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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN
Post UTME Past Questions for Art and Social Science

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UI POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS FOR ART

AND SOCIAL SCIENCE

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES [CRS]

1. "Behold, the people of Israel are too many, come let us deal shrewdly with them, lest they
multiply..." In the statement, the first step by the new king of Egypt was to___
A. cast all Hebrew male children into the Nile
B. impose heavy tax on them
C. kill all Hebrew male children
D. set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens

2. "I will go out as at other times, and shake myself free." When Samson made the statement
above, he was not aware that
A. the Philistines were upon him
B. he was bound with bronze fetters
C. the LORD had left him
D. D. his eyes had been gouged out.

3. "Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land
appear. In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to
A. earth and oceans
B. firmament and seas
C. firmament and oceans
D. earth and seas

4. "Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her." Saul
made the statement above when he was confronted by the
A. Philistines
B. Ammonites
C. Amalekites
D. Moabites

5. "Why did you bring trouble on us? The LORD brings trouble on you today” What
happened to Achan after the statement above by Joshua?
A. He was buried alive
B. He was put in chain
C. He was stoned to death
D. He was flogged publicly.

6. An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the ___

A. building of the palace
B. building of the temple

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C. felling of timber
D. forced labour.

7. David was anointed king over Judah at ___

A. Zuph
B. Bethlehem
C. Hebron
D. Gibeon.

8. For worshipping the molten calf, God described the Israelites as

A. a stubborn nation
B. an unholy nation
C. a stiff-necked people
D. an unrighteous people

9. God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because

A. He rested on that day from all His work
B. Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day
C. it was a Sabbath day
D. human beings were recreated on that day.

10. God called Abraham when he was how many years old?
A. 75 years old
B. 90 years old
C. 100 years old
D. 120 years old

11. In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at
Mount Sinai, they were
A. not to drink alcohol
B. to wear white garments
C. to wash their garments everyday
D. not to go near a woman

12. Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because

A. he slept with Potiphar’s wife
B. he was very lazy
C. Potiphar’s wife lied against Joseph
D. he stole Pharaoh’s cup

13. Samuel's lack of parental responsibility led to

A. The demand for a king in Israel
B. His untimely death at Ramah
C. The defeat of the Israelites in battle
D. The anointing of David as king.

14. Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam

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A. Was more popular than him

B. Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour
C. Did not report what was prophesied concerning him
D. Was a threat to the throne.

15. The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was
A. Joel
B. a man of God
C. C. a prophet from Shiloh
D. Samuel.

16. The rainbow as the sign of God's covenant with Noah implies
A. Providence
B. Reconciliation
C. mercy
D. Redemption

17. What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD?
A. The LORD is merciful
B. The LORD is peace
C. Jehovah Jireh
D. The LORD is great

18. What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwise Policies?
A. Jeroboam was empowered by God to conquer him
B. He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he built
C. He raised up Hadad, the Edo mite as an adversary against him
D. The kingdom was torn from him and given to his servant

19. What was Samson's major achievement as Israel's leader?

A. He suppressed the Philistines
B. He captured the city of Jericho
C. He saved the Israelites from the Amorites
D. He secured permanent independence for Israel

20. When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites, he resisted because he could not speak and
he was told to
A. perform some signs with his rod
B. wait for a sign from God
C. go with Joshua who would speak for him
D. go with Aaron who would speak for him

21. When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speaking to it, God said to him that
he
A. would no longer see Him face to face
B. would not bring the Israelites to the promise land
C. would not see His holiness

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D. would roam in the wilderness for thirty years

22. When the Israelites left Egypt, God did not let them use the shorter route through the land
of the Philistines because____
A. the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them
B. they might go back if they faced war
C. He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king
D. He wanted them to suffer and appreciate Him

23. Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared
King Agag?
A. David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin
B. David was a man after God's heart while Saul was His enemy
C. David was a singer of praises while Saul was not
D. David humbled himself when he realized
his sin but Saul was stubborn

24. "...And in the last days it shall be, God declares, that I will pour out my Spirit upon all
flesh..." Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of
A. Ezekiel
B. Joel
C. Jeremiah
D. Isaiah.

25. "Am I God, to kill and to make alive, that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his
leprosy..." Prophet Elisha responded to the king's reaction in the statement above by
A. directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast
B. requesting the leper to come to his house
C. directing the leper to go to River Jordan
D. asking the leper to offer a sacrifice

26. "Behold, I am the LORD, the God of all flesh; is anything too hard for me..." The statement
above suggests that God is
A. merciful
B. awesome
C. most powerful
D. not changeable.

27. "Behold. I am the LORD, the God of all flesh; is anything too hard for me" The statement
above suggests that God is
A. merciful
B. most powerful
C. awesome
D. not changeable.

28. "Do you understand what you are reading?" Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question
above when he found him reading the book of

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A. Hosea
B. Ezekiel
C. Jeremiah
D. Isaiah.

29. "My spirit shall not abide in man forever, for he is flesh". When God made the statement, He
concluded that man's days shall be
A. one hundred years
B. one hundred and fifty years
C. eighty years
D. one hundred and twenty years.

30. "Test your servants for ten days; let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink..." In
the statement above, Daniel was talking to
A. King Darius
B. the chief of the eunuchs
C. the steward of the chief eunuch
D. King Artaxerxes.

31. According to Amos, what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and
mildew?
A. They still did not return to him
B. They repented of their sins
C. They fasted and prayed for healing
D. They cried unto the LORD.

32. According to Prophet Jeremiah, one of the promises of God was that He would give the
Israelites
A. new priests
B. new commandments
C. kings after His own heart
D. shepherds after His own heart.

33. According to Proverbs, a son that is attentive to a father's instruction will

A. be rich
B. have eternal life
C. gain insight
D. be forgiven his sins

34. Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel, God declared that
A. He would require the blood of Naboth from Ahab’s hand
B. Ahab's descendants would never ascend the throne in Israel
C. dogs would lick Ahab's blood where they had licked Naboth
D. the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab

35. Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins, they would
A. Surely live and not die

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B. Be free from attack

C. Lead mankind to God
D. Return from captivity.

36. God had pity on the people of Nineveh because

A. they listened to Jonah's message
B. the king punished all the violent people in the land
C. they turned from their evil way.
D. they made sacrifices of sin offering to God.

37. Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel, Elijah prayed and God answered him with
A. thunder
B. rainfall
C. a whirlwind
D. a heavy storm

38. In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon, King Cyrus ordered for
A. free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem
B. the release of Jewish, slaves in the empire
C. security check on the Jews before departure
D. support from craftsmen in Babylon

39. Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because
A. Absalom and his soldiers were defeated
B. of the shameful death of Absalom
C. the king grieving for his son
D. the king Was annoyed with them

40. Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by

A. Handing over five hundred Baal prophets for slaughter
B. Falling on his face before Elijah
C. Hiding Elijah in a cave for two years
D. Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water.

41. Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil, love good and establish justice in the gate so
that God would
A. heal their diseases
B. give them good leaders
C. be gracious to them
D. multiply their descendants

42. Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the
___
A. kings of Judah
B. kings of Israel
C. house of Judah
D. house of Israel

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43. Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the
___
A. kings of Judah
B. kings of Israel
C. house of Judah
D. house of Israel

44. Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call

when____
A. King Uzziah was deposed
B. King Uzziah died
C. King Uzziah began to reign
D. Israel was in Babylonian captivity

45. Saul learnt from Samuel's spirit that the

LORD would
A. give the Philistines into his hands
B. afflict him with sickness
C. bless Isaac's future wife
D. pardon his iniquity

46. The destruction of Jerusalem by

Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of
A. Hezekiah's death
B. Josiah's reforms
C. Israel's stubbornness to God
D. Zedekiah's rebellion against Babylon

47. The effect that the faith of Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego had on King
Nebuchadnezzar and his subjects was that they
A. Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile
B. Were converted
C. Forsook their gods
D. Believed that there was no other god able to deliver.

48. The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the

A. kingdom was too large to be administered
B. leadership wanted to create more nations
C. followership wanted more nations
D. last two kings made unwise policies.

49. The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that
A. God would support him to repair the Temple
B. Josiah would conquer all his enemies
C. God would gather him to his grave in peace
D. Josiah would have a peaceful reign.

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50. The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained

A. Both praises and condemnation
B. Words of lamentation and mourning
C. Prescription for Temple worship
D. The expected type of sacrifice.

51. What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord?
A. He removed all the idols of his father.
B. He killed all the priests of Baal;
C. His reign was peaceful.
D. He killed all the Baal worshippers.

52. What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem?
A. They praised God for sending him to rebuild. Jerusalem
B. They informed Sanballat and Tobiah about his plans
C. They were hostile to him and he became discouraged
D. They encouraged one another to rise up and build the walls.

53. "...but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and
from what is strangled and from blood..."' The statement above was made at the Council of
Jerusalem by
A. Philip
B. Simon
C. James
D. Peter

54. "...His office let another take..." The statement above refers to
A. Ananias
B. Judas Iscariot
C. Barnabas
D. John Mark.

55. "...Truly, I say to you, not even In Israel have I found such faith..." The statement
above by Jesus was made when He healed the
A. leper
B. blind man
C. demoniac
D. centurion's servant.

56. "Depart from me, for I am a sinful man, O Lord." This statement was uttered by Peter at the
A. last supper
B. garden of Gethsemane
C. call of the disciples
D. transfiguration

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57. "If I tell you, you will not believe; and if I ask you, you will not answer..." Jesus' statement
above was in response to a request by
A. King Herod
B. the chief priests and scribes
C. Pontius Pilate
D. the Pharisees and Sadducees.

58. "If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down from here; for it is written, 'He will give his
angels charge of you…" According to Luke, the statement above was made by Satan during
Jesus'
A. third temptation
B. crucifixion
C. Transfiguration
D. second temptation.

59. "Teacher, do you not care if we perish?" Where was Jesus Christ when this question was
asked?
A. On the sea, walking.
B. In the wilderness.
C. On the Mount of Olive
D. In the ship, asleep

60. "Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in paradise..." Jesus made the statement
above to one of the criminals because he
A. respected Him
B. praised Him
C. rebuked his partner
D. was repentant

61. "Unbind him, and let him go." The statement was made by Jesus when
A. He raised to life the dead Lazarus
B. He healed the son of the widow at Nain
C. He healed the centurion's servant
D. a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him.

62. "Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved" The
statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the
A. church in Jerusalem
B. council of elders
C. church in Judea
D. council in Jerusalem.

63. "You son of the devil, you enemy of all righteousness, full of all deceit and villainy"
This statement of Paul was addressed to
A. Elymas, the magician
B. Paulus, the proconsul
C. Simon, the Magician

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D. Demetrius, the silversmith

64. "As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world." Jesus made the statement above
on the occasion of
A. healing the man born blind
B. raising Lazarus from the dead
C. restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus
D. walking on the sea before day break.

65. According to Luke, the Last Supper took place

A. on Mount Olive
B. In Jerusalem
C. in Jordan
D. in Bethlehem.

66. According to Luke, when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration,
they spoke of Jesus’
A. departure
C. resurrection
B. second coming
D. trials

67. According to Matthew, the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by
A. an angel
B. Mary Magdalene
C. a Roman soldier
D. Peter and John.

68. According to Romans, salvation is for those who

A. call upon the name of the Lord
B. are true worshippers of God
C. work in the Lord's vineyard
D. Are persecuted for righteousness

69. According to the Gospel of John, Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is
A. the Holy Spirit
B. His father
C. the gardener
D. His mother

70. 'And, they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow, for it was already
evening.' In the statement above, the imprisoned persons were
A. Paul and John Mark
B. Peter and Barnabas
C. Peter and Paul
D. Paul and Barnabas.

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71. Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because
he
A. looked down on the Angel
B. was advanced in age
C. disagreed with Elizabeth, his wife
D. did not believe God's words.

72. Following the death of Stephen, the only group of believers not scattered by the great
persecution was the
A. deacons
B. apostles
C. prophets
D. disciples.

73. Following the resurrection of Jesus, the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the
guards to
A. say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus
B. keep the information away from His disciples
C. keep the matter among themselves
D. report the matter immediately to the rulers.

74. In His Sermon on the Mount, Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would
A. be satisfied
B. be comforted on the last day
C. inherit the kingdom of heaven
D. inherit the earth

75. In Luke, at the Last Supper, Jesus revealed His

A. resurrection
B. imminent sufferings
C. love for His disciples
D. ascension

76. In the country of the Gerasene’s, Jesus healed the

A. man possessed of demons
B. paralytic at the pool
C. leper
D. blind man

77. In the mission of the seventy, Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep
among wolves, implying that they would
A. be sent to live among wolves
B. be as meek as sheep
C. be properly equipped for the mission
D. encounter difficulties.

78. In the story of the Transfiguration, Moses and Elijah represented the

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A. glory of God
B. old Testament saints
C. Law and the prophets
D. end of the age.

79. Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He
A. wanted the whole of Judea to know about him
B. wanted to show that He was a great prophet
C. had compassion on the mother
D. loved the young man that died.

80. Jesus' reply to the devil's first temptation of Him was ____
A. "...Him only shall you serve"
B. "...Man shall not live by bread alone..."
C. '"You shall not tempt the Lord your God"'
D. "...You shall worship the Lord your God..."

81. Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that
A. every believer ought to rejoice with those who rejoice.
B. no person can hide from God
C. God's love is unlimited
D. there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents

82. Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because

A. He wanted to demonstrate His power
B. He was invited to the ceremony
C. the groom was His relation
D. the groom ran out of wine

83. Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to

A. fulfil all righteousness
B. show His power over forces of nature
C. show that no one is above temptation
D. test the devil's power

84. The Hebrew word Rabboni means

A. disciple
B. priest
C. master
D. Teacher.

85. The impact of Jesus' miracle of turning water into wine was that the
A. servants were astonished
B. master of ceremony believed
C. disciples believed more in Him
D. people glorified God.

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86. Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan woman?
A. They had gone to the city to preach the gospel
B. They had gone to the city to buy food
C. They had gone to the mountain to pray
D. They had gone to wait for Him.

87. According to Ephesians, children who obey their parents in the Lord will ___
A. be happy
B. go to heaven
C. have long life
D. be great

88. According to Peter, God shows no partiality, but in every nation anyone who fears Him is
A. diligent before Him
B. acceptable to Him
C. holy before Him
D. righteous before Him.

89. According to Romans, the new life is comparable to Jesus'

A. resurrection
B. ministry
C. ascension
D. crucifixion.

90. According to Thessalonians, the day of the Lord will not come unless the
A. living die first
B. scoffers come first
C. dead rise first
D. rebellion comes first.

91. Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to _
A. pray for those in authority for peace
B. do their work in quietness and earn a living
C. appeal to those in authority to create jobs
D. endure persecution from their masters

92. In his teaching on partiality, James declares that mercy triumphs over
A. judgment
B. righteousness
C. grace
D. faith.

93. In Paul's arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians, the last is

A. the utterance of wisdom
B. interpretation of tongues
C. gifts of healing
D. various kinds of tongues

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94. In Romans, Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments
of ___
A. greediness
B. wickedness
C. sadness
D. foolishness

95. In Timothy Paul urges Christians to pray for kings and those in authority for the achievement
of
A. a successful Christian life
B. godly and acceptable life
C. peace and exaltation in life
D. quiet and peaceable life

96. Paul in Romans enjoins all Christians to cast off works of darkness end put on the
A. armour of light
B. armour of faith
C. works of grace
D. works of light.

97. Peter admonishes that Christians should endure suffering because anyone who has
suffered in the flesh
A. shall live the rest of his life in peace
B. shall clothe himself with humility
C. has ceased from sin
D. has overcome death.

98. Peter enjoins Christians to wait in expectation of the new heavens and the
new earth in which
A. evil will be destroyed
B. there will be no more corruption
C. there will be perfection
D. righteousness dwell.

99. What does Paul advise Roman Christians to do to those who persecute them?
A. Give them drink when thirsty
B. Forgive them
C. Bless them
D. Feed them when hungry.

100. Which of the following are opposed to each other according to Galatians?
A. Believers and unbelievers
B. Freedmen and salves
C. Jews and Gentiles
D. Flesh and Spirit.

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ANSWERS TO CRS QUESTIONS

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. D

15. B 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. C

27. B 28. D 29. D 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. A

39. C 40. D 41. C 42. D 43. D 44. B 45. A 46. C 47. D 48. D 49. C 50. B

51. A 52. D 53. C 54. B 55. D 56. C 57. B 58. A 59. D 60. D 61. A 62. D

63. A 64. A 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. D 71. D 72. B 73. A 74. C

75. C 76. A 77. D 78. C 79. C 80. B 81. D 82. B 83. C 84. D 85. C 86. B

87. C 88. B 89. A 90. C 91. B 92. A 93. B 94. D 95. D 96. A 97. A 98. D

99. C 100. D

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ECONOMICS

1. _____is the term that describes the cost of one product in terms of forgone
production/acquisition of others.
A. Marginal cost
B. Production/acquisition cost
C. Optimum cost
D. Opportunity cost
E. Implicit cost

2. An activity does not have a cost when

A. the activity does not require the giving up of any other activity or thing
B. the government pays for it
C. it is carried out by a non-governmental organisation
D. it is not priced
E. it is easy to undertake.

3. Choices arise on account of ____

A. numerous wants
B. enough money to undertake effective demand
C. scale of preference
D. human wants being numerous but the time, money and influence to satisfy them are
limited.
E. needs

4. Economics is best defined as ____

A. the study of allocation of resources to satisfy human wants
B. the study of human behaviour in the process of buying and selling
C. study of how nations grow and improve their welfare
D. the study of how to allocate scarce resources to satisfy human wants
E. all of the above.

5. Economics may be described as ____

A. the study of demand and supply of things in our environment
B. the study of production and distribution
C. the study of human behaviour in the allocation of scarce resources
D. the study of the employment of labour, capital, land and capital
E. the study of money and banking.

6. From an economics point of view, an activity does not have cost when
A. someone else pays for it
B. the returns are greater than costs
C. the choice involves given up nothing
D. government pays for it
E. it is paid for from gift

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7. Opportunity cost is a term which describes

A. initial cost of setting up a business venture
B. a study of the ways man devices to satisfy his unlimited wants from limited resources
C. cost of one product in terms of forgone production of others
D. the mandatory equivalent of the utility of a commodity
E. cost related to an optimum level of production

8. Scarcity in economics means ____

A. a period of scarce things
B. when things are costly to acquire
C. monopolisation of available resources by a few
D. nationalisation of natural resources such as petroleum in Venezuela
E. none of the above.

9. Which of these is the real cost of satisfying any want in the sense of the alternative that has
to be forgone?
A. variable cost
B. opportunity cost
C. total cost
D. prime cost
E. marginal cost

10. Economic analyses and conclusions can be divided into

A. consumption and production
B. positive and normative
C. microeconomics and macroeconomics
D. demand and supply
E. none of the above

11. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?

A. mean
B. median
C. Mode
D. average
E. standard deviation

12. Which of the following is NOT a measure of dispersion?

A. standard deviation
B. mean deviation
C. variance
D. range
E. mean

13. A normal good with close substitutes is likely to have its price elasticity of demand ___
A. between zero and one
B. equal to unity
C. greater than unity
D. less than unity
E. none of the above

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14. Demand for a factor of production is ___

A. A composite demand
B. a joint demand
C. a derived demand
D. an elasticity of demand
E. cross elasticity of demand

15. Given Demand function: Qd = 5P + 10; Supply function: Qs = 7P – 5. If the price is at ₦5,
the excess demand is
A. 35
B. 30
C. 10
D. 5
E. 65

16. If an increase in the price of a commodity leads to an increase in total revenue, then it
follows that the demand for the commodity is
A. normal
B. elastic
C. inelastic
D. abnormal
E. unitary

17. If the price of a commodity rises, the quantity demanded of the commodity remains the
same, then the demand for the commodity is ____
A. static
B. infinitely elastic
C. externally determined
D. perfectly inelastic
E. perfectly elastic

18. The impact of a change in the price of commodity A on the quantity demanded of
commodity B is best explained using the concept of ____
A. price-elasticity of demand
B. cross-price elasticity of demand
C. income elasticity of demand
D. elasticity of substitution
E. A-price elasticity of demand for B

19. The change that is due to a movement from one supply curve to another along the same
price is called
A. change in supply
B. change in quantity supplied
C. elasticity change
D. control price effect
E. change in equilibrium quantity

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20. When the supply of a commodity is fixed, its price elasticity of supply is said to be
A. perfectly elastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. undefined
D. elastic
E. inelastic

21. Given Demand function: Qd = 5P + 10; Supply function: Qs = 7P – 5. The equilibrium

quantity is
A. 50
B. 55
C. 75.5
D. 47.5
E. 55.5

22. In market economies, resources are allocated through the

A. government authorities
B. price system
C. banking system
D. central planning bureau
E. revenue allocation formula

23. In the operation of market forces, the market is in equilibrium at the point where
A. demand and supply curve intersects in more than one point
B. the excess in the market can be conveniently stored
C. excess demand is positive
D. demand and supply curves intersect
E. excess demand is negative

24. The basic feature of a market economy is ___

A. the reduction in the power of sellers
B. the enthronement of consumer sovereignty
C. the dismantling of barriers to trade
D. the perfectly elastic price for every transaction
E. the intersection of demand and supply curves

25. The following are the conditions that must be fulfilled for price determination EXCEPT
A. market merger
B. market segmentation
C. demand elasticities
D. product differentiation
E. none of the above

26. The main function of price mechanism is to ___

A. limit consumer demand
B. enable producers make profits

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C. allocate scarce resources among competing ends

D. ensure consumer sovereignty
E. achieve excess capacity

27. When government intervenes in price setting, the regulated price is usually
A. higher than the last price
B. lower than the last price
C. higher than the equilibrium price
D. lower than the equilibrium price
E. higher than the ceiling price

28. A firm achieves least cost in production by substituting factors until

A. their factor prices are equal
B. their marginal products are equal to the factor prices
C. their marginal products are each equal to zero
D. the ratios of their marginal product equals the ratio of their prices
E. none of the above

29. A production possibility curve shows

A. how much of resources a society uses to produce a particular commodity
B. the rate of inflation
C. the rate of unemployment in an economy
D. the various combinations of the commodities that can be produced
E. all of the above

30. A rightward shift in the production possibility frontier may be due to

A. use of inferior inputs
B. inefficiency
C. improvement in production techniques and practices
D. changes in the product mix
E. changes in consumer taste

31. Direct payment incurred for producing a commodity is called ____

A. implicit cost
B. real cost
C. opportunity cost
D. due cost
E. explicit cost

32. Diseconomies of scale can be caused by the following EXCEPT ____

A. managerial inefficiency
B. increased resource-cost
C. large market
D. inefficient business environment
E. technology

33. Diseconomies of scale operates when

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A. doubling inputs brings about more than proportionate increase in output

B. doubling inputs leads to a doubling of output
C. doubling input brings about less than proportionate increase in output
D. decrease in profit
E. increase in revenue

34. Economic efficiency means ____

A. obtaining maximum output from available resources
B. equitable distribution of nation’s resources
C. carrying out production without any waste
D. producing the maximum output from available resources at the lowest possible cost
E. efficient utilisation of the nation’s resources.

35. External economies are

A. the advantages accruing to firm as a result of its expansion
B. the advantages accruing to one firm as a result of the existence of other firms in the same
locality
C. benefits derived by a firm as a result of its own external economies policy
D. economies reaped only by firms that are externally focused
E. bound to increase the cost of production

36. If a firm doubles its output and its costs increase by 60%, the firm is experiencing
A. increasing costs
B. economies of scale
C. decreasing returns
D. decreasing costs
E. none of the above

37. In economics, production is complete when

A. Goods are produced in the factories
B. Goods are sold to the wholesaler
C. Goods and services are produced by the government
D. Prices are fixed for goods and services
E. Goods and services finally reach the consumer

38. In the study of economics, land, labour, capital and entrepreneur are referred to as factors
of production. These factors produce commodities only if they are ____
A. profitable to the production process
B. purchased for the purpose of production
C. combined in the production process
D. produced adequately for the production process
E. brought into factory

39. Production that takes place within the production possibility curve is said to be
A. inefficient
B. possible
C. with increased output

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D. x-efficient
E. pareto-compliant

40. The act of combining factor inputs in order to obtain specific output is known as
A. factor procurement
B. manufacturing
C. investment
D. industrialisation
E. production

41. The additional output obtained by using one more unit of a factor is called ____
A. marginal income
B. additional product
C. marginal revenue
D. average product
E. marginal physical product

42. The amount of labour a producer hires relative to other factor input depends on the
A. price of labour or its wage
B. price of labour, machinery and other inputs
C. price of machinery
D. price of other inputs
E. type of machinery

43. The concept of economic efficiency primarily refers to

A. obtaining the maximum output from available resources at the lowest possible cost
B. conservation of our petroleum resources
C. equity in the distribution of the nation’s wealth
D. producing without waste
E. none of the above

44. The law of diminishing returns often operates in the ____

A. long run
B. short run
C. medium term
D. small scale production
E. none of the above

45. The main economic objective behind the production of goods and services in an economy is
to ____
A. maximise profits
B. satisfy human wants
C. become self-reliant
D. create job opportunities
E. make people wealthy

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46. The residual of production which accrues to the ownership of land after all other expenses
have been met is called ____
A. wages
B. profit
C. rent
D. interest
E. discount

47. Average fixed cost is ____

A. average total cost less the sum of average variable cost
B. half the sum of all costs
C. total fixed cost divided by the level of output
D. total fixed cost plus marginal cost
E. total variable cost divided by output

48. Average fixed cost is a rectangular hyperbola, ____

A. since unit cost increases as output increases
B. unit cost increases as output decreases
C. unit cost decreases as output increases
D. unit cost remains the same as output increases
E. none of the above

49. Long run cost is U-shaped because of the operation of

A. economies of scale on the left-hand side and diseconomies of scale on the right-hand side
B. diseconomies of scale on the left- and right-hand sides
C. economies of scale on the left- and righthand sides
D. constant return to scale
E. diseconomies of scale of the left-hand side and economies of scale of the right-hand side

50. Marginal cost is the cost

A. the lowest cost of producing goods
B. the cost of production of the most efficient firm in an industry
C. the cost of production of the most inefficient firm in an industry
D. the cost of production of the last unit of goods produced by a firm
E. the cost of production at which minimum profit is obtained by the firm

51. Which of the following is NOT part of the fixed cost of a firm?
A. interest on loans
B. rent on buildings
C. depreciation reserves
D. management expenditure
E. wages

52. Which of the following is used to describe a payment representing a surplus in excess of
transfer earnings?
A. interest rates

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B. opportunity costs
C. economic rent
D. indirect costs
E. wages

53. A perfectly competitive firm produces the most profitable output where its
A. marginal revenue equals average cost
B. price equals average cost
C. price equals marginal cost
D. marginal cost equals marginal revenue
E. average revenue equals average cost

54. Advertising is the main technique used for effecting in a monopolistic competition in____
A. market segmentation
B. product differentiation
C. price
D. profit
E. supply

55. Output of a monopolist is usually determined at a point where

A. P=MC
B. MR=MC
C. AR=AC
D. marginal cost is rising
E. marginal revenue is rising

56. Product homogeneity is one of the characteristics of

A. perfect competition
B. monopoly
C. monopolistic competition
D. oligopoly
E. competition

57. Which of the following is compatible with a firm in a purely competitive market?
A. demand is inelastic
B. demand is infinitely elastic
C. marginal cost is falling
D. price is greater than marginal cost
E. price is less than marginal cost

58. The difference between gross national product and net national product is equal to
A. Gross investment
B. Net investment
C. Net foreign income
D. Capital depreciation
E. Net and gross

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59. The difference between the Gross Domestic Product and the Gross National Product is
the___
A. Allowance for total depreciation
B. Total interest payments
C. Total tax and interest payments
D. Net income from abroad
E. none of the above

60. The multiplier is defined as ____

A. The ratio of the change in income to the change in investment
B. The change in investment divided by the change in income
C. 1/(MPC)
D. 1/(1-MPS)
E. Process of multiplying initial increase in income

61. A decrease in aggregate spending in an economy will ultimately lead to

A. Boom
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Recession
E. stagnation

62. Money serves well as a store of value in an environment devoid of

A. unemployment
B. bank robbery
C. development-oriented central/reserve bank
D. inflationary pressure
E. substitutes like ATMs, cheques and bank draft.

63. The ability of deposit money banks to create money is mainly affected by
A. reserve ratio
B. liquidity ratio
C. capital base
D. monetary policy rate
E. all of the above

64. A document that shows the details of government revenue and expenditure in a year is
called ____
A. budget
B. development plan
C. rolling plan
D. perspective plan
E. financial plan

65. The basic fiscal relation that exists among the three tiers of government in Nigeria is
A. national budget appropriation
B. State-Local Government joint account

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C. C. revenue allocation from the federation account

D. federal road projects
E. federal character principle

66. The biggest source of government revenue in Nigeria is ____

A. Mining rents and royalties
B. Company income tax
C. Import duties
D. Export duties
E. Petroleum profits tax

67. A major obstacle to economic development is ___

A. A rise in industrial output
B. Low farm productivity
C. Free trade
D. Ineffective trade unions
E. corruption

68. A sustained increase in the per capita income of a country over a period of time is
called ____
A. Economic growth
B. Economic development
C. Structural change
D. Stagflation
E. Sustainable income growth

69. In recent years, Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth in____ Sector
in the last ten years.
A. agriculture
B. education
C. telecommunication
D. transport
E. distribution

70. Nigeria, being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara, has put together a
development blue-print called Vision 20:2020 which can ensure that the country becomes
A. one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020
B. an African economic ‘Tiger’ by the year 2020
C. one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
D. one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020
E. E. one of the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020

71. The major objective of economic growth is to

A. Redistribute income and other benefit of growth
B. Equalize opportunity for education and employment
C. Increase aggregate expenditure on goods and services
D. Increase the real per capita income

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E. Increase access to education

72. The most common index used for measuring development is ____
A. The level of literacy
B. Per capita income
C. Nutritional levels
D. Population growth rate
E. International development index

73. Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria?

A. Operation Feed the Nation
B. Nigerian Youth Service Corps
C. Increased loans to farmers and cooperatives
D. Research in Agriculture and extension services
E. Mechanization of agriculture

74. Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of
labour in the country?
A. Construction
B. Agriculture
C. Distribution
D. Mining and petroleum
E. Transport and communications

75. Industries contribute to national economic development because they

A. Utilize local raw material
B. Employ an increasing number of labour
C. Provide recreational facilities
D. Use modern machines which replace human labour
E. All of the above

76. Infant industries are ____

A. Baby food and baby clothing factories
B. Those which are introducing new products
C. Cases of arrested development
D. Industries temporarily protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world
markets
E. Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence

77. The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing ____

A. Consumer goods originally imported
B. Machinery for industries
C. More goods for exports
D. More goods for domestic consumption
E. E. Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries

78. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries?

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A. Reaping of external economies

B. Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry
C. Development of subsidiary industries
D. Development of organized markets
E. Growth of conurbations

79. The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are
availability of raw materials and
A. Capital
B. Political consideration
C. Nearness to source of power
D. Labour
E. Availability of seaports

80. The petroleum industry in Nigeria is

A. The sole source of the nation’s revenue
B. The oldest industry in the country
C. The mainstay of the economy
D. A factor in the decline in the nation’s foreign reserves
E. In the hand of NNPC

81. In a limited liability company, the greatest risk is borne by ____

A. Shareholders debentures
B. Company executives
C. Ordinary shareholders
D. Preference shareholders
E. Board of directors

82. In a public company, shares are ____

A. Sold to one person only
B. Distributed freely
C. Advertised to members of the public for subscription
D. Disposed off by the Chief Executive
E. none of the above

83. The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows:

A. It is always successful
B. Continuity is no problem
C. Control and supervision is under one man
D. Funds are easy to obtain
E. Inter-generational equity is assured

84. The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is

A. Twenty
B. Seven
C. Five
D. Infinite

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E. Limited to the number of individuals that are interested

85. Population density refers to ____

A. Densely populated urban centres
B. The total area divided by the total population
C. Densely populated rural areas
D. The total population divided by the total area
E. All of the above

86. To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a country’s population, one has to know the
country’s annual birth rate and
A. The size of that country
B. The rate of immigration into that country
C. The population census of that country
D. The annual death rate
E. The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country

87. Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population?
A. It is possible for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient
labour to make the most effective use of its other factors
B. The quantity of labour, which combines with other factors, gives the minimum output, is
known as optimum population
C. The quantity of labour, which combined with the other factors, gives the maximum output,
is known as optimum population
D. The test of over-population is whether it exceeds the optimum
E. It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over- populated if it has a poor supply of
other factors

88. Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population
growth?
A. The rate of natural increase
B. The net migration rate
C. The rate of population increase
D. The fertility rate
E. All of the above

89. Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country?

A. Increase in death rate
B. Decrease in birth rate
C. Emigration
D. Migration
E. Better medical facilities

90. An improvement in the Nigeria’s terms of trade should

A. Lead to a fall in cost of her imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them
B. Make made-in-Nigeria goods cheaper to buy
C. Increase Nigeria’s domestic output of commodities

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D. Lead to an increase in her exchange rates

E. Lead to an increase in Nigeria’s exports of petroleum

91. By ‘trade by barter’, we mean _____

A. Trade done by people in the villages
B. Exchange of goods for money
C. International trade
D. Exchange of goods for goods
E. The trade of the Middle Ages

92. Gains from trade depends on ____

A. Comparative advantage
B. Absolute advantage
C. Distributive cost advantage
D. Absolute cost advantage
E. None of the above

93. International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because

A. Comparative advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter
B. Products flow easily within regions of a country
C. There are different resource supplies among countries of the world
D. Of regulations from GATT
E. None of the above

94. Surplus in the balance of payments lead to

A. Inflation or increasing prices generally
B. Increase in foreign reserves
C. Decrease in foreign reserves
D. Government budget surplus
E. None of the above

95. The expression ‘Terms of Trade’ is used to describe ____

A. The quality of exports
B. The direction of foreign trade
C. Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis
D. The rate at which exports exchange for imports
E. Import licensing

96. The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is
called its ____
A. exchange value
B. barter value
C. exchange rate
D. market price
E. unit price

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97. Under a system of freely floating exchange rates, an increase in the international value of a
country’s currency will cause ____
A. its exports to rise
B. its imports to rise
C. gold to flow into that country
D. its currency to be in surplus
E. devaluation

98. When a currency loses its value due to a

government action to fix the quantity of the
currency that exchanges for another
currency, there is
A. devaluation
B. depreciation
C. inflation
D. fiscal deficit
E. none of the above

99. Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible
transaction?
A. Imports of cars
B. Export of cocoa
C. Export of crude petroleum
D. Tourism
E. Import of building materials

100. A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is ____

A. The absence of common currency
B. Political instability
C. High poverty level
D. Non-implementation of decisions
E. Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast

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ANSWERS TO ECONOMICS QUESTIONS

1. D 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. E 9. B 10. B 11. E 12. E 13. C 14. C 15. D 16. C

17. D 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. C

31. E 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. B 37. E 38. C 39. A 40. E 41. E 42. B 43. A 44. B

45. A 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. D 51. E 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. D

59. D 60. A 61. B 62. D 63. A 64. A 65. C 66. E 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. C 71. D 72. B

73. B 74. B 75. B 76. D 77. C 78. E 79. B 80. C 81. C 82. C 83. C 84. D 85. D 86. D

87. B 88. E 89. A 90. A 91. D 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. D 96. C 97. B 98. A 99. D 100. A

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ACCOUNTING

1. A financial analyst needs accounts information to ___

A. maintain the production section of the business
B. know why transactions cause increases and decreases in asset
C. advice on how to manage the business
D. know how to record transactions in account.

2. Creditors use accounting information for the purpose of ___

A. planning sales to a company
B. controlling a company's affairs
C. investing in a company
D. assessing a company's liquidity.

3. In preparing accounting records, the owners of a business and the business are
treated as
A. the same person
B. having business relationship
C. separate legal entities
D. partners.

4. One of the major features of bookkeeping is that it

A. provides permanent records for all financial transactions
B. is futuristic in nature
C. accepts responsibility for all wrong posting
D. does not give room for double entry procedure

5. The accounting principle which states that for every debit entry, there is a
corresponding credit entry is recognized as ____ concept.
A. realization
B. entity
C. going concern
D. duality

6. The art of collecting, recording, presenting and interpreting accounting data is ___
A. cost accounting
B. management accounting
C. financial accounting
D. data processing

7. The assumption that a business has perpetual existence is recognized by ___

A. entity concept
B. periodicity concept
C. going concern concept
D. realization concept

8. The most important reason for studying accounting is that

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A. the information provided by accounting is useful in making decisions

B. accounting plays an important role in a society
C. the study of accounting leads to a challenging career
D. accounting provides gross profit Information.

9. Which of the following accounting conventions suggests that accountants should use a
method of valuation that understates rather than overstates results?
A. Conservatism
B. Historical
C. Monetary
D. Cost

10. Which of the following concepts is expected to hold when a proprietor makes a drawing of
goods or cash from the business?
A. Business entity
B. Realization
C. Going concern
D. Dual-aspect

11. A payment of cash of ₦20 to John was entered on the receipt side of the cash book
in error and credited to John's account. Which of the following journal entries can be
used to correct the error?
A. John: ₦40 Dr, Cash: 40 Cr.
B. Cash: ₦40
C. John: ₦20 Dr, Cash: ₦20 Cr.
D. Cash: 20 Dr, John: ₦20 Cr.

12. A Sales Day Book is used for recording___

A. credit sales
B. sales returns
C. hire purchase
D. cash sales

13. A trial balance is usually prepared by an accountant from account balances in the
ledger for the purpose of
A. classifying in the ledger.
B. Testing arithmetical accuracies of the ledger account balance
C. identifying the balance sheet items
D. providing a basis for establishing the accountant's competence.

14. Bola, UTC's regular customer, owed ₦1000 on account of a radio bought. If he sent in a
cheque for ₦500, UTC would send him a ____
A. credit note
B. debit note
C. journal voucher
D. way bill.

15. Books of original entry are used for ____

A. recording business transactions

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B. the adjustment of accounts

C. reminding the book keeper to-post transactions in the ledger
D. informing the bookkeeper about the state of affairs.

16. If salary account is debited instead of stationery account, the error committed is that of _
A. commission
B. omission
C. principle
D. compensation

17. Ledger account is mainly classified into

A. nominal, real and personal accounts
B. fixed and current accounts
C. management, financial and public sector accounting
D. bank and cash accounts

18. One major advantage of a ledger is that it ____

A. is a book of original entry
B. is only accessible to shareholders during distribution
C. removes the need for preparing a balance sheet after each transaction
D. can be used by any type of business.

19. Return inwards is also known as ____

A. purchases returns
B. sales returns
C. goods on sale or return.
D. goods in transit

20. The account which refers to the tangible assets of a company that is of permanent
nature is the ___
A. personal account
B. real account
C. nominal account
D. cash account

21. The document that is used to acknowledge the acceptance of the return of goods by the
seller from the buyer is known as ____
A. credit note
B. debit note
C. invoice
D. voucher.

22. The effect of payment of a liability is that it ____

A. increases both assets and liabilities
B. increases assets and decreases liabilities
C. decreases assets and increases liabilities
D. decreases both assets and liabilities.

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23. The term posting in accounting refers to

A. recording entries in the journal
B. transferring the balances in the ledger to the trial balance
C. tracing amounts from the journal to the ledger to find errors
D. transferring entries to the ledger from the journal.

24. Which of the following is not a real account?

A. Buildings account
B. Motor vehicle account
C. Patents account
D. Furniture account

25. Which of the following is not a revenue account?

A. Sales
B. Purchases
C. Discount received
D. Interest received

26. Which of the following is the basic accounting equation?

A. Assets = Capital + Liabilities
B. Capital = Assets + Liabilities
C. Liabilities = Assets + Capital
D. Assets = Liabilities – Equity

27. A system where a separate cash book is maintained for small payments is
A. single entry
B. imprest
C. float
D. reimbursement

28. An analytical cash book is used to ____

A. indicate sources of cash received
B. Categorise petty cash payment
C. separate cash and bank balance
D. analyse amounts due from debtors

29. The sum of money given to a petty cashier out of which small payments are made is called _
A. bonus
B. loan
C. advance
D. float

30. A rent of ₦250,000 was paid by John to his landlord by cheque. The double entry in John’s
books is ____
A. debit Rent account, credit Bank account
B. debit Rent account, credit John’s account

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C. debit Bank account, credit Rent account

D. debit John’s account, credit Rent account

31. Items in the bank statement of a business but not in the cash book before preparation of
bank reconciliation statement do not include?
A. Bank charges
B. Standing order
C. presented cheque
D. interest on overdraft

32. The correct sequence in data processing is ____

A. input → process → output
B. input → output → process
C. process → input → output
D. process → output → input

33. When a sum of money appears on the credit side of the cash book, but not on the debit
side of the bank statement, the sum is regarded as ____
A. uncredited cheques
B. dishonoured cheques
C. direct remittance to the bank.
D. unpresented cheques.

34. Which of the following is not a data processing method?

A. Manual
B. Mechanical
C. Electronic
D. Formatting

35. Fatima withdraws goods from the business for personal use. The accounting treatment is to
debit ____
A. stock account and credit profit and loss account
B. drawings account and credit stock account
C. Profit and loss account and credit drawings account
D. Stock account and credit drawings account

36. Given N - Net Profit ₦25,000, Cost of sales ₦25,000, Sales ₦85,000, Determine the total
expenses.
A. ₦45,000
B. ₦35,000
C. ₦25,000
D. ₦15,000

37. The objective of a trading account is to establish the ____

A. cost of goods sold
B. gross profit
C. manufacturing profit

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D. net profit

38. The process of allocating the cost of an intangible asset over its useful life is known as
A. depreciation
B. extraction
C. depletion
D. amortization.

39. The profit of a sole trader increases his ____

A. stock
B. asset
C. liability
D. capital

40. The recording of wages due but not yet paid is an example of, an adjustment for ____
A. apportionment of revenue between two periods
B. recognizing accrued expenses
C. recognizing unaccounted revenue
D. recognizing prepaid expenses.

41. The trial balance showed wages, ₦2,500 and a note stated that ₦500 wages were due but
unpaid. When preparing final accounts and balance sheet, it is required to debit profit and loss
account with ____
A. ₦3,000 and show wages accrued ₦500 in the balance sheet
B. ₦2,000 and show ages accrued ₦500 in the balanced sheet.
C. ₦3,000 and show wages prepaid ₦500 in the balance sheet.
D. ₦2,000 and show wages paid in advance ₦500 in the balance sheet.

42. Which of the following is the effect of an increase in the provision for discount allowed? A.
Increase in net profit
B. Decrease in gross profit
C. Decrease in net profit
D. Increase in gross profit

43. Why are adjustments in the profit loss account necessary?

A. To cover some expenses of the following year.
B. To ascertain the actual expenses during the year.
C. To show the provisions made during the year.
D. To show the total expenses paid and income received during the year.

44. A seller of vegetables and fruits should be encouraged to value his stock at the end of a
period using the ____
A. weighted average method
B. simple average method
C. FIFO method
D. LIFO method

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45. Stock valuation is useful because it informs the sales department on the ____
A. prices of the competing goods
B. prices that will affect profitability
C. number of goods to produce
D. number of goods to sell

46. Which of the following stock valuation methods is suitable under inflationary conditions?
A. FIFO
B. LIFO
C. Simple average
D. Weighted average.

47. In the absence of a sales day book or sales account, credit sales can be computed from
A. creditor control account
B. debtors' control account
C. opening figures of the balance sheet
D. closing figures of the balance sheet.

48. Sales ledger control account contains the total amount in respect of
A. Creditors
B. Debtors
C. Investors
D. Shareholders.

49. The difference in the sales ledger control account is transferred to the
A. profit and loss account
B. sales account
C. balance sheet
D. trading account

50. The following represents extracts from the trading account of a retail outlet for a given
month: Opening stock − ₦2,400; Closing stock − ₦6,400; Other expenses − ₦2,000; Sales −
₦11,000; Profit − ₦900. What is the purchase figure for the month?
A. ₦13,000
B. ₦12, 100
C. ₦12,000
D. ₦11,200

51. The objective of the purchases ledger control account is to establish the ____
A. credit purchases
B. net profit
C. total purchase
D. gross profit

52. The principal use of control accounts is to ____

A. localise errors within the ledgers
B. prevent fraud

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C. Increase Sales
D. record assets and liabilities.

53. The purchases ledger control account of a company had an opening balance of ₦45,600 and
closing balance of ₦72,600 credit. The company made payments of ₦437,000 to credit suppliers
during the period; and had discount received of ₦18,600 on this account. What were the credit
purchases for the period?
A. ₦509,600
B. ₦482,600
C. ₦428,600
D. ₦418,400

54. The total of the creditors at the beginning of the year was ₦4,600 and at the end of the year
₦5,250. During the year, ₦26,500 was paid to suppliers and ₦130 was received in discounts
from these suppliers. The purchases for the year Would be ___
A. ₦26,630
B. ₦27,038
C. ₦27,150
D. ₦27,280

55. Tunde purchased goods from Femi by cash worth ₦1,000 with 10% cash discount Tunde’s
purchases ledger control account it to be ____
A. debit by ₦100
B. credited by ₦100
C. credited by ₦1,000
D. debited by ₦1,000

56. Which of the following conditions best represents the net effect of discount allowed on credit
sales on the accounts of a business?
A. Decrease in the closing balance of sales ledger control account
B. Increase in net profit.
C. Increase in the value of sales.
D. Decrease in the value of purchases in the trading account.

57. Given: N - Capital at the beginning − ₦20,000, Drawings − ₦3,000, Capital at end −
₦30,000, New capital introduced − ₦8,000. What is the profit for the period?
A. ₦4,000
B. ₦5,000
C. ₦6,000
D. ₦8,000

58. Sundry debtors in the balance sheet of Onoja Bakery and Sons totaled ₦800,000. A
provision of 2%was made for discount and 5% provision for bad and doubtful debts. Find the
amount for sundry debtors after provision.
A. ₦ 760,000
B. ₦ ₦744,800
C. ₦ 744,000

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D. ₦ 784,000

59. The starting point for the production of accounts from incomplete records is to ____
A. ascertain the total sales.
B. compute the opening stock of goods sold.
C. verify the total purchases
D. prepare an opening statement of affairs.

60. A factory cost excluding prime cost is ____

A. overhead
B. material cost
C. fixed cost
D. administration cost

61. Given: N - Prime cost − ₦220,000, Factory cost − ₦32,000, Work in progress at beginning −
₦25,000, Work In progress at close − ₦19,000, Administrative expenses − ₦21,000 , Determine
the production cost.
A. ₦296,000
B. ₦277,000
C. ₦258,000
D. ₦246,000

62. Given: N - Direct material = ₦10,000, Direct labour = ₦5,000, Direct expenses = 2,000,
Factory overhead = 4,000. What is the prime cost?
A. ₦21,000
B. ₦17,000
C. ₦15,000
D. ₦6,000

63. The difference between a trading account and a manufacturing account is that while
manufacturing account ____
A. has no particular period, the trading account has
B. does not consider cost of goods involved, the trading account does
C. is concerned with the cost of production, the trading account is not.
D. is not concerned with stock of raw materials, the trading account is.

64. The factory cost of goods produced is made up of ____

A. prime cost and factory overhead
B. prime cost and office overhead
C. raw materials consumed and fixed cost
D. raw materials and administrative overhead.

65. The following information is provided for Amusa Company Ltd a manufacturer: N- Prime
cost→ ₦999,000, Manufacturing overhead → ₦132,000, Closing work in progress → ₦75,000,
Value of finished goods transferred to the Trading Account → ₦1,116,000, If included in the
manufacturing overhead were rents of ₦5,000 paid in advance, what is the opening work in
progress for the period?

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A. ₦85,000
B. ₦80,000
C. ₦70,000
D. ₦65,000

66. The manufacturing account is prepared to determine the cost of ____

A. trading
B. production
C. factory overhead
D. raw materials used

67. Subscription in arrears are ___

A. credited to the income and expenditure account and shown as a liability in the balance
sheet
B. debited to the income and expenditure account and shown as an asset in the balance sheet
C. credited to the income and expenditure account and shown as an asset in the balance sheet
D. debited to the income and expenditure account and shown as a liability in the balance sheet.

68. Where a non-profit organization prepares the accounts using accruals basis of reporting, the
statement showing how well the organization is doing is the
A. appropriation account
B. balance sheet
C. income and expenditure account.
D. receipt and payment account.

69. Departmental accounts are maintained to ascertain the ____

A. profits of the entire organization
B. contribution of each department
C. expenses of each department
D. sales of each department.

70. The gross profit disclosed in the branch stock adjustment account represents ____
A. Head office profit
B. unrealized profit
C. estimated profit
D. branch profit

71. A partnership on admitting a new member, revalued the business' land and building
from ₦30,000 to ₦70,000. The difference of ₦40,000 should be ____
A. credited to land and building account
B. debited to asset revaluation account
C. credited to asset revaluation account
D. credited to profit and loss appropriate account.

72. Adamu, Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio
3:2:1. Their respective capitals are ₦20,000, ₦15,000, ₦5,000 on which they are entitled to

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interest at 5% per annum. The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to
₦5,500. Calculate the profit for Adamu.
A. ₦583
B. ₦1,000
C. ₦1,167
D. ₦1,750

73. In a partnership business, the net profit serves as opening figure for ____
A. trading account
B. profit and loss account
C. current account
D. appropriation account

74. In the absence of a partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared ___
A. in the ratio of capital
B. equally
C. in the ratio of drawings
D. according to services rendered

75. Interest on a partner's drawings is debited to the ____

A. partner's current account and credited to the profit and loss appropriate account
B. profit and loss appropriation account and credited to the partner's current account
C. profit and loss account and credited to the partner's account
D. partner's current account and credited to the profit and loss account.

76. Partners’ share of profit is credited to ___

A. a partner’s current account
B. a partner’s capital account
C. the profit and loss account
D. the profit and loss appropriation account

77. Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership?

A. The life of the partnership is generally assumed to be indefinite.
B. The owners are liable personally for all debts of the business.
C. The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish
D. The partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements.

78. A bond, acknowledging a loan to a company under the company’s seal, bearing a fixed rate
of interest is known as____
A. certificate
B. agreement
C. bank loan
D. debenture

79. Alabede (Nig.) Limited issued 50,000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of ₦2.50
each, the share premium is ___
A. certificate

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B. agreement
C. bank loan
D. debenture

80. All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves.
A. Share premium
B. Revaluation surplus
C. Pre-incorporation profit
D. debenture premium

81. Holders of ordinary shares do not have the right to ____

A. participate in additional issue of shares
B. vote at annual general meetings
C. elect the board of directors
D. receive dividend at a predetermined rate

82. In company accounts, profit after tax is shared in the ____ account.
A. appropriation
B. revaluation
C. current
D. profit realization

83. The amount set aside out of profits earned by a company which is not meant for liability or
contingency are ____
A. dividends
B. provisions
C. retained profits
D. reserves

84. Which of the following attracts a fixed rate of dividend?

A. Ordinary shares
B. Founders’ shares
C. Preference shares
D. Deferred shares

85. Which Of the following ratios gives an idea of the liquidity of a firm?
A. Turnover ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Debt ratio
D. Dividend yield.

86. A pension granted to any past president or vice-president shall be charged to the
A. consolidated revenue fund
B. special pension fund
C. contingency fund
D. development fun

87. Public sector accounting is practiced in ____.

A. public limited companies

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B. government organizations
C. profit making organizations
D. public trading companies

88. The basis of accounting which eliminates debtors and creditors is ____
A. cash basis
B. accrual basis
C. fund basis
D. commitment basis

89. Which of the following is a source of revenue to a local government authority?

A. Poll tax
B. Excise duty
C. PAYE tax
D. Value added tax

90. Adama's bank account showed an overdraft of ₦600 on 31st March. On going
through the account, it was discovered that the ₦1,080 paid into the account on 29th march
had not been credited. What should be the balance in Adama’ s cash accounts.
A. ₦1,680 Dr.
B. ₦1,080 Cr.
C. ₦600 Dr.
D. ₦480 Cr.

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ANSWERS TO ACCOUNTING QUESTIONS

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. A

17. A 18. D 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. A

31. C 32. A 33. D 34. D 35. B 36. B 37. B 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. A 42. C 43. B 44. C

45. B 46. A 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. B 51. A 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. A 57. B 58. B

59. D 60. A 61. C 62. B 63. C 64. A 65. D 66. B 67. C 68. C 69. B 70. D 71. C 72. D

73. D 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. C 80. D 81. D 82. A 83. D 84. C 85. B 86. B

87. B 88. A 89. A 90.

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GOVERNMENT
1. A key characteristic of the civil service is
A. Merit system.
B. Patriotism.
C. Quota system.
D. Transparency.

2. A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is

A. inadequate patronage by members of the public
B. absence of an enabling Act or law
C. political interference
D. competition from private firms

3. A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that

A. Public corporations provide important services
B. Public corporations are large organizations
C. Public corporations are financed and controlled by government
D. Public corporations are not involved in production of tangible goods

4. A primary agency of political socialization is:

A. the government
B. the family
C. the mass media
D. the School

5. A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to private
individuals or organizations is called ____
A. Indigenization
B. Commercialization
C. Privatization
D. Acquisition

6. Adult male suffrage means that

A. All men who pay tax can vote.
B. All adult males can vote.
C. All men can vote.
D. All adults can vote.

7. All of the following are obligations of citizens, except

A. Obedience to laws.
B. Voting.
C. Giving alms to beggars.
D. Payment of taxes.

8. An electoral district is ____

A. A local government area.
B. A ward.
C. A polling booth.

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D. A constituency.

9. Fascism was practiced in Italy under:

A. Benito Masollini
B. Benito Mubarak
C. Benito Mussolini
D. Benito Mandela

10. Governmental powers are ____ in the US presidential system

A. absolutely separated
B. fused
C. absolutely fused
D. separated

11. In a democracy, franchise is limited by

A. Age.
B. Sex.
C. Wealth.
D. Education.

12. In the civil service, anonymity means that civil servants must ____
A. Not receive the credit or blame for any good.
B. Serve any government impartially.
C. Avoid nepotism and favouritism.
D. Be politically neutral.

13. In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated.
A. Nigeria and Ghana.
B. The United States and the United Kingdom.
C. France and Germany.
D. India and China.

14. One of the advantages of direct election is that:

A. it is too expensive and difficult to conduct
B. illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders
C. it makes representatives accountable to the electors
D. it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money

15. One of the following is not a feature of a modern state

A. Territorial landmass
B. Population of People
C. Defined Territory
D. Sovereignty

16. One of the following is not a source of constitution?

A. Customs and conventions
B. civil service regulations
C. historical documents
D. judicial precedents.

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17. One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to ____

A. Eliminate corruption.
B. Prevent rigging.
C. Provide alternatives.
D. Avoid ethnicity.

18. Political sovereignty lies with:

A. Head of State
B. Head of Government
C. the Parliament
D. the electorate

19. Public corporations are established principally to ____

A. compete with private firms
B. Raise revenue for the government
C. provide essential services for the public
D. Promote public accountability

20. Public opinion helps a government to ____

A. Monitor its socio-cultural policy.
B. Monitor the economic situation in the country.
C. Punish opposition to its policies.
D. Develop the country in line with the people’s aspirations.

21. Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are

A. Elections.
B. Duties.
C. Rights.
D. Services.

22. Separation of powers denotes _____

A. Separation of governmental powers but not separation of persons
B. Separation of governmental powers and Separation of persons
C. Separation of persons only
D. Separation of powers of government only

23. The assent of the President is required to convert a/an ____ to law
A. Bill
B. Edict
C. Proclamation
D. Decree

24. The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as:
A. the bureaucracy
B. the legislature
C. the executive
D. the mass media

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25. The capitalist economy is dictated by:

A. Government economic blueprint
B. Consumers’ requirements
C. Diminishing returns
D. the forces of demand and supply

26. The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as _____

A. National Assembly
B. Knesset
C. Parliament
D. Congress

27. The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was____
A. Chief P.C Asiodu.
B. Chief Edwin Clerk.
C. Chief Allison Ayida.
D. Chief Simeon Adebo.

28. The highest grade in the civil service is known as ____

A. Executive cadre.
B. Administrative cadre.
C. Technical cadre.
D. Clerical cadre.

29. The law of libel limits a citizen’s right to freedom of _____

A. Association.
B. Expression.
C. Worship.
D. Movement.

30. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that

A. It ensures the anonymity of each voter.
B. It is faster than other systems.
C. Nobody can be prevented from voting.
D. It extends the franchise to all adults.

31. The permanent executive includes:

A. Civil servants and not public servants
B. Civil servants and politicians
C. all career officers that serve any government in power
D. elected and appointed politicians

32. The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives
is called____
A. Institutional group
B. Interest group

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C. Promotional group
D. Anomic group

33. The three fundamental rights of citizens are ____

A. Life, liberty and property.
B. Salvation, property, freedom of thought.
C. Employment, property and social security.
D. Free education, employment and property.

34. When a constitution is not difficult to amend, it is said to be:

A. Rigid
B. Systematic
C. Flexible
D. Federal

35. Which of the following best describes a sovereign state?

A. a member of the African Union
B. Freedom from economic control
C. Geographical contiguity
D. Military, political and economic independence

36. Which of these is an element of state power?

A. Geographical location, population & economic resources
B. Geographical location, elite interests & economic resources
C. Geographical location, ethnicity & economic resources
D. Geographical location, political crisis & economic resources

37. Which of these is not a method of election?

A. Simple majority.
B. Proportional representation.
C. Primary election.
D. Co-option.

38. _____ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria

A. The Civil Service
B. The Legislature
C. The Executive
D. The Judiciary

39. A two-party system of government is one in which

A. only one party performs multiparty functions
B. the elite dominate political parties
C. only few parties are allowed to operate by law
D. There are two major parties and other minor parties

40. An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the ____
A. Age-grade.

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B. Ozo-title holders.
C. Council of Chiefs.
D. Assembly of lineage heads.

41. Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it ____
A. Did not make provisions for them.
B. Was exploitative and cumbersome.
C. Made traditional rulers too powerful.
D. Was undemocratic and oppressive.

42. Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting ____

A. Rapid economic development
B. unity in diversity
C. even national development
D. democracy

43. In Nigeria, the civil service was first regionalized by the

A. Independence constitution.
B. Richard constitution.
C. Clifford constitution.
D. Lyttleton constitution.

44. In the Hausa pre-colonial political system, sovereignty was located in the ____
A. Alkali
B. Emir
C. Waziri
D. Galadima

45. In the pre-Colonial Hausa/Fulani system, the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate was
approved by
A. Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu.
B. Galadima and the Waziri.
C. Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali.
D. Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima.

46. Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because
A. Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain.
B. Of the return of the educated elite from abroad.
C. Prices of commodities fell below expectation.
D. Africans were nominated to the executive council.

47. Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the ____
A. 1922 Clifford constitution.
B. 1946 Richard constitution.
C. 1953 London conference.
D. 1954 Lyttleton constitution.

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48. Nigeria’s First Constitution

A. Lyttleton constitution.
B. Clifford constitution.
C. Macpherson Constitution.
D. Independence constitution.

49. One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is

A. Frequent movement of staff
B. Standardization
C. Professionalization
D. Stagnation

50. One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform
of the civil service was____
A. Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries.
B. Change from Permanent Secretary to Director General.
C. Change from Director General to Permanent Administrators.
D. Permanent Professionals.

51. The _____ Local government reforms recognized local government as the third tier of
government
A. 1963
B. 1976
C. 1988
D. 1989

52. The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis
within the ____
A. NCNC
B. AG
C. NPC
D. NNDP

53. The First Executive president of Nigeria was

A. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe.
B. Sir Abubakar Tafawa Balewa
C. General Yakubu Gowon
D. Alhaji Shehu Shagari

54. The first military coup in Nigeria took place on _____

A. July 15, 1966
B. July 27, 1967
C. January 15, 1966
D. January 13, 1966

55. The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were ____
A. ACN, ANPP and PDP

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B. AD, APP and PDP

C. PPA, PDP, CAN
D. APGA, CAN and PDPB

56. The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to ____
A. More military institutions
B. Return to civilian rule
C. Independence from British rule
D. civil unrest in the North

57. The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the ____
A. Law Court.
B. Civil Service Commission.
C. Police Affairs Commission.
D. Public Complaints Commission.

58. The main opposition party during the First Republic was the ____
A. Northern People’s Congress
B. Action Group
C. Northern Element Progressive Union
D. United Middle Belt Congress

59. The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was ___

A. East central state
B. Lagos state
C. Mid- Western state
D. North central state

60. The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties among
these:
A. All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern People’s Alliance
B. Nigerian National Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance
C. National Democratic Coalition and Nigerian People’s Alliance
D. National Democratic Alliance and Northern Elements Progressive Union

61. Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total of_____
Local government councils
A. 334
B. 620
C. 724
D. 774

62. Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system?
A. Hausa/ Fulani.
B. Yoruba.
C. Igbo.
D. Edo.

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63. which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria?
A. Insufficient funding and limited internally generated revenue
B. Interference and control by higher levels of government
C. Lack of competent and qualified staff
D. lack of sufficient number of local governments

64. Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government?
A. Cultural diversities
B. Security consideration
C. Economic consideration
D. Limited resources.

65. Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria?

A. Nigerian Railway Corporation
B. Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria
C. Federal Mortgage Bank of Nigeria
D. National Deposit Insurance Corporation

66. Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions?
A. Both had provisions for the office of the president.
B. Both had provision for the office of the constitutional president.
C. Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president.
D. Both had provision for the office of an executive president.

67. Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment of
ECOWAS?
A. Sani Abacha
B. Yakubu Gowon
C. Olusegun Obasanjo
D. Tafawa Balewa

68. In 1975, Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the
crisis in Angola.
A. Britain
B. Israel
C. USA
D. Mexico

69. Nigeria’s non–aligned posture was criticized on ground of the ____

A. Non–Proliferation Treaty
B. ECOWAS Treaty
C. Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
D. Anglo–Nigeria Defense Pact

70. The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group
(ECOMOG ) was
A. the bloody civil war in Nigeria

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B. the bloody civil war in Liberia

C. the bloody civil war in Sudan
D. the bloody civil war in all West African countries

71. The head of Nigeria’s foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and
addressed as ____
A. Ambassador
B. Envoy
C. High commissioner
D. Representative

72. What determines Nigeria’s relations with other countries?

A. Its national interest
B. Its level of democratization
C. Its citizens political sagacity
D. Its political culture

73. Which of the following best defines foreign policy?

A. The ways in which some actors on the domestic scene translate available power into policies
designed to bring positive outcomes
B. The actions of a state towards the celestial environment
C. A set of objectives with regards to the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of
strategies and tactics designed to achieve these objectives
D. The protection of the territorial integrity of a state

74. Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy?
A. Gowon administration
B. Murtala Mohammed administration
C. Sani Abacha regime
D. Abubakar regime

75. Which of these is an example of Nigeria’s external cultural relations?

A. Exchange of students with friendly nations
B. Trade relationships with other countries
C. Financial and economic assistance to needy countries
D. Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries

76. Which of these is correct about Nigeria’s foreign policy between 1960 and 1966?
A. It was pro-British
B. It was pro-American
C. It was pro-Soviet
D. It was pro-French

77. Which of these is NOT part of a country’s core or vital interests?

A. Economic viability
B. Political independence
C. Territorial integrity

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D. Political brouhaha

78. Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy?

A. Promotion and defence of a nation’s vital interest
B. Protection and promotion of a nation’s strategic interest
C. Protection and promotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country
D. Promotion and defence of the economic interest of a nation

79. Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC?
A. Alhaji Rilwanu Lukman
B. Prof Joe Garba
C. Prof Joy Ogwu
D. Gen. Ike Nwachukwu

80. Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated?

A. 1962
B. 1963
C. 1960
D. 1961

81. A major weakness of the Commonwealth is ____

A. lack of commitment by member states
B. lack of quorum at annual summits
C. poverty among member states
D. lack of democratic leadership

82. An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations ____
A. The regulation of international trade
B. The protection of the United States of America against terrorism
C. Respect for sovereign equality of member states
D. The transfer of technology to developing countries

83. In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible? A.

ECOWAS
B. EU
C. OPEC
D. Commonwealth

84. Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means

A. recognition of the Queen as the Head of the commonwealth and the republican states
B. recognition of the Queen as the Head of the commonwealth and not of the Republican
States
C. recognition of the Queen as the Head of the independent states and the republican states
D. recognition of the Queen as the Head of all independent states

85. One major achievement of OPEC is that ____

A. member nations are now formidable forces to be reckoned with in international politics

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B. world economic depression brought about fall in oil price

C. there is a declining loyalty of its members
D. there are challenges posed by non–OPEC members

86. One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS
A. Nigerian Ghana and Zaire
B. Guinea, Togo and Cameroun
C. Guinea Bissau, Burkina Faso and Cape Verde
D. Liberia Benin and Ethiopia

87. The AU was formed by members of OAU

A. On 8th July 2002 at Durban, South Africa
B. On 8th July 2003 at Abuja, Nigeria
C. On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli
D. On 8th June 2002 at Accra, Ghana

88. The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is ____
A. Nigeria
B. Cyprus
C. Ghana
D. India

89. The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place ____
A. On February 2, 2004 at Addis Ababa, Ethiopia
B. On February 3, 2003 at Addis Ababa, Ethiopia
C. On February 3, 2003 at Abuja, Nigeria
D. On February 2, 2004 at Lagos, Nigeria

90. The Non-aligned Movement was established at_____ in _____.

A. Bombay,1955
B. Bandung, 1955
C. Lagos, 1972
D. Addis Ababa, 1955

91. The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in ____
A. Abuja
B. Lusaka
C. Tunis
D. Cairo

92. The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is
A. The Security Council
B. The International Court of Justice
C. the General Assembly
D. The Trusteeship Council

93. To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU?

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A. Casablanca group
B. Monrovia group
C. Pan African group
D. African and Malagasy group

94. What is the full meaning of ECOWAS?

A. Economic Community for Western African States
B. Economic Community of Western African States
C. Economic Community of West African States
D. Economic Community for West African States

95. Where and when was the African Union inaugurated?

A. Durban, 2000
B. Addis Ababa, 1963
C. Lagos, 1972
D. Tripoli, 2001

96. Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization?

A. Organization of African Unity
B. United Nations
C. Food and Agriculture Organization
D. African Union

97. Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU?

A. The Assembly Conference
B. The Executive Council
C. African Court of Justice
D. The Commission

98. Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations?

A. voluntary association of the independent countries of the former British Colonies
B. association of free nations enjoying equal rights under the British
C. a free association of sovereign independent African States
D. a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the French colonial empire

99. Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO?

A. UNICEF
B. Security Council
C. Secretariat
D. General Assembly

100. Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations?

A. International Labour Organization
B. League of Nations
C. UNESCO
D. OAU

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ANSWERS TO GOVERNMENT QUESTIONS

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. B

17. C 18. D 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. A

31. C 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. D 38. D 39. D 40. A 41. C 42. B 43. B 44. B

45. A 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. C 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. D 54. C 55. B 56. D 57. A 58. B

59. C 60. B 61. D 62. C 63. D 64. D 65. C 66. A 67. B 68. C 69. D 70. B 71. C 72. A

73. C 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. D 78. C 79. A 80. A 81. A 82. C 83. B 84. B 85. A 86. C

87. A 88. D 89. B 90. B 91. D 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. A 96. C 97. C 98. A 99. A 100. B

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HISTORY
1. _____ is the name of the political head of Zaria
A. Obi
B. Emir
C. Oba
D. Alaafin

2. _____ was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the
opening of the Muni, the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim
Missionaries.
A. Kanem
B. Salem
C. Njimi
D. Chad

3. Before getting to Nigeria, River Niger passed across ____

A. Mali
B. Kanem
C. Chad
D. Morocco

4. Oba is the name of the political head of____

A. Benin
B. Kano
C. Bornu
D. Sokoto

5. The Amazon (female warriors) Participated actively in defending which of these

kingdoms ____
A. Oyo empire
B. Benin empire
C. Dahomey Kingdom
D. Ghana

6. The Form of economy of pre-colonial Nigerian peoples was _____

A. capitalist
B. socialist
C. communist
D. subsistence

7. The Fulani Jihadists were halted in 1840 at the battle of _____

A. Tondibi
B. Ngala
C. Adowa
D. Oshogbo

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8. The god of thunder and lightning in the Yoruba Pantheon is called ____
A. Oduduwa
B. Oramiyan
C. Sango
D. Afonja

9. The Igbo in the pre-colonial era had ____

A. dictatorial government
B. government of chiefs
C. no central government
D. warrant chiefs

10. The language of the Fulani is _____

A. Hausa
B. Kush
C. Mereo
D. Fulfude

11. The leader of the Jihad that took place in northern Nigeria between 1804 and 1805 was
A. Uthman dan Fodio
B. Elkenemi
C. Ahmadu Bello
D. Tafawa Balewa

12. The longest Dynasty in West Africa was ____

A. Saifawa of Kanem-Born
B. Umayid of Arab
C. Oranmiyan of Oyo
D. Bayajidda of Daura

13. The name of the traditional head of Nupe is called ____

A. Etsu
B. Emir
C. El Kanem
D. Obong

14. The old Oyo empire had as its capital in

A. Katunga
B. Ijabe
C. Igboho
D. Sepeteri

15. The original home of the Fulani was ____

A. Niger
B. Senegambia
C. Egypt
D. Chad

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16. The original home of the Kanuri people in Borno is said to be in ____
A. Kenem
B. Buganda
C. Kenya
D. Zulu

17. The political head of Yoruba towns is known as ____

A. Oba
B. Alaafin
C. Obi
D. Emir

18. The provinces and towns under Oyo were headed by local chiefs known as the ____
A. Oyo Mesi
B. Baale
C. Oba
D. Baba kekere

19. ____ was the capital of the Western Region in the colonial period.
A. Ife
B. Ibadan
C. Oyo
D. Abeokuta

20. It was through the activities of ____ that the Niger area became a British sphere of
influence
A. Lord Lugard
B. The United Africa Company
C. Herbert Macaulay
D. The Royal Niger company.

21. Nigeria as we know it today is a product of amalgamation of northern and southern

protectorates in the year ____
A. 1906
B. 1963
C. 1965
D. 1962

23. Palm Produce was heavily concentrated in ____

A. Northern Nigeria
B. North Eastern Nigeria
C. North western Nigeria
D. Southern Nigeria.

24. The first nationalist political party in post-world war II in Nigeria was____
A. NEPU
B. NPC

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C. NCNC
D. AG.

25. The First railway in Nigeria was constructed in ____

A. 1916
B. 1898
C. 1914
D. 1960

26. The headquarters of Department of Agriculture in colonial Nigeria was ____

A. Kaduna
B. Sokoto
C. Ibadan
D. Lagos

27. The missionary responsible for the abolition of killing of twins in Calabar was____
A. Mary Slessor
B. Magaret Thatcha
C. Lindsa Lisau
D. Judith By field

28. The Nigerian Youth Movement was founded in __

A. 1920
B. 1922
C. 1936
D. 1937

29. The system of administration used by the British in Nigeria was ____rule.
A. direct
B. indirect
C. divide and
D. warrant

30. The three well known nationalist leaders in Nigeria between 1948 and 1966 were____
A. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe, Chief Obafemi Awolowo and Alhaji Ahmadu Bello
B. Lord Lugard, Sir Arthur Richards and Sir John Macpherson
C. Herbert Macaulay, Earnest Ikoli and Okonkwo Nkem
D. Alhaji Isa Kaita, Dr. K.O. Mbadiwe and chief S.L Akintola

31. The trading company which conquered most of the northern Nigeria was ____
A. UAA
B. Royal Niger Company
C. PZ
D. John Holt

32. The University College, Ibadan was established in ____

A. 1960

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B. 1958
C. 1948
D. 1900

33. Who was the first woman to drive a car in Nigeria?

A. Dora Akunyuli
B. Farida Waziri
C. Laila Dongoyaro
D. Funmilayo Ransome kuti

34. ____ was not part of the policy of General Gowon’s administration immediately after the
Nigerian Civil War.
A. redistricution
B. rehabilitation
C. reconciliation
D. reconstruction

35. National Institute of Social and Economic Research is located in ____

A. Abuja
B. Ibadan
C. Lagos
D. Enugu

36. Nigeria became a federation of 19 states in ____

A. 1875
B. 1976
C. 1967
D. 1978

37. Nigeria was divided into 12 states in_____

A. 1960
B. 1963
C. 1967
D. 1970

38. Oodua people’s Congress is a cultural organization in ____

A. Southwestern Nigeria
B. Southeastern Nigeria
C. North Central Nigeria
D. North eastern Nigeria

39. The Attorney General of the Federation that was assassinated in Nigeria during
Obasanjo’s Administration was ____
A. Bola Ige
B. Babawale Idowu
C. Patrick Ndoka
D. Dele Olawale.

40. The capital of Taraba state is ____

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A. Dutse
B. Jalingo
C. Yola
D. Damaturu

41. The first Governor-General of Independent Nigeria was ____

A. Okoti Eboh
B. Nnamdi Azikwe
C. Tafawa Balewa
D. Obafemi Awolowo

42. The former Capital of Nigeria was ____

A. Calabar
B. Lagos
C. Abuja
D. Ibadan

43. The head of the electoral body that conducted the June 12, 1993 Election was
A. Humphrey Nwosu
B. Ovie whiskey
C. Eme Awa
D. Dagogo Jack

44. The Lingua franca of the peoples of Nigeria is ____

A. English
B. Yoruba
D. Hausa
D. French

45. The Niger Delta Environmentalist that was killed with eight others in Nigeria is
A. Leedum mitee
B. Ken Saro wiwa
C. Isaac Boro
D. Nana olomu

46. The question of the Nigerian civil war was raised for the first time at the meeting of the
OAU in September 1967 in ____
A. Kampala
B. Kinshasa
C. Nairobi
D. Lagos

47. The winner of annulled election of 1993 was ____

A. Alhaji Bashiru Tofa
B. Chief M.K.O. Abiola
C. Dr. Alex Ekwueme
D. Fashola

48. War against indiscipline was a brainchild of ____

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A. Ibrahim Babangida
C. Sani Abacha
C. Gen. Muhammadu Buhari
D. Aminu Kano

49. Who was the military Head of State that transferred power to Civilian regime in 1999
A. Ibrahim Babangida
B. Sani Abacha
C. Abubakar Abdul Salam
D. Yakubu Gowon

50. Who was the military Head of State that was killed in the second bloody coup of 196in
Nigeria?
A. Gen. Sani Abacha
B. Gen. shehu Yaradua
C. Gen. Murthala Muhammed
D. Major Gen. Aguiyi Ironsi

51. Acculturation in colonial administration was associated with the ____

A. French policy of Assimilation
B. British policy of direct rule
C. French policy of Association
D. British indirect rule system

52. Banjul is the capital of ____

A. Niger Republic
B. Britain
C. France
D. Gambia

53. ECOMOG is a peace monitoring organ of the ____

A. ECOWAS
B. UNO
C. AU
D. EU

54. Ghana and Mali were known for ____ production before European incursion.
A. basket
B. gold
C. tin
D. salt

55. Gold Coast was the former name of which of these countries?
A. Nigeria
B. Namibia
C. Mozambique
D. Ghana

56. Idris Aloma was a revered king of ____

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A. Kebbi
B. Katsina
C. Kanem-Borno
D. Zauzau

57. Maghrib is a name used to describes countries in North Africa except ____
A. Algeria
B. Morocco
C. Tunisia
D. Egypt

58. Mansa Musa is the name of the king of ____

A. Tekular
B. Gobir
C. Mali
D. Kanem

59. Nationalist movements started late in French West Africa because

A. Africans were allowed to enlist in the army
B. Africans felt they were free
C. France suppressed political associations and parties
D. France did not allow Africans to travel abroad.

60. Policy of assimilation was used in West Africa by the ____

A. French
B. British
C. Dutch
D. Italians

61. The Berlin Conference of 1884 was convened at the instance of ____
A. Winston Churchill
B. Otto von Bismarck
C. Woodrow Wilson
D. Mussolini

62. The first Country to regain Independence in West Africa is ____

A. Cameroon
B. Senegal
C. Ghana
D. Gambia

63. The first European explorers to navigate the shores of the Atlantic Ocean into the West
African coasts were the ____
A. Swedish
B. Dutch
C. Portuguese
D. Spanish

64. The French policy of Assimilation in West Africa was a form of _____

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A. Indirect rule
B. direct rule
C. democracy
D. monarchy

65. The Italians were defeated by the Ethiopians at the battle of Adowa under the
leadership of ____
A. Emperor Theodore
B. Emperor Yoahnes
C. Emperor Menelik
D. Emperor Jesuit

66. The Mande speaking people could be found in ____

A. Gambia
B. Sierra Leone
C. Mali
D. Nigeria

67. The militant group formed by Abdullahi Ibn Yacin was known as the ____
A. Almorarids
B. Sijilmesa
C. Tartars
D. Mameluks

68. The pioneered institution of Higher Education in West Africa is ____

A. Fourah Bay college
B. Baptist Academy
C. Birch Freeman
D. Hope Waddel Institute.

69. The Suez Canal in Egypt was constructed in ____

A. 1840
B. 1875
C. 1869
D. 1890

70. The treaty of Ucayali was signed between ____ and ____
A. Italy and Libya
B. Italy and Ethiopia
C. Italy and Morocco
D. Italy and Tunisia.

71. The use of forced labour was one of the features of _____
A. British Colonial policy
B. French colonial policy
C. American colonial policy
D. Japanese colonial policy

72. Which of the following countries was not involved in the peace–keeping effort in Liberia?

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A. Sierra Leone
B. Togo
C. Nigeria
D. Cameroon

73. Who was the king of the Mali empire that displayed wealth in Gold in the Middle East while
on pilgrimage to Mecca?
A. Muhmmed Askia
B. Sonni Ali
C. Mansa Musa
D. Sundiata

74. In the mid nineteen century, the king of Buganda that accommodated the first Arab and
Swahili traders was ____
A. Kaberaga
B. Kabaka
C. Katriko
D. Lat Dior

75. In the Nineteenth Century Gold and Diamonds were discovered in commercial
quantities in which of these territories in Africa?
A. Nairobi
B. Lagos
C. Kimberley
D. Cairo

76. Namibia is a country in ____

A. Europe
B. Asia
C. North America
D. Africa

77. Shaka was a brave warrior in ____

A. Zulu land
B. Ndebele
C. Mexico
D. Tripoli.

78. The majority of the slaves were taken from all but except one of these African countries
A. Gold Coast
B. Dahomey
C. Nigeria
D. Zambia

79. The progress in the Economy of Zanzibar in the first decade of the nineteenth century is
synonymous with ____
A. Sayyid Said
B. Mamoud Iraq
C. Kabir Muktar

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D. Muhammed Ali

80. Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is one of the specialised agencies of the ____
A. AU
B. UNO
C. ECOWAS
D. EEC

81. How many Continents are in the world?

A. 10
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

82. Indirect rule as a British Colonial policy was first introduced in ____
A. India
B. Uganda
C. Ghana
D. Nigeria

83. One of these could be used as a tool to understand the African past.
A. Microscope
B. Satellite
C. Internet
D. Archaeology

84. Sahara Desert was maintained during the trans-Saharan trade by the ____
A. Berbers
B. Tuaregs
C. Fulanis
D. Marauders

85. The explorer who discovered the new world was ____
A. Christopher Columbus
B. Henry the Navigator
C. Queen Isabela
D. John Cabot

86. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is at ____

A. New York
B. Geneva
C. The Hague
D. Moscow

87. The most spoken language in Africa is ____

A. Igbo
B. Hausa
C. Yoruba
D. Ki-Swahili

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88. The place in the desert where travelers stop by to refresh themselves is called
A. Oasis
B. Eldorado
C. Paradise
D. Aso Rock

89. The principle of non-alignment means that a country ____

A. is neutral in international trade
B. does not belong to any world organization
C. does not belong to any of the power blocs
D. has no diplomatic missions abroad

90. The resolutions and programmes of the AU are executed by the ____
A. secretariat
B. council of ministers
C. secretary general
D. commission of mediation

91. The second most-spoken language in Africa is ____

A. Hausa
B. Yoruba
C. Igbo
D. Ki-Swahili

92. The Second World War ended in ____

A. 1944
B. 1945
C. 1950
D. 1960

93. The United Nations Organisation has its headquarters in ____

A. British
B. USSR
C. USA
D. China

94. Which of the following bodies is the most representative organ of the United Nations
Organization?
A. The Security Council
B. The Trusteeship council
C. The General Assembly
D. The International Court of Justice

95. Which of the following countries did not join the League of Nations?
A. France
B. Britain
C. Spain
D. USA

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96. Which of the following countries have the right to veto the decision of the Security Council?
A. Australia
B. Switzerland
C. China
D. Canada

97. Which of the following countries is a permanent member of the security council of the UNO?
A. India
B. Canada
C. China
D. Italy

98. Which of the following was not a colony of Britain in Africa?

A. Nigeria
B. Gambia
C. Sierra Leone
D. Senegal.

99. Which of the following was once Nigeria’s Permanent Representative at the United Nations?
A. Professor Bolaji Akinyemi
B. Major General Ike Nwachukwu
C. Professor Jubril Aminu
D. Major General Joseph Garba

100. Within the United Nations, the veto power is exercised by ____
A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. General Assembly
D. Security Council

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ANSWERS TO HISTORY QUESTIONS

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. A

17. A 18. B 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. A

31. B 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. B 43. A 44. A

45. B 46. B 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. D 51. A 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. D 56. C 57. D 58. C

59. C 60. A 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. B 65. C 66. B 67. A 68. A 69. C 70. B 71. B 72. B

73. C 74. B 75. C 76. D 77. A 78. D 79. A 80. B 81. B 82. A 83. D 84. B 85. A 86. C

87. D 88. A 89. C 90. B 91. A 92. B 93. C 94. C 95. D 96. C 97. C 98. D 99. D 100. D

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