy by a nation
b) 2 only involving cyber-attacks, and misinformation
c) Both 1 and 2 to gain an advantage over the enemy.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Military operations conducted by nations in
tough terrain such as deserts and hills.
Q.17) Consider the following statements about d) An assault on other nations employing
the Yuva Sahakar Scheme: nuclear weapons.
1. The scheme is being implemented by
National Cooperative Development Q.21) Consider the following statements:
Corporation (NCDC). 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was
2. A cooperative society must have been originally initiated by the State Bank of India
functional for at least 6 months to be able to by providing microcredit to the financially
reap the benefits under the scheme. deprived.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take
correct? responsibility for a loan that an individual
a) 1 only member takes.
b) 2 only 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled
c) Both 1 and 2 Commercial Banks support SHGs.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
Q.18) This committee on poverty estimation b) Only two
recommended shifting away from calorie norms c) All three
to targeting larger nutritional outcomes in d) None
poverty estimation. It also recommended a

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.22) In the context of the Indian economy, 2. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce
which of the given below is most closely & Industry (FICCI) is the nodal agency for its
associated with ‘Golden Handshake’? implementation in India.
a) Merger of two profitable companies. 3. It specifically aims to increase the global
b) Voluntary Retirement scheme participation rate of women in politics to
c) Privatization of loss making State-owned 33% by 2030.
company Which of the statements given above is/are
d) Trade Agreement on Critical minerals correct?
a) 2 and 3
Q.23) In the context of Indian economy, b) 1 only
consider the following statements: c) 1 and 2
Statement-I: Poverty line estimation in India is d) 1 and 3
primarily based on consumption expenditure
rather than income levels. Q.26) Consider the following sectors:
Statement-II: Poverty line is not uniform across 1. Manufacturing
all the states in India. 2. Construction
Statement-III: There is difficulty in assessing 3. Mining and quarrying
income of self-employed people and daily wage 4. Trade, hotel and restaurant
earners and fluctuations in income due to Which of the following is the correct descending
seasonal factors. order of the above sectors based on their share
Which one of the following is correct in respect of total workforce they employ as per the recent
of the above statements? annual Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are reports ?
correct and both of them explain a) 2-4-1-3
Statement-I. b) 1-4-2-3
b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are c) 2-1-3-4
correct, but only one of them explains d) 1-3-2-4
Statement-I.
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is Q.27) With reference to Employees' State
correct and that explains Statement-I. Insurance Scheme, consider the following
d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is statements:
correct. 1. It is applicable only to the formal sector
employees whose monthly income is more
Q.24) “Temporary Unemployment when workers than Rs.30,000.
switch jobs or search for better opportunities.” 2. It is funded through contributions made by
The above statement best refers to: both employers and employees.
a) Structural Unemployment 3. It provides a monthly cash allowance for a
b) Frictional Unemployment duration of maximum 24 months in case of
c) Cyclic Unemployment involuntary loss of employment.
d) Disguised Unemployment Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Q.25) Consider the following statements a) 1 and 2 only
regarding the “Alliance for Global Good-Gender b) 2 and 3 only
Equity and Equality”: c) 1 and 3 only
1. It was launched at the World Economic d) 1, 2 and 3
Forum summit in 2024.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.28) With reference to labour policy in India, Q.31) Which of the following is/are the
consider the following about Minimum wage and objective/objectives of the Pradhan Mantri
living wage: Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)?
1. Minimum wage is the legally mandated 1. Correcting regional imbalances in the
minimum amount of remuneration to availability of tertiary health care services.
employees whereas living wage is the 2. Providing universal access to public health
minimum amount of income required to services and universal immunization.
afford a decent standard of living for 3. Augmenting facilities for quality medical
workers. education in the country
2. India is currently following the living wage Select the correct answer using the code given
system for employees at both the central and below.
state government levels. a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 1 only
a) 1 only d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.32) Which among the following were the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 reasons for the economic crisis in India in 1990?
1. Very high rate of Inflation above 13 per cent
Q.29) Which of the following best describes the of GDP.
term "Silver Dividend" seen recently in the 2. Higher Current account deficit of 1.5 per cent
news? of GDP.
a) A financial return on investments in silver- 3. Increase in crude oil prices due to the Gulf
based commodity assets. War.
b) The economic and social benefits gained Select the correct answer using the codes given
from an active and productive old age below:
population. a) 1 and 2 only
c) A financial incentive given by the government b) 2 and 3 only
to promote silver mining and export. c) 1 and 3 only
d) A special bonus given to employees in d) 1, 2 and 3
recognition of their long-term service and
dedication. Q.33) An increase in the Gini Coefficient of a
country best indicates which of the following?
Q.30) Which of the following best defines the a) There is a decline in inequality of income or
term "Poverty Gap Index"? wealth among the people of that country.
a) The difference in income and living b) There is an improvement in the living
standards between rural and urban poor. standard of the majority of the population of
b) The percentage of people who cannot meet that country.
basic consumption or income thresholds.. c) There is an increase in inequality of income
c) The percentage of individuals living below or wealth among the people of that country.
the poverty line despite work opportunities. d) The people of that country as a whole are
d) The measure of how far individuals' incomes earning less income than earlier.
fall below the poverty line in proportion to
the poverty line.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.34) Consider the following pairs: Q.37) With reference to the eShram portal,
Recent Their Objectives consider the following statements:
Government 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Social
Initiative Justice & Empowerment.
1. Nayi Chetna Addressing the issue of 2. It aims for the creation of a comprehensive
gender-based violence National Database of Unorganised workers.
2. Humsafar Promoting the social 3. The workers who are registered on the portal
Policy inclusion of transgenders are assigned with a unique Universal Account
3. Project Providing support services Number (UAN) to access social security
NAMAN for armed forces veterans benefits.
and their families Which of the statements given above are
4. Project Providing loans to Self Help correct?
VISTAAR Groups to establish micro a) 1 and 2 only
and small industries. b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly
d) 1, 2 and 3
matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two Q.38) The Union Budget of 2024-25 announced
c) Only three a new scheme for internship, named the
d) All four Pradhan Mantri Internship Scheme (PMIS). In
this context, consider the following statements:
Q.35) The term ‘Urea Gold’, sometimes seen in 1. Any Indian citizen between the age of 21 to
the news, is talked about in the context of which 30 years is eligible beneficiary under the
of the following? scheme.
a) The surging cost of Urea in India due to its 2. The interns under the scheme receive
extensive demand. monthly financial assistance of Rs 5,000.
b) The expanding trade deficit of India due to 3. The participating companies can use their
significant imports of Urea. corporate social responsibility (CSR) funds
c) A variation of urea fertilizer, coated with for expenditure under the scheme.
sulfur to combat sulfur deficiency in soil. Which of the statements given above is/are
d) A newly developed organic fertilizer that has correct?
similar positive effects on crops as Urea a) 2 only
fertilizer. b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.36) With reference to Indian Economy,
consider the following statements about self-
employed workers: Q.39) With reference to NPS Vatsalya Scheme,
1. More than half of India's workforce presently consider the following statements:
consists of self-employed workers. 1. Any person between the age of 18 to 60 years
2. The percentage of self-employed male can subscribe to the scheme.
workers out of total male workers is higher 2. There is no limit on the maximum
than the percentage of self-employed female contribution in the scheme.
workers out of total female workers. 3. The scheme is administered by the Pension
3. Self-employed workers are mandated to Fund Regulatory Authority of India (PFRDA).
enrol in the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF). Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? a) 2 only
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 c) 2 and 3
c) 2 only d) 3 only
d) 1 and 2

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.40) Which of the following statements is/are Q.43) Which among the following can be the
correct about findings of Global Multi- reasons for low employment elasticity in an
dimensional Poverty Index 2024? economy?
1. Globally over half the people living in poverty 1. Poor education and training system.
are children below the age of 18years. 2. Higher government spending in the
2. The people in rural areas are poorer than infrastructure activities and manufacturing
people in urban areas across the world. sector.
3. Niger has the highest absolute number of 3. Rapid technological advancements leading to
people living in multidimensional poverty. capital-intensive automation led industrial
Select the correct answer using the code given production.
below: Select the correct answer using the codes given
a) 1 and 2 below:
b) 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.41) Which of the following is/are not correct
about the Mother’s Absolute Affection Q.44) The term ‘cross-subsidization’, often seen
Programme? in the news, best refers to:
1. Allows all pregnant women to absolutely free a) Situation when higher prices are charged to
and no-expense delivery in public health one group of consumers in order to charge
institutions. lower price to another group.
2. Provides assured, comprehensive and quality b) A taxation policy aimed at redistributing
antenatal care. wealth through progressive taxes.
3. Promotes undiluted focus on breastfeeding. c) Wrongfully giving subsidies to one group
4. Provides medical and nutritional care to instead of another.
severely acute malnourished children. d) The mechanism of transferring surplus funds
Select the correct answer using the code given from one government department to another
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Q.45) Consider the following:
b) 2 and 3 only 1. A Person contesting Lok Sabha Elections
c) 1, 2 and 4 only 2. Editors and publishers of registered
d) 3 only newspapers
3. Government Servants
Q.42) The ‘Unemployment Trap’ can be best 4. Political Parties
explained as a situation where: 5. Registered Non-Governmental Organizations
a) economic hardships due to unemployment 6. Chartered Accountants and Company
hinders a person from acquiring new skills. Secretaries
b) a person is employed in a job which does not How many of the above entities in India are
fully utilize his/her skills and abilities. prohibited from accepting any foreign
c) an unemployed person is discouraged from contributions under the provisions of the
finding work because of unemployment Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act 2010?
benefits. a) Only three
d) a person stays unemployed for a long time in b) Only four
search of better employment opportunities. c) Only five
d) All six

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.46) A teacher distributes some five-rupee As for the students themselves, two similar
notes, some ten-rupee notes, and four twenty- scenarios await when the results are announced:
rupee notes to three of her students. The total one, where they are lauded by everybody from
amount that each boy receives is the same. How parents to teachers to friends, relatives and in
many minimum number of notes were rare cases, even the media and government.
distributed by the teacher in all? Two, where they suffer from depression,
a) 6 anxiety, panic attacks or even worse take further
b) 7 extreme steps.
c) 9
d) 10 Q.49) Which one of the following statements
best reflects the most logical and rational
Q.47) P, Q, R, S and T - sit in five different rooms inference that can be made from the passage?
- A, B, C, D and E. Neither T nor Q is in Room A. a) Parents associate their status with their
P and S are in Room B and Room C, in any order. children’s performances in the board exams.
Who is in room A? b) Poor results at the board examination may
a) P force students to undergo extreme stress
b) Q and anxiety.
c) R c) Board examinations are considered to be a
d) S gamble of children’s lives.
d) The stakes for board examinations are very
Q.48) Two cones are given such that the curved high, resulting in extreme emotions for
surface area of the first cone is four times that families and children alike.
of the second cone. If the slant height of the
second cone is twice that of the first cone, what Passage II
is the ratio of the areas of their bases? Biopiracy is emerging as a threat to indigenous
a) 16 : 1 knowledge. This happens when researchers’
b) 36 : 1 appropriate indigenous traditional knowledge
c) 64 : 1 without proper procedure, acknowledgement,
d) 81 : 1 or benefit-sharing agreement. For instance,
many Western companies are patenting
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: traditional medicines without granting due
Read the following two passages and answer the recognition to the indigenous communities
items that follow the passages. Your answers to whose knowledge systems went into identifying
these items should be based on the passages the active ingredients as useful for particular
only. ailments. A growing number of widely used
consumer products, pharmaceutical drugs,
Passage I cosmetics and handicrafts are derived from
Come March, and thousands of students in India traditional knowledge and indigenous cultural
play “the gamble of their lives” as they take their expressions. In the absence of a strong
board examinations. As usual, the stakes are very regulatory framework, traditional knowledge is
high. Through their performance, the students being ever more exploited for profit, for which
will either bring laurels or infamy to their there is an increase in aspiration and demand
families. If their performance is good, their from indigenous peoples for due protection and
parents would be able to boast about “my son, recognition of their traditional knowledge.
the engineer” or “my daughter, the doctor”. If
their performance is bad, there would be teary
eyes and barely-concealable shame and misery.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.50) Which one of the following statements

best reflects the most critical and logical
inference that can be made from the passage?
a) Appropriation of indigenous traditional
knowledge without proper acknowledgement
or benefit-sharing is biopiracy.
b) A number of consumer products,
pharmaceutical drugs, cosmetics and
handicrafts need legal protection from
biopiracy as they are derived from traditional
knowledge.
c) Western companies are engaging in biopiracy
for profit motives, without due recognition to
indigenous communities.
d) Indigenous communities whose knowledge
systems went into identifying the active
ingredients as useful for particular ailments,
demand protection from biopiracy.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

जब तक आपको यह परीक्षण पुस्तिका खोलने को न कहा जाए तब तक न खोलें

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T5 परीक्षण पुस्तिका अनुक्रम
Test Code: 221155

A
परीक्षण पुस्तिका
सामान्य अध्ययन एवं सी.एस.ए.टी

पूणाांक : 100 समय: एक घंटे

अनुदेश
1. परीक्षा प्रारम्भ होने के तुरन्त बाद, आप इस परीक्षण पुस्तिका की पड़ताल अवश्य कर लें कक इसमें कोई कबना
छपा, फटा या छूटा हुआ पृष्ठ अथवा प्रश्ाां श, आकद न हो। यकद ऐसा है , तो इसे सही परीक्षण पुस्तिका से बदल
लीकिए।
2. कृपया ध्यान रखें कक OMR उत्तर-पत्रक में , उकित स्थान पर, रोल नम्बर और पररक्षण पु स्तिका
अनुक्रम A, B, C या D को, ध्यान से एवं कबना ककसी िूक या कवसंगकत के भरने और कूटबद्ध करने
की कजम्मे दारी उम्मीदवार की है । ककसी भी प्रकार की िूक/कवसंगकत की स्तस्थकत में उत्तर -पत्रक कनरि
कर कदया जाएगा ।
3. इस परीक्षण पु स्तिका पर साथ में कदए गए कोष्ठक
में आपको अपना अनु क्रमाां क कलखना है । परीक्षण
पुस्तिका पर और कुछ न कलखें।
4. इस परीक्षण पुस्तिका में 50 प्रश्ाां श (प्रश्) हैं । प्रत्येक
प्रश्ाां श अंग्रेजी और कहं दी में छपा है । प्रत्येक प्रश्ाां श में चार प्रत्युत्तर (उत्तर) कदए गए हैं । इनमें से एक प्रत्युतर
को चुन लें , किसे आप उत्तर-पत्रक पर अांककत करना चाहते हैं । यकद आपको ऐसा लगे कक एक से अकिक
प्रत्युत्तर सही हैं , तो उस प्रत्यु त्तर को अांककत करें िो आपको सवोत्तम लगे। ककसी भी स्तथथकत में , प्रत्येक प्रश्ाां श
के कलए केवल एक ही प्रत्युत्तर चुनना है ।
5. आपको अपने सभी प्रत्यु त्तर अलग से कदए गए उत्तर-पत्रक पर ही अां ककत करने हैं । उत्तर-पत्रक में कदए गए
कनदे श दे स्तखए।
6. सभी प्रश्ाां शोां के अांक सामान हैं ।
7. इससे पहले कक आप परीक्षण पुस्तिका के कवकभन्न प्रश्ाां शोां के प्रत्युत्तर उत्तर-पत्रक पर अांककत करना शु रू
करें , आपको प्रवे श प्रमाण-पत्र के साथ प्रेकित अनुदेशोां के अनुसार कुछ कववरण उत्तर-पत्रक में दे ने हैं ।
8. आप अपने सभी प्रत्यु त्तरोां को उत्तर-पत्रक में भरने के बाद तथा परीक्षा के समापन पर केवल उत्तर-पत्रक
अिीक्षक को स प ां दें । आपको अपने साथ परीक्षण पुस्तिका ले िाने की अनुमकत है ।
9. कच्चे काम के कलए पत्रक परीक्षण पुस्तिका के अांत में सांलग्न है ।
10. गलत उत्तरों के कलए दं ड :
विुकनष्ठ प्रश्न-पत्रों में उम्मीदवार द्वारा कदए गए गलत उत्तरों के कलए दं ड कदया जाएगा।
(i) प्रत्येक प्रश् के कलए चार वै कस्तिक उत्तर हैं । उम्मीदवार द्वारा प्रत्येक प्रश् के कलए कदए गए एक गलत उत्तर
के कलए प्रश् हे तु कनयत ककए गए अां कोां का एक-कतहाई दां ड के रूप में काटा िाएगा।
(ii) यकद कोई उम्मीदवार एक से अकिक उत्तर दे ता है , तो इसे गलत उत्तर माना िाएगा, यद्यकप कदए गए उत्तरोां
में से एक उत्तर सही होता है , कफर भी उस प्रश् के कलए उपयुुक्तानुसार ही, उसी तरह का दां ड कदया िाएगा।
(iii) यकद उम्मीदवार द्वारा कोई प्रश् हल नहीां ककया िाता है , अथाु त उम्मीदवार द्वारा उत्तर नहीां कदया िाता है , तो
उस प्रश् के कलए कोई दां ड नहीां कदया िाएगा।

जब तक आपको यह परीक्षण पुस्तिका खोलने को न कहा जाए तब तक न खोलें

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles Q.4) In the context of the Indian economy, which
information on industrial disputes, closures, of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of
retrenchments and lay-offs in factories 'National Monetisation Pipeline'?
employing workers? 1. To raise funds through the transfer of
a) Central Statistics Office ownership rights of public assets to private
b) Department for Promotion of Industry and entities.
Internal Trade 2. To raise funds through leasing of both
c) Labour Bureau greenfield and brownfield projects.
d) National Technical Manpower Information 3. To raise funds through disinvestment and
System monetization of primarily non-core assets of
the Government.
Q.2) Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code given
The Competition Commission of India: below:
1. is a statutory body constituted under the a) 1 only
Competition Act, 2002. b) 1 and 3 only
2. has a Chairman who is always a retired judge c) 2 and 3 only
of the Supreme Court or any High Court in d) None
India.
3. has the power to initiate Suo moto enquiry Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding
regarding conduct of unfair trade practices. the “Sunspots”:
4. is not empowered to impose monetary 1. They are formed largely as a result of the
penalties on the companies. impact of the Sun's own magnetic field on its
Which of the statements given above are correct? surface.
a) 1 and 3 2. They are marked by the higher temperature
b) 2 and 3 compared to other parts of the Sun's surface.
c) 1 and 4 3. The highest number of sunspots in any given
d) 2 and 4 solar cycle is designated as “solar maximum”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q.3) In the context of the Indian economy, which a) 1 and 2 only
of the following steps was/were taken in India as b) 2 and 3 only
a part of the New Economic Policy of 1991? c) 1 and 3 only
1. The Monopolistic and Restrictive Trade d) 1, 2 and 3
Practices (MRTP) Act was enacted to enquire
into monopolistic or restrictive trade Q.6) With reference to Micro, Small and Medium
practices. Enterprises (MSMEs), consider the following
2. For the first time, investment from foreign statements:
companies was permitted in some of the high- 1. As per budget 2025-26, industries with a
priority industries. turnover up to Rs 10 crore are considered as
3. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) micro enterprises.
was passed to regulate India’s foreign 2. In the Financial Year 2023-24, MSMEs
exchange. accounted for about 45% of India’s total
4. All the industries that were earlier reserved exports.
for small-scale industries were de-reserved. 3. As per the current procurement policy, at
Select the correct answer using the code given least 25% of annual procurement by Central
below: Public Sector Enterprises must be sourced
a) 1 and 2 only from Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs).
b) 2, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
c) 3 and 4 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) None of the above b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.1) भारत में, निम्ननिखित में से कौि-सा संगठि Q.4) भारतीय अथमव्यिस्था के संदभम में, 'िेशिि
औद्योनगक नििादों, बंद होिे, कममचाररयों की छं टिी और मोिेटाइजेशि पाइपिाइि' के उद्दे श्य क्या हैं ?
कारिािों में श्रनमकों की छं टिी से संबंनित जािकारी एकत्र 1. सािमजनिक संपनत्तयों के स्वानमत्ि अनिकारों को निजी
करता है ? संस्थाओं को हस्ां तररत करके िि जुटािा।
a) केंद्रीय सां खिकी कायाम िय 2. ग्रीिफील्ड और ब्राउिफील्ड दोिों पररयोजिाओं को
b) उद्योग और आं तररक व्यापार संििमि निभाग िीज़ पर दे कर िि जुटािा।
c) श्रम ब्यूरो 3. सरकार की मुि रूप से गैर-मूि संपनत्तयों के निनििेश
d) राष्ट्रीय तकिीकी मािि संसािि सूचिा प्रणािी और मौनद्रकरण के माध्यम से िि जुटािा।
िीचे नदए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुिें:
Q.2) निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें : a) केिि 1
भारतीय प्रनतस्पिाम आयोग : b) केिि 1 और 3
1. यह एक सां निनिक निकाय है नजसे प्रनतस्पिाम अनिनियम, c) केिि 2 और 3
2002 के तहत स्थानपत नकया गया था। d) कोई िहीं
2. इसके अध्यक्ष हमेशा भारत के सिोच्च न्यायािय या
नकसी उच्च न्यायािय के सेिानििृत्त न्यायािीश होते हैं । Q.5) "स र िब्ों" के संदभम में निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार
3. इसे अिुनचत व्यापार प्रथाओं के आचरण के संबंि में करें :
स्वयं संज्ञाि िेकर जां च शुरू करिे का अनिकार है । 1. िे मुि रूप से सूयम के अपिे चुंबकीय क्षेत्र के प्रभाि से
4. इसे कंपनियों पर मौनद्रक दं ड िगािे का अनिकार िहीं सूयम की सतह पर बिते हैं ।
है । 2. इिका तापमाि सूयम की सतह के अन्य भागों की तुििा
उपयुक्त उत्तर का चयि करें : में अनिक होता है ।
a) 1 और 3 3. नकसी भी सौर चक्र में स र िब्ों की अनिकतम संिा
b) 2 और 3 को "सौर अनिकतम" कहा जाता है ।
c) 1 और 4 िीचे नदए गए निकल्ों में से सही उत्तर चुिें:
d) 2 और 4 a) केिि 1 और 2
b) केिि 2 और 3
Q.3) भारतीय अथमव्यिस्था के संदभम में, 1991 की िई c) केिि 1 और 3
आनथमक िीनत के तहत भारत में कौि-कौि से कदम उठाए d) 1, 2 और 3
गए थे?
1. एकानिकारिादी और प्रनतबंिात्मक व्यापार व्यिहार Q.6) सूक्ष्म, िघु और मध्यम उद्यमों (MSMEs) के संदर् भ
अनिनियम पाररत नकया गया था तानक एकानिकारिादी में निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें :
या प्रनतबंिात्मक व्यापार व्यिहार की जां च की जा सके। 1. बजट 2025-26 के अिुसार, नजि उद्योगों का कारोबार
2. पहिी बार, निदे शी कंपनियों को कुछ उच्च प्राथनमकता ₹10 करोड़ तक है , उन्हें सूक्ष्म उद्यम मािा जाता है ।
िािे उद्योगों में नििेश करिे की अिुमनत दी गई। 2. नित्तीय िर्म 2023-24 में, MSMEs िे भारत के कुि
3. निदे शी मुद्रा निनियमि अनिनियम पाररत नकया गया नियाम त में िगभग 45% का योगदाि नदया।
तानक भारत की निदे शी मुद्रा को नियंनत्रत नकया जा 3. ितममाि िरीद िीनत के अिुसार, केंद्रीय सािमजनिक क्षेत्र
सके। के उपक्रमों (CPSEs) द्वारा िानर्मक िरीद का कम से
4. सभी उद्योग, जो पहिे िघु उद्योगों के निए आरनक्षत थे, कम 25% सूक्ष्म और िघु उद्यमों (MSEs) से नकया जािा
उन्हें अिारक्षण कर नदया गया। अनििायम है ।
िीचे नदए गए कोड का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर का चयि उपरोक्त में से कौि-से कथि सही हैं ?
करें : a) केिि 1 और 2
a) 1 और 2 केिि b) केिि 2 और 3
b) 2, 3 और 4 केिि c) केिि 1 और 3
c) 3 और 4 केिि d) 1, 2 और 3
d) उपरोक्त में से कोई िहीं

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.7) Consider the following sectors: 2. Amongst the states in India, leopard
1. Pharmaceuticals population is highest in Karnataka.
2. Natural Gas 3. As per the estimation, Nagarjunasagar
3. Cement Srisailam Tiger Reserve boasts the highest
4. Fertilizers leopard count among Indian tiger reserves.
5. Coal Which of the statements given above are correct?
6. Electricity a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the industries listed above are b) 1 and 3 only
included within the Index of Eight Core c) 2 and 3 only
Industries in India? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Only three
b) Only four Q.11) Classification of an enterprise into public or
c) Only five private sector is based on:
d) All six a) number of employees in the enterprise
b) ownership of assets of the enterprise
Q.8) Which of the following organizations c) employment conditions for workers in the
launched the "Business-Ready (B-Ready)" index? enterprise
a) World Economic Forum (WEF) d) nature of products manufactured by the
b) World Bank (WB) enterprise.
c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Q.12) Which of the following are among the
Development (UNCTAD) eligibility criteria required for a company to be
considered a "Startup" under the Startup India
Q.9) With reference to Production-Linked initiative of the Government of India?
Incentive (PLI) Scheme, consider the following 1. The period of existence and operations of the
statements: company should not exceed 10 years from the
1. Under the scheme, incentives are provided to date of incorporation
the companies based on incremental 2. The company must be registered as a private
Investment and Production over base year. limited company.
2. It provides incentives only to the domestic 3. The company should have an annual turnover
companies in India. not exceeding Rs. 100 crore for any of the
Which of the statements given above is/are financial years since its incorporation.
correct? 4. The company must have been profitable for at
a) 1 only least three consecutive years.
b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
c) Both 1 and 2 below:
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
Q.10) Recently, the Government of India c) 2 and 4 only
conducted ‘Fifth Cycle Leopard Population d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Estimation’. In this context, consider the
following statements:
1. The estimation was conducted jointly by the
National Tiger Conservation Authority and
Wildlife Institute of India.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.7) निम्ननिखित क्षेत्रों पर निचार करें : 3. आकिि के अिुसार, िागाजुमिसागर श्रीशैिम टाइगर
1. दिा ररजिम में भारतीय टाइगर ररजिों में सबसे अनिक तेंदुए
2. प्राकृनतक गैस पाए जाते हैं ।
3. सीमेंट उपरोक्त में से कौि से कथि सही हैं ?
4. उिमरक a) केिि 1 और 2
5. कोयिा b) केिि 1 और 3
6. निद् युत c) केिि 2 और 3
इिमें से नकतिे उद्योगों को भारत के "आठ प्रमुि उद्योगों के d) 1, 2 और 3
सूचकां क" में शानमि नकया गया है ?
a) केिि तीि Q.11) नकसी उद्यम को सािमजनिक या निजी क्षेत्र में िगीकृत
b) केिि चार करिे का आिार क्या है ?
c) केिि पााँ च a) उद्यम में कममचाररयों की संिा
d) सभी छह b) उद्यम की पररसंपनत्तयों (संपनत्तयों) का स्वानमत्व
c) उद्यम में श्रनमकों की रोजगार शतें
Q.8) निम्ननिखित में से नकस संगठि िे "नबज़िेस-रे डी (B- d) उद्यम द्वारा निनमम त उत्पादों का प्रकार
Ready)" इं डेक्स िॉन्च नकया?a) निश्व आनथमक मंच (WEF)
b) निश्व बैंक (WB) Q.12) भारत सरकार की स्टाटम अप इं नडया पहि के तहत
c) अं तराम ष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोर् (IMF) नकसी कंपिी को "स्टाटम अप" मािे जािे के निए निम्ननिखित
d) संयुक्त राष्ट्र व्यापार और निकास सम्मेिि (UNCTAD) में से कौि-कौि से पात्रता मािदं ड आिश्यक हैं ?
1. कंपिी के गठि की नतनथ से उसकी अिनि 10 िर्ों से
Q.9) उत्पादि-निंक्ड प्रोत्साहि (PLI) योजिा के संदभम में अनिक िहीं होिी चानहए।
निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें : 2. कंपिी का पंजीकरण एक प्राइिेट निनमटे ड कंपिी के
1. इस योजिा के तहत, कंपनियों को प्रोत्साहि आधार वर्ष रूप में होिा अनििायम है ।
पर ककए गए किवेश और उत्पादि में वृद्धि के आिार 3. कंपिी का िानर्मक कारोबार उसके गठि के नकसी भी
पर नदया जाता है । नित्तीय िर्म में ₹100 करोड़ से अनिक िहीं होिा चानहए।
2. यह केिि भारत की घरे लू कंपकिय ं को ही प्रोत्साहि 4. कंपिी को कम से कम िगातार तीि िर्ों तक िाभ में
प्रदाि करती है । रहिा अनििायम है ।
उपरोक्त में से कौि सा/से कथि सही है /हैं ?a) केिि 1 िीचे नदए गए कूटों का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर का चयि
b) केिि 2 करें :
c) दोिों 1 और 2 a) केिि 1, 2 और 3
d) ि तो 1 और ि ही 2 b) केिि 1 और 3
c) केिि 2 और 4
Q.10) हाि ही में, भारत सरकार िे ‘पााँ चिां चक्र तेंदुआ d) 1, 2, 3 और 4
जिसंिा आकिि’ आयोनजत नकया। इस संदभम में,
निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें :
1. यह आकिि राष्ट्रीय बाघ संरक्षण प्रानिकरण और
िन्यजीि संस्थाि द्वारा संयुक्त रूप से नकया गया था।
2. भारत के राज्ों में, तेंदुओं की सबसे अनिक जिसंिा
किाम टक में पाई जाती है ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.13) In the context of India, consider the b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
following statements regarding Patents: correct and Statement-II does not explain
1. Patents are territorial rights, meaning they Statement-I.
are effective only within the territory of India. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
2. The term of a patent is 20 years from the date incorrect.
of filing of the application. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
3. Literary, musical or artistic works are eligible correct.
to be patented.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.16) Consider the following statements with
correct? reference to the Open Network for Digital
a) 1 only Commerce (ONDC):
1. It has been registered as a non-profit
b) 1 and 2 only
organization under the Companies Act, 2013.
c) 2 and 3 only
2. It is an initiative of the National Payments
d) 1, 2 and 3
Corporation of India (NPCI).
3. It seeks to promote interoperability among e-
Q.14) Consider the following statements: commerce platforms to create an open and
Statement I: Non-major ports in India fall outside inclusive digital commerce ecosystem.
the ambit of the Indian Ports Act, 1908. Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement II: Non-major ports in India are under correct?
the jurisdiction of respective State Maritime a) 1 and 2 only
Boards/State Government. b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
Which one of the following is correct in respect
d) 1, 2 and 3
of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Q.17) In the context of the insurance sector, the
correct, and Statement-II explains term "Insurance Density" refer to:
Statement-I. a) The ratio of premium underwritten in a
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are particular year to the GDP.
correct, but Statement-II does not explain b) The ratio of total insurance policies to the
Statement-I. working population.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is c) The ratio of total insurance premiums to the
incorrect. total population.
d) The ratio of insured individuals to the total
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
population.
correct.

Q.18) An individual with a savings account in a

Q.15) Consider the following statements: Primary Cooperative bank, where the principal
Statement-I: Female Hemophilia A patients do amount in that account was Rs.5,10,000 and the
not transmit hemophilia to her offspring. accrued interest was Rs.4000. How much of the
Statement-II: Hemophilia A is genetic disorder amount would be insured by the Deposit
marked by prolonged and excessive bleeding Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
among affected individuals. (DICGC)?
Which one of the following is correct in respect a) Rs. 5,10,000
b) Rs. 5,14,000
of the above statements?
c) Rs.5,00,000
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) None of the amount would be insured as
correct and Statement-II explains
Primary cooperative banks deposits are not
Statement-I. covered by DICGC.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.13) भारत के संदभम में, पेटेंट से संबंनित निम्ननिखित b) दोिों कथि-I और कथि-II सही हैं , िेनकि कथि-II,
कथिों पर निचार करें : कथि-I की व्यािा िहीं करता है ।
1. पेटेंट क्षेत्रीय अनिकार होते हैं , अथाम त िे केिि भारत की c) कथि-I सही है , िेनकि कथि-II गित है ।
सीमा के भीतर प्रभािी होते हैं । d) कथि-I गित है , िेनकि कथि-II सही है ।
2. पेटेंट का कायमकाि आिेदि की फाइनिंग नतनथ से 20
िर्ों का होता है । Q.16) ओपि िेटिकम फॉर नडनजटि कॉमसम (ONDC) के

3. सानहखिक, संगीतमय या किात्मक कृनतयााँ पेटेंट करािे संदभम में निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें :
1. इसे कंपिी अनिनियम, 2013 के तहत एक गैर-
योग्य होती हैं ।
िाभकारी संगठि के रूप में पंजीकृत नकया गया है ।
उपरोक्त कथिों में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
2. यह िेशिि पेमेंट्स कॉरपोरे शि ऑफ इं नडया (NPCI)
a) केिि 1
की एक पहि है ।
b) केिि 1 और 2
3. यह ई-कॉमसम प्लेटफामों के बीच आपसी संपकम को
c) केिि 2 और 3
बढािा दे िे के निए एक िुिा और समािेशी नडनजटि
d) 1, 2 और 3
िानणज् पाररखस्थनतकी तंत्र बिािे का प्रयास करता है ।
उपयुक्त उत्तर का चयि करें :
Q.14) भारत में गैर-प्रमुि बंदरगाहों के संदभम में
a) 1 और 2 केिि
निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें :
b) 1 और 3 केिि
कथि I: भारत में गैर-प्रमुि बंदरगाह भारतीय बंदरगाह
c) 3 केिि
अनिनियम, 1908 के अनिकार क्षेत्र से बाहर आते हैं ।
d) 1, 2 और 3
कथि II: भारत में गैर-प्रमुि बंदरगाह संबंनित राज् समुद्री
बोडों/राज् सरकार के अनिकार क्षेत्र में आते हैं ।
Q.17) बीमा क्षेत्र के संदभम में, "बीमा घित्व" शब्द का क्या
उपरोक्त कथिों के संदभम में निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा सही
अथम है ?
है ?
a) नकसी निशेर् िर्म में निखित प्रीनमयम और सकि घरे िू
a) दोिों कथि-I और कथि-II सही हैं , और कथि-II,
उत्पाद (GDP) का अिुपात।
कथि-I की व्यािा करता है ।
b) कुि बीमा पॉनिनसयों और कायमशीि जिसंिा का
b) दोिों कथि-I और कथि-II सही हैं , िेनकि कथि-II,
अिुपात।
कथि-I की व्यािा िहीं करता है ।
c) कुि बीमा प्रीनमयम और कुि जिसंिा का अिुपात।
c) कथि-I सही है , िेनकि कथि-II गित है ।
d) बीमाकृत व्यखक्तयों और कुि जिसंिा का अिुपात।
d) कथि-I गित है , िेनकि कथि-II सही है ।

Q.18) यनद नकसी व्यखक्त का बचत िाता एक प्राथनमक

Q.15) हे मोनफनिया A के संदभम में निम्ननिखित कथिों पर
सहकारी बैंक में है , जहााँ उस िाते में मूििि रानश
निचार करें :
₹5,10,000 और संनचत ब्याज ₹4,000 था, तो जमा बीमा
कथि I: मनहिा हे मोनफनिया A रोगी अपिे संताि को
और ऋण गारं टी निगम (DICGC) द्वारा नकतिी रानश का
हे मोनफनिया रोग स्थािां तररत िहीं करती।
बीमा नकया जाएगा?
कथि II: हे मोनफनिया A एक आिुिंनशक निकार है , जो a) ₹5,10,000
प्रभानित व्यखक्तयों में अिनिक और िंबे समय तक b) ₹5,14,000
रक्तस्राि का कारण बिता है । c) ₹5,00,000
उपरोक्त कथिों के संदभम में निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा सही d) कोई भी रानश बीनमत िहीं होगी क्योंनक प्राथनमक
है ? सहकारी बैंकों की जमा रानश DICGC द्वारा किर िहीं
a) दोिों कथि-I और कथि-II सही हैं , और कथि-II, की जाती।
कथि-I की व्यािा करता है ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.19) With reference to the performance and Statement II: Assam has the highest navigable
contribution of the service sector in India, length of operational waterways in India.
consider the following statements: Which one of the following is correct in respect
1. The share of the service sector in the of the above statements?
country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) has always a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
been above 50% over the last decade. correct and Statement-II explains Statement-
2. The service sector has been constantly I.
experiencing positive growth over the last five b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
years. correct but Statement-II does not explain
3. The service sector provides employment to Statement-I.
more than 25% of the total workforce in the c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
country. incorrect.
Which of the statements given above is/are d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct? correct.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3 Q.23) With reference to Real Estate Investment
c) 3 only Trusts (REITs) in India, consider the following
d) 2 and 3 statements:
1. They are regulated by the Reserve Bank of
Q.20) With reference to India's biodiversity, India (RBI).
Bugun Liocichla are- 2. They are permitted to invest in agricultural
a) migratory birds that visit India seasonally. land.
b) endemic birds found only in India. 3. They are allowed to raise funds from both
c) extinct species of butterfly in India. domestic and foreign investors.
d) freshwater fish species of India. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.21) Which of the following has/have occurred a) 1 and 2
in India after its liberalization of economic b) 3 only
policies in 1991? c) 1 and 3
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased d) 2 and 3
enormously.
2. Share of India’s exports in world trade Q.24) Consider the following states in India:
increased. 1. Tamil Nadu
3. FDI inflows increased. 2. Karnataka
4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased 3. Maharashtra
enormously. 4. Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given 5. Gujarat
below: Arrange the following states in descending order
a) 1 and 4 only of the State-wise share in Services Gross State
b) 2, 3 and 4 only Value Added at constant prices for the Financial
c) 2 and 3 only Year 2023?
d) 1 , 2, 3 and 4 a) 3-2-1-4-5
b) 5-3-1-2-4
Q.22) Consider the following statements: c) 2-3-4-1-5
Statement I: India's longest operational inland d) 5-2-3-1-4
waterway is located in Assam.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.19) भारत में सेिा क्षेत्र के प्रदशमि और योगदाि के संदभम उपरोक्त कथिों के संदभम में निम्ननिखित में से कौि-सा सही
में निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें : है ?
1. दे श के सकि मूल्य ििमि (GVA) में सेिा क्षेत्र की a) दोिों कथि I और II सही हैं और कथि II, कथि I की
नहस्सेदारी नपछिे दशक में हमेशा 50% से अनिक रही व्यािा करता है ।
है । b) दोिों कथि I और II सही हैं , िेनकि कथि II, कथि I
2. सेिा क्षेत्र नपछिे पां च िर्ों में िगातार सकारात्मक िृखि की व्यािा िहीं करता।
का अिुभि कर रहा है । c) कथि I सही है , िेनकि कथि II गित है ।
3. सेिा क्षेत्र दे श की कुि कायमबि का 25% से अनिक d) कथि I गित है , िेनकि कथि II सही है ।
रोजगार प्रदाि करता है ।
उपयुक्त उत्तर का चयि करें : Q.23) भारत में ररयि एस्टे ट इन्वेस्टमेंट टर स्ट् स (REITs) के
a) 1 और 2 संदभम में निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें :
b) 1 और 3 1. इन्हें भारतीय ररजिम बैंक (RBI) द्वारा निनियनमत नकया
c) 3 केिि जाता है ।
d) 2 और 3 2. इन्हें कृनर् भूनम में नििेश करिे की अिुमनत है ।
3. ये घरे िू और निदे शी दोिों नििेशकों से िि जुटािे की
Q.20) भारत की जैि निनििता के संदभम में, बुगुि अिुमनत रिते हैं ।
निओनसचिा क्या हैं ? सही उत्तर चुिें:
a) प्रिासी पक्षी जो मौसमी रूप से भारत आते हैं । a) 1 और 2
b) स्थानिक पक्षी जो केिि भारत में पाए जाते हैं । b) केिि 3
c) भारत में नििुप्त नततिी की प्रजानत। c) 1 और 3
d) भारत की मीठे पािी की मछिी की प्रजानत। d) 2 और 3

Q.21) भारत में 1991 में आनथमक िीनतयों के उदारीकरण Q.24) भारत के निम्ननिखित राज्ों पर निचार करें :
के बाद निम्ननिखित में से कौि-सा/से पररितमि हुए? 1. तनमििाडु
1. कृनर् का GDP में नहस्सा अिनिक बढ गया। 2. किाम टक
2. निश्व व्यापार में भारत के नियाम त की नहस्सेदारी बढ गई। 3. महाराष्ट्र
3. प्रिक्ष निदे शी नििेश (FDI) में िृखि हुई। 4. उत्तर प्रदे श
4. भारत के निदे शी मुद्रा भंडार में अिनिक िृखि हुई। 5. गुजरात
िीचे नदए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुिें: इि राज्ों को नित्तीय िर्म 2023 में सेिाओं के सकि राज्
a) केिि 1 और 4 मूल्य ििमि (GSVA) में नहस्सेदारी के अिुसार अिरोही क्रम
b) केिि 2, 3 और 4 में व्यिखस्थत करें :
c) केिि 2 और 3 a) 3-2-1-4-5
d) 1, 2, 3 और 4 b) 5-3-1-2-4
c) 2-3-4-1-5
Q.22) निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें : d) 5-2-3-1-4
कथि I: भारत का सबसे िंबा पररचानित अंतदे शीय
जिमागम असम में खस्थत है ।
कथि II: असम में भारत में सबसे अनिक िौगम्य िंबाई
िािे पररचानित जिमागम हैं ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.25) Which one of the following best defines the Q.28) With reference to the Digital Bharat Nidhi
term “Reverse Flipping”, sometimes seen in the (DBN), consider the following statements:
news with respect to the Indian Economy? 1. It was established by the government as a
a) Taxing companies retrospectively when a new replacement for the Universal Service
tax law is passed. Obligation Fund (USOF).
b) An Indian company or startup shifting back its 2. The funds under digital Bharat Nidhi can be
headquarters from a foreign country to India. used to support research and development of
c) A foreign company paying taxes to its home telecommunication services, technologies,
country on profits earned from investments in and products.
India. 3. Contributions made towards the DBN are first
d) Foreign owners of e-commerce platforms
credited to the Consolidated Fund of India
selling products that belong to other
before being allocated to various DBN
companies.
projects.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q.26) With reference to the Trade Receivables
a) 1 and 2 only
Discounting System (TReDS) in India, consider
b) 2 and 3 only
the following statements:
c) 1 and 3 only
1. It allows certain companies to obtain
d) 1, 2, and 3
financing by leveraging their trade
receivables.
2. Only Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Q.29) To boost India’s indigenous defence
(MSMEs) can participate as sellers in TReDS. production, defence industrial corridors are
3. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) being set up under the Make in India campaign.
engaged in the principal business of factoring In this context, which of the following states in
are not permitted to participate as financiers India have established Defence Industrial
on the TReDS platform. Corridors?
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) Maharashtra and Gujarat
a) 1 and 2 only b) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
b) 2 and 3 only c) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
c) 1 and 3 only d) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.30) Consider the following:
Q.27) With reference to the Commission of 1. Richness of wild as well as domesticated
Railway Safety (CRS) in India, consider the species.
following statements: 2. High endemism.
1. It operates under the administrative control 3. Presence of rare and threatened species.
of the Ministry of Railways. 4. Wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated
2. Conducting statutory inquiry in serious train species or their varieties.
accidents occurring on the Indian Railways is How many of the above are considered as
one of the key responsibilities of the CRS. components/characteristics for a site to be
Which of the above statements are correct? declared as a Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS) in
a) 1 only India?
b) 2 only a) Only one
c) Both 1 and 2 b) Only two
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Only three
d) All four

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.25) भारतीय अथमव्यिस्था के संदभम में "ररिसम खिनपंग" Q.28) नडनजटि भारत निनि (DBN) के संदभम में,
शब्द का सबसे उपयुक्त अथम क्या है ? निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें :
a) नकसी िए कर कािूि के िागू होिे पर कंपनियों पर 1. इसे सरकार द्वारा यूनििसमि सनिमस ऑखिगेशि फंड
पूिमव्यापी कर िगािा। (USOF) के प्रनतस्थापि के रूप में स्थानपत नकया गया
b) नकसी भारतीय कंपिी या स्टाटम अप का अपिा मुिािय था।
नकसी निदे शी दे श से भारत िापस स्थािां तररत करिा। 2. नडनजटि भारत निनि के अंतगमत निनि का उपयोग
c) नकसी निदे शी कंपिी द्वारा भारत में नकए गए नििेश से दू रसंचार सेिाओं, प्रौद्योनगनकयों और उत्पादों के
प्राप्त िाभ पर अपिे मूि दे श में कर भुगताि करिा। अिुसंिाि और निकास को समथमि दे िे के निए नकया
d) ई-कॉमसम प्लेटफॉमम के निदे शी मानिकों द्वारा अन्य जा सकता है ।
कंपनियों के उत्पादों को बेचिा। 3. DBN के निए नकए गए योगदाि को निनभन्न DBN
पररयोजिाओं को आिंनटत नकए जािे से पहिे भारत की
Q.26) भारत में व्यापार प्राप्य बट्टाकरण/छूट प्रणािी संनचत निनि में जमा नकया जाता है ।
(Trade Receivable Discounting System-TReDS) के उपयुमक्त में से कौि से कथि सही हैं ?
संदभम में, निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें : a) केिि 1 और 2
1. यह कुछ कम्पनियों को अपिी व्यापाररक प्राखप्तयों का b) केिि 2 और 3
िाभ उठाकर नित्तपोर्ण प्राप्त करिे की अिुमनत दे ता c) केिि 1 और 3
है । d) 1, 2, और 3
2. केिि सूक्ष्म, िघु और मध्यम उद्यम (MSMEs) ही
TReDS में निक्रेता के रूप में भाग िे सकते हैं । Q.29) भारत के स्वदे शी रक्षा उत्पादि को बढािा दे िे के
3. फैक्टररं ग के मुि व्यिसाय में िगी गैर-बैंनकंग नित्तीय निए मेक इि इं नडया अनभयाि के तहत रक्षा औद्योनगक
कंपनियों (NBFCs ) को TReDS प्लेटफॉमम पर गनियारे स्थानपत नकए जा रहे हैं । इस संदर् भ में, भारत में
नित्तपोर्क के रूप में भाग िेिे की अिुमनत िहीं है । निम्ननिखित में से नकस राज् िे रक्षा औद्योनगक गनियारे
उपयुमक्त में से कौि से कथि सि हैं ? स्थानपत नकए हैं ?
a) केिि 1 और 2 a) महाराष्ट्र और गुजरात
b) केिि 2 और 3 b) किाम टक और आं ध्र प्रदे श
c) केिि 1 और 3 c) उत्तर प्रदे श और तनमििाडु
d) 1, 2 और 3 d) आं ध्र प्रदे श और तेिंगािा

Q.27) भारत में रे ििे सुरक्षा आयोग (CRS) के संदभम में,

Q.30) निम्ननिखित पर निचार करें :
निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें :
1. जंगिी और पाितू प्रजानतयों की समृखि।
1. यह रे ि मंत्रािय के प्रशासनिक नियंत्रण में कायम करता
2. उच्च स्थानिकता (Endemism)
है ।
3. दु िमभ एिं संकटग्रस् प्रजानतयों की उपखस्थनत।
2. भारतीय रे ििे पर होिे िािी गंभीर रे ि दु घमटिाओं की
4. घरे िू/िेती की गई प्रजानतयों या उिकी नकस्ों के
िैिानिक जां च करिा CRS की प्रमुि नजम्मेदाररयों में से
जंगिी पूिमज।
एक है ।
भारत में नकसी स्थि को जैि निनििता निरासत स्थि
उपयुमक्त में से कौि से कथि सही हैं ?
(Biodiversity Heritage Site; BHS) घोनर्त करिे के निए
a) केिि 1
उपयुमक्त में से नकतिे घटकों/निशेर्ताओं को मािा जाता है ?
b) केिि 2
a) केिि एक
c) 1 और 2 दोिों
b) केिि दो
d) ि तो 1 और ि ही 2
c) केिि तीि
d) सभी चार

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.31) Which one of the following is not correct in Q.34) In context of Economy, consider the
the context of industrial cluster development in following statements with regards to Trade
India? secret:
a) Industrial clusters play an important role for 1. It refers to confidential business information
the MSME participants in their inclusiveness, that provides a competitive advantage and
technology absorption and efficiency remains protected as long as they remain
improvement. secret.
b) Industrial clusters are visible in traditional 2. Currently there is no dedicated act for
handloom, handicrafts and modern SMC. protection of trade secrets in India, and they
c) Industrial cluster programmes in India are are protected under the principles of the
administered by various ministries. Indian Contract Act, 1872.
d) Industrial clusters lead to promotion of Which of the statements given above is/ are
monopoly in the market. correct?
a) 1 only
Q.32) With reference to the functions and powers b) 2 only
of the Insurance Regulatory and Development c) Both 1 and 2
Authority of India (IRDAI), consider the following d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. It decides the premium rates charged for all Q.35) Sabroom Land Port has recently been
types of insurance products in India. inaugurated in which of the following States of
2. It decides foreign direct investment limits in India?
the Indian insurance sector. a) Himachal Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Tripura
correct? c) West Bengal
a) 1 only d) Punjab
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.36) ‘It introduced a three way classification of
d) Neither 1 nor 2 industries under Schedules A, B and C; and also
firmly established the system of industrial
Q.33) Which of the following correctly describes licensing in Independent India.’
the function of the District Mineral Foundation The above statement best refers to which of the
(DMF) in India? following industrial policies?
a) It ensures that mining revenues are equitably a) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948
distributed to promote the welfare and b) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956
sustainable development of mining-affected c) Industrial Policy Statement, 1973
communities. d) Industrial Policy Statement, 1977
b) It provides financial incentives to mining
companies for adopting eco-friendly Q.37) In the context of the economy, "Gazelles"
extraction technologies. and "Cheetahs" refer to:
c) It provides direct compensation to individuals a) Companies with no operational activity or
displaced due to mining activities through assets in reality and often used for tax evasion.
cash transfers. b) High-net-worth individuals who act as angel
d) It functions as a regulatory body overseeing investors in emerging businesses.
environmental compliance in the mining c) Multinational corporations that rapidly
sector. expand operations in emerging economies.
d) Startups with high growth potential, expected
to become unicorns within a few years.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.31) भारत में औद्योनगक क्लस्टर निकास के संदभम में 1. यह गोपिीय व्यािसानयक जािकारी को संदनभमत करता
निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा कथि सही िहीं है ? है जो प्रनतस्पिामत्मक िाभ प्रदाि करता है और जब तक
a) औद्योनगक क्लस्टर MSME प्रनतभानगयों के निए उिकी िे गुप्त रहते हैं तब तक सुरनक्षत रहता है ।
समािेनशता, प्रौद्योनगकी अिशोर्ण और दक्षता सुिार में 2. ितममाि में भारत में व्यापार रहस्यों के संरक्षण के निए
महत्वपूणम भूनमका निभाते हैं । कोई समनपमत अनिनियम िहीं है , और उन्हें भारतीय
b) पारं पररक हथकरघा, हस्नशल् और आिुनिक SMC में अिुबंि अनिनियम, 1872 के नसिां तों के तहत संरनक्षत
औद्योनगक समूह नदिाई दे ते हैं । नकया जाता है ।
c) भारत में औद्योनगक क्लस्टर कायमक्रम निनभन्न मंत्राियों उपयुमक्त में से कौि सा/से कथि सही है /हैं ?
द्वारा प्रशानसत नकए जाते हैं । a) केिि 1
d) औद्योनगक समूह बाजार में एकानिकार को बढािा दे ते b) केिि 2
हैं । c) 1 और 2 दोिों
d) ि तो 1 और ि ही 2
Q.32) भारतीय बीमा निनियामक और निकास प्रानिकरण
(IRDAI) के कायों और शखक्तयों के संदभम में, निम्ननिखित Q.35) हाि ही में भारत के निम्ननिखित में से नकस राज् में
कथिों पर निचार करें : सबरूम िैंड पोटम का उद् घाटि नकया गया है ?
1. यह भारत में सभी प्रकार के बीमा उत्पादों के निए a) नहमाचि प्रदे श
प्रीनमयम दरों का नििाम रण करता है । b) नत्रपुरा
2. यह भारतीय बीमा क्षेत्र में प्रिक्ष निदे शी नििेश की सीमा c) पनिम बंगाि
तय करता है । d) पंजाब
उपयुमक्त में से कौि सा/से कथि सही है /हैं ?
a) केिि 1 Q.36) 'इसिे अिुसूनचयों A, B और C के अंतगमत उद्योगों
b) केिि 2 का नत्र-स्रीय िगीकरण प्रस्ुत नकया; तथा स्वतंत्र भारत में
c) 1 और 2 दोिों औद्योनगक िाइसेंनसंग की प्रणािी को भी सुदृढता से स्थानपत
d) ि तो 1 और ि ही 2 नकया।'
उपयुमक्त कथि निम्ननिखित में से नकस औद्योनगक िीनत को
Q.33) निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा कथि भारत में नजिा सिोत्तम रूप से संदनभमत करता है ?
िनिज फाउं डेशि (DMF) के कायम का सही िणमि करता a) औद्योनगक िीनत संकल्, 1948
है ? b) औद्योनगक िीनत संकल्, 1956
a) यह सुनिनित करता है नक ििि राजस्ि को ििि c) औद्योनगक िीनत िक्तव्य, 1973
प्रभानित समुदायों के कल्याण और सतत निकास को d) औद्योनगक िीनत िक्तव्य, 1977
बढािा दे िे के निए समाि रूप से नितररत नकया जाए।
b) यह ििि कम्पनियों को पयाम िरण अिुकूि निष्कर्मण Q.37) अथमव्यिस्था के संदभम में, "गज़ेल्स" और "चीता" से
प्रौद्योनगकी अपिािे के निए नित्तीय प्रोत्साहि प्रदाि तात्पयम है :
करता है । a) ऐसी कम्पनियााँ नजिकी िास्ि में कोई पररचािि
c) यह ििि गनतनिनियों के कारण निस्थानपत व्यखक्तयों को गनतनिनि या पररसंपनत्त िहीं है और नजिका उपयोग
िकद हस्ां तरण के माध्यम से प्रिक्ष मुआिजा प्रदाि अक्सर कर चोरी के निए नकया जाता है ।
करता है । b) उच्च नििि संपनत्त िािे व्यखक्त जो उभरते व्यिसायों में
d) यह ििि क्षेत्र में पयाम िरण अिुपािि की दे िरे ि करिे एन्जेि नििेशक के रूप में कायम करते हैं ।
िािी नियामक संस्था के रूप में कायम करता है । c) बहुराष्ट्रीय निगम जो उभरती अथमव्यिस्थाओं में तेजी से
पररचािि का निस्ार करते हैं ।
Q.34) अथमव्यिस्था के संदभम में, व्यापार रहस्य (टर े ड सीक्रेट) d) उच्च निकास क्षमता िािे स्टाटम अप, नजिके कुछ िर्ों के
के संबंि में निम्ननिखित कथिों पर निचार करें : भीतर यूनिकॉिम बि जािे की उम्मीद है ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.38) Consider the following statements Q.41) With reference to the Khadi and Village
regarding the Treaty on Intellectual Property, Industries Commission (KVIC), consider the
Genetic Resources, and Associated Traditional following statements:
Knowledge: 1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of
1. The treaty mandates patent applicants to Rural Development.
disclose the country of origin of genetic 2. It provides refinance facility to loans that are
resources when the claimed invention is provided to the cottage industries in rural
based on these resources. areas.
2. The treaty was signed under the aegis of the Which of the statements given above are correct?
United Nations Environment Programme a) 1 only
(UNEP). b) 2 only
3. India opposed the treaty, arguing that it c) Both 1 and 2
undermines its sovereign rights over d) Neither 1 nor 2
biological resources and traditional
knowledge. Q.42) With reference to road transport in India,
Which of the statements given above is/are consider the following statements:
correct? 1. India has the second-largest road network in
a) 1 only the world, after the United States of America.
b) 1 and 2 2. Road transport accounts for over 75% of the
c) 2 and 3 total Gross Value Added (GVA) of transport
d) 1 and 3 services in India in the FY 2023.
3. Recently, the Government of India has
Q.39) With reference to Foreign Direct launched Project Abhay to enhance road
Investment (FDI) equity inflows in India’s service connectivity in Left-Wing Extremism (LWE)-
sectors during the financial year 2023-24, which affected areas.
of the following sequences correctly ranks them Which of the statements given above is/are
in descending order (from highest to lowest) correct?
based on the FDI equity inflows they received? a) 1 only
a) Insurance – Banking Services - Non-Financial b) 1 and 2
Services c) 2 and 3
b) Banking Services – Insurance – Non-Financial d) 1 and 3
Services
c) Non-Financial Services – Banking Services– Q.43) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awas
Insurance Yojana-Urban (PMAY(U)), consider the following
d) Insurance – Non-Financial Services – Banking statements:
Services 1. It has a mandatory provision for the female
head of the family to be the owner or co-
Q.40) The “Darien Gap” recently seen in the news, owner of the house under this Mission.
corresponds to which of the following regions? 2. State Cooperative Banks are recognized as
a) A region of dense rainforest and swampland one of the lending institutions for the Credit
separating Colombia and Panama. Linked Subsidy Scheme component of the
b) A disputed border area between Russia and PMAY(U).
Ukraine. 3. Only a married individual is eligible to avail the
c) A strategic chokepoint in the South China Sea benefits under this mission.
for commercial shipments. Which of the statements given above are correct?
d) A desert region in the Middle East known for a) 1 and 2 only
its oil reserves. b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.38) बौखिक संपदा, आिुिंनशक संसािि और संबि 2. यह ग्रामीण क्षेत्रोां में कुटीर उद्योगोां को कदए िाने वाले
पारं पररक ज्ञाि पर संनि के संबंि में निम्ननिखित कथिों पर ऋणोां को पुनकवुत्त सुकविा प्रदान करता है ।
निचार करें : ऊपर कदए गए कथनोां में से क न सा सही है ?
1. संनि पेटेंट आिेदकों को आिुिंनशक संसाििों के मूि a) केवल 1
दे श का िुिासा करिे का अनिदे श दे ती है , जब दािा b) केवल 2
नकया गया आनिष्कार इि संसाििों पर आिाररत हो। c) 1 और 2 दोनोां
2. इस संनि पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र पयाम िरण कायमक्रम (UNEP) के d) न तो 1 और न ही 2
तत्वाििाि में हस्ाक्षर नकए गए थे।
3. भारत िे इस संनि का निरोि करते हुए तकम नदया नक यह Q.42) भारत में सड़क पररवहन के सांदभु में , कनम्नकलस्तखत
जैनिक संसाििों और पारं पररक ज्ञाि पर उसके संप्रभु कथनोां पर कवचार करें :
अनिकारों को कमजोर करता है । 1. सांयुक्त राज्य अमेररका के बाद भारत में दु कनया का
उपयुमक्त में से कौि सा/से कथि सही है /हैं ? दू सरा सबसे बड़ा सड़क नेटवकु है ।
a) केिि 1 2. कवत्त विु 2023 में भारत में पररवहन सेवाओां के कुल
b) 1 और 2 सकल मूल्य वकिुत (GVA) में सड़क पररवहन का
c) 2 और 3 योगदान 75% से अकिक है ।
d) 1 और 3 3. हाल ही में, भारत सरकार ने वामपांथी उग्रवाद (LWE)
प्रभाकवत क्षेत्रोां में सड़क सांपकु बढाने के कलए प्रोिेक्ट
Q.39) नित्तीय िर्म 2023-24 के दौराि भारत के सेिा क्षेत्रों अभय लॉन्च ककया है ।
में प्रिक्ष निदे शी नििेश (FDI) इखिटी प्रिाह के संदभम में, ऊपर कदए गए कथनोां में से क न सा/से सही है /हैं ?
निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा अिुक्रम उन्हें प्राप्त FDI इखिटी a) केवल 1
प्रिाह के आिार पर अिरोही क्रम (उच्चतम से निम्नतम) में b) 1 और 2
सही प्रारूप में स्पष्ट् करता है ? c) 2 और 3
a) बीमा – बैंनकंग सेिाएाँ – गैर-नित्तीय सेिाएाँ d) 1 और 3
b) बैंनकंग सेिाएं – बीमा – गैर-नित्तीय सेिाएं
c) गैर-नित्तीय सेिाएाँ – बैंनकंग सेिाएाँ – बीमा Q.43) प्रिानमांत्री आवास योिना-शहरी (PMAY (U)) के
d) बीमा – गैर-नित्तीय सेिाएाँ – बैंनकंग सेिाएाँ सांदभु में, कनम्नकलस्तखत कथनोां पर कवचार करें :
1. इस कमशन के तहत पररवार की मकहला मु स्तखया के कलए
Q.40) हाि ही में समाचारों में दे िा गया “डे ररयि गैप” घर का माकलक या सह-माकलक होना अकनवायु प्राविान
निम्ननिखित में से नकस क्षेत्र से संबंनित है ? है ।
a) कोिंनबया और पिामा को अिग करिे िािे घिे िर्ाम िि 2. राज्य सहकारी बैंकोां को PMAY (U) के क्रेकडट कलांक्ड
और दिदिी भूनम का क्षेत्र। सस्तिडी योिना घटक के कलए ऋण दे ने वाली सांथथाओां
b) रूस और यूक्रेि के बीच नििानदत सीमा क्षेत्र। में से एक के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त है ।
c) िानणखज्क नशपमेंट के निए दनक्षण चीि सागर में एक 3. केवल कववाकहत व्यस्तक्त ही इस कमशन के तहत लाभ
रणिीनतक अिरोि नबंदु। प्राप्त करने के कलए पात्र है ।
d) मध्य पूिम का एक रे नगस्ािी क्षेत्र जो अपिे तेि भंडारों ऊपर कदए गए कथनोां में से क न सा सही है ?
के निए जािा जाता है । a) केवल 1 और 2
b) केवल 2 और 3
Q.41) खादी और ग्रामोद्योग आयोग (KVIC) के सांदभु में, c) केवल 1 और 3
कनम्नकलस्तखत कथनोां पर कवचार करें : d) 1, 2 और 3
1. यह ग्रामीण कवकास मांत्रालय के तहत एक वैिाकनक
कनकाय है ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.44) With reference to the Indian ΙΙ. c is divisible by 3.

pharmaceutical industry, which of the following Which one of the following is correct in respect
statements is/are correct? of the above Question and the Statements?
1. India is the world’s largest producer of a) The Question can be answered by using one
pharmaceuticals by volume. of the Statements alone, but cannot be
2. India accounts for over half of the global answered using the other Statement alone.
generic drug exports by volume. b) The Question can be answered by using either
Select the correct answer using the code given Statement alone.
below: c) The Question can be answered by using both
a) 1 only the Statements together, but cannot be
b) 2 only answered using either Statement alone.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) The Question cannot be answered even by
d) Neither 1 nor 2 using both the Statements together.

Q.45) The term ‘Triple Planetary Crisis’, often Q.48) Consider the following:
mentioned in the news, refers to: I. A + B means A is B's mother
a) the three primary economic concerns of the II. A - B means A is B's brother
countries around the globe, which includes III. A % B means A is B's sister
poverty, unemployment and inflation. IV. A * B means A is B's father
b) threat posed to human welfare by three main V. A / B means A is B's daughter
challenges of climate change, economic VI. A > B means A is B's son.
inequality and political instability. Question: If the expression L + Q * X - O / C % H
c) the three main interlinked issues that holds true, then how is L related to O
humanity currently faces namely climate Which one of the following is correct with
change, pollution and biodiversity loss. respect to the above?
d) the three primary concerns of central banks a) L is the Mother of O
which includes maintaining an independent b) L is the Grandmother of O
monetary policy, a fixed exchange rate, and c) L is the Father of O
the free flow of capital. d) The relation cannot be determined

Q.46) The average marks of ‘m’ students in class- Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
IV is ‘n’. When the marks of one bright student Read the following two passages and answer the
Rajesh are also included, the average of the items that follow the passages. Your answers to
students increases to ‘n + 1’. If we further include these items should be based on the passages only.
the marks of another bright student Rakesh, the
average of the class increases to ‘n + 2’. What is Passage I
the difference between the marks scored by As English was the language of the ruling class
Rakesh and Rajesh? during colonial times, speaking it became a
a) 4 symbol of higher social status leading to an
b) 6 inferiority complex among those speaking their
c) 2 mother tongue. Sadly, save for a few regional
d) 8 languages, most other Indian language groups
have inadvertently submitted to the “status-
Q.47) A Question is given followed by two symbol phenomenon”. Many urban dwellers
Statements I and II. Consider the Question and today are seen using more English terms
the Statements given below: colloquially. Ignorant of their rich linguistic
Question: If a, b and c are positive integers, is the traditions, many believe that our own languages
sum of (2a + 4b) and (a – b + c) divisible by 3? are poor in vocabulary, and this is the most
Statements: sinister impact of linguistic colonialism.
Ι. (a + b) is divisible by 3.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.44) भारतीय दवा उद्योग के सांदभु में , कनम्नकलस्तखत में से उपयुुक्त प्रश् और कथनोां के सांबांि में कनम्नकलस्तखत में से क न
क न सा कथन सही है /हैं ? सा सही है ?
1. भारत मात्रा के कहसाब से दु कनया का सबसे बड़ा दवा a) प्रश् का उत्तर केवल एक कथन का उपयोग करके कदया
उत्पादक है । िा सकता है , लेककन दू सरे कथन का अकेले उपयोग
2. भारत वैकिक िेनेररक दवा कनयाुत में आिे से अकिक की करके उत्तर नही ां कदया िा सकता है ।
कहस्सेदारी रखता है । b) प्रश् का उत्तर केवल ककसी एक कथन का उपयोग करके
नीचे कदए गए कोड का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: कदया िा सकता है ।
a) केवल 1 c) प्रश् का उत्तर दोनोां कथनोां का एक साथ उपयोग करके
b) केवल 2 कदया िा सकता है , लेककन ककसी एक कथन का अकेले
c) 1 और 2 दोनोां उपयोग करके उत्तर नही ां कदया िा सकता है ।
d) न तो 1 और न ही 2 d) प्रश् का उत्तर दोनोां कथनोां का एक साथ उपयोग करके
भी नहीां कदया िा सकता है ।
Q.45) समाचारोां में अक्सर उस्तिस्तखत 'कटि पल प्लैनेटरी
क्राइकसस' शब्द का अथु है : Q.48) कनम्नकलस्तखत पर कवचार करें :
a) दु कनया भर के दे शोां की तीन प्राथकमक आकथुक कचांताएँ , I. A + B का अथु है A, B की माँ है
किनमें गरीबी, बेरोिगारी और मुद्रास्फीकत शाकमल हैं । II. A - B का अथु है A, B का भाई है
b) िलवायु पररवतुन, आकथुक असमानता और रािनीकतक III. A % B का अथु है A, B की बहन है
अस्तथथरता की तीन मुख्य चुन कतयोां से मानव कल्याण के IV. A * B का अथु है A, B का कपता है
कलए खतरा। V. A / B का अथु है A, B की बेटी है
c) तीन मुख्य परस्पर िुड़े मुद्दे किनका मानवता वतुमान में VI. A > B का अथु है A, B का बेटा है ।
सामना कर रही है अथाु त् िलवायु पररवतुन, प्रदू िण प्रश्न: यकद व्यांिक L + Q * X - O / C % H सत्य है , तो L
और िैव कवकविता का नुकसान। का O से क्या सांबांि है
d) केंद्रीय बैंकोां की तीन प्राथकमक कचांताएँ किनमें एक स्वतांत्र कनम्नकलस्तखत में से क न सा उपरोक्त के सांबांि में सही है ?
म कद्रक नीकत, एक कनकित कवकनमय दर और पूांिी का a) L, O की माँ है
मुक्त प्रवाह बनाए रखना शाकमल है । b) L, O की दादी है
c) L, O का कपता है
Q.46) कक्षा-IV में ‘m’ छात्रोां के औसत अांक ‘n’ हैं । िब d) सांबांि कनिाु ररत नहीां ककया िा सकता
एक प्रकतभाशाली छात्र रािेश के अांक भी शाकमल ककए िाते
हैं , तो छात्रोां का औसत ‘n + 1’ हो िाता है । यकद हम एक कनम्नकलस्तखत 2 (दो) प्रश्नों के कलए कनदे श:
अन्य प्रकतभाशाली छात्र राकेश के अांक भी शाकमल करते हैं , कनम्नकलस्तखत दो पररच्छे दोां को पढें और पररच्छे दोां के बाद
तो कक्षा का औसत ‘n + 2’ हो िाता है । राकेश और रािेश आने वाले प्रश्ोां के उत्तर दें । इन प्रश्ोां के कलए आपके उत्तर
द्वारा प्राप्त अांकोां में क्या अांतर है ? केवल पररच्छे दोां पर आिाररत होने चाकहए।
a) 4
b) 6 पररच्छे द I
c) 2 चूँकक औपकनवेकशक काल में अांग्रेजी शासक वगु की भािा
d) 8 थी, इसकलए इसे बोलना उच्च सामाकिक स्तथथकत का प्रतीक
बन गया, किससे अपनी मातृभािा बोलने वालोां में हीन भावना
Q.47) एक प्रश् कदया गया है किसके बाद दो कथन I और II पैदा हुई। दु ख की बात है कक कुछ क्षेत्रीय भािाओां को
कदए गए हैं । नीचे कदए गए प्रश् और कथनोां पर कवचार करें : छोड़कर, अकिकाां श अन्य भारतीय भािा समूहोां ने अनिाने
प्रश्न: यकद a, b और c िनात्मक पूणाां क हैं , तो क्या (2a + में "स्तथथकत-प्रतीक पररघटना" के आगे घुटने टे क कदए हैं ।
4b) और (a - b + c) का योग 3 से कवभाज्य है ? आि कई शहरी कनवासी बोलचाल में अांग्रेजी शब्दोां का
कथन: अकिक उपयोग करते दे खे िाते हैं । अपनी समृद्ध भािाई
Ι. (a + b) 3 से कवभाज्य है । परां पराओां से अनकभज्ञ, कई लोग मानते हैं कक हमारी अपनी
ΙΙ. c 3 से कवभाज्य है । भािाओां में शब्दावली कम है , और यह भािाई उपकनवेशवाद
का सबसे भयावह प्रभाव है ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.49) Based on the above passage, which of the

following assumptions can be made?
a) The perception of linguistic superiority is
often shaped by historical and social
influences rather than the inherent qualities
of a language.
b) The gradual integration of English into
colloquial speech indicates a conscious
rejection of native linguistic traditions.
c) The dominance of English in India has been
entirely beneficial, as it has provided a
unifying mode of communication across
diverse linguistic groups.
d) The decline of native languages is inevitable in
societies where a colonial language continues
to be associated with social prestige.

Passage II
Building a solar panel or a wind turbine isn't as
eco-friendly as you might think. The
manufacturing process is surprisingly energy-
intensive. Ironically, much of this energy still
comes from fossil fuels. This fact offsets some of
the environmental benefits that these renewable
technologies promise. The carbon footprint of
producing these infrastructures is significant,
and until cleaner manufacturing methods
become mainstream, this remains a hidden
environmental cost. It's a reminder that
transitioning to green energy involves more than
just the technology itself; it requires a rethinking
of the entire production chain.

Q.50) Which one of the following statements best

reflects the most logical and rational inference
that can be made from the passage?
a) The shift to renewable energy is futile unless
fossil fuels are completely eliminated from the
energy supply chain.
b) The environmental impact of renewable
energy technologies is exaggerated, as their
long-term benefits outweigh the initial
carbon footprint.
c) The true sustainability of renewable energy
depends not just on its usage but also on the
greenness of its manufacturing process.
d) Renewable energy sources like solar and wind
are no better than fossil fuels in terms of
environmental impact.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 5 |

Q.49) उपरोक्त पररच्छे द के आिार पर, कनम्नकलस्तखत में से d) स र और पवन िैसे नवीकरणीय ऊिाु स्रोत पयाुवरणीय
क न सी िारणा बनाई िा सकती है ? प्रभाव के मामले में िीवाश्म ईांिन से बेहतर नहीां हैं ।
a) भािाई श्रेष्ठता की िारणा अक्सर भािा के अांतकनुकहत
गुणोां के बिाय ऐकतहाकसक और सामाकिक प्रभावोां से
आकार लेती है ।
b) बोलचाल की भािा में अांग्रेिी का क्रकमक एकीकरण
दे शी भािाई परां पराओां की सचेत अस्वीकृकत को इां कगत
करता है ।
c) भारत में अांग्रेिी का प्रभुत्व पूरी तरह से फायदे मांद रहा
है , क्योांकक इसने कवकभन्न भािाई समूहोां के बीच सांचार का
एक एकीकृत तरीका प्रदान ककया है ।
d) उन समािोां में मूल भािाओां का पतन अपररहायु है िहाँ
एक औपकनवेकशक भािा सामाकिक प्रकतष्ठा से िुड़ी हुई
है ।

पररच्छे द II
स र पैनल या पवन टरबाइन बनाना उतना पयाु वरण
अनुकूल नहीां है कितना आप सोच सकते हैं । कवकनमाु ण
प्रकक्रया आियुिनक रूप से ऊिाु -गहन है । कवडां बना यह है
कक इस ऊिाु का अकिकाां श कहस्सा अभी भी िीवाश्म ईांिन
से आता है । यह तथ्य इन नवीकरणीय प्र द्योकगककयोां द्वारा
कदए िाने वाले कुछ पयाु वरणीय लाभोां को कम कर दे ता है ।
इन बुकनयादी ढाँ चोां के कनमाु ण का काबुन पदकचह्न महत्वपूणु
है , और िब तक स्वच्छ कवकनमाु ण कवकियाँ मुख्यिारा में नहीां
आ िातीां, तब तक यह एक कछपी हुई पयाु वरणीय लागत
बनी रहे गी। यह याद कदलाता है कक हररत ऊिाु में पररवतुन
में केवल प्र द्योकगकी ही शाकमल नहीां है ; इसके कलए सांपूणु
उत्पादन श्रृांखला पर पुनकवुचार की आवश्यकता है ।

Q.50) कनम्नकलस्तखत में से क न सा कथन सबसे ताककुक और

तकुसांगत कनष्किु को दशाु ता है िो पररच्छे द से कनकाला िा
सकता है ?
a) नवीकरणीय ऊिाु में बदलाव तब तक कनरथुक है िब
तक िीवाश्म ईांिन को ऊिाु आपू कतु श्रृांखला से पूरी तरह
से समाप्त नही ां कर कदया िाता।
b) नवीकरणीय ऊिाु प्र द्योकगककयोां का पयाु वरणीय प्रभाव
अकतरां कित है , क्योांकक उनके दीघुकाकलक लाभ प्रारां कभक
काबुन पदकचह्न से अकिक हैं ।
c) नवीकरणीय ऊिाु की वािकवक स्तथथरता न केवल इसके
उपयोग पर बस्ति इसकी कवकनमाु ण प्रकक्रया की हररतता
पर भी कनभुर करती है ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T6 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 221156

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES & CSAT

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

Q.1) Which among the following steps is most Q.4) In the context of Indian economy, “Bracket
likely to be taken at the time of an economic Creep” refers to the situation where:
recession? a) inflation pushes taxpayers into higher
a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in income tax slabs, increasing their tax burden
interest rate even if their real income remains the same.
b) Increase in expenditure on public project b) inflation in the economy exceeds the
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by prescribed limits due to sudden supply side
reduction of interest rate constraints.
d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects c) prices of goods increase at a very slow but
continuous pace.
Q.2) It is a method of economic planning that d) increase in the tax rates beyond certain
focuses on guiding the economy towards limits reduces the overall revenue of the
specific goals using forecasts and policy government.
measures. It encourages private participation in
the economy. Q.5) Consider the following information
Which of the following best describes the above regarding the various prominent statues located
type of planning? in India:
a) Normative Planning Statue Located Dedicated To
b) Systems Planning in State
c) Indicative Planning 1. Statue of Andhra
Ramanujacharya
d) Target Planning Social Pradesh
Justice
Q.3) Consider the following statements 2. Statue of Gujarat Sardar
regarding the Producer Price Index (PPI): Unity Vallabhbhai Patel
Statement-I: It has replaced Wholesale price 3. Statue of Tamil Dr. B.R.
index for measuring inflation in most of the G- Equality Nadu Ambedkar
20 countries. 4. Statue of Rajasthan Adi
Belief Shankaracharya
Statement-II: It excludes taxes, trade margins,
In how many of the above rows is the given
and transport costs for better measurement of
information correctly matched?
inflation at the production level.
a) Only one
Statement-III: It includes the price of imported
b) Only two
goods while calculating the index.
c) Only three
Which one of the following is correct in respect
d) All four
of the above statements?
a) Both Statement II and Statements III are
Q.6) In the context of macro-economics, which
correct and both of them explain
of the following best describes the term
Statement I.
"Biflation"?
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are
a) The simultaneous occurrence of inflation and
correct but only one of them explains
deflation in different sectors of the economy.
Statement I.
b) The period of hyperinflation followed by
c) Only one of Statements II and III is correct
rapid deflation.
and that explains Statement I.
c) The situation where both unemployment and
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is
inflation rates are high.
correct
d) The scenario where inflation is concentrated
in specific sectors while other sectors remain
stable.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

Q.7) With reference to the planning in India, d) It is equipped with Active Electronically
consider the following statements regarding the Scanned Array (AESA) multi-function radar.
Twenty Point Programme (TPP):
1. It was launched during the Fifth Five-Year Q.11) The Eighth Five Year Plan is different from
Plan. the earlier ones. The critical difference lies in
2. The Prime Minister Office has been given the the fact that:
responsibility of monitoring all the items a) it has a considerably larger outlay compared
under the programme. to the earlier plans
Which of the above statements is/are correct? b) it has a major thrust on agricultural and rural
a) 1 only development
b) 2 only c) considerable emphasis is placed on
c) Both 1 and 2 infrastructure growth
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) industrial licensing has been abolished

Q.8) Tax Buoyancy is the responsiveness of tax

revenue growth to the changes in the - Q.12) Which one of the following concepts
a) Gross Domestic Product of a country. explains the inter-relationship between inflation
b) tax rates in a country. and interest rates in the economy?
c) tax base in a country. a) Lorenz Curve
d) rate of inflation in a country. b) Phillips Curve
c) Fisher Effect
Q.9) Consider the following statements: d) Laffer Curve
Statement-I: Core inflation is generally more
stable than headline inflation. Q.13) Which of the following statements is
Statement-II: The headline inflation includes correct with reference to the ‘tax expenditure’?
the prices of fuel and food items whereas the a) It is the tax revenue loss borne by the
core inflation does not include them. government due to the existence of a large
Which one of the following is correct in respect informal sector.
of the above statements? b) It is the revenue foregone by the government
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are due to special tax provisions, like exemptions
correct and Statement-II explains and deductions.
Statement-I. c) It is the tax revenue lost by the government
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are exchequer due to evasion by companies.
correct and Statement-II does not explain d) It is the expenditure incurred by the
Statement-I. government to collect both direct and
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is indirect taxes.
incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Q.14) With reference to the economic theory,
correct. the Pigou Effect explains how:
a) deflationary conditions in the economy
Q.10) Which of the following statements boosts consumption and employment.
regarding the Akash NG (Akash New Generation) b) higher interest rates in the economy lead to
missile is correct? reduced consumption.
a) It is a new generation air-to-air missile. c) high inflation levels lead to reduction in
b) It has an interception range of up to 150 km. overall saving rates in the economy.
c) It is powered by a scramjet rocket propulsion d) price drop of goods decreases the demand
system. for such goods.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

Q.15) Which of the following statements is/are 2. Round A practice where company
correct regarding the recently launched XPoSat tripping shifts its headquarter/legal
Mission? residence in a low tax
1. It has been launched primarily to provide country.
internet services to geographically remote 3. Base A practice when multinational
and challenging areas. erosion companies (MNCs) shift their
2. The Mission carries two payloads namely and profit profits from higher-tax
POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X-rays) shifting countries to low or no tax
and XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and countries.
Timing). How many pairs given above are correctly
Select the correct answer using the code given matched?
below: a) Only one
a) 1 only b) Only two
b) 2 only c) All three
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.19) Consider the following features:
Q.16) ‘Deflationary Gap’ is a situation when- 1. Rising level of unemployment in an economy.
a) aggregate demand is more than supply in an 2. Stagnant growth in spite of higher consumer
economy. spending.
b) there is a severe and prolonged economic 3. Increased Non-Performing Assets in Banking
downturn . sector.
c) real GDP of an economy is less than potential 4. Rise in inflation and interest rates in an
GDP economy.
d) nominal GDP of an economy is more than How many of the above features are associated
real GDP with Recession in an economy?
a) Only one
Q.17) With reference to Wholesale Price Index b) Only two
(WPI), consider the following statements: c) Only three
1. It is published by the National Statistical d) All four
Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation.
2. It does not include services in its calculation Q.20) Consider the following statements:
and primarily tracks price movements of 1. The United Nations Environment Programme
goods at the wholesale level. (UNEP) was established as an outcome of the
3. The effective prices for Manufactured UN Conference on Environment and
Products used for compilation of WPI do not Development also known as the Earth
include indirect taxes. Summit.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The UN Environment Assembly (UNEA)
correct? serves as the world’s highest-level decision-
a) 1 and 2 making body for matters related to the
b) 2 and 3 environment.
c) 3 only 3. The membership of UNEA includes all
d) 1 and 3 members of the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are
Q.18) Consider the following pairs: correct?
Term Description a) 1 and 2 only
1. Tax A practice when a company b) 2 and 3 only
inversion sells assets to another for the c) 1 and 3 only
sake of generating higher d) 1, 2 and 3
sales and later buying back.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

Q.21) Rise in the price of a commodity means b) 1 and 3

a) rise in the value of currency only c) 2 and 3
b) fall in the value of currency only d) 3 and 4
c) rise in the value of commodity only
d) fall in the value of currency and rise in the Q.25) Consider the following countries:
value of commodity 1. Egypt
2. Saudi Arabia
Q.22) Consider the following: 3. Yemen
1. Carbon tax 4. Oman
2. Tobacco tax 5. Ethiopia
3. Fuel cess How many of the above countries share a land
How many of the above are examples of border with the Red Sea?
Pigouvian tax? a) Only two
a) Only one b) Only three
b) Only two c) Only four
c) All three d) All five
d) None
Q.26) Consider the following statements:
Q.23) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Value Added Tax (VAT) eliminates
regarding theGoods and Services Tax (GST) cascading by providing for set off for taxes paid
Council: on inputs and only taxing value addition.
1. The Union Minister of State in charge of Statement-II: The Value Added Tax is a single
Revenue serves as the ex-officio Vice-Chairman point tax on sale of the product.
of the council. Which one of the following is correct in respect
2. It is responsible for recommending the date of the above statements?
on which Goods and Services Tax (GST) shall be a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
levied on aviation turbine fuel. correct and Statement-II is the correct
3. It shall establish a mechanism to adjudicate explanation for Statement-I.
any dispute between two or more states arising b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
out of the recommendations of the council. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Which of the statements given above are explanation for Statement-I.
correct? c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
a) 1 and 2 only incorrect.
b) 2 and 3 only d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
c) 1 and 3 only correct.
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.27) Consider the following statements about
Q.24) Which of the following factors can lead to the Securities Transaction Tax (STT) in India:
demand-pull inflation in an economy? 1. It is a direct tax which is charged on the sale
1. Surge in government capital expenditure and and purchase of securities in the stock
welfare spending. exchange.
2. Increase in policy interest rates by the 2. The revenue collected from it is shared
central bank. between the Centre and the States.
3. Rapid rise in wages and employment levels in Which of the statements given above is/are
the economy. correct?
4. Hike in Corporate tax. a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 only
below. c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

Q.28) Consider the following statements about Q.31) Which one of the following represents a
the National Institution for Transforming India progressive tax structure?
(NITI Aayog): a) Tax rate is the same across all incomes
1. The Chief Ministers of all the states in India b) Tax rate increases as income increases
are members of the Governing Council of c) Tax rate decreases as income increases
NITI Aayog. d) Each household pays equal amount of tax
2. Chairman of NITI Aayog is appointed by the
Appointments Committee of the Union Q.32) In the context of the Consumer Food price
Cabinet. Index (CFPI) in India, consider the following
3. It has the authority of allocating funds for statements:
projects of the Government of India. 1. It is released by the Ministry of Consumers
Which of the statements given above is/are Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
incorrect? 2. It is calculated on a monthly basis.
a) 3 only 3. Cereals and related products occupy around
b) 2 and 3 only one-third of the weight in CFPI.
c) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are
d) None correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.29) Consider the following: b) 1 and 3 only
1. High rates of unemployment c) 2 and 3 only
2. Decrease in purchasing power of money d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Low levels of demand in the economy
4. Reduced income inequality Q.33) In the context of Indian economy, consider
Which of the above may occur when an the following statements:
economy is experiencing stagflation? Statement - I: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI),
a) 1 and 3 only sets the inflation target to guide monetary
b) 1, 2 and 4 only policy.
c) 1, 2 and 3 only Statement - II: The primary objective of
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Monetary policy according to the RBI Act, 1934,
is to maintain price stability while keeping in
Q.30) Consider the following statements mind the objective of growth.
regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Which one of the following is correct in respect
Organization (NATO): of the above statements?
1. It was established by signing of the a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Washington Treaty. correct and Statement-II explains
2. Currently, all countries of the European Statement-I
Union are members of NATO. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct, but Statement-II does not explain
correct? Statement-I
a) 1 only c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
b) 2 only incorrect
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

Q.34) Consider the following information: a) Deflation

b) Disinflation
Plan Based on Primary focus
c) Creeping inflation
d) Skewflation
1. First Five Harrod- Agriculture
Year Plan Domar Model
Q.37) Consider the following statements with
2. Second Mahalanobis Rapid reference to Inverted Duty Structure under GST
Five Year Model industrialization mechanism in India:
Plan Statement - I: An inverted duty structure results
in the accumulation of Input Tax Credit (ITC).
3. Third Gadgil Heavy Statement - II: The inverted duty structure
Five Year Formula industries occurs when the tax on raw materials is higher
Plan than the tax on finished goods.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
In how many of the above rows is the given
of the above statements?
information correctly matched?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) Only one
correct and Statement-II explains
b) Only two
Statement-I
c) All three
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) None
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
Statement-I
Q.35) With reference to various technologies c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
used in Advanced Driver Assistance Systems incorrect
(ADAS), and their primary application in ADAS, d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
consider the following pairs: correct
Technology used in Application of the
Advanced Driver technology in ADAS Q.38) Consider the following statements with
Assistance Systems reference to Arm’s length principle of pricing:
(ADAS) 1. It is a pricing mechanism under which
1. Lidar To detect objects related entities of a multinational company
using radio waves can set their own prices based on mutual
2. Ultrasonic sensors To detect objects agreements, even if they differ from market
using high-frequency rates.
sound waves 2. It is used by Tax authorities as one of the
3. Infrared sensors To detect objects in tools to curb tax evasion practises of
low-light conditions. Multinational Companies (MNCs).
How many of the pairs given above are correctly 3. At present, India has no law which
matched? determines the Arm’s length pricing.
a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are
b) Only two correct?
c) All three a) 1 and 2
d) None b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
Q.36) Suppose a scenario in the Indian d) 1 and 3
Economy- “The Consumer Price Index (CPI)
combined for continuous 7 months is below 0.”
The scenario best reflects:

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

Q.39) With reference to various Economic How many of the above pairs are correctly
development plans of India, Consider the matched?
following pairs: a) Only one
Name of Plan Prepared By b) Only two
c) All three
1. Sarvodaya Plan Srimana Narayana
d) None
Agarwal
2. People’s Plan M.N. Roy
Q.43) With reference to Indian economy,
3. Gandhian Plan JP Narayan consider the following statements::
How many of the pairs given above are correctly The Inflation may:
matched? 1. benefit the borrowers who have taken loans
a) Only one from the banks.
b) Only two 2. increase the government tax revenue.
c) All three 3. benefit the individuals who deposited their
d) None money in time deposits.
How many of the statements given above are
Q.40) With reference to Indian Gharial, consider correct?
the following statements: a) Only one
1. The Indian Gharial is listed as "Critically b) Only two
Endangered" on the IUCN Red List. c) All three
2. One of the most prominent habitats of the d) None
Indian Gharial is Chilika Lake.
3. The long and narrow snout of Gharials limits Q.44) With reference to the Goods and Service
their ability to catch and feed on fishes. Tax (GST), the reverse charge mechanism is best
Which of the statements given above is/are associated with:
correct? a) the liability to pay tax is on the recipient of
a) 1 only the supply of goods or services.
b) 1 and 2 b) the liability to pay tax is on the supplier of
c) 3 only goods and services.
d) 1 and 3 c) the liability to pay tax is shared equally
between the supplier and the recipient.
Q.41) Which one of the following functions as an d) the liability to pay tax is reversed by the
automatic stabilizer in the context of fiscal and government to the supplier who is a foreign
monetary policies of an economy? entity.
a) Personal income tax
b) Reverse repo rate of bank Q.45) With respect to investments in capital
c) Open market operation markets, which of the following statements best
d) Bond price describes the term "Momentum Investing"?
a) It involves buying securities that are
Q.42) Consider the following: undervalued and holding them for long-term
Tax Description gains.
1. Withholding Tax deducted at the source b) It focuses on diversifying investment
Tax from salaries of employees, portfolio across various asset classes to
by the employers as a part of minimize risk.
income tax liability of the c) It involves purchasing assets that are
employees. consistently rising in price while selling
2. Tobin Tax Tax levied on foreign assets whose prices are falling.
exchange transactions. d) It entails investing in assets based on their
3. Angel Tax Tax imposed on incomes of recent market news, expecting short-term
high net-worth individuals price movements driven by news sentiment.
who generally invest in
start-up companies

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 6 |

Q.46) P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven players in a India and China that brought the Indian Ocean
team. R is taller than only four of them. P is back into the limelight. Today, the Indian Ocean
shorter than Q, but taller than T, who is taller Region has become a critical theatre in global
than U but shorter than V, who is shorter than geopolitics, with even external players showing
Q, who is shorter than S. Who is the tallest of heightened interest.
all?
a) P Q.49) Based on the above passage, the following
b) Q assumptions have been made:
c) S 1. The Cold War led to a sustained and intense
d) V geopolitical contestation in the Indian Ocean
region.
Q.47) An elevator can carry a maximum 750 kg of 2. The economic rise of major Asian powers has
weight. The first two persons to enter the been a key factor in reviving global interest in
elevator have weights 83 kg and 72 kg. If the the Indian Ocean.
least weight of any person to enter the elevator Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
was 48 kg, find the maximum number of persons a) 1 only
the elevator would have accommodated? b) 2 only
a) 12 c) Both 1 and 2
b) 13 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 14
d) 11 Passage II
Bamboo is a fast growing, versatile woody grass
Q.48) There are two divisions in a school, named found across the country. It is an economic
division A and division B. The ratio of the resource having immense potential for
number of students from division A to the improving the quality of life of rural and urban
number of students in division B is 3 : 4. As many communities with environmental regeneration
students from division A like Mathematics as the qualities like carbon sequestering. Bamboo
number of students from division B who do not provides raw material for large industries like
like Mathematics. Which of the following cannot paper and pulp as well as for cottage and
be the ratio of the number of students from handicrafts industry. Bamboo shoots are used in
division A who do not like Mathematics to the the preparation of vegetables and various other
number of students from division B who like dishes and many other horticultural uses.
Mathematics? Bamboo roots, leaves, sap and ash have been
a) 7 : 10 used since ancient times as a remedy for minor
b) 10 : 13 and major ailments, particularly in Ayurvedic
c) 1 : 4 health care.
d) 4 : 7
Q.50) Which of the following statements best
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: reflects the most logical and rational inference
Read the following two passages and answer the that can be made from the passage?
items that follow the passages. Your answers to a) Bamboo’s economic and ecological benefits
these items should be based on the passages make it a crucial resource for sustainable
only development and diverse industrial
applications.
Passage I b) The primary significance of bamboo lies in its
Historically, the Indian Ocean was a key use as a raw material for large-scale
geography that facilitated European colonial industries like paper and pulp.
expansion into Asia. Its relevance declined after c) Bamboo’s role in environmental regeneration
decolonisation, particularly during the Cold War. is secondary to its commercial and industrial
After the Cold War, a strategic vacuum emerged applications.
in the Indian Ocean, likely due to its fragmented d) Traditional uses of bamboo in medicine and
political construct and the lack of any food have declined due to industrialization
remarkable contestations, regional or global. It and modernization.
was the twenty-first century economic rise of

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

जब तक आपको यह परीक्षण पुस्तिका खोलने को न कहा जाए तब तक न खोलें

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T7 परीक्षण पुस्तिका अनुक्रम
Test Code: 221157

A
परीक्षण पुस्तिका
सामान्य अध्ययन एवं सी.एस.ए.टी

पूणाांक : 100 समय: एक घंटे

अनुदेश
1. परीक्षा प्रारम्भ होने के तुरन्त बाद, आप इस परीक्षण पुस्तिका की पड़ताल अवश्य कर लें कक इसमें कोई कबना
छपा, फटा या छूटा हुआ पृष्ठ अथवा प्रश्ाां श, आकद न हो। यकद ऐसा है , तो इसे सही परीक्षण पुस्तिका से बदल
लीकिए।
2. कृपया ध्यान रखें कक OMR उत्तर-पत्रक में , उकित स्थान पर, रोल नम्बर और पररक्षण पु स्तिका
अनुक्रम A, B, C या D को, ध्यान से एवं कबना ककसी िूक या कवसंगकत के भरने और कूटबद्ध करने
की कजम्मे दारी उम्मीदवार की है । ककसी भी प्रकार की िूक/कवसंगकत की स्तस्थकत में उत्तर -पत्रक कनरि
कर कदया जाएगा ।
3. इस परीक्षण पु स्तिका पर साथ में कदए गए कोष्ठक
में आपको अपना अनु क्रमाां क कलखना है । परीक्षण
पुस्तिका पर और कुछ न कलखें।
4. इस परीक्षण पुस्तिका में 50 प्रश्ाां श (प्रश्) हैं । प्रत्येक
प्रश्ाां श अंग्रेजी और कहं दी में छपा है । प्रत्येक प्रश्ाां श में चार प्रत्युत्तर (उत्तर) कदए गए हैं । इनमें से एक प्रत्युतर
को चुन लें , किसे आप उत्तर-पत्रक पर अांककत करना चाहते हैं । यकद आपको ऐसा लगे कक एक से अकिक
प्रत्युत्तर सही हैं , तो उस प्रत्यु त्तर को अांककत करें िो आपको सवोत्तम लगे। ककसी भी स्तथथकत में , प्रत्येक प्रश्ाां श
के कलए केवल एक ही प्रत्युत्तर चुनना है ।
5. आपको अपने सभी प्रत्यु त्तर अलग से कदए गए उत्तर-पत्रक पर ही अां ककत करने हैं । उत्तर-पत्रक में कदए गए
कनदे श दे स्तखए।
6. सभी प्रश्ाां शोां के अांक सामान हैं ।
7. इससे पहले कक आप परीक्षण पुस्तिका के कवकभन्न प्रश्ाां शोां के प्रत्युत्तर उत्तर-पत्रक पर अांककत करना शु रू
करें , आपको प्रवे श प्रमाण-पत्र के साथ प्रेकित अनुदेशोां के अनुसार कुछ कववरण उत्तर-पत्रक में दे ने हैं ।
8. आप अपने सभी प्रत्यु त्तरोां को उत्तर-पत्रक में भरने के बाद तथा परीक्षा के समापन पर केवल उत्तर-पत्रक
अिीक्षक को स प ां दें । आपको अपने साथ परीक्षण पुस्तिका ले िाने की अनुमकत है ।
9. कच्चे काम के कलए पत्रक परीक्षण पुस्तिका के अांत में सांलन ह है ।
10. गलत उत्तरों के कलए दं ड :
विुकनष्ठ प्रश्न-पत्रों में उम्मीदवार द्वारा कदए गए गलत उत्तरों के कलए दं ड कदया जाएगा।
(i) प्रत्येक प्रश् के कलए चार वै कस्तिक उत्तर हैं । उम्मीदवार द्वारा प्रत्येक प्रश् के कलए कदए गए एक गलत उत्तर
के कलए प्रश् हे तु कनयत ककए गए अां कोां का एक-कतहाई दां ड के रूप में काटा िाएगा।
(ii) यकद कोई उम्मीदवार एक से अकिक उत्तर दे ता है , तो इसे गलत उत्तर माना िाएगा, यद्यकप कदए गए उत्तरोां
में से एक उत्तर सही होता है , कफर भी उस प्रश् के कलए उपयुुक्तानुसार ही, उसी तरह का दां ड कदया िाएगा।
(iii) यकद उम्मीदवार द्वारा कोई प्रश् हल नहीां ककया िाता है , अथाु त उम्मीदवार द्वारा उत्तर नहीां कदया िाता है , तो
उस प्रश् के कलए कोई दां ड नहीां कदया िाएगा।

जब तक आपको यह परीक्षण पुस्तिका खोलने को न कहा जाए तब तक न खोलें

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, Q.4) Consider the following mechanisms:
consider the following statements: 1. Quotas
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange 2. Trade Embargo
Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of 3. Import Duties
rupee. 4. Licenses
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange 5. Ad Valorem Duties
Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in How many of the above are examples of tariff
trade competitiveness. barriers that are often imposed by a country?
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation a) Only two
relative to inflation in other countries is likely b) Only three
to cause an increasing divergence between c) Only four
NEER and REER. d) All five
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.5) With reference to South Asia Sub Regional
b) 2 and 3 only Economic Cooperation (SASEC), consider the
c) 1 and 3 only following statements:
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Asian Development Bank (ADB) serves as the
secretariat for SASEC.
Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding 2. Pakistan, Afghanistan and India are members
the International Development Association (IDA) of this association.
a part of the World Bank group: 3. Energy and Transport are few of the sectoral
1. It generally provides interest-free loans and operational priorities of SASEC.
grants to the world's poorest countries. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Eligibility for IDA assistance is primarily based correct?
on a country's Gross National Income (GNI) a) 1 only
per capita. b) 2 and 3 only
3. Presently, India is outside the ambit of c) 1, 2 and 3
concessional loans under IDA. d) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.6) In the context of the Indian economy,
a) 1 only consider the following statements:
b) 2 only Statement-I: Indian rupee was made convertible
c) 2 and 3 only on the capital account in 1994.
d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement-II: Post 1991 crisis, full convertibility
of rupee on trade account in three to five years
Q.3) In the context of international trade, the was part of the structural reform announced by
term ‘Terms of Trade’ refers to the: Indian government.
a) ratio between the index of export prices and Which one of the following is correct in respect
the index of import prices of a country. of the above statements?
b) conditions on which two countries agree to a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
trade with each other. correct, and Statement-II explains
c) common conditions on which all countries of Statement-I.
a regional trade agreement agree to for trade. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) restrictions that a country imposes on its correct, but Statement-II does not explain
exporters in order to ensure a positive current Statement-I.
account. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
correct.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.1) भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्र्ा के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं 2. व्यापार प्रनतबंर् (Trade Embargo)
पर नवचार करें : 3. आयात र्ुल्क
1. िाममात्र/िॉनमिि प्रभावी नवनिमय दर (NEER) में वृखि 4. िाइसेंस
रुपये के मूल्य में वृखि दर्ाथ ती है । 5. यर्ामूल्य र्ुल्क (Ad Valorem Duties)
2. वास्तनवक प्रभावी नवनिमय दर (REER) में वृखि व्यापार उपयुथक्त में से नकतिे प्रर्ुल्कि/टै ररफ अवर र् ं के उदाहरण
प्रनतस्पर्ाथ त्मकता में सुर्ार का संकेत दे ती है । हैं ज अक्सर नकसी दे र् द्वारा िगाए जाते हैं ?
3. अन्य दे र् ं की तुििा में घरे िू मुद्रास्फीनत में बढ़ती प्रवृनि a) केवि द
के कारण NEER और REER के बीच नवचिि बढ़िे की b) केवि तीि
संभाविा है । c) केवि चार
उपयुथक्त में से कौि से कर्ि सही हैं ? d) सभी पााँ च
a) केवि 1 और 2
b) केवि 2 और 3 Q.5) दनक्षण एनर्या उप-क्षेत्रीय आनर्थक सहय ग (SASEC)
c) केवि 1 और 3 के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें :
d) 1, 2 और 3 1. एनर्याई नवकास बैंक (ADB) SASEC के सनचवािय के
रूप में कायथ करता है ।
Q.2) नवश्व बैंक समूह के एक भाग अं तराथ ष्ट्रीय नवकास संघ 2. पानकस्ताि, अफगानिस्ताि और भारत इस संघ के
(IDA) के संबंर् में निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें : सदस्य हैं ।
1. यह आम तौर पर दु निया के सबसे निर्थि दे र् ं क ब्याज 3. ऊजाथ और पररवहि SASEC की कुछ क्षेत्रीय पररचािि
मुक्त ऋण और अिुदाि प्रदाि करता है । प्रार्नमकताएं हैं ।
2. IDA सहायता के निए पात्रता मुख्य रूप से दे र् की प्रनत उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ?
व्यखक्त सकि राष्ट्रीय आय (GNI) पर आर्ाररत है । a) केवि 1
3. वतथमाि में भारत IDA के अंतगथत ररयायती ऋण के दायरे b) केवि 2 और 3
से बाहर है । c) 1, 2 और 3
उपयुथ क्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ? d) केवि 1 और 3
a) केवि 1
b) केवि 2
c) केवि 2 और 3 Q.6) भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्र्ा के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं
d) 1, 2 और 3 पर नवचार करें :
कथन-I: भारतीय रुपए क 1994 में पूंजी िाते में
Q.3) अं तराथ ष्ट्रीय व्यापार के संदभथ में, 'व्यापार की र्तें (टर्म्थ पररवतथिीय बिाया गया र्ा।
ऑफ टर े ड)' र्ब्द का तात्पयथ है : कथन-II: 1991 के संकट के बाद, तीि से पां च वर्षों में
a) नकसी दे र् के नियाथ त मूल्य सूचकां क और आयात मूल्य व्यापार िाते पर रुपये की पूणथ पररवतथिीयता भारत सरकार
सूचकां क के बीच का अिुपात। द्वारा घ नर्षत संरचिात्मक सुर्ार का नहस्सा र्ी।
b) वे र्तें नजि पर द दे र् एक दू सरे के सार् व्यापार करिे उपरोक्त कथनोां के सांबांि में कनम्नकलस्तखत में से क न सा सही
के निए सहमत ह ते हैं । है ?
c) सामान्य र्तें नजि पर क्षेत्रीय व्यापार समझौते के सभी a) कर्ि-I और कर्ि-II द ि ं सही हैं , तर्ा कर्ि-II
दे र् व्यापार के निए सहमत ह ते हैं । कर्ि-I की व्याख्या करता है ।
d) सकारात्मक चािू िाता सुनिनित करिे के निए क ई b) कर्ि-I और कर्ि-II द ि ं सही हैं , िेनकि कर्ि-II
दे र् अपिे नियाथ तक ं पर ज प्रनतबंर् िगाता है । कर्ि-I की व्याख्या िहीं करता है ।
c) कर्ि-I सही है , िेनकि कर्ि-II गित है ।
Q.4) निम्ननिखित तंत्र ं पर नवचार करें : d) कर्ि-I गित है , िेनकि कर्ि-II सही है ।
1. क टा (Quotas)

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.7) In the context of the World Trade 1. It originates from the Vindhya hill range in
Organization (WTO), the principle of National Madhya Pradesh.
Treatment refers to: 2. It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh,
a) treating foreign and domestic goods equally Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
once the foreign goods have entered the 3. The Tawa and Kolar Rivers are two major
domestic market. tributaries of Chambal River.
b) providing preferential treatment to domestic 4. Major dams on the Chambal include the Indira
industries to protect them from foreign Sagar Dam and the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
competition. Which of the statements given above are correct?
c) allowing member countries to grant subsidies a) 1 and 2 only
to domestic producers. b) 2 and 3 only
d) imposing higher tariffs on imported goods to c) 1, 2 and 4
counter the effect of subsidies provided by d) 1, 3 and 4
the exporter country.
Q.11) With reference to Trade Related Investment
Q.8) With reference to External Commercial Measures (TRIMS), which of the following
Borrowings (ECB) in the context of Indian statements is/are correct?
economy, consider the following statements : 1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by
1. It cannot be utilized for investments in the foreign investors are prohibited.
capital market. 2. They apply to investment measures related to
2. Non-governmental organizations (NGOs) trade in both goods and services.
involved in microfinance activities are eligible 3. They are not concerned with the regulation of
to avail ECBs. foreign investment.
3. It can be raised in Indian Rupee. Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above are correct? below:
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.9) In which of the following instruments are the Q.12) Recently seen in the news, Friendshoring
Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) in India allowed refers to which of the following trade practices?
to invest? a) It is the rerouting of supply chains to
1. Treasury Bills (T-Bills) countries perceived as politically and
2. Dated Government Securities economically safe or low-risk to avoid
3. Commercial Papers issued by Indian disruption to the flow of business.
companies b) It is bringing the production and
4. Indian depository receipts manufacturing back to the home country to
5. Real estate investment trusts decrease dependence on foreign suppliers
Select the correct answer using the code given and boost domestic industries.
below: c) It is the process of a company relocating
a) 1, 2 and 3 only business operations to a nearby country,
b) 1, 2, and 4 only often with a shared border.
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only d) Relocating business operations to another
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 country primarily to benefit from lower labor
costs and operational expenses.
Q.10) Consider the following statements
regarding Chambal River:

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.7) नवश्व व्यापार संगठि (WTO) के संदभथ में, िेर्िि 1. इसका उद्गम मध्य प्रदे र् में नवंध्य पवथत श्ृंििा से ह ता
टर ीटमेंट का नसिां त संदनभथत करता है : है ।
a) नवदे र्ी वस्तुओं के बाजार में प्रवेर् करिे के बाद नवदे र्ी 2. यह मध्य प्रदे र्, राजस्र्ाि और उिर प्रदे र् राि ं से
और घरे िू वस्तुओं के सार् समाि व्यवहार करिा। ह कर बहती है ।
b) घरे िू उद्य ग ं क नवदे र्ी प्रनतस्पर्ाथ से बचािे के निए 3. तवा और क िार िनदयााँ चम्बि िदी की द प्रमुि
उन्हें वरीयता की सुनवर्ा प्रदाि करिा। सहायक िनदयााँ हैं ।
c) सदस्य दे र् ं क घरे िू उत्पादक ं क सखिडी दे िे की 4. चम्बि पर बिे प्रमुि बां र् ं में इं नदरा सागर बां र् और
अिुमनत दे िा। सरदार सर वर बां र् र्ानमि हैं ।
d) नियाथ तक दे र् द्वारा प्रदाि की गई सखिडी के प्रभाव का उपयुथक्त में से कौि से कर्ि सत्य हैं ?
मुकाबिा करिे के निए आयानतत वस्तुओं पर उच्च a) केवि 1 और 2
टै ररफ िगािा। b) केवि 2 और 3
c) 1, 2 और 4
Q.8) भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्र्ा के संदभथ में बाह्य वानणखिक d) 1, 3 और 4
उर्ार (ECB) के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार
कीनजए : Q.11) व्यापार संबंर्ी निवेर् उपाय ं (टर े ड ररिेटेड इन्वेस्टमेंट
1. इसका उपय ग पूंजी बाजार में निवेर् के निए िहीं नकया मेजसथ; TRIMS) के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा
जा सकता। कर्ि सही है / हैं ?
2. माइक्र फाइिेंस गनतनवनर्य ं में र्ानमि गैर-सरकारी 1. नवदे र्ी निवेर्क ं द्वारा आयात पर मात्रात्मक प्रनतबंर्
संगठि (NGO) ECB प्राप्त करिे के पात्र हैं । निनर्षि हैं ।
3. इसे भारतीय रुपए में जुटाया जा सकता है । 2. वे वस्तुओं और सेवाओं द ि ं के व्यापार से संबंनर्त
उपयुथक्त में से कौि से कर्ि सत्य हैं ? निवेर् उपाय ं पर िागू ह ते हैं ।
a) केवि 1 और 2 3. वे नवदे र्ी निवेर् के नवनियमि से नचंनतत िहीं हैं ।
b) केवि 2 और 3 िीचे नदए गए कूट का उपय ग करके सही उिर चुिें:
c) केवि 1 और 3 a) केवि 1 और 2
d) 1, 2 और 3 b) केवि 2
c) केवि 1 और 3
Q.9) निम्ननिखित में से नकस सार्ि में भारत में नवदे र्ी d) 1, 2 और 3
प टथ फ निय निवेर्क ं (FPIs) क निवेर् करिे की अिुमनत
है ? Q.12) हाि ही में समाचार ं में दे िा गया, फ्रेंडर् ररं ग
1. टर े जरी नबि (T-Bills) निम्ननिखित में से नकस व्यापार प्रर्ा क संदनभथत करता है ?
2. नदिां नकत सरकारी प्रनतभूनतयााँ a) यह व्यापार के प्रवाह में व्यवर्ाि से बचिे के निए आपूनतथ
3. भारतीय कंपनिय ं द्वारा जारी वानणखिक पत्र श्ृंििाओं क उि दे र् ं की ओर पुिः निदे नर्त करिा है ,
4. भारतीय नडपॉनजटरी रसीदें नजन्हें राजिीनतक और आनर्थक रूप से सुरनक्षत या कम
5. ररयि एस्टे ट निवेर् टर स्ट ज खिम वािा मािा जाता है ।
िीचे नदए गए कूट का उपय ग करके सही उिर चुिें: b) यह नवदे र्ी आपूनतथकताथ ओं पर निभथरता कम करिे और
a) केवि 1, 2 और 3 घरे िू उद्य ग ं क बढ़ावा दे िे के निए उत्पादि और
b) केवि 1, 2, और 4 नवनिमाथ ण क वापस अपिे दे र् में िािा है ।
c) केवि 2, 3, 4 और 5 c) यह एक कंपिी द्वारा अपिे व्यवसाय क नकसी िजदीकी
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 और 5 दे र् में स्र्ािां तररत करिे की प्रनक्रया है , नजसकी सीमा
अक्सर साझा ह ती है ।
Q.10) चंबि िदी के संबंर् में निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार d) कम श्म िागत और पररचािि व्यय से िाभ उठािे के
करें : निए मुख्य रूप से अपिे व्यवसाय क दू सरे दे र् में
स्र्ािां तररत करिा।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.13) An Indian resident travels to the USA for a Q.17) Consider the following:
week and sends ₹1 lakh from his/her account to 1. The Rupee becomes stronger
his/her family in India. How is this transaction 2. The yield of Government bond increases
recorded in India's Balance of Payments (BoP)? 3. Easier fund mobilization for corporates
a) Current Account 4. Improvement in trade competitiveness
b) Capital Account How many of the above would be the possible
c) Financial Account impact on the Indian economy when the United
d) Not included in BoP States of America Federal Reserve decreases the
interest rate?
Q.14) The term Vostro Account, often heard in a) Only one
news refers to: b) Only two
a) an account that has no financial activity for a c) Only three
longer period of time. d) All four
b) an account that individuals hold in a foreign
bank, in foreign currency. Q.18) With reference to the Organisation for
c) an account that a foreign bank holds in a Economic Co-operation and Development
domestic bank, in domestic currency. (OECD), consider the following statements:
d) an account that a domestic bank holds in a
1. India is a founding member of the OECD.
foreign bank, in foreign currency.
2. It is a global standard setter to tackle tax
evasion and avoidance.
Q.15) Consider the following statement with Which of the statements given above is/are
regards to the Kaladan Multimodel Project, correct?
sometimes seen in news: a) 1 only
1. It aims to provide connectivity between India
b) 2 only
and Myanmar, linking ports on India’s eastern
c) Both 1 and 2
coast to Myanmar’s Sittwe Port
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Road link of this multimodal project
passes through the Siliguri Corridor.
Q.19) Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement-I: India has never experienced
correct?
Current Account surplus in its balance of
a) 1 only
payments in the last five years, since 2020-21.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Statement-II: India consistently had a
d) Neither 1 nor 2 merchandise trade deficit in the last five years.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
Q.16) With reference to the Most Favoured of the above statements?
Nation (MFN) status under WTO Framework, a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
consider the following statements : correct and Statement-II is the correct
1. It implies special preference given to the explanation for Statement-I.
trading partner with MFN status. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Regional Trade Agreements can be an correct and Statement-II is not the correct
exception to MFN status. explanation for Statement-I.
Which of the statements given above is/are c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
correct? incorrect.
a) 1 only d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
b) 2 only correct.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.13) एक भारतीय निवासी एक सप्ताह के निए अमेररका c) 1 और 2 द ि ं

जाता है और अपिे िाते से भारत में अपिे पररवार क ₹ 1 d) ि त 1 और ि ही 2
िाि भेजता है । यह िेिदे ि भारत के भुगताि संतुिि (BoP) .
में कैसे दजथ नकया जाता है ? Q.17) निम्ननिखित पर नवचार करें :
a) चािू िाता 1. रुपया मजबूत हुआ
b) पूंजी िाता 2. सरकारी का प्रकतफल बढ़ िाता है
c) नविीय िाता 3. कॉपोरे ट् स के निए आसाि फंड जुटािा
d) भुगताि संतुिि में र्ानमि िहीं 4. व्यापार प्रनतस्पर्ाथ में सुर्ार
जब संयुक्त राि अमेररका फेडरि ररजवथ द्वारा ब्याज दर में
Q.14) अक्सर समाचार ं में सुिा जािे वािा र्ब्द व स्टर कमी की जाएगी त भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्र्ा पर उपर क्त में से
अकाउं ट नकसक संदनभथत करता है ? नकतिे संभानवत प्रभाव ह ग ं े?
a) ऐसा िाता नजसमें िंबे समय तक क ई नविीय गनतनवनर् a) केवि एक
िहीं हुई ह । b) केवि द
b) एक िाता ज नकसी व्यखक्त द्वारा नवदे र्ी बैंक में नवदे र्ी c) केवि तीि
मुद्रा में रिा जाता है । d) सभी चार
c) एक िाता ज नकसी नवदे र्ी बैंक द्वारा घरे िू बैंक में घरे िू
मुद्रा में रिा जाता है । Q.18) आनर्थक सहय ग एवं नवकास संगठि (ओईसीडी) के
d) एक िाता ज नकसी घरे िू बैंक द्वारा नवदे र्ी बैंक में संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें :
नवदे र्ी मुद्रा में रिा जाता है । 1. भारत आनर्थक सहय ग एवं नवकास संगठि (OECD) का
संस्र्ापक सदस्य है ।
Q.15) कभी-कभी समाचार ं में आिे वािे किादाि 2. यह कर च री और कर पररहार से निपटिे के निए एक
मल्टीमॉडि प्र जेक्ट के संबंर् में निम्ननिखित कर्ि पर वैनश्वक मािक निर्ाथ रक है ।
नवचार करें : उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ?
1. इसका उद्दे श्य भारत और म्ां मार के बीच संपकथ a) केवि 1
स्र्ानपत करिा है , नजसमें भारत के पूवी तट पर खस्र्त b) केवि 2
बंदरगाह ं क म्ां मार के नसिवे बंदरगाह से ज ड़िा है c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
2. इस मल्टीमॉडि पररय जिा का सड़क संपकथ नसिीगुड़ी d) ि त 1 और ि ही 2
कॉररड र से ह कर गुजरता है ।
उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ? Q.19) निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें :
a) केवि 1 कथन-I: भारत िे 2020-21 के बाद से नपछिे पां च वर्षों में
b) केवि 2 अपिे भुगताि संतुिि में कभी भी चािू िाता अनर्र्ेर्ष का
c) 1 और 2 द ि ं अिुभव िहीं नकया है ।
d) ि त 1 और ि ही 2 कथन-II: भारत में नपछिे पां च वर्षों में िगातार व्यापाररक
घाटा रहा है ।
Q.16) नवश्व व्यापार संगठि फ्रेमवकथ के तहत सवाथ नर्क उपयुथक्त कर्ि ं के संबंर् में निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा सही
पसंदीदा राष्ट्र (एमएफएि) की खस्र्नत के संदभथ में, है ?
निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें : a) कर्ि-I और कर्ि-II द ि ं सही हैं , तर्ा कर्ि-II
1. इसका तात्पयथ है नक एमएफएि दजाथ प्राप्त व्यापाररक कर्ि-I की व्याख्या करता है ।
साझेदार क नवर्ेर्ष वरीयता दी जाती है । b) कर्ि-I और कर्ि-II द ि ं सही हैं , िेनकि कर्ि-II
2. क्षेत्रीय व्यापार समझौते एमएफएि दजे के निए अपवाद कर्ि-I की व्याख्या िहीं करता है ।
ह सकते हैं । c) कर्ि-I सही है , िेनकि कर्ि-II गित है ।
उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ? d) कर्ि-I गित है , िेनकि कर्ि-II सही है ।
a) केवि 1
b) केवि 2

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.20) With reference to Sahitya Akademi awards, Select the correct answer using the code given
consider the following statements: below:
1. The awards are exclusively granted for books a) 1 and 2
published in any of the 22 scheduled b) 2 only
languages recognized under the 8th Schedule c) 1 and 3
of the Indian Constitution. d) 3 only
2. The Sahitya Akademi Award is conferred only
upon Indian citizens. Q.24) With reference to International Monetary
Which of the statements given above is/are Fund (IMF) Quotas, consider the following
correct? statements:
a) 1 only 1. The size of a country’s quota in the IMF is
b) 2 only generally influenced by the size of its GDP.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Higher quotas allow countries to borrow more
d) Neither 1 nor 2 from the IMF's financial resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Q.21) Consider the following statements about G- correct?
20: a) 1 only
1. The G-20 group was originally established as b) 2 only
a platform for the Finance Ministers and c) Both 1 and 2
Central Bank Governors to discuss the d) Neither 1 nor 2
international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s Q.25) Consider the following statement with
G-20 priorities. regards to “Binturong”, sometimes seen in news
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. It is an omnivore species that has a prehensile
correct? tail.
a) 1 only 2. It is native to South and Southeast Asia
b) 2 only 3. It was recently classified as critically
c) Both 1 and 2 endangered under IUCN red list.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.22) Consider the following statements a) 1 and 2 only
regarding the Liberalised Remittance Scheme b) 3 only
(LRS): c) 1 and 3 only
1. Only individual resident Indians are allowed to d) 1, 2 and 3
remit funds under LRS.
2. The LRS allows individuals to remit funds for Q.26) Consider the following:
international travel and medical treatment. 1. It acts as the judicial arm of the United
Which of the statements given above are correct? Nations in case of economic disputes between
a) 1 only member countries.
b) 2 only 2. It can provide financing to member countries
c) Both 1 and 2 in response to natural disasters and
d) Neither 1 nor 2 pandemics.
3. It highlights financial stability risks to member
Q.23) Which of the following steps are likely to be countries and advises the government on
taken by the Central Bank/Government of India potential policy adjustments.
in order to address the depreciation of the Indian Which of the above is/are the functions/roles of
rupee? the International Monetary Fund?
1. Increasing policy rates to attract foreign a) 1 and 2 only
investments. b) 3 only
2. Promoting exports through incentives and c) 2 and 3 only
subsidies. d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Printing more rupees.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.20) सानहत्य अकादमी पुरस्कार ं के संदभथ में, िीचे नदए गए क ड का उपय ग करके सही उिर चुिें:
निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें : a) 1 और 2
1. ये पुरस्कार भारतीय संनवर्ाि की 8वीं अिुसूची के b) केवि 2
अंतगथत मान्यता प्राप्त 22 अिुसूनचत भार्षाओं में से नकसी c) 1 और 3
एक में प्रकानर्त पुस्तक ं के निए नवर्ेर्ष रूप से प्रदाि d) केवि 3
नकए जाते हैं ।
2. सानहत्य अकादमी पुरस्कार केवि भारतीय िागररक ं Q.24) अंतराथ ष्ट्रीय मुद्रा क र्ष (आईएमएफ) क टा के संदभथ
क ही प्रदाि नकया जाता है । में, निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें :
उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ? 1. आईएमएफ में नकसी दे र् के क टे का आकार
a) केवि 1 सामान्यतः उसके सकि घरे िू उत्पाद के आकार से
b) केवि 2 प्रभानवत ह ता है ।
c) 1 और 2 द ि ं 2. उच्च क टा दे र् ं क आईएमएफ के नविीय संसार्ि ं से
d) ि त 1 और ि ही 2 अनर्क उर्ार िेिे की अिुमनत दे ता है ।
उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ?
Q.21) G-20 के बारे में निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें : a) केवि 1
1. जी-20 समूह की स्र्ापिा मूितः नवि मंनत्रय ं और केंद्रीय b) केवि 2
बैंक गविथर ं के निए अं तराथ ष्ट्रीय आनर्थक और नविीय मुद्द ं c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
पर चचाथ करिे हे तु एक मंच के रूप में की गई र्ी। d) ि त 1 और ि ही 2
2. नडनजटि सावथजनिक अवसंरचिा भारत की जी-20
प्रार्नमकताओं में से एक है । Q.25) कभी-कभी समाचार ं में नदििे वािे “नबंटुर गं ” के
उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ? संबंर् में निम्ननिखित कर्ि पर नवचार करें
a) केवि 1 1. यह एक सवाु हारी प्रिाकत है किसकी एक पररग्राही पूांछ
b) केवि 2 होती है ।
c) 1 व 2 द ि ं 2. यह दनक्षण और दनक्षण पूवथ एनर्या का मूि निवासी है
d) ि त 1 ि ही 2 3. हाि ही में इसे IUCN की िाि सूची में गंभीर रूप से
संकटग्रस्त के रूप में वगीकृत नकया गया है ।
Q.22) उदारीकृत र्ि प्रेर्षण य जिा (एिआरएस) के संबंर् उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ?
में निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें : a) केवि 1 और 2
1. केवि व्यखक्तगत निवासी भारतीय ं क ही एिआरएस b) केवि 3
के अंतगथत र्ि भेजिे की अिुमनत है । c) केवि 1 और 3
2. एिआरएस व्यखक्तय ं क अं तराथ ष्ट्रीय यात्रा और नचनकत्सा d) 1, 2 और 3
उपचार के निए र्िरानर् भेजिे की अिुमनत दे ता है ।
उपयुथक्त में से कौि से कर्ि सत्य हैं ? Q.26) निम्ननिखित पर नवचार करें :
a) केवि 1 1. यह सदस्य दे र् ं के बीच आनर्थक नववाद ं के मामिे में
b) केवि 2 संयुक्त राष्ट्र की न्यानयक र्ािा के रूप में कायथ करता
c) 1 और 2 द ि ं है ।
d) ि त 1 और ि ही 2 2. यह प्राकृनतक आपदाओं और महामाररय ं के जवाब में
सदस्य दे र् ं क नविप र्षण प्रदाि कर सकता है ।
Q.23) भारतीय रुपए के मूल्यह्रास क र किे के निए 3. यह सदस्य दे र् ं के निए नविीय खस्र्रता ज खिम ं पर
केन्द्रीय बैंक/भारत सरकार द्वारा निम्ननिखित में से कौि से प्रकार् डािता है और संभानवत िीनत समाय जि पर
कदम उठाए जािे की संभाविा है ? सरकार क सिाह दे ता है ।
1. नवदे र्ी निवेर् आकनर्षथत करिे के निए िीनतगत दर ं में उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से अंतराथ ष्ट्रीय मुद्रा क र्ष का
वृखि। कायथ/भूनमका है /हैं ?
2. प्र त्साहि और सखिडी के माध्यम से नियाथ त क बढ़ावा a) केवि 1 और 2
दे िा। b) केवि 3
3. अनर्क मुद्रा छापिा। c) केवि 2 और 3
d) 1, 2 और 3

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.27) Consider the following: Q.30) With reference to the recently added
1. Rise in the general prices of goods and wetlands from India to the list of Ramsar sites,
services consider the following pairs:
2. Increase in the cost of production of goods.
Wetlands Associated
3. Increase in the Inflow of foreign capital.
states
Which of the given above is / are possible
impacts of weakening of the Indian Rupee in the 1. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary Odisha
economy?
a) 1 and 2 only 2. Magadi Kere Karnataka
b) 1 and 3 only Conservation Reserve
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Aghanashini Estuary Kerala

How many of the above given pairs are correctly

Q.28) Consider the following: matched?
Bank for International settlements (BIS) can a) Only one
provide financial service to: b) Only two
1. Central banks c) All three
2. Corporate entities with a global presence d) None
3. International Financial Institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.31) The balance of payments of a country is a
correct? systematic record of
a) 1 only a) all import and export transactions of a
b) 1 and 2 country during a given period normally a year.
c) 2 and 3 b) goods exported from a country during a year.
d) 1 and 3 c) economic transaction between the
government of one country to another.
Q.29) In the context of Foreign Currency d) capital movements from one country to
Convertible Bonds (FCCBs), consider the another.
following statements:
Statement I: These are not included in India’s Q.32) Consider the following statements
external debt. regarding the International Labour Organization
Statement II: Upon conversion into equity (ILO):
shares, they can be classified as Foreign Direct 1. It is the only tripartite United Nations Agency.
Investment (FDI) in India. 2. India has ratified all eight core conventions of
Which one of the following is correct in respect the ILO.
of the above statements? 3. It publishes the annual World Employment
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Social Outlook report.
and Statement II explains Statement I. Which of the statements given above are correct?
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, a) 1 and 2 only
but Statement II does not explain Statement I. b) 2 and 3 only
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is c) 1 and 3 only
incorrect. d) 1, 2 and 3
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.27) निम्ननिखित पर नवचार करें : Q.30) रामसर स्र्ि ं की सूची में भारत से हाि ही में ज ड़े
1. वस्तुओं और सेवाओं की सामान्य कीमत ं में वृखि गए आद्रथ भूनमय ं के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित युग् ं पर नवचार
2. वस्तुओं के उत्पादि की िागत में वृखि। करें :
3. नवदे र्ी पूंजी के प्रवाह में वृखि। आर्द्रभूकम संबद्ध राज्य
उपयुुक्त में से क न-सा/से अथुव्यवथथा में भारतीय रुपये के
कमिोर होने के सांभाकवत प्रभाव है /हैं ? 1. करै वेट्टी पक्षी अभयारण्य ओनडर्ा
a) केवि 1 और 2
2. मगदी केरे संरक्षण ररजवथ किाथ टक
b) केवि 1 और 3
c) केवि 2 3. अघिानर्िी ज्वारनदमुख केरि
d) 1, 2 और 3
उपयुथक्त में से नकतिे युग् सही सुमेनित हैं ?
a) केवि एक
Q.28) निम्ननिखित पर नवचार करें :
b) केवि द
अं तराथ ष्ट्रीय निपटाि बैंक (बीआईएस) निम्ननिखित क नविीय
c) तीि ं
सेवा प्रदाि कर सकता है :
d) क ई िहीं
1. केंद्रीय बैंक
2. वैनश्वक उपखस्र्नत वािी कॉपोरे ट संस्र्ाएं
Q.31) नकसी दे र् का भुगताि संतुिि एक व्यवखस्र्त
3. अं तराथ ष्ट्रीय नविीय संस्र्ाएाँ ।
ररकॉडथ है
उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ?
a) नकसी दे र् के नकसी निनित अवनर् (आमतौर पर एक
a) केवि 1
वर्षथ) के दौराि सभी आयात और नियाथ त िेिदे ि।
b) 1 और 2
b) एक वर्षथ के दौराि नकसी दे र् से नियाथ नतत माि।
c) 2 और 3
c) एक दे र् की सरकार से दू सरे दे र् की सरकार के बीच
d) 1 और 3
आनर्थक िेि-दे ि।
d) एक दे र् से दू सरे दे र् में पूंजी का स्र्ािां तरण।
Q.29) नवदे र्ी मुद्रा पररवतथिीय बां ड (एफसीसीबी) के संदभथ
में, निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें :
Q.32) अंतराथ ष्ट्रीय श्म संगठि (ILO) के संबंर् में
कथन I: ये भारत के नवदे र्ी ऋण में र्ानमि िहीं हैं ।
निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें :
कथन II: इखिटी र्ेयर ं में रूपां तरण के बाद, उन्हें भारत में
1. यह एकमात्र नत्रपक्षीय संयुक्त राष्ट्र एजेंसी है ।
प्रत्यक्ष नवदे र्ी निवेर् (एफडीआई) के रूप में वगीकृत नकया
2. भारत िे अंतराथष्ट्रीय श्म संगठि के सभी आठ मुख्य
जा सकता है ।
अनभसमय ं का अिुसमर्थि कर नदया है ।
उपयुथक्त कर्ि ं के संबंर् में निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा सही
3. यह वानर्षथक नवश्व र जगार और सामानजक पररदृश्य
है ?
ररप टथ प्रकानर्त करता है ।
a) कर्ि I और कर्ि II द ि ं सही हैं और कर्ि II
उपयुथक्त में से कौि से कर्ि सत्य हैं ?
कर्ि I की व्याख्या करता है ।
a) केवि 1 और 2
b) कर्ि I और कर्ि II द ि ं सही हैं , िेनकि कर्ि II
b) केवि 2 और 3
कर्ि I की व्याख्या िहीं करता है ।
c) केवि 1 और 3
c) कर्ि I सही है , िेनकि कर्ि II गित है ।
d) 1, 2 और 3
d) कर्ि I गित है , िेनकि कर्ि II सही है ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.33) Which of the following statements b) The drastic decrease in the current and
regarding the Trade-Related Aspects of capital account deficit of the country.
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement of c) The Indian rupee is used for international
World Trade Organization is incorrect? trade and cross-border payments.
a) It was an outcome of the Uruguay Round of d) Large scale increase in foreign investment in
the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade the country.
(GATT).
b) The World Intellectual Property Organization Q.37) Consider the following:
(WIPO) was established under this agreement. 1. US Dollar
c) It allows compulsory licensing under certain 2. Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
conditions. 3. Euro
d) The areas of intellectual property that it 4. Indian Rupee
covers include geographical indications. As per the Economic Survey 2024-25, which of
the following correctly represent the descending
Q.34) Consider the following statement regarding order arrangement of currency in which the
International Centre for Settlement of external debt of India is primarily denominated?
Investment Disputes (ICSID): a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
1. India is a founding member of ICSID. b) 2 – 1 – 3 - 4
2. ICSID is one of the five organizations that c) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
make up the World Bank Group. d) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
3. Awards given by the forum are final and
binding, and may not be set aside by the Q.38) In the context of international trade, what
courts of any ICSID member State. does the term "Currency War" refer to?
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) A situation where countries impose trade
a) 1 and 2 only sanctions on each other.
b) 2 and 3 only b) A competition among nations to increase
c) 1 and 3 only foreign exchange reserves.
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) A scenario where countries deliberately
devalue their currency to gain a trade
Q.35) Consider the following statements advantage.
regarding the voting by the Members of d) A scenario where countries entering into
Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) in the Rajya Sabha bilateral agreement start trading in domestic
elections: currencies rather than global currency.
1. The MLAs of political parties are required to
display their ballot paper to authorized agents Q.39) Consider the following statements:
of political parties. Statement-I: Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
2. Members who vote contrary to their party's allocation to member countries by the
directives can face disqualification International Monetary Fund (IMF) is not a loan.
proceedings under the tenth schedule of the Statement-II: A member country does not earn
Constitution. interest or pay any fees on the SDRs it holds with
Which of the statements given above is/are the IMF.
correct? Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) 1 only a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
b) 2 only correct and Statement-II explains Statement-
c) Both 1 and 2 I
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
Q.36) Which of the following is best associated Statement-I
with the ‘Internationalization of the Indian Rupee c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(INR)’? incorrect
a) The Indian rupee is used to make payments d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
and buy things in foreign countries. correct.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.33) नवश्व व्यापार संगठि के बौखिक संपदा अनर्कार के b) दे र् के चािू एवं पूंजी िाता घाटे में भारी कमी।
व्यापार-संबंनर्त पहिुओं (TRIPS) समझौते के संबंर् में c) भारतीय रुपए का उपय ग अंतराथ ष्ट्रीय व्यापार और सीमा
निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा कर्ि गलत है ? पार भुगताि के निए नकया जाता है ।
a) यह टै ररफ और व्यापार पर सामान्य समझौते (GATT) d) दे र् में नवदे र्ी निवेर् में बड़े पैमािे पर वृखि।
के उरुग्वे दौर का पररणाम र्ा ।
b) इस समझौते के तहत नवश्व बौखिक संपदा संगठि Q.37) निम्ननिखित पर नवचार करें :
(WIPO) की स्र्ापिा की गई । 1. अमेररकी डॉिर
c) यह कुछ र्तों के अर्ीि अनिवायथ िाइसेंनसंग की 2. नवर्ेर्ष आहरण अनर्कार (एसडीआर)
अिुमनत दे ता है । 3. यूर
d) इसके अंतगथत बौखिक संपदा के क्षेत्र र्ानमि हैं नजिमें 4. भारतीय रुपया
भौग निक संकेत भी र्ानमि हैं । आनर्थक सवेक्षण 2024-25 के अिुसार, निम्ननिखित में से
कौि सा मुद्रा के अवर ही क्रम व्यवस्र्ा क सही ढं ग से
Q.34) निवेर् नववाद ं के निपटाि के निए अं तराथ ष्ट्रीय केंद्र दर्ाथ ता है नजसमें भारत का बाहरी ऋण मुख्य रूप से अंनकत
(आईसीएसआईडी) के संबंर् में निम्ननिखित कर्ि पर है ?
नवचार करें : a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
1. भारत आईसीएसआईडी का संस्र्ापक सदस्य है । b) 2 – 1 – 3 - 4
2. आईसीएसआईडी नवश्व बैंक समूह के पां च संगठि ं में से c) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
एक है । d) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
3. फ रम द्वारा नदए गए निणथय अंनतम और बाध्यकारी हैं ,
तर्ा नकसी भी आईसीएसआईडी सदस्य राि की Q.38) अंतराथ ष्ट्रीय व्यापार के संदभथ में, "मुद्रा युि" र्ब्द का
अदाित द्वारा उन्हें रद्द िहीं नकया जा सकता। क्या अर्थ है ?
उपयुथक्त में से कौि से कर्ि सत्य हैं ? a) ऐसी खस्र्नत, जहां दे र् एक-दू सरे पर व्यापार प्रनतबं र्
a) केवि 1 और 2 िगाते हैं ।
b) केवि 2 और 3 b) नवदे र्ी मुद्रा भंडार बढ़ािे के निए दे र् ं के बीच
c) केवि 1 और 3 प्रनतस्पर्ाथ ।
d) 1, 2 और 3 c) ऐसा पररदृश्य, जहां दे र् व्यापार िाभ प्राप्त करिे के निए
जािबूझकर अपिी मुद्रा का अवमूल्यि करते हैं ।
Q.35) रािसभा चुिाव ं में नवर्ाि सभा सदस्य ं (नवर्ायक )ं d) ऐसा पररदृश्य, जहां नद्वपक्षीय समझौते में प्रवेर् करिे
द्वारा मतदाि के संबंर् में निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें : वािे दे र् वैनश्वक मुद्रा के बजाय घरे िू मुद्राओं में व्यापार
1. राजिीनतक दि ं के नवर्ायक ं क अपिे मतपत्र करिा र्ुरू कर दे ते हैं ।
राजिीनतक दि ं के अनर्कृत एजेंट ं क नदिािा
आवश्यक है । Q.39) निम्ननिखित कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें :
2. ज सदस्य अपिी पाटी के निदे र् ं के नवपरीत मतदाि कथन-I: अंतराथ ष्ट्रीय मुद्रा क र्ष (आईएमएफ) द्वारा सदस्य
करते हैं , उन्हें संनवर्ाि की दसवीं अिुसूची के तहत दे र् ं क नवर्ेर्ष आहरण अनर्कार (एसडीआर) का आवंटि
अय ग्यता की कायथवाही का सामिा करिा पड़ सकता ऋण िहीं है ।
है । कथन-II: क ई सदस्य दे र् आईएमएफ के पास रिे
उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ? एसडीआर पर ब्याज िहीं कमाता है या क ई र्ुल्क िहीं दे ता
a) केवि 1 है ।
b) केवि 2 निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा कर्ि सही है ?
c) 1 और 2 द ि ं a) कर्ि-I और कर्ि-II द ि ं सही हैं और कर्ि-II
d) ि त 1, ि ही 2 कर्ि-I की व्याख्या करता है
b) कर्ि-I और कर्ि-II द ि ं सही हैं , िेनकि कर्ि-II
Q.36) निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा 'भारतीय रुपए कर्ि-I की व्याख्या िहीं करता है
(आईएिआर) के अं तराथ ष्ट्रीयकरण' से सबसे बेहतर ढं ग से c) कर्ि-I सही है , िेनकि कर्ि-II गित है
जुड़ा हुआ है ? d) कर्ि-I गित है , िेनकि कर्ि-II सही है ।
a) भारतीय रुपए का उपय ग नवदे र् ं में भुगताि करिे और
चीजें िरीदिे के निए नकया जाता है ।

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.40) Which of the following statements is/are 4. Special Drawing Rights

correct regarding the Mission Aspides? Select the correct answer using the code given
1. It has been recently launched by the below.
International Maritime Organization (IMO). a) 1 only
2. It is aimed at safeguarding commercial b) 2 and 3 only
shipments from Houthi Rebels of Yemen in c) 1 and 3 only
the Red Sea. d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Q.44) With reference to Foreign Direct
a) 1 only Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio
b) 2 only Investment (FPI), consider the following
c) Both 1 and 2 statements:
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. FDI is generally done as an investment in
financial assets, whereas FPI involves
Q.41) Exchange rates state the value of one investment in productive assets.
currency in terms of other currencies. Which one 2. In the Financial year 2024, the net FDI inflow
of the following statements with respect to the in India was twice that of the net FPI inflow.
exchange rate of currency is correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) Floating exchange rates are rates in which the correct?
Governments interfere by buying or selling a) 1 only
their currencies. b) 2 only
b) Fixed exchange rates are rates set by c) Both 1 and 2
Government decisions and maintained by d) Neither 1 nor 2
Government actions.
c) Under the Bretton Woods System, the Q.45) The G-33, an international coalition,
exchange rates are floated in terms of rise or recently seen in news, is most closely associated
fall in price of gold. with the:
d) Under the classical gold standard, the a) implementation of reforms in the voting
exchange rates are fixed in terms of the price structure of World Bank.
of the dollar. b) finding a permanent solution to public
stockholding for food security under WTO
Q.42) Consider the following information: provisions.
It is the difference between the member c) abolition of veto powers of the permanent
country’s quota and the International Monetary members of United Nations Security Council.
Fund (IMF) holdings of its currency. d) inclusion of more currencies in the basket of
Which one of the following best describes the Special Drawing Rights (SDR) of IMF.
above statement?
a) General Resources Account Q.46) A teacher and 12 students (6 boys and 6
b) Reserve Tranche Position girls) are sitting around a circular table. In how
c) Buffer Stock Facility many ways can these 13 individuals sit, if out of
d) Stand By Arrangement the 12 students no two student boys or no two
student girls sit next to each other?
Q.43) With reference to Balance of Payments, a) 2 × (5!)2
which of the following constitutes/ constitute b) 2 × (6!) × (5!)
the Current Account? c) 2 × (6!)2
1. Balance of trade d) (6!) × (5!)
2. Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.40) नमर्ि एस्पाइड् स के संबंर् में निम्ननिखित में से कौि िीचे नदए गए क ड का उपय ग करके सही उिर चुिें।
सा कर्ि सही है / हैं ? a) केवि 1
1. इसे हाि ही में अं तराथ ष्ट्रीय समुद्री संगठि (आईएमओ) b) केवि 2 और 3
द्वारा िॉन्च नकया गया है । c) केवि 1 और 3
2. इसका उद्दे श्य िाि सागर में यमि के हौर्ी नवद्र नहय ं से d) केवि 1, 3 और 4
वानणखिक नर्पमेंट की सुरक्षा करिा है ।
िीचे नदए गए क ड का उपय ग करके सही उिर चुिें: Q.44) प्रत्यक्ष नवदे र्ी निवेर् (एफडीआई) और नवदे र्ी
a) केवि 1 प टथ फ निय निवेर् (एफपीआई) के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित
b) केवि 2 कर्ि ं पर नवचार करें :
c) 1 और 2 द ि ं 1. एफडीआई आमतौर पर नविीय पररसंपनिय ं में निवेर्
d) ि त 1 और ि ही 2 के रूप में नकया जाता है , जबनक एफपीआई में उत्पादक
पररसंपनिय ं में निवेर् र्ानमि ह ता है ।
Q.41) नवनिमय दरें एक मुद्रा का मूल्य अन्य मुद्राओं के 2. नविीय वर्षथ 2024 में भारत में र्ुि एफडीआई प्रवाह
संदभथ में बताती हैं । मुद्रा की नवनिमय दर के संबंर् में र्ुि एफपीआई प्रवाह से द गुिा र्ा।
निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा कर्ि सही है ? उपयुथक्त में से कौि सा/से कर्ि सही है /हैं ?
a) फ्ल नटं ग नवनिमय दरें वे दरें हैं नजिमें सरकारें अपिी a) केवि 1
मुद्राओं क िरीदकर या बेचकर हस्तक्षेप करती हैं । b) केवि 2
b) निनित नवनिमय दरें सरकारी निणथय ं द्वारा निर्ाथ ररत की c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
जाती हैं तर्ा सरकारी कारथ वाइय ं द्वारा बिाए रिी जाती d) ि त 1 और ि ही 2
हैं ।
c) ब्रेटि वुड्स प्रणािी के अंतगथत, नवनिमय दरें स िे की Q.45) G-33, एक अंतराथ ष्ट्रीय गठबंर्ि, ज हाि ही में
कीमत में वृखि या नगरावट के आर्ार पर तय की जाती समाचार ं में रहा, सबसे अनर्क नकससे जुड़ा हुआ है ?
हैं । a) नवश्व बैंक की मतदाि संरचिा में सुर्ार ं का
d) परं परागत स्वणथ मािक के अंतगथत नवनिमय दरें डॉिर कायाथ ि्वयि।
की कीमत के आर्ार पर तय ह ती हैं । b) नवश्व व्यापार संगठि के प्रावर्ाि ं के तहत िाद्य सुरक्षा
के निए सावथजनिक भंडारण का स्र्ायी समार्ाि ढू ं ढिा।
Q.42) निम्ननिखित जािकारी पर नवचार करें : c) संयुक्त राष्ट्र सुरक्षा पररर्षद के स्र्ायी सदस्य ं की वीट
यह सदस्य दे र् के क टे और उसकी मुद्रा की अंतराथ ष्ट्रीय र्खक्तय ं क समाप्त करिा।
मुद्रा क र्ष (आईएमएफ) की नहस्सेदारी के बीच का अंतर है । d) आईएमएफ के नवर्ेर्ष आहरण अनर्कार (एसडीआर)
निम्ननिखित में से कौि सा कर्ि उपयुथक्त कर्ि का सबसे की ट करी में और अनर्क मुद्राओं क र्ानमि करिा।
अच्छा वणथि करता है ?
a) सामान्य संसार्ि िाता Q.46) एक नर्क्षक और 12 छात्र (6 िड़के और 6
b) ररजवथ टर ां च खस्र्नत िड़नकयााँ ) एक ग िाकार मेज के चार ं ओर बैठे हैं । ये 13
c) बफर स्टॉक सुनवर्ा व्यखक्त नकतिे तरीक ं से बैठ सकते हैं , यनद 12 छात्र ं में से
d) स्टैं ड बाय व्यवस्र्ा क ई भी द िड़के या क ई भी द िड़नकयााँ एक दू सरे के
बगि में िहीं बैठते हैं ?
Q.43) भुगताि संतुिि के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित में से कौि a) 2 × (5!) 2
सा/से चािू िाता का गठि करता है ? b) 2 × (6!) × (5!)
1. व्यापार संतुिि c) 2 × (6!) 2
2. नवदे र्ी पररसंपनियां d) (6!) × (5!)
3. अदृश्य का संतुिि
4. नवर्ेर्ष आहरण अनर्कार

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.47) 8 women and 5 men complete a task of b) Development Finance Institutions (DFIs) and
laying bricks in 5 days working 9 hours a day. Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs)
Three such tasks are to be completed. If the work primarily use public capital to guarantee
done by 5 men is equal to that done by 6 women, private investments, reducing their financial
then how many women should help 10 men to risks in climate projects.
complete three such tasks in 10 days working 9 c) The main objective of blended finance is to
hours per day? maximize returns for institutional investors
a) 9 rather than focus on climate resilience.
b) 12 d) Blended finance discourages private sector
c) 16 involvement by increasing financial risks in
d) 20 climate projects.

Q.48) The sum of the first term and the fourth Passage II
term of an AP is 20, and the product of the second Agriculture plays a vital role in providing food
and the third term is 96. Find the sum of the first affordably to present and future generations.
six terms of this AP. Overtime, agricultural research and development
a) 84 have driven the adoption of new technologies,
b) 36 leading to substantial increase in productivity
c) 96 and output. However, our current methods of
d) Either (a) or (b) measuring productivity overlook the
environmental services and natural resources
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: utilised. To ensure sustainable development,
Read the following two passages and answer the future agricultural technologies must prioritise
items that follow the passages. Your answers to both profitability and environmental impact,
these items should be based on the passages acknowledging the importance of natural
only resources and ecosystem services. Thus, green
technologies aim to enhance production
sustainably, bridging the gap between
Passage I
productivity and ecological balance.
Blended finance is a strategic financial
collaboration between the public and private
Q.50) Based on the above passage following
sectors, Development Finance Institutions (DFIs)
assumptions have been made:
and Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) to
1. Traditional methods of measuring agricultural
unlock private capital to address climate
productivity fail to account for environmental
financing gaps. DFIs/MDBs combine capital at
sustainability.
market and concessional rates for climate-
2. Future agricultural advancements should
resilient projects and provide technical
focus only on increasing productivity to meet
assistance and advisory services from project
the growing food demand.
shortlisting to success. Also, DFIs/MDBs,
3. Green technologies in agriculture aim to
through capacity building, monitoring, and
balance economic profitability with ecological
evaluation practices, yield economic benefits for
sustainability.
private investors to further boost investments in
4. Agricultural research and development have
climate-resilient infrastructure. Blended finance
played a crucial role in enhancing food
thus reduces financial risks, particularly for
production over time.
institutional investors, by deploying public
Which of the assumptions given above is/are
capital as guarantees.
valid?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.49) With reference to the above passage, which
b) 2 and 4 only
of the following is the most rational implication?
c) 1, 3 and 4
a) Blended finance ensures complete
d) 2, 3 and 4
replacement of public funding with private
capital for climate financing.

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 7 |

Q.47) 8 मनहिाएाँ और 5 पुरुर्ष ईंट नबछािे का काम 5 नदि b) नवकास नवि संस्र्ाि (डीएफआई) और बहुपक्षीय
में 9 घंटे प्रनतनदि काम करके पूरा करते हैं । ऐसे तीि काम नवकास बैंक (एमडीबी) मुख्य रूप से निजी निवेर् की
पूरे करिे हैं । यनद 5 पुरुर्ष ं द्वारा नकया गया काम 6 मनहिाओं गारं टी के निए सावथजनिक पूंजी का उपय ग करते हैं ,
द्वारा नकए गए काम के बराबर है , त 10 पुरुर्ष ं क प्रनतनदि नजससे जिवायु पररय जिाओं में उिके नविीय ज खिम
9 घंटे काम करके 10 नदि में तीि ऐसे काम पूरे करिे में कम ह जाते हैं ।
नकतिी मनहिाओं की मदद करिी चानहए? c) नमनश्त नवि का मुख्य उद्दे श्य जिवायु िचीिेपि पर
a) 9 ध्याि केंनद्रत करिे के बजाय संस्र्ागत निवेर्क ं के निए
b) 12 ररटिथ क अनर्कतम करिा है ।
c) 16 d) नमनश्त नवि जिवायु पररय जिाओं में नविीय ज खिम
d) 20 बढ़ाकर निजी क्षेत्र की भागीदारी क हत त्सानहत करता
है ।
Q.48) एक AP के पहिे पद और चौर्े पद का य ग 20 है ,
तर्ा दू सरे और तीसरे पद का गुणिफि 96 है । इस AP के पररच्छे द II
पहिे छह पद ं का य ग ज्ञात कीनजए । वतथमाि और भावी पीनढ़य ं क नकफायती तरीके से भ जि
a) 84 उपिब्ध करािे में कृनर्ष की महत्वपूणथ भूनमका है । समय के
b) 36 सार्, कृनर्ष अिुसंर्ाि और नवकास िे िई तकिीक ं क
c) 96 अपिािे क प्रेररत नकया है , नजससे उत्पादकता और
d) या त (a) या (b) उत्पादि में पयाथ प्त वृखि हुई है । हािााँ नक, उत्पादकता मापिे
के हमारे मौजूदा तरीके पयाथ वरणीय सेवाओं और उपय ग
ननम्ननलखित 2 (दो) प्रश्ों के नलए ननदे श: नकए जािे वािे प्राकृनतक संसार्ि ं की अिदे िी करते हैं ।
ननम्ननलखित दो पररच्छे दों को पढ़ें और उनके बाद आने सतत नवकास सुनिनित करिे के निए, भनवष्य की कृनर्ष
वाले प्रश्ों के उत्तर द़ें । इन प्रश्ों के आपके उत्तर केवल प्रौद्य नगनकय ं क प्राकृनतक संसार्ि ं और पाररखस्र्नतकी तंत्र
पररच्छे दों पर आधाररत होने चानहए सेवाओं के महत्व क स्वीकार करते हुए िाभप्रदता और
पयाथ वरणीय प्रभाव द ि ं क प्रार्नमकता दे िी चानहए। इस
पररच्छे द I प्रकार, हररत प्रौद्य नगनकय ं का उद्दे श्य उत्पादकता और
नमनश्त नवि सावथजनिक और निजी क्षेत्र ,ं नवकास नवि पाररखस्र्नतक संतुिि के बीच की िाई क पाटते हुए
संस्र्ाि ं (डीएफआई) और बहुपक्षीय नवकास बैंक ं उत्पादि क स्र्ायी रूप से बढ़ािा है ।
(एमडीबी) के बीच एक रणिीनतक नविीय सहय ग है ,
नजसका उद्दे श्य जिवायु नविप र्षण अंतराि क दू र करिे Q.50) उपर क्त पररच्छे द के आर्ार पर निम्ननिखित
के निए निजी पूंजी क ि ििा है । डीएफआई/एमडीबी र्ारणाएाँ बिाई गई हैं :
जिवायु -िचीिे पररय जिाओं के निए बाजार और ररयायती 1. कृनर्ष उत्पादकता मापिे के पारं पररक तरीके पयाथ वरणीय
दर ं पर पूंजी क नमिाते हैं और पररय जिा की र्ॉटथ निखस्टं ग खस्र्रता क ध्याि में रििे में नवफि रहते हैं ।
से िेकर सफिता तक तकिीकी सहायता और सिाहकार 2. भनवष्य की कृनर्ष प्रगनत का ध्याि केवि बढ़ती िाद्य मां ग
सेवाएं प्रदाि करते हैं । सार् ही, डीएफआई/एमडीबी, क्षमता क पूरा करिे के निए उत्पादकता बढ़ािे पर ह िा
निमाथ ण, निगरािी और मूल्यां कि प्रर्ाओं के माध्यम से, चानहए।
जिवायु -िचीिे बुनियादी ढां चे में निवेर् क और बढ़ावा दे िे 3. कृनर्ष में हररत प्रौद्य नगनकय ं का उद्दे श्य आनर्थक
के निए निजी निवेर्क ं के निए आनर्थक िाभ प्रदाि करते िाभप्रदता क पाररखस्र्नतक खस्र्रता के सार् संतुनित
हैं । इस प्रकार नमनश्त नवि सावथजनिक पूंजी क गारं टी के करिा है ।
रूप में तैिात करके, नवर्ेर्ष रूप से संस्र्ागत निवेर्क ं के 4. कृनर्ष अिुसंर्ाि और नवकास िे समय के सार् िाद्य
निए नविीय ज खिम क कम करता है । उत्पादि बढ़ािे में महत्वपूणथ भूनमका निभाई है ।
उपयुथक्त में से कौि-सी मान्यताएं वैर् है /हैं ?
Q.49) उपयुथक्त पररच्छे द के संदभथ में, निम्ननिखित में से a) केवि 1 और 2
कौि सा सबसे तकथसंगत निनहतार्थ है ? b) केवि 2 और 4
a) नमनश्त नवि, जिवायु नविप र्षण के निए सावथजनिक c) 1, 3 और 4
नविप र्षण के स्र्ाि पर निजी पूंजी का पूणथ प्रनतस्र्ापि d) 2, 3 और 4
सुनिनित करता है ।

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