1. The patient has experienced a lesion found in the brainstem.

Which of the choice is

most likely affects?
a. Pursuit eye movement
b. Voluntary scanning of eyes
c. Frontal eye field
d. Convergence

2. Patient c/o loss of balance and nystagmus. Upon giving non-equilibrium tests, patient
always overshoots touching from his finger to PT's finger. He also presents
intentional tremor. Which structure is damaged?
A. Posterior lobe of cerebellum
B. Flocculonodular lobe
c. Paleocerebellum
D. Basal ganglia

3. Which of the following functions is most likely to be impaired in a patient who has a
pontine infarct?
A. Jaw movement
B. Eyelid elevation
C. Tongue movement
D. Pharyngeal swallowing

4. A patient with stroke comes to the clinic with left hand weakness. As a therapist, you
know that the patient will also have problems with:
A. Expressing positive emotions
B. Safety precautions
c. Language expression
D. Mathematical calculations

5. Upon initial evaluation, you noticed that patient is using neologisms because he is
unable to understand the question asked. Which is the possible damage area in the
brain?
Picture:

6. 6. A physical therapist administers a series of cranial nerve tests to a patient with a

confirmed lower motor neuron disease. Assuming the patient has a lesion impacting
the right hypoglossal nerve, which clinical presentation would be most likely?
A. Right-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the left with tongue protrusion
B. Right-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the right with tongue protrusion
c. Left-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the left with tongue protrusion
d Left-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the right tongue protrusion

7. Upon PT evaluation, you asked your patient to say "ah", You observed that the uvula
deviated to the left upon doing the action. What is the most likely affected structure?
A. Lesion to the R CN 9
B. Lesion to the R CN 10
c. Lesion to the LCN 9
D. Lesion to the L CN 10

8. A 66 y/o male patient has the following results:

TEST L EAR R EAR

Weber (+) lateralization AC>BC but not 2x

(-) lateralization Rinne AC2BC

Which is consistent according to the patient's findings?

A. Conductive hearing loss on R
B. Conductive hearing loss on L
C. Sensorineural hearing loss on R
D. Sensorineural hearing loss on L

9. Patient has a cranial nerve lesion. Based on your ocular inspection, what other
manifestation is seen on your patient?
A. Vertical diplopia
B. Impaired pupillary light reflex
c. Impaired sensation on R side of face
D. Horizontal diplopia

10.The patient tested positive in the test shown below. What is the expected
manifestation seen in this patient?
A. Unable to move eye medially
B. Jaw deviation towards bad side
c. Tilting of the head away from the lesion
D. Loss of taste sensation on anterior 2/3 of tongue

11.Observing the accommodation reflex, when the target is moving closer to the
patient, what extraocular muscle should contract?
A. Lateral rectus
B. Superior oblique
c. Inferior rectus
D. Medial rectus

12.Patient has experienced clinical manifestations such as pseudoptosis, weak eyebrow

raising and impaired sensation on the forehead. Which cranial nerve testing is likely
to be abnormal?
A. Pupillary light reflex
B. Corneal blink reflex
C. Gag reflex
D. Facial sensation

13.Based on Sunderland's classification, which of the following structures are preserved

in patients with a third- degree radial nerve injury?
A. Endoneurium, Epineurium, Perineurium
B. Perineurium, Endoneurium

C. Endoneurium, Epineurium
D. Epineurium, Perineurium

14.You have a T4 SCI patient and you are to position the patient using a tilt table. You
are aware that the patient is experiencing AD, except:
A. 20 mm Hg increase in systolic blood pressure
B. Flushing and piloerection below level of lesion
c. Blurred vision
D. Constricted
15.All statements are true about Spinal cord injury, except:
A. Complete injury as having no sensory or motor function in the lowest sacral
segments (54 and 55) with no sacral sparing
B. Anterior cord syndrome is frequently related to flexion injuries of the cervical
region with resultant damage to the anterior portion of the cord and/or its vascular
supply from the anterior spinal artery.
C. Individuals with cauda equina injuries exhibit reflexive bowel and bladder and
saddle anesthesia.
D. Central cord syndrome has been associated with congenital or degenerative
narrowing of the spinal canal.

16.A patient with Spinal Cord Injury is referred for Initial management. Medical chart
reveals that the injury is at the level of C8 on the right side due to a gunshot wound.
Which of the following findings is most expected from this patient?
A. Impaired proprioception sensation on the left middle finger
B. Intact vibratory sensation on the right little finger
c. Absent temperature sensation on the left apex of axilla
D. No pain sensation on the right lateral epicondyle

17.A therapist is treating a patient with severe Alzheimer's disease. What manifestations
will you expect this patient to have?
A. Becoming restless at night
B. Forgetting familiar words
C. Lost sense of self
D. Loss of recent memories

18.Mrs. Park, a 45-year-old detective, is admitted to the neurology units with rapid
worsening fatigue, progressive weakness, and a recent onset of difficulty breathing.
She was diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is not a feature of
MG, except?
A. Presence of antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels
B. Administration of edrophonium improves strength
c. Resolution of weakness upon exercise
D. Presence of bronchial carcinoma

19.Patient was diagnosed with CVA, and a thrombus was found in the red-shaded area.
Which clinical manifestation is seen?
A. RLE>UE weakness
B. Frontal gaze paralysis to the L

c. L homonymous hemianopsia
D. Non fluent aphasia

20.Pt has affectation on the imaging shown. Observed changes are expected to the pt;
except:
A. Difficulty initiating tasks, processing delays
B. Difficulty processing verbal cues, verbal commands
c. Disorganized problem solving
D. Rigidity of thought

21.
 A. Right inferior quadrantinopsia; Left parietal fibers of optic radiation
B. Right superior quadrantinopsia; Left temporal fibers of optic radiation
C.Left inferior quadrantinopsia; right parietal fibers of optic radiation
D. Left superior quadrantinopsia; right temporal fibers of optic radiation

22.A patient comes to the clinic with a diagnosis of unknown Neurologic Disorder. When
doing assessment, you notice a violent, flailing motions of the LUE and LE. What part
of the brain is affected?
A. Putamen
B. Caudate
C. Globus Pallidus
D. Subthalamic Nucleus

23.You are treating a patient with known neurological condition. Upon IE, you observed
that the pt has jerky movements of the limbs as well has signs of forgetfulness and
hallucination. What is the possible diagnosis of the patient?
A. Huntington's disease
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Parkinson's disease
D. Grand mal seizure

24.A 5-year-old patient with spina bifida with talipes equinovarus seen in both feet.
What is the expected level of affectation?
A. L5-S1
B. L1-L2
C. L4-L5
D. S2

25.Vice sustained a whiplash Injury 2 mo. ago after a vehicular collision. A day after the
incident, she noted severe vertigo lasting for 29 seconds whenever she bends over,
looks up, or get out of bed that is persistent downbeating and torsional to the L.
Imaging are normal and no tinnitus was noted.
A. Pt. Has UVH, (+) hallpike on (R), ant SCC, L cupulolithiasis
B. Pt. Has UVH, (+) hallpike on (R), post SCC, R canalithiasis
C. Pt. Has BPPV, (+)hallpike on (R), post SCC, L cupulolithiasis
D. Pt. Has BPPV, (+) hallpike on (L), ant SCC, L canalithiasis

26.You held your patient's head in slight flexion, then asked the patient to look at your
nose. You suddenly rotated the patient's neck towards the right. The patient showed
no corrective saccade. The same was seen when rotated to the opposite side.
You will note that the patient has?
A. Bilateral vestibular hypofunction
B. Canalithiasis
C. Defective vestibular ocular reflex
D. Normal vestibular function

27.Patient with a stooped posture present with small, even steps when walking and
often freezes when exposed to obstacles. What other clinical manifestations are seen
with this patient?
A. Excessive heel strike with increased forefoot loading
B. Difficulty turning: decreased steps per turn
 c. Increased speed of walking
D. Slower learning rates, reduced efficiency

28.You are assessing your pt's pathological reflexes. You then performed resisted
abduction in his Llower extremity, the R LE also abducted. You noted that the patient
tested positive. What test is this and Indicative of what condition?
A. Kernig sign: Meningitis
B. Raimiste's: Stroke
c. Brudzinski sign: Meningitis
D. Soque's: Stroke

29.Patient with ALS was referred to you. Upon evaluation, you observed the signs and
symptoms seen in this diagnosis. Which is not an expected manifestation in your
patient?
A. Sialorrhea
B. Intact bowel and bladder function
c. Impaired sensation
D. Dysarthria

30.Mr. X suffered TBI 2 years ago. Currently, he has minor deficits that are not disabling.
According to GOS, patient can be under what level?
A. Upper severe disability
B. Lower severe disability
c. Lower good recovery
D. Upper good recovery

31.A patient with Parkinson's Disease is being referred for Initial Evaluation. According to
the patient's chart, she is under level 3 in the Hoehn and Yahr classification. As a
therapist, what will be the patient's manifestations?
A. Patient has difficulty in rising up from a sitting position
B. Patient has right UE and LE affectation
c. Patient is ambulatory with a single-tip cane
D. Patient has bilateral affectation

32.You are treating a patient when suddenly the patient experiences a seizure attack.
There is repetitive, jerking movements of the entire body. What type of seizure is the
patient experiencing?
A. Clonic
B. Grandmal
c. Tonic
D. Myoclonic

33.Your co-PT is treating an 80 y.o female patient. You know that these are expected
physiological changes to the patient, except:
A. Tunnel vision
B. Frequently increase use of taste enhancers
c. Resting blood pressure increases
D. Decreased peripheral resistance

34.A patient with sudden onset of weakness of the facial muscles on the left side but
able to wrinkle the forehead and cannot smile, pucker the lips, or wrinkle the nose.
There is an absence of tearing in the patient's left eye and dryness of the mouth. The
 patient's corneal reflex is present on the left and right, and pinprick and temperature
sensation are normal on both sides of the face. This presentation is characteristic of:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Right cortical cerebrovascular accident
C. Facial palsy
D. Oculomotor nerve

35.You performed Head impulse test as shown. This position is to examine:

A. L Superior SCC
B. L Posterior SCC
C. R Superior SCC
D. R Posterior SCC

36. Upon checking a patient's chart, it states that the patient has a good dynamic
balance. What will be the patient's presentation?
A. Able to maintain balance while turning trunk
B. Able to maintain balance while picking up objects from the floor
C. Able to weight shift easily within full range in all directions
D. Accepts moderate challenge without losing balance

37.A 24 y/o football player is recovering from Traumatic Brain Injury. The patient is under
the Graduated Return-to-play program and is now at the Sport-specific exercise
stage. As a therapist, what is the objective of the aforementioned stage?
A. Recovery
B. Increase HR
c. Add movement
D. Restore confidence

38. You objectively measure for static and dynamic balance using berg balance
scale to your 75 year old patient. Patient's score is 41. This is indicative of?
A. Patient has low risk of falls
B. Patient has significant risk of falls
c. Patient has no risk of falls
D. Patient has high risk of falls

39.You are assessing your patient's milestone. His mother told you that patient can now
hold his head steady in supported sitting. Which of the following reflexes is expected
to be seen?
A. Rooting reflex
B. Positive support reflex
c. Galant reflex
D. Plantar grasp reflex

40.Gait changes seen in a 85 y/o male patient, except:

A. Decreased trunk rotation
B. Increased walking speed
C. Increased number of steps/min
D. Shorter step length

41. If you were told by a co-PT that their assessment of a patient's Glasgow
Coma Scale was E2, V2, M5, how would you interpret this?
 A. The patient's eyes open to pain, patient is confused and able to withdraw
stimulated arm
B. The patient's eyes open to pain, they provide incomprehensible sounds
when asked, and they are able to localize to trapezius pinch
c. The patient's eyes open to pain, oriented and are able to obey commands
D. You don't know how to interpret the mentioned scale

42. A therapist is assessing the muscle strength of a patient as shown in the

picture below. The therapist is testing the integrity of what peripheral nerve
and nerve root?
a.Musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C6)
b.Musculocutaneous nerve (C4-C6)
c.Radial nerve (C5-T1)
d.Radial nerve (C5-C6)

43. You are assessing the spasticity of the (L) LE using MAS. Result: slight
increase and catch in less than half of the motion performed. How would you
document it?
A. Knee extensors: 1+
B. Knee flexors: 1+
c. Knee extensors: 1
D. Knee flexors: 1

44. As the therapist stroke the upper right quadrant of the pt's abdomen,
there is no twitching of the sald area. How will you document the
assessment?
A. Abdominal reflex is normal
B. There is lesion at the T11-T12 level
c. Abdominal reflex is not normal
D. Findings are inconclusive

45. Your 7 month old patient has a response to extend his neck and UE, and
flexion legs upon neck extension. You know that when this reflex still persists,
this interferes with, except:
A. Holding the quadruped position
B. Development of crawling
c. Sitting balance when looking around
D. Rolling

46. You noticed that your patient's light touch sensibility has diminished
during sensory testing. What sensory impairment might your patient be
suffering from?
A. Pallanesthesia
B. Dysesthesia
c. Atopognosia
D. Thigmanesthesia

47. You are working with an 8-year old patient diagnosed with CP spastic
diplegia. She is able to walk without assistance but has limitations when
walking outdoors and in the community. What is her gross motor function
 classification level?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
c. Level 3
D. Level 4

48. Patient was referred to the clinic with complaints of symptoms

pertaining to peripheral vestibular disorder. These manifestations include the
following, except:
A. Transient nystagmus
B. Hearing loss is rare but permanent
c. Severe ataxia
D. More intense vertigo

49. In CTSIB, a patient presents with postural sway when the platform is
changed from a flat to an uneven one and when standing on a foam with eyes
open and closed. Patient is probably dependent on what?
A. Vestibular: postural sway in CTSIB 5, 6
B. Somatosensory: postural sway in CTSIB 3, 4, 5, 6
c. Vision: postural sway in CTSIB 2,3,5,6
D. Surface: postural sway in CTSIB 4,5,6
50. A 36 y/o female patient, is referred for initial Evaluation with complaints
of dysequilibrium and ataxia but no noted nystagmus and vertigo. What test
will you use assess for this patient?
A. Rotational chair test
B. Clinical Test for Sensory Interaction of Balance
c. Dix-Hallpike test
D. Roll test

51. A patient with a C8 spinal cord injury is examined in physical therapy.

Which objective finding would be the strongest indication the spinal cord
injury is not complete?
A. Intact sensation on the lateral portion of the shoulder
B. Impaired sensation: axilla
C. No sensation over the hypothenar eminence
D. 5 MMT grade of 5/5 of the biceps muscle

52. You have a patient who suffered severe traumatic brain injury (TBI).
What are the other findings associated with this case?
A. Patient suffered Post-Traumatic Amnesia for 23 hours
B. Patient lost his/her consciousness for 1 hour
c. Patient suffered Post-Traumatic Amnesia for 8 days
D. Patient's GCS score is 14

53. You observed that your CVA patient exhibits a strong extensor synergy
in the upper extremity. Which is not part of the synergy?
A. Ankle plantarflexion
B. Hip external rotation
c. Knee extension
D. Ankle inversion

54. You are assessing the tone of your patient who has a post (R) CVA. You
noticed that there is a slight increase in the muscle tone, manifested by a
 catch in less than half of ROM. What grade best described it?
A. 1
B.1+
C.2
D.3

55. Picture
A.T12-L1
B. L4-L5
C. S1-S2
D. S2-S4

56. A paraplegia SCI patient was referred to you for PT. Which off the
following is not an appropriate PT intervention for your patient?
A. For pressure relief: If patient is able to perform a forward lean, the lean
should be greater than 65 degrees.
B. For preparation in long sitting, hamstrings may require stretching to
achieve a straight leg raise of approximately 100 degrees.
c. All pressure-relief maneuvers should be maintained for at least 2 minutes
to be effective.
D. No resistance training of hip and trunk for the Ist few weeks

57. The patient manifests with high stepping gait. In order for the patient to
walk without hesitation, what will be the most helpful strategy to teach to the
patient?
A. Use of assistive device on the L side
B. Instruct the patient to look toward the floor when walking
C. Ask the patient to exaggerate hip flexion when walking
D. Use of anterior rollator walker

58. Patient is using the wheelchair as a primary mobility device. She is able
to use the W/C in level surfaces and uneven surfaces with difficulty, However,
she is unable to maintain nor assume the wheelie position. What is SCI level
of the pt?
A. T2
B. T3
C. C7
D. T1

59. A patient with SCI is under Pulmonary Rehabilitation. W the patient can
only mobilize secretions in the upper respiratory tract, what is the possible
level of injury?
A. T10
B. T2
C. T5
D. T1

60. Pt is having difficulty in ambulation especially in terminal swing to initial

contact. Which end PNF pattern is beneficial to apply to your patient?
61. This PNF pattern could possibly help strengthen what muscle?
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Tibialis posterior
c. Peroneus Tertius
D. Peroneus brevis

62. has LOM doing this task: Standing FABERE test

A. Strengthen hip flexors and ER, foot plantarflexors and invertors
B. Strengthen hip extensors and ER, foot plantarflexors and evertors
C. Strengthen hip extensors and IR, foot plantarflexors and evertors
D. Strengthen hip flexors and ER, foot dorsiflexors and invertors

63. Pt is having difficulty in ambulation especially in terminal swing to initial

contact. Which end PNF pattern is beneficial to apply to your patient?
A. Hip extension, adduction, ER; foot eversion and dorsiflexion
B. Hip extension, abduction, ER; foot inversion and dorsiflexion

c. Hip extension, abduction, IR; foot eversion and plantarflexion

D. Hip extension, adduction, IR; foot inversion and plantarflexion

64. You are teaching positional strategies to your CVA patient to prevent
malalignment for occurring. Which is not beneficial to your patient?
A. Supine: Scapular protracted, shoulder forward and slightly adducted; arm
supported on a pillow (affected UE)
B. Sitting: Hips flexed to 90°, positioned in neutrall with respect to rotation
C. Sidelying on good side: affected hip is forward and flexed, knee flexed and
supported on a pillow
D. Sitting: Pelvis is aligned in neutral with weight-bearing on both buttocks

65. What is the best treatment for patient A who has RCVA with a drawing
like this on the paper?
Patient A
A. Use of Sl brush
B. Crossing the midline tasks
c. Label objects that are used frequently
D. Use of red tape used to mark the edges on stairs

66. Patient has forward head posture due to tight pectoralis major. You
decided to do hold-relax technique and you passively moved the shoulder into
horizontal abduction.What is the next step to ask the patient to perform?
A. Relaxation of antagonist muscle
B. Isometric contraction of pectoralis major
c. Isotonic contraction of pectoralis major
D. Isometric contraction of rhomboids

67. A patient is referred for rehab with a diagnosis of Myelomeningocele at

the L3-L4 level. Based on the medical diagnosis, what will be your best long-
term goal?
A. Education for caregiver on how to transfer patient safely
B. Household ambulation with HKAFO and crutches
C. Community ambulation using reciprocating gait orthosis and loft strand
D. Household ambulation with KAFO and lofstrand crutches
68. You are evaluating the performance of your patient. You told your
patient that you will only provide feedback when the performance deviates
outside the boundaries of the correct activity.
A. Faded feedback
B. Delayed feedback
c. Bandwidth knowledge of performance
D. Summary feedback
69. You have a T4 SCI patient and you are to position the patient using a tilt
table. You are aware that the patient is experiencing AD, except:
A. Bradycardia
B. Flushing and piloerection above level of lesion
c. Dry, pale skin below level of lesion
D. Dilated pupils
70. Which of the following is not appropriate for a patient affois In cognitive
stage of learning?
A. Assist learner to improve self-evaluation, decision making skills
B. Provide adequate rest periods (distributed practice) if task is complex,
long, or energy costly
C. Utilize bilateral transfer as appropriate
D. Reduce extraneous environmental stimuli

71. A 50 y/o female s/p TBI (RLA LOCF: confused- inappropriate) secondary
to blow on head. She was referred to you for PT evaluation and treatment.
What is the best treatment strategy for this patient?
A. Treat patient in an open environment
B. Allow for increasing independence
C. Assist patient in behavioral, cognitive, emotional integration
D. Apply a consistent pace of approach to treatment

72. An 80 y.o female patient has a bone mineral density of -2.5 SD. Which is
not an advisable Intervention for your patient?
A. Avoid trunk flexion with twisting motions
B. Flat shoes with thick soles should be worn to enhance better balance
c. Diet should be low in salt and avoid excess protein
D. Regular weight-bearing exercise is encouraged

73. A therapist is doing gait assessment on a patient with Down's

Syndrome. You can expect that the patient will manifest all of the following,
except:
A. Small step length
B. Increase knee flexion in stance phase
c. Limited knee flexion at initial contact
D. Decrease single limb support

74. Mr. X has L CN11 lesion which causes him to tilt his head to the stronger
side. What stretch is beneficial to the patient?
A. A. Stretch towards (L) lat. Flexion; (L) rotation
B. B. Stretch towards (R) lat. Flexion; (L) rotation
c. C. Stretch towards (R) lat. Flexion; (R) rotation
D. D. Stretch towards (L) lat. Flexion; (R) rotation
75. You have a pediatric patient who suffered Erb's Paralysis on the Left UE
due to a cervical rib abnormality. What will not be a part of your intervention
if PT session starts a week after the injury, except:
A. Gentle ROM exercises
B. Elicitation of muscle activity with age appropriate functional movements of
UE
c. Partial limb immobilization across the upper abdomen
D. Gentle constraint of the right UE

76. You have determined that treating a neurological patient with a sensory
stimulation technique would be quite effective in the inhibition of muscles
that are extremely spastic. Which of the following techniques listed below
would be best in inhibiting the muscles?
A. Approximation
B. Quick icing
c. Chair rocking
D. Traction

77. A therapist wants to utilize Electrotherapy to promote tetanic

contraction on a patient with weak Hamstrings mm. If the therapist uses a
frequency of 50 Hz and 10 ms, what type of current is he/she using?
A. Symmetrical biphasic current
B. Long Interrupted Direct current
c. Galvanic current
D. Asymmetric biphasic current

78. A PT is doing electrodiagnosis on a patient with complete denervation of

ulnar nerve. Upon using constant monophasic current, what would be the
response of the muscle being stimulated?
A. Weak twitch
B. No twitch contraction
c. Weak tetanic contraction
D. Strong twitch

79. PT is assessing the patient's gait with common peroneal nerve injury
and PT observed a (+) foot drop. One of the interventions listed is FES. At
what phase of gait should you turn on the current?
A. Acceleration
B. Midstance
C. Initial contact
D. Toe off

80. Mr. J is has acquired burns in his forearm. The PT wants to use
iontophoresis to treat the keloid. What are the correct parameters for the
treatment?
A. Acetic acid ion using cathode as electrode
B. Xylocaine ion using cathode as electrode
c. Sodium chloride using anode as electrode
D. Potassium iodide using cathode as electrode
81. Which of the following is beneficial for this current?
A. Denervated muscle
B. Transfer of medicinal agents using electrotherapy
c. Disuse atrophy of quadriceps
D. Wound healing

82. A patient with thoracic Levoscoliosis is referred for rehab. Orders

include the use of Functional Electrical Stimulation. As a therapist, what is the
correct parameters for this modality?
A. Pulse rate of 12 with 1:1 duty cycle, electrodes placed on the right side
B. Pulse rate of 25 with 1:1 duty cycle, electrodes placed on the left side
c. Pulse rate of 25 with 1:1 duty cycle, electrodes placed on the right side
D. Pulse rate of 12 with 1:1 duty cycle, electrodes placed on the left side

83. Patient has difficulty supinating his forearm with depicted weakness of
the supinator muscle. You want to utilize EMG biofeedback in order to
strengthen the mm. What are the correct parameters for the treatment?
A. High sensitivity, widely spaced
B. Low sensitivity, closely spaced
C. High sensitivity, closely spaced
D. Low sensitivity, widely spaced

84. A PT wants to provide muscle reeducation to a denervated muscle using

the interrupted direct current.What is the correct parameters to be given?
A. Short duration IDC, <10ms, 50 pps
B. Long duration IDC, > 10ms, 5 pps
c. Symmetric biphasic, 10 ms, 50 pps
D. Symmetric biphasic, 1 ms, 50 pps

85. A therapist is applying US when the patient suddenly complains of

aching pain under the sound head. How will you proceed with the treatment?
A. Add more coupling gel
B. Stop treatment and label the machine defective
c. Continue with the application
D. Decrease the intensity of the US machine

86. The following conditions are contraindications for cryotherapy, except:

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Poliomyelitis
c. Raynaud's phenomenon
D. Diabetic neuropathy

87. You are to use the modality shown. Your goal is to decrease
compression, what will be the force applied if your patient weighs 100 lbs?
A. 7 lbs
B. 7.7 lbs
c. 12 lbs
D. 15 lbs

88. Your patient is experiencing a chronic low back pain, diagnostic imaging
presented L4-L5 HNP. How would you position your patient?
 A. Prone with no pillow
B. Supine, 60-90 deg hip flexed
c. Supine, 75-90 deg hip flexed
D. Supine, 45-60 deg hip flexed
89. A pt who reports neck pain radiating to the elbow is treated with
cervical traction. During the tx, the pt reparts increased pain with radiating
pain into the ring finger and little fingers of the R hand. The appropriate
action for the PT to do is:
A. Reduce the traction force
B. Change the angle of pull of the traction
c. Refer the patient back to the physician
D. Stop the intervention and reevaluate

90. A patient with a venous stasis ulcer is being treated using intermittent
pneumatic compression (IPC). As a therapist, what would be the
inflation/deflation time for the IPC to benefit the patient?
A. 20 secs/10 secs
B. 100 secs/15 secs
c. 50 secs/10 secs
D. 90 secs/30 secs

91. . A PT opted to use high stretch bandage. Which of the following is true
about the said bandage?
A. It provides 30-40 mmHg
B. It provides high resting pressure
C. It provides high working pressure
D. It is best to be applied to a patient with functional muscles

92. Which of the following conditions is indicated for pneumatic

compression application?
A. Bilateral circumferential peripheral edema
B. Intermittent claudication
c. Deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis
D. Arteriosclerosis obliterans

93. You have a patient who was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. You
opted to use whirlpool in conjunction during exercise. However, she is not
able to tolerate cold whirlpool, What will be the temperature setting of the
whirlpool for this patient?
A. 32-79 F
B. 92-96 F
C. 99-104
D. 79-92 F

94. You are to apply IPC to your patient with chronic edema of R LE. Her BP
is 130/70 before proceeding. This is her 1th session, what is the appropriate
initial pressure given?
A. 30 mmHg
B. 70 mmHg
c. 40 mmHg
D. 80 mmHg
95. For the purpose of edema reduction, the PT opted to use the contrast
bath. As a therapist, how will you proceed with the treatment?
A. There should be a small temperature difference between warm and cold
water
B. Start immersing the extremity in warm water
c. End the treatment in warm water
D. Repeat warm and cold immersion for 8 times

96. The patient has (+) pulse and no normal breathing. After activating the
EMS, which is the next thing to do?
A. Monitor until emergency responders arrive.
B. Provide rescue breathing
c. Perform cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths
D. Give 1 shock, resume CPR for 2 minutes

97. Mr. Park has the right to make choices about the medical care given to
him. This is the principle of?
A. Justice
B. Nonmaleficence
c. Autonomy
D. Beneficence

98. A patient with CVA was referred to you for PT. You performed gait
retraining for 20 minutes, therapeutic exercises for 30 minutes, and
neuromuscular re-education for 6 minutes with the patient. If a commercial
insurance is funding the patient's medical expenses, how many units can
be billed for gait retraining?
A. 1
B. 2
c. 3
D. 4

Setting: Outpatient Physical Therapy Examination:

Gender: Male Generalized muscle weakness
Age: 4 years old affecting the LES
Presenting problem/current (+) LOM In bilateral ankle DF and
condition: 90-90 SLR
Frequently falls at school (+) Gower's sign
• Difficulty walking up and down Physical Therapy Intervention:
stairs
Medical History: None None. This is the Initial visit.
Other Information:
Currently attending preparatory
school
Eldest of two siblings.
Lives with parents

99. Which of the following could potentially be related to the patient's

condition?
A. Periventricular leukomalacia
B. Extra copy of chromosome 21
 C. Absence of dystrophin gene
D. Neural tube defect
100. You are assessing this patient's posture. You expect that the patient
presents all of the following, except:
A. Tight heel cords
B. Weak quadriceps
c. Calf pseudohypertrophy
D. Flat back

ANSWER:
1. D 43 A 85 D
2. A 44 C 86 D
3. A 45 D 87 A
4. B 46 D 88 A
5. B 47 B 89 D
6. B 48 B/C 90 D
7. B 49 D 91 B
8. D 50 A 92 C
9. B 51 B 93 D
10 D 52 C 94 C
11 D 53 B 95 B
12 B 54 B 96 B
13 D 55 A 97 C
14 B 56 A 98 A
15 C 57 B 99 C
16 C 58 C 100D
17 C 59 C
18 B 60 D
19 D 61 C
20 D 62 D
21 C 63 C
22 D 64 A
23 A 65 B
24 C 66 B
25 D 67 D
26 D 68 C
27 D 69 D
28 B 70 A
29 C 71 D
30 D 72 B
31 A 73 B
32 A 74 D
33 D 75 C
34 B 76 C
35 A 77 A
36 B 78 D
37 C 79 A
38 D 80 D
39 D 81 C
40 B 82 B
41 B 83 C
42 D 84 B