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Model Exam 2015

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to electrical and computer engineering topics, including AC signals, current density, electrical circuits, and digital communication systems. It covers various concepts such as modulation, transistor behavior, and network analysis. The questions are designed to test knowledge in these areas, likely for educational purposes.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
15 views14 pages

Model Exam 2015

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to electrical and computer engineering topics, including AC signals, current density, electrical circuits, and digital communication systems. It covers various concepts such as modulation, transistor behavior, and network analysis. The questions are designed to test knowledge in these areas, likely for educational purposes.

Uploaded by

gedionworku32
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Debre Tabor University

Gafat Institute of Technology

Department of Electrical and Computer Engineering

Electronic Communication engineering


stream
2015
1. How many cycles will an AC signal make in 2 seconds if its frequency is 100 Hz?
a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
2. What will be the current density of metal if a current of 30A is passed through a cross-
sectional area of 0.5m2?
a) 7.5 A/m2 b) 15 A/m2 c) 60 A/m2 d) 120 A/m2
3. What is the constant for a charged spherical shell according to basic electrical energy?
a) Electrical potential outside the spherical shell
b) Electrical potential inside the spherical shell
c) Electrical field outside the spherical shell
d) Electrical field inside the spherical shell
4. What does positive power in an electrical element indicate?
a) Element is absorbing power
b) Element is supplying power
c) Element may absorb or supply power
d) Element is neither absorbing nor supplying power
5. What happens to the quality factor when the bandwidth increases?
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) Becomes zero
6. When is tan  positive on a given AC circuit?
a) When inductive reactance is less than capacitive reactance
b) When inductive reactance is greater than capacitive reactance
c) When inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance
d) When inductive reactance is zero
7. Find Vx due to the 3A source for the following figure using the super-position method.
a) 56V b) 78V c) 38V d) 48V

8. For a coil having a magnetic circuit of constant reluctance, the flux is ____ to the current.
A. Directly proportional B. Not related
C. Inversely proportional D. Very large compared to
9. What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the length of the solenoid
increases?
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Remains constant D. Becomes zero
10. Which one of the following is a keyword?
A. Size C. Jump
B. Key D. Switch
11. What is a constant that contains a single character enclosed within single
quotes?
A. Character C. Fixed
B. Numeric D. Floating point
12. More than one function had to access data ___ variables were used.
A. Local C. Global
B. Automatic D. Static
13. ___ is a Program representation of some real-world thing.
A. Object C. Attributes
B. Class D. Function
14. ___ can be defined as data structures that allow storing a group of data of the same datatype.
A. Array C. Union
B. Structure D. String
15. The index number starts with ___ and the last index number of an array of size n will be ___
A. 0, n-1 C. 0, n+1
B. 1,n D. 0,n
16. String stores an extra ___ character for every string to mark the end of the string
A. Null C. /0
B. ‘\0’ D. None of these
17. More than one user-defined function can have the same name and perform different
operations. This feature of C++ is known as ___.
A. Function overloading
B. operator overloading
C. overloading
D. None of these
18. The voltage after which the diode current exponentially increases with forward bias is NOT
known as ________
A. Offset voltage B. Threshold potential
C. Firing potential D. Peak forward voltage
19. What happens to the cut-in voltage of the diode when the temperature increases?
a) Cut-in voltage increases
b) Cut-in voltage decreases
c) Cut-in voltage either increases or decreases
d) Cut-in voltage doesn’t depend on temperature
20. Reverse saturation current of a common emitter transistor is __________
A. Collector current when emitter is open circuited and base-collector junction is reverse
biased
B. Emitter current when collector is open circuited and base-collector junction is reverse
biased
C. Base current when emitter circuit is open circuited and emitter-collector junction is
reverse biased
D. Collector current when base circuit is open circuited
21. Which of the following configuration is used as input stage of the multistage amplifier?
A. Common base configuration
B. Common emitter configuration
C. Common collector configuration
D. All configurations are equally suited
22. Consider the biasing circuit shown. The β for the circuit is large. R3 = 1kΩ, R4 = 2kΩ. The
stability factor varies between 10 and 11. Find the maximum and minimum values of R2.

A. Minimum = 16.36kΩ, Maximum = 18kΩ B. Minimum = 10 kΩ, Maximum = 20kΩ


C. Minimum = 16.36kΩ, Maximum = 20kΩ D. Minimum = 6 kΩ, Maximum = 10kΩ
23. Which of the following is true for the cut-off region in an npn transistor?
A. Potential difference between the emitter and the base is smaller than 0.5V
B. Potential difference between the emitter and the base is smaller than 0.4V
C. The collector current increases with the increase in the base current
D. The collector current is always zero and the base current is always non zero
24. At saturation, which of these is not true for a BJT?
A. The collector current IC cannot increase further
B. The base current IB, cannot increase further
C. The collector-to-emitter voltage, VCE is due to the non-zero internal resistance of BJT
D. VCE(saturation) is the minimum voltage drop between C and E
25. Which of the following statements is most correct to explain role of biasing circuit in the
implementation of a transistor circuit?
A. It is used provide proper voltage to every component in the circuit
B. It is used to ensure maximum power is obtained out of the circuit
C. It is used to provide the quiescent collector current
D. It is used to provide proper and stable functional environment to all quiescent point
parameters
26. What is the role of input capacitance in the transistor amplifying circuit?
A. To prevent input variation from reaching output
B. To prevent DC content in the input from reaching transistor
C. There isn’t any role for input capacitance
D. To increase input impedance
27. Which are the only waves that correspond/ support the measurement of phase angle in the
line spectra?
a) Sine waves b) Cosine waves
c) Triangular waves d) Square waves
28. Double-sided phase & amplitude spectra__________
a) Possess an odd & even symmetry respectively
b) Possess an even & odd symmetry respectively
c) Both possess an odd symmetry
d) Both possess an even symmetry
29. Which kind of frequency spectrum/spectra is/are obtained from the line spectrum of a
continuous signal on the basis of the Polar Fourier Series Method?
a) Continuous in nature
b) Discrete in nature
c) Sampled in nature
d) All of the above
30. Which type/s of Fourier series allow/s to represent of the negative frequencies by plotting the
double-sided spectrum for the analysis of periodic signals?
a) Trigonometric Fourier Series
b) Polar Fourier Series
c) Exponential Fourier Series
d) All of the above
31. What does the signaling rate in the digital communication system imply?
a) Number of digital pulses transmitted per second
b) Number of digital pulses transmitted per minute
c) Number of digital pulses received per second
d) Number of digital pulses received per minute
32. As the signaling rate increases, __________
a. Width of each pulse increases
b. Width of each pulse decreases
c. Width of each pulse remains unaffected
d. None of the above
33. Which phenomenon occurs due to an increase in the channel bandwidth during the
transmission of narrow pulses in order to avoid any intervention of signal distortion?
a. Compression in the time domain
b. Expansion in the time domain
c. Compression in the frequency domain
d. Expansion in the frequency domain
34. Why are the negative & positive phase shifts introduced for positive & negative frequencies
respectively in amplitude and phase spectra?
a. To change the symmetry of the phase spectrum
b. To maintain the symmetry of the phase spectrum
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
35. How many bits must each word have in a one-to-four line de-multiplexer to be implemented
using a memory?
A. 8 bit C. 2 bits
B. 4 bits D. 1 bits
36. _____________ can be determined as the Instability condition.
a) Table c) map
b) logic diagram d) graph
37. If we add an inverter at the output of the AND gate, what function is produced?
A. NAND C. OR
B. XOR D. NOR
38. For every possible combination of logical states in the inputs, which table shows the logical
state of a digital circuit output?
A. Function table C. Truth table
B. ASCII table D. Routing table
39. Sum of two octal numbers “71” and “36” = __________________
A. 123 C. 213
B. 127 D. 345
40. Time delay device is memory element of______________
A. asynchronous circuits C. clocked flip-flops
B. synchronous circuits D. Unlocked flip-flops
41. Boolean function must be brought into________ To perform product of max terms
A. OR terms
B. AND terms
C. NOT terms
D. NAND terms
42. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to the decimal number _____________
A. 12 B. 19 C. 21 D. 27
43. Which of the following are active components used in network analysis?
a) Hub b) Router
c) Switch d) All the above
44. What is the purpose of active components in network circuits?
a) Divert signal b) Convert signal
c) Amplify signal d) Amputate signal
45. The reciprocal of reactance is _______.
a) Admittance b) Susceptance
c) Capacitance d) Impedance
46. The transfer function Z(s) of a capacitor for 3 passive types 2 terminal components in an
electrical network is
1 1
a) 𝑍(𝑆) = 𝑠𝐶 b) 𝑍(𝑆) = 𝑅
c) 𝑍(𝑆) = 𝑅 d) 𝑍(𝑆) = 𝑠𝐿
47. In the V-I characteristic of the linear element, if the voltage and current values are negative
then the impedance obtained is ___value
a) Negative b) Positive
c) 0 d) Both a and b
48. From two port conversations which one of the following is incorrect?
𝐴𝐷−𝐵𝐶 1
a) 𝐻12 = b) 𝐻21 = 𝐷
𝐷
𝐶 𝐵
c) 𝐻22 = 𝐷 d) 𝐻11 = 𝐷
49. Which one of the following filter rejects all frequencies within a specified band and passes all
those outside this band?
a) Bandpass filter b) Band stop filter
c) Low pass filter d) High pass filter
50. Which one of the following systems is both unstable and causal?
a) 𝑦[𝑛] − 2𝑦[𝑛 − 1] = 𝑥[𝑛] b) 𝑦[𝑛] + 2𝑦[𝑛 − 1] = 𝑥[𝑛]

c) 2𝑦[𝑛] − 𝑦[𝑛 − 1] = 2𝑥[𝑛] d) 𝐵𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏

51. In __________ communication, the media of transmission is a pair of conductors called


transmission line
a) Line b) Radio
c) Transmitter d) None of these
52. __________ is equipment that converts electrical signals back to the physical message.
a) Transmitter b) Receiver
c) Channel d) None of these
8
53. _________ is defined as the process by which some characteristics (i.e. amplitude, frequency, and
phase) of a carrier are varied in accordance with a modulating wave
a) Modulation b) Demodulation
c) De-Multiplexing d) None of these
54. An FM radio receiver that is tuned to a 91.6 MHz broadcast station may receive an image
frequency of ______ MHz.
a) 102.3 b) 113
c) 70.2 d) 80.9
55. If in a broadcasting studio, a 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by an audio signal of frequency range
100-5000 Hz, the frequencies of the upper sideband (USB) and the lower sideband (LSB)
are________ kHz, &_______kHz.
a) 1005 & 99 b) 995 & 1005
c) 1005 & 995 d) 1000 & 900
56. Modulation is needed in a communication system to achieve the following basic needs
a) Multiplexing b) Practicability of antennas
c) Narrow banding d) All the above
57. Which of the following are the types of amplitude modulation
a) Double Sideband-Suppressed Carrier(DSB-SC) modulation
b) Single Sideband(SSB) modulation
c) Vestigial Sideband(SSB) modulation
d) All the above
58. __________ & ___________ are two methods to generate DSB-SC waves
a) Balanced modulator & Ring modulator
b) Switching modulator & square law modulator
c) Envelope detector & square law detector
d) None of the above
59. What is the modulation signal voltage if the maximum and the minimum voltages on the wave
were observed to be 5.9v and 1.2v respectively?
a) 2.35V b) 2.12V
c) 1.85V d) 3.21V
60. The maximum rate at which nearly error-free data can be theoretically transmitted over
a communication channel is defined as
a) Modulation
b) Signal-to-Noise ratio
c) Frequency Bandwidth
d) Channel Capacity
61. The unit average mutual information is
a) Bits
b) Bytes
9
c) Bits Per Symbol
d) Bytes Per Symbol
62. Consider the binary Hamming code of block length 31 and rate equal to (26/31). Its minimum
distance is.
a) 3 b) 5 c) 26 d) 31
63. How many inputs are provided to the FSK block of 2 by 1 MUX?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
64. The bit rate of a digital communication system is 34 M bits/sec. The Baud rate will be in QPSK
modulation techniques
a) 8.5 M bits/sec
b) 17 M bits/sec
c) 32 M bits/sec
d) 64 M bits/sec
65. A rate 1/2 convolution code with dfrec = 10 is used to encode a data sequence occurring at a rate
of 1 kbps. The modulation is binary PSK. The DS spread spectrum sequence has a chip rate of
10 MHz Que: The coding gain is
a) 7dB b) 12dB c) 14dB d) 24dB
66. A CDMA system consists of 15 equal power user that transmits information at a rate of 10 kbps,
each using a DS spread spectrum signal operating at a chip rate of 1 MHz. The modulation
scheme is BPSK Que: The Processing gain is
a) 0.01 b) 100 c) 0.1 d) 10
67. Which of the following gives the least probability of error?
a) In Amplitude Shift Keying
b) In Frequency Shift Keying
c) In Phase Shift Keying
d) In Differential Phase Shift Keying
68. What subnet mask should be used to subnet the 192.168.10.0 network to support the number of
subnets and IP addresses per subnet shown in the following topology?
a. 255.255.255.0 b. 255.255.255.128
c. 255.255.255.192 d. 255.255.255.224

10
69. ___________ is a set of rules determining how network devices respond when two devices
attempt to use a data channel simultaneously and encounter a data collision.
a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA
c. TCP/IP d. TCP/UDP
70. Ethernet standard ___________ BASE-T defines Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling.
a. 100 b. 10
c. 1000 d. 1
71. In which of the following modes of the CLI could you configure the duplex setting for interface
Fast Ethernet 0/2?
a. Global configuration mode b. Enable mode
c. Interface configuration mode d. VLAN mode
72. Which of the following commands administratively enables an interface?
a. Shutdown b. no shutdown
c. enable interface d. interface enable
73. Given the following URI https://courses.examsdigest.com/ccna, which part is the hostname?
a. https b. courses
c. courses.examsdigest.com d. examsdigest.com
74. Which of the following port numbers the POP3 protocol uses?
a. 100 b. 110
c. 120 d. 130
75. Wi-Fi is based on ________________ IEEE standards.
a. 802.2 b. 802.1
c. 802.12 d. 802.11
76. The waveguide principle is not represented by one of the following statements.
a) In a waveguide, the waves must travel parallel to the conductor of a transmission line
b) The Waveguides are always guided by resonant parallel plate circuits
c) In a waveguide, the waves must travel series to the conductor of a transmission line
d) The transmission lines are made up of two (or more) parallel conductors
77. Waveguide transmission lines have different classification modes. Among the following
statements, one is not clearly stated about waveguide transmission lines.
A. In TEM mode, both the electric field and the magnetic field (which are always
perpendicular to one another in free space) are transverse to the direction of travel.
B. In TE mode, the electric field is transverse to the direction of propagation while the
magnetic field is normal to the direction of propagation.
C. In TM mode, the magnetic field is transverse to the direction of propagation while the
electric field is normal to the direction of propagation.
D. In transverse magnetic (TM) wave mode; 𝐻𝑧 ≠ 0, 𝐸𝑧 = 0
11
78. A cavity resonator can be represented by _____
a) An LC circuit b) A lossy capacitor
c) A lossy inductor d) An LCR circuit
79. If a transmission line is terminated with a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance.
A. Reflection coefficient will be unity
B. Standing wave ration will be maximum
C. Standing wave ratio will be minimum
D. The input impedance will be twice the terminating resistance
80. _________is depend on the velocity factor of a transmission line.
a) Relative permittivity of dielectric
b) Impedance
c) Temperature
d) None of these
81. The frequency range from 2 to 4 GHz is designated as _______.
a) Ku-band b) V-band
c) S-band d) C-band
82. What is the standing wave ratio if a 75Ω antenna load is connected to a network with
characteristics impedance of 50 Ω?
A. 2 B. 1.5 C. 1.43 D. 1.75

83. For a lossless transmission line, which of the following is true?


a) Υ = jβ b) Υ = α c) Υ = jβ + α d) Υ = jβ ∗ α
84. Scattering matrix for a microwave network, which is matched at all the ports, will satisfy the
following conditions:-
a) All non-diagonal elements will be zero
b) All diagonal elements will be zero
c) Γ1 = Γ2 = Γ3 … . Γ𝑛 = 0
85. If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by λ/4, what would be the
directivity of a broadside array in dB?
a. 6.53 dB b. 7.99 dB
c. 8.55 dB d. 9.02 dB
86. If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape patterns are generated
with no minor lobes?
a. 2 b. 4
c. 8 d. 16
87. If the length of elements of an array is greater than λ/2, which will be the operating region of an
array?

12
a) Transmission line region
b) Active region
c) Reflective region
d) All of the above
88. Consider a half-wavelength dipole antenna used for the reception of FM radio signals at a
frequency of 100 MHz. Calculate the length (in m) of the dipole antenna.
A. 1.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. Infinity
89. What kind of behavior of the radiated electromagnetic fields from an antenna do you expect to
see, far away from the antenna at a distance r from the antenna?
1 1
a. b.
𝑟 𝑟2
1 1
c. d.
√2 𝑟4
90. Which kind of polarization is provided by helical antennas?
a. Plane
b. Elliptical
c. Circular
d. All of the above
91. What is the source of electromagnetic radiation?
a) Acceleration of charges
b) Charges moving with the speed of light
c) A current
d) Charges
92. Linear polarization can be obtained only if the wave consists of
a. Ex
b. Ey
c. Both Ex &Ey& in phase
d. Both Ex &Ey& out of phase
93. Select an incorrect answer
a) Frequency is the number of repetitions in a second and its unit is Hertz [Hz].
b) If the sample rate is above or equal to the Nyquist rate, the original signal can be
recovered perfectly.
c) Every quantize induces a distortion.
d) The distortion incurred by the quantization and the resulting information rate can be
simultaneously reduced
94. What are the drawbacks of 1G?

a) large size phone


b) expensive service fee
c) poor voice quality
d) All
13
95. For wireless communications, we use an electrical device called an antenna which converts an
electrical current into a(n) (A)___________ and vice versa. A(n) (A)___________ can propagate
a long distance with the speed of light. By doing this, we can deliver information wirelessly.
Mathematically, we can decompose a signal according to its constituent (B)________
components. The power spectrum of a signal indicates the power distribution of the information
bearing signal according to (B)________. Here, the range of non-zero power distribution is called
the signal (C)_______ and it determines the speed of change in the signal. Remember that this is
one resource we need to pay for transferring information. If we increase the (D)_______ of the
transmit signal, the intensity of the propagated radio wave increases, which implies longer
propagation distance and better immunity for non-ideal effects. So, (D)_______ is another
resource we need to pay.
a) (A) radio wave, (B) frequency, (C) bandwidth, (D) power
b) (A) radio wave, (B) frequency, (C) bandwidth, (D) power
c) A) radio wave, (B) time, (C) power, (D) bandwidth
d) (A) acoustic wave, (B) frequency, (C) bandwidth, (D) power

96. Which one is true about wireless communication?

a) Sending data from one location to another without the use of the virtual medium
b) Sending data from one location with the use of the physical medium
c) Sending data from one location to another without the use of the physical medium
d) All
97. The _____of errors is more difficult than the_________
a) correction; detection
b) detection; correction
c) creation; correction
d) creation; detection
98. Select the incorrect answer
a) For simultaneous access, appropriate channelization using resource allocation is
required.
b) Among typical multiple access schemes are TDMA, FDMA, and CDMA.
c) The achievable rate region depends on the multiple access schemes.
d) Two-user rate region for TDMA contains that of FDMA.
99. Which generation of cellular technologies transformed the use of the cell phone and allowed it
to be used for both voice and high-speed internet use?
a) 1G b) 3G c) 2G d) 4G
100. The method of converting a word to a stream of bits is called________.
A. Binary coding B. Source coding
C. Bit coding D. Cipher coding

14

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