31

ASSOCIATION OF CHEMISTRY TEACHERS

National Standard Examination in Chemistry – 2023
Date of Examination: November 26, 2023
Time: 11:30 AM to 1:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 31
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the Question Paper Code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the space
provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same Question
Paper Code appears on each page of the Question Paper.

Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phone, smart watch, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this Question Paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK
CAPITALS as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
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and filling the bubbles.
5. Your Ten-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /
result in National Standard Examination in Chemistry – 2023.
Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 48) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown.
Q.No.12 a c d

In part A2 (Q. No. 49 to 60) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of
alternative(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill
the appropriate bubble(s), as shown
Q.No.52 a c
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work may be done in the space provided. There are 14 printed pages in this paper
9. Use of Non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting Answer Paper, take away the Question Paper & Candidate’s copy of OMR sheet
for your future reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.

OMR Answer Sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS
NOT ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

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Instructions to Candidates (Continued) :
You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this Question Paper, if any, can be shared on the
Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iapt.org.in on the specified format till Dec 3, 2023.

13. The answers/solutions to this Question Paper will be available on the website:
www.iapt.org.in by Dec 2, 2023. The score card may be downloaded after Dec 24, 2023

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS:

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT/ACT to students, successful in the
National Standard Examination in Chemistry – 2023
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %” To be downloaded from iapt.org.in after 30.01.24
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend OCSC – 2024 at
HBCSE Mumbai
Certificate for centre toppers shall be uploaded on iapt.org.in

15. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above Minimum
Admissible Score (MAS) will be displayed on the website: www.iapt.org.in by Dec 25, 2023.
See the MAS clause on the student’s brochure on the web.

16. List of students eligible to appear for Indian National Chemistry Olympiad (INChO – 2024) shall
be displayed on www.iapt.org.in by Dec 30, 2023.

Useful constants
Charge of electron, e  1.602 1019 C
Mass of electron, me  9.11031 kg
Planck’s constant, h  6.631034 J s
Speed of light, c  3.0 108 ms 1
Avogadro constant, N A  6.022 1023 mol 1
Faraday constant F  96500 C mol 1
Molar gas constant, R  0.082 L atmmol 1K 1
 8.314 J mol 1 K 1

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ASSOCIATION OF CHEMISTRY TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY
(NSEC - 2023)
Time: 120 minute Max. Marks: 216
Attempt All Sixty Questions
A–1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. The ligand with which the homoleptic octahedral complex of Co3+ will be most stable is:
(a) Ethylenediamine tetra acetate ion
(b) Dien (N-(2-aminoethyl)-1,2-ethanediamine)
(c) Ethane-1,2-diamine
(d) Ammonia

2. Which of the following properties may have positive values of ∆H?

(i) Lattice enthalpy (ii) Hydration enthalpy
(iii) Electron gain enthalpy for noble gases (iv) Ionisation enthalpy

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

3. The correct IUPAC name of potassium permanganate is:

(a) potassium tetraoxomanganate(VI) (b) potassium tetraoxidopermanganate(VII)
(c) potassium tetraoxidomanganese(VII) (d) potassium tetraoxidomanganate(VII)

4. Which of the following statements is true with respect to sodium salts of oxoanions of phosphorus
NaH2PO2 and Na2HPO3
(a) NaH2PO2 is reducing and Na2HPO3 is oxidizing
(b) NaH2PO2 is more reducing than Na2HPO3
(c) NaH2PO2 is more oxidizing than Na2HPO3
(d) NaH2PO2 is oxidizing and Na2HPO3 is reducing

5. The fluoride/s of xenon, XeFn (n = 2 or 4 or 6), which on complete hydrolysis gives back xenon as
one of the products, is/are_______.
I. XeF2 II. XeF4 III. XeF6

(a) II only (b) I and II (c) III only (d) I, II and III

6. If an element after oganesson (Og, atomic number 118 and electronic configuration [Rn]
5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6) was discovered, in which of the following orbital, will the 119th electron be
accommodated?
(a) 7d (b) 6f (c) 8s (d) 5g

7. The number of ‘two-center-two electron’ and ‘three-center-two electron’ bonds in [Al(BH4)3] are
respectively
(a) twelve and zero (b) twelve and three (c) six and six (d) nine and three

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8. Identify the correct matching of the following oxides in column M with their property in column N:

M N
(i) Aluminium trioxide (p) Acidic oxide
(ii) Calcium oxide (q) Basic oxide
(iii) Arsenic pentoxide (r) Amphoteric oxide

(a) (i)-(p), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(r) (b) (i)-(q), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(p)

(c) (i)-(r), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(p) (d) (i)-(r), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(q)

9. In each of the following reactions, role of water is:

(i) H2O + HCl  H3O+ + Cl-
(ii) 6H2O + Mg2+  [Mg(H2O)6]2+
(iii) 2H2O + 2F2  4 HF + O2

(a) (i) oxidant; (ii) reductant; (iii) base (b) (i) reductant; (ii) oxidant; (iii) base
(c) (i) base; (ii) base; (iii) reductant (d) (i) acid; (ii) base; (iii) reductant

10. The correct order of the following oxidizing agents in basic aqueous medium is:
CrO42-/ Cr3+ E0= -0.11 V
2- 3+
FeO4 / Fe E0= +0.72 V
2- 3+
MnO4 / Mn E0= +0.46 V

(a) [CrO4]2- > [FeO4]2- > [MnO4]2- (b) [FeO4]2- > [MnO4]2- > [CrO4]2-
(c) [CrO4]2- > [MnO4]2- > [FeO4]2- (d) [MnO4]2- > [FeO4]2- > [CrO4]2-

11. The correct order of ionic radii of Rb+, Br-, Sr2+ and Se2- is
(a) Rb+ < Br- < Sr2+ < Se2- (b) Sr2+ < Rb+ < Br- < Se2-
(c) Se2- < Br- < Sr2+ < Rb+ (d) Se2- < Sr2+ < Rb+ < Br-

12. Consider the following statements:

(i) Calcination is carried out in absence of air below the melting point of the ore
(ii) Roasting and calcination are carried out in presence of flux
(iii) Calcination is carried out in limited supply of air above the melting point of the ore
(iv) Roasting is carried out in air below the melting point of ore
The correct set of statements is

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

13. The cobalt complexes (I) and (II) given below are examples of

H2 H2
N N
(NH3)4Co Co(NH3)2Cl2 Cl2 Cl(NH3)3Co Co(NH3)3Cl Cl2
O2 O2

(I) (II)
(a) linkage isomers (b) coordination isomers
(c) ligand isomers (d) coordination position isomers

14. The magnetic moment (in units of BM) of copper in [Cu(H2O)4]2+ and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ respectively
is:
(a) 1.73 and 0 (b) 1.73 and 1.73 (c) 2.83 and 2.83 (d) 0 and 2.83

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15. In qualitative inorganic analysis of a water-soluble salt mixture (salt AB + salt XY) both the
cations were identified as sulphides. In the tests for anions sodium carbonate extract when treated
with AgNO3 gave yellowish precipitate soluble with difficulty in NH4OH while the other anion can
be confirmed with brown ring test. (Given Ksp for AS = 1×10-44 and XS = 1.4×10-24).
Identify the INCORRECT statement about the analysis.
(a) H2S can be used under appropriate conditions of pH to separate and identify the cations.
(b) Cation A will be precipitated under acidic condition as the concentration of sulphides ions
required is low.
(c) The anions are NO3- and Cl-.
(d) Cation X will be precipitated as sulphides under alkaline condition, as the concentration of
sulphides ions required is very high.

16. The correct statement about the solubilities of Group 2 hydroxides is:
(a) The solubilities increase because lattice energy increases as we go down Group 2
(b) The solubilities increase because lattice energy decreases as we go down Group 2
(c) The solubilities decrease because atomic size increases as we go down Group 2
(d) The solubilities decrease because lattice energy decreases as we go down Group 2

17. A solution of CuSO4.5H2O in methanol has [Cu2+] = 1.00 mg per 1000 g of methanol. The molarity
of Cu2+ in this solution is Y × 10-5 mol L-1.Y is :
(Given- density of methanol = 0.792 g mL-1)
(a) 1.57 (b) 5.04 (c) 1.25 (d) 3.99

18. Following is the reaction flow chart for manganese oxidocomplexes under different alkaline pH
conditions. Compounds (S) and (T) respectively are:

MnO4
+ e-
-
+e OH
(T)

(S) + e-
(a) S=MnO(OH)2; T=Mn(OH)2 (b) S=MnO2; T=MnO(OH)
(c) S= MnO42-; T=MnO(OH) (d) S= MnO42-; T=MnO2

19. The correct order of relative strength for the following nucleophilic species is:

NH2 OCH3 CH3COO CH3OH

I II III IV

(a) IV > III > II > I (b) II > III > IV > I (c) I > II > IV > III (d) I > II > III > IV

20. The product obtained on reaction of optically pure 1-bromo-1-phenyl ethane with CH3OH, is:
(a) phenyl ethene.
(b) 1-methoxy-1-phenyl ethane with inverted configuration only.
(c) 1-methoxy-1-phenyl ethane with retention of configuration.
(d) a racemic mixture of 1-methoxy-1-phenyl ethane.

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21. An alkane [X] contains five 1º, two 2º, one 3º and one 4º carbon atoms. The IUPAC name of [X]
is:
(a) 2,4,4-trimethylhexane (b) 3,5-dimethylheptane
(c) 2,4-dimethylheptane (d) 4,4-dimethylheptane

22. The number of isomeric alkenes with molecular formula C5H10 is (taking stereoisomers into
account):
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

23. At 0º C, 1 equivalent bromine is added to 2,4-hexadiene to produce 4,5-dibromo-2-hexene and its

isomer ‘X’. ‘X’ is:
(a) 5,5-dibromo-2-hexene (b) 2,5-dibromo-3-hexene
(c) 2,2-dibromo-3-hexene (d) 2,3-dibromo-4-hexene

24. Which of the following is/are example/s of an acetal?

O O O
OCH3 CH3
O O CH3
O O O
I II III IV

(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) Only IV (d) I, II and III

25. The compound which can be produced by double aldol condensation of 1-phenyl-1,2-
propanedione:

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

26. 2,2-Dimethyl-1,3-propanediol is formed by heating 2-methylpropanal with an excess of

formaldehyde and Ca(OH)2. The sequence of reactions taking place in this synthesis is:
(a) dehydrogenation to 2-methyl-2-propenal followed by addition of formaldehyde.
(b) dehydrogenation to penta-2,3-diene followed by addition of formaldehyde.
(c) a crossed aldol reaction followed by a crossed Cannizzaro reaction.
(d) a crossed Cannizzaro reaction followed by a crossed aldol reaction.

27. Number of different types of dipeptides produced using a mixture of glycine and L-valine, and
number of optically active dipeptides formed in this mixture will be:
(a) Four dipeptides, all optically active (b) Two dipeptides, all optically active
(c) Four dipeptides, three optically active (d) Two dipeptides, none optically active

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28. Predict the major product in the following reaction.
PCC is pyridinium chlorochromate
1 . B2 H6, THF
2 H2O2 / HO-
R
R
3 PCC, 0 0C
O
O O R
R R
R R
(a) O (b) R (c) R H (d) O

29. Find out the product in the following reaction.

O 1. NH2NH2
Cl
2. KOH (excess)
Diethylene glycol
Heat

OH O
Cl

(a) (b) (c) (d)

30. The product/s obtained on reaction of biphenyl (Ph-Ph) with nitrating mixture (HNO3 + H2SO4)
is/are:

31. Chlorination of propane gives four dichloro products. One of them is optically active. The number
of trichloro products possible from the optically active dichloro product is (excluding
stereoisomers):
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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32. The suitable reagent for the following transformation is:

O OH
?

(a) Na / liq. NH3 (b) H2, Pd/C

(c) LiAlH4 (d) Zn-Hg, HCl, heat

33. Column A represents a set of functional groups and Column B their respective electronic effects.
The correct match is:
Column A Column B
(a) -NH2, -COCl, -SO3H, -COOH ; m-directing, EWG, activating, o/p-directing
(b) -X, -NHCOCH3, -CHO, -CH3 ; o/p directing, EDG, m-directing, activating
(c) -COCl, -COCH3, -NH2, -CN ; EDG, EWG, deactivating, m-directing
(d) -SO3H, -NH2, -OCH3, -CONH2 ; activating, deactivating, EWG, EWG

[EDG: Electron donating group and EWG: Electron withdrawing group]

34. The correct order of reactivity of -CHO, -COR, -COOR, -CONR2 groups toward MeMgI in ether
is:
(a) -CONR2 > -COOR > -COR > -CHO (b) -CHO > -COR > -COOR > -CONR2
(c) -CONR2 > -CHO > -COR > -COOR (d) -CHO > -CONR2 > -COOR > -COR
35. The plots of energy density (energy per unit area) vs wavelength for blackbody radiation at various
temperatures is given below.
The correct option among the following is:

(i) T1 > T2 >T3 >T4 >T5

(ii) As temperature increases, the wavelength at which the intensity is maximum shifts towards
the higher energy regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(iii) Radiations of all wave lengths are emitted, absorbed, reflected, and refracted by the black
body.
(iv) The total energy density increases as the temperature is decreased.

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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36. A student adds ‘x’ g of iron (Fe) powder to dil. HCl and measures the work done by the reaction
between HCl and the added Fe to be 1000 J. If the experiment was conducted at a constant
pressure of 1 atm at 27°C, mass of Fe powder added is:
(a) 22.4 g (b) 2.24 g (c) 11.2 g (d) 1.12 g

37. Antacids are medicines that temporarily neutralize the acid in the stomach and prevent heartburns.
The volume of an antacid syrup containing 2.9 g of Mg(OH) 2 per 100 mL to be given to a patient
whose stomach contains 2 L of gastric juice with HCl concentration of × is :
(Molar mass of Mg(OH)2 = 58.0 )
(a) 4.0 mL (b) 7.8 mL (c) 12.0 mL (d) 120 mL

38. A half-cell reaction represented by (i) as given below

𝐹𝑒(𝑂𝐻)2 (𝑠) + 2𝑒 ⟶ 𝐹𝑒(𝑠) + 2𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) 𝐸⊖ = − 9 𝑉 (i)

takes place in two different electrochemical cells, I and II, in which the other half cell
reactions are (ii) and (iii) respectively:

𝐴 + (𝑎𝑞) + 3𝑒 ⟶ 𝐴 (𝑠) 𝐸 ⊖ = − 7 𝑉 (ii)

𝐴 𝐵𝑟(𝑠) + 𝑒 ⟶ 𝐴 (𝑠) + 𝐵𝑟 (𝑎𝑞) 𝐸 ⊖ = − 7 𝑉 (iii)

The correct option that represents the redox reactions in cells I and II is:

(a) Fe is oxidised in cell I; Fe is oxidised in cell II

(b) Fe is oxidised in cell I; Fe is reduced in cell II
(c) Fe is reduced in cell I; Fe is reduced in cell II
(d) Fe is reduced in cell I; Fe is oxidised in cell II
39. The following are the concentration vs time plots of the reactants and products represented by the
reaction
L(g) + 2 M(g) N(g) + 3 O(g)
The curves that represent M(g) and N(g) qualitatively
are respectively

(a) X, Y
(b) Y, U
(c) V, Y
(d) U, X

40. The current produced due to photoelectric effect

(a) increases with the increase of frequency of the incident radiation.
(b) increases with the increase in intensity of the incident radiation.
(c) decreases with time of irradiation.
(d) is independent of the intensity of incident radiation.

41. The property of radiation that is not different at various regions of the electromagnetic
spectrum is:
(a) energy (b) frequency (c) velocity (d) wavelength

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42. Among the following, the correct statements about the compressibility factor (Z) of real gases are:
(i) If Z < 1, intermolecular repulsive forces are more dominant.
(ii) If Z < 1, intermolecular attractive forces are more dominant.
(iii) If Z > 1, intermolecular repulsive forces are more dominant.
(iv) If Z >1, intermolecular attractive forces are more dominant.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

43. The figure represents the processes AB, BC and CA undertaken

C
by a certain mass of an ideal gas. Along the path AB, the gas is
isothermally compressed with release of 800 J heat to the
surroundings. It is then compressed adiabatically along the path
BC and the work done is 500 J. The gas then returns to the state P
A along path CA and absorbs 100 J heat from the surroundings.
The work done by the gas along the path CA is:
(a) – 300 J (b) – 900 J B
A
(c) – 600 J (d) – 400 J
V

44. Two flasks I and II of equal volume are evacuated and connected by a tube of negligible volume
fitted with a stopcock. They are then placed in two different constant temperature baths of 250 K
and 750 K respectively. 20 moles of an ideal gas are introduced into the system of these flasks
through the stopcock. When the system reaches equilibrium, the ratio of the moles of the gas in
flasks I and II is:
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

45. When a certain amount of a univalent salt AB (molar mass = 54 ) was dissolved in
0.1 of water, the relative lowering of the vapour pressure was found to be 3.55%. The
molality of the resulting solution is:
(Assume complete dissociation of the salt under given condition. Density of water = )
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1.0 m (c) 2.0 m (d) 4.0 m

46. The rate constant values for the decay of radioisotopes X and Y, used in radio-medicine are 0.05 h-1
and 0.025 h-1 respectively. In a hospital, at a time ‘t0’ the activity of a sample of X was found to be
twice that of Y. The activities of the two radioisotopes will be approximately equal when the time
elapsed is:
(a) twice the half-life of Y (b) twice the half-life of X
(c) equal to the half-life of X (d) equal to ½ the half-life of Y

47. Latimer diagrams are the compact representations of electrochemical equilibria in

substances of multiple oxidation states. The value of the potential, x, in the Latimer
diagram of gold (at pH = 1.0) is:

(a) 2.72 V (b) 3.18 V (c) -3.18 V (d) 1.36 V

48. Electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 (0.1 M) was carried out in two cells I and II. In I, the electrodes
are of Cu and in II they were of Pt. As the electrolysis proceeds pH of the electrolyte solution will:
(a) decrease in II and remain the same in I (b) remain the same in both I and II
(c) increase in both I and II (d) increase in I and decrease in II

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A– 2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS (4, 3, 2 or 1) MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO INCORRECT.

49. Choose the correct statement(s) regarding zeolites:

(a) Silicon atoms are replaced by aluminium atoms in the zeolites.
(b) The pores and cavities of the zeolites as well as size and shape of reactant decides the
reactions taking place in the zeolites.
(c) The cracking of hydrocarbons and isomerisation reactions are catalyzed by zeolites in the
petrochemical industries.
(d) Zeolites act as molecular sieves and can separate the molecules of different sizes.

50. Crystalline iron(III) nitrate nonahydrate, Fe(NO3)3.9H2O, has a very pale violet colour. When
added to water, the crystals dissolve to form a brown solution. Treatment of this brown solution
with concentrated nitric acid yields a very pale violet solution while treatment with HCl yields a
yellow solution.
Identify the correct statements regarding the above observations.
(a) The brown colour is due to [Fe(OH)(H2O)5]2+, [Fe(OH)2(H2O)4]+
(b) Violet colour is due to [Fe(H2O)6]3+ and yellow colour due to [FeCl4]-
(c) Addition of HNO3 shifts the equilibrium [Fe(H2O)6] 3+ + H2O [Fe(OH)(H2O)5]2+ + H3O+
to left giving pale violet colour
(d) Addition of HNO3 shifts the equilibrium [Fe(H2O)6] 3+ + H2O [Fe(OH)(H2O)5]2+ + H3O+
to right giving violet colour

51. The optically active compounds from the following are:

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH Br3 Br CH3

CH3
CH3 CH3 CH CH3 CHBr 3
CH CH
Br CH3
(a)
(i) H3C (i) H3C
CH
3 (ii)
H C
CH33 Br(b)
(ii) 3
(ii) H3C Br
(i) H3C (i) H3C 3 (ii) 3
CH3 CH3 CH3HCH Br H3C Br
CH 3C 3
CH
CH CH 3 3 3
3
CH3 CH3
Br Br CH3 CH3
Br Br
Br Br H3C
Br (iv) Br H3C
(iii)
(c) H3C (iii)
CH (iv)
(d) CH
H33C
(iii) (iii) 3H3C (iv) H CH3C
3 (iv) CH3
CHH CH H3C CH3
H3C 3 3C 3 CH3 H3C
H3C H3C

52. 3-chlorotoluene is reacted with a mixture of conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. The product/s formed is/are:
Cl CH3
ClCl (i) Cl CH
(ii)CH
3 3 O2N
NO2 CH3
(i)(i) (ii)(ii) O2ON2N
(a) NO
(i)NO
2 2 (ii) (b) O2N
Cl
H3C NO2
ClCl
H3HC3C Cl
H3C
CH3
CH
CH
3 3
CH3
(iii) (iv) CH3
(c)(iii)(iii) Cl (iv)
(iv)
CH(d)
CH
3 3 O2N NO2
(iii) (iv) CH3
ClCl NO2 O2ON2N NO
NO
2 2
Cl O2N NO2
NO
NO2 2 Cl
NO2
ClCl
Cl

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53. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol is more acidic than phenol. Identify the correct statement(s)
(a) pKa for 2,4,6-trinitrophenol is less than that of phenol.
(b) phenol is stabilized by intramolecular π hydrogen bonding.
(c) The conjugate base of 2,4,6-trinitrophenol delocalizes the negative charge on the oxygen
atom to a very large extent.
(d) The conjugate base of phenol delocalizes the negative charge to a greater extent than the
conjugate base of 2,4,6-trinitrophenol.

54. The correct statements for 1,3-butadiene from following are:

(a) Molar addition of Br2 yields only 1,4-dibromo-2-butene as the major product when
the reaction is performed for longer time period
(b) Molar addition of Br2 yields only 1,2-dibromo-2-butene for longer time period
(c) C1 – C2 and C3 – C4 bonds are slightly longer than a C=C bond
(d) C2 – C3 single bond is slightly shorter than a C – C bond

55. Which of the following representations will exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

CH3 CH3
COOH H3C
(a) (b)
CH3

CH3 CH3
H3C
(c) (d)
CH3

56. For an elementary dimerization reaction of the type 2R  R2, the value of the steric factor was
found to be 2.5. This indicates that
(a) the experimentally obtained rate is 2.5 times faster than the theoretical rate.
(b) ratio of the number of collisions calculated from collision theory and that actually take place
is 1: 2.5.
(c) the activation energy of the reaction is the same for both the experimental and calculated
values.
(d) the molecules of reactant R may be of some complex structure.

57. The correct statement/s among the following is/are:

(a) The charge on the diffused layer of AgI colloidal solution by the addition of few drops of
dilute aqueous solution of KI to an aqueous solution of AgNO3 is negative.
(b) The charge on the diffused layer of AgI colloidal solution by the addition of few drops of
dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3 to an aqueous solution of KI is positive.
(c) When the ionic strength of a colloidal solution is increased, thickness of the double layer
is increased, and the colloid gets precipitated.
(d) When the ionic strength of a colloidal solution is increased, thickness of the double layer
is decreased, and the colloid gets precipitated.

58. In reverse osmosis the flow of solvent across semi permeable membrane occurs
(a) when hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure
(b) when hydrostatic pressure is lower than osmotic pressure
(c) from higher concentrated solution to lower concentrated solution
(d) from lower concentrated solution to higher concentrated solution

12
 31
59. Given below is the plot of pH vs volume of NaOH added in an acid-base titration. The correct
statement/s among the following is/are:

(a) Before the equivalence point, a series

of buffer solutions determine the pH.
(b) The graph represents the titration of a
strong acid with NaOH.
(c) At the equivalence point, hydrolysis
of the anion of the acid determines
the pH.
(d) After the equivalence point acid/salt
buffer solution determines the pH.

60. The correct statement/s among the following is/are:

(a) The probability density (ψ2) for a hydrogen atom is zero at r = 0.
(b) In an atom, orbitals with the same quantum number have different energies.
(c) The energy of a given orbital with same principal quantum number decreases as the atomic
number ‘Z’, increases.
(d) For a given atomic number, the configuration having the maximum number of parallel spins
is of the lowest energy than any other arrangement arising from the same configuration.

13
31

14
 31

Rough Work

15
 /KYͲ31
Time: 2:30 PM to 3:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 31
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the question paper code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the space provided),
otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same Question Paper Code appears
on each page of the question paper.

Instructions to Candidates:
1. Use of mobile phone, smart watch, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS as well
as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and filling the
bubbles.
5. Your fourteen-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain your login
credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance / result in Indian Olympiad
Qualifier in Chemistry 2020 – 21 (Part I).
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of which only
one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown.

Q.No.12 a c d
A
In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 32) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative(s) (1, 2,
3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s), as shown

Q.No.30 a c

7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No negative marks in this
part.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided. There are 1 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non - programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR answer sheet.

OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

1
 31
Instructions to Candidates (Continued) :
You may read the following instructions after submitting the answer sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on the
Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iaptexam.in on the specified format till February 12, 2021.

13. The answers/solutions to this question paper will be available on the website:
www.iapt.org.in by February 13, 2021.

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS:

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT / ACT to students, successful in the
Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Chemistry 2020 – 21 (Part I).
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %”
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %”
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1 %”
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend OCSC – 2021 at
HBCSE Mumbai.

15. All these certificates (except gold medal) will be downloadable from IAPT website:
www.iapt.org.in after March 15, 2021.

16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS will be
displayed on the website: www.iapt.org.in by Feb 25, 2021. See the Minimum Admissible
Score Clause on the Student’s brochure on the web.

17. List of students eligible for evaluation of IOQC 2020-21 (Part II) shall be displayed on
www.iapt.org.in by March 1, 2021.

Useful constants
Charge of electron, e 1.602 u1019 C
31
Mass of electron, me 9.1u10 kg
34
Planck’s constant, h 6.626 u10 J s
Speed of light, c 3.0 u108 ms 1
1
Avogadro constant, N A 6.022 u10 mol
23

1 1
Molar gas constant, R 0.082 L atm mol K
8.314 J mol 1 K 1

2
 31

Question Paper Code: 31

Time : 60 Minutes Max. Marks: 120

Attempt All The Thirty two Questions

A–1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION

1. Reaction of ammonia with diborane gives an ionic product (B2H6.2NH3).

The hybridization of boron in the cation and anion of this product are respectively
(a) sp3 in both (b) sp3 and sp2 (c) sp2 and sp3 (d) sp2 in both

2. A sequence of reactions of phosphorous (P4) is given below

The correct set of products (Q, R, S and T) among the following is
O2(g)
Q(l) R (l)

Cl2(g)

H2O (l)
P4
O2(g)
323 K
H2O (l)
S (s) T (aq)

(a) Q = PCl3; R = POCl3; S = P2O3; T = H3PO3

(b) Q = PCl5; R = P2O5; S = P4O6; T = H3PO3
(c) Q = PCl3; R = POCl3; S = P4O10; T = H3PO4
(d) Q = PCl5; R = P4O10; S = P4O10; T = H3PO4
3. In the gaseous state of Fe(CO)5, the ‘d’ orbital that would participate in hybridization is
(a) †௫మ ି௬మ (b) †୸మ
(c) †୶୸ (d) any one of the ‘d’ orbitals

4. Among the following, the correct statement/s about ‘p’ block elements is/are
I. The valence shell electronic configuration of all of them is ns2 np1-6
II. Only in p block, metals, nonmetals and metalloids are present
III. Halogens have the lowest negative electron gain enthalpy in the respective periods
IV. Noble gases have no tendency to accept an electron and hence they have large
negative values of electron gain enthalpy
(a) I, IV (b) II, III (c) IV only (d) II only

3
 31
5. A chemical reaction is carried out at two different temperatures T1 and T2 (T2 > T1) and also
with and without a catalyst.
The statement that is correct among the following is
(a) Lowering in the activation energy of the reaction due to catalyst would be
higher at T2 than at T1
(b) Lowering in the activation energy of the reaction due to catalyst would be
higher at T1 than at T2
(c) The factor by which the rate of the reaction is increased by the catalyst would be
lower at T2 than at T1
(d) The factor by which the rate of the reaction is increased by the catalyst would be
higher at T 2 than at T1

6. The product ‘P’ in the following sequence of reactions is

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

7. Among the following, maximum number of resonance structures is possible for

(a) PO43 (b) SO42 (c) CO32 (d) MnO4

8. A mixture of sodium (Na) and potassium (K) metals weighing 32 g was reacted with water
and the solution obtained could be neutralized with 517.3 mL of 1.0 M H2SO4 (aq).
The mass of sodium that was present in the mixture is
(a) 20 g (b) 16 g (c) 10 g (d) 12 g

9.The mass ratio of steam and hydrogen is found to be 1:1.5 at equilibrium in the
following reaction
3Fe ሺsሻ + 4H2 O ሺgሻ ֖ Fe3 O4 ሺsሻ + 4H2 (g)
The value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) of the above reaction is
(a) 3.0 x 10-5 (b) 3.3 x 104 (c) 3.3 x 106 (d) 1.3 x 103

4
 31

10. Two students did a set of experiments on ketones ‘X’ and ‘Y’ independently and obtained the
following results.

Reaction /Experiment X Y
Optical rotation Yes Yes
Optical rotation
Zero Yes
after treatment with a base
NH2NH2, KOH, Heat Formation of an Formation of an optically inactive
optically inactive hydrocarbon C6H12
hydrocarbon
C6H12
The ketones ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are respectively
(a) 2-ethylcyclobutanone and 3-ethylcyclobutanone
(b) 2-methylcyclopentanone and 3-methylcyclopentanone
(c) 3-methylcyclopentanone and 2-methylcyclopentanone
(d) 3-methyl-4-penten-2-one and 4-methyl-1-penten-3-one

11. Glycine (C2H5O2N) is the simplest of amino acids. Molecular formula of the linear oligomer
synthesized by linking ten glycine molecules together via a condensation reaction would be
(a) C20H32O11N10 (b) C20H68O29N10 (c) C20H40O10N10 (d) C20H50O20N10

12. If Ni2+ is replaced by Pt2+ in the complex ion [NiCl2Br2]2, which of the following
would change?
I. Magnetic moment II. Geometry
III. Geometrical isomerism IV. Optical isomerism
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III (c) I, II (d) II, III, IV

13. An inorganic compound ‘X’ of an alkali metal on heating gives a reddish-brown gas ‘Y’ and
a binary solid ‘Z’. This solid is less soluble in water and its solution is basic. ‘X’ does not give
a positive silver nitrate test. ‘X’ can be identified as
(a) KIO3 (b) LiNO3 (c) NaNO3 (d) KNO2

14. The qualitative plots given represent the yield of the product,
[XY], at equilibrium in the reaction X(g) + Y(g) ֖XY(g),
as a function of temperature, at total pressures P1 and P2.
The reaction is

(a) endothermic and P1 < P2 (b) endothermic and P2 < P1

(c) exothermic and P1 > P2 (d) exothermic and P2 > P1

15. When 6.8 g of AgNO3 completely reacts with H3PO2, metallic silver produced (g) and H3PO2
consumed (mole) are respectively
(a) 4.32 and 0.1 (b) 1.08 and 0.01
(c) 4.32 and 0.01 (d) 2.16 and 0.01

5
 31

16. Lovastatin, a drug used to reduce the risk of cardio vascular diseases has the following
structure
HO O

O
O

O CH3
H
H3 C CH3

CH3
Lovastatin
The number of stereogenic centers present in lovastatin is
(a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

17. Among the following sets, the one in which all the molecules are non polar is
(a) XeF4, XeO3, XeO4 (b) XeF2, XeO4, XeOF4
(c) XeF2, XeF4, XeO4 (d) XeF2, XeO3, XeOF4

18. Gas phase reactions (i) and (ii) are of first and second order respectively
2N2O5 Æ 4NO2 + O2 …………………. (i)
2NO + O2 Æ 2NO2……………………… (ii)
Under certain conditions, the rate constants (k1, k2) of (i) and (ii) respectively, have the same
numerical value, when the concentrations of the reactants are expressed in mol/dm3.
If the concentrations are expressed in mol/mL, the correct relationship between k1 and k2 is
(a)  ଶ šͳͲିଷ ൌ  ଵ (b)  ଶ šͳͲଷ ൌ  ଵ
(c) ଵ ൌ   ଶ (d) ଵ šͳͲ଺ ൌ   ଶ

19. The correct sequence of reactions to get ‘Q’ as the only product from ‘P’ is

(a) (i) H2 & Pt catalyst (ii) C2H5Cl & AlCl3

(b) (i) Mg in ether (ii) aqueous alcohol (iii) C2H5Cl & AlCl3
(c) (i) Mg in ether (ii) C2H5Cl & AlCl3
(d) (i) C2H5Cl & AlCl3 (ii) Mg in ether (iii) aqueous alcohol

6
 31
20. The Galvanic cell can be represented as Zn / Zn2+ (0.1M) // Cu2+ (0.1M)/Cu.
Among the following, the cell that can produce an EMF more than that of the
Galvanic cell is
(E0 of Zn2+/Zn and Cu2+/Cu are -0.763V and 0.337V respectively)
(a) Zn / Zn2+ (0.1M) // Cu2+ (0.01M)/Cu (b) Zn / Zn2+ (1M) // Cu2+ (0.01M)/Cu
(c) Zn / Zn2+ (0.01M) // Cu2+ (1M)/Cu (d) Zn / Zn2+ (0.01M) // Cu2+ (0.01M)/Cu

21. The correct match of the molecules in column I and reactions in column II is

Column I Column II

O (L) Coloration with FeCl3

NH2
i)
H3C

O (M) Effervescence with NaHCO3

CH3

ii) H2N

O (N) Yellow precipitate with

NaOH and I2
H
iii) H3C
N
H

H (O) Yellow oil with

NaNO2, HCl at 0 oC
NH
iv)
(P) Heating with NaOH gives out
HO
a gas that turns moist turmeric
paper brown

(a) i)-N ii)-L iii)-O iv)-M

(b) i)-O ii)-N iii)-L iv)- P
(c) i)-P ii)-O iii)-L iv)-M
(d) i)-P ii)-N iii)-O iv)-L

7
 31
22. While doing titration, a student recorded a burette reading of 10.0 mL for the neutralization of
10.0 mL NaHC2O4 (aq) with 0.1 M NaOH (aq). In a separate experiment, 10.0 mL of this
NaHC2O4 (aq) solution could be completely oxidized by 10.0 mL of KMnO4 in an acidic
medium.
What would be the molarity of KMnO4 used by this student?
(a) 0.02 M (b) 0.04 M (c) 0.1 M (d) 0.2 M

23. Pheromones are chemicals that animals produce for social response. The structure of
brevicomin, a pheromone, is shown below. The open chain ketodiol that would form
brevicomin is
O
CH3
O
H3C
Brevicomin

(a) 7,8-dihydroxynonan-3-one (b) 6,7-dihydroxynonan-3-one

(c) 7,8-dihydroxynonan-2-one (d) 6,7-dihydroxynonan-2-one

24. The best reagents and conditions to accomplish the following conversion is

(a) (i) LiAlH4 in ether, (ii) 3 moles of CH3I followed by heating with AgOH
(b) (i) LiAlH4 in ether; (ii) P2O5 and heat
(c) (i) 20 % H2SO4 & heat, (ii) P2O5 and heat
(d) H2 and Lindlar catalyst

8
 31

A2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS, 4, 3, 2 or 1 MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO WRONG OPTION

25. The correct statement/s among the following is/are

(a) Intermolecular forces in n-heptane are stronger than those in 2-methylheptane
(b) Boiling point of 2,2-dimethylpentane is higher than that of 2, 2-dimethylbutane
(c) Both hydrogen bonding and van der Waals forces exist between
molecules of 2-methylbutan-2-ol
(d) In 2,2-dimethylbutane, 1°, 2° and 3° types of carbon atoms are present

26. Which of the following aqueous solution/s will have a pH value between 4.0 and 5.0
at 25 ºC?
(a) 0.01 M solution of benzoic acid (Ka= 6.6 x 105 at 25 ºC)
(b) 0.02 mol benzoic acid and 0.05 mol sodium benzoate dissolved in appropriate
amount of water to make a solution of 1L
(c) A mixture of 999 mL water and 1mL 0.2 M HCl
(d) 499 mL of 0.01M NaOH and 501 mL of 0.01 M HCl mixed together

27. The energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous species ‘X’ to form ‘X+’ is known
as first ionization energy (IE) of X. The energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous
species ‘X+’ to form ‘X++’ is called the second IE of X. Similarly, the energy required to
remove an electron from a gaseous species X- to form X is called the IE of X-.
Identify the correct statement/s from the following
(a) The second IE of the He atom is four times that of the (first) IE of the H atom.
(b) The first IEs of F, Ne and Na atoms follow the order IE(Na) < IE(Ne) < IE(F)
(c) The second IE of the H- ion is much less than the (first) IE of the H atom.
(d) The IEs of Li, Na and K atoms follow the order IE(K) < IE(Na) < IE (Li)

28. The product/s formed in the following reaction is/are

(a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D)

9
 31

29. Which of the following option/s is /are correct?

(a) C2 is paramagnetic
(b) He2+ has the same energy as that of two isolated He atoms
(c) S2 is paramagnetic and S22 is diamagnetic
(d) N2+ and N2 have the same bond order

30. Nitromethane undergoes an aldol type reaction with a racemic mixture of

2-methylcyclohexanone in presence of aqueous NaOH in two steps (I, II) to give the product ‘P’.
The statement/s NOT correct among the following is/are

A1

(a) The equilibrium in step I will be more towards the right as water is
a stronger acid than nitromethane
(b) The carbanion formed in reaction I can be stabilized due to resonance
(c) The product formed will be a mixture of four stereoisomers in the form of
two pairs of enantiomers
(d) The mixture of products formed can be readily dehydrated to give a single product

31. The structures of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) in the solid and gaseous states are given below.
H2O2 (l) is slightly more viscous than H2O (l). The correct option/s among the
following is/are

(a) Both O atoms are near enough to cause repulsion between the electron lone
pairs thus making the O-O bond susceptible for cleavage
(b) The strong intermolecular H-bonding along with restricted rotation present in the liquid
state of H2O2 make it more viscous than H2O (l)
(c) The molecule gets twisted to minimize the repulsion between the lone pair and
bond pair of electrons
(d) The difference in the dihedral angles in the solid and gaseous states is a consequence of
hydrogen bonding between the molecules

10
 31

32. Viruses are nonliving complex chemical entities. They undergo inactivation and hence lose
the ability to infect a host, with time. Concentration (expressed as ‘median tissue culture
infectious dose’, TCID/ml, a unit used in expressing virus concentrations) vs. time plots of
a corona virus on the surfaces of a paper currency note and a plastic currency note are shown
below. Both these plots have two separate regions (shown by vertical lines in the plots),
indicating two time zones.

I. Paper currency note

II. Plastic currency note

The correct option/s among the following is/are

(a) Inactivation of the virus follows zero order kinetics in 1st zone and
first order kinetics in 2nd zone
(b) The rate of inactivation is independent of the surface material
(c) The virus reacts with different chemical entities/substances in 1st zone and 2nd zone
(d) On both the surfaces, at least 95 % of the virus is inactivated within 10 h

11

 C321

INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY 2018 -19

Date of Examination: 25TH November, 2018

Time: 1100 to 1300 Hrs

Q. Paper Code: C321

Write the question paper code mentioned above on YOUR answer sheet (in
the space provided), otherwise your answer sheet will NOT be assessed.
Note that the same Q. P. Code appears on each page of the question paper.
Instructions to Candidates –

1. Use of mobile phones, smartphones, ipads during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.

2. In addition to this question paper, you are given answer sheet along with Candidate’s copy.
3. On the answer sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK
CAPITALS as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the answer sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and
filling the bubbles.
5. The email ID and date of birth entered in the answer sheet will be your login credentials for
accessing performance report. Please take care while entering.
6. Question paper has 80 multiple choice questions. Each question has four alternatives, out
of which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble,
as shown.

7. A correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
8. Any rough work should be done only in the space provided.
9. Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting your answer paper, take away the Candidate’s copy for your reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles properly in the
space provided on the answer sheet.

Answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT ALLOWED.

Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE ANSWER SHEET.

1
 C321

Instructions to Candidates (continued) –

Read the following instructions after submitting the answer sheet.

12. Comments regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared only on Google forms,
https://goo.gl/forms/Lxb1l8Bqov3Cl9FQ2 till 27th November, 2018.
13. The answers/solutions to this question paper will be available on our website –
www.iapt.org.in by 2nd December, 2018.
14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –
Following certificates are awarded by the IAPT to students successful in NSEs
(i) “Centre Top 10%” that will be sent to NSE centre by post.

(ii) “Statewise Top 1%” that can be downloaded after Feb -15th, 2019 from iapt.org.in

(iii) “National Top 1%”. Certificates can be downloaded after Feb -15th, 2019 from iapt.org.in

15. Result sheets can be downloaded from our website in the month of February. The “Centre
Top 10%” certificates will be dispatched to the Prof-in-charge of the centre by February,
2019.
16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS will be
displayed on our website (www.iapt.org.in) by 22nd December, 2018. See the Eligibility
Clause in the Student’s brochure on our website.
17. Students eligible for the INO Examination on the basis of selection criteria mentioned in
Student’s brochure will be informed accordingly.
18. Students qualified for OCSC (Chemistry) – 2019 will be awarded gold medals.

Useful Constants:

Charge of electron, e = 1.602  1019 C

Mass of electron, me = 9.1  1031 kg

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626  1034 J s

Speed of light, c = 3.0  108 m s1

Avogadro constant, NA = 6.022  1023 mol1

Molar gas constant, R = 0.082 L atm mol1 K1

= 8.314 J mol1 K1

2
 C321

INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY 2018-19
Total Time: 120 minutes Marks: 240

Only one out of four options is correct

(1) Which of the energy values marked as I,II and III in the following diagram, will
change by the addition of a suitable catalyst?

(A) II only (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) III only

(2) The product ‘X’ in the following reaction is

(A) a racemic mixture of ester (B) an optically inactive ester

(C) an optically active ester (D) a meso ester

(3) At 298 K, change in internal energy for the complete combustion of fullerene, C60(s),
an allotrope of carbon, and the enthalpy of formation of CO 2 (g) are -25970 kJ mol-1
and -393 kJ mol-1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of C60 (s) at 298 K is
(A) – 2390 kJ (B) 4.95 x104 kJ (C) 2.60 x104 kJ (D) 2390 kJ

(4) Which of the following is not paramagnetic?

(A) S2 (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) NO

3
 C321

(5) Solubility product of AgCl is 1.8  1010. The minimum volume (in L) of water
required to dissolve 1 mg of AgCl is close to
(A) 0.5 (B) 7.5 (C) 50 (D) 0.75

(6) The complex [M(en)(Br)2(Cl)2] has two optical isomers. Their configurations
can be represented as

(7) A sample of water from a river was analyzed for the presence of metal ions and the
observations were recorded as given below
Reagent added Observation
dil. HCl No change
aq. Na2CO3 White precipitate
aq. Na2SO4 No change

The water sample is likely to contain

(A) Ba2+ (B) Cu 2+ (C) Li+ (D) Mg2+

(8) The lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution in water for solid NaCl are 753 kJ
mol1 and 5 kJ mol1 respectively(Fig above). If the solution enthalpies of Na+ and
Cl are in the ratio 6:5, the enthalpy of hydration of Na+ ion is
(A) 408 kJ mol-1 (B) -412 kJ mol-1 (C) 408 kJ mol-1 (D) – 412 kJ mol-1

(9) The gaseous product obtained on reaction of BF3 with LiH is

(A) HF (B) H2 (C) B2H6 (D) F2

4
 C321

(10) The equilibrium constant K for the reversible reaction AB is 2 x103 at 350K. The
rate constants of the forward reaction in the presence and absence of a suitable
catalyst at the same temperature are 5x104 s1 and 4x106 s1 respectively. The rate
constant of the reverse reaction in the absence of the catalyst is
(A) 2 x 103 s1 (B) 2.5 x 101 s1 (C) 1.6 x107 s1 (D) 1.25 x102 s1

(11) The number of stereoisomers possible for the following compound

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 16 (D) 32

V0 bP
(12) An adsorption isotherm equation proposed by Langmuir is of the form V 
(1  bP)
where V is the volume of gas adsorbed at pressure P. For a given
adsorbate/adsorbent system, V0 and b are constants. The dependence of V on P can
be depicted as

(B)
(A)

1/V 1/V

1/P 1/P

(C) (D)

1/V
V

P
P

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(13) For the reaction 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g )  2N2O5(g), ΔHreaction = 112 kJ. If the N2O5 is
assumed to be formed in the reaction as a solid, ΔHreaction will be (ΔHsublimation of
N2O5 is 54 kJ mol1)
(A) – 220 kJ (B) – 4 kJ (C) – 166 kJ (D) –332 kJ

(14) Urea, CO(NH2)2, decomposes at 90°C as CO(NH2)2 (aq)  NH4+ (aq) + OCN– (aq)
Experimental data obtained for the reaction is given in the following plot

0.1
[CO(NH2)2] (M)

0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
0 10 20 30
Time (h)

From the graph it can be inferred that

(A) Average rate of the reaction is the same for successive time intervals of 10 h
(B) unit of rate constant of the reaction is h1
(C) rate constant of the reaction is the lowest at 30 h
(D) the reaction is of zero order

(15) If for an aqueous solution of a weak acid, pH= pKa +2 at 25°C, the approximate
fraction of the acid in the dissociated form is
(A) 1.1% (B) 0.99 % (C) 99.0 % (D) 9.9%

(16) 2.0 L of N2 gas kept at 25⁰ C and 5 atm pressure were expanded isothermally against
a constant pressure of 1 atm until the pressure of the gas reaches 1 atm. Assuming
ideal behaviour, reversible work of expansion in this process ( in J) is close to
(A) 810 J (B) 194 kJ (C) – 810 kJ (D) 3390 kJ

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(17) The compound which would undergo a reaction with ammonia by SN1 mechanism
is

(18) The daily energy requirement of a teenager is 7800 kJ. As calculated from the data
given in the table below, the amount of glucose he has to consume (g) per day
assuming that the entire energy he requires comes from the combustion of glucose is

Molecule ∆Hf (kJ mol1)

C6H12O6 -1273
CO2 (g) -394
H2O -286

(A) 262 (B) 500 (C) 131 (D) 250

(19) The pressure inside two gas cylinders of volume 25 m3 and 50 m3 are 10 kPa and
20 kPa respectively. The cylinders are kept at the same temperature and sepearted by
a valve. What is the pressure in the combined system when the valve is opened?
(A) 30 kPa (B) 15 kPa (C) 16.7 kPa (D) 2.5 kPa

(20) Aluminium and copper are extracted from their oxide and sulphide ores respectively.
Which of the following is correct?
I. Copper is extracted by the auto reduction of copper oxide by copper sulphide
II. Aluminium cannot be obtained by chemical reduction due to its strong affinity for
oxygen
III. In electrometallurgy of Al, graphite is used as cathode to avoid reoxidation of Al
into Al2O3 by preventing formation of O2.
IV. Sulphide ores of copper are difficult to be reduced than the oxide ores
(A) I, II, IV (B) II and III (C) II and III (D) II and IV

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(21) Which of the following graphs describes the relationship between [H 3O+] and [OH]
in an aqueous solution at a constant temperature?

(A) (B)

[OH]
[OH]

0 [H3O+]
0 [H3O+]

(C) (D)

[OH]
[OH]

0 [H3O+] 0
[H3O+]

(22) From the given standard electrode potentials

Sn4+ (aq) + 2e–  Sn2+ (aq) E0= 0.15 V
Br2(l) + 2e–  2Br (aq) E0=1.07 V
The approximate free energy change for the process
2Br  (aq) + Sn4+(aq)  Br2 (l) + Sn2+(aq) is
(A) 177.6 kJ (B) 355 kJ (C) –177.6 kJ (D) –355 kJ

(23) Number of moles of KClO3 that have to be heated to produce 1.0 L of O2 (g) at STP
can be expressed as
(A) 1/3 (1/22.4) (B) ½ (1/22.4) (C) 2/3 (1/22.4) (D) 3/2 (22.4)

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(24) The sequence of reagents required for the following conversion is

(A) (i) B2H6/H2O2 /OH (ii) Na (iii) C2H5I (B) (i) HCl (ii) C2H5ONa
(C) (i) H3O+ (ii) Na (iii) C2H5OH (D) (i) H3O+ (ii) Na (iii) C2H5Cl

(25) Among the following, number of oxygen atoms present is the maximum in
(A) 1.0 g of O2 molecules (B) 4.0 g of O atoms
(C) 1.0 g of O3 (D) 1.7g of H2O

(26) Which of the following elements will exhibit photoelectric effect with light of the
longest wavelength?
(A) K (B) Rb (C) Mg (D) Ca

(27) Compound ‘X’ in the following reaction is

(i) O
(ii) Zn / H O
(iii) Cl / NaOH
(iv) H O+ Adipic Acid

(28) The standard molar entropies of H2 (g), N2 (g) and NH3 (g) are 130, 190 and
193 J mol1 K1 respectively. For the reaction ½ N2 (g) + 3/2H2 (g) ⇌ NH3 (g)
(ΔHreaction = 45 kJ) to be in equilibrium, the temperature must be equal to
(A) 464 K (B) 928 K (C) 737 K (D) 354 K

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(29) Density of CO2 gas at 0 °C and 2.00 atm pressure can be expressed as
(A) 2 g m3 (B) 4 g m3 (C) 4 × 103 kg m3 (D) 8 g L1

(30) The maximum number of moles of CH3I consumed by one mole of crixivan, a drug
used against AIDS is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7

(31) Concentration of K+ ions inside a biological cell was found to be 25 times higher
than that outside. The magnitude of the potential difference between the two sides of
the cell is close to (2.303 RT/F can be taken as 59 mV; difference in concentrations
of other ions can be taken as negligible.)
(A) 4.2 mV (B) 195 mV (C) 82 mV (D) -82 mV

(32) The standard redox potential for the reaction 2H2O  O2 + 4H+ + 4 e is –1.23V.
If the same reaction is carried out at 25⁰C and at pH =7, the potential will be
(A) –0.82 V (B) 3.28 V (C) 0.82 V (D) 1.18 V

(33) The order of pKa values of the following acids is

(A) IV > I > III > II (B) III > IV > I > II
(C) II > I > III > IV (D) II > III > I > IV

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(34) If the radius of the hydrogen atom is 53 pm, the radius of the He+ ion is close to
(A) 75 pm (B) 38 pm (C) 106 pm (D) 27 pm

(35) A substance X was heated at constant pressure and the temperature observed at
various times of heating was plotted as given below

Which of the following is/are correct?

I. Melting point of X is -5°C
II. Solid and liquid forms of X coexist in the region b
III. Boiling point of X is 55°C
IV. Solid and liquid forms of X coexist in the region d

(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) III only (D) I , II and III

(36) The major product of the following reaction is

conc. HNO
conc. H SO

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(37) In which of the following, all the bond lengths are not the same?
I. IF4+ II. BF4- III. SF4 IV.TeCl4
(A) I, II , IV (B) II, III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III

(38) Among the following, the reaction/s that can be classified as oxidation- reduction
is /are
I. Cr2O72 (aq) + 2 OH (aq)  2 CrO42 + H2O (l)
II. SiCl4 (l) + 2Mg (s)  2MgCl2 (l) + Si (s)
III. 6Cl2 (l) + 12KOH (l)  2KClO3 (s) + 10 KCl + 6H2O (l)
IV. 2 H2O2  2H2O (l) + O2 (g)
(A) I and IV (B) I, II and III (C) II, III and IV (D) IV only

(39) Among the following pairs, the one in which both the compounds as pure liquids can
show significant auto ionization is
(A) H2O and H2S (B) BrF3 and ICl3
(C) PF5 and PCl5 (D) HF and HCl

(40) The number of quaternary and chiral carbon atoms present in elatol, isolated from an
algae are respectively

(A) 2, 3 (B) 4, 2 (C) 3, 2 (D) 1, 3

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(41) Compounds X (pKa ~ 15) and Y (pKa ~ 10), both produce H2 on treatment with
sodium metal and both yield a mixture of isomers on mononitration. X and Y
respectively are

(A) IV, I (B) III, II (C) III, I (D) I, III

(42) A crystal of KCl containing a small amount of CaCl2 will have

(A) vacant Cl sites
(B) vacant K+ sites and a higher density as compared to pure KCl
(C) vacant K+ sites and a lower density as compared to pure KCl
(D) K+ ions in the interstitial sites

(43) In the following reaction, the values of a, b and c, respectively are

a F2(g) + b OH-(aq) c F(aq) + d OF2(g) + e H2O(l)
(A) 3, 2, 4 (B) 3, 4, 2 (C) 2, 2, 4 (D) 2, 2, 2

(44) The monosaccharide present in the following disaccharide is

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(45) The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(en)(NH3)(Cl)2(ONO)][Ag(CN)2]is

(A) monoamminedichlorido(ethane-1,2-diammine)nitritoplatinum(IV)
dicyanoargentate(I)
(B) monoaminebischlorido(ethane-1,2-diamine)nitroplatinate(IV) dicyanosilver(I)
(C) monoaminebischlorido(ethane-1,2-diammine)nitritoplatinate(IV)
dicyanoargentate(I)
(D) monoamminedichlorido(ethane-1,2-diamine)nitritoplatinum(IV)
dicyanoargentate(I)

(46) The correct order of basicity of the following species is

(A) III < IV < II < I (B) III < I < II < IV
(C) III < II < I < IV (D) IV < I < II < III

(47) Which among the following is nonlinear?

(A) N3 (B) ClF2 (C) Br3 (D) BrCl2+

(48) The compound most likely to lose water on protonation is

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(49) The Newman projection shown is the same as

(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I and II

(50) Which one of the following is not used as a monomer for the synthesis of a high
molecular weight silicone polymer?
(A) MeSiCl3 (B) Me2SiCl2 (C) Me3SiCl (D) PbSiCl3

(51) In YBa2Cu3O7-x, a superconducting oxide that got George Bednorz and Karl Muller
the Nobel prize in 1986, Cu can exist in both +2 and +3 oxidation states and their
proportion depends on the value of ‘x’. In YBa2Cu3O7-0.5.
(A) 0.5 moles of Cu are in +3 oxidation state
(B) 5% of Cu is in +3 oxidation state
(C) All the Cu is in +3 oxidation state
(D) All Cu is in +2 oxidation state

(52) Compound ‘Y’ (molar mass = 88.12 g mol1) containing 54.52 % carbon, 9.17 %
hydrogen and 36.31% oxygen gives a reddish-brown precipitate in Fehling’s test. ‘Y’
is

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(53) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 1-Bromo-4-chloro-3-ethenylbutane
(B) 4-Bromo-1-chloro-3-ethenylbutane
(C) 3-(Bromomethyl)-5-chloropent-1-ene
(D) 3-(Bromomethyl)-1-chloropent-4-ene

(54) The correct order of boiling points of the following compounds is

(A) III < IV < II < I (B) I < III < IV < II
(C) I < II < III < IV (D) IV < III < I < II

(55) Which of the following is a strong oxidising agent?

(A) AlCl3 (B) TlCl3 (C) NF3 (D) PCl3

(56) The molecule in which all atoms are not coplanar is

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(57) The most stable radical among the following is

. .
.
.

(58) During World War II, soldiers posted at high altitudes experienced crumbling of the
tin buttons of their uniforms into a grey powder. This can be attributed to
(A) oxidation of tin
(B) interaction with nitrogen in the air at low pressure
(C) change in the crystal structure of tin
(D) reaction of tin with water vapour in the air

(59) The molecules that can exhibit tautomerism are

II III IV
(A) I, IV (B) II, III (C) III, IV (D) I, II

(60) A scientist attempts to replace a few carbon atoms in 1.0 g of diamond with boron
atoms or nitrogen atoms in separate experiments. Which of the following is correct?
(A) The resulting material with B doping will be an n-type semiconductor
(B) The resulting material with B doping will be a p-type semiconductor
(C) B doping is NOT possible as B cannot form multiple bonds
(D) The resulting material with N doping will be a p-type semiconductor

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(61) Compound ‘P’ that undergoes the sequence of reactions given below to give
the product Q is

(i) excess CH OH
(ii) PCC
(iii) CH MgBr
(iv) H O +

(62) The most stable Lewis structure of N2O is

: : : :

: : : .. :
..

(63) The major product ‘X’ formed in the following reaction is

(i) n-C H Cl, anhyd. AlCl

(ii) HNO , H SO

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(64) Which of the following accounts best for the fact that F- is smaller than O2?
(A) F has a larger nuclear mass than O2
(B) F has a larger nuclear charge than O2
(C) F is more polarizable than O2
(D) F is more electronegative than O

(65) The correct sequence of reagents from those listed below for the following
conversion is

I. NaNH2 II. Br2 III. H2 /Pd-C, quinoline IV. H3O+

(A) IV – I – III (B) III – IV – I (C) II – I – III (D) I – II – III

(66) An orbital among the following that has two radial nodes and two angular nodes is
(A) 3d (B) 4p (C) 4f (D) 5d

(67) The compound ‘X’ undergoing the following reaction is

(i) dil aq NaOH

(ii) H +
(iii) acid K Cr O
(iv) Heat

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(68) A dilute solution of an alkali metal in liquid ammonia is

I. blue in colour II. conducts electricity
III. paramagnetic IV. an oxidising agent
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) I,II and III (D) I and III

(69) The reactions from those given below that involve a carbocation intermediate are

(i) + HI

(ii) + NaNH + NaCl

(iii) + HCl +H O

(A) i, ii and iii (B) i and ii (C) i and iii (D) ii and iii

(70) The C-O bond length is the shortest in

(A) [Cr(CO)6] (B) [Mo(CO)6] (C) [Mn(CO)6]+ (D)[V(CO)6]

(71) The rate of the reaction between two reactants X and Y can be expressed as
R = k [X]2 [Y]. In an experiment, the initial rate of the reaction was found to be R1
when the initial concentrations of X and Y are [X0] and [Y0]. Another experiment
was performed in which [X0] was taken as ½ [X0]. What should be [Y0] in this
experiment to get the initial rate as 0.5R1?
(A) 4 [Y0] (B) ½ [Y0] (C) 2 [Y0] (D) [Y0]

(72) Among the following, the compound that has the highest dipole moment is
(A) CH3COOCH3 (B) CH3CONH2
(C) CH3COC2H5 (D) CH3COCl

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(73) A common method to clean acid spills is to use Na2CO3 (Molar mass 106 g). If 50.0
mL of 0.75 M HCl is spilt on a wooden surface, the amount of Na2CO3 required is
(A) 3.75 g (B) 7.5 g (C) 2.0 g (D) 4.0 g

−
(74) The spin-only magnetic moments of [Fe(NH3)6]3+ and [FeF6] (in units of BM)
respectively are
(A) 1.73 and 1.73 (B) 5.92 and 1.73
(C) 1.73 and 5.92 (D) 5.92 and 5.92

(75) The major product of the following reaction is

(i) , Mg, ether

mol
(ii) H O +

(76) The standard electrode potential (E0) of the Daniel cell is 1.1 V and the overall cell
reaction can be represented as Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq)  Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s).
Under which of the following conditions will the cell potential be higher than 1.1V?
(A) 1.0M Zn2+, 1.0M Cu2+ (B) 1.2 M Zn2+, 1.2 M Cu2+
(C) 0.1 M Zn2+, 1.0M Cu2+ (D) 1.0 M Zn2+, 0.01M Cu2+

(77) Penicillamine is used in the treatment of arthritis. One molecule of penicillamine

contains a single sulphur atom and the weight percentage of sulphur in penicillamine
is 21.49%. Molecular weight of penicillamine in g mol–1 is
(A) 85.40 (B) 68.76 (C) 125.2 (D) 149.2

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(78) An ion exchange resin, RH2, can replace Ca2+ in hard water as
RH2 + Ca2+→ RCa2+ + 2 H+
When a 1.0 L hard water sample was passed through the resin, all H + ions were
replaced by Ca2+ ions and the pH of eluted water was found to be 2.0. The hardness
of water (as ppm of Ca2+) in the sample of water treated is
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 125 (D) 200

(79) The analysis of three different binary oxides of bromine (Br) and oxygen (O) gives
the following results:

Compound Mass of O combined

with 1.0 g of Br
X 0.101 g
Y 0.303 g
Z 0.503 g

Which of the following statements is not correct?

I Compound Y is Br2O3 II Compound Z is Br2O5
III Compound Z is Br2O7 IV Compound Y is Br2O5
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) III and IV (D) I and II

(80) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

I. Number of significant figures in 2345.100 is three
II. 0.00787 rounded to two significant figures is written as 0.787 x 10 2
III. 340 rounded to two significant figures is written as 0.34 x 10 3
IV. The number of significant figures in 0.020 is two
(A) II and III (B) III and IV (C) I, II and IV (D) III only
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