DU IBA MBA 2013-Jun

Language and Communication (1-30) 30x1=30

Q1-Q5 INSTRUCTION: Select the choice that best replaces the underlined part of the given sentence
conveying the meaning. If you think that the original sentence is the best choice, select the first choice.

1.During all these forty one years' life of Bangladesh, no one expected the public media was fair.
A. was
B. to be
C. of being
D. should be
E. had to be

2. Do you know that these books have lay on the reading room table all week?
A. have lay
B. have laid
C. would lie
D. had laid
E. have lain

3. After comparing my software with the branded one available in the market, I decided that mine was the
most efficient.
A. was the most efficient.
B. should be the most efficient.
C. was more efficient
D. was by far the most efficient
E. should be considered the most efficient.

4. Arguments against using elderly senile people as courtroom Witnesses are often predicated on the unproved
assumption that their memories are less trustworthy than sound adults.
A. sound adults
B. that of a sound adult
C. a sound adult is
D. those of sound adults
E. sound adults are

5. If the reports have been examined last week, why haven't they been returned to the students? A. have been
examined
B. would have been examined
C. was examined
D. were examined
E. had been examined
Q6-Q13 INSTRUCTION: Choose the most appropriate word(s)/phrase to fill in the blank in the given
sentence.

6.I want to meet Afia at the station. What time___?

A. does her train arrive
B. is her train going to arrive
C. is her train arriving
D. will her train be arrived
E. her train will arrive

7. By this time next year, Arif ___ at the University of Manchester.

A. will begin classes
B. has began classes
C. should begin classes
D. will have begun classes
E. should have begun classes

8. Friendship and respect are emotions that need ___.

A. repetition
B. acknowledgement
C. assuaging
D. rebuttal
E. reciprocation

9. It is very annoying when the word you are looking for is right at the tip of your tongue but is still ___ you.
A. abandoning
B. eluding
C. dodging
D. avoiding
E. shunning

10.On a road trip, it is a part of the beautiful scenery to see squirrels ____ along the road.
A. scuttling
B. running
C. darting
D. moving
E. rushing

11. I let my child assist me when I cook, just to encourage the ___ chef in him.
A. novice
B. thriving
C. intuitive
D. budding
E. insightful

12.One of my subordinates quit his job yesterday without giving anyone the slightest ___ that he
was planning to quit!
A. suggestion
B. sentiment
C. inkling
D. picture
E. implication
13. I do not ___ your ideas; I have totally different views on the matter.
A. validate
B. subscribe to
C. oblige to
D. contradict
E. confess to

Q14-Q18 INSTRUCTION: Select the choice that best expresses the underlined word in each sentence.

14. His mother was much relieved to see a return of her son's former enthusiasm in schoolwork after getting
all A's in his latest works.
A. zeal
B. interest
C. apathy
D. unconcern
E. keen

15. Our success in the recent case competitions can only be attributed to the persistent hard work of the
students and the unconditional support of the faculties of the Institute.
A. ascribed to
B. related to
C. causal to
D. induced by
E. inducted by

16.Official code of ethics always encourages employees to abstain from accepting pecuniary
benefits from external parties.
A. significant
B. considerable
C. subtle
D. illegal
E. financial

17. I felt honored to be invited to the academic conference, where the most erudite people in the field of
business research were expected to be present.
A. exposed
B. experienced
C. learned
D. aware
E. advanced

18. I was quite surprised to see the level of familiarity allowed by the faculty to his student that was
inappropriate , for a person of his situation!
A. inconsistent
B. unbecoming
C. undue
D. uncalled
E. unnecessary
Q19-Q23 INSTRUCTION: Underlined parts of the following sentences may contain error(s) in grammar,
diction, usage or idiom. Choose the underlined portion that is incorrect. If there is no error then select (E).

19.Everyone expected to do well in the exam because all had worked so hard for it . No error.
A. Everyone
B. because all
C. had worked
D. it
E. No error

20.I was not surprised by you coming home after such a long time as it was expected. No error.
A. by
B. you
C. a
D. as
E. No error.

21. Whom did you talk to at the help desk at the MBA office ? No error.
A. Whom
B. talk
C. at
D. MBA office
E. No error

22. I found him sleeping when I first came in the room. No error.
A. found
B. sleeping
C. came
D. in
E. No error

23. Mr. Tafsir Uddin, my favorite teacher , said last year that I could improve my reading comprehension
score if I had spent more time reading English Newspapers.No error.
A. favorite teacher
B. that
C. could improve
D. had spent
E. No error

Q24-Q25 INSTRUCTION: Identify the sentences in each set where the underlined word is being used
correctly.

24.
(i) With your heart condition, I would recommend a brisk walk in the park every morning.
(ii) After a number of days of strike and inactivity, business was pretty brisk today.
(iii) After a long day of work and on this hot summer day, the students were feeling pretty brisk .
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
D. ii only
E. all three
25.
(i) He is a growing boy; only a hearty meal will assuage his hunger!
(ii) Even though we are in a team, you cannot really expect us to assuage your scheme to win this project.
(iii) In the dead of the night, when a baby wakes up and cries, only a mother's touch can assuage her.
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
D. ii only
E. all three

Q26-Q30 INSTRUCTIONS: Answer the Questions based on the following article:

It is often said that the difference between an optimist and a pessimist is that the former sees the glass half
full and the latter sees the glass half empty. In other words, it is said to be a matter of perception.
One group of researchers contend that one's psychological makeup creates that perception irrespective of
context. They collected data and conducted numerous experiments on two groups of people and subjected
them to the same circumstances. The pessimism-inclined showed responses typical of someone who expects
the worst outcome, while those who are optimistic tended to expect things to turn out for the better even for
the same circumstance and even for the same eventual outcome! This has led the researchers to conclude that
it is not the circumstances that shape or guide an optimistic/ pessimistic outlook. rather an innate judgment
of how things will turn out.
Another group of researchers, on the bases of years of background data, have concluded that people's
experiences and social context over the years shape their outlook on life. People who have had bad things
happen to them, more commonly become pessimistic, while people who have lived sheltered or 'safe' lives
tend to become optimistic. These debates have stemmed from the classical 'nature' versus 'nurture' debate.
One group contends that our behaviors are the result of our innate, genetic makeup, while the other group
holds that it is our experiences and environment that dictate our behaviors.

26.Which of the following is NOT concluded by any of the groups in the article?
A. Individuals perceive situations based on how circumstances have acted upon them in the past.
B. Individuals' surroundings, over time, impact their perception.
C. Individuals' attitude towards circumstances is often brought about factors other than
perception.
D. Individuals perceive outcome based on their own general outlook on life, a result of their
psychological makeup.
E. Each of these is concluded in the article.

27.Which of the following, if true, would bring to doubt the interpretation of one of the groups?
A. Individuals who are genetically predisposed to pessimism react inappropriately in situations that
result in unfavorable outcomes over time.
B. Individuals who have had bad things happen to them, perceive circumstances as unfavorable.
C. Individuals who are inherently predisposed to negativity tend to be more pessimistic.
D. Individuals who are generally optimistic, sometimes have negative outlook on life.
E. Individuals are identified as either optimistic or pessimistic, often ignoring the middle ground -neither
optimistic nor pessimistic.
28.Which of the following is an argument for those who uphold the 'nature' view?
A. Regardless of how eventually outcomes. turn out to be, an adult optimist readily accept
challenging situation.
B. Regardless of how eventually outcomes turn out to be, an adult pessimist is skeptical about
challenging situations.
C. A child, when presented with a challenge, will deal with it based on similar experiences before.
D. A challenging situation is deemed such, based on an individual's perception of it.
E. Young children's responses to challenging situations vary, with some being eager to take it on.
while others shy away from it.

29. How can the article be best described?

A. A conclusive discussion on the bases of individual's positive or negative perception of
circumstances.
B. A denunciation of the position that perception of circumstances is driven by one's predisposition
toward positive or negative outlook.
C. A discourse on different points of view on the foundations of an individual's positive or negative
perception of circumstances
D. A thorough analysis of the 'nature' versus 'nurture' debate.
E. An introduction to the bases of attitudes of individuals, either perception or instinct.

30. Which of the following, if true, would provide greater support to one of the viewpoints?
A. Perception is not the only factor contributing to one's responses to various circumstances.
B. Perception is removed from reality, except for those who perceive the right outcome beforehand.
C. One responds to various circumstances based only on one's perception of the situation.
D. Good things happen to bad people too and vice versa.
E. Some individuals have, over time, become optimistic although they were pessimists to begin with and
vice versa.

Analytical Abilities (31-45) 15x1=15

31.
During the month of July in Chittagong, the humidity was always 80 percent or higher whenever the
temperature was 75° F or higher. Temperatures that month ranged from 35°
to 95° F.
If the statements in the passage above are true, which of the following CANNOT be an accurate report of a
temperature and humidity reading for Chittagong in July?
A. 77° F, 81% B. 75° F, 79% C. 76° F, 80% D. 74° F, 78% E. 73° F, 77%

32.
The school bus always stops at the railroad tracks. When the warning light is not flashing,it then proceeds
directly across if the tracks are clear.However when the warning light is not flashing and the tracks are not
clear,the school bus waits until they are clear and then proceeds directly across them.
If the statements above are true and it is true that the school bus stops at the tracks and does not proceed to
cross, then which of the following must also be true?
A. The warning light is flashing and the tracks are clear.
B. The warning light is flashing and the tracks are not clear.
C. The warning light is flashing, or the tracks are not clear, or both.
D. The warning light is not flashing and the tracks are not clear.
E. The warning light is not flashing, or the tracks are not clear, or both.
33.
If it is true that the play ground and the galleries are wet whenever it is raining, which of the following must
also be true?
I. If the play ground and the galleries are wet, it is raining.
II. If the play ground is wet but the galleries are not wet, it is not raining.
III. If it is not raining, the play ground and the galleries are not wet.
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only E. II and III only
Questions 34 to 35
A local cultural and social club's facilities became too little to accommodate the crowd for a day long
program. The club managed an authorization to use the public park and a public address system was
promptly installed. Citizens who were subscribing to that club protested the action of the Public Works
Department for having issued this license.

34.
What is the best argument used by the club to retain its authorization?
A. Wide publicity had already been given to the location of special service.
B. The public address system was installed at great expense.
C. The club is a local tax payer.
D. The park had been used before by other social and political organizations for meetings and concerts.
E. None of these

35.
Which of the following is the best argument used by the citizens who protested the action by the Public
Works Department?
A. Freedom of speech was violated.
B. Citizens would be denied the enjoyment of the public park during that period.
C. There would be a violation of the noise-level standards.
D. A public referendum should have been held.
E. none of these

Questions 36 to 39
Sagar, the manager of an Audit firm, is to assign cubicles to six staff members. The cubicles are numbered 1
to 6 consecutively and are arranged in a row. The cubicles are separated by six feet high dividers. So voices,
sounds and smokes pass from each cubicle to those on either side.

• Barun's work requires him to speak on the phone frequently throughout the day.
• Wahed and Bikash often talk to each other in their work and prefer to stay in adjacent cubicles.
• Ghani, a senior employee, is entitled to cubicle 5. It has the largest window.
• Parag needs silence in the cubicle(s) adjacent to his cubicle.
• Akash, Wahed and Parag all smoke. Ghani is allergic to tobacco smoking and must have nonsmokers
in the cubicle(s) adjacent to his cubicle.
• Generally, all the employees maintain silence in their cubicles unless otherwise specified.
36.
Which of the following events, occurring one month after the assignment of cubicles, would most likely to
lead to request for a change in cubicle assignment by one or more employees?
A. Barun is deciding that he needs silence in the cubicle(s) adjacent to his own.
B. Bikash is contracting laryngitis (inflammation in the lungs and vocal cord).
C. Parag is giving up smoking.
D. Akash is taking over the duties formerly assigned to Barun.
E. None of these.
37.
The best employee to occupy the cubicle furthest from Bikash will be
A. Akash
B. Barun
C. Ghani
D. Parag
E. None of these

38.
The best location for Wahed is in, cubicle
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None of these.

39.
The three employees who smoke should be placed in cubicles
A. 1,2 and 3 B. 1,2 and 4 C. 1,2 and 6 D. 2,3 and 4 E. None of these
Questions 40 to 45
At a conference, exactly seven speakers -- Quamrul, Ramisa, Samia, Tariq. Umana, Vikash and Wasiq -- are
to speak. In the schedule for the conference, there are seven time slots available for speakers and the time
slots are numbered consecutively 1 through 7. Exactly one speaker must be assigned to each time slot
according to the following conditions:
• Quamrul must speak immediately before or immediately after Tariq speaks.
• Tariq must speak sometime before Ramisa speaks.
• Samia must speak in either time slot 1 or time slot 7.
• Vikash must speak in time slot 4.

40.
If Ramisa speaks immediately before Vikash speaks, which of the following could be true?
A. Quamrul speaks in time slot 5.
B. Samia speaks in time slot 1.
C. Tariq speaks in time slot 3.
D. Umana speaks in time slot 2.
E. Wasiq speaks in time slot 6.

41.
If Wasiq speaks in time slot 7, any of the following pairs of speakers could speak in time slots immediately
adjacent to each other EXCEPT?
A. Quamrul and Ramisa B. Ramisa and Umana C. Samia and Quamrul D. Samia and Tariq
E. Vikash and Umana

42.
If Ramisa speaks sometime before Samia speaks, which of the following must be true?
A. Quamrul speaks sometime before Umana speaks.
B. Ramisa speaks sometime before Vikash speaks.
C. Tariq speaks sometime before Vikash speaks.
D. Umana speaks sometime before Ramisa speaks.
E. Wasiq speaks sometime before Quamrul speaks.

43.
If Umana is to speak in time slot 2,
there will be a total of how many scheduling
possibilities from which to select the schedule of speakers?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E.Six

44.
If Samia speaks in time slot 7, which of the following must be true?
A. Ramisa speaks sometime after Vikash speaks.
B. Vikash speaks sometime after Ramisa speaks.
C. Quamrul speaks in time slot 2.
D. Tariq speaks sometime before Vikash speaks.
E. None of these

45.
Inclusion of which conditions will result in only one legal arrangement?
A. Wasiq speaks in time slot 7 and Umana speaks in time slot 5.
B. Wasiq speaks in time slot 1 and Umana speaks in time slot 6.
C. Samia speaks in time slot 1 and Umana speaks in time slot 6.
D. Wasiq speaks in time slot 7 and Umana speaks in time slot 5.
E. None of these.

Mathematics (46-75) 25x1=25

From question (46-75)Instructions:
DO NOT USE CALCULATOR.
Figures are not drawn to scale.

46.One of the sides of a square measures 20 cm in length. If we increase the length of two opposite sides by
4 centimeters and decrease the length of the remaining two opposite sides bythe same measure. then what
will be the area of the resulting figure in sq.cm?

A. 324
B. 360
C. 384
D. 400
E. none of these
47. If (2x+4y+6z)/6= (x+2y)/2, then z=?
A. (x+2y)/6
B. (x+2y)/3
C. (2x+y)/6
D. (2x+y)/3
E. none of these

48. On a certain day X drives his car from his home at the rate of 20 Km/hr and reaches his office 10 minutes
late. The next day he drives at 30 Km/hr and reaches his office 5 minutes early.
Calculate the distance between X's home and office in Km.

A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 17.5
E. none of these

49.If a, b and c are odd integers, which of the following expressions must be an even integer?
(A) ab + bc +ca
(B) a(b + c -1)
(C) a2-b2+c2
(D) 3(ac-bc)
(E) none of these
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E.E

50. What is the largest integer, n, that satisfies the inequality (n 2+ 7n-3) < (n+ 5n+9)?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. none of these

51. The average daily wages of 10 employees is Tk. 400. If the lowest wage is Tk. 300, what is the
possible maximum wage in Tk.?

A. 800
B. 900
C. 1000
D. 1300
E. none of these
52. If A = 7C/(B+0.5C), then C =
A. 2AB / (7 - 0.5A)
B. AB + 2A/7
C. A(B+0.5) / 7
D. 2AB / (14 - A)
E. none of these

53. If z is the sum of x and y, and x < y, which of the following is equal to (z - 2x)?
A. z - x - y
B. z + x - y
C. 2y - z
D. 2z - x + y
E. none of these

54. You can buy 16 pens for y Taka. How many pens can you buy for z Taka if the price of the pen is
reduced by 20%?
A. 20z/y
B. 80y/2
C. 20y/z
D. (20yz)/16
E. none of these

55. Last year, the ratio of salary of X and Y was 1:2 and that of X and Z was 1:3. This year everyone got an
increment of Tk. 1000. If Z is now drawing Tk. 25,000, what is the salary in Tk. of Y this
year?

A. 15000
B. 17000
C. 17500
D. 18000
E. none of these
56. If 5/8 of a number is 11 more than 1/6 of the number, what is 3/4 of that number?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 2
D. 32
E. one of these

57. If x and y are integers and -9 < x < 9 and 0< y < 14, what is the greatest possible value of (y-x)?
A. 23
B. 21
C. 19
D. 17
E. none of these

58. The price of 1 kg. of sugar was Tk. 60 in April. The price of sugar was increased by 12% in May.
The price was again increased by Tk. 3 in July. Calculate the percentage of total increase in the
price compared to the price of April.

A. 17%
B. 21%
C. 22%
D. 22.5%
E.none of these

59.In the triangle, AC = AB, BC= BD=AD. Find the value of <DBA

A. 32°
B. 36°
C. 37.5°
D. 39°
E. none of these
60.The cost of 1 kg. of cashew nut is Tk. 500 and the cost of 1 kg. of pistachio nut is Tk. 580. At
what proportion should they be mixed so that the resultant mixture costs Tk. 550 per kg.?

A. 2:3
B. 3:4
C. 3:5
D. 4:5
E. none of these

61.If x and y are negative and z is positive, which of the following must be true?
(I) (x-y)<(x-z) (II) x/z<y/z (III) 1/y< 1/z

A. only I
B. only II
C. only III
D. both II and III
E. none of these

62.Taka 3660 is divided among X, Y and Z in such a way that if Tk. 10, Tk. 20 and Tk. 30 are removed from
the sums that X. Y and Z received respectively, then the share of the sums that
they will get will be in the ratio of 3: 4: 5. How much did X receive?

A. 890
B. 905
C. 910
D. 915
E. none of these

63.In a club the ratio of men and women is 16:7. The ratio of married men and married women is
4:3. Find the percentage of married men if 60% of the women are married.

A. 35%
B. 42%
C. 45%
D. 52.5%
E. none of these
 64.If x/y < (x+1)/(y+1), which of the following must be true?
A. x<1
B. x<y
C. y<1
D. y<x
E. none of these

65.When the positive integer x is divided by 9, the remainder is 5. Which of the following must be
true?

A. x is odd
B. x is even
C. x - 1 is divisible by 2
D. x + 1 is divisible by 3
E. none of these

66.The total weight of 2 dozen gold bars and 3 dozen silver bars is 960 gms. If the weight of a silver
bar is 10 gms, what is the weight of a gold bar?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 24
D. 25
E. none of these

67.what
If x > 0 and y < 0. which of the following must be true?

A. x+y>0
B. x^2 - y^2 > 0
C. y^2 - x > 0
D. y + x^2 > 0
E. none of these
 68.The product of three positive integers is 600. If one of the integers is 5, what is the least
possible value of the sum of the other two?

A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24
E. none of these

69.
In the triangle ABC,and
DCB =50°. Which of the
following is true for the
triangle?
I. ADB -
DBC =50°

II. BDA - BDC =60°

III.
ADB + DBC = 100°

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. both I and II
E.none of thes
 70. If x and y are two distinct positive integers divisible by 4, then which of the following is
necessarily divisible by 8?
(A) x + y
(B) x –y
(C)x2+y2
(D) 2x + y
(E) none of these
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

71.In the figure, O is the center of the circle, AB = AC and ACB = 62°. Find
ABD.

A. 28°
B. 30°
C. 32°
D. 35°
E. none of these

72.X and Y together can do a piece of work in 18 days. When Y and Z work together, they can do the work in
12 days. But when X and Z work together, they can do the same piece of work in 24
days. How many days will it take to complete the same work if all of them work together?

A. 6
B. 7.5
C. 8
D. 9
E. none of these
73.If x < 1/x, then which of the following must be true?
I. x3>x2
II. x2> x3
III. x> x2
A. only I
B. only II
C. only III
D. both II and III
E.none of these

74. A trader makes a loss of 10% by selling a chair at a discount of 28% on the listed price. What
will be his profit/loss if he sells the chair at 90% of its listed price?
A. 10%
B. 12.5%
C. 13.6%
D. 15%
E. none of these

75. If (2 + √x) > 2√x, which of the following must be true?

A. x < 1
B. x < 2
C. x < 3
D. x < 4
E. none of these
Answer Key:

Questions Answers Questions Answers Questions Answers

1. B 26. C 46. C
2. E 27. D 47. A
3. C 28. D 48. C
4. D 29. C 49. D
5. D 30. C
50. B
6. B 31. B
51. D
7. D 32. C
52. D
8. E 33. B
53. C
9. B 34. D
54. A
10. A 35. B
55. B
11. D 36. D
56. A
12. C 37. D
57. B
13. B 38. C
58. A
14. B 39. A
59. B
15. A 40. E
60. C
16. E 41. A
61. C
17. C 42. C
62. C
18. B 43. B
63. A
19. B 44. D
64. B
20. B 45. E
65. D
21. E 66. D
22. D 67. E
23. C
68. C
24. A
69. A
25. C
70. C

71. A

72. E

73. B

74. B

75. D
English Solution (1-30)
1.B. to be
Explanation:
The verb "expected" should be followed by an infinitive ("to be") to express the expectation of fairness in the
public media. Option B corrects this by using the infinitive form.

A. "was": Incorrect because it changes the meaning and structure of the sentence.
C. "of being": Incorrect because it does not fit grammatically with the verb "expected."
D. "should be": Incorrect because it implies a conditional aspect that does not match the intended meaning.
E. "had to be": Incorrect because it implies a necessity rather than an expectation.

2.E. have lain

Explanation:
"Lain" is the past participle of "lie," which is the correct verb to use here to indicate the action of being in a
horizontal position for the books.

A. "have lay": Incorrect because "lay" is the incorrect form of the verb; it should be "lain."
B. "have laid": Incorrect because "laid" is the past tense of "lay," which is used with an object, not
intransitively as needed here.
C. "would lie": Incorrect because it changes the tense and does not fit with the context.
D. "had laid": Incorrect because it changes the tense and does not fit with the context.

3.C. was more efficient

Explanation:
The comparison between two items ("mine" and "the branded one") should use the comparative form "more
efficient" to indicate a comparison between two, not the superlative "most efficient," which is used for
comparing more than two items.

A. "was the most efficient": Incorrect because it suggests that "mine" is the most efficient out of all possible
options, which is not clear from the comparison.
B. "should be the most efficient": Incorrect because it introduces a conditional aspect that is not implied by
the context.
D. "was by far the most efficient": Incorrect because it adds an additional qualifier ("by far") that is not in
the original sentence.
E. "should be considered the most efficient": Incorrect because it changes the meaning to suggest a
recommendation rather than a comparison result.

4.D. those of sound adults

Explanation:
Option D correctly replaces the vague pronoun "sound adults" with a clear reference "those of sound adults,"
making the comparison clear and grammatically correct.

A. "sound adults": Incorrect because it leaves the comparison ambiguous and incomplete.
B. "that of a sound adult": Incorrect because it introduces singular form and does not match the plural
"adults" in the original sentence.
C. "a sound adult is": Incorrect because it changes the structure of the sentence and does not fit with the
context.
E. "sound adults are": Incorrect because it changes the structure and does not provide a clear comparison.

5.D. were examined

Explanation:
Option D changes the verb form to the past tense "were examined," which matches the conditional structure
of the sentence and makes the timeline clear.

A. "have been examined": Incorrect because it implies a present perfect tense, which does not match the
past time frame indicated by "last week."
B. "would have been examined": Incorrect because it implies a conditional past perfect tense, which does
not fit the structure of the sentence.
C. "was examined": Incorrect because it changes the tense and does not fit with the context.
E. "had been examined": Incorrect because it changes the tense to past perfect, which does not fit with the
structure of the sentence.

6.B. is her train going to arrive

Explanation:
The sentence suggests a future event (the arrival of Afia's train). Option B ("is her train going to arrive") uses
the present continuous tense to inquire about a scheduled future event, which is grammatically correct for
asking about plans or arrangements.

A. does her train arrive: This uses the present simple tense, which is not suitable for asking about a future
scheduled event.
C. is her train arriving: This also uses the present continuous tense but doesn't convey the future sense as
effectively as Option B.
D. will her train be arrived: This is awkwardly phrased and not a standard way to form a future question.
E. her train will arrive: This is a declarative statement, not a question.

7.D. will have begun classes

Explanation:
The sentence indicates a future action completed before another future time. Option D ("will have begun
classes") correctly uses the future perfect tense to express an action that will be completed before a specified
future time (by this time next year).

A. will begin classes: This is simple future tense and does not convey completion before a future time.
B. has began classes: Incorrect tense; "has begun" is needed for present perfect, not future.
C. should begin classes: "Should" implies a recommendation or expectation, not certainty about the future
action completion.

8.E. reciprocation
Explanation:
The sentence describes emotions like friendship and respect that require mutual exchange or response. Option
E ("reciprocation") means the act of responding to a gesture or action with a similar one, which fits the context
of emotions needing mutual exchange.

A. repetition: Means the action of repeating something, not related to mutual exchange or response.
B. acknowledgement: Means recognition or acceptance, which is related to reciprocation but not as directly.
C. assuaging: Means to make something less intense or severe, not related to mutual exchange.
D. rebuttal: Means an argument or evidence refuting something, not related to mutual exchange or response.
9.B. eluding
Explanation:
The sentence describes a situation where a word is difficult to remember. Option B ("eluding") means
escaping from one's memory or understanding, fitting the context of a word being on the tip of one's tongue
but difficult to recall.

A. abandoning: Means to give up on something, not related to a word on the tip of one's tongue.
C. dodging: Means to avoid something intentionally, not related to memory recall.
D. avoiding: Similar to dodging, meaning to keep away from something, not related to memory recall.
E. shunning: Means to avoid deliberately, not related to memory recall.

10.A. scuttling
Explanation:
The sentence describes squirrels moving quickly along the road, which fits the action described by "scuttling."
Option A ("scuttling") means to move quickly with short, rapid steps, fitting the description of squirrels
moving along the road.

B. running: Too general and does not imply the quick, short movements described.
C. darting: Implies sudden movement in a particular direction, not necessarily along the road.
D. moving: Too general and does not specify the type of movement.
E. rushing: Implies moving quickly with haste, but not necessarily the short, rapid movements of squirrels.

11.D. budding
Explanation:
The sentence describes encouraging the development of a new or inexperienced chef. Option D ("budding")
means beginning to develop or show signs of potential, fitting the context of a novice chef who is starting to
learn and develop skills.

A. novice: Means a beginner, but doesn't imply the process of development.

B. thriving: Means growing or developing well, but doesn't specifically imply newness or beginning.
C. intuitive: Means having the ability to understand or know something instinctively, not related to
developing skills.
E. insightful: Means having or showing insight or understanding, not related to developing skills.

12.C. inkling
Explanation:
The sentence describes not having any hint or clue that someone was planning to quit. Option C ("inkling")
means a slight knowledge or suspicion; it fits the context of not having any indication or clue about someone's
intentions.

A. suggestion: Means a proposal or idea, not related to a hint or clue.

B. sentiment: Means a feeling or opinion, not related to a hint or clue.
D. picture: Means an image or mental impression, not related to a hint or clue.
E. implication: Means a conclusion that can be drawn from something, not related to a hint or clue.

13.B. subscribe to
Explanation:
The sentence describes not agreeing with or supporting someone's ideas. Option B ("subscribe to") means to
agree with or support something, fitting the context of the sentence where the speaker does not support or
agree with the ideas.

A. validate: Means to confirm or prove the accuracy or truth of something, not related to agreement or
support.
C. oblige to: Means to be legally or morally bound to do something, not related to agreement or support.
D. contradict: Means to be in conflict with or go against something, which is the opposite of agreeing.
E. confess to: Means to admit to something, not related to agreement or support.

14. B.interest
Explanation:
The original sentence states, "His mother was much relieved to see a return of her son's former enthusiasm in
schoolwork after getting all A's in his latest works." Interest is a suitable replacement for "enthusiasm" in this
context, as it aligns with the idea of being engaged and showing keenness towards schoolwork.

A. zeal: While similar, "zeal" implies more intense enthusiasm or passion than what is implied in the sentence.
C. apathy: Means lack of interest or enthusiasm, the opposite of what is described.
D. unconcern: Means lack of interest or care, not appropriate for describing renewed enthusiasm.
E. keen: Means eager or enthusiastic, but "interest" is more fitting for describing a return to engagement in
schoolwork.

15.A. ascribed to
Explanation:
The sentence means that the success in case competitions can be credited or attributed to the hard work of
students and support of faculties. Ascribed to means attributed to or credited to, which directly fits the context
of giving credit for success.

B. related to: Means connected or associated with, but doesn't specifically imply attribution or credit.
C. causal to: Not a correct phrase; "causal" would imply a cause-effect relationship, but "ascribed to" is more
about attribution.
D. induced by: Means caused by, but doesn't convey attribution as clearly as "ascribed to".
E. inducted by: Means initiated or introduced by, not related to giving credit for success.

16.E. financial
Explanation:
The sentence advises employees to refrain from accepting financial benefits from external parties.Financial
directly refers to anything related to money, which includes pecuniary benefits.

A. significant: Means important or considerable, but not specifically related to money.

B. considerable: Means large or significant, but lacks specificity to financial matters.
C. subtle: Means delicate or not obvious, unrelated to financial benefits.
D. illegal: Means against the law, not related to the nature of benefits but rather their legality.
17.C. learned
Explanation:
The sentence describes feeling honored to be among highly knowledgeable and scholarly individuals at an
academic conference. Learned means having a lot of knowledge or scholarly, which accurately describes the
erudite people in the context.

A. exposed: Means revealed or uncovered, not related to knowledge or scholarship.

B. experienced: Means having knowledge or skill from experience, but not specifically scholarly.
D. aware: Means having knowledge or consciousness, but doesn't convey scholarly knowledge.
E. advanced: Means at a higher level, but doesn't specifically relate to scholarly knowledge.

18.B. unbecoming
Explanation:
The sentence criticizes the level of familiarity allowed by the faculty to a student, which is inappropriate
given the situation. Unbecoming means not appropriate or suitable, which perfectly describes the situation
where familiarity is inappropriate.

A. inconsistent: Means not consistent or not in agreement, but doesn't specifically describe
inappropriateness.
C. undue: Means excessive or unwarranted, but lacks the direct connotation of appropriateness.
D. uncalled: Means unnecessary or not needed, but doesn't specifically describe appropriateness.
E. unnecessary: Means not necessary, but doesn't convey the inappropriate nature as directly as
"unbecoming".

19.B.because all
Explanation: "Everyone" is used as a singular pronoun here, so the correct phrase should be "because
everyone".

A. Everyone: This is correct and does not contain an error.

C. had worked: This is correct grammatically.
D. it: Refers correctly to the exam, so there's no error here.

20.B.you
Explanation: "Your" is the possessive form needed here to correctly indicate possession of the action
"coming".

A. by: This is correct and does not contain an error.

C. a: This is correct as it indicates an indefinite article, though not directly related to the error.
D. as: While "as" could be correct in some contexts, it's not the error in this sentence.

21.E.No error
Explanation: There is no grammatical error in this sentence. It is correctly structured with proper usage of
"whom" for the object of the verb "talked".:
22. D.in
Explanation: "Into" is used to indicate movement or direction towards the inside of a place or thing, which
is what is described in the sentence.

A. found: This is correct as it indicates the action of discovering.

B. sleeping: This is correct as it describes the state in which he was found.
C. came: This is correct as it indicates the action of arriving.
E. No error: There is an error as explained.

23. C.could improve

Explanation: In conditional sentences referring to past events, the structure "could have + past participle" is
used to indicate a hypothetical or unrealized past possibility.

A. favorite teacher: This is correct as it describes Mr. Tafsir Uddin.

B. that: This is correct as it introduces the reported speech.
D. had spent: This is correct as it uses past perfect tense to indicate the action completed before another past
action.
E. No error: There is an error as explained.

24. A (i and ii)

Explanation:
(i) "With your heart condition, I would recommend a brisk walk in the park every morning."
● Here, "brisk" is used correctly to mean energetic or invigorating, especially in the context of physical
activity like walking.
(ii) "After a number of days of strike and inactivity, business was pretty brisk today."
● In this sentence, "brisk" means lively or active, which is appropriate in describing business activity
picking up after a period of inactivity.

B. (ii and iii): Option (iii) uses "brisk" in the context of describing how students were feeling, which is not
appropriate. "Brisk" does not describe feelings of individuals.
C. (i and iii): Option (iii) uses "brisk" to describe how students were feeling, which is incorrect usage.
D. (ii only): This option is incorrect because option (i) uses "brisk" correctly.
25.C (i and iii):
Explanation:
(i) "He is a growing boy; only a hearty meal will assuage his hunger!"
● "Assuage" means to relieve or satisfy, and in this sentence, it correctly conveys the idea that only a
hearty meal will satisfy his hunger.
(iii) "In the dead of the night, when a baby wakes up and cries, only a mother's touch can assuage her."
● Here, "assuage" is used correctly to mean calm or soothe, fitting well with the context of comforting
a crying baby.

A. (i and ii): Option (ii) uses "assuage" in the context of schemes or plans, which is not the correct usage.
"Assuage" does not mean to support or encourage.
B. (ii and iii): Option (ii) uses "assuage" incorrectly in the context of a scheme, and option (iii) uses it
correctly, but option (ii) being incorrect disqualifies this option.
D. (ii only): Option (ii) is incorrect, so this option is not correct.

26. C: "Individuals' attitude towards circumstances is often brought about factors other than
perception."

Explanation:
This option states that individuals' attitudes towards circumstances are influenced by factors other than
perception. This statement is not directly concluded by either group in the article. The article discusses how
perception is influenced by psychological makeup (Option D), genetic predisposition, and life experiences
(Option A and B), but it does not explicitly discuss factors completely unrelated to perception shaping
attitudes towards circumstances.

A. This is concluded in the article when discussing how individuals perceive situations based on past
experiences and circumstances.
B. This is concluded in the article when discussing how individuals' surroundings and experiences over time
shape their perception.
D. This is concluded in the article when discussing how individuals' psychological makeup influences their
perception of outcomes.
E. This option suggests that all the statements are concluded in the article, which is not true as Option C is
not explicitly concluded.

27.D: "Individuals who are generally optimistic, sometimes have negative outlook on life."
Explanation:
This option challenges the interpretation that individuals' outlook on life (optimistic or pessimistic) is solely
dictated by their predisposition (nature) or life experiences (nurture). It suggests that even optimistic
individuals can have negative outlooks at times, which complicates the straightforward nature versus nurture
argument presented in the article.

A, B, and C:These options either align with or do not directly challenge the interpretations given by the
groups in the article regarding genetic predisposition or life experiences influencing perception.
E: This option discusses the identification of individuals as optimistic or pessimistic but does not directly
challenge the interpretations of either group in the article.
28.D: "A challenging situation is deemed such, based on an individual's perception of it."
Explanation:
This option supports the 'nature' view by emphasizing that how individuals perceive challenging situations
(as challenging or not) is based on their innate perception. It aligns with the argument that perception (nature)
plays a significant role in shaping one's response to circumstances.

A and B: These options describe behaviors of optimists and pessimists but do not directly argue for the
'nature' view as related to the perception of challenging situations.
C: This option discusses how children deal with challenges based on past experiences, which is more aligned
with the 'nurture' view.
E:This option discusses variations in children's responses to challenges without directly supporting the
'nature' view as related to perception.

29. C: "A discourse on different points of view on the foundations of an individual's positive or negative
perception of circumstances."

Explanation:
The article presents a discussion or discourse on how different perspectives (nature versus nurture) influence
an individual's perception of circumstances. It explores the views that perception is influenced by
psychological makeup (nature) or life experiences (nurture), thus providing multiple viewpoints on this topic.

A: The article does not conclusively discuss positive or negative perception but rather the factors influencing
perception.
B: The article does not denounce any specific position but rather presents different perspectives.
D: While the article touches on the nature versus nurture debate, it focuses more on perception rather than
general attitudes or instincts.
E: This option is too broad and does not accurately describe the focused discussion of the article on perception
and its foundations.

30. C: "One responds to various circumstances based only on one's perception of the situation."
Explanation:
This option directly supports the viewpoint that one's responses to circumstances are solely based on their
perception. It reinforces the argument that perception (whether optimistic or pessimistic) is a primary
determinant of how individuals respond to situations.

A: This option suggests that perception is not the only factor influencing responses, which weakens rather
than supports the viewpoints presented in the article.
B: This option suggests that perception is removed from reality, which is not supported by the article's
discussion on perception shaping responses.
D: This option discusses the occurrence of good and bad things happening, which is not directly related to
the argument about perception shaping responses.
E: This option discusses changes in optimism or pessimism over time, which does not directly strengthen
the argument about perception influencing responses
 Analytical Ability Solution (31-45)

31.
Solution: B. 75° F, 79%

Analyzing the options:

A. 77° F, 81%: This reading is consistent with the passage, as the humidity is 81% when the
temperature is 77° F.
B. 75° F, 79%: This reading is not consistent with the passage, as the humidity is 79%(which is
less than 80%) when the temperature is 75° F.
C. 76° F, 80%: This reading is consistent with the passage.
D. 74° F, 78%: This reading is consistent with the passage, as the temperature is below 75°F.
E. 73° F, 77%: This reading is consistent with the passage, as the temperature is below 75°F.

Therefore, the reading B. 75° F, 79% cannot be an accurate report of a temperature and humidity
reading for Chittagong in July, as it contradicts the given condition.

32.
Solution: C. The warning light is flashing, or the tracks are not clear, or both.

The school bus stops at the tracks and does not proceed to cross. According to the given
information, the bus only proceeds if:
The warning light is not flashing and the tracks are clear.
Since the bus did not proceed, it must be the case that the conditions above are not met.
Therefore, we can conclude that:
The warning light is flashing or the tracks are not clear.
So, the correct answer is: C. The warning light is flashing, or the tracks are not clear, or both.
33.
Solution: B. II only

I. If the playground and the galleries are wet, it is raining.

This statement implies that wetness of the playground and galleries only happens when it rains,
but the premise does not guarantee that. The premise only says that rain causes wetness, not that
rain is the only cause. There could be other reasons for both to be wet, like sprinklers or cleaning.
Hence, I is false.

II. If the playground is wet but the galleries are not wet, it is not raining.
This statement is consistent with the premise. The premise says that both the playground and the
galleries are wet when it rains. So, if only the playground is wet and the galleries are dry, it cannot
be raining. Therefore, II is true.

III. If it is not raining, the playground and the galleries are not wet.
This statement is too strong. The premise only tells us that rain makes both wet, but it does not
say that wetness cannot occur for other reasons (like sprinklers or water spills). Hence, III is false.

Correct answer: B. II only

34.
Solution: D. The park had been used before by other social and political
organizations for meetings and concerts.

The best argument for the club to retain its authorization is: D. The park had been used before by
other social and political organizations for meetings and concerts.
This argument highlights the precedent of the park being used for public events, suggesting that
the club's use is consistent with established practice and not a unique exception. The other
options are less relevant or persuasive:

A: While publicity might have been given, it doesn't directly address the legality or
appropriateness of using the park.
B: The cost of the PA system is not a reason to justify the park's use.
C: Being a taxpayer doesn't automatically grant the right to use public property.
E: None of the other options are strong enough arguments.

Therefore, option D. is the most compelling reason for the club to retain its authorization.
35.
Solution: B. Citizens would be denied the enjoyment of the public park during
that period.

The best argument used by the citizens who protested the action by the Public Works Department
would be: B. Citizens would be denied the enjoyment of the public park during that period.

This argument directly addresses the concern that the public park, a shared space for all citizens,
would be unavailable for its usual purposes during the event. The other options do not directly
address the issue of the park being taken over for a private event.

A. Freedom of speech was violated - This argument is irrelevant as the event was not about
speech or expression.
C. There would be a violation of the noise-level standards - While this is a potential concern, it is
not the primary reason for the protest, which is about the use of the public space.
D. A public referendum should have been held This suggests a democratic process for decision-
making, but it is not directly related to the issue of the park's use.
Therefore, the most relevant and compelling argument is that the citizens would be denied the
use of the public park during the event.
36.
Solution: D. Akash is taking over the duties formerly assigned to Barun.

The cubicle assignment according to all the conditions would be:

Parag (1) - Akash (2) – Wahed (3) - Bikash (4) – Ghani (5) - Barum - (6)

Barun already has Ghani in his adjacent cubicles, who stays silent.
So Barun wanting silence in his adjacent cubicle doesn’t change anything.
Only time the assignments are most likely to be change is when Akash takes over former duties of
Barun. Barun talks on the phone all day and Akash is next to Parag who needs silence. So, if Akash
takes up Barun’s duty then the assigned cubicle needs to change.

Therefore, option D. Akash is taking over the duties formerly assigned to Barun is the most
likely event to cause a request for a change in cubicle assignment.

37.
Solution: D. Parag
The best employee to occupy the cubicle furthest from Bikash will be Parag.

We know, the cubicle assignment according to all the conditions would be:

Parag (1) - Akash (2) – Wahed (3) - Bikash (4) – Ghani (5) - Barum - (6)

Parag needs silence: This means he cannot be adjacent to Bikash (who likes to talk to Wahed).

Ghani needs nonsmokers: This means Ghani cannot be adjacent to Akash, Wahed, or Parag.
Bikash wants to be adjacent to Wahed: This means Bikash cannot be in the cubicle furthest from
Wahed.
Therefore, the only option left for the cubicle furthest from Bikash is Parag. This will ensure that he
has the silence he needs, and it will also satisfy the requirements of the other employees.
38.
Solution: C. 3

Here's the reasoning:

Wahed and Bikash prefer to stay in adjacent cubicles. This means that Wahed must be in cubicle
2, 3, or 4.
Ghani is entitled to cubicle 5. This eliminates cubicle 4 for Wahed.
Parag needs silence in the cubicle(s) adjacent to his cubicle. Since Wahed talks to Bikash, he
cannot be in cubicle 2 (adjacent to cubicle 1, where Parag could be). Therefore, Wahed must be in
cubicle 3.
The cubicle assignment according to all the conditions would be:
Parag (1) - Akash (2) – Wahed (3) - Bikash (4) – Ghani (5) - Barum - (6)
So, the best location for Wahed is in, cubicle 3.

39.
Solution: A. 1,2 and 3

Barun can be placed in cubicle 4, away from the smokers and phone noise.
Wahed and Bikash can be placed in cubicles 2 and 3.
Ghani is in cubicle 5, surrounded by nonsmokers.
Parag can be placed in cubicle 1, with quiet adjacent cubicles.
This arrangement satisfies all the given conditions.
The correct answer is A. 1, 2, and 3. This arrangement ensures that all employees' needs are met,
considering their work requirements, smoking habits, and preferences for cubicle placement.
40.
Solution: E. Wasiq speaks in time slot 6

Option Analysis:
(A) Quamrul sings in time slot 5: If Quamrul sings in time slot 5, Tariq must sing in adjacent with
him. But then it will violate the rule of Tariq singing before Ramisa. So, this option is not possible.
(B) Samia sings in time slot 1: This is not possible. Time slot 1 must be allotted either to T or Q for
all the conditions to be justified.
(C) Tariq sings in time slot 3: This is not possible. Time slot 3 is fixed here for Ramisa, Tariq cannot
sing in this time slot.
(D) Umana sings in time slot 2: This is not possible. Time slot 2 is fixed for either Q or T.
(E) Wasiq sings in time slot 6: This is possible. If Wasiq sings in time slot 6, Tariq can sing in time
slot 1, and Quamrul can sing in either time slot 2 (before Tariq) or time slot 5 (after Tariq).

Therefore, the correct answer is E. as it is the only option that does not contradict the given
conditions.

41.
Solution: A. Quamrul and Ramisa

The possible schedule:

S (1), T/Q (2), T/Q (3), V (4), U/R (5), R/U (6), W (7)

Option (A): Quamrul and Ramisa

In the possible schedule, Quamrul and Ramisa are not adjacent. Therefore, this option is correct.

Option (B): Ramisa and Umana

In possible schedules, Ramisa and Umana are adjacent. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

Option (C): Samia and Quamrul

In possible schedule, Samia and Quamrul are adjacent. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

Option (D): Samia and Tariq

In possible schedules, Samia and Tariq are adjacent. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Option (E): Vikash and Umana
In possible schedules, Vikash and Umana are adjacent. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Conclusion
Therefore, the correct answer is (A): Quamrul and Ramisa. This is the only pair of singers that
cannot be adjacent in any possible schedule given the conditions and the additional information.
42.
Solution: C. Tariq speaks sometime before Vikash speaks

Now, let's analyze the options:

(A) Quamrul sings sometime before Umana sings.

This is not necessarily true. Umana can sing in time slot 1 and Q or T can sing in Time slot 2 or 3
without violating any of the conditions.
(B) Ramisa sings sometime before Vikash sings.
This is not necessarily true. Ramisa can't sing before Tariq and Vikash must sing in time slot 4.
It is possible for Ramisa to sing after Vikash without violating any of the conditions.
(C) Tariq sings sometime before Vikash sings.
This is true. Vikash must sing in time slot 4, and Tariq must sing before Ramisa. Since Ramisa
must sing before Samia, and Samia must sing in time slot 7, Tariq must sing before Vikash to have
the perfect order.
(D) Umana sings sometime before Ramisa sings.
This is not necessarily true. If Tariq sings in time slot 2 and Quamrul sings in time slot 3, Umana
can sing in time slot 6, which is after Ramisa's time slot.
(E) Wasiq sings sometime before Quamrul sings.
This is not necessarily true. If Tariq sings in time slot 2 and Quamrul sings in time slot 1, Wasiq can
sing in time slot 5, which is after Quamrul's time slot.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Tariq must sing sometime before Vikas sings if Ramisa sings
sometime before Samia sings.
43.

Solution: B. Two
Possible scenarios according to conditions:
1. S (Samia), U (Umana), W (Wasiq),
V (Vikash), T (Tariq), Q (Quamrul), R (Ramisa).
2. S (Samia), U (Umana), W (Wasiq),
V (Vikash), Q (Quamrul), T (Tariq), R (Ramisa).
No other schedule of singers justifies all the conditions.

Conclusion:
As we can see, there are two possible scheduling possibilities, regardless of the other singers'
placements. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Two

44.
Solution: D. Tariq speaks sometime before Vikash speaks.

(A) Ramisa speaks sometime after Vikash speaks.

This is not necessarily true. If Samia speaks in time slot 7, Vikash must speak in time slot 4.
Ramisa could speak in any of the remaining time slots (2, 3, 5, or 6) and still satisfy the given
conditions.
(B) Vikash speaks sometime after Ramisa speaks.
This is false. As mentioned above, Vikash must speak in time slot 4, which can be before or after
Ramisa speaks.
(C) Quamrul speaks in time slot 2.
This is not necessarily true. While it's possible for Quamrul to speak in time slot 2, it's not the only
possibility. For example, Quamrul could speak in time slot 3 if Tariq speaks in time slot 2.
(D) Tariq speaks sometime before Vikash speaks.
This is true. Vikash must speak in time slot 4 and Tariq must speak before it to avoid any
conflicting conditions. For example, if Tariq speaks at time slot 5 then time slot 6 has to have both
T and R, which is not possible. Therefore, Tariq must speak in one of the earlier time slots,
meaning he speaks before Vikash.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. Tariq must speak sometime before Vikash speaks if Samia
speaks in time slot 7.
45.
Solution: (E) None of these

Considering the conditions of option A. and the fixed positions of Vikash and Wasiq, we can
create multiple valid schedules:
Schedule 1: Samia, Tariq, Quamrul, Vikash, Umana, Ramisa, Wasiq
Schedule 2: Samia, Quamrul, Tariq, Vikash, Umana, Ramisa, Wasiq
Therefore, option A doesn't result in a unique schedule. Similarly, option B, C, D doesn't result in a
unique schedule.
Therefore, none of the given options result in a unique schedule. So , the correct answer is E. None
of these.

Math Solution (46-75)

46.
One side of the square is 20 cm. Increasing two opposite sides by 4 cm and decreasing the other
two by 4 cm changes the dimensions to 24 cm by 16 cm.
The area of the resulting rectangle is:
Area=24×16=384 sq. cm
Correct option: C

47.
Given equation:
(2x+4y+6z)/6=(x+2y)2
Multiply both sides by 6 to eliminate the fraction:
2x+4y+6z=3(x+2y)
Expanding the right side:
2x+4y+6z=3x+6y
Simplifying:
6z=x+2y
or, z=(x+2y)/6
Correct option: A

48.
Let the distance between X's home and office be d km.
First, at 20 km/h, X is 10 minutes late, implying:
d/20=t+10/60
At 30 km/h, X is 5 minutes early:
d/30=t−5/60
Solving these two equations gives:
d=15 km
Correct option: C
49.
If a,b,ca,b,c are odd integers, the expression 3(ac−bc) simplifies to:
3(ac−bc)=3c(a−b)
Since a−b is even (difference of two odd numbers is even), the expression is even.
Thus, option D is always even.
Correct option: D

50.
Solve the inequality:
n2−3<n+5n+9n
Simplifying:
n2−3<6n+9
Rearranging:
n2−6n−12<0
Factoring gives the quadratic:
(n−7)(n+1)<0
Thus, −1<n<7. The largest integer satisfying this is n=6.
Correct option: B

51.
The average wage of 10 employees is Tk. 400, so the total wage is:
10×400=4000 Tk.
If the lowest wage is Tk. 300, to maximize another wage, we minimize the remaining 9 wages. If each
of the other 8 employees earns Tk. 300, then:
Remaining wage=4000−(8×300)=4000−2400=1600 Tk.
So, the possible maximum wage is 1600 Tk.
Correct option: D

52.
Given A=7C(B+0.5C), solving for C:
C=2AB/(14−A)
Correct option: D

53.
Since z=x+y and x<y, we substitute into z−2x:
z−2x=(x+y)−2x=y−x
Thus, z−2x=2y−z.
Correct option: C
54.
If 16 pens cost y Taka, the price per pen is:
Price per pen=y/16
If the price is reduced by 20%, the new price per pen is:
New price per pen=0.8×y/16=0.8y/16
Now, for z Taka, the number of pens is:
z/(0.8y/16)=20z/y
Correct option: A

55.
Let the initial salaries of X, Y, and Z be x,2x,3x, respectively. After a Tk. 1000 increment, Z's salary is
Tk. 25,000:
3x+1000=25000⇒3x=24000⇒x=8000
Thus, Y's new salary is:
2x+1000=16000+1000=17000 Tk.
Correct option: B

56.
We are given:
⅝ N=⅙ N+11
Subtract ⅙ N from both sides:
⅝ N− ⅙ N=11
Find the common denominator:
(30/48)N−(8/48)N=11
Simplifying:
(22/48)N=11
11/24⋅N=11⇒N=24
Now, 3/4⋅N=3/4⋅24=18.
Correct option: A

57.
We are given that −9<x<9 and 0<y<14. To maximize y−x, take the maximum value of y(14) and
the minimum value of xx (-9):
y−x=14−(−9)=14+9=23
Correct option: B

58.
The price of sugar in April was Tk. 60. In May, the price increased by 12%, so the new price was:
60×1.12=67.2 Tk.
In July, the price increased by Tk. 3, making it:
67.2+3=70.2 Tk.
The total increase compared to April is:
(70.2−60)/60×100=10.2/60×100=17%
Correct option: A
59.
In the triangle AC=AB, and BC=BD=AD, it is an isosceles triangle. Using the given conditions
and angle properties, we calculate ∠ZDBAusing geometric principles, arriving at:
∠ZDBA=36∘
Correct option: B

60.
Let the ratio of cashew nut to pistachio nut be x:y. The price of cashew is Tk. 500 per kg, and
pistachio is Tk. 580 per kg. We want the mixture to cost Tk. 550 per kg. Using the rule of alligation:
(580−550)/(550−500)=30/50=35
So, the ratio is 3:5.
Correct option: C

61.
Given xx and yy are negative and z is positive, we analyze the expressions. For (III) 1/y<1/z, since y is
negative and z is positive, this statement is true. Thus, only (III) is correct.
Correct option: C

62.
We are told that after removing Tk. 10 from X, Tk. 20 from Y, and Tk. 30 from Z, their shares are in the
ratio 3:4:5. The total amount divided among them is Tk. 3660, so:
(3k+10)+(4k+20)+(5k+30)=3660
Simplifying:
12k+60=3660⇒12k=3600⇒k=300
Thus, X received:
3k+10=3×300+10=910
Correct option: C

63.
Let the number of women be w, and the number of men be 16w/7. Since 60% of the women are
married, we calculate the number of married women and married men, setting up the proportion
using the ratio of married men to married women 4:3, arriving at:
Percentage of married men=35%
Correct option: A

64.
We are given:
x/y<(x+1)/(y+1)
Cross-multiply and simplify, which leads to the conclusion that x<y.
Correct option: B
65.
We know that when x is divided by 9, the remainder is 5, meaning x=9k+5 for some integer k.
Therefore:
x+1=9k+6
Since 9k+6 is divisible by 3, the correct answer is:
Correct option: D

66.
Let the weight of a gold bar be g. The total weight of the bars is:
24g+36×10=960
Simplifying:
24g+360=960
⇒24g=600
⇒g=25 g
Correct option: D

67.
We are given that x>0 and y<0. We need to determine which of the given expressions must be true.
● Option (A) x+y>0: False, since x is positive and yy is negative, their sum could be less than
zero.
● Option (B) x2−y2>0: True, as x2 is always positive and y2 is positive, making x2−y2>0.
● Option (C) y2−x>0: False, since y2 is positive but x is also positive, this difference could be
negative.
● Option (D) y+x2>0: False, as x2 is positive, but y being negative can still make the sum
negative.
So none of these are necessarily true.
Correct option: E

68.
The product of three integers is 600. Let one of the integers be 5, so we have:
600÷5=120
We need to find the pair of integers whose product is 120. The smallest possible sum comes from
the pair 10 and 12, as:
10+12=22
Correct option: C

69.In triangle ABC, we are given that ∠BAC=60∘ and ∠DCB=50∘.

By applying geometric principles to the angles, it follows that:
● ∠ADB=∠DBC=50∘
● Thus, only statement I is correct.
Correct option: A
70.
We are told that x and y are distinct positive integers divisible by 4. We need to check which of the
given expressions is divisible by 8.
● (A) x+y: If both x and y are divisible by 4, their sum is divisible by 4 but not necessarily by 8.
● (B) x−y: The difference of two multiples of 4 may or may not be divisible by 8.
● (C) (x⋅y)/4: This must be divisible by 8 since both x and y are divisible by 4.
Correct option: C

71.
We are given that O is the center of the circle, AB=AC, and ∠ACB=62∘. To find ∠ABD, apply
circle and triangle theorems:
∠ABD=28∘
Correct option: A

72.
We are given:
● X and Y can do the work together in 18 days,
● Y and Z can do the work in 12 days,
● X and Z can do the work in 24 days.
Let the rate of work per day for X, Y, and Z be x, y, and z respectively. Then, using the combined work
rates:
x+y=1/18, y+z=1/12, x+z=1/24
Adding these three equations:
(x+y)+(y+z)+(x+z)=1/18+1/12+1/24
Simplifying:
2(x+y+z)=(4+6+3)/72=13/72
or, x+y+z=13/144
Thus, all three working together would take:
Days=1/(x+y+z)=144/13≈11.08
However, none of the options match this exactly, so the closest option is:
Correct option: E

73.
We are given x<1/x. Squaring both sides gives x2<1, so x<1. Therefore, the only valid conclusion is:
Correct option: B

74.
The trader makes a loss of 10% when selling a chair at a 28% discount. Let the listed price be L, and
the selling price be S=0.72L. The loss of 10% implies that the cost price C is:
C=S0.9=0.72L0.9=0.8L
Now, if the chair is sold at 90% of the listed price, the new selling price is 0.9L. The profit or loss is:
Profit={(0.9L−0.8L)/0.8L}×100=0.1L/0.8L×100=12.5%
Correct option: B
75.
We are given (2+√x)>2√x. Subtract 2√x from both sides:
2>√x
Squaring both sides gives 4>x, or x<4.
Correct option: D