Example
Example
general preferences (about countability of some sets). We can add some words
at the beginning of Proof. Some words like:
”First note that the preference induces naturally a strict preference on X/ ∼,
the quotient space of equivalence classes in X. Let [x] = {z ∈ X : z ∼ x} be
the equivalence class of x ∈ X. Then for any x and y in X, either x ∼ y which
means [x] = [y], or x ≻ y which means [x] ≻ [y], or y ≻ x which means [y] ≻
[x]. The representability of (X, succcurlyeq) follows from the representability
of (X/ ∼, ≻). So without loss of generality we assume the preference is strict.”
Referee 1 wrote:
I have doubts regarding the correctness of proposition 1. The first sentence
of the proof states ”As for the if part, suppose not. Then there exists some
maximal element M of S that is different from X”. But this is not obvious to
me. It seems like Zorns lemma (or some other version of the axiom choice)
would be required to show this. Moreover, I think some extra condition is needed
in order to be able to show this (as you point out in your later theorem 1). This
is because the representable class is not generally closed under unions (not even
countable unions) as you show in your example 2 on lexicographic preferences
on R × Q.
There is no problem in the proof of proposition 1. The existence of some
maximal element M is the condition of ”if” part. If M = X, we are done. If
not, see our proof.
1
Exercise 5.(A preference with pleasure in others’ misfortune.) Still
X = R+ × {1, 2, . . .}. There is a special positive number dj > 0 corresponding
to each j = 1, 2, . . .. For each j there is a least favorite element (dj , j). Denote
the misfortune set M = {(di , i) : i = 1, 2, . . .}. For all other elements (x, i) and
(y, j),