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CSE332 MCQs - Industry Ethics

Unit 1
Q1. What is the primary focus of ethics?
a) Increasing company profits
b) Defining moral principles that govern behavior
c) Promoting government regulations
d) Encouraging competition in the market
Answer: b) Defining moral principles that govern behavior

Q2. Which of the following best describes ethical behavior?

a) Following only legal regulations
b) Making decisions based on fairness, honesty, and respect
c) Always prioritizing business profits
d) Avoiding involvement in ethical dilemmas
Answer: b) Making decisions based on fairness, honesty, and respect

Q3. Ethics is primarily concerned with:

a) Scientific research
b) Social norms and values
c) Political laws
d) Business strategies
Answer: b) Social norms and values

Q4. Why is integrity important in professional settings?

a) It helps individuals manipulate others
b) It ensures honesty and trustworthiness
c) It encourages workplace conflicts
d) It allows employees to bypass company rules
Answer: b) It ensures honesty and trustworthiness

Q5. Which of the following is an example of integrity in the workplace?

a) Taking credit for someone else’s work
b) Reporting unethical behavior
c) Lying to secure a promotion
d) Disclosing confidential information
Answer: b) Reporting unethical behavior

Q6. A company that values integrity will most likely:

a) Encourage dishonest practices
b) Penalize employees for reporting misconduct
c) Foster a culture of transparency and accountability
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d) Allow employees to violate ethical standards

Answer: c) Foster a culture of transparency and accountability

Q7. Business ethics primarily focus on:

a) Increasing shareholder profits
b) Encouraging unethical competition
c) Maintaining moral principles in business operations
d) Exploiting workers for financial gain
Answer: c) Maintaining moral principles in business operations

Q8. A company following ethical business practices will:

a) Mislead consumers for higher sales
b) Engage in fair trade practices
c) Exploit workers to reduce costs
d) Avoid transparency in financial reporting
Answer: b) Engage in fair trade practices

Q9. Which of the following is an ethical concern in business?

a) False advertising
b) Reducing production costs
c) Increasing employee benefits
d) Expanding into new markets
Answer: a) False advertising

Q10. What is the first step in improving corporate ethics?

a) Ignoring workplace misconduct
b) Establishing a code of ethics
c) Reducing employee wages
d) Encouraging unethical behavior
Answer: b) Establishing a code of ethics

Q11. Which of the following improves corporate ethics?

a) Allowing discrimination in hiring
b) Encouraging employees to report unethical behavior
c) Avoiding employee training programs
d) Hiding information from stakeholders
Answer: b) Encouraging employees to report unethical behavior

Q12. Ethical corporate behavior can lead to:

a) Legal penalties
b) Increased trust among customers and employees
c) Higher rates of fraud
d) Reduced company reputation
Answer: b) Increased trust among customers and employees

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Q13. An ethical work environment is characterized by:

a) Fear of punishment
b) Open communication and transparency
c) Encouraging unethical shortcuts
d) No employee accountability
Answer: b) Open communication and transparency

Q14. Which of the following is essential for an ethical workplace?

a) Bribing employees
b) Workplace discrimination
c) Fair policies and regulations
d) Ignoring ethical complaints
Answer: c) Fair policies and regulations

Q15. A strong ethical culture in an organization results in:

a) Reduced employee morale
b) Increased corruption
c) Better employee engagement and satisfaction
d) Higher employee turnover
Answer: c) Better employee engagement and satisfaction

Q16. Ethical decision-making requires:

a) Avoiding moral principles
b) Considering the impact on all stakeholders
c) Ignoring corporate policies
d) Acting only in self-interest
Answer: b) Considering the impact on all stakeholders

Q17. Which factor influences ethical decision-making?

a) Personal values and company policies
b) Profit maximization only
c) The ability to deceive others
d) Popular social trends
Answer: a) Personal values and company policies

Q18. What is the last step in ethical decision-making?

a) Identifying the ethical issue
b) Evaluating the consequences of the decision
c) Ignoring the possible impact
d) Making an impulsive decision
Answer: b) Evaluating the consequences of the decision

Q19. A common ethical issue in IT is:

a) Software piracy
b) Writing code

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c) Learning new programming languages

d) Increasing software speed
Answer: a) Software piracy

Q20. Why is privacy an ethical issue in IT?

a) It protects personal data from misuse
b) It allows companies to share user data freely
c) It reduces the need for cybersecurity
d) It encourages data breaches
Answer: a) It protects personal data from misuse

Q21. What is an unethical IT practice?

a) Cyberbullying
b) Data protection
c) Ethical hacking
d) Secure coding practices
Answer: a) Cyberbullying

Q22. Women empowerment in the workplace includes:

a) Gender discrimination
b) Equal opportunities for all employees
c) Reducing female workforce participation
d) Enforcing unequal pay policies
Answer: b) Equal opportunities for all employees

Q23. How can companies support women empowerment?

a) By promoting workplace equality
b) By discouraging leadership roles for women
c) By offering lower wages to female employees
d) By restricting education for women
Answer: a) By promoting workplace equality

Q24. An example of gender-based workplace discrimination is:

a) Equal pay for equal work
b) Promoting women to leadership roles
c) Denying promotions based on gender
d) Encouraging diversity in hiring
Answer: c) Denying promotions based on gender

Q25. Engineers have an ethical responsibility to:

a) Prioritize safety and sustainability
b) Ignore public welfare
c) Compromise quality for profits
d) Violate environmental laws
Answer: a) Prioritize safety and sustainability

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Q26. An unethical engineering practice is:

a) Bribing officials to approve unsafe designs
b) Conducting safety inspections
c) Following environmental regulations
d) Implementing high-quality standards
Answer: a) Bribing officials to approve unsafe designs

Q27. Engineers should avoid:

a) Plagiarism in designs
b) Safety compliance
c) Ethical responsibility
d) Professional integrity
Answer: a) Plagiarism in designs

Q28. Engineering ethics involve:

a) Honesty, integrity, and public safety
b) Ignoring professional standards
c) Hiding potential risks
d) Promoting workplace corruption
Answer: a) Honesty, integrity, and public safety

Q29. Ethics helps in building:

a) Trust and credibility
b) Unethical work environments
c) Legal loopholes
d) Corruption in business
Answer: a) Trust and credibility

Q30. The foundation of ethical practices is:

a) Transparency and accountability
b) Concealing important information
c) Ignoring customer rights
d) Supporting fraudulent activities
Answer: a) Transparency and accountability

Unit - 2
1. What is the primary purpose of Intellectual Property (IP) laws?
a) To restrict public access to knowledge
b) To encourage innovation and creativity by granting exclusive rights
c) To allow free copying of ideas
d) To prevent businesses from profiting

Answer: b) To encourage innovation and creativity by granting exclusive rights

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2. Which of the following is NOT considered Intellectual Property?

a) Copyrighted book
b) Trademarked logo
c) Patented invention
d) Tangible real estate

Answer: d) Tangible real estate

3. Intellectual Property rights help in protecting:

a) Only software and hardware
b) Any original creation of the mind
c) Only written documents
d) Only business ideas

Answer: b) Any original creation of the mind

4. Which of the following is an example of Intellectual Property?

a) A new mobile phone technology
b) A customer database
c) A house owned by an individual
d) A leased car

Answer: a) A new mobile phone technology

5. Copyright protects which type of works?

a) Scientific discoveries
b) Artistic, literary, and musical works
c) Business names
d) Industrial machinery

Answer: b) Artistic, literary, and musical works

6. What is the main difference between a copyright and a trademark?

a) Copyright protects brand names, while trademarks protect creative works
b) Copyright protects creative works, while trademarks protect brand names and logos
c) Copyright protects patents, while trademarks protect logos
d) Copyright and trademarks are the same

Answer: b) Copyright protects creative works, while trademarks protect brand names and
logos

7. How long does copyright protection typically last for an individual’s work?
a) 10 years
b) 50 years
c) The lifetime of the author + 60-70 years
d) No expiration

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Answer: c) The lifetime of the author + 60-70 years

8. Which of the following is an example of a trademark?

a) A novel written by an author
b) The Apple logo
c) A movie script
d) A new type of software

Answer: b) The Apple logo

9. A service mark is specifically used for:

a) Goods
b) Services
c) Industrial machines
d) Scientific research

Answer: b) Services

10. Which of the following is NOT a type of mark?

a) Well-known mark
b) Certification mark
c) Signature mark
d) Geographical mark

Answer: d) Geographical mark

11. A certification mark is used to:

a) Indicate the source of a product
b) Certify that a product meets a specific standard
c) Represent a brand’s reputation
d) Trademark a company name

Answer: b) Certify that a product meets a specific standard

12. What is a well-known mark?

a) A brand name recognized only in local markets
b) A mark that is famous globally and enjoys broader protection
c) A mark used only for industrial products
d) A new mark with no recognition

Answer: b) A mark that is famous globally and enjoys broader protection

13. What is a patent?

a) A right granted to an inventor to exclude others from making, using, or selling an invention
b) A type of trademark
c) A copyright protection for books
d) A legal document for company registration

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Answer: a) A right granted to an inventor to exclude others from making, using, or selling an
invention

14. Which of the following can be patented?

a) Mathematical formulas
b) A new drug formula
c) Scientific theories
d) Laws of nature

Answer: b) A new drug formula

15. What is the duration of a standard patent?

a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 20 years
d) Lifetime of the inventor

Answer: c) 20 years

16. A patent application must include:

a) The name of the inventor only
b) A detailed description of the invention
c) A history of the invention's development
d) A user guide

Answer: b) A detailed description of the invention

17. How do patents contribute to business development?

a) By making all innovations free for use
b) By protecting inventions, encouraging investment and growth
c) By allowing free copying of ideas
d) By restricting new inventions

Answer: b) By protecting inventions, encouraging investment and growth

18. Why should businesses analyze existing patents before developing new
products?
a) To avoid legal infringement issues
b) To copy competitors’ work
c) To reduce costs by using patented technology
d) To avoid filing patents

Answer: a) To avoid legal infringement issues

19. Patent infringement occurs when:

a) Someone uses a patented invention without permission
b) A company registers a new patent

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c) A company sells expired patents

d) Someone writes a book on innovation

Answer: a) Someone uses a patented invention without permission

20. What is one benefit of patent licensing?

a) It reduces patent protection
b) It allows companies to earn revenue from their patents
c) It eliminates the need for trademarks
d) It stops businesses from growing

Answer: b) It allows companies to earn revenue from their patents

21. Intellectual Property laws can help in:

a) Promoting fair business competition
b) Preventing software development
c) Making all knowledge free
d) Reducing innovation

Answer: a) Promoting fair business competition

22. What is a major ethical issue in Intellectual Property?

a) Piracy and unauthorized use of protected works
b) Encouraging legal use of creative work
c) Rewarding inventors for their work
d) Reducing business growth

Answer: a) Piracy and unauthorized use of protected works

23. Open-source software is an example of:

a) A software protected by copyright
b) A software available for free modification and distribution
c) A software protected by patents
d) A software that cannot be shared

Answer: b) A software available for free modification and distribution

24. Before registering Intellectual Property, businesses should:

a) Ignore similar existing patents
b) Conduct an IP search and analysis
c) Sell the product first
d) Not worry about legal matters

Answer: b) Conduct an IP search and analysis

25. Which organization manages international patent protection?

a) World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)

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b) World Trade Organization (WTO)

c) United Nations (UN)
d) World Health Organization (WHO)

Answer: a) World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)

26. What is the main purpose of a certification mark?

a) To indicate the origin of a product
b) To certify that a product meets specific quality or safety standards
c) To act as a unique identifier for a brand
d) To prevent others from using a company’s name

Answer: b) To certify that a product meets specific quality or safety standards

27. Which of the following is NOT a type of intellectual property protection?

a) Copyright
b) Trademark
c) Patent
d) Lease agreement

Answer: d) Lease agreement

28. Why is patent information important for business development?

a) It helps in monitoring competitors’ innovations
b) It restricts all innovation in the industry
c) It prevents businesses from registering new products
d) It allows free use of patented technology

Answer: a) It helps in monitoring competitors’ innovations

29. What is the role of a trademark in business?

a) To protect an invention’s functionality
b) To ensure copyright compliance
c) To distinguish goods or services from competitors
d) To prevent patents from being granted

Answer: c) To distinguish goods or services from competitors

30. When registering an intellectual property claim, what is a crucial step?

a) Ignoring similar existing claims
b) Conducting an analysis of prior art or existing rights
c) Keeping the invention secret
d) Avoiding legal documentation

Answer: b) Conducting an analysis of prior art or existing rights

Unit - 3
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Q1. A startup is best defined as:

a) A large multinational company
b) A newly established business with an innovative idea
c) A government-funded organization
d) A company with over 10 years of operation
Answer: b) A newly established business with an innovative idea

Q2. One key characteristic of a startup is:

a) Rapid scalability and innovation
b) Stable market dominance
c) Focus on traditional business models
d) Lack of competition
Answer: a) Rapid scalability and innovation

Q3. Startups are primarily driven by:

a) Government policies only
b) Technological innovation and entrepreneurship
c) Political influence
d) Large corporations
Answer: b) Technological innovation and entrepreneurship

Q4. Which of the following is NOT a benefit under the Startup India initiative?
a) Tax exemptions for eligible startups
b) 100% government funding
c) Easier compliance and regulations
d) Fast-track patent processing
Answer: b) 100% government funding

Q5. Under Startup India, a startup gets tax exemption for how many years?
a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years
Answer: a) 3 years

Q6. Which of the following is an eligibility criterion for Startup India recognition?
a) The startup must be more than 10 years old
b) The startup should be working on innovation or improving existing products/services
c) The startup must have a minimum annual turnover of ₹500 crores
d) The startup must be a multinational company
Answer: b) The startup should be working on innovation or improving existing
products/services**

Q7. Which government portal provides resources for Indian startups?

a) startupindia.gov.in

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b) myntra.com
c) makemytrip.com
d) reliance.com
Answer: a) startupindia.gov.in

Q8. The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is an initiative to:

a) Support startups in rural areas
b) Provide financial assistance to agricultural businesses
c) Promote innovation and entrepreneurship in India
d) Fund political parties
Answer: c) Promote innovation and entrepreneurship in India

Q9. Which of the following organizations provides funding support for Indian startups?
a) NABARD
b) SIDBI
c) WHO
d) UNESCO
Answer: b) SIDBI

Q10. Which Indian scheme provides collateral-free loans to startups?

a) Stand-Up India
b) Mudra Loan Scheme
c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
d) Digital India
Answer: b) Mudra Loan Scheme

Q11. Under the Mudra Loan Scheme, startups can get loans up to:
a) ₹1 crore
b) ₹10 lakh
c) ₹5 crore
d) ₹50 lakh
Answer: b) ₹10 lakh

Q12. Which of the following banks provides startup loans in India?

a) SBI
b) ICICI
c) HDFC
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Q13. The 10000 Startups program was launched by:

a) Google
b) NASSCOM
c) Amazon

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d) Facebook
Answer: b) NASSCOM

Q14. The main goal of the 10000 Startups initiative is to:

a) Provide job opportunities in government organizations
b) Create and support 10,000 technology startups in India
c) Promote agricultural businesses
d) Fund traditional businesses
Answer: b) Create and support 10,000 technology startups in India

Q15. The 10000 Startups program primarily focuses on:

a) IT and tech-based startups
b) Agricultural businesses
c) Retail and e-commerce only
d) Traditional small businesses
Answer: a) IT and tech-based startups

Q16. The Software Technology Parks (STPs) scheme is designed to promote:

a) Textile exports
b) IT and software exports
c) Agricultural exports
d) Heavy machinery exports
Answer: b) IT and software exports

Q17. Which government body regulates Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d) NITI Aayog
Answer: c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q18. One major benefit of SEZs is:

a) Higher tax rates
b) No foreign investment
c) Exemption from customs duty on imports
d) Ban on software exports
Answer: c) Exemption from customs duty on imports

Q19. Which act regulates startups in India?

a) The Companies Act, 2013
b) The Income Tax Act, 1961
c) The Startup Regulation Act, 2020
d) The SEBI Act, 1992
Answer: a) The Companies Act, 2013

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Q20. Which of the following is a compliance requirement for Indian startups?

a) GST registration
b) Environmental clearance
c) Banking license
d) Railway contract
Answer: a) GST registration

Q21. Startups must register under which legal structure for funding benefits?
a) Sole proprietorship
b) Private Limited Company
c) Government organization
d) Non-profit entity
Answer: b) Private Limited Company

Q22. SBIR stands for:

a) Small Business Innovation Research
b) Small Bank Investment Regulation
c) Startup Business Investment and Returns
d) Software Based Information Research
Answer: a) Small Business Innovation Research

Q23. STTR stands for:

a) Small Technology Transfer Research
b) Startup Technology Transformation Regulation
c) Special Trade Tax Refund
d) Software Testing and Technology Research
Answer: a) Small Technology Transfer Research

Q24. What is the primary purpose of SBIR and STTR programs?

a) To support small businesses engaged in research and development
b) To provide housing loans
c) To regulate international trade
d) To fund large corporations
Answer: a) To support small businesses engaged in research and development

Q25. NSF grants are provided for:

a) Science and technology research projects
b) Real estate business
c) Automobile manufacturing
d) Retail and wholesale trade
Answer: a) Science and technology research projects

Q26. NSF grants primarily support:

a) Large multinational corporations
b) Early-stage research projects and innovation

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c) Import-export businesses
d) Agriculture subsidies
Answer: b) Early-stage research projects and innovation

Q27. Which sector benefits most from SBIR/STTR funding?

a) Science and technology startups
b) Real estate businesses
c) Traditional textile industries
d) Large financial corporations
Answer: a) Science and technology startups

Q28. Who manages the SBIR and STTR programs?

a) U.S. Small Business Administration
b) World Bank
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) United Nations
Answer: a) U.S. Small Business Administration

Q29. NSF stands for:

a) National Science Foundation
b) New Startup Funding
c) National Software Firm
d) Non-Governmental Startup Finance
Answer: a) National Science Foundation

Q30. Which funding program requires collaboration between a small business and a
research institution?
a) STTR
b) NSF
c) SBIR
d) SEZ
Answer: a) STTR

Unit - 4
1. What is the purpose of an executive summary in a startup business plan?
a) To provide a detailed history of the company
b) To give a concise overview of the business plan for investors
c) To list all company employees
d) To describe daily operations in detail

Answer: b) To give a concise overview of the business plan for investors

2. An executive summary should ideally be written:

a) Before the business plan

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b) After the business plan is completed

c) Without considering the business plan
d) In a lengthy, detailed format

Answer: b) After the business plan is completed

3. What should be included in the general company description?

a) The company’s mission and vision
b) Detailed product specifications
c) The names of all employees
d) The company’s marketing slogans

Answer: a) The company’s mission and vision

4. A company’s vision statement should:

a) Focus on short-term goals
b) Be broad and inspirational
c) Only list financial objectives
d) Be limited to a one-year plan

Answer: b) Be broad and inspirational

5. When describing products and services in a business plan, what is essential?

a) Listing product features without market relevance
b) Showing how the product solves customer problems
c) Avoiding technical descriptions
d) Excluding competitor analysis

Answer: b) Showing how the product solves customer problems

6. Why is understanding customer needs important in product development?

a) It helps businesses create solutions that meet market demands
b) It makes the product more expensive
c) It reduces the need for marketing
d) It increases production costs

Answer: a) It helps businesses create solutions that meet market demands

7. Which of the following is a key element of a marketing plan?

a) Employee salaries
b) Target market analysis
c) Office rental agreements
d) Number of investors

Answer: b) Target market analysis

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8. What is the purpose of competitor analysis in a marketing plan?

a) To copy successful strategies
b) To understand market positioning and differentiate the startup
c) To acquire competitors illegally
d) To avoid investing in marketing

Answer: b) To understand market positioning and differentiate the startup

9. An operational plan includes details about:

a) Company culture only
b) Day-to-day processes and logistics
c) Employee benefits
d) Marketing strategies

Answer: b) Day-to-day processes and logistics

10. What is an essential component of an operational plan for a tech startup?

a) Office decoration plans
b) Software development cycle
c) Trademark registration only
d) Ignoring product testing

Answer: b) Software development cycle

11. Why is a management and organization section important in a business plan?

a) It describes how the business is structured and led
b) It provides financial projections only
c) It replaces the need for legal registration
d) It focuses only on hiring costs

Answer: a) It describes how the business is structured and led

12. Which of the following roles is crucial in an IT startup?

a) Chief Technology Officer (CTO)
b) Warehouse Manager
c) Factory Supervisor
d) Salesperson only

Answer: a) Chief Technology Officer (CTO)

13. A personal financial statement includes:

a) Personal assets and liabilities
b) Only company profits
c) Business loan details
d) Employee salaries

Answer: a) Personal assets and liabilities

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14. Why is a personal financial statement needed for startups?

a) To assess the financial health of founders
b) To track only company expenses
c) To avoid taxation
d) To replace the financial plan

Answer: a) To assess the financial health of founders

15. What are startup expenses?

a) Recurring monthly costs
b) Initial costs required to start a business
c) Unnecessary business investments
d) Employee bonuses

Answer: b) Initial costs required to start a business

16. What is the purpose of capitalization in startups?

a) To determine the financial resources required for business operations
b) To estimate tax rates
c) To reduce company expenses
d) To avoid financial planning

Answer: a) To determine the financial resources required for business operations

17. What is included in a financial plan?

a) Sales forecasts, income statements, and balance sheets
b) Only product development details
c) Employee vacation policies
d) Branding strategies

Answer: a) Sales forecasts, income statements, and balance sheets

18. A break-even analysis helps startups:

a) Determine when they will become profitable
b) Reduce marketing costs
c) Increase taxes
d) Ignore financial projections

Answer: a) Determine when they will become profitable

19. The appendices section of a business plan includes:

a) Additional documents like legal agreements and resumes
b) The company’s vision only
c) A list of competitors
d) Product sales data only

Answer: a) Additional documents like legal agreements and resumes

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20. Why should a startup refine its business plan regularly?

a) To adapt to market changes and improve strategies
b) To avoid financial risks
c) To ensure that no changes are needed
d) To stop competition

Answer: a) To adapt to market changes and improve strategies

21. Which of the following is an example of a globally successful IT startup?

a) Apple
b) Tesla
c) Facebook
d) Coca-Cola

Answer: c) Facebook

22. What was a major factor in the success of startups like Google and Amazon?
a) Strong innovation and technology-driven solutions
b) Government funding only
c) No competition
d) Minimal investment

Answer: a) Strong innovation and technology-driven solutions

23. Which startup was founded by Mark Zuckerberg?

a) Twitter
b) Instagram
c) Facebook
d) LinkedIn

Answer: c) Facebook

24. Which startup popularized cloud storage services?

a) Netflix
b) Dropbox
c) Uber
d) Airbnb

Answer: b) Dropbox

25. Which of the following is a key reason for startup failure?

a) Lack of market need
b) Excessive government funding
c) Too much innovation
d) Hiring too many employees

Answer: a) Lack of market need

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26. Which funding option is commonly used by IT startups?

a) Bootstrapping
b) Agricultural loans
c) Charity donations
d) Personal savings only

Answer: a) Bootstrapping

27. What does MVP stand for in startup terminology?

a) Most Valuable Product
b) Minimum Viable Product
c) Maximum Variable Profit
d) Managed Venture Portfolio

Answer: b) Minimum Viable Product

28. What is a key advantage of angel investors?

a) They provide mentorship and funding
b) They take full control of the business
c) They require no ownership stake
d) They invest without expecting returns

Answer: a) They provide mentorship and funding

29. What is a major risk in IT startups?

a) Cybersecurity threats
b) Real estate issues
c) Overstaffing
d) Government taxation

Answer: a) Cybersecurity threats

30. A good business pitch should be:

a) Clear, concise, and engaging
b) Long and complex
c) Focused only on financials
d) Without competitor analysis

Answer: a) Clear, concise, and engaging

Unit - 5
Q1. What does ITES stand for?
a) Information Technology Enabled Services
b) International Trade and E-commerce Solutions
c) Indian Technological Equipment Standards

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d) Integrated Technology Enterprise Solutions

Answer: a) Information Technology Enabled Services

Q2. Which of the following is NOT a category of IT companies?

a) Product-based companies
b) Service-based companies
c) Manufacturing-based companies
d) Consulting firms
Answer: c) Manufacturing-based companies

Q3. An IT product-based company primarily focuses on:

a) Providing IT services to businesses
b) Developing and selling software products
c) Outsourcing customer support
d) Offering training programs
Answer: b) Developing and selling software products

Q4. An example of a service-based IT company is:

a) Infosys
b) Microsoft
c) Google
d) Apple
Answer: a) Infosys

Q5. Which of the following is an example of a product-based IT company?

a) TCS
b) Accenture
c) Adobe
d) Wipro
Answer: c) Adobe

Q6. What does NASSCOM stand for?

a) National Association of Software and Services Companies
b) North American Software and Services Committee
c) National Assessment of Software Standards
d) None of the above
Answer: a) National Association of Software and Services Companies

Q7. Which of the following is NOT a role of NASSCOM?

a) Promoting the IT industry in India
b) Providing government loans to startups
c) Organizing IT summits and events
d) Representing the Indian IT industry globally
Answer: b) Providing government loans to startups

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Q8. NASSCOM primarily supports which sector?

a) Agriculture
b) Banking
c) IT and ITES
d) Real Estate
Answer: c) IT and ITES

Q9. What does STPI stand for?

a) Software Technology Parks of India
b) Science and Technology Policy Institute
c) Software Training Program in India
d) Software Testing and Programming Institute
Answer: a) Software Technology Parks of India

Q10. What is the main objective of STPI?

a) Providing free internet to businesses
b) Export promotion of IT and software services
c) Conducting university exams
d) Regulating stock markets
Answer: b) Export promotion of IT and software services

Q11. Which ministry oversees STPI?

a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
c) Ministry of Home Affairs
d) Ministry of Defense
Answer: b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Q12. Which of the following is a global IT project that impacts cybersecurity?

a) Google Maps
b) IBM Watson AI
c) Pegasus Spyware
d) TCS Insurance Management
Answer: c) Pegasus Spyware

Q13. Which global IT project focuses on cloud computing and AI?

a) Apple Pay
b) Microsoft Azure
c) Netflix Streaming
d) Adobe Photoshop
Answer: b) Microsoft Azure

Q14. Which company is leading the AI-based Chatbot Industry?

a) Tesla
b) OpenAI

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c) Facebook
d) IBM
Answer: b) OpenAI

Q15. Which of the following is an example of a product-based IT company?

a) Wipro
b) HCL
c) Google
d) Infosys
Answer: c) Google

Q16. Which company provides IT consulting and outsourcing services?

a) Apple
b) TCS
c) Tesla
d) Adobe
Answer: b) TCS

Q17. Which Indian IT company is a major competitor to Accenture?

a) HCL Technologies
b) Infosys
c) Mindtree
d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: d) Both (a) and (b)

Q18. What is the latest trend in AI-powered content creation?

a) Web 2.0
b) Generative AI
c) Traditional SEO
d) CD-ROM Storage
Answer: b) Generative AI

Q19. Which of the following technologies is used for decentralized finance (DeFi)?
a) 5G
b) Blockchain
c) VPN
d) GPS
Answer: b) Blockchain

Q20. Quantum computing is being developed to enhance:

a) Traditional banking
b) Computational power for complex problems
c) Internet speed
d) Cloud storage space
Answer: b) Computational power for complex problems

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Q21. Which major company launched the Gemini AI model?

a) Microsoft
b) Google
c) Apple
d) Amazon
Answer: b) Google

Q22. Which Indian IT company recently acquired a major European firm?

a) Infosys
b) TCS
c) Wipro
d) HCL
Answer: c) Wipro

Q23. What is the biggest cybersecurity threat in 2024?

a) Ransomware attacks
b) Wi-Fi issues
c) 4G Connectivity problems
d) Physical hard drive damage
Answer: a) Ransomware attacks

Q24. What does diversity in the workforce mean?

a) Hiring employees from different backgrounds
b) Hiring only from one community
c) Excluding women from leadership roles
d) Increasing salaries for only certain groups
Answer: a) Hiring employees from different backgrounds

Q25. Which of the following helps in improving workforce diversity?

a) Gender equality policies
b) Inclusive hiring practices
c) Anti-discrimination training
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Q26. What is one key benefit of diversity in the IT workforce?

a) Reduced salaries
b) Increased creativity and innovation
c) Higher taxes for companies
d) Limited hiring policies
Answer: b) Increased creativity and innovation

Q27. Which of the following companies is known for promoting workplace diversity?
a) Google
b) Microsoft

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c) Facebook
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Q28. What is the biggest challenge in increasing diversity in the IT workforce?

a) Bias in hiring practices
b) Lack of government regulations
c) Too many employees in the industry
d) Slow internet speeds
Answer: a) Bias in hiring practices

Q29. What is the main goal of workplace diversity programs?

a) Ensure fair opportunities for all employees
b) Give promotions based on age
c) Reduce foreign workers
d) Favor certain demographics
Answer: a) Ensure fair opportunities for all employees

Q30. Which of the following is an example of gender diversity in IT?

a) Women in leadership roles
b) Equal pay for men and women
c) Hiring based on merit and skills
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Unit - 6
1. What is the key difference between laws and ethics in information security?
a) Laws are legally enforceable, while ethics are based on moral values
b) Ethics are legally binding, while laws are optional
c) Laws only apply to individuals, while ethics apply to organizations
d) There is no difference between laws and ethics

Answer: a) Laws are legally enforceable, while ethics are based on moral values

2. Which of the following is an example of an ethical issue in information security?

a) Hacking into a competitor’s system to steal data
b) Using strong passwords to protect confidential information
c) Selling customer data without their consent
d) Encrypting data before transmission

Answer: c) Selling customer data without their consent

3. Why do organizations need legal counsel for information security?

a) To ensure compliance with cybersecurity laws and regulations
b) To avoid spending money on security measures
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c) To conduct illegal surveillance without getting caught

d) To replace cybersecurity professionals

Answer: a) To ensure compliance with cybersecurity laws and regulations

4. An organization can be held liable for which of the following security breaches?
a) Employee misuse of sensitive data
b) Accidental data exposure due to weak policies
c) Failure to implement adequate cybersecurity measures
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

5. What is the key difference between a policy and a law in cybersecurity?

a) A policy is legally binding, while a law is optional
b) A law is legally enforced by authorities, while a policy is an internal guideline
c) Policies are created by governments, while laws are created by companies
d) Policies apply to everyone, while laws apply only to companies

Answer: b) A law is legally enforced by authorities, while a policy is an internal guideline

6. Which of the following is an example of a cybersecurity policy?

a) The GDPR regulation
b) An organization’s password management guidelines
c) The IT Act 2000
d) A court ruling on data breaches

Answer: b) An organization’s password management guidelines

7. Which of the following is NOT an example of cybercrime?

a) Phishing attacks
b) Hacking into government systems
c) Online identity theft
d) Installing antivirus software

Answer: d) Installing antivirus software

8. Cybercrime is increasing due to:

a) Lack of awareness among users
b) Growing use of the internet and digital devices
c) Advanced hacking tools and techniques
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

9. Which law governs cybercrime in India?

a) The IT Act, 2000

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b) The Cybersecurity Act, 2015

c) The Digital Crimes Prevention Act, 1998
d) The E-Commerce Protection Act, 2012

Answer: a) The IT Act, 2000

10. Why is cyber law important in India?

a) To regulate online activities and protect digital transactions
b) To encourage hacking for ethical purposes
c) To remove all restrictions from internet use
d) To prevent the use of strong encryption

Answer: a) To regulate online activities and protect digital transactions

11. Which of the following is an example of an ethical dilemma in project

management?
a) Deciding whether to prioritize security or project deadlines
b) Using encryption to protect customer data
c) Following all legal and ethical guidelines
d) Conducting risk assessments for security issues

Answer: a) Deciding whether to prioritize security or project deadlines

12. If a project manager discovers illegal activity in their project, what should they do?
a) Ignore it to meet deadlines
b) Report it to the appropriate authorities
c) Delete all related data
d) Inform only close colleagues

Answer: b) Report it to the appropriate authorities

13. What is arbitration in the context of cybersecurity disputes?

a) A legal process to resolve disputes outside court
b) A method to identify security breaches
c) A tool for encrypting data
d) A security framework for network protection

Answer: a) A legal process to resolve disputes outside court

14. What is the main advantage of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?

a) It is faster and less expensive than court trials
b) It is always legally binding
c) It requires no legal expertise
d) It is only used for criminal cases

Answer: a) It is faster and less expensive than court trials

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15. Which tool is commonly used for penetration testing?

a) Microsoft Word
b) Wireshark
c) Adobe Photoshop
d) Google Chrome

Answer: b) Wireshark

16. Which of the following is a password cracking tool?

a) Nmap
b) John the Ripper
c) Slack
d) VLC Media Player

Answer: b) John the Ripper

17. Which major company faced a massive data breach exposing millions of user
accounts?
a) Yahoo
b) Netflix
c) Apple
d) Amazon

Answer: a) Yahoo

18. What type of attack was used in the WannaCry ransomware incident?
a) Phishing attack
b) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
c) Ransomware attack
d) SQL Injection

Answer: c) Ransomware attack

26. Which of the following is NOT a category of cybercrime?

a) Cyber terrorism
b) Cyberbullying
c) Cyber philanthropy
d) Cyber fraud

Answer: c) Cyber philanthropy

27. What is the purpose of a firewall in cybersecurity?

a) To physically block hackers from entering a company
b) To prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network
c) To delete viruses from a computer
d) To increase internet speed

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Answer: b) To prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network

28. What is considered illegal under the IT Act, 2000?

a) Cyberstalking
b) Data theft
c) Identity fraud
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

29. Which cybersecurity technique is used to protect sensitive data from being
accessed by unauthorized users?
a) Phishing
b) Encryption
c) Malware
d) Spamming

Answer: b) Encryption

30. What should organizations do to reduce cybersecurity risks?

a) Train employees on security best practices
b) Use strong authentication methods
c) Regularly update security policies
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

This completes your set of 180 MCQs on Industry Ethics and Legal Issues. Free
Download from
www.geeksforcampus.in

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