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PTS 2025 CSAT Simulator Test 6 QP Eng

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
48 views21 pages

PTS 2025 CSAT Simulator Test 6 QP Eng

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Page 1

PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-PTS25-CSAT_Sim6 Test Booklet Series


Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - II

Time Allowed: TWO HOURS Maximum Marks: 200


INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer
Name:
Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for Email Id:
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and Mobile No:
Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

Read the following three passages and answer the Q.2) Based on the above passage, the following
items that follow the passages. Your answers to assumptions have been made:
these items should be based on the passages only: 1. Spiritual development involves exploring and
deepening the connection between the
Passage I human spirit and infinite consciousness.
India must renew its focus on improving ease of 2. Prayer and meditation bridge the human
doing business to attract manufacturing and spirit and the infinite consciousness in equal
investments. Large-scale reforms, including measure.
scrapping outdated rules, business process re- Which of the assumptions given above is/are
engineering, and addressing land and correct?
construction norms, are essential. The a) 1 only
government must notify rules under the new b) 2 only
Labour Codes at the earliest and eliminate c) Both 1 and 2
avenues for rent-seeking. Regulatory overreach d) Neither 1 nor 2
must also be tackled, modernizing regulators to
act as facilitators of growth and innovation Passage III
instead of relying on outdated control The quantum computing revolution is not a
mechanisms. These measures will drive distant prospect, it is a present-day reality that
economic growth, job creation, and innovation. demands immediate action. The risks posed by
quantum technologies to nuclear security,
Q.1) Which of the following statements best defence strategies, and global communications
reflects the most logical and rational inference are real. The question is no longer if quantum
that can be made from the passage? computing will break current encryption
a) India's outdated labour laws have methods, it is a matter of when. Governments,
significantly hindered the nation's economic industries, and researchers must work together
growth potential. to transition to post-quantum cryptographic
b) Effective regulation fosters growth, while standards, integrate quantum-resistant
excessive regulatory measures hamper it. solutions, and develop robust security
c) India must focus on expanding its frameworks capable of withstanding the
manufacturing sector by attracting increased quantum threat. The future of global security
investments. depends on how serious the preparations are for
d) Policy reforms are needed to improve the this inevitable technological leap.
ease of doing business in India, ultimately
promoting economic growth. Q.3) Based on the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
Passage II 1. The present encryption systems would
Prayer and meditation as a part of spiritual become vulnerable to theft with the
development embody a dialogue between the advancement of quantum computing.
soul and cosmos. Though similar in their 2. The development of post-quantum
introspection, they are opposite yet cryptographic standards will guarantee
complementary. Prayer is speaking to the absolute security.
Universe, an act of devotion and structured Which of the assumptions given above is/are
hope. Meditation, in contrast, is listening, a quiet correct?
surrender where the divine whispers flow into a) 1 only
awareness. Together, they form a union of b) 2 only
expression and receptivity, bridging the human c) Both 1 and 2
spirit and the infinite consciousness, each d) Neither 1 nor 2
enriching the other in their sacred and profound
interplay.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

Q.4) Rashmi sold a few of her kitchen appliances them leave the group, then the sum of the
before moving out of town. She sold her weights of the remaining students in the group
microwave oven for 35% profit, fridge for 25% was 270 kg. What is the weight (in kg) of the
loss, and mixer for 25% profit. She made neither heaviest student in the original group?
a profit nor a loss on the fridge and the mixer a) 23
taken together. There was a net profit of 5% b) 46
when the microwave oven and fridge are taken c) 59
together. What is the overall profit or loss d) 81
percentage on all three items taken together?
a) 11.67% Profit Q.8) There were 4 cards A, B, C and D. Two
b) 5.83% Loss different numbers were written, one on each
c) 11.67% Loss side such that one of these is a prime number on
d) 5.83% Profit each card. The other numbers on the four cards
in that order were 39, 24, 34 and 12 respectively.
Q.5) Jar A and Jar B have 6 liters of milk and 6 If the sum of the two numbers on each of these
liters of water respectively. A jar C with volume cards was the same, then the difference
of ‘v’ liters is filled with the milk from Jar A and between the second smallest and the second
then emptied into B. Jar C is then filled with the largest of all the numbers on these cards is?
mixture so formed, and then emptied into Jar A. a) 27
If the ratio of milk to water in Jar A at this stage b) 5
is 3 : 1, what is the value of ‘v’. c) 12
a) 5 d) 17
b) 8
c) 2 Q.9) Let m, n be odd integer and o, p be even
d) 6 integers. Consider the following statements:
1. (m - n) + (o x p) is odd.
Q.6) Ramesh always works on any day only if 2. (m - o) + (n x p) is even.
both Suresh and Tarakesh work on that day. 3. (m + n)2 + (o + p) is odd.
Whenever Suresh works, he works for the first Which of the statements given above are
four days and then does not work for the next incorrect?
four days Whenever Tarakesh works, he works a) 1 and 2 only
for the first three days and then does not work b) 2 and 3 only
for the next three days. Ramesh, Suresh, and c) 1 and 3 only
Tarakesh started working on an assignment. The d) 1, 2 and 3
assignment was completed in 350 days. On how
many days did Ramesh work? Q.10) The number of ways in which 12 squares
a) 83 can be selected from a 5 × 5 chess board such
b) 85 that no two squares have a common side is?
c) 88 a) 12
d) 96 b) 13
c) 14
Q.7) There are 8 students in a group. When the d) 15
heaviest student leaves the group the average
weight of the new group reduces by 2 kg. When
the lightest student leaves the group the average
of the new group increases by 2 kg. If both of

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

Read the following three passages and answer the hindered by various obstacles, including limited
items that follow the passages. Your answers to public acceptance, operational inefficiencies,
these items should be based on the passages only: insufficient government funding, and other
systemic issues. Complementary measures such
Passage I as improved infrastructure for cyclists, strong
The rural middle class in India shares an community engagement campaigns, and
ideological affinity with their urban dedicated funding allocations could address
counterparts, as both exhibit conservative and current challenges by integrating bike-sharing
narrow utilitarian values. However, on another into a broader urban transport framework.
level, the rural middle classes harbour a deep-
seated antagonism and conflict with urban Q.12) Which one of the following statements best
middle classes, entrepreneurs, and professional reflects the most logical and rational inference
groups. The development of agriculture, after that can be made from the passage?
green revolution, has slowed down due to a) Due to structural challenges, the popularity
structural and technological stagnation. of bike sharing initiative in India is still at a
Consequently, this stagnation has resulted in nascent stage.
downward mobility in social and economic b) Bike-sharing is step towards sustainable
status for the rural middle classes while their urban mobility, addressing the challenges
urban counterparts continue to flourish. posed by urban transport systems.
c) Smart Cities Mission has played a crucial role
Q.11) Which of the following statements best in adoption of sustainable mobility solutions
reflects the most logical and rational inference in urban India.
that can be made from the passage? d) The success of public bike sharing initiatives
is dependent on its integration with the
a) Agricultural growth has decelerated after the
larger urban transport network.
period of advancements during the Green
Revolution.
b) The middle class in India is not unified, as Passage III
tensions exist between its rural and urban The dependency theory argues that developing
counterparts. countries remain trapped in exploitative
c) Though rural and urban middle share relationships with advanced economies. Despite
ideological similarities, there are conflicts being natural resource-rich, these countries
due to their socio-economic status. have been at a disadvantage. This relationship is
d) The urban middle class in India has benefited being modified in the context of critical
from upward mobility driven by economic minerals. Indonesia’s move to ban the export of
growth. raw nickel (one of the critical minerals) is one of
the foremost examples. The move is intended to
transform Indonesia’s status in the global supply
Passage II
chain by incentivizing investment in the
Bike-sharing initiatives, originated in Europe
country’s downstream nickel industries such as
and achieved global recognition for their
refining and battery manufacturing. By shifting
success in promoting sustainable mobility
focus from merely exporting raw materials to
solutions, addressing urban transport
fostering value-added processes, Indonesia
challenges. These initiatives have found their
seeks to maximize economic gains and redefine
way into Indian urban centers under
its role within the international market.
government-led efforts such as the 'Smart Cities
Mission’. However, the proliferation of public
bike-sharing (PBS) systems in Indian cities is

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

Q.13) Based on the above passage, the following Q.17) Six girls A, B, C, D, E, F and six boys M, N,
assumptions have been made: O, P, Q, R are standing in a different parallel row
1. All the countries of the developing world facing each other but not necessarily in the
should seek to maximize economic gains by same order. A is second to the right of B, who
moving up the value chain. faces Q. There are as many girls between E and F
2. The developing countries are endowed with as between A and B. F is standing at extreme left
more natural resources as compared to and faces O. M is fourth left of O and R is third
developed countries. right of M. N is third right of P, who faces A.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are Who faces R?
correct? a) C or D
a) 1 only b) E only
b) 2 only c) D only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) C or E
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.18) Select the option that represents the
Q.14) Read the given data carefully and answer letters that, when placed from left to right in the
the questions that follow.
same sequence in the blanks below, will
Sum of the cubes of the digits of a three-digit
complete the letter series.
number is 684 while sum of the squares of these
NLA_XN_BF_NL_F_NL__X
digits is 110. If the difference between the largest
a) F L C E X A F
and the smallest digits of the number is 2, then
b) F N X C X C F
what is the sum of all such numbers possible?
c) F L X N X D C
a) 4123
d) F L X C X D F
b) 3512
c) 4113
d) 3996 Q.19) Speed of five cars C1, C2, C3, C4 and C5 are
compared. Speed of C1 is more than only one
Q.15) Which of the numbers from the given car. Speed of C5 is more than four cars. Speed of
alternatives, would aptly replace the question C4 is more than C1 but less than C3 and C5.
mark (?) in the given pattern? Speed of how many cars is less than the speed of
C3?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 3
a) 294 d) 2
b) 300
c) 250
Q.20) Ramu started from his office at 13:30 hours
d) 344
and drove to his farmhouse, arriving there when
the farmhouse clock indicated 14:20 hours. After
Q.16) The classes of Physics, Chemistry, Botany,
staying for 20 minutes, he drove back by a
Zoology and Geology are held from Monday to
different route of length (7/4) times the first
Friday. On each day, one subject’s class is held.
route at a rate twice as fast, reaching the office
Zoology is held on the day just after Chemistry.
at 15:05 hours. As compared to the clock at the
Two subjects’ classes are held between
office, the farmhouse clock is:
Chemistry and Geology. Botany is on Friday. On
a) 20 minutes fast
which day can Physics classes be held?
b) 5 minutes slow
a) Wednesday
b) Thursday c) 10 minutes fast
c) Monday d) 10 minutes slow
d) Tuesday

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

Read the following three passages and answer the also serving as natural barriers that prevent
items that follow the passages. Your answers to erosion and protect coastlines from hurricane
these items should be based on the passages only: damage.

Passage I Q.22) Which of the following statements best


Migrant labourers in metropolitan cities form an reflect the crux of the passage?
indispensable part of the urban workforce, a) Coral reefs, often called the "rainforests of
driving rapid urbanization and economic the sea," support an incredible diversity of
growth. Attracted by the promise of better life.
employment opportunities in unorganised b) Corals reefs are not only ecologically
sectors like construction, domestic work, important but also are crucial to sustain
manufacturing, and services, they contribute livelihoods.
significantly to the economy. Yet, despite their c) Corals reefs act as the first line of defence,
vital role, they endure challenging conditions, protecting coastlines from the impacts of
including long working hours and insufficient natural disasters.
access to essential resources such as adequate d) Coral polyps share a symbiotic relationship
housing, healthcare, and sanitation. Many reside with algae, mutually benefiting each other for
in overcrowded slums or temporary shelters survival and growth.
near construction sites, grappling with
substandard living conditions. Additionally, the Passage III
absence of formal documentation, language The Smart Waste Management System (SWM),
barriers, and the seasonal nature of their work powered by the Internet of Things (IoT), is
often hinder them from claiming their rights. transforming waste processing by enhancing
efficiency and promoting sustainability.
Q.21) Which one of the following statements best Equipped with ultrasonic sensors, smart bins
reflects the most logical and rational inference distributed across localities gather real-time
that can be made from the passage? data, which is transmitted to a central control
a) Migrant laborers play an important role in center via cloud platforms. These bins are
urban economic growth and development. equipped with solar-powered sensors to ensure
b) Pull factors attract individuals from rural uninterrupted operation. When waste levels
areas to urban metropolises, offering exceed 80%, GPS-guided trucks efficiently
prospects for improved livelihoods. collect the waste, conserving both time and
c) The unorganized nature of migrant laborers' resources. This seamless integration offers
work often leads to the exploitation of their localities greener, cleaner, smarter, and more
rights. sustainable waste management solutions.
d) Despite being an essential part of the urban
economy, migrant laborers often live in Q.23) Based on the above passage, the following
inadequate and challenging environments. assumptions have been made:
1. India should completely switch to smart
Passage II waste management systems for efficient
Corals, part of the phylum Cnidaria, are management of waste.
remarkable marine animals commonly found in 2. Efficient waste management not only ensures
tropical coastal regions. These polyps live in a a cleaner environment but also enhances the
mutually beneficial association with microscopic aesthetic appeal of the area.
algae called zooxanthellae. Despite covering just Which of the assumptions given above is/are
1% of the ocean floor, coral reefs support an correct?
astonishing 25% of all marine life, earning them a) 1 only
the title ‘rainforest of the sea’. Beyond their b) 2 only
ecological value, coral reefs are indispensable to c) Both 1 and 2
coastal communities. They sustain livelihoods d) Neither 1 nor 2
through fishing, tourism, and education, while

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Q.24) If (x – 3)2 = y + 9 and (y – 3)2 = x + 9 , and x a) 120


≠ y, what is value of x2 + y2? b) 144
a) 75 c) 150
b) 80 d) 280
c) 85
d) 35 Q.30) Two motor boats, V and W, start from a
point on a river and follow the same route. V
Q.25) What is the missing term in the following? travels downstream at 10 m/s, while W starts 5
DLPT : ENSX :: GNRT : ? minutes later at 7 m/s downstream. Fifteen
a) HOSY minutes after W has started, two passengers on
b) HPQV boat V decide that they need to join their family
c) HPSX members on boat W. They are left behind on a
d) HPUX raft that floats along the river to be picked up by
boat W. If the speed of the river's current is 2
Q.26) In a survey of 160 members at a gym it m/s, find the time (in minutes) for which the
was found that 65 members went to the gym in passengers stayed on the raft.
January, 70 in February, and 55 in March. No a) 19
member went to the gym in January and March b) 25
but not in February. Also, 20 members went to c) 30
the gym in both January and February, and 15 d) 36
went to the gym in both February and March.
How many members did not attend the gym at Read the following three passages and answer the
all during these three months? items that follow the passages. Your answers to
a) 7 these items should be based on the passages only:
b) 2
c) 3 Passage I
d) 5 In a fable told by the desert mystics, a merchant
stumbled upon a golden fruit in an abandoned
Q.27) For natural numbers ‘n’ and ‘m’, n³m² = 864 oasis. A voice whispered, “Take it, and a hundred
and (n² / m) + nm³ = 66. more shall be yours — but leave this place as you
How many such ordered pairs (n, m) exist? came, with empty hands.” Tempted, he pocketed
a) 1 the fruit, and the oasis vanished. He wandered
b) 3 the desert forever, clutching his treasure, unable
c) 4 to eat it, sell it, or find his way home.
d) 2 Philosophers have often likened greed to thirst
in a saltwater sea — the more one drinks, the
Q.28) Tanu and Sana start from their homes at more parched one becomes. While ambition can
9:30 AM and 12:00 PM respectively, in the same propel progress, greed distorts both value and
direction, to meet their other friends. Tanu direction, making one forget the original
moves at a speed of 7 km/h while Sana moves at purpose of effort. In ancient Stoicism, desire
the speed of 12 km/h. At what time Sana will beyond necessity was seen as a form of slavery —
overtake Tanu? for the man who must have more can never be
a) After 1:30 PM free. In modern society, however, greed is often
b) After 2:45 PM veiled in the language of aspiration, its
c) After 3:30 PM consequences softened by the promise of
d) After 4:00 PM endless growth. Yet history shows that
unbridled accumulation, whether of wealth,
Q.29) Ten identical chocolates are to be power, or even knowledge, leads not to
distributed among five children - V, W, X, Y, and abundance but to imbalance — personal, social,
Z. What is the number of ways of distributing it or ecological. The question is not whether we
so that only two children get exactly two should desire, but whether our desires have
chocolates each while the rest could get any come to desire us.
number of chocolates?

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

Q.31) Which one of the following statements c) The endurance of a democracy depends
best reflects the most logical and rational more on civic responsibility than on legal
inference that can be made from the above safeguards.
passage? d) In India, the misuse of power is inevitable
a) Greed, when moderated by purpose, is an due to structural flaws in governance.
essential catalyst for human development
and civilizational progress. Passage III
b) The pursuit of more, when driven by In the early 1990s, an IAS officer in rural Bihar
insatiable desire rather than necessity, insisted that villagers sit on chairs during a
ultimately leads to personal and systemic government inspection meeting. “We will speak
ruin. as equals,” he said, facing resistance not from
c) Greed differs from ambition only in scale, not the villagers, but from his own subordinates.
in effect, and thus both should be treated Centuries of hierarchy had taught people to
with equal suspicion. equate obedience with order. In India, the idea
d) In a world that values aspiration, it is difficult of equality has often been treated as a legal
and unrealistic to distinguish between abstraction, not a lived reality. Philosophically,
healthy desire and destructive greed. equality is not sameness but the rejection of
undue superiority. It demands courage both
Passage II from those who are denied it and those who
In 1950, as the Constituent Assembly gave shape must give it up. But policy often falls short —
to the Indian Republic, a young member reforms treat symptoms, not attitudes. The real
reportedly asked Dr. Rajendra Prasad, “What if challenge is not redistributing benefits, but
future governments misuse the Constitution?” unlearning inherited deference.
Dr. Prasad responded, “No constitution can
protect a people unwilling to guard their own Q.33) Which one of the following statements
freedom.” The Constitution was never a best reflects the most logical and rational
guarantee but a framework — and the burden of inference that can be made from the above
upholding it lies not just with the rulers but with passage?
the ruled. Philosophically, power is not a) Legal reforms are more effective than social
inherently corrupting, but it magnifies change in addressing inequality.
character. In democratic systems, power exists b) Social attitudes can render constitutional
with accountability — or at least that is the guarantees of equality ineffective.
intent. Yet, history across civilizations has c) True equality in India will emerge naturally
shown that unchecked authority, even in with economic development.
democratic clothing, often invites moral decay. d) Obedience to authority is essential to
The ethical question is not how to limit power, maintain societal order in hierarchical
but how to keep those who wield it conscious of cultures.
its transient, entrusted nature.
Q.34) Nine civil engineers are working on a
Q.32) Which one of the following statements certain number of projects, with exactly four
best reflects the most logical and rational engineers working on each project. If no two
inference that can be made from the above projects involve the same set of two or more
passage? engineers in them, what is the maximum
a) A strong Constitution is sufficient to prevent possible number of projects that are being
the abuse of power in any democracy. handled by the nine engineers?
b) Democratic systems cannot function unless a) 2
people distrust those in power. b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

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Q.35) Raman and Raju were playing an b) Only statement 1 and 3 is sufficient
interesting game. There were 7 numbers written c) Statement 2 along with statement 3 is
on the board 7, 8, 13, 15, 16, 24 and 25. Each one sufficient
took turns to erase one of the numbers, till only d) Statement 3 along with statement 1 and 2 is
one number remained on the board. The sufficient
numbers erased by Raman and Raju respectively
were neither a factor nor a multiple of a number Q.38) The average weight of 45 children is 8 kg.
erased earlier by them. The sum of the numbers Out of these 45 children, exactly 30 have
erased by Raman was twice that of Raju's. Which weights that are 8 kg or less. If all the children’s
was the number that was left on the board weights are in integral kilograms, what is the
finally? highest possible value for the average weight (in
a) 13 kg) of these 30 children?
b) 15 a) 7
c) 16 b) 7.25
d) 24 c) 7.5
d) 7.75
Q.36) In a group, there were 9 children whose
weights were 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg, ..., 9 kg. They were Q.39) Set A has ‘a’ elements and set B has ‘b’
split into three groups with an equal number of elements. lf the sum of the number of proper
children in each group. The sum of the weights subsets of A and that of B is 142, then find the
in two of the groups is 23 kg and 15 kg. Which of value of (a + b).
the following statements is/are true? a) 11
(i) The 8 kg child is in the group weighing 23 kg. b) 6
(ii) There is at least one group possible, where all c) 5
the three weights are prime numbers. d) 4
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Q.40) Two trains, X and Y, while traveling
a) (i) only towards each other on different tracks, they
b) (ii) only enter a tunnel that is as long as the combined
c) Both (i) and (ii) length of both trains. Train X is 135 meters long,
d) Neither (i) nor (ii) and train Y is 151 meters long. After 10 seconds,
the two trains meet inside the tunnel. If their
Q.37) A Seven-storeyed building with floors from speeds are in a ratio of 5:6, how much length (in
I to VII is painted using different colours and m) of train X is still outside the tunnel when it
only one colour is used to paint a floor. meets train Y?
Consider the following statements: a) 6m
1. The middle five floors are painted in different b) 3m
colours. c) 9m
2. The first (I) and the fourth (IV) floors are d) 5m
painted in red colours.
3. The second (II) and the seventh (VII) floors
are painted blue.
To ensure that any two consecutive floors have
different colours:
a) Only statements 1 and 2 are sufficient

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Read the following three passages and answer the Passage II


items that follow the passages. Your answers to In the modern imagination, certainty is
these items should be based on the passages only: fetishized—valorized as the highest epistemic
virtue and demanded even in matters inherently
Passage I uncertain. Whether in science, politics, or
International aid, cloaked in the language of personal belief, the hunger for certainty has
benevolence, often hides beneath its folds a web replaced the humility of inquiry. Yet, the very
of paternalism, strategic interest, and selective notion of absolute knowledge collapses under
compassion. While the rhetoric emphasizes the weight of its own presumptions. What we
altruism, the practice frequently reflects call “truth” is often contingent consensus,
geopolitical calculus masquerading as moral shaped by language, time, and perspective.
concern. Aid becomes not an act of solidarity, Philosopher Karl Popper argued that science
but a mechanism of influence—prescribing advances not by confirmation, but by
values, models of development, and even falsification—by welcoming the possibility of
governance structures under the guise of help. being wrong. Likewise, ancient Indian
The paradox deepens when one considers that epistemology (Nyaya) emphasized the pramana
the giver’s ability to aid is often derived from of perception and inference, always contingent,
systemic privileges built upon global inequities— never infallible. The obsession with finality,
colonial histories, resource extraction, or whether in ideological dogmas or empirical
skewed trade regimes. In such a framework, aid claims, stifles intellectual agility and moral
may serve less to equalize and more to sustain nuance. Certainty is seductive because it
asymmetries through moral absolution. Yet to relieves us of the burden of thinking. But the
reject all aid on these grounds risks cynicism. cost is high: when we idolize the fixed, we forfeit
There exist genuine gestures of transnational the ability to adapt, evolve, and revise. True
solidarity, often led by civil society actors, intellectual maturity lies not in claiming final
grassroots movements, or in response to crises answers, but in cultivating durable doubt.
where human suffering trumps political
calculation. The ethical challenge lies in Q.42) Which of the following assumptions is
distinguishing aid that empowers from that
NOT valid based on the author’s argument?
which infantilizes—between assistance and
1. Certainty may be detrimental to open-ended
assertion.
intellectual inquiry.
2. People often treats provisional truths as
Q.41) Which of the following assumptions is/are absolute.
not valid based on the author’s argument? 3. Knowledge becomes legitimate only when
1. International aid is sometimes entangled universally and permanently agreed upon.
with strategic and political interests. Select the correct answer using the code below:
2. All forms of aid inherently perpetuate global a) 1 and 2 only
inequalities.
b) 2 and 3 only
3. The ethicality of aid depends on whether it
c) 1 and 3 only
empowers the recipient rather than imposes
d) 3 only
upon them.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

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Passage III Which of the above assumptions is/are correct?


In 1967, as Cold War tensions cast their long a) 1 only
shadow even beyond the stratosphere, the b) 2 only
United States and the Soviet Union co-signed c) Both 1 and 2
the Outer Space Treaty, a diplomatic artefact d) Neither 1 nor 2
that remarkably enshrined the cosmos as the
“province of all mankind.” The Treaty prohibited Q.44) How many whole numbers between 11 and
national appropriation of celestial bodies, 55 (excluding both 11 and 55) are divisible by its
reflecting a moral stance that outer space ought units digits?
to transcend terrestrial geopolitics. Yet, five a) 16
decades later, the spirit of that accord seems to b) 17
drift in the vacuum of expediency. Mega- c) 18
constellations of satellites now clutter low-Earth d) 19
orbit, often deployed with scant international
coordination, raising concerns about orbital Q.45) The average of 31, 34, x, 39, 44 and 46 is an
debris and spectrum monopolization. Moreover, integer and lies between 36 and 42. If x is always
private enterprises mine lunar regolith not for an integer and greater than the average of the
collective advancement, but for competitive six integers, then which of the following is the
leverage. A poignant anecdote often recounted minimum value of x?
in space ethics circles is that of the Apollo 11 a) 37
crew, who carried with them a silicon disk b) 38
etched with goodwill messages from 73 c) 40
countries — an emblematic gesture of planetary d) 41
unity. However, critics lament that subsequent
ventures into space have been more acquisitive Q.46) What will come in place of Question Mark
than aspirational. Philosophically, the question (?) in the sequence?
persists: Should space be viewed as a commons 5, 8, 19, 102, ?, 6356, 69903.
— like the high seas or Antarctica — governed by a) 719
restraint and equity? Or has it become the next b) 705
theatre for anthropocentric ambition, where c) 615
exploration is indistinguishable from d) 621
exploitation? Ethical cosmopolitanism urges
caution, warning that our behavior in space Q.47) Study the following information carefully
reflects — and magnifies — our Earthbound and answer the questions given below:
moral fractures. If unchecked, the celestial could 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of Q'
become yet another domain of terrestrial 'P x Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
inequality, where the few terraform while the 'P – Q' means 'P is father of Q'
many are left behind. 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is brother of Q’
How is C related to M in the following
Q.43) Based on the above passage, following expression?
assumptions have been made: AxB–C÷D÷ExV+M
1. Commercial and geopolitical interests have a) Paternal Uncle
gradually eclipsed the foundational ethic of b) Paternal Grandfather
collective stewardship in space affairs. c) Maternal Uncle
2. Ethical governance of space is a mirror of d) Maternal Grandfather
humanity’s unresolved moral asymmetries on
Earth.

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Read the following information and answer the about Dolly but about what she presaged: a
two items that follow (Q 48 and Q 49): future where life’s fundamental blueprints could
Six shotput throwers P, Q, R, S, T and U be edited, swapped, or commodified with
appeared in several throws. Points scored by mechanical precision.
either R or U was the highest. If R scores the Transgenics and gene editing, particularly with
highest, then T scores the least. If U scores the tools like CRISPR, have since allowed humanity
highest, Q scores the least. In all the throws they to recalibrate not just the genomes of crops or
got different points; S scores higher than P, but cattle, but potentially of human embryos. While
they are close competitors; P scores higher than utilitarian arguments often extol their curative
Q; R scores higher than P. promise — disease resistance, enhanced yields,
and therapeutic interventions — critics worry
Q.48) If U stands second, then the highest about “genetic enhancement” outpacing moral
position of P can be? deliberation. The central tension is this: does
a) third mastering the genome reflect a deeper
b) fourth humanism or an unreflective instrumentalism?
c) fifth The ethicist Hans Jonas once warned that the
d) sixth power to act must be tempered by the
imperative to foresee, lest humans become
Q.49) If T is ranked third, then which one of the victims of their own ingenuity.
following is correct? In this context, a widely cited incident occurred
a) T gets more points than R in 2018, when a Chinese scientist claimed to
b) R gets more points than T have created the first gene-edited babies.
c) P is ranked fourth Despite global censure, the episode illuminated
d) U is ranked fifth the porous boundary between what is
technically possible and what is ethically
permissible. Philosophically, the question
Q.50) Amit’s clock moves 20 minutes fast in
remains: when we alter nature, do we uplift it —
every 4 hours. The clock was set right to show
or merely refashion it in our own image,
the correct time at 12:00 a.m. on Tuesday. When
vulnerabilities included?
the clock shows the time 08:00 p.m. on
Thursday, what is the correct time?
a) 2:20 p.m, Thursday Q.51) With reference to the above passage,
b) 12:20 p.m, Wednesday consider the following statements:
c) 10:20 a.m, Wednesday 1. The passage suggests that technological
d) 08:20 a.m, Thursday capabilities in genetic science often evolve
more rapidly than the moral frameworks
meant to guide them.
Read the following three passages and answer the
2. The anecdote of Dolly the sheep is used to
items that follow the passages. Your answers to
underscore how public discourse has
these items should be based on the passages only:
consistently celebrated unregulated
biotechnological progress.
Passage I
3. The author implies that interventions in
In 1996, when "Dolly" the sheep became the first
genetic code, though potentially therapeutic,
mammal successfully cloned from an adult
may be undergirded by a mechanistic and
somatic cell, public imagination teetered
ethically ambivalent mindset.
between awe and apprehension. Some hailed it
How many of the above statements are correct?
as Promethean — mankind's conquest over
a) Only one
nature’s limitations — while others invoked the
b) Only two
Icarian myth, warning that technological ascent
c) All three
without ethical restraint invites ruinous descent.
d) None
The underlying ethical anxiety was not merely

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Passage II involves unresolved metaphysical and ethical


In 1973, a pseudonymous plaintiff named “Jane tensions.
Roe” catalyzed a seismic moral and legal debate 4. The reference to Savita Halappanavar serves
in the United States when the Supreme Court, in to illustrate the dangers of allowing rigid
Roe v. Wade, declared abortion a constitutional moral frameworks to override contextual
right. The ruling was heralded by some as an medical judgment.
emancipation of bodily autonomy, and derided How many of the above statements are correct?
by others as the judicial legitimation of prenatal a) Only one
extinction. Yet the philosophical fulcrum of the b) Only two
abortion debate — across cultures and centuries c) Only three
— hinges less on jurisprudence and more on the d) All four
elusive question of when life begins, and what
counts as morally protectable existence. In Passage III
many ancient societies, moral consideration was In 1974, Bhutan’s fourth king famously
not uniformly tethered to biological benchmarks proclaimed Gross National Happiness to be
like heartbeat or brain activity, but rather to more important than Gross Domestic Product —
symbolic thresholds such as "quickening" or a radical deviation from the global norm where
ensoulment. Contemporary bioethics, however, economic metrics often serve as proxies for
remains torn between personhood theories, well-being. While this declaration drew
viability arguments, and utilitarian calculations admiration from ethicists and economists alike,
of maternal hardship. Pro-choice frameworks the modern world has largely marched in the
invoke autonomy and self-determination, while opposite direction, entrenching a paradigm
pro-life positions often anchor themselves in where consumer acquisition masquerades as
deontological imperatives — that life, however life’s ultimate telos. Materialism, once an
nascent, holds intrinsic worth. The tragedy of incidental byproduct of trade and production,
Savita Halappanavar in Ireland in 2012 — denied has metastasized into a cultural ethos — woven
a medically necessary abortion despite a non- into aspirations, identities, and even moral
viable pregnancy, leading to her death from vocabularies. The proliferation of social media
sepsis — reanimated global ethical discussions has further catalyzed this metamorphosis,
about whether medical hesitation rooted in legal incentivizing performative consumption where
ambiguity can itself become a form of violence. individuals curate not just lifestyles but self-
Thus, the ethical discourse on abortion is not worth through possessions. The luxury watch,
merely a tug-of-war between rights, but a the designer sneaker, the exotic vacation — each
reflection of deeper civilizational anxieties: becomes a semiotic badge of success. But critics
about the moral weight of potentiality, the locus argue that in this milieu, fulfillment becomes
of choice, and whether neutrality is ever truly simulacral — a mere image of contentment
neutral in matters of life and death. without substance. Philosophers from Erich
Fromm to contemporary communitarian
Q.52) With reference to the above passage, thinkers have warned that societies overly
consider the following statements: indexed on "having" rather than "being" are
1. The passage implies that legal ambiguity prone to psychological disquiet, atomization,
surrounding abortion can, in certain cases, and ethical apathy. Yet, to indict materialism
result in outcomes that may themselves be wholly is to overlook its paradox: that it can,
ethically condemnable. under certain value-aligned circumstances,
2. It can be inferred that ancient ethical enhance dignity — especially for those
systems universally rejected biological historically denied access to basic goods. The
milestones as morally relevant in defining challenge, then, is not the possession of objects
life. per se, but the moral architecture within which
3. The author suggests that the abortion debate such possession is embedded.
is not solely about legal rights but also

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Q.53) With reference to the above passage, Q.56) X and Y sail out to meet each other from
consider the following statements: two places 200 km apart. X sails 20 km the first
1. The passage posits that in some cases, day, 19 km the second day, 18 km the third day
material accumulation may contribute and so on. Y sails 8 km the first day, 10 km the
positively to a person’s sense of dignity and second day, 12 km the third day and so on. On
self-worth. which day will they meet?
2. The author suggests that the pursuit of a) 9th Day
material goods has become integral to b) 8th Day
identity formation in contemporary society. c) 7th Day
3. It is implied that Bhutan’s philosophy of d) 6th Day
Gross National Happiness aligns with the
dominant global economic paradigm. Q.57) The sides of a triangle are 21, 17, and 10 cm.
4. The text implies that materialism is The given triangle is divided into two triangles
dangerous not merely because of what it by the perpendicular on the longest side from
promotes, but because of what it displaces in the opposite vertex. What is the area (in sq. cm)
human life. of the larger triangle formed?
How many of the above statements are correct? a) 24
a) Only one b) 36
b) Only two c) 60
c) Only three d) 84
d) All four
Q.58) A certain number of tankers were required
Q.54) Anaya codes the alphabets as numbers to transport 60 lakh litres of water to the
such as a=2, b=2, c=6, d=4, e=10, f=6 and so on. earthquake hit regions of Myanmar. However, it
Then what is the value that Anaya gets by adding was found that since each tanker could take
all the codes allotted to respective letters 50,000 litres of water less, another 4 tankers
(according to the code given to that letter) in the were needed. How many tankers were initially,
word Tranquility ? planned to be used?
a) 248 a) 10
b) 252 b) 15
c) 216 c) 20
d) 188 d) 25

Q.55) Six students, Anima, Rohit, Kiran, Seema, Q.59) The cost of setting up a school is Rs 1000.
Jaya and Manish, are top six rank holders in a The cost of running the classes is Rs 120 per 100
school. The rank of Rohit is between the ranks of students. The cost of benches, boards and so on
Kiran and Seema. Rohit is at the fourth rank. is 60 paise per student. The fees for the school
There are two students between the ranks of starts at Rs 2.75 per student. The school made
Jaya and Seema. Jaya is at the lowest rank among expenditures expecting 900 student enrolments,
all the six students. The rank of Manish is but only 784 students finally enrol. What is the
immediately above the rank of Anima. sum to be obtained as grants to attain a profit of
Who is at the fifth rank? 10% on the cost?
a) Seema a) Rs 730
b) Kiran b) Rs 720
c) Anima c) Rs 736
d) Manish d) Rs 726

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Q.60) The incomes of David, Michael and Adam India’s first privately developed rocket, Vikram-
are in the ratio of 4: 5: 6 respectively and their S. This is a moment that many in India’s private
spending are in the ratio of 6: 7: 8 respectively. If space sector have been waiting for, and the
David saves one fourth his income, then the expectation is that the success of the Skyroot
savings of David, Michael and Adam are in the venture will open doors for many others. The
ratio: name given to the mission, ‘Prarambh’, means
a) 2 : 3 : 4 ‘beginning’ in Hindi. Many in the space
b) 5 : 6 : 9 community believe that this mission is a new
c) 5 : 9 : 6 beginning for engagement and growth between
d) 9 : 5 : 6 India’s official space agency, the ISRO (Indian
Space Research Organisation), and the private
Read the following three passages and answer the space sector in India.
items that follow the passages. Your answers to
these items should be based on the passages only: Q.62) Based on the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
Passage I 1. The entry of private players is expected to
Land is one of the world’s most valuable assets. drive the commercialization of space
operations in India.
Growing populations and the increasing need
for food and resources have fuelled an ever- 2. The success of Vikram-S is expected to
inspire increased participation from other
rising demand for land. Land reforms have
private space enterprises in India.
consequently reshaped nearly every country,
Which of the assumptions given above is/are
influencing the distribution of resources and the
correct?
dynamics of gender and social inequalities. In
a) 1 only
the coming decades, addressing challenges
b) 2 only
stemming from these changes will require a
c) Both 1 and 2
deep understanding of their roots and the
d) Neither 1 nor 2
development of policies that transform land into
a catalyst for positive social progress.
Passage III
Q.61) Which of the following statements best Weather derivatives are financial instruments
reflects the central idea of the passage? that derive their value from weather-related
a) Land reforms have played a vital role in variables, such as temperature, rainfall, or
shaping the distribution and ownership of snowfall. Unlike traditional insurance, which
land resources. compensates for damages caused by adverse
b) The pressure on land is increasing with weather events, weather derivatives offer
increasing population and greater demand payouts based on the occurrence of specific
for food resources. weather conditions, regardless of any actual
c) Addressing inequalities due to differential losses. These tools are particularly valuable for
distribution of land would be critical for industries like agriculture, energy, and tourism,
social progress. where revenues are closely tied to weather
d) Social inequalities have arisen from the fluctuations. While they serve as an effective
differential distribution of land. risk-mitigation measure, the utility of weather
derivatives depends heavily on the precision and
reliability of weather data, as well as a
Passage II
comprehensive understanding of financial
Skyroot Aerospace, an Indian private sector
markets.
space enterprise, created history by launching

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Q.63) Based on the above passage, the following integers (in metres). The least possible total
assumptions have been made: length of the belt is
1. Weather derivatives are more effective than a) 15840 m
traditional insurance for industries affected b) 15120 m
by weather conditions. c) 16720 m
2. The effectiveness of weather derivatives d) 12000 m
relies on accurate weather data and a solid
understanding of financial markets. Q.67) The total cost of 8 apricots, 12 bananas and
Which of the assumptions given above is/are 4 carrots is equal to half the total cost of 4
correct? apricots, 12 bananas and 20 carrots.
a) 1 only Consider the following statements:
b) 2 only 1. The total cost of 6 apricots, 10 bananas and
c) Both 1 and 2 18 carrots is equal to the total cost of 8
d) Neither 1 nor 2 apricots, 12 bananas and 16 carrots.
2. The total cost of one carrot is equal to sum of
Q.64) A solid metal sphere is melted and smaller cost of one apricots and the cost of one
spheres of equal radii are formed. 25% of the bananas.
volume of the sphere is lost in the process. The Which of the statements given above is/are
smaller spheres have a radius 1/20th the larger correct?
sphere. If 24 litres of paint were needed to paint a) 1 only
the larger sphere, how many litres are needed to b) 2 only
paint all the smaller spheres? c) Both 1 and 2
a) 900 litres d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 360 litres
c) 240 litres Q.68) Consider the following statements in
d) 120 litres respect of the equation E= a+b- c, where a, b
and c are distinct prime numbers each less than
Q.65) A selection is to be made for one post of 20:
Head coach and five posts of Assistant Coaches. 1. The unit digit of E can be 4.
Amongst the 8 candidates called for the 2. The unit digit of E can be 6.
interview, only 3 are eligible for the post of Head 3. The unit digit of E can never be 8.
coach while they all are eligible for the post of Which of the statements given above are
Assistant coaches. The number of possible correct?
combinations for selection is? a) 1 and 2 only
a) 36 b) 2 and 3 only
b) 126 c) 1 and 3 only
c) 63 d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 121
Q.69) 743 and 785, when divided by the same
Q.66) Ramandeep buys a rubber belt of unknown number, leave the same remainder 1. How many
length. He cuts the belt into 6 equal parts. Then, numbers can be used as the divisor in order to
he cuts one of the 6 parts into 6 equal pieces, get the same remainder 1?
another into 7 equal pieces, another into 8 equal a) 6
pieces, another into 9 equal pieces, and the last b) 5
one into 10 equal pieces. If the lengths of all the c) 4
smaller pieces after final cuts of the belt are in d) 3

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Q.70) Ananya asked for a cycle within 10 days on the meaningful success of waste
her birthday from her mother Sunayna. She was management strategies in India.
promised cycle but not within 10 days but within Which of the assumptions given above is/are
one month of her birthday by her mother. On correct?
Ananya’s birthday, Sunayna saved Rs. 1 and on a) 1 only
the next day, she saved Rs. 2 more than that on b) 2 only
the previous day. On the next day, she saved Rs. c) Both 1 and 2
2 more than that on the previous day and so on. d) Neither 1 nor 2
On the end of which date did she give cycle to
her daughter if the cycle’s cost was the largest Passage II
perfect square as well a perfect cube, possible Corruption is not merely a breach of law; it is a
from her savings in a month? distortion of collective morality. When
a) 27th day of the month dishonesty becomes routine in institutions, it
b) 30th day of the month often reflects a deeper societal acceptance—or
c) 12th day of the month resignation—to unethical norms. Over time, such
d) 8th day of the month moral erosion erodes trust, weakens the social
contract, and normalises personal gain over
Read the following three passages and answer the collective good. While legal reforms are
items that follow the passages. Your answers to important, they often treat symptoms, not
these items should be based on the passages only: causes. Enduring change requires a cultural shift
in how individuals relate to power,
Passage I responsibility, and fairness. Until integrity is
valued not just in principle but in practice,
India generates over 160,000 tonnes of solid
corruption will persist not as an exception, but
waste daily, much of which is mismanaged due
as a reflection of what society tolerates—or even
to inadequate segregation, poor infrastructure,
expects.
and lack of public awareness. Rapid urbanisation
has only intensified the challenge, leading to
overflowing landfills and environmental hazards. Q.72) Which of the following best captures the
While initiatives like the Swachh Bharat Mission essence of the author’s argument in the
and Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) passage?
frameworks aim to improve waste processing, a) Corruption is a product of flawed governance
meaningful progress depends on decentralised structures that can be corrected through
waste management systems and behavioural legal and institutional reforms.
shifts at the community level. Without active b) Social tolerance of unethical practices
citizen participation and investment in local enables corruption to survive, and lasting
solutions, large-scale reforms may remain reform must target this moral complacency.
ineffective despite policy intent. c) Corruption thrives when citizens disengage
from civic duties and stop demanding
Q.71) Based on the above passage, the following institutional accountability.
d) Institutional dishonesty reflects individual
assumptions have been made:
moral failures, which can only be addressed
1. Centralised policy initiatives alone are
through religious or spiritual awakening.
insufficient to solve India's solid waste
problem.
2. Behavioural shift at community level and
investment in local solutions is imperative for

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

Passage III than Tamal, then what is the sum of their


In many modern workplaces, the relentless present ages?
pursuit of profit has come to define success, a) 52
often at the expense of employee well-being. A b) 44
culture that rewards long hours, constant c) 54
availability, and uncritical obedience may boost d) 64
short-term productivity, but it erodes creativity,
trust, and mental health. When employees are Q.76) The difference between a 2-digit number
treated as mere resources rather than as and the number obtained by interchanging the
humans with emotional needs, organizations positions of the digits is 27.
risk fostering anxiety, burnout, and high Consider the following statements
attrition. Ironically, the obsession with efficiency 1. There exist only one unique two digit
can lead to inefficiency, as disengaged workers number satisfying the condition.
rarely produce meaningful or sustainable 2. The difference between the two digits of the
results. A healthy work culture must therefore number remains fixed.
be built not just on performance metrics, but on Which of the above statements is/are correct?
empathy, balance, and a recognition of the a) 1 only
intrinsic value of individuals. b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q.73) Which of the following statements best d) Neither 1 nor 2
reflects the most logical and rational inference
that can be drawn from the passage? Q.77) A question is followed by two statements.
a) Companies that prioritize profits are bound Consider the following Questions and
to succeed in highly competitive markets, Statements:
regardless of their internal culture. A shopkeeper brought 2 items P and Q at prices
b) A toxic work culture may undermine long- Rs 250 & Rs 400 respectively. He then marked
term organizational success, even if short- item P and Q at 30% and 40% above their cost
term goals are met. price. There was a discount given on these
c) Employee dissatisfaction is an unavoidable items.
by-product of performance-driven Question: What is the total loss/profit % earned
industries. by him?
d) Organizations should avoid measuring Statement I : Selling prices of item Q is double
performance if they want to protect the cost price of item P
employee well-being. Statement II : Discount given on item P is Rs 50
more than the discount given on item Q
Q.74) A certain number of carpenters can make Which one of the following is correct with
bats for Team India in 8d days, where d is a respect to the above Question and the
natural number. By what percent should the Statements?
number of carpenters be increased so that the a) The Question can be answered by using one
work can be completed in 6d days? of the Statements alone, but cannot be
a) 20 % answered using the other Statement alone.
b) 25 % b) The Question can be answered by using
c) 33.33% either Statement alone.
d) 40 % c) The Question can be answered by using both
Statements together, but cannot be
Q.75) Sumanta said to Tamal, "When I was half as answered using either Statement alone.
old as you are today, you were one-sixth as old d) The Question cannot be answered even by
as I am now". If Sumanta is eight years older using both the Statements together

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

Q.78) A question is followed by two statements. Q.80) A question is followed by two statements.
Consider the following Questions and Consider the following Questions and
Statements: Statements:
n is a positive integer. In a classroom of boys and girls, the difference
Question: What is the unique value of n? between the number of boys and girls is 5.
Statement I: n is the smallest prime number, Question: What is the average money spent by
where n + 4 is a prime number and n+8 is also a all girls?
prime number. Statement I: The number of boys was 20% more
Statement II: n is the smallest prime number, than that of girls
and has a difference of 6 with the very next Statement II: Total money spent by all boys was
prime number, which in turn has a difference of Rs 400 less than that of all the girls
6 with its next prime number. Which one of the following is correct with
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above Question and the
respect to the above Question and the Statements?
Statements? a) The Question can be answered by using one
a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be
of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
answered using the other Statement alone. b) The Question can be answered by using
b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
either Statement alone. c) The Question can be answered by using both
c) The Question can be answered by using both Statements together, but cannot be
Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
answered using either Statement alone. d) The Question cannot be answered even by
d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.
using both the Statements together.

Q.79) A question is followed by two statements.


Consider the following Questions and
Statements:
Both y and z are prime numbers and x is a
natural number. If z < 50.
Question: What is the value of x?
Statement Ι: x is a multiple of 14 and x + y = z.
Statement ΙΙ: LCM of y, z is 527.
Which one of the following is correct with
respect to the above Question and the
Statements?
a) The Question can be answered by using one
of the Statements alone, but cannot be
answered using the other Statement alone.
b) The Question can be answered by using
either Statement alone.
c) The Question can be answered by using both
Statements together, but cannot be
answered using either Statement alone.
d) The Question cannot be answered even by
using both the Statements together.

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Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
Page 21

PTS 2025 | Test Code: 222406 |

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

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