NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

Test Booklet Code

1. Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one much time to slide down on rough surface than on
ENGLISH

45 wall at x = L and can be taken to be very wide in the

z direction. When filled with a liquid of surface
tension S and density , the liquid surface makes
angle o(o << 1) with the x-axis at x = L. If y(x) is
the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic
friction (k) between the object and the rough
surface is close to
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.40
the height of the surface then the equation for y(x)

NEET (UG)-2025
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.75
is:

5. The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are

100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks,
car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m.
|| DATE: 04-05-2025 || If FA and FB are the forces applied by the breaks on
cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio FA/FB is
3 2
Important Instructions: (1) (2)
2 3
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options
dy 1 1
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany and Zoology). All questions (take (x) = sin (x) = tan (x) = , g is the (3) (4)
dx 3 2
are compulsory. acceleration due to gravity)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each d2y g d2y g 6. The current passing through the battery in the given
incorrect response, 1 mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum mark is 720. (1) = x (2) = y
dx 2 S dx 2 S circuit is:
3. Use a Blue/Black ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on the Answer
d2y g dy g
Sheet. (3) = (4) = x
dx 2 S dx S
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE 2. A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm,
Copy) to the Invigilator before leaving the room/hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of
Booklet with them. 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm,
the magnification in the microscope is
6. The CODE for this Booklet is 00. (1) 100 (2) 125
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the (3) 150 (4) 250
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test (1) 2.0 A (2) 0.5 A
3. An electron (mass 9 × 10–31 kg and charge 1.6 ×10–19 C) (3) 2.5 A (4) 1.5 A
Booklet/Answer Sheet. The use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
moving with speed c/100 (c = speed of light) is
8. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
injected into a magnetic field B of magnitude 9 × 10–4 T 7. A bob of heavy mass m is suspended by a light string
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to of length l. The bob is given a horizontal velocity v0
seat. apply an uniform electric E together with the as shown in figure. If the string gets slack at some
10. Use of an Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect point P making an angle  from the horizontal, the
from its path. Then (speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1) ratio of the speed v of the bob at point P to its initial
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in
speed v0 is:
the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of (1) E is perpendicular to B and
this examination. its magnitude is 27 × 104 V m–1
(2) E is perpendicular to B and
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
its magnitude is 27 × 102 V m–1
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the
(3) E is parallel to B and
Attendance Sheet.
its magnitude is 27 × 102 V m–1
(4) E is parallel to B and
1
its magnitude is 27 × 104 V m–1  1  2
( sin  )
1
(1) 2 (2)  
 2 + 3 sin  
4. There are two inclined surfaces of equal length (L)
1 1
and same angle of inclination 45º with the  cos   2
 sin   2
(3)   (4)  
 2 + 3 sin    2 + 3 sin  
horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is
perfectly smooth A given body takes 2 times as

[1] [Contd... [2] [Contd...

 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

8. The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is 12. A 2 amp current is flowing through two different 16. To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor
similar to the output of an/a _______gate. small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. of 20 Ω, a capacitor of reactance 25 Ω and an
The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will inductor of reactance 45 Ω are connected in series.
be The corresponding current in the circuit and the
(1) 1:4 phase angle between the current and the voltage is, 3 4
respectively: (1) (2)
(2) 1:2 2 3
(1) 7.8 A and 30° 5 5
(3) 2:1 (3) (4)
(2) 7.8 A and 45° 3 4
(4) 4:1
(1) AND (3) 15.6 A and 30°
(2) NAND (4) 15.6 A and 45°
13. In a certain camera, a combination of four similar 20. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated
(3) OR by d. Two slabs of different dielectric constant K1
thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact.
(4) NOR Then the power of the combination and the total 17. The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. 3 d
and K2 with thickness d and , respectively are
magnification in comparison to the power (p) and What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were 8 2
magnification (m) for each lens will be, to expand to twice its present radius without any inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance
9. The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is
respectively– external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere becomes two times larger than when there is nothing
given by
of uniform density. between the plates.
Ez = 60 cos (5x + 1.5 ×109 t)V/m. (1) 4p and 4m
(1) 100 days If K1 = 1.25 K2, the value of K1 is:
Then expression for the corresponding magnetic (2) p4 and 4m
(2) 105 days (1) 2.66
field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the (3) 4p and m4
(3) 115 days (2) 2.33
field): (4) p4 and m4
(4) 108 days (3) 1.60
(1) By = 2 × 10–7 cos (5x + 1.5 × 109t)T
(4) 1.33
(2) Bx = 2 × 10–7 cos (5x + 1.5 × 109t)T 14. An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20
18. A model for quantized motion of an electron in a
(3) Bz = 60cos (5x + 1.5 × 109t)T moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn
uniform magnetic field B states that the flux passing 21. Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus
from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11
(4) By = 60sin (5x + 1.5 × 109t)T through the orbit of the electron is n(h/e) where n is service with a bus leaving in either direction every
atmospheric pressure at temperature 27ºC. The mass
an integer, h is Planck's constant and e is the T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of
of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly
10. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. magnitude of electron's charge. According to the 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus
equal to :
model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of
The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10
100
m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its [Given, R = J mol −1K −1 , and molecular mass lowest energy state will be (m is the mass of the her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite
12 electron) direction. Choose the correct option for the period T
collision with the ground is of O2 = 32, 1 atm pressure = 1.01 ×105 N/m2] he of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant)
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2) (1)
(1) 0.125 kg m of the buses.
(1) 21 Ns (2) 0.144 kg (1) 9 min, 40 km/h
he
(2)
(2) 7 Ns (3) 0.116 kg 2m (2) 25 min, 100 km/h
(3) 0 (4) 0.156 kg heB (3) 10 min, 90 km/h
(3)
(4) 84 Ns m (4) 15 min, 120 km/h
15. In some appropriate units, time (t) and position (x) heB
(4)
11. AB is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The relation of a moving particle is given by t = x2 + x. 2m 22. A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans
potential difference “VA – VB”, at the instant when The acceleration of the particle is against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of
current i = 2 A and is increasing at a rate of 1 2 19. Three identical heat conducting rods are connected 60° with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal
(1) −
amp/second is: ( x + 2)3 in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the
sides have thermal conductivity 2K while that in the rod is:
2
(2) − middle has thermal conductivity K. The left end of (take g = 10 m/s2)
(2 x + 1)3 the combination is maintained at temperature 3T and (1) 100 N
(1) 5 volt the right end at T. The rods are thermally insulated
2
(2) 6 volt (3) + (2) 100 3 N
( x + 1)3 from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left
(3) 9 volt junction is T1 and that at the right junction is T2. The (3) 200 N
2
(4) 10 volt (4) + ratio T1/T2 is: (4) 200 3 N
2x + 1
[3] [Contd... [4] [Contd...
 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

23. In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is 25. Consider the diameter of a spherical object being 29. A container has two chambers of volumes V1 = 2 R R
measured with the help of a Vernier callipers. (1) (2)
connected to a box filled with sand. As the box litres and V2 = 3 litres separated by a partition made 64 32
oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains n1 = 5
equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The R R
so that the average frequency ω(t) and average and n2 = 4 moles of ideal gas at pressures p1 = 1 atm (3) (4)
least division in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of 16 8
amplitude A(t) of the system change with time t. and p2 = 2 atm, respectively. When the partition is
V.S. is at x = 0.1 cm when the jaws of Vernier
Which one of the following options schematically removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium
callipers are closed.
depicts these changes correctly? pressure of: 34. De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting
If the main scale reading for the diameter is
M = 5 cm and the number of coinciding vernier in the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom is close to
(1) 1.3 atm
division is 8, the measured diameter after zero error (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)
correction, is: (2) 1.6 atm
(1) 0.067 nm
(1) 5.18 cm (2) 5.08 cm (3) 1.4 atm
(2) 0.67 nm
(1) (3) 4.98 cm (4) 5.00 cm (4) 1.8 atm
(3) 1.67 nm

26. A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is (4) 2.67 nm

30. A particle of mass m is moving around the origin
being charged such that the surface charge density
with a constant force F pulling it towards the origin.
on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with 35. An electric dipole with dipole moment 5 × 10–6 Cm
time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the
radius r of the nth orbit and the particle's speed v in is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric
current is:
(2) field of magnitude 4 × 105 N/C. The dipole is then
(1) zero at all places the orbit depend on n as
rotated through an angle of 60° with respect to the
(2) constant between the plates and zero outside (1) r  n1/3 ; v  n1/3
the plates. electric field. The change in the potential energy of
(3) non-zero everywhere with maximum at the (2) r  n1/3 ; v  n 2/3 the dipole is:
imaginary cylindrical surface connecting (3) r  n 2/3 ; v  n1/3 (1) 0.8 J
peripheries of the plates. (2) 1.0 J
(3) (4) zero between the plates and non-zero outside. (4) r  n 4/3 ; v  n −1/3
(3) 1.2 J

27. An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is (4) 1.5 J

31. The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is
incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at
Brewster's angle. Then- about 4 times the radius of the orbit of
36. A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained
(1) reflected light is completely polarized and the Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days.
between the points A and B of the circuit shown in
angle of reflection is close to 60° Then which of the following is the length of
the figure. The current through the branch CD of the
(4) (2) reflected light is partially polarized and the I year on Mercury?
circuit is:
angle of reflection is close to 30°. (1) 88 earth days
(3) both reflected and transmitted light are (2) 225 earth days
perfectly polarized with angles of reflection
and refraction close to 60° and 30°, (3) 172 earth days
respectively. (4) 124 earth days
24. A balloon is made of a material of surface tension S (4) transmitted light is completely polarized with
and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in angle of refraction close to 30°
32. A body weight 48 N on the surface of the earth. The
it) has small area A. It is filled with a gas of density
gravitational force experienced by the body due to
ρ and takes a spherical shape of radius R. When the 28. Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B (1) 1.5 A
gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius r have their centres separated by a certain distance. the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of
Charge on each sphere is q and the force of the earth from its surface is: (2) 2.0 A
changes from R to 0 (zero) in time T. If the speed
v(r) of gas coming out of the balloon depends on r repulsion between them is F. A third identical (1) 16 N (3) 2.5 A
uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact
as ra and T  S  A  R  with sphere A first and then with B and finally
(2) 27 N (4) 3.0 A

1 1 3 removed from both. New force of repulsion between (3) 32 N

(1) a = ,  = ,  = −1,  = +1,  = spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible (4) 36 N 37. A photon and an electron (mass m) have the same
2 2 2
1 1 1
(2) a = − ,  = − ,  = −1,  = − ,  =
5
compared to the distance of separation so that for
calculating force between them they can be ( )
energy E. The ratio λ photon /λ electron of their de
2 2 2 2 considered as point charges) is best given as: 33. A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces. Broglie wavelengths is (c is the speed of light)
1 1 1 7 From these pieces two equivalent resistances are
(3) a = − ,  = − ,  = −1,  = ,  = (1)
3F
(2)
2F
(1) E / 2m (2) c 2mE
2 2 2 2 5 3 made by adding four of these together in parallel.
1 1 1 1 7 F 3F Then these two sets are added in series. The net 2m 1
(4) a = ,  = , = − ,  = ,  = (3) (4) (3) c (4) E / 2m
2 2 2 2 2 2 8 effective resistance of the combination is: E c
[5] [Contd... [6] [Contd...
 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

38. Which of the following options represent the (1) D1 is forward biased, D2 is reverse biased 46. The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed 49. Predict the major product 'P' in the following
variation of photoelectric current with property (2) D1 is reverse biased, D2 is forward biased
of light shown on the x-axis? (3) D1 and D2 both are forward biased by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes sequence of reactions-
(4) D1 and D2 both are reverse biased n = 2 → n = 3 and n = 4 → n = 6 transitions,
respectively, is
41. Two gases A and B are filled at the same pressure in
1
separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius rA (1)
and rB, respectively. On supplying an equal amount 36
of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant 1
pressure, the pistons of gas A and B are displaced by (2) (1)
16 cm and 9 cm, respectively. If the change in their 16
internal energy is the same, then the ratio rA/ rB is 1
(3)
equal to 9
4 3 (2)
(1) (2) 1
3 4 (4)
4
2 3
(3) (4) (3)
3 2
47. Which of the following statements are true?
42. A physical quantity P is related to four observations A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point,
a, b, c and d as follows: Cs has a very low melting point. (4)
P = a 3b 2 / c d B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values
The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and of N and Cl are not the same.
d are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4% respectively. The
C. Ar, K+, Cl–, Ca2+ and S2– are all isoelectronic 50. Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He+ and Li2+
percentage error in the quantity P is
species. are [Given RH = 2.18×10–18 J, a0 = 52.9 pm]
(1) 10% (2) 2%
(3) 13% (4) 15% D. The correct order of the first ionization (1) En (Li2+) = –19.62 × 10–18 J:
enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si rn (Li2+) = 17.6 pm
(1) A only (2) A and C 43. The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid
(3) A and D (4) B and D sheet, placed between two crossed polarization at is Si > A > Mg > Na. En (He+) = –8.72× 10–18 J;
22.5° from the polarization axis of one of the rn (He+) = 26.4 pm
39. A sphere of radius R is cut from a larger solid polaroid, is (I0 is the intensity or polarised light after E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of
(2) En (Li2+) = –8.72 × 10–18 J;
sphere or radius 2R as shown in the figure. The passing through the first polaroid): Li and Rb.
ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere rn (Li2+) = 26.4 pm
(1) 0
I
(2) 0
I Choose the correct answer from the options given
to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis En (He+) = –19.62 × 10–18 J:
is:
2 4 below:
I0 I0 rn (He+) = 17.6 pm
(3) (4) (1) A, B and E only
8 16
(2) C and E only (3) En (Li2+) = –19.62 × 10–16 J;
(3) C and D only rn (Li2+) = 17.6 pm
44. Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended
from two separate massless springs of spring (4) A, C and E only En (He+) = –8.72 × 10–16 J:
constants k1 and k2 respectively, oscillate vertically. rn (He+) = 26.4 pm
If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio
(AQ/AP) of the amplitude AQ of mass Q to the 48. Match List-I with List-II. (4) En (Li2+) = –8.72 × 10–16 J;
amplitude AP of mass P is: List-I List-II rn (Li2+) = 17.6 pm
7 7 k k (Ion) (Group Number in Cation En (He2+) = –19.62 × 10–16 J:
(1) (2) (1) 2 (2) 1
8 40 k1 k2 Analysis)
rn (He+) = 17.6 pm
7 7 k2 k1 A. Co2+ I. Group-I
(3) (4) (3) (4)
57 64 k1 k2 B. Mg2+ II. Group-III
C. Pb2+ III. Group-IV 51. Which of the following are paramagnetic?
40. A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (D1) and
45. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental D. A 3+ IV. Group-VI A. [NiCl4]2– B. Ni(CO)4
(D2) is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage frequency f in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically C. [Ni(CN)4]2– D. [Ni(H2O)6]2+
Vin = 220sin (100πt ) volt, then at t = 15 m sec in a water drum to half of its length. The Choose the correct answer from the options given
E. Ni (PPh3)4
fundamental frequency of the air column is now below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given
equal to: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
f below:
(1) (2) f (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2 (1) A and C only (2) B and E only
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3f (3) A and D only (4) A, D and E only
(3) (4) 2f (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2
[7] [Contd... [8] [Contd...
 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

52. Given below are two statements: 57. The correct order of the wavelength of light 61. If the molar conductivity ( Λ m ) of a 0.050 mol L–1 65. C(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g); ∆H= –74.8 kJ mol–1
Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, absorbed by the following complexes is, Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate
solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm2 mol–1,
arsenic can form arsine. A. [Co(NH3)6]3+ B. [Co(CN)6]3– representation of the above reaction?
Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony its extent (degree) of dissociation will be
[R → reactants; P → products]
C. [Cu(H2O)4]2+ D. [Ti(H2O)6]3+
pentoxide. [Assume Λ °+ = 349.6 S cm2 mol–1 and
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: Λ °– = 50.4 S cm2 mol–1]
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (1) B < D < A < C (2) B < A < D < C (1) 0.115
(1)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) 0.125
(3) C < D < A < B (4) C < A < D < B
incorrect. (3) 0.225
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) 0.215
incorrect. 58. Which one of the following compounds can exist as
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is cis-trans isomers?
62. Given below are two statements:
correct. (1) Pent-1-ene (2)
Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule
(2) 2-Methylhex-2-ene with bond order zero is quite stable.
53. Which among the following electronic
(3) 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond
configurations belong to main group elements?
(4) 1.2-Dimethylcyclohexane length increases.
A. [Ne]3s1 B. [Ar]3d3 4s2
C. [Kr]4d 5s 5p
10 2 5
D. [Ar]3d104s1 In the light of the above statements, chose the most
(3)
E. [Rn]5f06d27s2 59. Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their appropriate answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given ionization constant values K a1 , K a 2 and K a 3 , (1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
below: respectively, while K is the overall ionization (2) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(1) B and E only constant. Which of the following statements are (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) A and C only true? (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
(4)
(3) D and E only A. log K = log K a1 + log K a 2 + log K a 3
(4) A, C and D only 63. Out of the following complex compounds, which of
B. H3PO4 is stronger acid than H 2 PO 4– and the compound will be having the minimum
54. Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of HPO 2– conductance is solution? 66. Match the List-I with List-II.
4 .
the following? (1) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] List-I List-II
C. K a1 > K a 2 > K a 3 (Example) (Type of Solution)
(1) Law of conservation of mass (2) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ] A. Humidity I. Solid in solid
(2) Law of constant proportion K a3 + K a 2
D. K a1 = (3) [Co(NH3 )6 ] Cl3 B. Alloys II. Liquid in gas
(3) Law of multiple proportion 2
C. Amalgams III. Solid in gas
(4) Law of gaseous volume Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) [Co(NH3 )5 Cl] Cl D. Smoke IV. Liquid in solid
below: Choose the correct answer from the options given
55. Consider the following compounds: (1) A and B only (2) A and C only 64. Match the List-I with List-II. below.
KO2, H2O2 and H2SO4 (3) B, C and D only (4) A, B and C only List-I List-II (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
The oxidation states of the underlined elements in A. XeO3 I. sp3d; linear (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
them are, respectively, (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
60. Which one of the following reactions does NOT B. XeF2 II. sp3; pyramidal
(1) +1, –1, and +6 (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
give benzene as the product? C. XeOF4 III. sp3d3: distorted
(2) +2, –2, and +6 octahedral 67. The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the
(3) +1, –2, and +4 (1) D. XeF6 IV. sp3d2; square given amines is:
(4) +4, –4, and +6 pyramidal (1) N-methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine
(2) Choose the correct answer from the options given > N-ethylethanamine
56. If the half-life (t 1/2 ) for a first order reaction is below. (2) N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine >
1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% benzenamine > N-methylaniline
(3) (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
completion of the reaction is closet to: (3) N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N-
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(1) 2 minutes (2) 4 minutes methylaniline > benzenamine
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) 5 minutes (4) 10 minutes (4) (4) benzenamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
> N-ethylethanamine

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 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

68. Among the following, choose the ones with equal 72. Match the List-I with List-II. 76. Among the given compounds I-III, the correct order 80. Match List-I with List-II.
number of atoms. List-I List-II of bond dissociation energy of C–H bond marked List-I List-II
A. 212 g of Na2CO3 (s) [molar mass = 106 g] (Mixture) (Method of Separation) A. Haber process I. Fe catalyst
with * is:
B. 248 g of Na2O (s) [molar mass = 62 g] A. CHCl3 + I. Distillation under B. Wacker II. PdCl2
C. 240 g of NaOH (s) [molar mass = 40 g] C6H5NH2 reduced pressure
oxidation
D. 12 g of H2(g) [molar mass = 2 g] B. Crude oil in II. Steam distillation
C. Wilkinson III. [(PPh3)3RhCl]
E. 220 g of CO2(g) [molar mass = 44 g] petroleum
Choose the correct answer from the options given catalyst
industry
below: C. Glycerol from III. Fractional D. Ziegler IV. TiCl4 with Al(CH3)3
(1) II > I > III catalyst
(1) A, B, and C only spent-lye distillation
(2) A, B, and D only D. Aniline-water IV. Simple distillation (2) I > II > III Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) B, C, and D only Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) III > II > I below:
(4) B, D, and E only below. (4) II > III > I (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
69. Match the List-I with List-II. (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
77. Which one of the following compounds does not (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
List-I List-II (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
decolourize bromine water? (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(Name of Vitamin) (Deficiency disease) (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
A. Vitamin B12 I. Cheilosis
(1) 81. 5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make
B. Vitamin D II. Convulsions 73. For the reaction A(g)  2B(g), the backward
C. Vitamin B2 III. Rickets a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The
reaction rate constant is higher than the forward
D. Vitamin B6 .IV. Pernicious anaemia (2) vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78
reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K.
Choose the correct answer from the options given [Given: R= 0.0831 L atm mol–1 K–1] torr respectively. Which of the following is true
below. (3) regarding the described solution?
KP for the reaction at 1000 K is
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (1) 83.1 (2) 2.077×105 (1) The solution shows positive deviation.
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4)
(3) 0.033 (4) 0.021 (2) The solution shows negative deviation.
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) The solution is ideal.
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 74. Given below are two statements:
78. The major product of the following reaction is: (4) The solution has volume greater than the
Statement I: Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by sum of individual volumes.
70. The correct order of decreasing acidity of the the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at
following aliphatic acids is: 273-278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.
(1) (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH 82. Sugar ‘X’
Statement II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene
> HCOOH ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared A. is found in honey.
(2) CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with (1) B. is a keto sugar.
> HCOOH KI. C. exists in α and β – anomeric forms.
(3) HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > In the light of the above statements, choose the most D. is laevorotatory.
(CH3)3CCOOH appropriate answer from the options given below: (2) ‘X’ is:
(4) HCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (1) D-Glucose
> CH3COOH
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) D-Fructose
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3)
71. Given below are two statements; (3) Maltose
incorrect
Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an (4) Sucrose
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
extreme form of paramagnetism. (4)
correct
Statement II: The number of unpaired electrons in 83. Identify the suitable reagent for the following
a Cr2+ ion (Z=24) is the same as that of a Nd3+ ion conversion.
75. How many products (including stereoisomers) are
(Z= 60). 79. Which of the following aqueous solution will
expected from monochlorination of the following
In the light of the above statements, choose the exhibit highest boiling point?
compound?
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) 0.01 M Urea (1) (i) LiAlH4, (ii) H+/H2O
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) 0.01 M KNO3 (2) (i) AlH(iBu)2 (ii) H2O
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 0.01 M Na2SO4 (3) (i) NaBH4, (ii) H+/H2O
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (3) 5 (4) 6 (4) 0.015 M C6H12O6 (4) (i) H2/Pd-BaSO4
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 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

84. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Choose the correct answer from the options given 91. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport 96. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason below: chain is also known as Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered
(R): (1) A, D only (1) Cytochrome bc1 the first genetic material evolved to carry out
Assertion (A): undergoes SN2 reaction (2) Succinate dehydrogenase essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic
(2) B, D only material and also as a catalyst for some important
faster than . (3) Cytochrome c oxidase
(3) A, C only biochemical reactions in living systems. Being
(4) NADH dehydrogenase
Reason (R): Iodine is a better leaving group reactive, RNA is unstable.
(4) B, C only
because of its large size. Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a
92. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA
In the light of the above statements, choose the more stable genetic material. Its double helical
following the equation.
88. Higher yield of NO in strands being complementary, resist changes by
correct answer from the options given below: (1) N2 (2) 2n evolving repairing mechanism.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct N 2 (g) + O 2  2NO(g) can be obtained at (3) 2n + 1 (4) 2N2 In the light of the above statements, choose the
explanation of A. [∆H of the reaction = + 180.7 kJ mol–1] most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the 93. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the below:
A. higher temperature
correct explanation of A. IVF method? (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
B. lower temperature A. High fatality risk to mother
(3) A is true but R is false. (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C. higher concentration of N2 B. Expensive instruments and reagents (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(4) A is false but R is true.
D. higher concentration of O2 C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors incorrect
D. Less adoption of orphans (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
85. The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol of Ba is:
2+ Choose the correct answer from the options given
E. Not available in India correct
[Given : standard heat of formation of SO 24− ion below: F. Possibility that the early embryo does not
(aq)= –216 kcal/mol, standard heat of crystallization (1) A, D only survive 97. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an
(2) B, C only Choose the correct answer from the options example of which of the following?
of BaSO4(s) = –4.5 kcal/mol, standard heat of
given below: (1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism
formation of BaSO4(s) = –349 kcal/mol] (3) B, C, D only
(1) B, D, F only. (3) Predation (4) Amensalism
(1) –128.5 (4) A, C, D only (2) A, C, D, F only
(2) –133.0 98. From the statements given below choose the correct
(3) A, B, C, D only
(3) +133.0 option:
89. If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s–1, how (4) A, B, C, E, F only
(4) +220.5 A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and
much time does it take for 7.2 mol L–1 concentration
94. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L–1? B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
86. Total number of possible isomers (both structural as deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a
(Given : log 2 = 0.301) frog? C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and
well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular
(1) Aorta 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
formula C4H8O is: (1) 69.3 s
(2) Pulmonary artery D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and
(1) 6 (2) 23.1 s 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
(3) Pulmonary vein
(2) 8 (3) 210 s E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and
(4) Vena cava
(3) 10 (4) 21.0 s that of 70S are 50S and 30S
(4) 11 (1) A, B, C are true
95. Which one of the following statements refers to (2) A, B, D are true
90. Which one of the following reactions does NOT Reductionist Biology? (3) A, B, E are true
87. Identify the correct orders against the property
belong to “Lassaigne’s test”? (1) Physico-chemical approach to study and (4) B, D, E are true
mentioned
(1) Na + C + N  → NaCN understand living organisms.
A. H2O > NH3 > CHCl3 - dipole moment ∆ 99. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ
(2) Physiological approach to study and
B. XeF4 > XeO3 > XeF2 – number of lone pairs (2) 2Na + S  → Na 2S understand, living organisms. conservation?
∆
on central atom (3) Chemical approach to study and understand (1) National Park
(3) Na + X  → + NaX (2) Wildlife Sanctuary
C. O–H > C–H > N–O – bond length ∆ living organisms.
(4) 2CuO + C  → 2Cu + CO 2 (4) Behavioural approach to study and understand (3) Zoos and botanical gardens
D. N2 > O2 > H2 – bond enthalpy ∆
living organisms. (4) Protected areas.

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 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

100. Given below are two statements: 102. Given below are two statement: One is labelled 106. Which chromosome in the human genome has the Choose the correct answer from the options given
Statement I: The primary source of energy in an as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as highest number of genes? below:
ecosystem is solar energy. Reason (R). (1) Chromosome X
Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Statement II: The rate of production of organic (2) Chromosome Y
flowers are not very colourful and do not produce (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is (3) Chromosome 1
nectar.
called net primary productivity (NPP). (4) Chromosome 10 (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous
In the light of the above statements, choose the amount of pollen grains in wind and water (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
most appropriate answer from the options given pollinated flowers. 107. Which of the following statement is correct about
below: In the light of the above statements, choose the 111. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of
location of the male frog copulatory pad?
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct correct answer from the options given below: pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) First and Second digit of fore limb
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (2) First digit of hind limb correct sequence.
explanation of A.
(3) Second digit of fore limb A. Prothallus stage
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A. (4) First digit of the fore limb B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
incorrect
(3) A is true but R is false. C. Fertilisation
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (4) A is false but R is true. D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in
108. Which one of the following phytohormones
correct promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the gametophyte.
103. Which of the following is an example of non— delay of leaf senescence in plants? E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in
101. Match List-I with List-II. distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast? (1) Ethylene presence of water.
(1) Whisky (2) Abscisic acid Choose the correct answer from the options given
List-I List-II
(2) Brandy (3) Gibberellin below:
A. Emphysema I. Rapid spasms in
(3) Beer (4) Cytokinin (1) B, A, D, E, C
muscle due to low (4) Rum (2) B, A, E, C, D
109. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly (3) D, E, C, A, B
Ca++ in body fluid 104. Given below are two statements:
found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult (4) E, D, C, B, A
Statement I: In a floral formula  stands for animal and observed a cavity with presence of
B. Angina II. Damaged alveolar zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for 112. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no
inferior ovary. mesodermal tissue was observed towards the A. Nodal tissue
Pectoris walls and decreased
Statement II: In a floral formula  stands for alimentary canal. What could be the possible B. A special neural centre in the medulla
respiratory surface actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for coelome of that animal? oblongata
superior ovary. (1) Acoelomate C. Adrenal medullary hormones
C. Glomerulo- III. Acute chest pain In the light of the above statements, choose the D. Adrenal cortical hormones
(2) Pseudocoelomate
most appropriate answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
nephritis when not enough below: (3) Schizocoelomate below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (4) Spongocoelomate (1) A, B and C Only.
oxygen is reaching
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (2) A, B, C and D
to heart muscle (3) A, C and D Only
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is 110. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) A, B and D Only
incorrect List-I List-II
D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 113. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Head I. Enzymes
glomeruli of kidney A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria
correct
B. Middle piece II. Sperm C. Anabaena D. Volvox
Choose the correct answer from the options given E. Nostoc
105. Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus motility
below: is used for Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Curd production C. Acrosome III. Energy below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) Ethanol production (1) A only
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV D. Tail IV. Genetic
(3) Liver disease treatment (2) D only
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I material (3) B only
(4) Removing clots from blood vessels
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) E only
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 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

114. Given below are two statements: 118. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard 122. Match List-I with List-II.
Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA to the structure of monocot stem. List-I List-II
do not interact with mRNA. (1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
A. Chlorophyll a I. Yellow-green (2)
Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes (2) Vascular bundles are scattered.
place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of (3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed. B. Chlorophyll b II. Yellow
cellular defence. (4) Phloem parenchyma is absent. C. Xanthophylls III. Blue-green
In the light of the above statements, choose the
D. Carotenoids IV. Yellow to
most appropriate answer from the options given 119. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of Yellow-orange
below: bryophytes is
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. Choose the option with all correct matches.
(3)
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
incorrect D. Formation of sporophyte. (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is E. Release of antherozoids into water.
correct Choose the correct answer from the option given 123. Find the correct statements:
below: A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems
115. are formed at the end of 12 weeks. (4)
(1) D, E, A, C, B (2) B, E, A, C, D
(3) B, E, A, D, C (4) D, E, A, B, C B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems
are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one
120. Which are correct:
month of gestation.
A. Computed tomography and magnetic 126. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop
resonance imaging detect cancers of internal by the end of second month. foam braker from the given figure.
organs.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non- usually observed in the fifth month.
cancerous cells. Choose the correct answer from the options given
In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of
DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the C. -interferon activate the cancer patients’ below:
following strategies will be chosen to select the immune system and helps in destroying the (1) A and E Only
recombinant colonies? tumour. (2) B and C Only
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological (3) B, C, D and E Only
(1) Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing
response modifiers.
medium plate. (4) A, C, D and E Only
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cells counts are
(2) Blue color colonies will be selected.
decreased. (1) A (2) B
(3) White color colonies will be selected. 124. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of
Choose the correct answer from the option given (3) D (4) C
(4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates below: endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich
can be selected. (1) B and D only (2) D and E only layer called:
(3) C and D only (4) A and C only (1) Coleoptile 127. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
116. Which of the following genetically engineered (2) Coleorhiza Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human (R).
121. Match List-I with List-II. (3) Integument
insulin? Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm
List-I List-II (4) Aleurone layer
(1) Bacterium (2) Yeast embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
(3) Virus (4) Phage A. Centromere I. Mitochondrion
B. Cilium II. Cell division Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.
125. Which of the following diagrams is correct with
117. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the C. Cristae III.Cell movement regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of In the light of the above statements, choose the
following reaction: D. Cell membrane IV. Phospholipid the Nephron. correct answer from the options given below:
S – G + S# → S + S# – G Bilayer (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen Choose the correct answer from the options given explanation of A.
S → a substrate below: (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(1)
S# → another substrate (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV explanation of A.
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(1) Hydrolase (2) Lyase (3) A is true but R is false.
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) Transferase (4) Ligase (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A is false but R is true.

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 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

128. A specialized membranous structure in a Choose the correct answer from the options given 136. Given below are two statements: 140. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, below: Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
DNA replication and respiration is: (1) A, C, E, B, D gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of (R).
(1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophores (2) C, E, A, D, B recombinant DNA. Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi
(3) Cristae (4) Endoplasmic Reticulum (3) A, C, E, D, B Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are apparatus is to package the materials made by the
observed near anode while larger fragments are endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular
(4) C, E, A, B, D
found near the wells in an agarose gel. targets and outside the cell.
129. Which of the following are the post-transcriptional
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by
events in an eukaryotic cell? 133. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India? appropriate answer from the options given below: the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to (1) S. R. Kashyap (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and
splicing. (2) Ramdeo Misra (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons. (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Ram Udar
incorrect correct answer from the options given below:
C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA. (4) Birbal Sahni (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of correct explanation of A
hnRNA. 134. Match List-I with List-II. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs. List-I List-II 137. Match List I with List II. explanation of A
Choose the correct answer from the options given List I List II (3) A is true but R is false
A. Alfred Hershey I. Streptococcus
below: A. Adenosine I. Nitrogen base (4) A is false but R is true
and Martha
(1) A, B, C only (2) B, C, D only Pneumoniae B. Adenylic acid II. Nucleotide
Chase
(3) B, C, E only (4) C, D, E only C. Adenine III. Nucleoside 141. Match List I with List II.
B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed List I List II
D. Alanine IV. Amino acid
and dark-stained
130. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic Choose the option with all correct matches. A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus
trait? C. Frederick III. Loosely packed (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I B. Non-albuminous II. Cotyledon of
(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern Griffith and light-stained (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I seed Monocot seed
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV C. Epiblast III. Groundnut
(2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA as genetic
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary
(3) Autosomal dominant pattern material
cotyledon
(4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern confirmation
138. Consider the following: Choose the option with all correct matches.
Choose the correct answer from the options given A. The reductive division for the human female (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
131. Which one of the following enzymes contains below: (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the
‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group? (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
male gametogenesis.
(1) RuBisCo (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III B. The gap between the first meiotic division and
(2) Carbonic anhydrase the second meiotic division is much shorter for
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase males compared to females. 142. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) Catalase C. The first polar body is associated with the Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
formation of the primary oocyte. (R).
135. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refers to: D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all
132. Each of the following characteristics represent a
A. A mass of proliferating cell disintegration of the endometrium and onset of chordates are not vertebrate.
Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the
menstrual bleeding. Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata
following in increasing order of complexity of body B. Rapid growth of cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given possess notochord, during the embryonic period, the
organization.
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue below: notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made vertebral column in adults.
D. Those confined to original location (1) A and B are true
of chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) A and C are true
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system Choose the correct answer from the options given correct answer from the options given below:
level of body organization. (3) B and D are true
below: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of (4) B and C are true explanation of A
polysaccharides and amino acids. (1) A, B only (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level (2) A, B, C only 139. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are: explanation of A
of body organization. (3) A, B, D only (1) Free living (2) Endoparasite (3) A is true but R is false
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization. (4) B, C, D only (3) Symbiotic (4) Ectoparasite (4) A is false but R is true
[19] [Contd... [20] [Contd...
 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

143. Identify the statement that is NOT correct. 149. The protein portion of an enzyme is called: 153. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 157. Given below are two statements:
(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy (1) Cofactor Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it
chains. (R). has enclosed fig wasps in it.
(2) Coenzyme
(2) The heavy and light chains are held together by Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual
disulfide bonds. (3) Apoenzyme relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in
cytoplasm and generally have more than one
(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal (4) Prosthetic group nucleus. fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
region of antibody molecules. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are 150. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
located at C-terminus of antibody molecules. an Ecosystem? the developing microspore mother cells.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(1) gm–2 (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
144. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi appropriate answer from the options given below: incorrect
because of - (2) KCal m–2
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(1) Complementary dsRNA (3) KCal m–3 explanation of A correct
(2) Inhibitory ssRNA (4) (KCal m–2)yr–1 (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) Complementary tRNA explanation of A 158. What is the main function of the spindle fibers
(4) Non-complementary ssRNA 151. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of (3) A is true but R is false during mitosis?
evolution. Select the correct combination of terms (4) A is false but R is true (1) To separate the chromosomes
145. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If to explain the evolution. (2) To synthesize new DNA
RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy 154. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to (3) To repair damaged DNA
produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the (1) Analogy, convergent
occur for the development of a mature female (4) To regulate cell growth
phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation? (2) Homology, divergent
gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an
(1) Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1 (3) Homology, convergent angiosperm plant? 159. Which one of the following is the characteristic
(2) Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1 (4) Analogy, divergent feature of gymnosperms?
(1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
(2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(4) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7 (2) Seeds are naked.
152. With the help of given pedigree, find out the (3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
probability for the birth of a child having no disease (4) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis (3) Seeds are absent.
146. Histones are enriched with - (4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one
(1) Lysine & Arginine
allele of the gene) in F3 generation. 155. Which of the following is an example of a
(2) Leucine & Lysine 160. Consider the following statements regarding
zygomorphic flower?
(3) Phenylalanine & Leucine function of adrenal medullary hormones:
(1) Petunia
(4) Phenylalanine & Arginine A. It causes pupilary constriction
(2) Datura
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
(3) Pea
147. The first menstruation is called: C. It causes piloerection
(4) Chilli
(1) Menopause (2) Menarche D. It increases/strength of heart contraction
(3) Diapause (4) Ovulation Choose the correct answer from the options given
156. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the
below:
lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to
148. Match List - I with List - II. (1) C and D Only
secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like:
List - I List - II (2) B, C and D Only
A. thymus
A. Heart I. Erythropoietin (3) A, C and D Only
B. bone marrow
B. Kidney II. Aldosterone (4) D Only
C. Gastro-intestinal III. Atrial natriuretic C. spleen
tracts factor D. lymph nodes
161. Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic
D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin E. Peyer's patches patients?
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Human body will elicit strong immune
below: below: response
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (1) B, C, D only (2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI)
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A, B, C only tract
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/2
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (3) E, A, B only (3) Because of structural variation
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) 1/8 (4) Zero (4) C, D, E only (4) Its bioavailability will be increased
[21] [Contd... [22] [Contd...
 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH

162. Match List-I with List-II. 166. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms 171. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO 175. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and
List-I List-II is: is true? on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
A. Respiration and Locomotion (1) It is active only in the dark. Choose the correct answer from the following :
A. Pteridophyte I. Salvia
B. Excretion and Locomotion (2) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon (1) The statement is true for water but false for
B. Bryophyte II. Ginkgo C. Capture and transport of food dioxide. land
D. Digestion and Respiration (3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of (2) The statement is true for both the environment
C. Angiosperm III. Polytrichum
E. Digestion and Excretion water. (3) The statement is false for water but true for
D. Gymnosperm IV. Salvinia Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP. land
below: (4) The statement is false for both the environment
Choose the option with all correct matches. (1) A and B Only
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 172. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT
(2) A and C Only 176. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to
essential for gene cloning?
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) B and C Only you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the
A. Restriction enzymes
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) B, D and E Only following must be true?
B. DNA ligase
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (1) They are monozygotic twins.
167. Which of the following type of immunity is present C. DNA mutase
(2) They are fraternal twins.
at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of D. DNA recombinase
163. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids (3) They were conceived through in vitro
should be made up of three nucleotides? defence in the human body? E. DNA polymerase fertilization.
(1) Acquired Immunity Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) They have 75% identical genetic content.
(1) George Gamow
(2) Innate Immunity below :
(2) Francis Crick
(3) Cell-mediated Immunity (1) C and D only
(3) Jacque Monod 177. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved
(4) Humoral Immunity (2) A and B only in the preparation of household products?
(4) Franklin Stahl
(3) D and E only A. Aspergillus niger
168. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the B. Lactobacillus
(4) B and C only
164. Match List-I with List-II. following?
C. Trichoderma polysporum
List-I List-II (1) Sexual reproduction
173. Read the following statements on plant growth and D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(2) Asexual reproduction
A. The Evil I. Cryopreservation development. E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Quartet (3) Nutrient absorption
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Gaseous exchange
B. Ex situ II. Alien species B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in below:
conservation invasion promotion as well as inhibition of growth. (1) A and B only (2) A and C only
169. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous
connection that acts to link : C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re- (3) C and D only (4) C and E only
C. Lantana III. Causes of
(1) Liver and intestine differentiation.
camara biodiversity losses
(2) Liver and kidney D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. 178. Match List-I with List-II.
D. Dodo IV. Extinction (3) Kidney and intestine E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of List-I List-II

Choose the option with all correct matches. (4) Kidney and lower part of body lateral buds. A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV Choose the option with all correct statements.
B. Relaxin II. Ovary
170. Given below are two statements: (1) A, B, C only
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional (2) A, C, E only C. Melanocyte III. Adrenal Medulla
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. stimulating
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A, D, E only
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd hormone
(4) B, D, E only
law of thermodynamics.
D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum
165. Which of the following hormones released from the In the light of the above statements, choose the most
pituitary is actually synthesized in the appropriate answer from the options given below: 174. Which factor is important for termination of Choose the correct answer from the options given
hypothalamus? (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct transcription? below:
(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH) (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1)  (alpha) (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2)  (sigma) (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) incorrect (3)  (rho) (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) (4)  (gamma) (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
correct
[23] [Contd... [24] [Contd...
 NEET (UG)-2025 [Code – 45] ENGLISH
Test Booklet Code
179. The blue and white selectable markers have been 180. Which one of the following equations represents the
developed which differentiate recombinant colonies

ENGLISH
from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their
ability to produce colour in the presence of a
chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

(1)
dN
dt
K –N
 r
 K 

45
Statement I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA

NEET (UG)-2025
insert in the plasmid and they are identified as
recombinant colonies. dN K –N
Statement II: The colonies without blue colour (2)  rN  
dt  K 
have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as
recombinant colonies. || DATE: 04-05-2025 ||
In the light of the above statements, choose the most dN N–K
appropriate answer from the options given below: (3)  rN  
dt  N  ANSWER KEY
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
1. (2) 46. (4) 91. (2) 136. (1)
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is dN r–K 
incorrect (4)  N  2. (2) 47. (2) 92. (2) 137. (3)
dt  K  3. (2) 48. (2) 93. (1) 138. (1)
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct 4. (4) 49. (1) 94. (4) 139. (4)
5. (2) 50. (1) 95. (1) 140. (1)
■■■
6. (2) 51. (3) 96. (1) 141. (1)
7. (4) 52. (3) 97. (1) 142. (1)
8. (4) 53. (2) 98. (1) 143. (3)
9. (1) 54. (4) 99. (3) 144. (1)
10. (1) 55. (1) 100. (3) 145. (3)
11. (4) 56. (4) 101. (4) 146. (1)
12. (1) 57. (2) 102. (2) 147. (2)
13. (3) 58. (4) 103. (3) 148. (4)
14. (3) 59. (4) 104. (4) 149. (3)
15. (2) 60. (4) 105. (4) 150. (4)
16. (2) 61. (3) 106. (3) 151. (1)
17. (4) 62. (2) 107. (4) 152. (1)
18. (2) 63. (1,2) 108. (4) 153. (3)
19. (3) 64. (1) 109. (2) 154. (3)
20. (1) 65. (1) 110. (1) 155. (3)
21. (4) 66. (2) 111. (1) 156. (4)
22. (2) 67. (3) 112. (1) 157. (2)
23. (2) 68. (2) 113. (2) 158. (1)
24. (3) 69. (2) 114. (4) 159. (2)
25. (3) 70. (3) 115. (3) 160. (2)
26. (3) 71. (3) 116. (1) 161. (2)
27. (1) 72. (1) 117. (3) 162. (2)
28. (4) 73. (3) 118. (1) 163. (1)
29. (2) 74. (1) 119. (3) 164. (2)
30. (3) 75. (4) 120. (4) 165. (2)
31. (1) 76. (1) 121. (4) 166. (2)
32. (2) 77. (1) 122. (2) 167. (2)
33. (3) 78. (2) 123. (4) 168. (2)
34. (2) 79. (3) 124. (4) 169. (4)
35. (2) 80. (3) 125. (2) 170. (3)
36. (2) 81. (2) 126. (4) 171. (4)
37. (3) 82. (2) 127. (3) 172. (1)
38. (1) 83. (2) 128. (1) 173. (1)
39. (3) 84. (1) 129. (2) 174. (3)
40. (2) 85. (1) 130. (2) 175. (3)
41. (2) 86. (3) 131. (4) 176. (2)
42. (3) 87. (1) 132. (2) 177. (2)
PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4
43. (3) 88. (4) 133. (2) 178. (1)
Library- https:/mart.link/sdfez8ejd80if 44. (4) 89. (1) 134. (3) 179. (4)
45. (2) 90. (4) 135. (2) 180. (2)
[25] [Contd... [26] [Contd...
 NEET NEET

and m4 — follows from the additive power

Hints & Solutions
−7 9 4p
B y = 2 × 10 cos(5x + 1.5 × 10 t) T

law for co‑axial lenses and the multiplicative rule

Q10 Text Solution: for successive magnifications.
Q1 Text Solution: From WET. Initial speed just before impact
KE −−− −−−− −−−− −1 Q14 Text Solution:
F = vi = √2gh = √2(9.8)(40) = 28 m s
s Use P V = nRT (ideal gas,
(downward).
FA = 100/1000 = 0.10 N, FB = 225/1500
R = 100/12 J mol
−1
K
−1
).
Rebound speed (to reach 10 m)
= 0.15 N −−−−
′
−−−− −−−− −1
Before withdrawal n i = 18.20 mol .
2 vf = √2gh = √2(9.8)(10) = 14 m s
FA /FB = 0.10/0.15 = . After withdrawal Gauge P = 11 atm ⇒
3 (upward).
absolute Pf = 12(1.01 × 10 ) Pa
5
.
Q6 Text Solution: Impulse J = m (vf − (−vi )) = m (vf + vi )

Resistance of 6Ω ia removed as it is balanced = 0.5 (14 + 28) = 21 N s (units: kg m s⁻¹ = N Pf V 12(1.01 × 10 )(0.03)
5

nf = =
wheatstone bridge s). RT 100
( )(300)
12
4×8 8
R BE =
4+8
=
3
Ω
Q11 Text Solution: ≈ 14.55 mol
F y = Sz. dθ = (dx)zρgy 8 1
R T otal = ( + 1.5 + 5.5 + )Ω= 10 Ω
3 3
= weight of liquid lifted. ...... (1) Elements from A→B: Inductor (L = 1 H) , Moles removed n w = n i − n f ≈ 3.65 mol .
V = i Rotal
dy
Battery 5 V ( + on A-side ) ,
Mass withdrawn
tanθ ≃ θ = 5 = i × 10
dx
m = nw MO = 3.65 × 32 g ≈ 0.116 kg .
2
d y i = 0.5 A Resistor (R = 2 Ω) 2
dθ
⇒
dx
=
dx
2 ideal-gas relation gives the number of moles
Q7 Text Solution:
d y
2
VAB = Vind + Vbat + VR remaining; their difference times molar mass
dθ = . dx . ...... (2) At point P
dx
2

2
di yields the mass of oxygen taken out.
mv = L + 5 V + IR
mg sin θ =
from equations (1) and (2) dt
−−−− −−
l
−1
Q15 Text Solution:
2 v = √gl sin θ ..... (i) = 1 H (1 A s ) + 5 V + (2 A)(2 Ω)
Sz (
d y
. dx) = (dx)zρgy Velocity
dx
2
Using energy conservation between lowest point = 1 V + 5 V + 4 V = 10 V

and P.
2
d y ρg −1
= .y dx dt 1
dx
2
S 1 2 1 2 The potential drop across an inductor is L di/dt ; v = = ( ) = .
mv = mv + mg (l + l sin θ).... (ii)
dt dx 2x + 1
across a resistor it is I R; the ideal battery adds
2 0 2
Q2 Text Solution: From i
L D 40 25 −−−− −−− −−−− its emf. Summing these gives the net potential Acceleration
m = = = 20 × 6.25 = 125 v0 = √3g l sin θ + 2gl
fo fe 2 4
−−−−−−
difference VA − VB . a =
dv
=
dv dx
(Chain Rule)
v sin θ dt dx dt
= √
Q3 Text Solution: v0 2+3 sin θ Q12 Text Solution:
2 1 2

For zero lorentz force E must be perpendicular to Q8 Text Solution: m = N IA for a circular coil. = [−
(2x+1)
2
]
2x+1
= −
(2x+1)
3
.

B With the same current (2 A) and equal single

Q16 Text Solution:
qE = qvB turns,
null
v = c/100 = 3 × 10
6
m s
−1
,
2 2
πr Irms = V /Z = 220/28.3 ≈ 7.8 A
−4 m1 A1 1
1 1
B = 9 × 10 T
= = = ( ) = . −1 −1
2 ϕ = tan ((XL − XC )/R) = tan (1)
6 −4 m2 A2 πr 2 4
E = vB = (3 × 10 )(9 × 10 ) = 27 2
∘
= 45
2 −1
× 10 V m
magnetic moment is proportional to the square (current lags, net inductive)
A B C D Y
Q4 Text Solution: of the coil’s radius, so doubling the radius current 7.8 A , phase angle 45∘ ; results follow
Thought for 8 seconds 0 0 1 1 1 directly from the series-RLC impedance and
quadruples the moment.
as = g sin 45
∘
(smooth) 0 1 0 0 0 phase relations.
Q13 Text Solution:
ar = g sin 45
∘
− μ k g cos 45
∘
(rough) 1 0 0 0 0
For thin lenses in contact, powers add: Q17 Text Solution:
1 1 0 0 0 Angular momentum about the axis is conserved
tr
−−
−
as as Pcomb = P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 = 4p .
ts
= √
ar
= 2 ⟹ ar =
4
So it is a NOR gate. Each lens gives linear magnification m ; (no external torque).
Q9 Text Solution: successive elements multiply, so the overall
∘
g sin 45 I1 ω1 = I2 ω2 ,
g sin 45
∘
− μ k g cos 45
∘
= Ez = 60 cos(5x + 1.5 × 10 t) V m
9 −1
. magnification is
2
4
∘ B 0 = E0 /c = 60/(3 × 10 ) = 2 × 10
8 −7
T M = m × m × m × m = m
4
(dimensionless). I = MR
2
(uniform solid sphere)
3 sin 45 3 5
⟹ μk =
∘
= tan 45
∘
= 0.75 Phase is kx + ωt ⇒ propagation along −x̂ . Hence the combination has power 4p and
4 cos 45 4
So B is along Y–axis magnification m4 . When the radius doubles: I2 = 4I1 .

Q5 Text Solution:

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[27] [Contd... [28] [Contd...

 NEET NEET

ω1 2π
C2 =
K 2∈0 A
=
K 2∈0 A
= 2K2 (
∈0 A
)
Volume flow through the small hole equals the
ω2 = ⟹ T2 = = 4T1 t2 d d
4 ω2 (
2
)
loss of balloon volume:
= 2K2 C 0
T2 = 4 × 27 days = 108 days dV dr dr
1(∈0 A) ∈0 A ∈0 A 2
C air = = = 8( ) = 8C 0 Av = − = −4πr ⟹ =
t3 d
(
d
) dt dt dt
period scales as R for uniform-density spheres
2 8

A
under angular-momentum conservation. equivalent capacitance (series): − S
1/2
ρ
−1/2
r
−5/2
.
1 1 1 1 4π
= + +
Q18 Text Solution: C new C1 C2 C air
1
=
8
1
+
1
+
1
Hence
ϕ = BA C new 2K 2C 0 8C 0
K 1C 0
3

h 1 3 1 1 1 4π
2 h 2
B πr = n , n = 1 ⇒ r = = [ + + ] × −1/2 1/2 5/2
e C new 8K 1 2K 2 8 C0 dt = S ρ r dr.
πeB A
For uniform circular motion ∴ C new = 2C 0
1 3 1 1 R R
2 = + + 4π
mv eBr 2 8K 1 2K 2 8 −1/2 1/2 5/2
evB = ⇒ v =
1 1 3 1
Rod angle with horizontal T = ∫ dt =
A
S ρ ∫ r dr
r m − = + 0 0

Current in the orbit

2 8 8K 1 2K 2
θ = 90
∘
− 60
∘
= 30
∘
. −1/2 −1 1/2 7/2
3 3 4
= + ∝ S A ρ R .
e ev e B
2 8 8K 1 8K 2 Equilibrium
I = = = multiply by 8
T 2πr 2πm
Horizontal equilibrium: f = Nw , So T ∝ S
α
A
β γ
ρ R
δ
with
3 4
Magnetic moment 3 =
K1
+
K2 Vertical equilibrium.: Nf = W .
1 1 1
K1 = 1.25, K2 = (
5
). K2
Torque about O (anticlockwise = clockwise): a = − , α = − , β = −1, γ = ,
2 2
e B e B h 4 2 2 2
2 2 12+20
μ = I A = I πr = πr = 3 =
Nw l sin θ = W (l/2) cos θ ⟹ Nw 7
2πm 2πm eB 5K 2
δ = .
32
W 2
he [K2 = ]
15 = cot θ.
=
2πm 5 160 16 2 Q25 Text Solution:
K1 = K2 = =
4 60 6
Least count
8
200 –
∘

Q19 Text Solution:

K1 =
3
Nw = cot 30 = 100 √3 N.
LC = 1 MSD − 1 VSD = 0.10 −
9
× 0.10 .
2 10

Steady heat current (rods all length L): K1 ≈ 2.667

– = 0.01 cm
3T −T1 T 1 −T 2 T2 −T
Hence friction f = Nw = 100√3 N . Observed reading = MSR + (VSD × LC)
2K A = KA = 2K A .
L L L

Q21 Text Solution: Q23 Text Solution: = 5 cm + (8 × 0.01 cm)

2(3T − T1 ) = T1 − T2 = 2(T2 − T ). For a spring – mass oscillator ω
−−−−
. = 5.08 cm
Let bus speed = V km h
−1
; buses leave each = √k/m

Corrected reading = Observed reading - Zero

Let that common value be J . city every T min. Sand leaks out ⇒ mass m(t) gradually
error
From the two end equalities: Spacing between successive buses in either lane decreases ⇒ −
ω(t) ∝ 1/√m
−
increases with
= 5.08 cm – (+ 0.1 cm)
s = V (T /60) km. time.
J = 4.98 cm
J = 2(3T − T1 ) ⇒ T1 = 3T − Same direction (girl overtaken every 30 min = 0.5 as every grain that leaves, so the total
2
J
h): mechanical energy falls and the amplitude
J = 2(T2 − T ) ⇒ T2 = T + s VT

2 V −60
= 0.5 ⟹
60(V −60)
= 0.5. (i)
A(t) decreases steadily.
Insert into T1 : Opposite direction (bus meets her every 10 min =
− T2 = J
The only sketch showing ω(t) rising while A(t) falls
1/6 h): Q26 Text Solution:
J J
VT
is.
s 1 1
(3T − ) − (T + ) = J ⟹ J = T. = ⟹ = . (ii)
2 2 σ
V +60 6 6
Q24 Text Solution:
60(V +60)
E =
∈0
5T 3T Equating T from (i) and (ii):
Thus T1 = , T2 = . Excess pressure in a spherical balloon
V −60 V +60
2 2 30 × = 10 × ⇒ 3(V − 60)
V V
2S
σ
T1 5 = V + 60 ⇒ V = 120 km h
−1
.
Δp = ‐
(surface tension law). ϕE = E. A = (
∈0
). A
= r
T2 3 Putting the value of V in (ii):
T = 10 ×
V +60
= 10 ×
180
= 15 min.
Outlet speed (Bernoulli) dϕ∈ d σ
V 120 Id =∈0 ( ) =∈ 0 × [( ) × A]
dt dt ∈0

Q20 Text Solution: Answer: 15 min period, 120 km h⁻¹ bus speed . −−−
1 S A dσ
K 1∈0 A K 1∈0 A ∈0 A
2 =∈ 0 . .
8 ρv ≃ Δp ⟹ v(r) ∝ √ ⇒ v
C1 = = = K1 ( ) Q22 Text Solution: 2 ρr
∈0 dt

Since A and are constant, the desplacement

t1 3d 3 dσ
d

Weight
8
dt

=
8
K1 C 0
a
∝ r , a = −
1
. current Id is constant and uniform between the
3 W = mg = 20 kg × 10 m s
−2
= 200N . 2

plates.

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∮ B. dl = μ 0 (IC + Id ) . Between the plates, IC ′

kQA QB k q 3q 3 kq
2

R
2

3
2
9
Consider loop EDFGH,
F = = ( )( ) = F = 48 × ( ) = 48( ) = 48 ×
=0 r
2
r
2
2 4 8 r
2 4R 4 16 –3i2 – 4 (i2 + i3) + 50 = 0
3

Inside (r < R) 3F = 27N.

50= 7i2 + 4i3
∮ B. dl = B. (2πr) = .
Q33 Text Solution: 50= 7(3i3) + 4i3
8

Id (enclosed) = Id ×
r
2

Each small piece: Rpiece = R/8 . i3 = 2 A

R
2
Q29 Text Solution:
Parallel of 4 pieces Q37 Text Solution:
B × 2πr = μ 0 . Id × (
r
2

)
Before mixing
2 hc
Photon:
R p 1 V1 1×2 L-atm
T1 = = = 0.40 R/8 R E = hc/λγ ⇒ λγ =
n1 R 5R R
μ0 .Id
Rp = = . E
B = ( ) × r
Electron (non-relativistic):
p 2 V2 2×3 L-atm
2πr
2
T2 = = = 1.50 4 32
n2 R 4R R

So, B is zero at the center (r = 0) and increase −−−− h

Two such Rp are then in series
n1 T1 +n2 T2 5(0.40)+4(1.50) 2
Tf = = E = p /2m ⇒ p = √2mE , λe =
linerly with r, reaching maximum at r = R n1 +n2 9
p
L-atm
Outside (r > R) = 0.888
R
R R R h
R net = R p + R p = + = . =
−−−−
∮ B ⋅ dl = B ⋅ (2πr) V = 2 + 3 = 5 L 32 32 16 √2mE

Id (enclosed) = Id (total displacement current) −

− −−
nRTf
B × 2πr = μ 0 . Id Pf = =
9(0.888 R)
= 1.6 atm
Q34 Text Solution: λγ hc/E 2m
= = c√
−−−−
μ0 Id
V 5
r n = n a0
2
with a0 = 0.052 nm . λe h/√2mE E
B =
2πr
Equilibrium pressure ≈ 1.6 atm.
So, B decreases as outside the plate.
1

r
r 2 = 4a0 = 4(0.052) = 0.208 nm.
Q38 Text Solution:
Hence B is non-zero both inside and outside, Q30 Text Solution:
Photoelectric current depends on intensity of
Centripetal balance with the constant inward 2πr n = nλ :
rising to a maximum at r = R (the cylindrical light as given
surface through the rims) and then decreasing. force F :
2πr 2 2π(0.208) photoelectric current ∝ intensity of light (for
non-zero everywhere, maximum on the 2 −−−−
λ =
n
=
2
nm ≈ 0.65 nm.
prequency of light above threshold frequencey).
mv F
imaginary cylinder joining the plate peripheries. = F ⟹ v = √ r.
r m Answer ≈ 0.67 nm. Q39 Text Solution:
Small cut sphere ms =
4
πR ρ
3
.
mvr =
nh Q35 Text Solution: 3

−−−− 1/2
2π
Potential energy of a dipole: U = −pE cos θ . Large sphere M =
4

3
π(2R) ρ = 8ms
3
.
Q27 Text Solution: m(√F /m r )r =
nh

2π Remaining mass mr = 8 m s − m s = 7m s .
tan θB = n 2 /n 1 = 1.73 ⇒ θB ≈ 60
∘
. initially (θi = 0
∘
) Ui = −pE
⇒
−−−−
m√F /m r
3/2
=
nh
⇒ r
3/2
∝ n
Moments of inertia about Y-axis:
At Brewster’s angle: 2π
after rotation by 60∘
2/3
Uf = −pE cos 60
∘
= −
1
pE
Large sphere (axis through its centre):
incidence = reflection ≈ 60° (air → medium). ⟹ r ∝ n .
2

Then v 1/3
. IL =
2
M (2R)
2
=
64
ms R
2
.
reflected beam is completely plane-polarised ∝ √r ∝ n
1 1
5 5

ΔU = Uf − Ui = − pE − (−pE) = pE Small sphere: centre is at distance d = R

(electric field ⟂ plane of incidence). Q31 Text Solution:
2 2

from Y-axis.
angle of refraction (θr ) : − Kepler’s third law: T
2
∝ r
3
. p = 5 × 10
−6
C-m, E = 4 × 10
5
N C
−1

−6 5
Is =
2

5
ms R
2
+ ms d
2
=
2

5
ms R
2
+ ms R
2
.
pE (5×10 )(4×10 )

θB + θr = 90 º 2 3 ΔU = = = 1.0 J 7 2
TMars r Mars 2 2
= ms R
3
θr = 30 º (partially polarised) ( ) = ( ) = (4) = 64
Q36 Text Solution:
5

TMercury r Mercury Remaining portion:

So, reflected light is fully polarised and the angle
TMars Ir = IL − Is = (
64
−
7
)ms R
2
.
of reflection is ~60°. ⟹ TMercury = . 5 5

8 57 2
= ms R
Q28 Text Solution: 5

TMercury = 687/8 ≈ 86 days (nearest value 88

After each contact identical spheres share charge 7

days). Is 5 7
equally. =
57
= .
Ir 57
Q32 Text Solution: 5
1. When C touches A (q) → each gets q/2 .
R
QA = q/2, QC = q/2 . At height h = above Earth’s surface the Q40 Text Solution:
3
3q
2. When C (q/2) touches B (q) → each gets 4
distance from Earth’s centre is Consider loop ACDEA, At t = 15 ms ,
QB = 3q/4, QC = 3q/4 . i 1 = 3i 2 ...(1)
R 4R Vin = 220 sin(100πt) = 220 sin

Initial force F 2
= k q /r
2
.
r = R + h = R + = . Consider loop CBFDC,
3 3 (100π × 0.015) = 220 sin(1.5π) = −220 V
3i 3 + 2i 2 − i 1 = 0 ...(2)

Gravitational force varies as the inverse square of From (1) Negative half-cycle ⇒ the upper end of the
this distance: i2 = 3i3 ...(1) secondary is −, the lower end is +.

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D1 : P type at −ve, N type (0 V) → reverse AQ −−−−− Q55 Text Solution:

= √k1 /k2
biased AP
In KO₂ the superoxide ion O₂⁻ carries an overall –
D2 : P type at +ve, N type (0 V) → forward 1 charge; potassium therefore shows a +1
biased Q45 Text Solution: oxidation state. Hydrogen peroxide has the
Initial pipe: open–open, length L peroxide linkage O₂²⁻, so each oxygen is –1. For
D1 reverse biased, D2 forward biased.
v
neutral H₂SO₄, 2(+1) + S + 4(–2)=0; solving gives
Q41 Text Solution: f = (λ1 = 2L) Q50 Text Solution: sulphur an oxidation state of +6.
2L
Equal heats at constant pressure give equal For hydrogen‑like ions,
Half-submerged → the air column has length Q56 Text Solution:
internal energy changes: total energy a
Kt = 2. 303 log
L/2 now with the water surface acting as a En = −R H Z
2
/n
2
and a−x
0.693 100
QA = ΔU + P ΔVA = QB = ΔU
closed end ⇒ open–closed pipe. orbit radius t1/2
× t = 2. 303 log
100−99.9

+ P ΔVB ⟹ ΔVA = ΔVB .

New fundamental frequency: r n = a0 n /Z
2
0.693

1
× t = 2. 303 log
100

0.1

With a movable piston, ΔV = (πr ) Δx

2
. v v
For n = 1 , He⁺ (Z = 2) gives t =
2.303
log 10
3
′ 0.693
f = = = f. ‑18
πr
2
(16 cm) = πr
2
(9 cm) 4(L/2) 2L E = −8.72 × 10 J and r = 26.4 pm, 2.303
A B t = × 3 log 10

2
while Li²⁺ (Z = 3) gives 0.693

⇒
r
A
=
9
⇒
rA
=
3
Fundamental frequency remains f . E = −19.62 × 10
‑18
J and r = 17.6 pm.
t = 10 min
2
r 16 rB 4

Q57 Text Solution:

B

Q46 Text Solution: Q51 Text Solution:

Q42 Text Solution: The crystal field splitting Δ0 , depends upon the
For hydrogen, Cl⁻ and H₂O are weak‑field; Ni²⁺ (d⁸) therefore
Relative (percentage) error adds with the field produced by the ligand and charge on the
En = −R H /n
2
. Absorbed photon energy is remains high‑spin: [NiCl₄]²⁻ is tetrahedral,
absolute value of the exponents: metal ion.
ΔE = R H (1/n
2
1
− 1/n )
2
2
. Thus [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ octahedral, each retaining two
2 → 3: ΔE1 ; 4 → 6: Ligand can be arranged in the increasing field
= R H ⋅ 5/36
unpaired electrons and hence paramagnetic. CO
. strength Δ0 as given below:
ΔP
(%) = 3(Δa%) + 2(Δb%) + 1(Δc%)
ΔE2 = R H ⋅ 5/144
and PPh₃ give Ni(0) d¹⁰ (Ni(CO)₄, Ni(PPh₃)₄) ⇒ −
P Since λ ∝ 1/ΔE , diamagnetic. Strong‑field CN⁻ forces
CN > NH3 > H2 O

1
. Hence option 4 is A higher charge on the metal ion leads to a large
+
2
(Δd%) λ1 /λ2 = ΔE2 /ΔE1 = 1/4
square‑planar low‑spin d⁸ in [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻, also
the correct answer. splitting and a higher Δ0 .
1
diamagnetic. Thus only A and D are clearly 3+ 3+ 2+
3(1) + 2(3) + 1(2) + (4) = 3 + 6 + 2 + 2 Co > Ti > Cu (Order of Δ0 )
2
Q47 Text Solution: paramagnetic.
1
= 13%.
Electronegativity of N and Cl is equal (3.0, so B Q52 Text Solution:
λ absorbed ∝
Δ0

false. Sequence of wavelength

Q43 Text Solution: All the elements of group 15 form hybrides of
Gallium melts at 29.8 °C, close to Cs 28.5 °C; A B<A<D<C
First polaroid → polarised light I0 . the type EH3 where E=N, P, As, Sb or Br.
false. Q58 Text Solution:
Middle sheet at 22.5 to this axis: ∘

All the elements of group-15 form two type of

Ar, K⁺, Cl⁻, Ca²⁺, S²⁻ all have 18 e⁻, hence C true. Geometric (cis-trans) isomerism requires
I1 = I0 cos 22.5
2 ∘
. oxides: E2 O3 and E2 O5
radius Cs > Rb > Li; E true. restricted rotation and two different substituents
Second polaroid is crossed with the first, hence
First‑IE trend is Si > Mg > Al > Na, so D false. on each stereogenic centre. Pent-1-ene and 2-
90
∘
− 22.5
∘
= 67.5
∘
from the sheet’s axis: Q53 Text Solution:
I2 = I1 cos 67.5
2 ∘
= I0 cos 22.5 sin 22.5
2 ∘ 2 ∘
. Q48 Text Solution: Main group = elements whose valence shell methylhex-2-ene possess identical groups on one
2
cos θsin θ =
2 1
sin 2θ;
2
θ = 22.5
∘
⇒ 2θ Group number in cation analysis involves only s or p subshells (Groups 1 – 2, 13 – carbon. 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane holds both
4

∘ ∘ 1 Grou 18). Configuration A ([Ne] 3s¹) corresponds to Na, methyls on the same carbon. In 1,2-
= 45 , sin 45 = Pb2+
√2
pI an s‑block metal; configuration C Dimethylcyclohexane C-1 and C-2 can occupy the
2

same or opposite faces, producing distinct cis-

I0 1 I0 1 I0
I2 =
4
(
√2
) =
4
(
2
) =
8
.
Grou Al3+, ([Kr] 4d¹⁰ 5s² 5p⁵) is I, a p‑block halogen.
Transmitted intensity = I 0 /8. p III Fe3+ Configurations B and D possess 3d electrons, and trans-isomers.

Cu2+, and E (Th) has 6d/5f involvement, so none are Q59 Text Solution:
Q44 Text Solution: Grou
Ni2+, main‑group. Therefore the only main‑group −H
⊕

Maximum speed in SHM: p IV H3 PO 4 ⇌ H2 PO

−
Ka1

configurations listed are A and C, making

4

−−
−
k
Zn2+ −H
+

. Option 2 the correct choice.

2−

vmax = ωA = √ A H2 PO 4 ⇌ HPO Ka2

Grou
4

Mg2+
m +
−H

Equal masses m ; equal vmax : p VI Q54 Text Solution:

2− 3−
HP O ⇌ PO Ka3
4 4

Dalton's theory could explain the laws of

+ 3−
H3 PO 4⇌ 3H +PO K
4
−−
− ¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
−−
− −−
−
k1 k2 AQ k1 chemical combinations. However, it could not K = Ka 1 × Ka 2 × Ka 3
√ AP = √ AQ ⟹ = √ . Q49 Text Solution:
m m AP k2 explain the laws of gaseous volumes. (A) logK = logKa
1
+ logKa
2
+ logKa
3

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(B) Yes, H3PO4 is a stronger acid than both Thus A, B and D contain equal numbers of atoms. is true. Direct iodination is reversible; instead, KI
−
and HPO4
2−
as acidic strength XeF2 sp3d, linear displaces N₂⁺ in the diazonium salt
H2 PO
4 Q69 Text Solution:
decreases as you remove hydrogen from (Finkelstein/Sandmeyer) to give iodobenzene,
Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency causes pernicious anaemia;
has three potential hydrogen confirming Statement II.
H3 PO4 . H3 PO4
sp3d2, square vitamin D deficiency causes rickets; riboflavin (B₂)
ions to donate. XeOF4
pyramidal shortage produces cheilosis; pyridoxine (B₆)
(C) In H3PO4, Ka1 is greater than Ka2 and ka2 is deficiency leads to convulsions.
greater than Ka3 because it becomes increasingly
sp3d3, distorted Q70 Text Solution:
difficult to remove a proton from negatively XeF6
octahedral Alkyl groups exert a +I effect that destabilises the
charged ion Hence, A, B and C are correct.
carboxylate anion, lowering acidity. Formic acid Q75 Text Solution:
Q60 Text Solution: Q65 Text Solution:
(no alkyl) is strongest, followed by acetic acid
Formation of CH₄ from graphite and H₂ is an
(one CH₃). Isobutyric acid bears two methyl
exothermic reaction (ΔH = –74.8 kJ mol⁻¹).
groups, pivalic acid three, giving progressively
(1) Therefore products must lie 74.8 kJ below
weaker acids. Hence the order is
reactants; the energy diagram should display an
HCOOH > CH₃COOH > (CH₃)₂CHCOOH
(2) activation‑energy peak and then a lower product
> (CH₃)₃CCOOH.
plateau, with a downward vertical arrow labelled
74.8 kJ connecting reactants to products. Only Q71 Text Solution:
(3) diagram 1 depicts all these features accurately. Ferromagnetism arises when unpaired spins align
parallel throughout a solid and it is an extreme Q76 Text Solution:
Q66 Text Solution:
form of paramagnetism, so Statement I is correct. Acetylenic C–H (sp, 50 % s‑character) holds
(4) Humidity is water vapour in air, a liquid‑in‑gas
Cr²⁺ has configuration [Ar] 3d⁴ with four unpaired electron density closest to the nucleus, giving
system. Alloys are homogeneous metallic
Q61 Text Solution: electrons, while Nd³⁺ is [Xe] 4f³ with three the strongest σ‑bond and the highest
mixtures, classified as solid‑in‑solid solutions.
For weak electrolytes, degree of dissociation α = unpaired electrons, so their counts differ; bond‑dissociation energy. Aryl C–H (sp², 33 % s)
Amalgams contain liquid mercury dissolved in a
Λm /Λm
0
. The limiting molar conductivity of the Statement II is incorrect. is weaker. Cyclopropane carbon is effectively sp³
solid metal, giving liquid‑in‑solid dispersions.
monobasic acid is 0
Λm = Λ
0 0
+ Λ = 349.6 + Q72 Text Solution: (25 % s); ring strain adds little, so its C–H bond is
+ −
Smoke comprises fine solid particles suspended
50.4 = 400.0 Scm2 mol–2. With observed the weakest.
in air, hence solid‑in‑gas. Thus the correct Simple distillation separates
at 0.050 M
2 −1
Λm = 90 S cm mol
90
sequence is A‑II, B‑I, C‑IV, D‑III. chloroform (61 °C)/aniline because of their Q77 Text Solution:
α = = 0. 225
400
Q67 Text Solution: wide boiling gap. Bromine water is decolourised by compounds
Q62 Text Solution: Crude oil in petroleum industry is fractionated that undergo electrophilic addition to the C=C
Aliphatic amines are stronger bases than
A stable moleucle can not have zero bond order. by fractional distillation. bond or rapid electrophilic substitution on an
aromatic amines because the lone pair on N is
A bond order of zero indicates that the molecule High‑boiling glycerol is obtained from activated aromatic ring. Phenol and aniline
localised. Among aliphatic amines, greater +I and
does not exist hence statement 1 is false. spent‑lye via distillation under reduced activate the ring toward Br₂, while styrene’s vinyl
hyperconjugation raise electron density:
As bond order increases, bond length decreases pressure. double bond adds Br₂. Saturated cyclohexane
secondary (‑N(Et)₂) > primary (‑NHEt). In anilines,
because bond length and bond order are Aniline becomes steam‑volatile, so aniline– lacks both unsaturation and ring activation, so it
conjugation with the benzene ring withdraws
inversely related. Hence statement 2 is also false. water is removed by steam distillation. fails to decolourise bromine water.
electron density; a methyl group slightly offsets
Q63 Text Solution: this, so N‑methylaniline > aniline. Thus Q78 Text Solution:
Q73 Text Solution:
Since conductance is directly proportional to the N‑ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N‑methylanilin
For the elementary reversible reaction A ⇌ 2B,
number of ions, the compound that produces the e > benzenamine.
the equilibrium constant in concentration units is
least number of ions will have the minimum
Q68 Text Solution: the ratio of rate constants:
conductance. Option 1 and 2 forms an overall
Moles present: Na₂CO₃ = 212 ÷ 106 = 2 mol; ‑4
neutral complex: no counte ions are released in
Kc = kf /kb = 1/2500 = 4.0 × 10 .
Na₂O = 248 ÷ 62 = 4 mol; NaOH = 240 ÷ 40 = 6 mol;
Because Δng = (2 – 1) = 1, Kp .
Δng

water. So these will contain minimum = Kc (RT )

H₂ = 12 ÷ 2 = 6 mol; CO₂ = 220 ÷ 44 = 5 mol.
conductance in solution. At 1000 K, RT = 0.0831 × 1000 = 83.1 .
Total atoms = moles × NA × atomicity ‑4
Thus Kp = 4.0 × 10 × 83.1 ≈ 0.033 .
Q64 Text Solution: Na₂CO₃ → 2 mol × 6 = 12 NA;
Na₂O → 4 mol × 3 = 12 NA; H₂ → 6 mol × 2 = 12 NA; Q74 Text Solution:
XeO3 sp3, pyramidal NaOH → 6 mol × 3 = 18 NA; CO2 → 5 mol × 3 = Diazotization: aniline + nitrous acid at 273 – 278 K
15 NA yields highly unstable benzenediazonium Q79 Text Solution:
chloride; the dry salt can explode, so Statement I

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Boiling‑point elevation (ΔTb) ∝ i m, where i is the Iodide’s larger, more polarizable anion disperses O ≈(136 pm); C therefore incorrect. 3 cycles → 8 molecules
van’t Hoff factor and m the molarity (≈ molality negative charge better than chloride, making it a • Bond enthalpies:
for these dilute solutions). Urea and glucose are significantly superior leaving group; N≡N (946 kJ mol⁻¹) > O=O (498 kJ mol⁻¹) > H– …and so on.
non‑electrolytes (i = 1). KNO₃ gives two ions (i ≈ 2). Q85 Text Solution: H (436 kJ mol⁻¹), D is true. This pattern is exponential and follows the
Na₂SO₄ dissociates into 2 Na⁺ + SO₄²⁻ (i ≈ 3), so Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s) ΔH° = ΔH°crys. = – formula:
Q88 Text Solution:
ΔTb—and therefore the boiling point—is highest 4.5 kcal mol⁻¹. The reaction is strongly endothermic Therefore, amount of DNA after n cycles=2n
for the Na₂SO₄ solution. Using Hess’s law: (+180.7 kJ mol⁻¹), so raising the temperature shifts Where n = number of cycles
Q80 Text Solution: ΔH°f [BaSO₄(s)] = ΔH°f [Ba²⁺(aq)] + ΔH°f equilibrium toward NO. Le Chatelier’s principle And 2n = fold increase in DNA quantity
Haber process uses finely divided Fe catalyst. [SO₄²⁻(aq)] + ΔH°crys. also predicts that increasing the concentration of
Q93 Text Solution:
Wacker oxidation converts alkenes to aldehydes –349 = ΔH°f [Ba²⁺] + (–216) + (–4.5) either reactant (N₂ or O₂) drives the equilibrium
The potential drawbacks in adoption of the in-
with PdCl₂/CuCl₂. ⇒ ΔH°f [Ba²⁺] = –128.5 kcal mol⁻¹. forward to re‑establish balance. Lower
vitro fertilisation methods are;
Wilkinson catalyst, [(PPh₃)₃RhCl], enables Q86 Text Solution: temperature would favour the exothermic
homogeneous hydrogenation. reverse step, giving less NO. 1. Expensive instruments and reagents as the
Cyclic‑ether skeletons for C₄H₈O are:
Ziegler–Natta polymerisation employs TiCl₄ assisted reproductive techniques require
Q89 Text Solution:
partnered with Al(CH₃)₃. ‑1
extremely high precision handling by
For a first‑order reaction k = 0.03 s and
A-I specialised professionals and expensive
2.303 [R]0
B - II (i) t = log . instrumentation.
k [R]
C - III ‑1
2. Less adoption of orphans as in India we have
Initial [R]0 = 7.2 mol L ; final so many orphaned and destitute children, who
D - IV ‑1
[R] = 0.9 mol L . would probably not survive till maturity,
Q81 Text Solution:
(ii)
[R]0
; unless taken care of. The in-vitro fertilisation
Raoult’s law predicts = 8
[R] methods reduce the chances of legal adoption
Pideal = χ
∘
Px + χ P° . .
X Y Y log 8 = 3 log 2 = 3(0.301) = 0.903 of orphan children.
5 10
= × 63 + × 78 = 73 torr 2.303
15 15 t = × 0.903 ≈ 69.3 s . There is always a possibility that early embryos
Measured pressure = 70 torr which is lower than 0.03
formed by in-vitro fertilisation methods do not
ideal. A reduced vapour pressure signals stronger (iii) Q90 Text Solution:
survive.
X-Y attraction than like-like interactions, giving a Lassaigne fusion converts hetero‑atoms of an
negative deviation from ideality. organic compound into water‑soluble sodium Q94 Text Solution:
salts: NaCN for C + N, Na₂S for S, and NaX for The blood from the heart of frog is carried to all
Q82 Text Solution:
(iv) halogens, enabling their qualitative detection. the parts of the body through the arteries and
Natural honey contains equal amounts of
The CuO–carbon reduction is a metallurgical the veins collect deoxygenated blood from the
D‑glucose and D‑fructose; the latter is a
reaction, unrelated to the sodium‑fusion method; different parts of the body to the heart of frog.
ketohexose, hence a keto‑sugar. In aqueous
(v) hence it is excluded from Lassaigne’s test. Therefore the correct answer is venacava.
solution it cyclises to fructofuranose and
fructopyranose, giving α‑ and β‑anomeric pairs. Q91 Text Solution: Q95 Text Solution:
The specific rotation of D‑fructose is –92°, making Complex II of the mitochondrial electron Reductionist Biology seeks to understand living
it laevorotatory. transport chain is known as Succinate systems by studying their molecular, physical,
dehydrogenase. It catalyzes the oxidation of and chemical properties. It explains biological
Q83 Text Solution:
succinate to fumarate in the Krebs cycle and functions in terms of the interactions of
(vi)
transfers electrons to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q). molecules and biophysical processes.
Total stereochemical variants: 1 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 1 + 2 = 10
isomers. Q92 Text Solution:
In Polymerase chain reaction, each cycle of Q96 Text Solution:
LiAlH₄ furnishes alcohol, NaBH₄ fails with esters, Q87 Text Solution:
amplification doubles the amount of DNA. So, if RNA was the first genetic material.RNA used to
and Rosenmund reduction (H₂/Pd‑BaSO₄) works • Dipole moments:
we start with one molecule of DNA, after: act as a genetic material as well as a catalyst
only on acid chlorides, not esters. H₂O (1.85 D) > NH₃ (1.47 D) > CHCl₃ (≈1.04 D), so A is
(there are some important biochemical reactions
true. 1 cycle → 2 molecules
Q84 Text Solution: in living systems that are catalysed by RNA
• Lone‑pair counts: XeF₂ (3) > XeF₄ (2) > XeO₃ (1),
Rate of SN2 reaction depends on leaving group catalysts and not by protein enzymes). But, RNA
opposite to B, so B is false. 2 cycles → 4 molecules
tendency. 1‑Iodobutane reacts faster than being a catalyst was reactive and hence unstable.
• Bond lengths: O–H (96 pm) < C–H (110 pm) < N–
1‑chlorobutane because I⁻ leaves more readily. DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical

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modifications that make it more stable. DNA Tetany – Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ only the body wall (it's present next to the the nitrogen content of the soil. Cyanobacteria
being double stranded and having in body fluid ectoderm), and does not surround the alimentary are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in
complementary strand further resists changes by canal. aquatic and terrestrial environments many of
Q102 Text Solution:
evolving a process of repair. Eg- Aschelminthes. which can fix atmospheric nitrogen, e.g.
Assertion is true- Both wind and water pollinated
Q97 Text Solution: flowers are not very colourful and do not Q110 Text Solution:
Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc.

In commensalism, one species benefits while the produce nectar. Head Genetic material Q114 Text Solution:
other is neither harmed nor benefited. Epiphytes Reason is also correct- In wind and water Middle piece Energy tRNA interacts with mRNA during translation by
growing on mango branches gain physical pollination, pollen reaching the stigma is a Acrosome Enzyme matching its anticodon to the mRNA codon.
support and access to sunlight, while the mango chance factor. To compensate for this, flowers rRNA is part of the ribosome and helps in
Tail Sperm motility
tree is unaffected. This is a classic example of produce a large number of pollen grains aligning mRNA and tRNA, facilitating protein
commensalism. compared to the number of ovules. Q111 Text Solution: synthesis.
But reason is not a correct explanation of In pteridophytes, the main plant body is a RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all
assertion. sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular
Q98 Text Solution:
stem and leaves. The sporophytes bear sporangia defence.
Q103 Text Solution:
A. ✔️ True — Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S, that are subtended by leaf-like appendages
Wine and beer are produced without distillation Q115 Text Solution:
and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. called sporophylls. The sporangia produce spores
whereas whisky, brandy and rum are produced In insertional inactivation process, a recombinant
B. ✔️ True — Each ribosome consists of two by meiosis in spore mother cells. The spores
by distillation of the fermented broth. DNA is inserted into the β-galactosidase gene,
subunits. germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small but
which inactivates the enzyme.
C. ✔️ True — 80S ribosome = 60S + 40S, and Q104 Text Solution: multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic
70S ribosome = 50S + 30S. Statement I is incorrect while statement II is thalloid gametophytes called prothallus. The When no insert is present, the enzyme works,
D. ❌ Incorrect — 20S is not a known subunit correct. gametophytes bear male and female sex organs and colonies turn blue due to a chromogenic
of ribosomes. ⊕ for actinomorphic and % for zygomorphic called antheridia and archegonia, respectively. substrate.
E. ❌ Incorrect — 80S subunits are 60S and nature of flower. G for superior ovary and ¯¯
G for
¯
Water is required for transfer of antherozoids – When the insert is present, the enzyme is
40S, not 60S and 30S. inferior ovary. the male gametes released from the antheridia, inactivated, and white(no colour) appears,
Q105 Text Solution: to the mouth of archegonium. Fusion of male identifying the colonies as recombinant.
Streptokinase produced by the bacterium gamete with the egg present in the archegonium
Q99 Text Solution: Q116 Text Solution:
Streptococcus is used as a ‘clot buster’ for result in the formation of zygote. Zygote
Ex-situ conservation involves protecting an Eli Lilly, a pharmaceutical company, was the first
removing clots from the blood vessels of patients thereafter produces a multicellular well-
endangered species by removing part of the to commercialise genetically engineered human
who have undergone myocardial infarction differentiated sporophyte which is the dominant
population from a threatened habitat and placing insulin under the brand name Humulin.
leading to heart attack. phase of the pteridophytes.
it in a new location. Zoos and botanical gardens Scientists inserted the human insulin gene into
are prime examples, where organisms are Q106 Text Solution: Q112 Text Solution: plasmids, which were then introduced into
conserved outside their natural habitat. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y Cardiac activities of heart are regulated by genetically engineered Escherichia coli bacteria
has the fewest (231). Nodal tissue- SA node (sinoatrial node): (a type of bacterium).

Q100 Text Solution: Q107 Text Solution: pacemaker, AV node (atrioventricular node), Q117 Text Solution:
Statement I is correct- Solar energy is the Male frogs can be distinguished from the female Bundle of His and Purkinje fibers. S–G + S# → S + S#–G
primary source of energy in an ecosystem. frog by the presence of copulatory pad on the A Special tissue in the medulla oblongata. Where:
Statement II is incorrect- The rate of production first digit of the fore limbs. This structure helps Adrenal medullary hormone- Adrenaline and
G is a group other than hydrogen,
of organic matter during photosynthesis is gross the male hold onto the female during nor-adrenaline
S and S# are substrates.
primary productivity. reproduction.
Q113 Text Solution: The transfer of a functional group (G) from one
Q101 Text Solution: Q108 Text Solution:
The nodules on the roots of leguminous plants molecule (S) to another (S#).
Emphysema – Damaged alveolar walls and Cytokinins promote nutrient mobilisation which
are formed by the symbiotic association of Such reactions are catalyzed by Transferases,
decreased respiratory surface helps in the delay of leaf senescence.
Rhizobium. These bacteria fix atmospheric which are enzymes that transfer functional
Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain when not Q109 Text Solution: nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the groups from one molecule to another.
enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle In certain animals, the body cavity is not fully plant as
Glomerulonephritis – Inflammation of glomeruli Q118 Text Solution:
lined by mesoderm. Instead, the mesoderm exists nutrient. Other bacteria can fix atmospheric
of kidney In a monocot stem,
as scattered pouches between the ectoderm and nitrogen while free-living in the soil (examples
endoderm and generally the mesoderm lines Azospirillum and Azotobacter), thus enriching

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The hypodermis is sclerenchymatous, not Phospholipid height), hence they follow a non-Mendelian
parenchymatous. Cell bilayer (basic inheritance pattern.
D. IV.
Vascular bundles are scattered. membrane structure of the
Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed. plasma membrane) Q131 Text Solution:
Phloem parenchyma is absent. In peroxidase and catalase enzyme, which
Q122 Text Solution:
catalyze the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to
A chromatographic separation of the leaf
water and oxygen, haem is the prosthetic group.
pigments shows that the colour that we see in
Q119 Text Solution: leaves is not due to a single pigment but Q127 Text Solution: Q132 Text Solution:
The correct sequence of events in the life cycle due to four pigments: Explanation (Increasing order of body complexity
Assertion (A) is true: A mature angiosperm
of bryophytes is: Chlorophyll a (bright or blue green in the based on Whittaker’s 5 Kingdom classification):
embryo sac is 8-nucleate and 7-celled (3
B: Attachment of gametophyte to substratum chromatogram), chlorophyll b (yellow antipodals, 2 synergids, 1 egg cell, and 1 C. Prokaryotes with cell wall (Kingdom
E: Release of antherozoids into water green), xanthophylls (yellow) and carotenoids central cell with 2 polar nuclei). Monera) – simplest
A: Fusion of antherozoid with egg (yellow to yellow-orange). Reason (R) is false: The egg apparatus E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization
D: Formation of sporophyte These pigments are involved in capturing light contains 1 egg cell and 2 synergids, not 2 (Kingdom Protista)
C: Reduction division to produce haploid energy during photosynthesis, and each has a polar nuclei. The 2 polar nuclei are present in A. Multicellular heterotrophs with chitinous
spores characteristic colour based on its light the central cell, not the egg apparatus. cell wall (Kingdom Fungi)
absorption spectrum. D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ
This sequence reflects the alternation of
level (Kingdom Plantae)
generations in bryophytes, where the dominant Q123 Text Solution: Q128 Text Solution: B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ
gametophyte generation gives rise to the By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of Mesosomes are specialized infoldings of the system (Kingdom Animalia) – most complex
sporophyte after fertilization. the major organ systems are formed. plasma membrane in prokaryotic cells. They
This sequence reflects increasing levels of
Q124 Text Solution: assist in:
structural and functional complexity.
Q120 Text Solution: In the seeds of cereals such as maize the seed
Cell wall formation
Computed tomography and magnetic resonance coat is membranous and generally fused with the
DNA replication
imaging detect cancers of internal organs. fruit wall. The endosperm is bulky and stores Q133 Text Solution:
Respiration
Several chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill food. The outer covering of endosperm separates Ramdeo Misra is regarded as the Father of
cancerous cells. The patients are given the embryo by a proteinous layer called aleurone Ecology in India for his pioneering work in the
substances called biological response modifiers layer. Q129 Text Solution: field of ecology and environmental science,
such as α-interferon which activates their immune The post-transcriptional events in a eukaryotic especially ecosystem analysis and conservation
Q125 Text Solution:
system and helps in destroying the tumor. cell include: biology.
Increased cell counts are found in the case of
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons
leukemias. Q134 Text Solution:
(splicing)
Q121 Text Solution: C. Addition of a methyl guanosine cap at the Alfred
DNA as genetic
Cell division (site 5′ end of hnRNA (capping) Hershey
A. IV. material
where spindle D. Addition of adenine residues at the 3′ end and Martha
A. Centromere II. confirmation
fibres attach during (poly-A tailing) Chase
mitosis) Euchromati Loosely packed
A is incorrect because transport to cytoplasm B. III.
Cell movement n and light-stained
occurs after splicing, and E (base pairing of two
(helps in Frederick Streptococcus
complementary RNAs) is not a typical post- C. I.
B. Cilium III. locomotion or Griffith pneumoniae
transcriptional modification.
movement of Heterochro Densely packed
D. II.
substances) matin and dark-stained
Q130 Text Solution:
Mitochondrion
Q126 Text Solution: Polygenic traits are controlled by multiple genes, Q135 Text Solution:
(infoldings of the
C. Cristae I. each contributing a small additive effect. These The malignant tumors are a mass of proliferating
inner mitochondrial
traits do not follow Mendel’s laws of inheritance cells called neoplastic or tumor cells. These cells
membrane)
and exhibit continuous variation (e.g., skin color, grow very rapidly, invading and damaging the
surrounding normal tissues.

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On the other hand, Benign tumors normally large haploid secondary oocyte and a tiny RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all Males with the mutant Xc are affected (as they
remain confined to their original location and do first polar body. eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular have only one X chromosome).
not spread to other parts of the body and cause Degeneration of corpus luteum in the defense.
The probability of a child being a carrier (i.e. XcX)
little damage. absence of fertilisation, causes disintegration This method involves silencing of a specific
and unaffected in the F3 generation;
of the endometrium lining of the uterus mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
Q136 Text Solution: The F2 couple (carrier female XcX and unaffected
leading to menstruation. molecule that binds to and prevents
The DNA fragments extracted from the gel male XY):
translation of the mRNA and thereby silencing
electrophoresis can be used in the Q139 Text Solution: Possible gametes from unaffected male XY are
the specific mRNA.
construction of recombinant DNA molecules All living members of the class Cyclostomata are having: X and Y

by joining them with cloning vectors. ectoparasites on some fishes. Q145 Text Solution: Possible gametes from carrier female XcX are

Since DNA fragments are negatively charged When RRYY (round yellow) is crossed with rryy having: Xc and Y
Q140 Text Solution:
molecules, therefore they can be separated (wrinkled green), the F1 hybrids (RrYy) are all Xc X
Assertion (A): True – The Golgi apparatus
by forcing them to move towards the anode round yellow. Selfing of the F1 results in F2 with Xc XcXc XcX
functions to package and sort materials from
under an electric field through a phenotypic ratio of 9 round yellow : 3 round Y XYc
XY
the ER and delivers them to various
medium/matrix. green : 3 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green. Possible offspring in F3 generation;
destinations.
The DNA fragments separate according to Q146 Text Solution:
Reason (R): True – Vesicles from the XcXc → unaffected female
their size through sieving effect provided by Histones are rich in lysine and arginine.
endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face XcX → carrier female
the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the
of the Golgi, and after processing, materials Q147 Text Solution: XY → unaffected male
fragment size, the farther it moves.
are released from the trans face. The first menstruation in females begins at XcY → affected male
Therefore, smaller fragments will be observed
puberty and is called menarche.
at the anode whereas the larger DNA Out of 4, only 1 child (XcX) is a carrier and
fragments near the wells in agarose gel. Q148 Text Solution: unaffected.
Q141 Text Solution:
Heart – Atrial natriuretic factor So, the probability = 1/4
Q137 Text Solution: A. Scutellum – II. Cotyledon of monocot seed kidney – Erythropoietin
List -I List -II B. Non-albuminous seed – III. Groundnut (no Gastro-intestinal tract – Secretin
Q153 Text Solution:
residual endosperm) Adrenal Cortex – Aldosterone
Adenosine Nucleoside Assertion is true- Cells of the tapetum possess
C. Epiblast – IV. Rudimentary cotyledon (found
Adenylic acid Nucleotide Q149 Text Solution: dense cytoplasm and generally have more than
in monocots)
Adenine Nitrogenous base The protein portion of the enzyme is called the one nucleus.
D. Perisperm – I. Persistent nucellus (e.g., in
Alanine Amino acid apoenzyme. But reason is false- The innermost wall layer is
black pepper, beet)
Q150 Text Solution: the tapetum which nourishes the developing
Q138 Text Solution:
Q142 Text Solution: Productivity is expressed in terms of gm-2 yr-1 or pollen grains.
The reduction division for the human female The members of subphylum Vertebrata possess (kcal m-2) yr-1. Q154 Text Solution:
gametogenesis starts earlier than that of male notochord during the embryonic period.
Q151 Text Solution: Megasporogenesis : The process of formation of
gametogenesis as in females the reduction The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or
Potato is a stem modification (tuber) while Sweet megaspores from the megaspore mother cell is
division is started before the birth of female bony vertebral column in the adult. Thus all
potato is a root modification (root tuber). Both called megasporogenesis. Ovules generally
baby.i.e., during the embryonic stages whereas vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are
store food and perform similar functions, but differentiate a single megaspore mother cell
in males, spermatogenesis begins at puberty. not vertebrates.
have different origins. This means they are (MMC) in the micropylar region of the nucellus. It
The gap between the first meiotic division and
Q143 Text Solution: analogous organs (similar function, different is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a
second meiotic division is much shorter for
origin), which arises due to Convergent evolution prominent nucleus. The MMC undergoes meiotic
males as compared to females because in Each antibody molecule has four peptide
i.e. unrelated organisms independently evolve division. In a majority of flowering plants, one of
females, oogonia cells start division during chains, two small called light chains and two
similar traits as a result of having to adapt to the megaspores is functional while the other
embryonic stages and enter into prophase-I of longer called heavy chains.
similar environments or ecological niches. three degenerate. Only the functional
the meiotic division and get temporarily The antigen binding site is present at the N-
megaspore develops into the female
arrested at that stage, called primary oocytes. terminal region of the antibody molecule. Q152 Text Solution:
gametophyte (embryo sac). The nucleus of the
Once puberty is attained in females, the Constant regions of heavy and light chains are This pedigree shows an X-linked recessive
functional megaspore divides mitotically to form
primary oocytes complete prophase-I of first located at the C-terminal of the antibody disorder:
two nuclei which move to the opposite poles,
meiotic division to form secondary oocytes. molecule.
Females with one mutant allele (XcX) are forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac. Two more
The first meiotic division in females is an
Q144 Text Solution: carriers. sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the
unequal division resulting in the formation of a

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formation of the 4-nucleate and later the 8- two daughter chromatids, now referred to as facing now are largely due to human activities. Ecosystems are not exempt from the Second Law
nucleate stages of the embryo sac. daughter chromosomes of the future daughter There are four major causes (‘ The Evil Quartet of thermodynamics. They need a constant supply
nuclei, begin their migration towards the two ’ is the sobriquet used to describe them) of energy to synthesise the molecules they
Q155 Text Solution:
opposite poles. This is assisted by simultaneous In recent years ex situ conservation has require, to counteract the universal tendency
In symmetry, the flower may be actinomorphic
elongation of spindle fibres. advanced beyond keeping threatened species toward increasing disorderliness.
(radial symmetry) or zygomorphic (bilateral
in enclosures. Now gametes of threatened Q171 Text Solution:
symmetry). When a flower can be divided into Q159 Text Solution:
The gymnosperms (gymnos : naked, sperma : species can be preserved in viable and fertile Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the
two equal radial halves in any radial plane
condition for long periods using Calvin cycle where CO2 is utilised for the
passing through the centre, it is said to be seeds) are plants in which the ovules are not
cryopreservation techniques.
actinomorphic, e.g., mustard, datura, chilli. When enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, carboxylation of RuBP. This reaction is catalysed
it can be divided into two similar halves only in Familiar with the environmental damage
both before and after fertilisation. The seeds that by the enzyme RuBP carboxylase which results in
one particular vertical plane, it is zygomorphic, caused and threat posed to our native species
develop post-fertilisation, are not covered, i.e., the formation of two molecules of 3-PGA. Since
e.g., pea, gulmohur, bean, Cassia. by invasive weed species like carrot grass
are naked. this enzyme also has an oxygenation activity it
(Parthenium), Lantana and water hyacinth would be more correct to call it RuBP
Q156 Text Solution: Q160 Text Solution:
(Eicchornia). carboxylase-oxygenase or RuBisCO. RuBisCO has
Primary lymphoid organs: Bone marrow and Adrenal medullary hormone are adrenaline and
Some examples of recent extinctions include a much greater affinity for CO2 when the CO2: O2
thymus are the sites where immature nor-adrenaline it causes pupillary dilation,
the dodo (Mauritius), quagga (Africa), is nearly equal
lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive hyperglycemia, piloerection(erection of hair) and
thylacine (Australia), Steller’s Sea Cow
lymphocytes. increase strength of heart contraction Q172 Text Solution:
(Russia).
After maturation, lymphocytes migrate to The enzymes essential for gene cloning are:
Q161 Text Solution:
Q165 Text Solution:
secondary lymphoid organs like Spleen, Lymph Restriction enzyme - It recognises a specific
Insulin is a protein hormone, and when taken
Neurohypophysis (pars nervosa) also known as
nodes, Tonsils, Peyer’s patches (small intestine), sequence of nucleotides in double stranded DNA
orally, it gets broken down by digestive enzymes
posterior pituitary, stores and releases two
Appendix and cuts the DNA at a specific location.
in the stomach and small intestine, just like any
hormones called oxytocin and vasopressin (anti-
Secondary organs are the sites of antigen– DNA ligase - They join broken pieces of DNA
other dietary protein. As a result, it loses its
diuretic hormone), which are actually synthesised
lymphocyte interaction. On encountering an strand together during DNA replication.
structure and function before it can enter the
by the hypothalamus and are transported
antigen, lymphocytes proliferate and form DNA polymerase - They function by replicating
bloodstream.
axonally to neurohypophysis.
effector cells. DNA by synthesizing new DNA strands using
To ensure it works properly, insulin is given
Q166 Text Solution: existing DNA strands as templates.
Q157 Text Solution: through injections, allowing it to directly enter
The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is
In many species of fig trees, there is a tight one- the bloodstream and perform its function of
to-one relationship with the pollinator species of the presence of water vascular system which DNA mutase and DNA recombinase are not
regulating glucose levels in diabetic patients.
wasp. It means that a given fig species can be helps in locomotion, capture and transport of essential for gene cloning. As DNA mutase are
Q162 Text Solution:
pollinated only by its ‘partner’ wasp species and food and respiration. enzymes that catalyse the movement of a
Salvia is an angiosperm. Ginkgo is a
no other species. Fig flower is pollinated by wasp. functional group within a single molecule,
gymnosperm. Polytrichum is a moss (bryophyte). Q167 Text Solution:
Wasp lays eggs in a fig fruit. The female wasp effectively rearranging the molecular structure.
Salvinia is a pteridophyte. Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence,
uses the fruit not only as an oviposition (egg- that is present at the time of birth. DNA recombinase facilitates the exchange of
Q163 Text Solution: DNA strands between two segments that share
laying) site but uses the developing seeds within
It was George Gamow, a physicist, who argued Q168 Text Solution:
the fruit for nourishing its larvae. The wasp partial sequence homology.
that since there are only 4 bases and if they have Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by
pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching Q173 Text Solution:
to code for 20 amino acids, the code should fragmentation of thalli, or by the formation of
for suitable egg-laying sites. In return for the
constitute a combination of bases. He suggested specialised structures called gemmae (sing. A. True – Auxins can induce parthenocarpy
favour of pollination the fig offers the wasp some
that in order to code for all the 20 amino acids, gemma). Gemmae are green, multicellular, (formation of seedless fruits).
of its developing seeds, as food for the
the code should be made up of three asexual buds, which develop in small receptacles B. True – Plant growth regulators can be
developing wasp larvae.
nucleotides. This was a very bold proposition, called gemma cups located on the thalli. The involved in promotion as well as inhibition of
Q158 Text Solution: gemmae become detached from the parent growth.
because a permutation combination of 43 (4 × 4
Small disc-shaped structures at the surface of body and germinate to form new individuals. C. True – Dedifferentiation is necessary before
× 4) would generate 64 codons; generating many
the centromeres are called kinetochores. These a cell can re-differentiate.
more codons than required. Q169 Text Solution:
structures serve as the sites of attachment of D. Incorrect – Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth
Q164 Text Solution: Special venous connection between the kidney
spindle fibres to the chromosomes. At the onset inhibitor, not a promoter.
and lower parts of the body is present in frogs.
of anaphase, each chromosome arranged at the Causes of biodiversity losses: The accelerated E. Incorrect – Apical dominance (due to auxin)
This is called renal portal system.
metaphase plate is split simultaneously and the rates of species extinctions that the world is inhibits lateral bud growth.
Q170 Text Solution:

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substrate. In this, a recombinant DNA is inserted

within the coding sequence of an enzyme, β-
Q174 Text Solution:
The rho (ρ) factor is essential for the termination
galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the Android App | iOS App | PW Website
gene for synthesis of this enzyme, which is
of transcription in prokaryotes. It binds to the
referred to as insertional
RNA and causes the RNA polymerase to
Inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic
dissociate from the DNA template, ending
substrate gives blue coloured colonies if the
transcription.
plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert.
Presence of insert results into insertional
Q175 Text Solution:
inactivation of the
Frog respires in water by skin (cutaneous
β-galactosidase gene and the colonies do not
respiration) whereas on land the buccal cavity,
produce any colour, these are identified as
skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.
recombinant colonies.
Q176 Text Solution:
Q180 Text Solution:
In the question the twins given are a boy and a dN K −N
= rN ( )
girl. This shows these are developed from two dt K

separate fertilized eggs i,e each have individual This is the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth
sperm and ovum. This type of twins are fraternal equation, where:
twins or dizygotic twins. N = population size
Q177 Text Solution: r = intrinsic rate of natural increase
K = carrying capacity
A. Aspergillus niger – Used industrially for
= rate of change in population size
dN

citric acid production, not for household dt

products It describes population growth that slows as the

B. Lactobacillus – Used in curd formation population reaches the carrying capacity (K).
C. Trichoderma polysporum – Produces
immunosuppressive drug (Cyclosporin A), not
used in household products
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Used in baking
and alcohol fermentation
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii – Used in Swiss
cheese production

So, A and C are NOT involved in household

product preparation.

Q178 Text Solution:

Progesterone is secreted from corpus luteum.
Relaxin is secreted from the ovary.
Melanocyte stimulating hormone is secreted
from Pars intermedia.
The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones
called adrenaline or epinephrine and
noradrenaline or norepinephrine. These are
commonly called as catecholamines.

Q179 Text Solution:

Selectable markers have been developed which
differentiate recombinants from non-
recombinants on the basis of their ability to
produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic

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