IAS Exam Congress

IASEC Essentials

Thematic Test Series

(For CSE Prelims-2025)

TTS-06
Full length Test - 06
TTS-1k24

(Feb 25, 2025)

This paper was created and curated by Kaptaan Jack Sparrow for @iasexamcongress.

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 IAS Exam Congress
Q1. With reference to OmniHuman-1, seen Q4. With reference to the present level of
recently in the news, consider the following developments in gene editing, consider the
statements: following statements:
1. CRISPR-Cas9 creates a double-strand
1. It is an arti cial intelligence (AI) based
break in the DNA, relying on the cell's
framework that can generate and create
repair mechanisms to introduce changes.
lifelike human motion and speech from
2. Prime editing converts one DNA base pair
just an image and an audio sample. to another without creating a double-
2. It has been developed by Google and its strand break.
subsidiary AI rms. 3. Base editing is like a molecular pencil,
Which of the statements given above is/are precisely changing one letter in the DNA
correct? sequence.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
Q2. The Thirty Metre Telescope will help in (d) 1, 2 and 3

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understanding of
1. how the rst galaxies and stars formed Q5. Photocatalytic metal oxides like Titanium
after the Big Bang. Dioxide and Zinc Oxide etc., are sometimes
2. how galaxies evolve over time. seen in news, in the context of
3. how the supermassive black holes interact (a) removal of organic pollutants
with their host galaxies. (b) improved energy ef ciency of solar cells
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) development of neo-medicines
given below:
(d) bio-pesticides
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 Q6. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1 and 2 1. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) has a limited
ability to repair itself.
Q3. Which of the following is the space 2. Changes in mtDNA are associated with
mission launched by European Space Agency age-related hearing loss.
that will aim to mimic the behaviour of the 3. mtDNA is a circular molecule made up of
moon by creating an arti cial solar eclipse for only one strand of DNA.
the rst time ever to study sun’s atmosphere, Which of the statements given above is/are
known as the corona? correct?
(a) Proba-3 (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) Bepicolombo (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Euclid (c) 2 only
(d) Hylas-1 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q7. With reference to taxation related treaties, Q9. With reference to food management and
consider the following statements: procurement in India, consider the following
1. Double Tax Avoidance Agreements statements:
(DTAA) treaties effectively eliminate 1. Procurement of food crops is done by
double taxation in speci c cases by state agencies but private players can
identifying exemptions or reducing the operate units for maintaining buffer
amount of taxes payable. stocks in India.
2. Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) is paid 2. Procurement of food crops can be
by companies and not its shareholders.
done from locally produced or imported
3. Under General Anti-Avoidance Rules
food produce but for maintenance of
(GAAR), the Indian tax authorities have
buffer stocks only locally produced
the power to scrutinise any type of
food is allowed.
transaction that may be executed to
Which of the statements given above is/are
avoid paying taxes via shell
correct?
companies, tax haven countries or
other means. (a) 1 only
How many of the statements given above is/ (b) 2 only
are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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(b) Only two
(c) All three Q10. Consider the following:
(d) None 1. Repo rate operations
2. Open market operations
Q8. Consider the following statements with 3. Standing deposit facility
reference to Budget heads of the Government 4. Treasury Bills
of India: 5. Issue of Rupees
1. The interest earned on loans extended by How many of these are generally classi ed as
the government comes under the non-tax liquidity operations by RBI?
revenue receipts. (a) Only two
2. Grants given to state governments or (b) Only three
other organisations by the government (c) Only four
comes under the capital expenditure. (d) All ve
3. Under Indian Constitution, the government
is required to differentiate between Q11.Champions portal, ASPIRE, Zero Defect
expenditure on revenue accounts and & Zero Effect scheme are some of the
other expenditures. keywords sometimes in the news in context of
Which of the above are correct?
(a) MSME Sector
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Defence Sector
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (c) Semiconductor Manufacturing
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Pharmaceutical industry

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Q12. Consider the following statements: Q14. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Statement I:
Bodhisattvas are enlightened beings who Vijayanagara empire reached its zenith during
have chosen to remain in the cycle of birth the rule of Krishna Deva Raya.
and death (samsara) to help all the sentient Statement II:
beings achieve enlightenment. From 1510-1525, the empire gained territories
Statement II: from Deccan sultanates, Golconda state and
Bodhisattvas are compassionate beings. from Gajapatis of Odisha.
Statement III: Statement III:
Bodhisattvas can transform themselves into Krishna Deva Raya constructed temples like
whatever physical form. Lepakshi Temple and Virupaksha Temple.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below:
(a) All the statements are individually true but (a) Statement I is true and can be suf ciently
neither Statement II nor Statement III can established by Statement II alone AND
suf ciently explain Statement I statement III is false
(b) All the statements are individually true and (b) Statement I is true and can be suf ciently

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Statement II alone only can suf ciently established by Statement III alone AND
explain Statement I statement II is false
(c) All the statements are individually true and (c) Statement I is true and can be suf ciently
Statement III alone only can suf ciently established only by taking both Statement
explain Statement I II and Statement III together
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II and (d) Statement I is true but both Statement II
statement III are true and statement III are false

Q13. William James, Henry Colebrooke and Q15. Consider the following:
Nathaniel Halhed had which of the following State supported
King Dynasty
common among them ? religion

(a) They were critics of Indian culture and Vijayalaya Chola Shaivism

civilization Hemanta Sena Buddhism

(b) They were judges at the courts of the East Gopala Pala Buddhism

India Company Pravarasena Kalachuris Jainism

(c) They were professors teaching history and How many of the rows given above is/are
society of South Asia correctly matched?
(d) They were linguists who tried to interpret (a) Only one
(b) Only two
the culture of South Asia to the East India
(c) Only three
Company
(d) All four

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Q16. Which of the following were the ports Q20. Consider the following statements:
known for international trade during Chola 1. National Innovations on Climate Resilient
period?
Agriculture (NICRA) is a network project of
1. Nagapattinam
the Indian Council of Agricultural Research
2. Variyur
(ICAR) that aims to enhance resilience of
3. Puhar
Indian agriculture to climate change
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: through the strategic research and

(a) 1 and 2 only development.

(b) 2 and 3 only 2. NICRA is primarily funded by budget
(c) 1 and 3 only allocations of Ministry of Agriculture and
(d) 1, 2 and 3
supported by World Bank.

3. Under the NICRA project, ICAR has

Q17. Who among the following Su saints
was given the title of Ganj Shakr or ‘a treasure developed various technologies to mitigate
of sweetness’, by Moinuddin Chisti? methane emissions from rice cultivation.
(a) Baba Fariduddin

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Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Nizamuddin Auliya
correct?
(c) Chirag Dehalvi
(a) 1 and 2
(d) Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
(b) 3 only

Q18. Which of the following temples is part of (c) 1, 2 and 3

the Golden Triangle of Odisha and is known (d) 1 and 3
as the ‘white pagoda’, which has four gates
named after four animals?
Q21. Consider the following statements:
(a) Jagannath Temple
1. In India, all food grains for distribution
(b) Konark Temple under central government schemes are
(c) Mukteshwar Mahdev Temple procured by Food Corporation of India.
(d) Lingraj Temple 2. Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a Public
Sector Undertaking under the Department
Q19. In Ancient India, the Royal dynasty of the of Food & Public Distribution, Ministry of
Kadambas of Banavasi ruled primarily on the Agriculture.
present day Which of these is/are correct?
(a) Gujarat (a) 1 only
(b) Himachal Pradesh (b) 2 only
(c) Karnataka (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Andhra Pradesh (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q22. Consider the following statements: Q25. The International Criminal Police
1. World Food Programme (WFP) was Organisation, or in short, Interpol, has recently
founded by the Food and Agriculture introduced ‘Silver Notice’ in context of which
Organization (FAO) and United Nations of the following?
General Assembly (UNGA). (a) To request information on various assets,
2. WFP focuses on the emergency including properties, vehicles, nancial
assistance as well as rehabilitation and accounts, and businesses connected to
development aid.
criminal activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) To collect additional information about a
correct?
person’s identity, location or activities in
(a) 1 only
relation to a criminal investigation.
(b) 2 only
(c) To seek or provide information on modus
(c) Both 1 and 2
operandi, various objects, devices and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
concealment methods used by criminals.
(d) To be issued for entities and individuals
Q23. Consider the following statements:
who are the targets of UN Security Council

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1. Soils of glacial origin and clays tend to
have higher concentrations of Sanctions Committees.
molybdenum.
2. Molybdenum does not occur in metallic Q26. Maritime Safety Committee (MSC) which
form in nature. deals with all the matters related to maritime
3. Molybdenum is used in the manufacturing safety and maritime security within the
of high temperature furnaces. international waters functions under the ambit
How many of the statements given above is/ of
are correct? (a) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
(a) Only one (b) World Meteorological Organization
(b) Only two (c) International Seabed Authority
(c) Only three (d) International Maritime Law Institute
(d) None

Q27. In context of the international affairs,

Q24. How is the minichromosomal technology
Jabalia Refugee Camp, seen in news recently,
improving the existing agriculture systems?
is associated with
(a) by improving water retention in plants
(a) Lebanon
(b) by improving soil nutritional pro le
(c) by editing genetic make up of plants (b) Ukraine

(d) by cross breeding and developing climate (c) Jordan

resistant variety of seeds (d) Palestine

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Q28. Consider the following states: Q31. With respect to adoption of Central Bank
1. Estonia Digital Currency (CBDC), consider the
2. Latvia following statements on e₹ transfers:
3. Finland 1. At present, only bank entities or their
4. Germany direct subsidiaries can offer e₹ or CBDC
5. Poland
wallets.
How many of the above are the neighbouring
2. e₹ transfers can be made to anyone with
states of Russia?
an e₹ wallet or with an UPI ID.
(a) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only three
correct?
(c) Only four
(d) All ve (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q29. With reference to international currency (c) Both 1 and 2
database, which of the following organisations (d) Neither 1 nor 2
maintain the Currency Composition of Of cial
Foreign Exchange Reserves (COFER)? Q32. Consider the following statements:

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(a) World Bank 1. Interest Equalization Scheme (IES) aims
(b) European Union to provide pre and post-shipment export
(c) International Monetary Fund credit to exporters in rupees.
(d) UNCTAD 2. The interest equalization rates under the
scheme are revised and noti ed by RBI.
Q30. Consider the following statements 3. All Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
regarding European Parliament: (MSMEs) exporters can bene t from IES
scheme.
1. It represents the largest democratic
Which of these is/are correct?
electorate in the world.
(a) 1 and 3
2. Each member state of the European
(b) 3 only
Parliament has the right of initiative i.e. (c) 1 and 2
to initiate the legislative procedure in (d) 1, 2 and 3
the house.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q33. Who publishes the Network Readiness
correct? Index?
(a) 1 only (a) Melinda Gates Foundation
(b) 2 only (b) World Economic Forum
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) International Telecommunication Union

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Portulans Institute

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Q34. With respect to laws related to Patents in Q36. Consider the following:
India, consider the following statements: 1. Securities Appellate Tribunal
1. A patent in India is a legal and territorial 2. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority
right.
3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
2. The term of every patent granted is 10
4. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
years from the date of ling of application.
5. Central Consumer Protection Authority
3. As per existing laws, discovery of a
How many of the bodies listed above is/are
scienti c fact or an abstract theory cannot
be patented in India. statutory quasi-judicial body/bodies?

Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only one

correct? (b) Only two

(a) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three

(b) 2 only (d) Only four

(c) 1, 2 and 3

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Q37. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1 and 2 only
1. Election Commission of India (ECI) is a
permanent Constitutional Body.
Q35. Consider the following statements: 2. Originally, Election Commission had only a

1. In India, a person whose arrest has Chief Election Commissioner.

3. All Election Commissioners have equal
been effected has a legal right to
say in the decision making of Commission.
undergo medical examination after the How many of these is/are correct?
arrest. (a) Only one

2. In India, the state is liable to pay (b) Only two

compensation for custodial deaths (c) All three

resulting from police negligence or (d) NONE

brutality.

Which of the statements given above is/are Q38. Which of the following was not amended
correct? by the 42nd Amendment Act?
(a) Fundamental rights
(a) 1 only
(b) President bound by advise of Cabinet
(b) 2 only (c) Tenure of Lok Sabha
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Constitutional amendments to subscribe to
judicial review
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q39. Consider the following statements: Q42. With respect to the glacial-interglacial
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted cycles, consider the following statements:
against the Governor of a State in any 1. The glacial periods are characterised by
court during his term of of ce. warmer times and rising sea levels while
2. The emoluments and allowances of the interglacial periods are comparatively
Governor of a State shall not be colder, dustier than glacial period and
diminished during his term of of ce. characterised by returning forests and

Which of the statements given above is/are vegetation.

correct? 2. Evidences of such cycles are found in
(a) 1 only many marine and terrestrial paleo-climate

(b) 2 only records.

Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
Q40. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only

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1. Great lakes of America are alpine lakes.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Great lakes of America form a natural
border between USA and Canada. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Lake Erie is part of the Great lakes of
America.
Q43. Consider the following statements:
How many of these is/are correct?
1. Baleen whales make very-low frequency
(a) Only one
(b) Only two calls barely audible to humans.

(c) All three 2. Beluga whales are generally found in

(d) NONE Tasmania Sea.

3. Humpback whales are the only whales

Q41. Which type of trees in an equatorial
which have ability to sing.
vegetation are found in the hot, wet equatorial
Which of these is/are correct?
climate?
(a) 1 only
(a) Tropical Rain forest with evergreen tree
(b) Tropical monsoon forest with deciduous (b) 1 and 2

trees (c) 3 only

(c) Tallgrass and short trees (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Xerophytic vegetation with minimal trees

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Q44. ISRO, in its studies, has revealed that Q47. Consider the following statements:

there is a 178% increase in the size of the Statement I :

Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake. In which of the Compost in soil improves the soil structure.

following States/UTs is this lake located ? Statement II :

(a) Jammu & Kashmir Compost increases the soil's cation exchange
capacity (CEC).
(b) Ladakh
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Himachal Pradesh
given below:
(d) Uttarakhand
(a) Both the statements are individually true
but Statement II is the correct explanation
Q45. Consider the following statements:
of Statement I
1. Action for Climate Empowerment (ACE) is
an emerging priority of UNFCCC to factor (b) Both the statements are individually true

in the gender issues in ght against but Statement II is not the correct
climate change. explanation of Statement I

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2. ACE calls on governments to develop and (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
implement educational and awareness (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
programmes and to promote public
participation in addressing climate change
Q48. Consider the following statements:
and its effects.
1. National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a
Which of the statements given above is/are
statutory body headed by Prime Minister.
correct?
2. NBWL can grant in principle approval for
(a) 1 only
hydrocarbon exploration in an area within
(b) 2 only
a wildlife sanctuary.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. The decisions of NBWL are subjected to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
judicial review of National Green Tribunal
(NGT).
Q46. Which of the following organisations
Which of the statements given above is/are
publish Green House Gas Bulletin? correct?
(a) World Meteorological Organisation (a) 1 only
(b) UNEP (b) 1 and 3

(c) Global Carbon Project (c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3
(d) UNESCO

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Q49. Consider the following: Q52. With respect to the Reserve Bank
1. Ant Innovation Hub (RBIH), consider the following
2. Dragon y
statements:
3. Demsel y
Which of the above species belong to the 1. It has been set up with an initial capital
class of Odonates? contribution of ₹200 crore.
(a) 1 and 2
2. RBIH aims to create an ecosystem that
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 focuses on promoting access to nancial
(d) 1, 2 and 3 services and products for the low-income
population in the country.
Q50. With reference to sea salinity and sea
3. It is a wholly owned subsidiary of the RBI.
density, which of the following is not true?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Sea salinity increases due to terrestrial
discharged by rivers. correct?
(b) Any change in the temperature in uences (a) 1 and 3
the salinity.
(b) 2 only
(c) Density of seawater increases as salinity

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decreases. (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) The densest seawater is the Antarctic (d) 2 and 3
bottom water

Q51. Consider the following statements: Q53. Which of the following can aid in
Statement I : furthering the Government’s objective of
Australia contributes to more than one third of inclusive growth?
total annual production of Lithium .
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
Statement II :
Solar evaporation is commonly employed in 2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium
lithium extraction from brine. Enterprises
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Implementing the Right to Education
given below:
Act
(a) Both the statements are individually true
Select the correct answer using the codes
but Statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I given below:

(b) Both the statements are individually true (a) 1 only

but Statement II is not the correct (b) 1 and 2 only
explanation of Statement I
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Q54. Consider the following statements: Q57. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Farmers Producer Organisations 1. The idea of the DPSPs in the Constitution
(FPOs) can be registered under either the of India is inspired by the Constitution of
Companies Act or Society Registrations Ireland while that of Fundamental duties
Act. (FDs) is from German constitution.
2. Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium 2. Both the DPSPs and FDs have been
(SFAC) is a statutory body which is amended since the times they were
promoting development of FPOs in India.
inserted in constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. The FDs are justiciable through a Writ but
correct?
DPSPs are not.
(a) 1 only
How many of the statements given above is/
(b) 2 only
are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three
Q55. Consider the following statements:
(d) NONE
1. Yield on government bonds is likely to see

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decline when the Reserve Bank of India
Q58. Right against exploitation is given in
reduces interest rates in economy.
(a) Article 21
2. The Reserve Bank of India manages and
(b) Article 22
services Government of India Securities
and State Government Securities. (c) Article 23
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Article 24
correct?
(a) 1 only Q59. Consider the following:
(b) 2 only 1. The Money Bill passed by the Lok
(c) Both 1 and 2 Sabha shall be returned by Rajya
Sabha within 14 days with or without
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
its recommendations.
2. The Lok Sabha shall agree to the
Q56. Which of the following is/are part of the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
capital ows in an economy?
1. Foreign Direct Investment on the Money Bill to consider it passed

2. External Commercial Borrowings by both the Houses of the Parliament.

3. NRI deposits Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code: correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q60. Exfoliation in rocks can occur due to Q63. Consider the following statements:
forces induced by Statement I :
1. carbonation Plants are more easily manipulated by genetic
2. oxidation
engineering than animals.
3. temperature change
Select the correct answer using the code Statement II :
given below: Totipotency is a feature generally associated
(a) 1 and 2 with plant cells and not with animal cells.
(b) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 given below:
(a) Both the statements are individually true
Q61. Consider the following: but Statement II is the correct explanation
1. Make crops more tolerant to heatwaves of Statement I
2. Reduce reliance on chemical pesticides (b) Both the statements are individually true
3. Decrease in ef ciency of mineral usage by but Statement II is not the correct
plants explanation of Statement I
4. Production of edible vaccines (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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How many of the above are the advantages of (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Genetically Modi ed plants?
(a) Only one Q64. With reference to Net Zero Banking
(b) Only two Alliance, consider the following statements:
(c) Only three 1. It aims to align the lending, investment,
(d) All four and capital markets activities of the
member nancial institutions to achieve
Q62. Consider the following statements with
net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by
respect to Sagar Setu Portal:
2050.
1. It is a single window platform that provides
2. It is part of the Glasgow Financial Alliance
logistics solutions for exporters, importers
for Net Zero (Gfanz).
and service providers.
3. At present, no banks from India are part of
2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Ports,
Net Zero Banking Alliance.
Shipping and Waterways.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q65. Consider the following statements: Q68. With respect to the environmentally
1. Bureau of Energy Ef ciency (BEE) was persistent free radicals (EPFRs), consider the
set up under the provisions of the Energy following statements:
Conservation Act, 2001. 1. As opposed to the free radicals, EPFRs
2. BEE works under the Ministry of Power.
persist in the environment or biological
3. BEE is the lead implementing agency for
systems for prolonged periods.
ongoing Perform, Achieve and Trade
2. EPFRs are generally generated in the cool
(PAT) Scheme.
zone of combustion systems.
How many of these is/are correct?
3. Benzene and Phenols are examples of
(a) Only one
EPFRs.
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) NONE
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
Q66. Consider the following:
(c) 2 and 3 only

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1. Chlorella
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Rhizoctonia
Q69. With respect to Tricoderma, consider the
4. Nostoc
following statements:
Which of the species listed above is/are a type
1. Tricoderma is a genus of fungi.
of an algae species?
2. Tricoderma is a decomposition agent and
(a) 1 only
biological agent of bioremediation.
(b) 1, 3 and 4
3. Tricoderma can be used to make organic
(c) 1, 2 and 4
pesticides.
(d) 2 and 3 only
4. Tricoderma can be found in rhizosphere of
the plants.
Q67. Which one of the following is associated
Select the correct answer using the code
with the Veri ed Carbon Standard?
given below:
(a) measuring the total carbon stored in an
(a) 2, 3 and 4
ecosystem
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) carbon offsetting
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(c) carbon footprint of daily utility items
(d) 1 and 3 only
(d) funding of carbon neutral projects

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Q70. Consider the following statements: Q73. Which one of the following statements is
1. Golden rice has been developed by taking correct about the PM-JANMAN scheme ?
(a) It is a scheme of the Government of India
two genes from maize and a common soil
to impart electoral literacy to voters.
bacterium and putting them with white
(b) It is a scheme of the Government of India
rice. for deepening of democracy in functioning
2. It has been developed by International of Panchayati Raj institutions.
Rice Research Institute (IRRI). (c) It is a scheme of the Government of India
for bene tting every member of the tribal
3. Golden rice has been genetically modi ed
community from Government schemes.
to suppress beta-carotene and produce
(d) It is a scheme of the Government of India
retinol as precursor of Vitamin A. for bene tting migrants workers in the
How many of the statements given above is/ unorganized sector.
are correct?
(a) Only one Q74. Consider the following pairs:
Soils — Major crops
(b) Only two
1. Alluvial — rice, wheat, maize
(c) All three
2. Black — mustard, millets, pulses
(d) NONE

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3. Saline — sesame and cassava
How many pairs given above is/are correctly
Q71. Which one of the following resolutions in matched?
the nal agreement reached at COP28 is (a) Only one
associated with the target of achieving ‘Net (b) Only two
Zero by 2050' ? (c) Only three
(a) Fossil fuel phase-out (d) NONE
(b) Methane emission cuts
(c) Global goal on adaptation Q75. Consider the following statements:
(d) Climate resilience 1. Government of India declares MSP rate
for Sorghum.
Q72. Rio Declaration 1992 adopted something 2. Sorghum is highly ef cient at assimilating
called as the “precautionary principle”, it has carbon and accumulating biomass at
implications on which of the following protocol elevated temperatures.
or agreement? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Nagoya Protocol on Access and Bene t correct?
Sharing (a) Only 1
(b) Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (b) Only 2
(c) Paris Agreement on Climate change (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) UNCCD (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 IAS Exam Congress
Q76. In which of the following contexts has Q80. Consider the following statements:
‘paludiculture’ assumed signi cance in recent 1. A future contract gives the buyer the right,
times? but not the obligation, to buy (or sell) an
(a) production of crops on wetlands asset at a speci c price at any time during
(b) rice- sh agriculture the life of the contract.
(c) carbon sequestration in dry soils 2. An option contract obligates the buyer to
(d) carbon farming purchase a speci c asset, and the seller to
sell and deliver that asset, at some later
Q77. Which one among the following locations speci c date.

is also known for the strange phenomenon of Which of the statements given above is/are

alleged bird suicides? correct ?

(a) Diphu (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(b) Tura
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Jatinga
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Dirang

Q78. Consider the following statements: Q81. Which of the following organisations/

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1. Demand for Grants are put before the departments has launched Open Network for
Parliament as part of a Money bill under Digital Commerce (ONDC)?
Article 110. (a) Niti Ayog
2. A Cut Motion is generally used by the (b) NPCI
members of Lok Sabha to oppose the
(c) Department for Promotion of Industry and
government's proposed allocation of funds
Internal Trade
in the Finance Bill as part of the Demand
for Grants. (d) Department of Economic Affairs
3. One ministry/department can seek only
one demand for grant from Parliament. Q82. In India, how many of the following can
How many of these is/are correct? use the Digital Lending Guarantees (DLG) to
(a) Only one lend to different customers?
(b) Only two 1. Commercial banks
(c) Only three 2. Co-operative banks
(d) NONE 3. NBFCs
4. Housing Finance Companies
Q79. Which of the following amendments led Select the correct answer using the code
to constitutionalisation of panchayats in India? given below:
(a) 44th Amendment (a) Only one
(b) 73rd Amendment (b) Only two

(c) 74th Amendment (c) All three

(d) None

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(d) 93rd Amendment

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 IAS Exam Congress
Q83. With respect to Indian economy, terms Q86. The Deccan Riots of 1875 were peasant
like ‘net short’ and ‘net long’ are generally rebellions against which of the following

associated with classes?

(a) Non-performing assets (a) Zamindars

(b) British Of cials at Poona
(b) Government securities
(c) Moneylenders/Sahukars
(c) Mutual funds
(d) Patels/Village Headmen
(d) Derivatives and Options

Q87. Consider the following pairs:

Q84. Which of the following statements about
1. Indian Telegraph Union — A O Hume
the 'Ahrar Movement' is/are true? 2. Madras Native Association — G L Chetty
1. One of its founders was Maulana 3. East India Association — H.D. Seymour
Muhammad Ali. How many of the pairs given above is/are
2. It opposed the active participation of correctly matched?
Muslims Youth in the Indian National (a) Only one

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Movement. (b) Only two

3. It supported the loyalist politics of the (c) All three

Aligarh Movement. (d) NONE

Select the correct answer using the code

Q88. With reference to National Maritime
given below:
Heritage Complex (NMHC), consider the
(a) 1 and 2
following statements:
(b) 3 only
1. NMHC is being developed at Lothal under
(c) 1, 2 and 3
the Ministry of Culture.
(d) 1 only
2. NMHC will house a museum featuring
different galleries which will narrate India's
Q85. Who among the following laid the
maritime journey from the Harappan
foundation for the Federation Hall on the
civilization to the present.
partition day of Bengal?
Which of these is/are correct?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(a) 1 only
(b) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
(b) 2 only
(c) Ananda Mohan Bose
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q89.Which of the following was the primary Q93. The commentary 'Nirukta' is compiled by
concern for which Rampa Rebellion was (a) Sayana
launched? (b) Yaska
(a) Regressive tax on producing salt (c) Vishvamitra
(b) Forest laws (d) Vasishtha
(c) Moneylenders
(d) Higher land revenue rates
Q94. Consider the following:

Q90. Among the Ashtapradhans of Shivaji, 1. Pathaka

who among the following did not hold any 2. Vithi
military commands besides civil duties?
3. Vishaya
(a) Peshwa
(b) Sumanta 4. Pattala

(c) Amatya 5. Adaya

(d) Pandit Rao How many of these were the administrative

units in ancient India?

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Q91. Mauryan Empire had an elaborate
(a) Only two
network of spies, in this context, which of the
following were the main tasks of spies? (b) Only three
1. Keeping an eye over the ministers. (c) Only four
2. Reporting on government of cials.
(d) All ve
3. Knowing the secret of foreign rulers.
4. Collecting impressions regarding feelings
of citizens. Q95. Consider the following:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Free legal aid to the poor
given below:
2. Uniform civil code
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Organisation of village panchayats as
(b) 2, 3 and 4
units of self-government
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs
How many of these directive principles of the
Q92. Which of the following events happened Constitution of India are in uenced by the
at the earliest? ideas of M. K. Gandhi?
(a) Formation of the United Indian Patriotic (a) Only one
Association
(b) Only two
(b) Tilak organises the Ganapati Festival
(c) Only three
(c) Death of Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(d) All four
(d) Rand and Ayerst murdered in Poona

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Q96. What is the basic conceptual difference Q99. People shall have right to choose their
that separates 'freedom' from liberty? nationality, it is outlined in
(a) Number of freedoms 1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(UDHR)
(b) Freedoms are regulated by state through
2. Global Compact for Migration
limitations
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Liberty is to be classi ed with the word
given below:
'Personal' before it
(a) 1 only
(d) Freedoms fall in the category of political
(b) 2 only
rights
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q97. Which of the following are associated
with the notion of governance? Q100. Consider the following statements:
1. Competitive democracies 1. Cool and hot spots within the photosphere
2. Participatory democracy of the sun are called Farculae.

3. Democratic administration 2. Sunspots are regions of reduced surface

temperature caused by concentrations of

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4. Change-oriented democracy
magnetic ux.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Corona are convection cells in the Sun's
given below:
photosphere which are caused by currents
(a) 2 and 3 of plasma in the Sun's convective zone.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 Which of these is/are correct?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
Q98. A Constitutional Government in essence (d) 1, 2 and 3
is the one which
(a) places effective restrictions on individual …Concluded…

liberty in the interest of State Authority

(b) places effective restrictions on the
Authority of the State in the interest of
individual liberty
(c) places duties of citizen over the rights of
citizen
(d) is limited by the judicial review

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