Q1.

Fire occur in flammable gas comes under

(a) Class A Fire
(b) Class B Fire
(c) Class C Fire
(d) Class D Fire
Q2. Which of the following comes under class B fire ?
(a) Fire occur in wood,paper,cloth
(b) Fire occur in flammable petroleum
(c) Fire occur in metal
Q3. Which of the following comes under class D fire ?
(a) Fire occur in wood,paper,cloth
(b) Fire occur in flammable petroleum
(c) Fire occur in flammable metal
Q4. Which fire extinguisher is best suited for class C fire ?
(a) Water extinguisher
(b) Carbon dioxide extinguisher
(c) Dry powder extinguisher
Q5. If we use water extinguisher on class B fire ?
(a) It will explode
(b) It produce electric shock
(c)Fire will not extinguished

Q6. If we use water extinguisher on class C fire ?

(a) It will explode
(b) It produce electric shock
(c) Fire will not extinguished
Q7. If we use water extinguisher on class D fire ?
(a) It will explosive expansion
(b) It produce electric shock
(c) Fire will not extinguished
Q8. If we use the carbon dioxide extinguisher
(a) Carbon dioxide isolates the fire from oxygen.
(b) Carbon dioxide cells the burning material.
(c) Both (a) & (b)
Q9. Carbon dioxide extinguisher is mainly recommended for
(a) Class A and B Fire
(b) Class B and C Fire
(c) Class A and C Fire
Q10. Halogenated hydrocarbon extinguishers are most used for
(a) Class A and B Fire
(b) Class B and C Fire
 (c) Class A and C Fire
Q11. Why is dry powder fire extinguishers are not recommended for
(a) It is not effecting
(b) It is residue is difficult to clean up and can damage the electronic
equipments.
(c) It cause explosion
Q12. Colour coding of class C fire extinguisher is
(a) Orange square
(b) Blue circle
(c) Yellow star
Q13. What is correct order of using extinguisher in P.A.S.S technique
(a) Pull,Aim,Sweep,Squeeze
(b) Push,Aim,Squeeze,Sweep
(c)Pull,Aim,Squeeze,Sweep

Q14. Ear protection is optional where noise levels are

(a) Less than 85dB
(b) More than 85dB
(c) More than 90dB
Q15. Foreign Object Damage(FOD) can be controlled by
(a) Having adequate tool control program.
(b) Keeping ramp and operation area clean.
(c) Both (a) & (b)
Q16. While working around the aeroplane,we should stand
(a) Ahead of engine intake
(b) Behind the engine exhaust
(c) At the point where pilot can see us
Q17. We should approach the helicopter
(a) In view of the pilot
(b) From the rear side
(c) With a vertical object in hand
Q18. While working on oxygen system,there should not be smoking or open
flame within
(a) At least 10 feet
(b) At least 50 feet
(c) At least 30 feet
Q19.While working on oxygen system, one should use
(a) Oily or greasy tools
(b) Adequate fire extinguisher
(c) Both (a) & (b)
Q20. Minimum separation between oxygen line and moving parts, electrical wiring
or fluid line should be
(a) 2 inches
(b) 4 inches
(c) 6 inches
Q21. Distance should be maintained between oxygen and petroleum products like
oil,grease because
(a) Petroleum products like oil,grease are flammable.
(b) Petroleum products like oil,grease support construction.
(c) Both (a) & (b)
Q22. What is a common name for halogenated hydrocarbons in the industry ?
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Freon
(c) Halon 104
(d) Phosgene
Q23. What is the operating mechanism of carbon dioxide fire extinguisher ?
(a) Manual pump
(b) Self-expelling
(c) Chemical reaction
(d) Compressed air
Q24. What is the toxicity rating of carbon tetrachloride(Halon 104) ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q25. What is the possible outcome of an electric shock with a voltage of 50V AC?
(a) May give rise to dangerous shock
(b) Painful but can be released
(c) Paralysis of respiration
(d) Heart stoppage
Q26. What is the possible outcome of an electric shock with a voltage of
12mA-20mA?
(a) May give rise to dangerous shock
(b) Painful but can be released
(c) Paralysis of respiration
(d) Heart stoppage
Q27. What is the possible outcome of an electric shock with a voltage of
20mA-50mA?
(a) May give rise to dangerous shock
(b) Painful but can be released
 (c) Paralysis of respiration
(d) Heart stoppage
Q28. What is the possible outcome of an electric shock with a voltage of
50mA-150mA?
(a) May give rise to dangerous shock
(b) Painful but can be released
(c) Paralysis of respiration
(d) Heart stoppage
Q29. If you witness someone receiving an electric shock, what should be your
first action?
(a) Call for professional medical help.
(b) Treat for shock by keeping the victim warm.
(c) Switch off the electrical current to remove the victim from the supply.
(d) Show for help and ensure there is no danger of also becoming a victim

Q30. How should you switch off the electrical current to remove the victim from
the supply?
(a) Using your bare hands
(b) Using a wooden or insulated material
(c) Using a metal object
(d) Using a wet cloth

Q31. If the victim has ceased breathing, what should you do?
(a) Call for professional medical help.
(b) Treat for shock by keeping the victim warm.
(c) Initiate resuscitation (artificial respiration).
(d) Switch off the electrical current.
Q32. What should you do if the victim is suffering from burns?
(a) Apply ice directly to the burns.
(b) Cover the burns with a bandage.
(c) Treat for shock by keeping the victim warm.
(d) Call for professional medical help.
Q33. How should you treat the victim for shock?
(a) Apply ice directly to the burns.
(b) Cover the victim with a blanket to provide warmth.
(c) Give the victim water to drink.
(d) Leave the victim alone to rest.
Q34. How should you treat the victim for shock?
(a) Apply ice directly to the burns.
(b) Cover the victim with a blanket to provide warmth.
(c) Give the victim water to drink.
 (d) Leave the victim alone to rest.
Q35. What is the primary purpose of painting safety lanes,pedestrian walkways,
and fire lanes inside hangers ?
(a) To improve the aesthetic appearance of the hanger.
(b) To prevent accidents and keep pedestrian traffic out of work areas.
(c) To designate areas for equipment storage.
(d) To increase the speed of workflow within the hanger.
Q36. What is a crucial factor in preventing electric fires ?
(a) Using high voltage equipment.
(b) Keeping the area around electrical work clean and free of flammable
substance.
(c) Ignoring frayed or damage cords.
(d) Overloading circuits with multiple devices.
Q37. What is the two main factors that affect safety when
(a) Fear and over confidence
(b) Knowledge and experience
(c) Curiosity and experimentation
(d) Speed and efficiency
Q38. Where should oxygen cylinders be stored ?
(a) In a hot, unventilated area.
(b) In a designed, coal, ventilated area away from petroleum products or heak
sources.
(c) Near open flames for easy access in case of emergency.
(d) Anywhere in the hanger for convenience.
Q39. What should never be used to clean hands or clothing ?
(a) Compressed air
(b) Approved cleaning solvents
(c) Soap and water
(d)A vacuum cleaner

Q40. What is a potential consequence of wing compressed air to clean hands or

clothing ?
(a) It is a safe and effective cleaning method.
(b) Pressure can force debris into the flesh leading to infection.
(c) It helps to sterilize the skin and clothing.
(d) It can improve blood circulation.
Q41. How many sections does a Globally Hormonized System(GHS) safety data
sheet contain ?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
 (d) 16
Q42. What does the letter “ W ” with a line through it indicate in the risk diamond
?
(a) The material is radioactive.
(b) The material is highly reactive to water.
(c) The material is a carcinogen.
(d) The material is a alkali.
Q43. What should you check on a grinding wheel before use ?
(a) It’s colour
(b) It’s price
(c) For defects
(d) It’s compatibility with the material you are grinding

Q44. What is the minimum fire extinguisher rating required in the immediate area
of a welding operation ?
(a) 10B
(b) 20B
(c) 40B
(d) 80B
Q45. What is a recommended action when using a milling machine ?
(a) Changing the feed speed while working.
(b) Wearing eye protection
(c) Moving the work bed while the machine is cutting.
(d) Ignoring proper tool selection for the job.
Q46. What is key to fire safety in a working or hanger environment ?
(a) Having a large supply of water nearby.
(b) Knowledge of what causes fire,how to prevent it, and how to put it out.
(c) Relying solely on the fire department for response.
(d) Ignoring potential fire hazards to maintain productivity.
Q47. How are machinists hammers primarily classified by
(a) Size and weight
(b) Material and handle type
(c) Hard and soft hammer
(d) Their specific use
Q48. Which of the following is not mentioned as a material used for the spriking
face of a soft hammer ?
(a) Lead
(b) Rubber
(c) Steel
(d) Rawhide
Q49. What is a primary use for a hard hammer, as
 (a) Assembly delicate electronic components.
(b) Striking punches and chisels.
(c) Applying finishes to wood.
(d) Tightening nuts and bolts.
Q50. Which task is a soft hammer commonly used for
(a) Breaking concrete
(b) Seating a workpiece in a machine vise.
(c) Cutting thick metal sheets.
(d)Driving large nails

Q51. What are the three most common types of hammers used by machinists ?
(a) Sledge hammer,claw hammer,mallet
(b) Ball-peen,straight-peen
(c) Cross-peen
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Q52. Hard hammer is made of
(a) Copper or brass
(b) Carbon steel
(c) Lead or Babbitt
(d) Steel
Q53. Size of hard hammer is specified by
(a) Weight of head without the handle.
(b) Weight of handle with handle.
(c) Diameter of face
(d) None of these
Q54. Which type of hammer should be used to form thin metal sheet
(a) Hard faced hammer
(b) Soft faced hammer
(c) Mallet
(d)Ball-peen hammer

Q55. Size of a ball-peen hammer (0.11 - 0.92Kg)

(a) 0.25 Kg to 1 Kg
(b) 0.39 Kg to 1 Kg
(c) 0.52 Kg to 1 Kg
(d) None of the above
Q56. Why should the faces of hammers and mallets be kept smooth and free from
damage
(a) To prevent marring the workpiece.
(b) To improve the hammer’s balance.
(c) To increase the striking force.
 (d) To make the hammer easier to grip.
Q57. When striking a metal tool with a metal hammer, what safety precaution is
strongly encouraged
(a) Wearing gloves
(b) Using a softer hammer
(c) Wearing safety glasses or goggles.
(d) Ensuring the work area is clean.
Q58. Soft hammer another name is
(a) Mallet hammer
(b) Ball-peen hammer
(c) Straight-peen hammer
(d)Cross-peen hammer

Q59. Which hammer has a peen-end at right angles to the handles

(a) Ball-peen
(b) Cross-peen
(c) Straight-peen
(d) Soft hammer
Q60. Center punch is used
(a) To enlarge the prick punch mark.
(b) To drive the rivet.
(c) To transfer the location of hole through the template to the metal.
(d)None of the above

Q61. Which punch is used to loosening or driving out damaged pins,rivets, and
bolts from hole
(a) Drift punch
(b) Prick punch
(c) Center punch
(d) Pin punch
Q62. The angle of a center punch
(a) 30°
(b) 40°
(c) 90°
(d)80°

Q63. Which type of punch does not need the blow of hammer
(a) Prick punch
(b) Automatic center punch
(c) Pin punch
(d)Drift punch
Q64. Which type of punch is used for driving out damaged rivets,pins and bolts
(a) Prick punch
(b) Center punch
(c) Transfer punch
(d) Drive punch
Q65. What is the key difference between a drive punch and a pin punch
(a) Material
(b) Handle length
(c) Shank shape
(d) Weight
Q66. What is another name for a drive punch
(a) Prick punch
(b) Center punch
(c) Tapered punch
(d) Transfer punch
Q67. The angle of a prick punch
(a) 30°
(b) 40°
(c) 60°
(d) 20°
Q68. What is the purpose of a center punch
(a) To make a lighter mark than a prick punch.
(b) To enlarge a prick punch mark for drilling.
(c) To mark the center of a circle.
(d) To remove pins
Q69. What feature allows for adjustment of the punch mark depth on an automatic
center punch
(a) The point angle
(b) The body length
(c) The knurled cap
(d)The spacing attachment

Q70. The portion of the file on which the teeth cut is called
(a) Tip
(b) Edge
(c) Face
(d)Length

Q71. At what angle the teeth of a file cut to the center line ?
(a) 30°- 50°
(b) 55°- 70°
 (c) 65°-85°
(d) 90°-110°
Q72. What is the cross-section shape of triangular files ?
(a) Round
(b) Square
(c) Triangular
(d)Half-round

Q73. What type of files are used for clearing out corners and filing internal angles
?
(a) Half-round file
(b) Three-square file
(c) Lead float file
(d)Knife file

Q74. What angle should the file be inclined downward when rounding a narrow
surface ?
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 60°
Q75. How is the length of the file measured ?
(a) From handle to tip.
(b) From hil to tip.
(c) From tang to heel.
(d) From the edge to center.
Q76. What is the exception to files tapering in width ?
(a) Cabinet file
(b) Knife-edge file
(c) Blunt file
(d) Rasp file
Q77. What are the 2 main categories of files based on their tooth structure ?
(a) Rough & Smooth
(b) Long & Short
(c) Single & Double Cut
(d) Flat & Round
Q78. Which of the following is not a common grade or pitch of files ?
(a) Bastard
(b) Second cut
(c) Extra-smooth
(d) Smooth
Q79. Which file is described as being narrow with one or both safe edges and is
used for filing slots and keyways ?
(a) Flat file
(b) Mill file
(c) Pillar file
(d) Square file
Q80. Which file is described as being narrow with one or both safe edges and is
used for filing slots and keyways ?
(a) Flat file
(b) Mill file
(c) Pillar file
(d) Square file
Q81. What is the inclined angle of sharp edge of a knife file ?
(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 10°
(d) 60°
Q82. What is the primary propose of an all hard blade ?
(a) Cutting hollow shapes
(b) Sawing heavy cross-section materials
(c) Making fine cut
(d) Cutting aluminium sheets
Q83. Which blade pitch is recommended for cutting structural steel ?
(a) 14 teeth per inch
(b) 18 teeth per inch
(c) 24 teeth per inch
(d) 32 teeth per inch
Q84.What kinds of steel are hacksaw blades made of?

(a) Stainless steel only

(b) Tool steel, high-speed steel or tungsten-alloy steel.

(c) Aluminium & copper

(d) Cast iron.

Q85.How many teeth per inch do hacksaw blades typically have?

(a) 6 to 10

(b) 10 to 20
(c) 14 to 32

(d) 34 to 50

Q86.How many positions can a hacksaw blade be set within the frame?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q87.When should a blade with 32 teeth per inch be used?

(a) For cutting wood (b) For cutting conduit (c) Thin tubing (d) Both b & c

Q88.What is the typical width of slotting hacksaw blades?

(a) 1/4 inch (b) 1/2 inch (c) 3/4 inch (d) 1 inch

Q89.What is the usual length of slotting hacksaw blades?

(a) 4 inches (b) 6 inches (c) 8 inches (d) 12 inches

Q90.What is the difference between a Philips and a Reed and Prince Screwdriver?

(a) They are exactly the same

(b) They fit different types of recessed screw heads

(c) Philips screwdrivers are only used on aircraft

(d) Reed and Prince screwdrivers are only used on wood.

Q91.What is the primary use of an offset screwdriver?

(a) For applying extra torque

(b) For working in confined or limited spaces

(c) For tightening screws at an angle

(d) For loosening rusted screws.

Q92.Screwdriver which is used to drive screw where space is limited

(a) Stubby screwdriver

(b) Philip screwdriver

(c) Read and Prince screwdriver

(d) None of these

Q93.What is the primary advantage of a replaceable tip screwdriver?

(a) Lower cost due to only replacing the tip

(b) Reduced weight of the tool

(c) Improved grip ergonomics

(d) Ability to hold multiple screw types at once

Q94.Which of the following is not the replaceable screwdriver tips?

(a) Flat

(b) Crosspoint

(c) Torx

(d) Offset

Q95.What is the purpose of a ratcheting right angle screwdriver?

(a) To provide extra torque

(b) To allow for screwdriving in confined spaces

(c) To quickly tighten or loosen screws

(d) To prevent over-tightening of screws

Q96.What should a screwdriver never be used for?

(a) Installing screws

(b) Checking electrical circuits

(c) Prying or chiseling

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q97.What is the safest practice when using a screwdriver on a small part?

(a) Holding it firmly in your hand

(b) Resting it on your knee

(c) Securing the part in a vise or on the workbench

(d) Using a magnetic tip screwdriver

Q98.What is the primary purpose of an all hand blade?

(a) cutting hollow shapes (b) sawing heavy cross-section materials

(c) making straight cuts (d) cutting aluminium sheets

Q99.Which blade pitch is recommended for cutting structural steel?

(a) 14 Teeth per inch (TPI)

(b) 18 TPI

(c) 24 TPI

(d) 32 TPI

Q100.How many strokes per minute should be used when using a hacksaw?

(a) 10-20 (b) 20-30 (c) 30-40 (d) 40-50

Q101.What determines the size of a flat cold chisel?

(a) Length of handle (b) width of cutting edge (c) weight of chisel (d) material
used in construction

Q102.What is the usual length range of a flat cold chisel?

(a) 3-6 inches (b) 5-8 inches (c) 6-10 inches (d) 8-12 inches

Q103.What is the recommended cutting angle for general-purpose chisels?

(a) 30° to 40° (b) 45° to 55° (c) 60° to 70° (d) 75° to 85°

Q104.What is the function of a round-nose chisel?

(a) Cutting sheet metal (b) cutting grooves & re-centering drills (c) chipping off
rusted bolts (d) sharpening other tools
Q105.What kinds of steel are hacksaw blades made of?

(a) Stainless steel only

(b) Tool steel, high-speed steel, tungsten-alloy steel

(c) aluminium & copper

(d) cast iron

Q106.What is the primary function of a screwdriver?

(a) To measure distances

(b) To cut materials

(c) To loosen or tighten screws and bolts

(d) To hammer nails

Q107.What is a crucial factor to consider when selecting a screwdriver?

(a) The color of the handle

(b) The size and type of the screw slot

(c) The material the screw is made of

(d) The length of the screwdriver handle

Q108.Why is it important for a screwdriver to fill at least 75% of the screw slot?

(a) To prevent the screw from rusting

(b) To ensure a secure grip and prevent damage to the screw and screwdriver.

(c) To make the work faster

(d) To allow for easy removal of the screw later

Q109.What can happen if you use the wrong size screwdriver?

(a) The screw will automatically tighten

(b) The screw slot can be damaged or burred

(c) The screwdriver handle will break

(d) Nothing, any screwdriver will work

Q110.What is the difference between a Philips and a Reed and Prince
Screwdriver?

(a) They are exactly the same

(b) They fit different types of recessed screw heads

(c) Philips screwdrivers are only used on aircraft.

(d) Reed and Prince screwdrivers are only used on wood.

Q111.What is the primary use of an offset screwdriver?

(a) For applying extra torque

(b) For working in confined or limited spaces

(c) For tightening screws at an angle

(d) For loosening rusted screws.

Q112.Screwdriver which is used to drive screw where space is limited

(a) Stubby screwdriver

(b) Philip screwdriver

(c) Read and Prince screwdriver

(d) None of these

Q113. What is the primary advantage of a replaceable tip screwdriver?

(a) Lower cost due to only replacing the tip

(b) Reduced weight of the tool

(c) Improved grip ergonomics

(d) Ability to hold multiple screw types at once

Q114.Which of the following is not the replaceable screwdriver tips?

(a) Flat (b) Crosspoint

(c) Torx (d) Offset

Q115. What is the main risk using a power screwdriver with a high slip-clutch
setting?
(a) Breaking the screwdriver tip

(b) Damaging the screw head

(c) Stripping the threads in the nut

(d) Causing injury from the tool slipping

Q116.Why is it recommended to start screws by hand before using a power

screwdriver?

(a) To save time

(b) To prevent cross-threading

(c) To ensure proper alignment of the tool

(d) To reduce wear on the screwdriver tip

Q117.What is the primary disadvantage of using cordless power drills with

removable tips for screws?

(a) They are too heavy

(b) They lack a slip-clutch

(c) They are not powerful enough

(d) They are difficult to control

Q118. Offset screwdrivers are designed for which type of screws?

(a) Only slotted screws

(b) Only Philips screws

(c) Both standard and recessed head screws

(d) Only Torx screws

Q119. What is the purpose of a ratcheting right angle screwdriver?

(a) To provide extra torque

(b) To allow for screwdriving in confined spaces

(c) To quickly tighten or loosen screws

(d) To prevent over-tightening of screws

Q120What should a screwdriver never be used for?

(a) Installing screws

(b) Checking electrical circuits

(c) Prying or chiseling

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q121.What is the safest practice when using a screwdriver on a small part?

(a) Holding it firmly in your hand

(b) Resting it on your knee

(c) Securing the part in a vise or on the workbench

(d) Using a magnetic tip screwdriver

Q122. Which type of pliers is specifically designed for twisting safety wire?

(a) Diagonal

(b) Needlenose

(c) Duckbill

(d) Roundnose

Q123.What is the primary function of roundnose pliers?

(a) Cutting wire

(b) Crimping metal

(c) Holding objects in tight spaces

(d) Twisting safety wire

Q124.What is a key characteristic of needlenose pliers' jaws?

(a) They are flat and wide

(b) They are half-round and come in varying lengths

(c) They are angled and sharp

(d) They are thick and heavily insulated.

Q125.What is the typical size range of pliers?

(a) 3 to 7 inches

(b) 5 to 12 inches

(c) 8 to 15 inches

(d) 10 to 20 inches

Q126.What is another common name for diagonal pliers?

(a) Duckbills

(b) Dikes

(c) Needlenose

(d) Long-nosed pliers

Q127. What is a common use for diagonal pliers? (EASA Page 3.10)

(a) Holding small objects in tight spaces

(b) Twisting safety wire

(c) Cutting wire, rivets, small screws and cotter pins

(d) Crimping metal

Q128What is one important rule for using pliers? (EASA Page 3.10)

(a) Use pliers to turn nuts for convenience

(b) Use pliers beyond their capacity to handle larger jobs

(c) Do not make pliers work beyond their capacity

(d) Grip the pliers loosely for better flexibility

Q129. What specific type of pliers is considered "especially delicate"? (EASA

Page 3.10)

(a) Diagonal pliers

(b) Duckbill pliers

(c) Long-nosed pliers

(d) Roundnose pliers

Q130.What damage can occur to pliers if they are used beyond their capacity or
stressed improperly? (EASA Page 3.10)

(a) They become more efficient at cutting.

(b) They can spring, break, or nick the edges, rendering them useless.

(c) They become easier to grip and manipulate.

(d) They maintain their functionality without issue.

Q131.How is the final reading on a micrometer obtained?

A) By adding the barrel, thimble and vernier scale reading

B) By reading only the thimble scale.

C) By subtracting the thimble scale from the barrel scale.

D) By aligning the spindle with the frame.

Q132. What is the approximate reading for the EX-EX shown in fig 3.88?

A) 0.2750 inch

B) 0.2944 inch

C) 0.2947 inch

D) 0.2153 inch

Q133.How does the vernier scale improve accuracy in micrometer readings?

A) By dividing the thimble graduation into smaller increments.

B) By adjusting the lead screw.

C) By reducing the number of barrel graduations.

D) By aligning with the anvil.

Q134. What does the vernier barrel scale primarily represent?

A) 0.001 inch
B) 0.01 inch

C) 0.1 inch

D) 0.25 inch

E) 0.1 inch

Q135.How many parts does the vernier scale divide a 0.001-inch thimble
graduation into?

A) 5 equal parts

B) 10 equal parts

C) 15 equal parts

D) 20 equal parts

Q136.Which of the following is NOT a component of an EWIS?

a. Connectors

b. Circuit breakers

c. Portable electronic devices

d. Wire bundles

Q137. What are the two fundamental properties of insulation materials?

a. Conductivity & resistance

b. Voltage & current

c. Insulation resistance & dielectric strength

d. Temp. & pressure.

Q138. How is insulation resistance typically measured?

a. Using a standard multimeter

b. Using a megohmmeter insulation tester

c. By visually inspecting the insulation for damage.

Q139. What is the recommended type of terminal to use when connecting wires?
a. Any type of terminal will work as long as it fits.

b. Pre-insulated crimp-type ring tongue terminals are preferred.

c. Solder terminals should be used whenever possible.

Q140.What type of crimping tools are available?

a. Only hand-operated tools

b. Hydraulic tools

c. Hand, portable, & stationary power tools.

Q141.What should NOT be visible after a proper crimp?

a. The conductor material in the crimp barrel.

b. Insulator material gripped by the insulation crimp

c. Damage to the conductor or insulator

d. Both B & C

Q142. What is the primary purpose of junction boxes in aircraft electrical

systems?

a. To provide a connection point for multiple wires.

b. To " " wiring from damage.

c. To act as a grounding point.

d. To regulate voltage.

Q143. Which of the following is mentioned as a common type of connector used

on aircraft?

a. Alligator clips

b. Wire nuts

c. Round cannon connectors

d. Terminal blocks.

Q144.What is the recommended maximum interval for placing identification

markings along the length of a wire in an aircraft?
a. 3 inch

b. 7 inch

c. 15 inch

d. 25 inch

Q145.The maximum deflection blw support points for wire groups or bundles?

a. 1/4 inch

b. 1/2 inch

c. 5 inch

d. 2 inch

Q146. Recommended no. of twists per foot for 2 wires of gauge #20?

a. 5

b. 7

c. 8

d. 10

Q147.What is the primary purpose of conduit in aircraft?

a. To provide electrical insulation for the wires.

b. To offer mechanical protection to cables or wires.

c. To reduce the overall weight of the wiring.

Q148. When selecting conduit sizes for a specific wire bundle application, what
percentage larger should the conduit inner diameter be than the maximum
diameter of the wire bundle?

a. 10%

b. 15%

c. 20%

d. 25%

Q149. Which type of flexible conduit is typically used to minimize radio

interference?

a. Type I aluminum

b. Type II "

c. Brass

d. Plastic

Q150. What action should be taken to prevent wire insulation damage when
tubing has been formed & cut to its final length?

a. Painting the cut ends.

b. Deburring the tubing.

c. Applying heat shrink wrap.

Q151. EWIS stands for (EASA - page 7.2)

a) Electrical Wiring Inspection System.

b) Electrical Wiring Interconnect System.

c) Electrical Warning Instrument System.

d) None

Q152.Insulation resistance can be measured with a _______. [EASA - page 7.2]

a) ohm meters

b) Volt meter.

c) Ammeter

d) megohmmeter insulation tester.

Q153.Dielectric Strength is expressed in terms of _______. [EASA pg 7.2]

a) Ampere.

b) ohms

c) Degrees

d) Voltage.
 Q154.As a minimum, the EWIS design should use _______ ground types. [EASA
- 7.3]

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) four.

Q155._______ are available for crimping terminal lugs. [EASA - 7.4]

a) Hand

b) portable

c) stationary power tools

d) all the above.

Q156.Crimping tools crimp the barrel to the _______. [EASA - 7.8]

a) Conductor

b) Insulator

c) cables

d) wires.

Q157.Resistance of wire-to-terminal joint should be _______. [EASA - 7.8]

a) Negligible

b) High

c) Neutral.

Q158.Coaxial cable consists of a conductor wrapped with a _______ as a

dielectric. [EASA 7.15]

a) a dielectric

b) an insulator

c) a and b

d) None
Q159.Wire chafing is aggravated by _______. [EASA - 7.28]

a) loose clamps

b) damaged clamps

c) clamp cushion migration

d) All

Q160.The wire bundles used in aircraft are often called _______. [EASA - 7.19]

a) wire bunch

b) wire harnesses

c) wire group

Q161. Insulation resistance can be measured with a _______.

A. Ohm meter

B. Volt meter

C. Ammeter

D. Insulation tester

Q162.The resistance of all bonds and grounds should normally not exceed
_______.

A. 0.001 Ω

B. 0.002 Ω

C. 0.003 Ω

D. 0.004 Ω

Q163. Wiring must be routed away from _______ equipment and lines to prevent
deterioration of insulation.

A. High temp.

B. Low temp.

C. Independent of temp.

D. Both A None
 Q164.Dielectric strength is the _______ usually expressed in terms of voltage at
which the insulation fails because of the _______.

A. electrostatic stress

B. electromagnetic stress

C. magnetic stress

D. All of the above

Q165.Crimps that are not tight enough are also susceptible to _______.

A. high resistance

B. low resistance

C. Doesn't depend upon resistance

Q166. _______ material should be in the crimp barrel.

a. Conductor

b. Insulator

c. Semi-conductor

d. B & C

*Q167.When using hand-plien strippers to remove lengths of insulation longer

than _______ inch.

a. 3/4

b. 1/2

c. 1/4

d. 2/4

Q168.Voltage derating is required when connectors are used at _______.

a. High altitude in non-pressurized area.

b. Low altitude in pressurized area.

c. Low " in non-pressurized area.

d. High altitude in pressurized area.

 Q169.Simple coaxial cable testing can be done with an _______.

a. ohm meter

b. Volt meter

c. Multimeter

d. Galvanometer

Q170.Coaxial cable is used to protect the inner conductor from the effects of
_______.

a. electromagnetic radiation

b. X ray

c. UV ray

Q171. Which of the following is a fixed part of a micrometer?

A) Frame

B) Spindle

C) Thimble

D) Ratchet stop

Q172.What does the thimble do in a micrometer? Pg-EASA 3.46

A) Measures the temperature.

B) Provides an opening between the anvil and spindle

C) Rotates the spindle to move it inside the barrel

D) Adjust the fixed nut.

Q173. How much distance does one complete revolution of the thimble move the
spindle?

A) 0.1 inch

B) 0.025 inch

C) 0.005 inch
D) 0.0025 inch.

Q174. How many divisions are present on the bevel edge of the thimble?

A) 10

B) 15

C) 20

D) 25

Q175. What is the value of each division on the thimble?

A) 0.001 inch.

B) 0.01 inch

C) 0.025 inch

D) 0.1 inch

Q176. What do the lines marked 1, 2, 3, 4 etc. on the barrel represent?

A) 0.1 inch divisions

B) 0.025 inch divisions

C) 0.001 inch divisions

D) 0.5 inch division

Q177. What is the purpose of the horizontal line on the barrel?

A) To align the thimble

B) To indicate the thimble's divisions.

C) To divide the barrel into tenths of an inch.

D) To provide convenience in marking divisions.

Q178. Which part of the micrometer comes into contact with the object being
measured?

A) Thimble

B) Barrel

C) Measuring Faces

D) Frame

Q179. What is the purpose of the spindle in a micrometer?

A) To hold the frame in place.

B) To measure internal dimensions.

C) To provide contact with the anvil for measurement.

D) To divide the barrel into sections.

Q180. In the example shown in figure (3-88) what does the final reading in the first
case (A) equal?

A) 0.2153 inch

B) 0.2944 inch

C) 0.150 inch

D) 0.175 inch..

Q181. What is the value of one graduation on the thimble scale?

A) 0.025 inch

B) 0.1 inch

C) 0.0001 inch

D) 0.001 incH.

Q182.How many total graduations are present on the barrel scale per inch?

A) 25.

B) 40
C) 50

D) 100

Q183. In the second ex. of fig-3-88 which vernier scale line align with a thimble
scale graduation.

A) line 5

B) line 6.

C) line 7

D) line 9.

Q184 If a hole is to be reamed, the drill size should be:-

A Larger than the nominal size

B The Same as the nominal size

C Slightly smaller than the nominal size

D The exact size of the reamer

Q185. What are the three basic classes of Fit?

A Clearance, Transition, and interference

B Small, medium, and large

C Tight, snug, and loose

D Metric, Standard, and custom

Q186.What does the ANSI Standard use for running and sliding fits in the Imperial
System?

A RCX

B FNX

C 1, 2, 3

D A, B, C
Q187.Which type of Fit in the Newall system requires mechanical pressure for
assembly?

A Clearance Fit

B Transition Fit

C Interference Fit

D Running Fit

Q188. Which class of running Fit provides the finest Fit with the least number
amount of clearance:-

A class X

B class Y

C class Z

D class D

Q189. In a "hole basis system" of Fits, what does Fundamental deviation "H"
signify?

A The tolerance for the shaft

B The tolerance for the hole

C The lower limit of the hole's size

D The difference between the maximum hole size and the minimum shaft size

Q190.What is the acceptable bow limit for a member in general unless otherwise
stated in the repair manual?

A) 1 in 100

B) 1 in 300

C) 1 in 600

D) 1 in 1000

Q191.What is the primary reason for imposing limits on manufacturing

processes?
A) To increase the time required for assembly.

B) To ensure that mating parts assemble correctly.

C) To make manufacturing more complex.

D) To reduce the need for adjustments during assembly.

Q192.What is the fundamental deviation in a tolerance system?

A) The total amount of variation allowed.

B) The difference between a size and the corresponding basic or nominal size.

C) The difference between the upper and lower limits of the tolerance zone.

D) The amount of clearance or interference between two parts.

Q193. What is the included angle of drill points when purchased?

a) 90 degrees

b) 118 degrees

c) 60 degrees

d) 45 degrees

Q194 Which of the following is not a standard series of drill sizes?

a) Fractional

b) Wire gage

c) Metric

d) Color coded

Q195.In the fractional series of drill sizes, short-length drills increase in diameter
by increments of:

a) 1/16 inch

b) 1/32 inch

c) 1/64 inch
d) 1/4 inch

Q196. What is the recommended range for the lip clearance angle of a drill?

a) 0 to 5°

b) 8° to 12°

c) 15° to 20°

d) 25° to 30°

*Q197.What is the potential consequence of immersing a high-speed steel drill in

water immediately after grinding wheel is acceptable?

a) It will sharpen the drill

b) It will have no effect on the drill

c) The drill point may crack

d) It will make the drill more resistant to heat.

Q198 What is the most common method for thinking the point of a drill?

a) Filing it down with a hand file

b) Using a convex grinding wheel

c) Applying heat with a torch

d) Using a concave grinding wheel

Q199. Which of the following is NOT a common type of drill shank?

* (a) Morse taper shank

* (b) Straight shank

* (c) Square shank

* (d) Hex shank

Q200. How are drill diameters typically measured?

* (a) With a ruler

* (b) With a caliper

 * (c) With a micrometer

* (d) With a drill gauge

Q201. How to correct an off-center drill hole?

* (a) By using a larger drill bit

* (b) To improve the finish of the hole

* (c) To prevent the drill from overheating

* (d) To reduce the amount of noise

Q202. What is the 1st step in laying out holes for drilling?

* (a) Centre punching

* (b) Drilling a pilot hole

* (c) Grinding the drill point

* (d) Using chisel

.Q203 Which of the following is not a common type of reamer?

* (a) Fluted chucking reamer

* (b) Rose chucking reamer

* (c) Square chucking reamer

* (d) Shell reamer

Q204. What is the purpose of countersinking?

* (a) To enlarge a hole

* (b) To create a flat bottom in a hole.

* (c) To produce an angular surface at the end of a hole.

* (d) To improve the accuracy of a hole.

Q205. What is the primary role of BITE in aircraft maintenance?

* (a) To entertain the B-1 technicians during maintenance procedures.

* (b) To provide a platform for B-1 technicians to practice their avionics skills.
 * (c) To assist B-2 technicians in trouble shooting & repairing avionic systems.

* (d) To aid in the electronic troubleshooting & repairing of avionics line

replacement unit & systems.

Q206. Where are BITE displays typically located in modern aircraft?

* (a) Exclusively in the avionics compartment.

* (b) Only on the flight deck.

* (c) On the flight deck & in the avionics compartment.

* (d) In the passenger cabin for easy access by flight after.

Q207. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a system or component that

may have its own dedicated BITE?

* (a) Air Data computer

* (b) Inertial Reference System

* (c) Coffee maker

* (d) Flight Management computer

Q208. According to the text, what is a key advantage of using BITE & ACARS in
aircraft maintenance?

* (a) It eliminated the need for B-2 technicians.

* (b) It allows for faster maintenance turn around times.

* (c) It makes aircraft completely immune to electronic faults.

* (d) It reduces the cost of avionics system by simplifying their design.

Q209. What is the primary role of BITE in aircraft maintenance?

* (a) To entertain the B-1 technicians during maintenance procedures.

* (b) To provide a platform for B-1 technicians to practice their avionics skills.

* (c) To assist B-2 technicians in trouble shooting & repairing avionic systems.

* (d) To aid in the electronic troubleshooting & repairing of avionics line

replacement unit & systems.

Q210. Where are BITE displays typically located in modern aircraft?

 * (a) Exclusively in the avionics compartment.

* (b) Only on the flight deck.

* (c) On the flight deck & in the avionics compartment.

* (d) In the passenger cabin for easy access by flight after.

Q211.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a system or component that

may have its own dedicated BITE?

* (a) Air Data computer

* (b) Inertial Reference System

* (c) Coffee maker

* (d) Flight Management computer

Q212. According to the text, what is a key advantage of using BITE & ACARS in
aircraft maintenance?

* (a) It eliminated the need for B-2 technicians.

* (b) It allows for faster maintenance turn around times.

* (c) It makes aircraft completely immune to electronic faults.

* (d) It reduces the cost of avionics system by simplifying their design.

Q213. What is the role of a generator in avionics testing?

* a) To measure & analyze the output of a unit.

* b) To provide a known single signal or stimulus to the unit under test.

* c) Both of these.

* d) None of these.

Q214.What is a Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) primarily used for?

* a) Checking for faults in transmission lines like cables.

* b) Analyzing the frequency spectrum of a signal.

* c) Measuring voltage & current.

* d) All of the above.

Q215.. What is the primary function of a Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)?

* a) Measure voltage & current in a circuit.

* b) Detect & locate faults in transmission lines.

* c) Display waveforms of electrical signals.

* d) All of these.

Q216. What is the primary use of an oscilloscope in avionics maintenance?

* a) Analyzing complex digital data.

* b) Measuring frequency, capacitance & temperature.

* c) Measuring & displaying rapid variations in electrical signals.

* d) None of these.

Q217. According to the text, what should technicians be aware of when using
avionics test equipment?

* a) The need for regular calibration of the equipment.

* b) The dangers of high voltage & electrocution.

* c) None of these.

* d) All of the above.

Q218. What is the function of Analyzers in avionics maintenance?

* a) To provide a visual representation of electrical signals.

b) To measure & analyze various electrical parameters.

* c) To stimulate the operation of different avionics components.

* d) To generate specific test signals for avionics systems.

Q219. Which of the following is an advantage of a spread spectrum time domain

reflectometer over a (TDR)?

* a) It can directly interface with digital data buses.

* b) It is more precise, portable, and easier to use.

* c) It can measure frequency.

 * d) None.

Q220. What is the primary purpose of testing the pitot-static system?

* a) To ensure the accuracy of instruments that use pitot & static pressure.

* b) To test the aircraft's electrical system.

* c) To calibrate the navigation system.

* d) All of these.

Q221. What is the crucial step to prepare the aircraft for pitot-static testing?

* a) Turning on all avionics systems.

* b) Informing air traffic control.

* c) Blocking off the appropriate static ports.

* d) Turning off all avionics systems.

Q222. What is a (VME)?

* a) A type of pitot-static test equipment.

* b) A standard for aircraft communication systems.

* c) A software used in Automatic Test Equipment.

* d) A connector system for electronic modules

Q223. What is the primary function of a tap?

* (a) Cutting external threads on round stock.

* (b) Enlarging holes to a specific size.

* (c) Cutting internal threads inside a hole.

* (d) Finishing holes to a smooth surface.

Q224. Which of the following is NOT a type of thread that can be cut with
standard taps and dies?

* (a) National Coarse

* (b) National Fine

 * (c) National Extra Fine

* (d) Metric Fine

Q225. How many taps are typically included in a set of hand taps for each
diameter and thread series?

* (a) One

* (b) Two

* (c) Three

* (d) Four

Q226. What is the order of usage for the taps in a standard set (from first to last)?

* (a) Bottoming tap, Plug tap, Taper tap

* (b) Taper tap, Bottoming tap, Plug tap

* (c) Taper tap, Plug tap, Bottoming tap

* (d) Plug tap, Taper tap, Bottoming tap

Q227. Which tap is specifically designed to cut full threads to the bottom of a
blind hole?

* (a) Taper tap

* (b) Plug tap

* (c) Bottoming tap

* (d) Adjustable tap

Q228. Which tap is specifically designed to cut full threads to the bottom of a
blind hole?

* (a) Taper tap

* (b) Plug tap

* (c) Bottoming tap

* (d) Adjustable tap

Q229.What is the main difference between the taps in a set?

 * (a) Diameter

* (b) Cross-sectional shape

* (c) Amount of taper

* (d) Material

Q230.What is the purpose of a die?

* (a) Cutting internal threads

* (b) Cutting external threads

* (c) Enlarging holes

* (d) Finishing holes

Q231.Which of the following is a classification of dies?

* (a) Metric and National

* (b) Adjustable round split die and plain round split die

* (c) Tapered and Straight

* (d) Coarse and Fine

Q232.What is the function of the adjusting screw on an adjustable round split

die?

* (a) To secure the die in the handle

* (b) To control the diameter and fit of the thread

* (c) To change the cutting angle of the die

* (d) To lubricate the die during cutting

Q233. Which of the following is true about Solid dies?

* (a) They are adjustable for different thread fits.

* (b) They can be used to create a variety of thread fits.

* (c) They are not adjustable and therefore offer limited thread fit options.

* (d) They are turned using a T-handle tap wrench.

Q234. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a common type of wrench for
turning taps?

* (a) T-handle

* (b) Adjustable tap wrench

* (c) Die stock

* (d) Monkey wrench

Q235. Which material is mentioned as not requiring a lubricant during tapping?

* (a) Aluminum

* (b) Cast iron

* (c) Brass

* (d) Bronze

Q236. A T-socket wrench is shaped like the letter:

(a) L

(b) T

(c) S

(d) U

Q237.What is the main purpose of an offset socket wrench?

(a) Speed

(b) Leverage

(c) Precision

(d) Tight Spaces

Q238. A pinhook spanner wrench is designed for-

(a) Hex nuts

(b) Round nuts

(c) Bolts
(d) Screws

Q239. An adjustable-hook spanner wrench is used for:

(a) Square nuts

(b) Round nuts

(c) Hex nuts

(d) Wing nuts

Q240. A strap wrench is ideal for surfaces that need to be:

(a) Tightened

(b) Protected

(c) Cleaned

(d) Lubricated

Q241. What kind of grip does a pipe wrench have?

(a) Smooth

(b) Serrated

(c) Flat

(d) Rounded

Q242. A hex key wrench is also known as:

(a) Allen wrench

(b) Socket wrench

(c) Strap wrench

(d) Pipe wrench

Q243.Socket wrenches attach to a drive through:

(a) Pin

(b) Hole

(c) Hook
(d) Strap

Q244. A ratchet wrench is used to-

(a) Measure torque

(b) Tighten/Loosen

(c) Cut metal

(d) Hold pipes

Q245. Torque wrenches are for:

(a) Precision tightening

(b) Loosening stuck nuts

(c) Fastening quickly

(d) Heavy lifting

Q246.What is the primary cause of hearing loss on a flight line?

(A) Exposure to loud music.

(B) The combined noise from various sources such as aircraft, auxiliary power
units, fuel trucks, and baggage handling equipment.

(C) Talking to other technicians without hearing protection.

(D) Using faulty communication headsets.

Q247. What does FOD stand for in the context of flight line safety?

(A) Foreign Object Debris

(B) Flight Operational Directives

(C) Foreign Object Damage

(D) Fuel Operations Directive

Q248. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a potential source of FOD?

(A) Broken runway concrete

(B) Shop towels

(C) Safety wire

(D) Birds

Q249.How does a gas turbine engine contribute to the risk of FOD?

(A) It propels objects away from the engine.

(B) It creates a low pressure area that can draw objects into the engine.

(C) It vibrates loose objects off of the engine.

(D) It doesn't pose a risk for FOD.

Q250. What is the main takeaway regarding safety around airplanes, as

mentioned?

(A) Assume pilots can always see you.

(B) Be aware of propellers and never assume a taxiing aircraft's pilot can see you.

(C) Stay close to the a/c for protection.

(D) Only approach the a/c when it is completely shutdown and the propeller is
stationary.

Q251.What is the primary purpose of Zerk fittings in aircraft lubrication

systems?

a) To regulate the flow of grease

b) To provide a standardized access point for grease application

c) To prevent over-lubrication

d) To mix grease with other lubricants

Q252. What is the mechanism by which Zerk fittings allow grease to enter the
bearing surface?

a) A screw-in plug

b) A spring-loaded ball check valve

c) A pressure-sensitive diaphragm

d) A magnetic seal

Q253. According to the text, what is a critical factor to consider when using
grease guns for aircraft maintenance?

a) Using the correct type of grease specified by the manufacturer

b) Applying grease at high pressure regardless of the fitting type

c) Mixing different types of grease for better lubrication

d) Using excessive grease to ensure complete coverage

Q254. What is the difference between protruding and flush mounted Zerk
fittings?

a) Protruding fittings are for oil, flush fittings are for grease.

b) They require different grease gun tips for proper lubrication.

c) Protruding fittings are older, flush fittings are modern.

d) They serve different lubrication purposes in the aircraft.

Q255. What is the power source for pneumatic grease guns used in aircraft
maintenance?

a) Battery power

b) Manual hand pump

c) Shop air pressure

d) Compressed nitrogen

Q256. Which aircraft maintenance environment commonly utilizes pneumatic

grease guns?

a) General aviation aircraft maintenance

b) Transport category aircraft maintenance

c) Vintage aircraft restoration

d) Helicopter maintenance
 ANSWER KEY

20
1 B 26 B 51 D 76 C 101 B 126 B 151 B 176 A 1 C 226 C 251 B
20
2 B 27 C 52 B 77 C 102 B 127 C 152 D 177 C 2 A 227 C 252 B
20
3 C 28 D 53 A 78 C 103 C 128 C 153 D 178 C 3 C 228 C 253 B
20
4 B 29 D 54 C 79 C 104 B 129 C 154 C 179 C 4 C 229 C 254 B
20
5 C 30 B 55 D 80 C 105 B 130 B 155 D 180 5 D 230 B 255 C
20
6 B 31 C 56 A 81 C 106 C 131 A 156 A 181 D 6 C 231 B 256 B
20
7 A 32 D 57 C 82 B 107 B 132 157 A 182 B 7 C 232 B
20
8 C 33 B 58 A 83 A 108 B 133 A 158 C 183 C 8 B 233 C
20
9 B 34 D 59 B 84 B 109 B 134 C 159 D 184 C 9 D 234 D
21
10 B 35 B 60 A 85 C 110 B 135 B 160 B 185 A 0 C 235 B
21
11 B 36 B 61 A 86 D 111 B 136 161 D 186 A 1 C 236 B
21
12 B 37 A 62 C 87 D 112 A 137 C 162 C 187 C 2 B 237 B
21
13 B 38 B 63 B 88 B 113 A 138 B 163 A 188 C 3 B 238 B
21
14 A 39 A 64 D 89 C 114 D 139 B 164 A 189 B 4 A 239 B
21
15 C 40 B 65 C 90 B 115 B 140 C 165 A 190 C 5 B 240 B
21
16 C 41 D 66 C 91 B 116 B 141 D 166 A 191 B 6 C 241 B
21
17 A 42 B 67 A 92 A 117 B 142 A 167 A 192 B 7 B 242 A
21
18 B 43 C 68 B 93 A 118 C 143 C 168 A 193 B 8 B 243 B
21
19 B 44 B 69 C 94 D 119 B 144 C 169 A 194 D 9 A 244 B
20 A 45 B 70 C 95 B 120 D 145 B 170 A 195 C 22 A 245 A
 0
22
21 C 46 B 71 C 96 D 121 C 146 B 171 A 196 B 1 C 246 B
22
22 B 47 C 72 C 97 C 122 C 147 B 172 C 197 C 2 D 247 C
22
23 B 48 C 73 B 98 B 123 B 148 D 173 B 198 B 3 C 248 D
22
24 C 49 B 74 B 99 A 124 B 149 C 174 D 199 C 4 D 249 B
10 22
25 A 50 B 75 B 0 D 125 B 150 B 175 A 200 C 5 C 250 B