HYDRAULIC

1. In case hydraulic LO LEVEL alert, can you use the hydraulic X- feed?
- If the X feed was open It will stay open and the pushbutton is inhibited.
- No, never
- No, and in case the x feed valve was open the x feed valve will close.
- Yes, always.
2. Spoiler panel float should be expected after failure of which system?
- BLUE
- GREEN
3. What is the minimum accumulator pre charge pressure for the green and blue
hydraulic systems?
- 3000 PSI
- 1600 PSI
- 800 PSI
- 1500 PSI
4. Which systems are connected to BLUE Hydraulic system?
- Normal brakes, flaps, nws, landing gear retraction
- Flaps, nws, emergency and parking brake, anti-skid
- Spoilers, normal brakes, landing gear extension retraction
- Flaps, spoilers, nws. Propeller brake, emergency and parking brake.
5. What is the minimum emergency/ parking brake accumulator pressure that will
be indicated by the pressure indicator in the cockpit?
- 1600 PSI
6. Which of the following condition shall be met for the automatic operation of the
DC aux hydraulic pump?
- The landing gear selector lever is in down position
- At least one engine running
- The blue main pump output pressure is below 1500 psi
- The propeller brake is released
- All of the above
7. When does the HYD OVHT amber light illuminate?
- When the sensor detects a temperature over 121degree C in the return
line from the pump case drain.

FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM

1. Which of the following is correct about engine fire extinguisher bottle?
- Contains Freon or Halon and may be discharged to either engine.
2. When does the amber DITCH light illuminates?
- Whenever the fire bottle is depressurized
3. In case of in-flight engine fire or severe mechanical damage, why do we wait 10
sec after pulling the fire handle to discharge the first extinguisher agent?
 - To reduce nacelle ventilation in order to increase the agent effect

FUEL SYSTEM
1. What is the meaning of the fuel LO PR light?
- B fuel starvation
- C electric and jet pump failure
- A not enough fuel in the tanks
- Answer B and C are correct
2. Below which pressure does the electrical fuel pump run automatically?
- 5 psi

TCAS
1. Evasive maneuvers are not allowed to be initiated based on:
- Traffic advisories
2. Unless otherwise instructed by ATC, select the standby mode on the TCAS
control box and keep it while taxing for Takeoff.
- True
- False
3. Is “RA INCREASE CLIMB” authorized with flaps 0 degree while flying in icing
conditions?
- No
4. What is the yellow solid circle on the vertical speed indicator?
- An intruder aircraft during a traffic advisory situation
5. What is the solid red square on the vertical speed indicator?
- An intruder considered as a threat to the airplane
6. Is “RA INCREASE CLIMB” authorized with flaps 15 degrees TO while flying in
normal condition?
- No
7. Before commencing takeoff roll you shall:
- Select ALT mode and check that ATC 1 is selected on the ATC
transponder control box. Then select the AUTO mode on the TCAS
control box.
8. Evasive maneuvers must be performed?
- In the direction of RA and with the autopilot disengaged
9. The TCAS system is approved for?
- VMC and IMC operations
 GENERAL
1. What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn for the ATR 72 500?
- 21.40m
2. What does the pushbutton, which is not illuminated, indicates?
- Normal basic operations
3. Which buss is responsible for powering the lavatory flush motor?
- DC Service buss
4. When does the unlock light in the door panel illuminates?
- If one or more microswitches of the associated doors are in the unlock
position
5. If the circuit breaker powering essential equipment trips one reset can be tried.
- True
- False
6. What does the push button illuminated Blue, indicate?
- Temporarily required system in normal operation
7. What do you do if during the aircraft walk around inspection, you observe
scratches and wear on the tail bumper/tail skid?
- Maintenance action is required

POWERPLANT
1. Are the igniters energized when selecting crank on the engine start panel?
- No, never
2. Which are the ATPCS arming conditions during the GO – AROUND?
- ATPCS pushbutton ON, both power level above 49i PLA, both torques
above 46%. The system is armed for auto feathering only.
3. When does the idle gate allow the pilots to reduce the power lever below FI?
- As soon as one gear absorber in compressed
4. When does the idle gate prevent the pilots to reduce the PL below FI?
- At takeoff as soon as both landing gear absorbers are released.
5. What happens if the blue hydraulic pressure is lost during hotel mode operation?
- The propeller brake is unsafe, and the propeller brake UNLK warning is
activated
- Propeller brake remains engaged
- Propeller brake is released
6. Which of the following is wrong regarding the engine electronic control EEC?
- ATPCS pushbutton ON, both PL above 49i PLA, both torques above 46%, the
system is armed for auto feathering only.
- The EEC controls the torque in accordance with outside conditions and
positions of the power lever, PWR MGT and bleed valves
- The EEC is responsible to arm the auto feathering during takeoff and go
around.
 - The EEC provides control of fuel flow in the HMU, through a stepper motor
- ATPCS pushbutton ON, both PL above 49i PLA, both torques above 46%, the
system is armed for Up trim and auto feathering only
7. How do you shut off the engine fuel supply?
- By setting the PL to Fuel SO.
- By setting the engine start rotary selector to OFF/START ABORT
- By setting the CL to Fuel SO.
8. What is installed on the propeller reduction gear box?
- ACW GEN, PVM, HP pump and overspeed governor, AUX feathering
pump, propeller brake (RH engine only) and FCOC
- ACW GEN, PVM, HP pump and overspeed governor, AUX feathering pump
- ACW GEN, PVM, HP pump and overspeed governor, propeller brake ( RT
engine only) and FCOC
9. Which system if responsible to power the propeller brake?
- Blue hydraulic system
- Green hydraulic system
- The propeller brake has a dedicated accumulator
10. What is the cross-start function?
- It uses the main battery until 10% NH and after uses the main battery
supported by the opposite DC generator.
- This function uses only of opposite DC GEN to start the engine in order to
save the batteries
- It isolates the opposite DC generator and uses the main battery for engine
start
11. During a takeoff followed by an engine flame out, the up-trim light illuminates on
the operative engine, what does it means?
- That the ATPCS has automatically increased torque on the live engine
to RTO
- That the PWR MGT selector has to be set to MCT
- That the pilot has to manually set the RTO on the live engine.
12. When is ATPCS disarmed after Takeoff?
- When the landing gear is up and locked
- When the power levers are retarded for climb
- When the PWR MGT selector is moved from TO.
13. What is the main engine parameter?
- TQ
- NP
- NH
14. Which ATPCS function are available for takeoff?
- Up trim and auto feathering
- Auto feathering only
- Up trim only
15. When does the auto feather occur?
- After 2.15 sec following a torque drop below 18%
- Immediately when one torque drops below 18%
- Only after the failed engine PL is retarded to FL
16. Is the fuel heated to prevent icing?
- Yes, by a fuel heater using the engine oil as the source of heat
- Yes, by mean of the EEC
- No, it is not necessary since the maximum operational ceiling is limited to FL
250
17. Where is the starter generator located?
- In the accessory gear box
- In the HMU
- In the propeller reduction gear box
18. When do the prop brake Blue Light Illuminate on the MEMO panel and on engine
start panel?
- When prop brake is not fully locked
- When the prop brake is fully locked
- When engagement or disengagement condition are met

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
1. How many TAT probes are installed in ATR 72 500?
- 2

NAVIGATION

1. When can the GPWS “GLIDE SLOPE” warning be inhibited?

- Below 2000 feet AGL by pressing one of the GPWS/GS switches
2. You just started the approach to Vienna (airport elevation 500ft) at 3500ft / QNH.
What is the radio altitude displayed on the EADI?
- Nothing, radio altimeter is not displayed above 2500ft.
3. What is the meaning of the NAV WHITE information VOR ILS displayed on the
upper right part of EHSI?
- It identifies the NAV source which supplies the respective course
deviation bar
4. Where is the weather radar detection displayed?
- On the EHSI if selected to ARC or MAP modes

LANDING GEAR
1. Which speed comparisons are used by the anti-skid system?
- It compares the inboard left to inboard right and outboard left to
outboard right
2. Which hydraulic system powers the normal brake system?
- The green system
3. When does the lock wheel signal and the release of brakes by the antiskid
system happen?
- For the velocity above 23 kts and speed differential of 50% or greater
4. Is this anti-skid system available when using the Emergency/ Parking brake
lever?
- No, Never

FLIGHT CONTROL
1. An amber AIL LOCK light on the power quadrant indicates?
- One of the ailerons locking actuators in disagreement with the gust lock
lever position.
2. Which controls are locked by gust lock?
- Aleron and elevator
3. The stick pusher actuator is located on which control column?
- Captains
4. What happens in flight when approaching a stall situation, with PITCH
DISCONNECT?
- Both yokes have the stick shaker and only captains’ yoke has the stick
pusher.
5. What does the TLU LO SPD light indicates?
- The rudder can be used up to its full deflection.

ELECTRIC SYSTEM
1. Why is the battery toggle switch placed in OVER RIDE after failure of both DC
GENs?
- To ensure the BUSSES are supplied by their respective battery by
overriding all protections.
2. What is normally supplies by invertor 1?
- AC BUS 1 and AC STBY BUS
3. When does the starter/ generator start to operator as a generator?
- NH 61.5%
4. The main battery is:
- A 24V Ni Cad rated at 43 Amp/hr
5. What happens if the aircraft is in flight and ACW GEN 1 fails?
- ACW SVCE BUS only is shed
6. The DC EXT power is controlled via the BPCU which provides protections,
except for?
- Under current
7. When does the green AVAIL light on the DC external power pushbutton
illuminate?
- The DC BPCU detects that the applied DC external power is within
limits.
8. Which is correct regarding the operation of the TRU on the ATR 72- 500?
- B with both DC generators failed, selecting the TRU push button to ON,
the TRU powers, DC EMER BUS, DC ESS BUS, DC STBY BUS and INV 1.
- C with both DC generators failed, selecting the TRU push button to ON, the
TRU only powers DC STBY BUS and DC ESS BUS.
- A DC emergency electrical system can be supplied by ACW electrical
system through the TRU.
- A and C are correct
- A and B are correct
9. What is the function of the emergency Battery during engine start/ crank?
- It avoids power transients on critical equipment during engine start and
ensures a power to the emergency network even if the main battery has
been completely depleted by repeated start attempts.

MFC
1. Which of the following is correct about the atr 72- 500 MFCs?
- Each MFC has 2 modules

PRESSURIZATION AND VENTILATION

1. What happen to the pneumatic outflow valve if the pressurization mode selection
pushbutton is depressed (automatic) and manual rate knob is set to normal?
- It is pneumatically slaved to the electro pneumatic overflow valve.
2. Where is the bleed leak detection system located?
- single loop in the vicinity of the hot air duct.
3. In addition to the amber fault light in the mode selector push button, which is the
correct indication during a pressurization system test?
- Alternately displays 18800 then -8800.
4. At what cabin altitude does the red excess cabin altitude light illuminate?
- 10000 ft.
5. What happens when the engine start sequence is initiated?
- Extract fan stops during 120 sec, to avoid the pressure shocks and
exhaust mode FAULT light illuminates.
6. Where is the bleed air leak detection system installed?
 - Airconditioning pack area
- Wing leading edge and wing to fuselage fairings
- Upper and lower fuselage floors
- All of the above
7. In the automatic mode, what is the highest cabin rate available with the descent
rate pushbutton, released (fast)
- -500 ft/ min
8. If the engine Bleed push button is not shed to OFF position during engine start, it
is possible to have a hot start on the correspondent engine. True or false
- False
9. Which bleed air valve is normally used at low power settings?
- HP
10. What is the max differential pressure allowed to select the OVER VALVE to full
open position?
- 1 psi
11. What is the max cabin differential pressure?
- 6.35 psi
12. What does the Dump pushbutton on the AUTO PRESS panel do, and when is it
available?
- It opens both overflow valves, it is only available in auto mode.
13. Which pack is primary supplier of cockpit air?
- Left
14. When does the air bleed X- feed valve opens?
- The valve opens only when air is supplied from the RH engine operating
in Hotel mode.
15. What is the OVBD valve position with the respective switch set to AUTO and
EXHAUST MODE set to normal?
- A & B correct answer unknown.

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

1. What are the memory items for severe icing, in the correct order?
- Increase red bug by 10 kts, PWR MGT to MCT, CL/PL 100% MCT,
disengage A/P, escape icing conditions, notify ATC.
2. Which BUS supplies the ICE detector on the atr 72 500?
- ACW BUS 2
3. When does the ICING AOA pushbutton illuminate green?
- When one horn anti icing pushbutton is selected ON
4. What is the condition ta arm the APM system?
- The landing gear and flaps are retracted
- The aircraft is in icing condition
- Both engines are operating
 - All of above
5. What kind of ice protection is fitted to the ATR 72 500?
- Pneumatic system and electrical heating.
6. Which statement is correct regarding the anti-icing / deicing MODE SEL AUTO
pb?
- With normal system functioning, the cycle selection is automatically
controlled by air data computers 1 and 2 and by MFC 1B and 2B.

AFCS (AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM)

1. How can the auto pilot be automatically disengaged?
- Stall warning indicator threshold is achieved.
2. What happens if you press yaw damper pushbutton with the auto pilot and yad
damper engaged?
- Auto pilot and yaw damper will disengage.
3. What happens if you use the normal or standby pitch trim with the auto pilot
engaged?
- Auto pilot will disengage, yaw damper still available.
4. When do we use IAS mode on the AFCS system?
- To climb or descend using a selected speed.
5. Where are the auto pilot active and armed mode displayed?
- ADU AND EADI

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENTS
1. When does the amber low-pressure light illuminate in the main supply
pushbutton on the oxygen panel?
- When the oxygen system pressure is bellow 50 PSI with the min supply
pushbutton selected on.
CCAS
1. Which alarms are not inhibited during take-off on the atr 72 500 after the T/O
INHI pushbutton is selected?
- EFIS Comp, PRK BRK, GPWS FAULT, MAINT PNL, ENG, FLT CTL
2. What happen when depressing the RCL push button?
- It recalls all existing failures that was previously cleared with the CRL
push button.
3. How can we identify a level 2 alert apart of an amber MC light flashing and
amber CAP light?
- Single chime
4. Which of the following CAP light cannot be extinguished with the CRL
pushbutton?
 - MAINT PNL

GNSS
1. What does the message NAV DATA OUT OF DATE means and what is your
action?
- It indicates that the active database is expired, if the standby database
is valid, it shall be used, otherwise the pilot must crosscheck navigation
and route data using current information from another source.
2. The ALERT DEAD RECKONING indicates that:
- Insufficient satellites are available to support GPS navigation
3. Normally the GNSS HT 1000 uses the GPS signal for navigation. In case the
GPS signal is lost?
- The GNSS can use DME-DME information for navigation, but this has to
be selected manually.
4. What is the expected pilot action when RNP UNABLE is displayed on the GNSS?
- Monitor the aircraft position with the other equipment, for eg. VOR DME.
5. What is necessary to perform a route integrity prediction?
- Insertion of route data, activation of a flight plan and exclusion of all
known unserviceable satellites.