UNIVERSITYOF

IBADAN

POST–UTMESCREENING
Past Questions&Solutions
2012–2005
‘’My idea in this sense does not focus on duplicating the efforts
made byseveral other Nigerians, Lecturers, teachers and tutors in
this direction. I only aimed at correcting some of their shortfalls, and
most
importantly;making these study, revision and preparatory materials
readily available to anyone in any part of the country.’’
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 PHONE NO: 080611419999

YOU CAN ALSO MAKE A CONTRIBUTION FOR THIS TO CONTINUE

www.facebook.com/legwork94

What you NEED to KNOW

• U.I do not partake in pre-degree but CDL(centre for distance learning) • Last year U.I

set 100 question i.e 25 each and gave 1hour 30mins time limit.

• Age limit is 16years as at the time of admission

• U.I accepts two sittings in O-level

• University of Ibadan puts only post-utme score into consideration when offering admission.

• The O-level results and UTME results are utilized in inviting candidates for post-utme test through their phone numbers. Once
invited and you score very high in post-utme.

• Post-utme exercise consists of 100 questions in total(25 each from the 4 subjects selected)
• Admission formula for invitation to post-utme is 60:40(60marks- Waec:40-UTME) which is obtained after adding your O-level
and UTME score using the method above.

YOU MUST REMEMBER THIS.

Two years ago, 25,513 submitted their results online but only 5,045 were invited for post-utme of which 3,131 scored 50 and
above.they were recommend for admission but only 2,849 showed up for clearance and eventually matriculated. The remaining 282
rejected their admission because they were given other option since they failed to meet their individual cut-off but scored above 50
as required.

CALCULATING YOUR SCORE PRE-UME

For O’level:

A1 – 6points

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B2 – 5points

B3 – 4points

C4 – 3points

C5 – 2points

C6 – 1point(5 relevant subject)

For JAMB: Score/10

SUM = (Finally total O-level pts x 2) + ( UTME/10)

LAST YEAR UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN CUT-OFF

THE SOCIAL SCIENCES TECHNOLOGY

Economics 57 Agricultural & Environmental Engineering 50

Geography 50 Civil Engineering 50

Political Science 54 Electrical & Electronics Engineering 59

Psychology 50 Food Technology 50

Sociology 50 Industrial & Production Engineering 50

Mechanical Engineering 55
Petroleum Engineering 58
Wood Products Engineering 50

SCIENCE LAW

Anthropology 50 Law 64

Archaeology 50

Botany 50

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Chemistry 50

Computer Science 50

Geography 50

Geology 50

Mathematics 50

Microbiology 52

Physics 50

Statistics 50

Zoology 50

ARTS EDUCATION

Arabic & Islamic Studies 50 Adult Education 50

Anthropology 50 Educational Management 50

Archaeology 50 LARIS 50

Classics 50 Guidance & Counselling 50

CLA 59 Health Education 50 English 58

Human Kinetics 50

E. Studies- French 50 T. Education- Arts 54

E. Studies- German 50 T. Educ.- Pre-Primary 50

E. Studies- Russian 50 T. Educ- Science 50

History 50 T. Educ.- Social Science 50

Linguistics 56 Special Educ. 50

Linguistics – Yoruba 50

Linguistics – Igbo 50

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Music 50
Philosophy 50
Religious Studies 50
Theatre Arts 50

PHARMACY COLLEGE OF MEDICINE

Pharmacy 60 Biochemistry 50

Dentistry 59

Human Nutrition 50

MBBS 70

Medical Laboratory Science

Nursing 53

Physiology 50

Physiotherapy 57

AGRIC. & FORESTRY VETERINARY MEDICINE

Agriculture 50 Veterinary Medicine 50

Aquaculture & Fisheries Mgt 50

Forest Resources Management 50

Wildlife & Ecotourism Mgt 50

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 UNIVERSITY OFIBADAN2006/2007 POSTUMESCREENINGEXERCISE
INSTRUCTIONTOCANDIDATES
PLEASEENSURETHATYOU HAVESUBMITTEDONEDOWNLOADEDON-LINEREGISTRATIONFORMBEFORE AND AFTER
THEEXAMINATION.
Calculators,CellPhonesandotherelectronic devicesarenotallowed.Anyformofexamination malpractice
automaticallydisqualifiesthecandidate.Candidatesmayuselogarithm tables.
ANSWERALLQUESTIONSTIMEALLOWED:
Shadethe answersheet as appropriatewithHB pencilonly
PHYSICS A. I only B. II only C. Ill only D. I and II only E. II and III 1. A
simple pendulum makes 50 oscillations in one only
minute. What is the period of oscillation? 7. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 20cm has a pin A. 0.02s
B.0.20s C. 0.83s placed at 15cm from its pole. What will be the
D. 1.20s E. 50.00s magnification of the image formed?
2. A girl whose mass is 55kg stands on a spring- 8. The image in a pin-hole camera is always
weighing machine inside a lift. When the lift starts to A. diminished B. enlarged C. upright D. inverted E. blurred
ascend, its acceleration is 2ms-2. What will be the 9. An object weighs 10.ON in air and 7.ON in water. What reading
on the machine? (Take g = 10ms' ) is its weight when immersed in a liquid of relative density A. 66kg
B. 55kg C. 44kg D. 22kg E. 11kg 1.5? A. 4.50N B. 4.67N C. 5.50N D. 6.67N E. 8.50N 3. A boy
pulls a nail from a wall with a string tied to 10. A converging lens of focal length 5cm forms a virtual the nail.
The string is inclined at an angle of 600 to image which is 10cm from the lens. How far from the lens the
wall. If the tension in the string is 4N.what is the is the object? A. 2.0cm B. 3.3cm C. 5.0cm D. 10.0cm E.
effective force used in pulling the nail? 15.0cm
A. 2N C. 4N 11. The count rate of an alpha-particle source is 400 per E. 8N
minute. If the half-life of the source is 5 days, what would 4.
Which of the following is not a vector quantity? be the count rate per minute after I5 days? A. 20 B. 25 C.
A. momentum B. force C. velocity D. temperature E. 50 D. 200 E. 400
displacement 12. The nucleon number and the proton numbers of a 5. A
real image of an object formed by a converging neutral atom of an element are 238 and 92 respectively.
lens of focal length 15cm is three time the size of the What is the number of neutron in the atom? A. 330 B. 238
object..What is the distance of the object from the C. 146 D. 119 E.73
lens? 13. In 24 days a radioactive isotope decreases in mass A. 30cm
B. 25cm C. 20cm from 64g to 2g. what is the half life of the radioactive D. 15cm E.
10cm material? A. 0.75 days
6. Which of the following remain(s) unchanged as
light travels from one medium to another?
I. speed II. Wavelength III Frequency

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 B. 2.58 days C. 4.00 days D. 4.80 days E. 6.00 days 14. D. There is no precipitate
When an atom gains or loses a charge, it E. a blue black coloration
becomes 22. Which of the following gases will have the highest
A. an ion B. an electron C. a neutron D. a proton E. a rate of diffusion under the same conditions (H = 1, C =
deuteron 12, O=16, S = 32, Cl = 35.5) A. O2 B. C12 C. HC1 D. H2S E.
15. Beta particles are A. electrons B. protons C. CO2
neutrons D. helium nuclei E. tritium, nuclei 16. 23. Which of the following involves the decomposition of a sugar
Which of the following has the shortest by enzymic action?
wavelength? A. Esterification B.Fermentation
A. infrared ray B. gamma rays C. ultra violet ray D. C. Dehydration D. Polymerization
radio wave E. visible light E. Saponification
17. The inability of the eye to focus near objects is known 24. When iron rusts, it undergoes
as A. Deliquescence B. Chemical Decomposition C.
A. long sight B. astigmatism hydrolysis D. Redox reaction
C. presbyopia D. glaucoma E. Combustion
E. short sight 25. Hydrogen is used for the following except
18. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a hill A. manufacturing of ammonia
with a velocity of 20ms-1. If it reaches the B. synthesis of hydrochloric acid
ground 4 seconds later, what is the height of the hill? (g = C. extinguishing fire
10ms ). D. conversion of coal to petrol
A. 20m B. 40m C. 80m E. manufacture of magarine
D. 160m E. 200m 26. Petrol can be obtained from diesel by
19. Calculate the resistance of the filament of a lamp rated A. distillation B. cracking
240V40W. C. polymerization D. dehydrogenation E. catalysis
D. 14400 E. 28800 27. The following metals are attracted by electrolytic method
20. A cube made of a metal of linear expansivity initial except
'volume of the cube is V, what is the increase in volume of A. potassium B. calcium C. sodium D. tin E. magnesium 28. The
the cube? complex salt formed when aluminum dissolves in sodium
D. 2aVt hydroxide solution is
CHEMISTRY A. Na3Al(OH)4 B. Na2Al(OH)3
21. When sucrose is warned with Fehling solution. C. NaAl(OH)3 D. Na4Al(OH)4
A. a silver mirror is produced E. NaAl(OH)4
B. the turns milky
C. a brick-red precipitate is formed

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 29. Which of the following is a waste product in the solvay A. The reaction is spontaneous
process for the manufacture of sodium B. the reaction is endothermic
trioxocarbonate(IV)? C. hydrogen is produced
A. Ammonium chloride B. brine C. limestone D. D. the sodium melts and dissolves
calcium oxide E. calcium oxide E. the resultant solution is alkaline
30. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring Iron 38. The formula (CH3)3COH is that of
ore? A. polyhydric alcohol B. secondary alkanol C. tertiary
A. FeCl2 B. Fe2O3 C. Fe2O3 D. FeCO3 E. FeS2 alkanol D. primary alkanol E. trihydricalkanol
31. Which of the following materials cannot be 39. What is the number of oxygen atoms in 32g of the gas?
extracted from its ore by using carbon or carbon (II) oxide as the (O = 16, L = 6.0 x 1024mor').
reducing agent? A. Cu B. Zn C. Al D. Pb E. A. 3.2x 1023 B. 6.0 X 1023 C. 1.2 0 X 1024 D. 1.60 X 1024
Fe E. 2.0 X 1024
32. Chlorine is used in water treatment as 40. The ionic radii of metals are usually
A. a germicide B. a decolorizing agent C. an anti- oxidant D. A. greater than their atomic radii
a coagulating agent E. an aerating agent 33. The properties of B. unaffected by the charge of the ion
electrovalent compounds C. less than their atomic radii
include the following except D. greater than those of non-metals
A. a high melting and boiling point E. the same as their atomic radii
B. conduction of electricity in the molten state ENGLISH
C. high volatility at room temperature Fromthe wordslettered A to Ebeloweachofthe
D. ionization of aqueous solution followingsentences,choosethe groupofwords
E. decomposition of their solutions by electric current 34. thatis nearestinmeaningtotheunderlined
Alkanes are used mainly expression asitisused inthe sentence.
A. in the production of plastics 41. She tried to settle the quarrel but the man
B. as domestic and industrial fuels remained obstinate to listen to her.
C. in the textile industry A. offensive B. angry C. stubborn D. unstable E.
D. in the hydrogenation of oils E. as line chemicals 35. impolite
Which of the following solids has a network 42. Okon attempted to entice Eno with the promise of a
structure? handsome sum of money
A. diamond B. iodine C. sulphur D. graphite E. iron 36. A. deceive B. enchant C. force D. trick E. tempt
Which of the following separation is routine applied in the 43. I am very proud to speak before this august
petroleum industry? A. filtration B.chromatography C. assembly.
fractional crystallization D.
evaporation E. fractional distillation
37. Which of the following observation is not correct about
the reaction of sodium metal with cold water?

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 A. Ignominious C. monthly D. untrue E. popular 44. It is 54. Nobody was surprised that the thief was
University of Ibadanrd to suggest that Tunde should marry convicted ZZ. All the charges
that saucy lady. A. on B. with C. of D. over E. for
A. pitiable B. hopeless C. humorous D. untrue E. 55. It has been rough so far ZZ? A. hasn‘t it B. B.
ridiculous hadn‘t it C. isn‘t it D. wasn‘t it E. haven‘t it
45. The principal's orders are imperative. A. lenient B. 56. The master says he‘s accountable Z the
authoritative C. genuine D. E. necessary president, and nobody else A. from B to C. with D. by E. for
46. The suspect was made to walk in front of the 57. You were punished because you .... ..last week without
anxious crowds. permission.
A. surprised B. astonished C. engrossed D. curious E. A. ought not to have traveled
questionable B. must not have travelled
47. The lawyer's argument of the case was exhaustive A. C. Ought not to travel
Interesting B. exaggerating C. exhilarating D. D. will not have travelled
thorough E. fascinating E. ought to have travelled
48. The superintendent was appalled by the attitude of some 58. The president‘s speech ZZ At 7pm yesterday.
of the employees towards their work. A. is broadcast B. has been broadcast C. were
A. annoyed B. disappointed C. shocked D. provoked E. broadcast D. was broadcast
depressed 59. She Z... . .before I entered the office.
49. Death is inevitable for a man. A. unavoidable B. A. has to be questioned
essential C. necessary D. immoral E. imminent 50. The B. has been questioned
decision taken by the panel is irrevocable. C. have been questioned
A. irreversible B. unexpected C. acceptable D. D. had been questioned
irresponsible E. unacceptable E. is being questioned
Fromthe wordsorgroup ofwords letteredAtoE, choose 60. The suspect .... . ..when I entered the office.
theone thatbest completeseachofthe followingsentences A. has been questioned
51. ......is the owner of this pair of shoes? A. who B. B. have been questioned
whom C. which D. whose E. when C. was being questioned
52. My uncle is an expert ....... Mechanical engineer A. at B. in C. D. is being questioned
with D. for E. on E. will be questioned
53. The PTA meeting did not adjourn until it had
discussed all the matters placed ZZ it
A. by B. with C. before D. over E. on

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 MATHEMATICS A. 12 B.91/2 C. 8 D. 7 E. 51/2
61. The angle of the sector of a circle of diameter 8cm is 71. While doing his Physics practical Chioma
135°. Find the area of the sector. (TC= 22/7) A. 3/20 B.Ifi recorded a reading of 1.12cm instead of 1.21cm
C. 1/4 D. 3/10 E. 3/4 calculate his percentage error.
62. Calculate, correct to three significant figures, the length A. 1.17% B. 6.38% C. 7.44%
of an arc that subtends an angle of 70° 22/7) A. 2.44cm B. D. 8.05% E. 9.00%
4.89cm 72. From the top of a building 10m high, the angle of
C. 9.78cm D. 25.1cm E. 50.3cm depression of a stone lying on the horizontal, ground is 69°.
63. A number is chosen at random from the set Calculate, correct to one decimal place, the distance of the
{1,2,3,...9,10}. What is the random probability that the stone from the foot of the building.
number is greater than or equal to 7? A. 1/10 B. A. 3.6m B. 3.8m C. 6.0m D. 9.3m E. 26.1m
3/10 C. 2/5 D. 3/5 E. 7/10 73. Factorize 3a2 – 11a + 6
64. A fair die is rolled once. What is the probability of A. (3a-2)(a-3) B. (2a-2)(a-3) C. (3a-2)(a + 3) D. (3a + 2)(a –
obtaining 4 or 6? 3) E. 2a - 3)(a + 2)
A. 1/12 B. 1/6 C. 1/3 D. ½ E. 2/3 74. Solve the equation 3a + 10 = a2 A. 5, 2 B. -5, 2 C.
65. S = {1,2...5,6}, T= {2,4,5,7} and R = {1,4,5}, find {S A. 10, 0 D. 5, -2 E. -5, -2
{1,4,5} B.{2,4,5} C. {1,2,4.5} D. {2,3,4,5} E. 75. The common ratio of a geometrical progression is 2. if
{1,2,3,4,5} the 5th term is greater than the 1st term by 45, find the 5th
66. Simplify ¾x (1½ - 2/3) A. 7/30 B. 7/24 C. 9/25 D.1/2 term. A. 3 B.6 C. 45 D. 48 E. 90 76. Which of the
E.18/25 following about a rhombus may not be true?
67. Solve the inequality 3m + 3>9 A. The diagonals are equal
A. m > 2 B.m>3 C. m >6 D. m > 6 E. m > 12 B. the diagonals bisect the angles through they pass C. the
68. Convert 89 in base ten to a number in base two A. diagonals bisect each other
1101001 B. 1011001 D. the adjacent sides are equal E. opposite angles are equal
C. 1001111 D. 101101 E. 1101 77. Evaluate log,025 + log,032 - Iog108 A. 0.2 B. 2 C.
69. The nth term of a sequence is given by (-l)n-1, find the 100 D. 409 E. 490
sum of the second and third terms
A. -2 B. 1 C. 2 D. 6 E. 12
70. In an arithmetic progression, the first term is 2 and the
sum of the 1st and 6th terms is 614. What is the 4th term?

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 78. Construct a quadratic equation whose roots are -1/2 14. A 16. B
and 2. 15. A 17. A
A. 3x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 B. 3x2 + 3x - 2 = 0 C. 2x2 + 3x - 2 = 0 D. 18. S = ut + ½ gt2 = 20.4 + ½ . 10.16
2x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 E.2x2 – 3x - 2 = 0 S = 80 + 80 = 160m
79. What must be added to the expression x2 – 18x to make it 19. P = IV = V2/R = I2R where V = 240, P = 4W R =V2=
a perfect square? 2402 = 1440= D P 40
A. 3 B. -9 C. 36 D. -72 E. 81 - Vt V1t
80. Solve the equation m/3 + ½ = ¾ + m/4. A. -3 B. =E
-2 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 CHEMISTRY
SOLUTIONSTOPOSTUME2006/2007 21. – 28. E 35. D
PHYSICS 22. A 29. B 36. E
1. Period T = t/n = 60/50 = 1.20s =B 23. B 30. A 37. B
2. = B There is no change in mass 24. B 31. C 38. C
3. Effective force Fx = Fcos 60 = 4cos 60 = 4(0.5) = 2N = 25. C 32. A 39. C
A 26. B 33. C 40. C
4. Temperature =D 27. D 34. B
is positive for a converging lens. Distance of real object ENGLISH
and real image are positive 41. Obstinate (often disapproving) refusing to
= 1/5 change your opinions, way of behaving etc. when other
u = 60/3 = 20cm =C 6. =A people try to persuade you to; showing this: ANS stubborn
- 1/u = 1/10 – 1/15 = 1/30 and v = +30cm; v is =C
positive so image is real. 42. Entice: to persuade somebody/something to go
Magnification m = v/u = 30/15 = 2.00 =B 8. = E 9. Rel. somewhere or to do something, usually by offering them
Density = weight – in – air something ANS tempt = E
Weight – of – equal – volume – of – water 43. august: (Note this is different from August – the 8th
1.5 = 10/ b; 1.5b = 10 and b = 6.67N =D month) Impressive, making you feel respect ANS popular
- 1/v = 1/5 – 1/10 = 1/10. u = 10cm =D =E
11. 15/5 = 3 400/2 = 200 1st half of decay = 5days 200/2 44. University of Ibadanrd: completely ridiculous, not
= 100 2nd half of decay = 5days 15 days 100/2 = 50 3rd logical and sensible ANS ridiculous = E
half of decay = 5days =C 45. Imperative: very important and needing
12. Proton and neutron constitute the nucleon. immediate attention or action (2) expressing
Hence neutrons = Nucleon – Proton = 238 – 92 = 146 authority: expressing an order ANS authoritative = B
=C 46. Anxious: feel worried or nervous ANS curious = D
13. 14/2 = ( ½ )24/t
1/2 => 3.2 = (0.5)24/t 1/2
Log 3.2 = log0.524/t
1/2 => 1.51 = 24/t1/2 (-0.3010)
t1/2 =24 x 0.3010 = 4.8 days =D
1.51

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 47. Exhaustive: very thorough, looking at a every detail ANS thorough = D
48. Appalled: feeling or showing horror or disgust at something unpleasant or wrong ANS shocked = C 49. Inevitable: that
you cannot avoid or prevent ANS unavoidable = A
50. Irrevocable: that cannot be changed; final ANS irreversible = A
51. Note: ‗whom‘ is used instead of ‗who‘ as the object of a verb or proposition while who is usually used as the object
pronoun, especially in questions. It is much more natural to use who and put the preposition at the end of the sentence ANS
who = A
52. B 56. B 60. C
53. C 57. A
54. C 58. D
55. A 59. D
MATHEMATICS
61. Area of a sector A = 186/7
360 360 7
4.89cm = B
360 360 7
63. x> 7(8,9,10) = P(x) = 3
x = 7(7) = P(x) = 1
x > 7 = 3 + 1 =4 = 2
10 10 10 5 = C
666663=C
65. S = {1,2,3,4,5,6}; T = {2,4,5,7}; R = {1,4,5}
= C 66. = D
67. 3m + 3 > 9; 3m> 9 – 3; 3m > 6; and m > 2 =A 68. = B
69. Second term = (-1)2-2. 22-1 = 1.2 = 2
Third term = (-1)3-2. 23-1 = -4
Hence their sum is 2 + (-4) = -2 =A
70. a = 2, a + U6 = 614 = 2 + U6 and U6 = 612
U6 = a + (n – 1)d
612 = 2 + (6 – 1)d; 612 – 2 = 5d; and d = 610/5 = 122
The fourth term U4 = 2 +(4 – 1)122 = 368 Z Question is mixed up, but you can use this method
71. 1.21 – 1.12 x 100 = 7.44% = C 1.21
72. tan 21 = x ; x = 10tan 21 = 3.8 = B
73. 3a2 – 11a + 6 ; 3a2 – 9a – 2a + 6 = (3a – 2)(a – 3) =A
74. 3a – 10 = a2 ; a2 – 3a – 10
a(a + 2) - 5(a – 2)
a = 5 or a = -2 =D
75. r = 2, U5 – a = 45; ar4 – a = 45
a(24 – 1) = 45; hence 15a = 45 and a = 3
U5 = ar4 = 3(24) = 48 = D 76. A
77. log1025 + log1032 – log108 = log1025 x 32 = log10800
Log10100 = 2log1010 = 2 =B
78. x = -½ , x = 2
(x + ½ )(x – 2) = 0; x2 – 2x + x( ½ ) – 1 = 0
x2 – 3/2x – 1 = 0 Multiply through by
2x2 – 3x – 2 = 0 =E
– – 4.1.c = 0 square both sides
182 – 4c = 0; 324 – 4c = 0 hence 324 = 4c and c = 81 =E
80. m +1 = 3 + m
3 2 4 4 Multiplying through by 12 gives
4m + 6 = 3(3) + 3m

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 4m – 3m = 9 – 6
m=3=D

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 UNIVERSITY OFIBADAN2005/2006 POST Choosetheappropriateoptiontofill thegapin
UME(ADMISSIONSELECTION)TEST the followingsentences
ENGLISHLANGUAGE 7. The principal was able to establish a functional language
Insertthe word(s)thatbest fit(s) inwiththe laboratory for his school because he acted ____ the advice of
meaningofthesentence experts on the subject (A) through (B) at (C) from (D) on (E)
1. Legislators must be trained to _____ the truth A. by
disguise B. discern C. digest 8. The prefect came to the class five minutes after the lesson
D. disturb E. distort ____
2. As it holds true that, unless you trained your body you (A) has started (B) had started
cannot be an athlete, so also unless you train your ____ (C) have started (D) is started
you cannot be a ____ (E) has been started
(A) kicking footballer (B) voice-choirmaster (C) mind- 9. Grace must be allergic ___ smoke because any she sits by
scholar (D) courage-hero (E) arms swimmer 3. Never in someone who is smoking, she sneezes.
the history of human conflict has so much been owed by (A)to (B) from (C) for (D) with (E) by
so many to so few. Fill inthe rightword/phrase
(A) many people owed much money of the end of the war 10. He ____ the book to the library last week
(B) A handful of people saved the lives of a nation (C) A (A) has returned (B) had retuned (C) was returned (D)
few people did a lot of things gratis retuned (E) was to be returning
(D) This conflict caused the largest ransom ever 11. The police man was sent to _____ the allegation made
demanded by the man
(E) Very little was owed by anyone to anybody (A) Investing (B)examine (C) probe (D) enquire
Choosetheword phrasefrom A to Ewhichhas thesame (E)observe
meaningasthe underlinedwordor Whichoftheoptionsexpressthe sameideasas the
wordsin eachsentence oneinquotes
4. After the wife had covered her misdeeds by 12. To beat down the 'price' is to
prevaricating on several occasions the poor husband accused (A) flog the price (B) reduce the price
her point-blank of adultery (C) beat the salesman (D) attack the seller (E)
(A) bluntly (B) pointedly control the price
(C) emphatically (D) unreservedly Fill inthe blank spacesin thefollowing
(E) unmistakingly sentences making useofthe bestofthetwo
5. When a man is immune to an illness, he is options
(A) opposed to it (B) attached it 13. For their part in the successful ___ the mutineers were
(C) hasted by it (D) protected against it (E) addicted to it court-martialled.
6. In a civilized society, it is unseemly to emit a loud belch at (A) coopes (B) coupes (C) coupe
the end of a meal (D) coup (E) coupes
(A) noisy (B) annoying (C) stupid (D) outrageous (E)
impolite

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 14. The way to stop some frivolous publications is to ___ (C) nitrogen and oxygen
the press (D) nitrogen and the rare gases
(A) gag (B) shackle (C) fetter (E) nitrogen, carbondioxide and the rare gases.
(D) handcuff (E) blind 22. When large hydrocarbon molecules are heated at high
Choosetheoptionopposite inmeaningtothe temperature in the presence of a catalyst to give smaller
wordunderlined molecules, the process is known as
15. To most people last Christmas was an austere period (A) disintegration (B) polymerization (C) cracking (D)
(A) prosperous (B) harsh (C) severe (D) four (E) stern degradation (E) distillation
16. Chidi is naturally taciturn 23. When each of the nitrates of potassium,
(A) friendly (B) cheerful (C) dumb magnesium and iron is heated
(D) lively (E) garrulous (A) all the nitrates decompose to their oxides
Choosetheoptionnearest inmeaningtothe (B) the nitrate of magnesium gives the nitrite and oxygen
underlined (C) the nitrates of magnesium and iron give the oxides (D)
17. The salesman tried to pull the wool over my (A) force the nitrate of iron gives the nitrite and oxygen (E) the nitrate
me to buy his goods of the magnesium is not decomposed 24. Helium atoms are
(B) offer me cotton wool chemically unreactive because (A) there are no electrons
(C) make me buy his wool around the nucleus
(D) dupe me (B) the number of protons equals the number of
(E) cover my eyes with wool. electrons
18. The legislator has decided to play second fiddle after (C) there are equal number bf protons and neutrons in the
he had been walked out of the Assembly for violating nucleus
basic procedures of the House. This means that the (D) the outer electron shell is completely filled
Legislator has decided to (E) the atoms contain only protons
(A) oppose every motion in the House 25. How many grams of HBr would exactly be
(B) Support every motion in the House required to react with 2g of propyne? (C = 12, H = 1, Br= 80)
(C) condemn every motion
(D) support the lead given by others (A) 4.1g (B) 6.1g (C)8.1g (D) 10.lg (E) 16.2g
(E) Become active in the House 26. Under high pressure, real gases do not obey gas laws
19. Select the wrongly spelt word because their molecules
(A) disappointed (B) embarassed (C) equipped (D) (A) have become more energetic
rhythm (E) restaurant (B) have become less energetic
20. Select'' the wrongly spelt word (A) quite (B) believe (C) have become smaller in size
(C) proceed (D) precede (E) opportunity CHEMISTRY (D) decompose into atoms
21. When air which contains the gases: oxygen, nitrogen, (E) start repelling each other
carbon dioxide, water vapour and the rare gases, is passed 27. Which of the following statements is an
through alkaline pyrogallot and then over quicklime, the exception in the assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases?
only gases left are: (A) Gases are composed of many elastic particles
(A) nitrogen and carbondioxide
(B) the rare gases

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 (B) the particles are of negligible size (C) Z is the most acidic solution
(C) the particles are in constant random motion (D) W is the most acidic solution (E) X is neutral 34.
(D) the particles are of negligible mass Which of the following contains two amphoteric oxides?
(E) the particles collide with each other (A) Sodium oxide, Zinc Oxide, Magnesium oxide
28. 5.00g of hydrated salt of barium when heated to a (B) Aluminum oxide, calcium oxide, Zinc oxide
constant weight gave 4.26g of anhydrous salt with a (C) Potassium oxide, lithium oxide, Carbon dioxide (D) Silver
molecular weight of 208. The number of molecules of water oxide, Lead oxide, Sodium oxide
of crystallization in the hydrated salt is (E) Sulphur dioxide. Aluminum oxide, Carbon
(A) 10 (B)7 (C)5 (D)2 monoxide
29. Oxidation is the process of: 35. 50cm3 of hydrogen are sparked with 20cm3 of oxygen at
(A) gain of electrons 100°C and 1 atmosphere. The total volume of the residual gases
(B) loss of electrons is
(C) gain of hydrogen (A) 50cm3 (B) 10cm3 (C) 40cm3'
(D) loss of oxygen (D) 30cm3 (E) 70cm3
(E) addition of an electropositive element to a 36. When ammonium, potassium and Calcium
substance carbonates are each separately heated
30. Which of the following statement is NOT true of the (A) non of them will decompose
electrovalent compounds? (B) each of them will decompose to give carbondioxide and the
(A) They are solids respective oxide
(B) They do not vaporize easily (C) ammonium carbonate and potassium carbonate will not
(C) they usually dissolve in water decompose
(D) the elements orbiting the compounds normally have (D) only ammonium carbonate and calcium carbonate will
their valence electrons in a shared state decompose to carbon dioxide and the respective oxide
(E) they conduct electricity (E) ammonium carbonate will decompose to
31. If concentrated sulphuric acid is added to sugar and glycocarbon dioxide, water and ammonia
warmed gently, the sugar changes from white to brown and 37. 500cm3 oxygen was collected over water at 30°C and
"finally to a black mass of carbon. In this reaction, 752mmHg pressure. What is the volume of dry oxygen at STP?
concentrated sulphuric acid is acting as: (A) a dying agent (Vapour pressure of water at 30°C = 32mmHg)
(B) an oxidizing agent (A) 475cm3 (B) 415cm3 (C) 586cm3
(C) a dehydrating agent (D) a reducing agent (D) 500cm3 (E) 427cm3
(E) a hydrolyzing agent 38. Which of the following statements is true?
32. When heat is absorbed during a chemical (A) Metals conduct electricity while non-metals do not (B)
reaction, the reaction is said to be Metals have high density, non metals have low density
(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermic (C) isothermal (D)
endothermic (E) thermostatic
33. The pH of lour solutions W, X, Y, Z are 4,6,8,10,
respectively therefore
(A) none of these solutions is acidic
(B) the pH of Y is made more acidic by addition of distilled
water

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 (C)Metals form acid oxides, non-metals are below (A) 12/3 (B)2 (C)5 (D)6 (E)10
hydrogen 44. The ratio of the areas of similar triangles is
(E) Metals lose electrons while non metals gain electrons necessarily equal to
during normal reactions (A) The ratio of the corresponding sides
39. In the reaction of oxygen with hydrogen to produce (B) The ratio of the squares on corresponding sides (C) The
water, which of the following statements is true? ratio of the corresponding heights of the triangles
(A) One atom of hydrogen reacts with two atoms of oxygen (D) half the ratio corresponding heights of the
to give one molecule of water triangles
(B) Two atoms of hydrogen react with two atoms of oxygen (E) the ratio of the corresponding bases to the heights of the
to give two molecules of water triangles.
(C) One molecule of oxygen reacts with one 45. A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400. the
molecule of hydrogen to give two molecules of woman had 10% of the cost and the man 40% of the
water remainder. How much did they have
(D) One molecule of hydrogen reacts with two altogether? (A) N 216 (B) N200
molecules of oxygen to give three molecules of (C) 184 (D) N 144 (E) N100
water 46. The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows:
(E) One molecule of oxygen reacts with two 6,9,5,7,6,7,5,8,9,5,7,5,8,7,5,6,5,7,6,9,9,7,8,8,7,8,9,8, the mode
molecules of oxygen to give two molecules of water 40. The is (A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to: 47. What factor is common to all the expressions x2 –x, 2x2
(A) the atomic number + x -1 and x217
(B) the Avogadro number (A) x (B) x – 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No Common Factor (E) (2x – 1)
(C) the gas constant
(D) the number of neutrons 48. Simplify log 10 0 – log 10 4 (A) Log102 (B)
(E) the number of electrons Log108 (C) 0 (D)Log104 (E)1 log104-log102
MATHEMATICS 49. If f(x – 2) = 3x2 + 4x+ 1. find f(1) (A) 8 (B) 40 (c) 7 (d)
41. Simplify 25/12 – 17/8 x 6/5 (A) 1/6 (B) 13/20 (C) 11/20 32 (e) 21
(D) 9/4 (E) 3/5 50. Given that p:g = 1/3: 1/2 and q:r = 2/5: 4/7, find p:r (a)
42. Make c the subject of the equation: a(b + c) + (5/d) – 2 4:105 (B) 7:15 (C) 20:21 (D) 2:36
(A) ad – b + 2d (B) ab + 5 – 2d (C) 2d – 5 – ad (D) 2d – 5 – 51. If x is jointly proportional to the cube of y and the fourth
adb (E) None power of z. in what ratio is x increased or decreased when y is
43. On each market day Mrs. Bassey walks to the market halved and z is double?
from her home at a steady speed. This (A) 4:1 increase (b) 2:1 increase
journey normally takes her 2 hours to complete. She finds, (c) 1:4 decrease (d) 1:1 no change
however, that by increasing her usual speed by 1km/hr she (e) 3:4 decrease
can save 20 minutes. Find her usual speed in km/hr.

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 52. If x + 2 and x – 1 are factors of the expression Lx3 + (C) A=6.38, B=9 (D) A=6.38, B=-1
2kx2 +24, find the values of L and k. (E) A=6.38, B=1
(A) L = 6, k = -9 (b) L=- 2, k = 1 PHYSICS
(C) L = 2 k = -1 (D) L = 6, k = 1 61. Which of the following is true for the image
(E) L = 6, k = 0 formed by a convex mirror?
53. The value of (0.03)3 – (0.02)3 is I. The image is always virtual II. The image is always erect III.
(A) 0.019 (B) 0.0019 (C) 0.00019 The image is never magnified
(D) 0.000019 (E) 0.000035 IV. The image is never magnified V. the focal length is negative
54. PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as
diameter of the circle. If <PQS = 150 find <QRS A. I only B I and II only C. II and III only D I, II, III and IV
(A) 750 (b) 371/ 20 (c) 127 1/ 20 (D) 1050 (e) none of the only E All five
above 62. Which of the following statement is true? The
55. Which is the values of the variable x, (a)x = 3, (C)x = 9, reading of pressure on mercury diameter is
satisfy the inequalities 0 <x + 3< 2? X – 1 A. (a), (b), (c), B. independent of: (A) the cross sectional area of the
(b) c only C. (c) only D. none of (a), (b), (c) E. none of the tube
choices above (B) the atmospheric pressure of the tube
56. Write down the number 0.0052048 correct to (C) the density of mercury
three significant figures (D) the temperature of mercury
A. 0.005 B 0.00052 C. 0.00520 D. 5.2048 E. 5204 57. P and (E) the acceleration due to gravity
Q are fixed points and x is a variable point which moves so 63. In electrolysis experiment, a cathode of mass 5g is found to
that angle PXQ = 450 what is the locus of X? (A) A pair of weight 5.01g after a current of 5 A flows for 50sec. what is the
straight lines parallel to PQ (B) the perpendicular bisector of electrochemical equivalent of the deposited substance?
PQ (A) 0.00004g/C (B) 0.00002g/C
(C) an are of a circle passing through P and Q (C) 0.02500d/C (D) 0.05000g/C
(D) a circle with diameter PQ (E) 0.00001g/C
(E) the bisector of angle PXQ 64. A capacitor and a resistor are connected in
58. A sector of a circle is bounded by two radii 7cm long and series with each other and in negligible internal resistance.
are length 6cm. find the area of the sector. The potential difference across the
A. 42cm2 B.3cm2 C.21cm2 terminals of the capacitor is:
D. 24cm2 E 12cm2 (A) twice the e.m.f of the accumulator
59. The currency used in a country is <matimalik< (M) and (B) less than the E.M.F by the potential drop across the
is of the base seven. A lady in that country bought 4 bags of resistor
rice at M56 per bag and 3tins of milk at m4 per tin. What is (C) zero
the total cost of the items she bought? (D) the same as the e.m.f
A. M246 (7) B. M242 (7) (E) greater than the e.m.f
C. M236 (7) D. M336 (7)
60. If 0.0000152 x 0.00042 = A x 108, where 1< A <10,
find A and B
(A) A=9, B=6.38 (B) A=6.38, B = -9

18 | P a g e
 65. A weight of 1000 grams hangs from a lever 20cm to the 72. An object is placed 30cm from a concave mirror of
right of the fulcrum. At the left is 500 gram weight 20cm focal length 15cm. the linear magnification of the image
from the fulcrum, and a 200gram produce is:
weight x cm away from the fulcrum. What is the value of x (A) 0 (B) 2/3 (C)1 (D) 2 (E) 3
that will make the lever balanced? (A) 50cm (B) 20cm (C) 73. An electric cell has an internal resistance of 20hm. A
10cm (D) 30cm (E) 70cm current of 0.5A is found to flow when a resistor of 50hms
66. A magnetic needle is suspended first at earth‘s resistance is connected across it.
north magnetic pole and at a point on the magnetic equator, What is the electromotive force of the cell
the respective angles between the needle and the horizontal (A) 5volts (B) 3.5volts (C) 2.5volts (D) 1 volt (E) 10 volt
are: 74. A concave lens of focal length 20cm forms an image ½
(A) 00 and 00 (B) 600 and 600 (C) 900 and 900 (D) 900 the size of the object. The object distance is;
and 00 (E) 00 and 900 (A) 150cm (B) 100cm (C) 60cm
67. Which of the following Is NOT a vector quality? (D) 60cm (E) None of the above
(A) Force (B) altitude (C) weight 75. Which of the following electromagnetic waves length?
(D) displacement (E) acceleration (A) Radio wires (B) x –rays
68. A man of mass 50kg ascender a flight of stairs 5m high in (C) infra-red (D) blue light
5 seconds. If acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s2: (A) 100w (E) ultra violet
(B) 200w (C) 250w (D) 400w (E) 500w 76. Which of the following statements is correct? Silvered
69. A body rolls down a slope from a height of 100m. walls of a vacuum flask are used to prevent: (A) Heat loss
Its velocity at the foot of the slope is 20m/s. what due to conduction
percentage o it essential potential energy is (B) vacuum loss
converted into kinetic energy: (C) heat entry into the inner flask due to convection (D) heat
(A) 40% (B) 35% (C)20% (D)15% loss due to radiation
70. As a result of air at the top of a barometer the height of (E) heat loss due to t convection
the mercury column is 73.5cm when it should be 75.0cm 77. The point beyond which a stretch spring does not return
the volume of the space above the mercury is 8.0cm3. to its original length is called the:
Calculate the correct barometric height when the barometer (A) Breaking point (B) elastic limit
reads 74.cm and the volume of the space above the (C) spring constant (D) elasticity point
mercury is 6.0cm3. (E) release point
(A) 72.0cm (B) 74.5cm (C) 75.1cm 78. The range of wavelengths of visible spectrum is 400nm
(D) 76.0cm – 700nm the wavelength of gamma rays is: (A) Longer than
71. 22,000J of heat is required to raise the 700nm
temperature of 1.5kg of paraffin from 200C to 300c. (B) shorter than 700nm but longer than 400nm
Calculate the specific heat capacity of paraffin:
(A) 14666jkg-10C- 1 (B) 2933 jkg-10C- 1 (C) 40400 jkg-
10C- 1 (D) 5886jkg-10C – 1

19 | P a g e
 (C) 550nm 27. The particles collide with each other E
(D) shorter than 400nm 28. STV 29. B
(E) infinite 30 Din electrovalent compounds; valence
79. Which of the following arrangements in the electrons are transferred not shared
sequence show can be used to obtain a pure spectrum 31. =CConc. H2SO4 acid is able to remove
of white light? elements of H2 and oxygen in the form of water from the
(A) source, slit, converging lens, prism, converging lens, compound of sugar: C12h22O11 12C (- 11 H2O in the
screen, presence of H2SO4)
(B)source slit, diverging lens, prism, diverging lens, screen 32. D 33. D 34. B
35. By Gay-Lussac‘s law of combining volumes 2H2 +
(C) source, converging lens, prism, diverging lens, screen O2 2H2O
(D) source, slit, diverging lens, converging lens, screen 2:1:2
(E) source, slit, prism, diverging lens, screen 40 : 20 : 40
80. The mechanical advantage (MA) of an inclined plane Residual gas = 10cm3 of unreacted hydrogen + 40cm3 of
depends on: steam formed = 50cm3=A
(A) Its length (B) its height (C) the product of its length 36. Ammonia carbonate decomposes to liberate
and height (D) the ratio of its length to its height. ammonia, CO2 and H2O=E
SOLUTIONTOPOSTUME2005/2006 37. PG + PW = PT pressure of gas PG = 752 =
ENGLISH 720mmHg from the ideal gas equation we have that:
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. E P1V1=P2 V2thus 720 x500 = 760 x V2 V2 =
7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D 11 C 12 B 427cm3
13. D 14 A 15 A 16 E 17 D 18 D T1 T2 303 273
19. B 20 B 38. = E Metals ionize by electron loss, while non – metals
21. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide and the rare gases. E 22. ionize by electron gain
Cracking C 23. A 39. 2H2+ O2 2H2O = E 40 B
24. They satisfy the octet for stability of their 41. 25/12 – 17/8x 6/5 = 29 -15 x 6 = 29 – 9 = 1 = A
electric configuration 12 8 5 12 4 6
25. Molar mass of propyne (CH3CCH) = (12 + 3+ 12 + 12 42. a (b + c) + (5/b) – 2 multiply both sides by d then
+1)g = 40g simplify ad(b + c) + 5 – 2d = 0 =>adb + adc + 5 – 2d put
Mole = mass = 2 = 0.05mole molar – mass 40 the expression with c on the LHS. adc = 2d – 5 – adb thus
CH3CCH + HBrCH3CHCHBr c =2d -5 – adb ad
Required mass of HBr = mole * mass = 0.05 * (1+ 80)= = 1/3 hrs Time(T) 2
4.1g = A
26. If the gas is heated the molecules acquire more kinetic
energy, thereby increasing the pressure A

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 The time on second trip = 2 – 1 = 5hrs 3 3 71. MC.p(02 – 01) = 22000 Thus Cp= 22000 1.5(30 - 20)
5 + 5S = 6S and we find that S = 5 = C 1466.67JKg -10C– 1 = A
44. B the ratio of the squares on corresponding sides 45. 10% 72. m = v = 30 =2 = D f 15
of N400 = thus remainder is 400 – 40 = 360 40% of N360 E = 1 (R+ r) = 0.5(5+2) E = 3.5volts = B
N144 and the total = N184 = C 74. Using 1 = 1 + 1, 1 = 1 + 1 , 1 = 2 + 1 , 1 =3 fu v 20 ½ v
46. Mode is most occurring i.e. highest frequency = 7 = D v20 v v 20 v hence v =60cm = C
47. x2 – x = x(x – 1) 2x2 + x – 1 = (2x – 1)(x + 1) x2 – 1 = (x 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. D 79. STV 80. STV
+ 1)(x – 1) No common factor = D
48. Log 100 – log, 4 = log10 (0/4)= 0 = C
Log104 – log102 log10 (4/2)
49. Put f (x – 2) = f (1) then x – 2 – 1 gives x = 3
From 3x2 + 4 x +1= 3 (32) + 4 (3) + 1 = 27 + 12 +1 = 40 B
50. P:g – 1/3: ½ and q:r = 2/5: 4/7
R = q => 3p = 2p and q = 3p
1/3 ½ 2
P = r =>3/2p = 7r
2/5 4/7 2/5 4
15p = 7r = >p = 7 thus p:r = 7:15 = B 4 4 r 15
51. Mathematically X1 = ky3Z4 and X2 = K (y/2)3 (2Z)4
X2 = k x y3x 16 z4 = 2ky3z4
X2 = 2y3 z4 = 2 thus x2: x1= 2: 1 = B
X1 y3 z41
52. Lx3 + 2kx2 +24 when x + 2 is a factor then we can put x
– 2; L(-2)3 + 2k(-2)2 +24 =0thus – 8L + 8k +24 = divided
through by 8 to get k – L = -3. When x – 1 is a factor then we
can put x = 1 L(1)3 + 2k(2)2 + 24 = L + 2k = -24 solving the
two gives 3k = -27 and k = 9
Also from k – L = - 3; - 9 – L =3 thus L= -6
Hence k = -9 and L = -6 =A
53. D 54. A 55. C 56 57. C
58. Length of are
59. STV 60. STV 61. E 62 B
63 Mass of deposited substance (M) = M2 – M1 = (5.01 5)g
= 0.01g
From M = Z I T we say Z = M = 0.01= 0.01
0.00004g/C = A
IT 5x50 250
64. STV 65. A 66. D 67. B
68. Since answers are given in W, we assume that the
question requires us to find power whose units is W force (F)
= Ma = 50 x 10 -500N Work down (W) = Force Distance =
500x 5 =2500J
Power is the rate of doing work = W = 2500 = 500 = E t 5
69. K.E x 100 = 1/2MV2 x 100 = ½ x 20 x 100 P.E mgh 10x
100 70. STV

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 UNIVERSITY OFIBADAN2008/2009 POSTUME From thelistofwordschoosetheonethat best
SCREENING completes eachsentence from1to15
ANSWERALLQUESTIONS:SHADETHE
ANSWER
SHEETASAPPROPRIATEWITHHBPENCIL ONLY 13. I guessed it was going to rain— ? (A) did I (B) was it
1. You are driving - fast for my liking (C) wasn't it (D) didn't I
(A) too (B) very (C) pretty (D) fairly 14. Would you like the door — ?
2. You have given me one orange - many (A) close (B) closes (C) closed
(A) very (B) so (C) too (D) more (D) closing
3. The upholstery work doesn't go - the colour of the car 15. You shouldn't put off- the assignment
(A) after (B) by (C) with (D) for (A) to do (B) to have done (C) having done (D) to have
4. I became depressed - hearing the news (A) at (B) with (C) been
as (D) on Choose theword(s) that is/are nearly
5. He was punished for failing - his duty as a prefect of the composite inmeaningtothe underlinedword
school andwhichcorrectlyfill the blankin the
(A) on (B) about (C) with (D) in sentence.From 16 to20
6. Good discipline was instructed - the success 16. The able-bodied should take care of the --- (A) feeble
achieved by the college (B) weak-minded (C) suffering (D) soft- hearted
(A) for (B) to (C) in (D) with 17. The chairman ordered him either to withdraw or to –
7. It was quite dark in the room - we couldn't see (A) so (B) his allegations
because (C)through (D) yet (A) affirm (B) draw (C) express
8. He needed work so late - he (D) complete
(A) does (B) needs (C) did (D) need 18. He shows plenty of good-willto his neighbours, but
9. If I had known he would come, I - have gone to meet him they bear nothing except - towards him
(A) may (B) will (C) should (D) must (A) bad luck (B) malice (C) anger
10. He - thirty when I first met him (D) unhappiness
(A) must have been (B) will have 19. I supported you said but I - the way you said it (A)
(C) ought to be (D) must have to be argued about (B) objected to
11. Where is that brother of- now? (C) interfered with (D) investigated
(A) you (B) yours (C) our (D) your 20. Though many of us were poor quite a few were (A)
12. Someone told me where it was, but I can't arrogant (B) prodigal (C) affluent
remember – (D) Luxurious
(A) whom (B) it (C) who (D) didn't

22 | P a g e
 21. Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate during 31. The type of reproduction that leads to variant in animal
(A) cytolysis (B) cleavage (C) mitosis (D) meiosis 22. An and plant populations is
example of caryopsis is (A) budding (B) sexual (C) vegetative (D) asexual 32. An
(A) guava (B) maize grain (C) coconut (D) tomato 23. The insect with a mandibulate mouth part will obtain its food by
response of plants to external stimuli in a non-directional (A) biting and chewing
manner is known as (B) chewing and sucking (C) chewing
(A) tactic movement (B) phototropism (C) (D) sucking
geotropism (D) nastic movement 33. Spines and shells on animals are adaptations of (A)
24. The most important hormone that includes the ripening camouflage (B) chemical defence (C) physical defence (D)
of fruit is minicry
(A) ethylene (B) indole acetic acid (C) gibberallin (D) 34. The rods in the retina of the eye are examples of (A) cells
cytokinin (B) tissues (C) organs (D) systems
25. One example of fossil fuels is 35. A plant-like feature in Euglena is the
(A) limestone (B) coral (C) coal (D) firewood (A) pellicle (B) pigment spot (C) large spot (D) gullet 36.
26. The most effective method of dealing with non- The larval stage of mosquito is called (A) wriggler (B) grub
degradable pollutants is by (C) maggot (D) caterpillar
(A) dumping (B) recycling 37. A peculiar characteristic of mammals is that they (A)
(C) incineration (D) burying have teeth (B) are warm-blooded
27. Mycorrhiza is an association between fungi and (A) (C) have lungs (D) have sebaceous glands
protozoan (B) roots of highest plants (C) 38. The gall bladder of a mammal has a duct
bacteria (D) filamentous algae connected to the
28. A limiting factor in a plant population near a chemical (A) liver (B) duodenum
factory is likely to be (C) small intestine (D) pancrease
(A) light (B) humidity (C)wind (D)pH 39. Rodent gnaw in food with their
29. Soil fertility can best be conserved and renewed by the (A) molar teeth (B) strong jaws
activities of (C) flat-ridged teeth
(A) earthworms (B) man (C) rodents (D) microbes 30. The (D) chisel-like front teeth
pioneer organisms in ecological succession are usually the 40. An example of a radically symmetrical organism (A)
(A) mosses (B) ilohens (C) ferns planarian (B) hydra (C) tapeworm (D)
(D) algae roundworm

23 | P a g e
 41. Find the slope of the curve y = 2x2 + 5x - 3 at (1,4) (A) 4 54. If the mean of five consecutive integers is 30, find the
(B) (C) 7 (D) 9 largest of the numbers
42. Determine the maximum value of y = 3x - x (A) 0 (B) 2 (A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D)34
(C) 4 (D) 6 55. A bag contains 5 black, 4 white and x red marbles.
43. By how much will the mean of 30, 56, 31, 55, 43 and 44 If the probability of picking a red marble is 2/5 find the
less than the median value of x
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.17 (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 4 (D) 6.
44. The range of 4, 3, 11,9, 6, 15, 19, 23,27, 24, 21 and 61 is 56. For what values of n is n+1 C3 = 4(nC 3)? (A)6 (B) 5 (C) 4
(A) 16 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 24 (D) 3
45. The mean of the numbers 3, 6, 4, x and 7 is 5, Find the 57. Find the roots of x3 - 2x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
standard deviation (A) 1,2, -3 (B)-l,2, 3 (C)-l,2,-3 (D) 1,-2, 3
(A) V2 (B) V3 (C) 58. Find the value of k if the' expression kx3 +x2 - 5x – 2
46. Find the remainder when 3x3 + 5x2 - 1 Ix + 4 is divided leaves a remainder 2 when divided by 2x + 1
by x + 3. (A) 4 (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) -4 (A) 10 (B) 8 (C) -10 (D) -8
47. What are the integral values of x which satisfy the 59. If y = x2 - x –12 find the range of values of x for which y >
inequality -1<3 - 2x < 5? 0.
(A) 2, 1,0,-1 (B)-1,0, 1,2 (C)- 1,0,1 (D) 0,1,2. (A) x< -3 or x > 4 (B) x < -3 or x > 4
48. Find the derivative of (2 + 3x)(l - x) with respect to x. (C) -3 < x < 4 (D) -3 < x < 4
(A) 6x - 1 (B) 1 - 6x (C)6 (D) -3 60. How many terms of the series 3, -6, +12, -24 + ... are
49. Find the derivative of the function y = 2x2(2x - 1) at needed to make a total of 1 -28?
the point x = -1 (A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 9 (D) 8
(A) -6 (B) -4 (C) 16 (D) 18 61. The wavelength of the first overtone of a note in a closed
50. Find the mean deviation of 1, 2, 3 and 4 pipe of length 33cm is
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5 (A) 44cm (B) 33cm (C) 22cm (D) 17cm
51. Find the value of t if the standard deviation of (A) 1 62. None-luminous objects can be seen because they (A) are
(B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 polished (B) are near
52. In how many ways can 6 coloured chalks be arranged (C) reflect light (D) emit light
if are of the same colour? 63. The correct unit of energy density is
(A) 60 (B) 120 (C)240 (D) 360 (A) kg m-3s-2 (B) kg m-1s-2
53. A final examination requires that a student (C) kg m3s-2 (D) kg m2s-2
answers any 4 out of 6 questions. In how many ways can
this be done?
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 45

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 64. The motion of smoke particles from a chimney is typical (A) electrons (B) majority carriers
of (C) holes (D) minority carriers
(A) oscillatory motion (B) rotational motion (C) circular 74. In an a.c circuit that contains only a capacitor, the voltage
motion (D) random motion lags behind the current by
65. One of the properties of gamma rays is that they are (A) 90° (B) 180° (C)600 (D) 300
(A) negatively charged (B) massive 75. The ray which causes gas molecules to glow is known as
(C) neutral (D) positively charged (A) molecular ray (B) gamma ray
66. The process whereby the molecules of different (C) anode ray (D) cathode ray
substances moves randomly is called 76. The charge carriers in gases are
(A) surface tension (B) diffusion (A) ions only (B) electrons and holes
(C) capillarity (D) osmosis (C) electrons only (D) electrons and ions
67. The process whereby a liquid turns 77. Which of the following materials is a conductor?
spontaneously into vapour is called (A) plastic (B) sodium
(A) evaporation (B) regelation (C) boiling (D) (C) wax (D) glass
sublimation 78. The instrument used for securing a large number of
68. The velocity of sound in air will be doubled if its similar charges by induction is called
absolute temperature is (A) capacitor (B) electrophorous (C) electroscope (D)
(A) doubled (B) halved proof-plane.
(C) constant (D) quadrupled 79. The pitch of a sound note depends on
69. A thin converging lens has a power of 4.0 (A) timbre (B) harmonics (C) quality (D) frequency 80. In
diopters, determine its focal length which of the following material media would sound travel
(A) 0.25m (B) 0.03m (C) 5.00m (D) 2.50m fastest?
70. An electric device is rated 2000W, 250V. The correct (A) water (B) oil (C) metal (D) gas
fuse rating of the device is 81. The shape of the s-orbital is
(A)8A (B)9A (C)7A (D) 6A (A) spherical (B) elliptical (C) spiral (D) circular 82. A
71. Satellite communication network makes use of (A) carcinogenic substance is (A) Asbestos dust (B) saw dust (C)
infra-reds (B) sound wave (C) visible light (D) radio wave r nitrogen (II) oxide(D) carbon (II) oxide 83. In the electrolysis
72. If two inductors of inductances 3H and 6H are arranged of brine the anode is
in series, the total inductance is (A) platinum (B) copper (C) zinc (D) carbon
(A)18.0H (B)9.0H (C) 2.0H (D) 0.5H
73. The current in a reverse-biased junction is due to

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 84. Which of the following halides has the highest entropy 96. An element will readily form an electrovalent
value (A) HF (B) HC1 (C) HBr (D) HI 85. The allotrope of compound if its electron configuration is (A) 2, 8, 1 (B)
carbon used in the 2,8,4 (C) 2, 8, 8 (D) 2, 8, 5
decolourization of sugar is 97. The most suitable metal that can be used as a lightening
(A) graphite (B) soot (C) charcoal (D) lampblack 86. conductor is
Sulphur (IV) oxide bleaches by (A) silver (B) copper (C) iron
(A) reduction (B) oxidation (C) hydration (D) aluminum
(D) absorption 98. The most abundant element on the earth's crust is (A)
87. Aluminum hydroxide is used in the dyeing Nitrogen (B) hydrogen
industry as a (A) salt (B) dye (C) mordant (D) (C) oxygen (D) fluorine
dispersant 99. Metalloids are also referred to as
88. An isomer of C5H12 is (A) semi-metals (B) metals (C) colloids (D) non- metals
(A) Butane (B) 2-methybutane 100. The ores that can be concentrated by floatation are
(C) 2-methylpropanc (D) 2-ethylbutane (A) nitride ores (B) sulphide ores
89. Vulcanization involves the removal of (A) A monomer (C) oxide ores (D) chloride ores
(B) The single bond (C) The double bond (D) a polymer SOLUTIONSTOPOSTUME2008/2009
90. Phenolphthalein in acid solution is 1. C 8. C 15. A
(A) red (B) orange (C) colourless (D) yellow 2. B 9. A
91. When iron is exposed to moisture and it rusts, the value 3. C 10. A
of G for the reaction is 4. D 11. B
(A) neutral (B) zero (C) positive (D) negative 5. D 12. C
92. A substance that is used as a ripening agent for fruits is 6. A 13. D
(A) Ethene (B) propene (C) Methane 7. B 14. C
(D) Butane 16. Able-bodied: physical healthy, fit and strong in contract
93. The shape of the hydrocarbon compound CH4 is (A) to somebody who is weak or disable ANS feeble = A
square plannar (B) plannar (C) linear (D) 17. Withdraw: to move back or away from a place or
tetrahedral situation; to make somebody or something do this ANS
94. Sugar is separated from its impurities by affirm = A
(A) precipitation (B) crystallization 18. good-will: friendly or helpful feelings towards other
(C) distillation (D) evaporation people or countries ANS malice = B
95. The component of an atom that contributes least to its
mass is the
(A)proton (B) nucleus (C) neutron (D) electron

26 | P a g e
 19. Supported: to help or encourage somebody or something – x) = (1 – 2.5) + (2 – 2.5) + (3 – 2.5) + (4 – 2.5) = 10 N 4
by saying/showing that you agree with them/it ANS objected =A
to = B 51. x = 2t + 3t + 4t + 5t = 20t
20. Poor: you should know the proper definition of poverty if 5 5 = 4t
you are a Nigerian. Affluent: having a lot of money and a (x – x)2 = (2t – 4t)2 + (3t – 4t)2 + (4t – 4t)2+ (5t – 4t)2=
good standard of living = C 10t2 N 5 2
21. C 27. B 33. C 39. D 1 and t = 1 =A
22. B 28. D 34. A 40. B 52. Since 2 are of the same colour, we have: 2x6P2 = 2 x
23. D 29. A 35. B 6! = 2 x 6!= 60= A (6-1)! 4!
24. A 30. B 36. B 53. Selection entails combination thus; 6C4 = 15 ways
25. C 31. B 37. B =A
26. B 32. A 38. D 54. Let the first integer of the numbers be x:
41. From the equation of a straight line: y = mx + c where m X= x + (x + 1) + (x – 2) + (x – 3)+ (x - 4) = 5x + 10 5 5 =
is the slope 30
m = y2 – – 5x + 10 = 150; 5x = 140 and x = 28
when x = 1: dy = 4(1) + 5 = 9=D dx Hence largest of the numbers is = x + 4 = 28 + 4 = 32 = C
42. y = 3x2 – x3 and dy = 6x – 3x2 we that at Max.
value dy = 0 dx dx 55. n(Black) = 5, n(White) = 4, n(Red) = x; hence total =
6x – 3x3 = 0; x(6 – 3x) = 0 Hence either: x + 9 and P (red) = x
X = 0 or 6 – 3x = 0; x = 2 or 0 =B x+9. From the question we have that; P (red) = 2/5 thus
43. The Mean x o31 + 55 + 43 + 44 = N 6 = 43.17 The from above
median, after rearranging the data; 30, 31, 43, 44, 55, 56 x = 2/5. 5x = 2(x + 9) = 2x + 18
Median (n+1) =6 + 1 = 3 ½th position = 43 + 44 = 43.5 (2) 2 x+9. 5x – 2x = 18 and x 6 = D
2 56. n+1C3 = 4(nC3) = (n+1)!= 4 n!
Median – Mean = 43.5 – 43.17 = 0.33 =C
44. Range = 61 – 3 = 58
=5
20 + x = 25 and x = 25 – 20 = 5 NB x = 5
-x) = 3 – 5)2+ (6 – 5)2(4 – 5)2 + (x – 5)2 + (7 – 5)2 = 10
N55=2
=A
46. From the remainder theorem; we take from x + 3 and
factor out for when
x = -3. f(-3) = 3(-3)3 + 5(-3)2 – 11(-3) + 4 = 1. You can solve
this by LONG division but it is LONG OK?
Remainder
= 1 =B
47. -1 < 3 – 2x < 5 -1 < 3 - 2x 3 – 2x < 5
-1 – 3 < 2x -2x < 5 – 3
-4 < -2x -2x < 2
X < 2 x > -1
The integral values of x which satisfy the inequality can be
obtained from the range above. They are -1, 0, 1=C
48. y = (2 + 3x)(1 – x) = 2 – 2x + 3x – 3x2
y = 2 + x – 3x2 dy = 1 – 6x =B dx
49. y = 2x2 (2x – 1) = 4x3 – 2x2 and dy = 12x2 – 4 x 6 and
when x = -1
Dx dy = 12(-1)2 – 4(-1) = 12 + 4 = 16=C dx

27 | P a g e
 3!(n + 1 -3)!3!(n – 3)! 57. f(1) = 13 – 2(1)2 – 5(1) + 6 = 0, thus (x-1) is a (n+1)
(n)(n-1)(n-2)!= 4 n(n – 1)(n – 2)(n – 3) (n – 4)! factor ad by long division we get x2 – x – 6. 3!(n -2!) 3!
(n – 3(n – 4)! (x – 1)(x2 – x – 6) are factors thus we have n(n + 1)(n -
1) = 4 [n(n - 1)(n – 2)] (x – 1) (x – 3) (x + 2) = 0
n – 4n = -8 – 1 = -9. Hence n = 3 = D X = 1, -2, 3 = D
58. kx3 + x2 – 5x – 2
2x + 1 = 0 thus x = - ½
F(-½) = k(- ½ )3 + (-½)2 – 5(-½) – 2 = 2 =>-k + 1 + 5 – 2
–2
8 4 2 simplifying further we have -k = 16 – 2 – 20 + 16
- k = 32 – 22 = 10
K = -10 =C
59. To find the range of x for which y > 0:i.e. x2 – x – 12 = 0
(x + 3) (x - 1) = 0 thus x = 3 or -4 we can plot the inequality graph for this to obtain x < 3 and x > 4 =B 60. Sum of the series
= 1 – 28 = -255
r = -6/3 = -2, a = 3
sum = a(1 = r)n = 3(1 – (-2))n = -255
1=r1+2
-256 = 1 – (-2n) : and 256 = (-2n)
(-28) = (-2)n hence n = 8 =D
3 l = 132 hence l = 44cm =A
62. C 65. C 68. A
63. D 66. B
64. D 67. A
69. The power of the lens is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length and is measured in dioptres when f is in meters.
P = 1/f => f = 1/P = 0.25m =A
70. P = IV and l = P/V 2000/250 = 8A =A 71. D
72. Since it all acts as resistance; resistance in series R = R1 + R2
Hence inductance = 3H + 6H = 9H =B
73. Reverse-biased junction (.i.e P-semiconductors) have more holes than electrons but the holes are the majority carriers of
current=C
74. Vc lags Ic by 900=A
75. D 78. B
76. D 79. D
77. B 80. D
81. The s-orbital electrons move about to produce the effect of a spherical cloud round the nucleus. Thus s-orbitals are spherically
symmetrical
82. A 88. B 94. B 100. D
83. A 89. C 95. D
84. D 90. C 96. A
85. C 91. D 97. D
86. A 92. A 98. A
87. C 93. D 99. A

28 | P a g e
 UNIVERSITY OFIBADAN2010/2011 POST-UTMESCREENING
Answerall questions:shadethe answersheet as appropriatewithHB pencilonly
1. Shadows and eclipses result from the frequency 480Hz. Neglecting end effect, the velocity (A).
refraction of light of sound air is
(B).rectilinear propagation of light (A). 96ms‘ (B).255ms‘ (C).340ms‘
(C). diffraction of light (D).reflection of light (D). 384ms‘
2. An object which is 3cm high is placed vertically 8. A some wire of‘ length I 00cm under a tension of‘ 10cm in
front of a concave mirror. If this object ION, has a frequency of 250Hz. Keeping the length of
produces an image 40cm from the mirror, the ‘the wire constant, the tension is adjusted to produce height of
the image is a new frequency of 35011,. The next tension is (A). 0.75cm
(B).4.00cm (C).8.00cm (D).12.00cm . (A) 5.1 N (B). 7. N (C). 14.ON
3. A boy looks at the image of an object in a plane (D). I 9.6N
mirror. He observes two images, a main bright one 9. One of the properties of the earth‘s magnetic field and the
other faint. The observe image result from is that the
(A). reflection only (B). refraction only (A). north pole lies in the northern hemisphere (C). diffraction
and interference (B). geographic and magnetic meridians coincide (D).
reflection and refraction (C). earth‘s magnetic flux entirely horizontal 4. What must be
the distance between an object and (D). earth‘s magnetic flux is entirely vertical at a a converging
lens of focal length 20cm to produce place where the magnetic dip is zero
an erect image two times the object height? 10. There cells each of e.m.f 1.5V and an internal the (A)
2Ocm (B) 15cm (C) 10cm (D) 5cm load
5. For a short sighted person, light rays from a point (A)0.26A (B)0.4lA (C)0.50A (D)0.79A
on a very distant object is focused. 11. A government spokesman announced that efforts (A) in
front of the retina (B) on the retina by a ________release of the hostages are continuing converging
lens (A). to obtain (B). obtaining (C).for obtaining (D). of (C)
behind the retina by a diverging lens (D) in front obtaining
of the retina at a distance of 2F from the lens 12. l know you think I‘m talking nonsense, Shehu, but 6.
When light is incident on an object which is _____ you realize that I was right
magenta in colour, which of the following colours (A). at one time (B). on time (C). in time (D). at time would be
absorbed? 13. The Inspector of Education who made several (A). red and
blue (B).green only (C). red and green trips on the bad road returned yesterday completely (D). red
only _______ by fever brought down (B).putdown (C).worn 7. In a
resonance tube experiment, the effective down (D).worn off
length of‘ the air column for the first resonance is
20cm when set into vibration by a tuning fork of

29 | P a g e
 14. The vice principal asked the students to always 24. The difference between the length and width of a
_______ this answers only from the textbooks rectangle6cm and the area is 135cm1. What is the length‘?
recommended for the course. (A). look out (B). (A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24crn (E) 27cm
search out 25. The first term of an Arithmetic Progression is 3 and the
(C). look up (D). bring up fifth term is 9. Find the number of terms in the progression if
15 I know that your friend will not accept the the sum is 8. (A) 12 (B) 27 (C) 9 (D) 4 (E) 36
proposal, ________ 26. The difference between 4‘/ greater than the sum of and
(A). and you neither (B) and neither you (C).neither do you (A) 2328 (B).24/28 (C).5056 (D).27/28 (E). 48/56 27.
(D) neither will you Multiplyx2+x+lbyx2-x+l.
16. Mark is a very handsome fellow who informs me that he A. x1+3+2x+l B. x2x2+x+l C. x2+4x2-6x+1 D. x4-6x2- 4x+1
has I pretty girls E. X4-x-x3-x21+I
(A). a heart (B). a lip (C). an eye 28. A baking recipe calls for 2.5kg of sugar and 4.5kg flour.
(D).a check With this recipe some cakes were baked using 24.5kg of a
17. Wale Agun, in creating his characters, draws freely mixture of sugar and flour. How much
_______experience in life sugar was used?
(A) by (B) in (C) on (D) of (A) 12.25g (B) 6.5kg (C) 8.75kg
18. When I have an appointment with someone, I hate (D) 15.75kg (E) 8.25kg
waiting 29. The sum of the root of a quadratic equation is
(A). to be keeping (B). for (C). being kept (D). in being kept 5/2 and the product of its roots is 4. The quadratic equation is
19. It‘s no good about the result until you have sat form (A). 2x2 + 5x +8 = 0 (B).2x2 - 5x + 8 = 0 (C), 2x2 - 8x + 5 =
examination 0
(A). to worry (B). for worrying (C). worrying (D) to have (D).2x2 + 8x -5 = 0 (F). 2x2 - 5x +8 0=> 2x2 - 5x -8 0 30.
worried Solve the given equation (log1 x)1 - 6log, x + 9 = 0
20. If you don‘t want to your car to robbers, then don‘t (A). 27 (B). 9 (C). L (D). 18 (F). 81
travel in the night. 31. In which order are the following salts sensitive to light?
(A). loose (B). loss (C). lose (D). lost (A). AgI>AgCI>AgBr (B).AgCI>AgI>AgBr
21. The number 25 when converted from the tens and (C).AgBr>AgCI>Agl (D).AgCI>AgBr>Agl 32.
units base the binary base (base two) is one of the The pOH of a solution of0.25 mol dm-3 of
following. (A) 10011 (B)111011 (C).111000 (D)11001 hydrochloric acid is
(E).110011 (A). 12.40 (B). 13.40 (C). 14.40 (D). 14.60
22. Evaluate (6.3 x l0‘)/(8 I x l0) to 3 significant figures
(A) 71J(B). 778.8 (C). 7.870 (D).8.770 (E).
88.70
23. The positive root of t in the following equation, 4t +
7tl:correct to 4 places of decimal, is
(A). 1.0622 (B)1O.6225 (C)0.1328
(D). 0.3218 (E). 2.0132

30 | P a g e
 33. MnO-4 + 8H + Y —* Mn1(q + 4H,O() Y in the equation flowering plant? (A). epidermis (B).pericycle (C).
represents xylem (D). cambiurn
(A). 2e- (B). 3e- (C). Se- (D). 7e- 42. The manufacture of carbohydrates by plants takes
34. Given that M is the mass of substance deposited in an place only in
electrolysis and Q the quantity of electricity (A). the leaves (B). the green sterns (C).
consumed, then Faraday‘s law can be written as chlorophyllous parts (D). flower plants
(A). ZIQ (B). Q/Z (C). Z/2Q (D) M = QZ 43. A water culture experiment, a plant showed poor growth
35. 0.46g of ethanol when burned raised the and yellowing of the leaves. These maybe due to deficiency
temperature of 50g of water by 14.3k. Calculate the heat of of (A).copper (B). iron (C).
combustion of ethanol. (0= 16, H = 1, Specific heat capacity of magnesium (D). calcium
water=‘4.2Jg ‗K) 44. In million‘s test, when the reagent is added to a protein
(A). +33000 KJ mol‘ (B).+300 KJ mof‘ (C).-3000KJmol (D). - fool item. a white precipitate is produced which turns (A).
3000KJmoI‘= 12, blue on heating (B). yellow on
36. Powered marble reacts faster with hydrochloric acid solution heating (C). green on heating (D). red on heat
than the granular form because the 45. Regulation of blood sugar level takes place in the (A).
powered form has pancreases (B). ileum (C). liver (D). kidney 46. Unicellular
(A). More molecules (B).more atom organism transport essential
(C). larger surface area (D). Relatively large mass nutrients directly to all parts of their bodies by the process of
37. For a reaction in equilibrium, the species diffusion because they have
involved in the equilibrium constant expression are (A). gaseous (A). a large volume to surface area ratio
and solid species (B). a large surface area to volume ratio
(B). liquid and sod species (C).their bodies immersed in the nutrients
(C). solid and dissolved species (D).their outer membrane made of cellulose
(D). gaseous and dissolved species 47. The heart of the adult frog consists of
38. A phenomenon where an element exists (A). two auricles and two ventricles
indifferent forms in the same physical state is known as (B). one auricle and one ventricle
(A).isomerism (B). amorphism (C). allotropy (D). (C). two ventricles and one auricle
isotropy (D). one ventricle and two auricles
39. The substance often used for vulcanization of rubber is 48. In adult mammalian blood, the cell which lack nuclei are
(A). chlorine (B). hydrogen peroxide the
(C). Sulphur (D). tetraoxosulphate(Vl) acid (A). erythrocytes (B). lymphocytes (C).leucocytes (D).
40. A gas that is not associated with global warming is phagocytes
(A)C0, (B)SO, (C)CH4 (D)H, 49. Which of the following movements occur during
41. Which of the following structures is capable of exhalations?
producing more tissues in the stem of a herbaceous

31 | P a g e
 (A). the diaphragm and intercostals muscles relax
(B). the thoracic cavity increases in volume
(C). the diaphragm and intercostals muscles contrast
(D). the diaphragm contrasts and the intercostals muscles relax
50. In which of the following groups of animals is the Malphigian tubule found?
(A). lizards, snakes and frogs
(B).crickets, houseflies and grasshoppers
(C). millipedes, centipedes and scorpions
(D). earthworms, roundworms and flatworms
ANSWERS:
1B 2D 3D 4 5A 68 7D 8C 9C I0D 11A 12C 13C 14C 15D16A 17C 18C 19C 20C 2W 22A 23 24C 25C 26B 27B 28C29B
30A 31A 328 33D 34D 35C 36C 37D 38D 39C 40 4lA42C 43C 44D 45A 46B 47D 48C 49A 50B

32 | P a g e
 UNIVERSITY OFIBADAN2009/2010 POST–UMESCREENING
Answerall questions:shadethe answersheet as appropriatewithHB pencilonly.
1. Which of the following is not an example of a (A) 32m (B) 24m (C) 16m
force? (A) tension (B) weight (C) friction (D) mass (D) 12m (E) 8m
(E) thrust. 9. If the temperature of water is gradually increased 2. A
body moves along a circular path with uniform form 00 to 40C, the density of the water within this angular
speed of 0.6 rads-1 and at a constant speed range (A) increases for a while and then decreases of 3.oms-
1. Calculate the acceleration of the body (B) decreases for a while and then increases towards the
centre of the circle (C) increases gradually (D) decreases gradually (A) 25.0ms-
1 (B) 5.4ms-1 (C) 5.0ms-1 (D) 1.8ms-1 (E) remains the same
(E) 0.2ms-1 10. The expansion of solid can be considered a 3. Which of
the following is a derived unit? (A) disadvantage in the
Ampere (B) Kilogramme (C) second (D) Ohm (E) (A) fire alarm system
Kelvin (B) thermostat
4. A boy timed 20 oscillations of a certain pendulum (C) riveting of steel plates
three times and obtained 44.3s, 45.5s and 45.7s (D) balance wheel of a watch
respectively. Calculate the mean period of (E) flitting of wheels on rims
oscillation of the pendulum 11. A solid metal cube of side 10cm is heated from (A) 0.13s
(B) 2.22s (C) 2.26s 100C to 600C. if the linear expansivity of the metal is (D)
44.30s (E) 45.17s. 1.2x10-5K-1, calculate the increase in its volume 5. A
particular starts from reset and moves with a (A) 0.6cm3 (B) 1.2cm3 (C)1.8cm3
constant accelerations of 0.5ms-2. Calculate the (D) 3.6cm3 (E) 6.0cm3
time taken by the particle to cover a distance of 12. A gas has a volume of 546cm3 at 00C. What is 25m
the volume of the gas at-1000C if its pressure (A) 2.5s (B)
7.1s (C) 10.0s remains constant?
(D) 50.0s (E) 100.0s (A) 346cm3 (B) 446cm3 (C) 546cm3
6. A block of material of volume 2x0-5m3 is (D) 646cm3 (E) 746cm3
suspended from a spring balance with half the 13. An image which cannot be formed on a screen is
volume of the block immersed in water. What is the said to be
reading of the spring balance? (Density of water = (A) inverted (B) real (C) virtual (D)erect (E) blurred
1.0x103kg3, g=10ms-2) 14. Longitudinal waves cannot be
(A)0.10N (B)0.25N (C) 0.30N (A) diffracted (B) refracted
(D) 0.40N (E) 0.50N (C) polarized (D)reflected
7. An object is projected with a velocity of 100ms- (E) superposed
vertical. If the total time of flight of the projectile -1)
(A) 00 (B) 300 (C) 450 (D) 600 (E) 900
8. How far will a body move in 4 seconds if
uniformly accelerated from rest at the rate of 2ms-
27

33 | P a g e
 15. The images formed by a diverging lens are 21. Simplify 125-1/3 x 49-1/2 x 100 (A) 350 (B) 35 (C)
always 1/35 (D) 1/350 (E) 0
(A) diminished, virtual and inverted 22. If 32x = 27, what is x?
(B) diminished, inverted and real (A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 4.5 (D)18 (E) 40.5
(C) diminished, virtual and erect 23. Express 0.00562 in standard form
(D) magnified, virtual and erect (A) 5.62x10-3 (B) 5.62x10-2
(E) magnified, real and inverted. (C)5.62x10-2x (D)5.62x102 (E) 5.62x103
16. In the normal use of a simple microscope, a person sees 24. Given that 1/3 log10P=1, find the value of P, (A)
an 1/10 (B) 3 (C) 10 (D) 100
(A) inverted, virtual and magnified image (E) 1000
(B) erect, virtual and magnified image (A) 1/3 (B) ½
(C) erect, real and magnified image correct to three significant figures?
(D) inverted, real and magnified image (A) 1.18 (B) 1.3 (C) 9.03
(E) inverted and real image the same size as the object (D) 9.44 (E) 9.46
17. A lens of focal length 15.0cm forms an upright image 27. While doing his Physics practical, Idowu
four times the size of an object, calculate the distance of the recorded as 1.12cn instead of 1.21cm calculate his
image form the lens percentage error
(A) 11.ccm (B) 18.8cm (C) 37.5cm (A) 1.17% (B) 6.38% (C) 7.44%
(D) 45.0cm (E) 75.0cm (D) 8.05% (E) 9.00%
18. An object is placed between two mirrors which are 28. Find the 4th term of an A.P whose first term is 2 and the
inclined at an angle of 1200 and facing each other. common difference is 0.5
Determine the number of images observed in two mirrors (A) 0.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 3.5 (D) 4 (E) 4.5
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 29. An arc of length 22cm subtends an angle of 0 at the centre of
19. In a ripple tank experiment, a vibrating plate is used to the circle. What is the value of (A) 700 (B) 840 (C)960 (D)
generate ripples in the water, if the distance between two 1560 (E) 1680
successive troughs in 3.,5cm and the wave travels a 30. Find the sum of the first five terms of the GP
distance of 31.5cm in 1.5s, calculate the frequency of the 2,6,18,
vibrator (A) 3.0Hz (B) 6.0Hz (C) 12.0Hz (D) 27.0Hz (E) (A) 484 (B) 243 (C) 242 (D) 13 (E) 121
73.5Hz 31. Let J be the set of positive integers. If H =
20. Which of the following have the longest (A) H{1} (B) H is an infinite set (C) H {0,1,2} (D) H={} (E)
wavelengths? J<H
(A) infra-red rays (B) gamma rays
(C) x-rays (D) ultra-violet rays (E) radio waves

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 32. In a class of 80 students, every student has to study (A) contains the genetic material
Economics or Geography, or both Economics and (B) contains the nuclear sap
Geography if 65 students studied Economics and 50 (C) is bounded by the nuclear membrane
studied Geography, how many studied both subjects? (D) is located at eth centre of the cell
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 45 (E) 50 42. The prokaryotic cell type is characterized by (A)
33. Factorize x2 + 4x – 192 complex cytoplasm in which different regions are poorly
(A) (x-4)(x+48) (B) (x+48)(x+4) (C) (x-12)(x-16) (D) (x-12) defined
(x-16) (E) (x+12) (x+16) (B) localization of different regions of the cell into tissue
34. Factorize 2e2 – 3e + 1 (C) collection of organelles and macromolecular complexes
(A) (2e-1)(e-1) (B) e+1)(2e+1) (C) (2e+3)((3-2) (D) (2e-3) (D) simple cytoplasm with well defined regions 43. The
(e-1) (E)(e2-3)(2e-1) natural tendency of organisms as they
35. Solve the equation 7y2 =3y evolve is to
(A) y=3 or 7 (B) y=0 or 7 (C) y=0 or 3/7 (D) y=0 or 9 (E) (A) decrease in size (B) increase in number (C)
y=0 or 10 develop specialized structures
36. Solve the equation 2a2–3a–27=0 (A) 3/2, 9 (B) - 2/3 ,9 (D) feed indiscriminately
(C) 3, -9/2 (E) -3, 9/2 44. In snails, the hard calcareous shells are secreted by the
37. A sector of a circle of radius 7cm has an area of 44cm2, (A) radula (B) tenidium (
calculate the angle of the sector, correct to the nearest degree. C) pneumostome (D) mantle
(A) 60 (B) 260 (C) 520 (D) 1030 (E) 2060 45. The ability of the cockroach to live in cracks and
38. If the shadow of a pole 7m high is ½ its length, what is crevices is enhanced by the possession of
the angle of elevation of the sun, correct to the nearest (A) wings and segmented body
degree? (A) 900 (B) 630 (C) 600 (D) 260 (E) 00 (B) compound eyes
39. From the top of a building 10m high, the angle of (C) claws on the legs
depression of a stone lying on the horizontal ground is 690. (D) dorso-ventrally flatted body
Calculate, correct to 1 decimal place the distance of the 46. The caste of termite that lacks pigmentation is the (A)
stone from the foot of the building king (B) worker (C) soldier (D) queen
(A) 3.6m (B) 3.8m (C) 6.0m 47. The structures that prevent food particles from escaping
(D) 9.3m (E) 26.1m through the fish gills are called gill (A) arches (B) filaments
40. The bearing of a point x from Y is 0740. What is the (C) rakers (D) lamellae
bearing of Y from X? 48. A distinguishing feature of mammals is the
(A) 1060 (B) 1480 (C) 1640 possession of
(D) 2540 (E) 2860 (A) skin (B) scale (C) nail (D) hair
41. The nucleus is considered the central of a cell
because it

35 | P a g e
 49. Which of the following structures is capable of (D) the diaphragm contrasts and the intercostals
producing more tissues in the stem of a herbaceous muscles relax.
flowering plant? 58. In which of the following groups of animals is the
(A) epidermis (B) pericycle (C) xylem (D) cambium 50. The malphigian tubule found?
manufacture of carbohydrates by plants (A) lizards, snakes and frogs
takes place only in (B) crickets, house files and grasshoppers (C)
(A) the leaves (B) the green stems (C)chlorophyllous parts millipedes, centipedes and scorpions
(D) flowering plants (D) earthworms, roundworms and flatworms.
51. In a water culture experiment, a plant showed poor 59. Which of the following is not a function of the
growth and yellowing of the leaves. These may be due to mammalian skeleton?
deficiency of (A) protection (B) respiration (C) transportation (D)
(A) copper (B) iron (C) magnesium (D) calcium 52. In support
millions test, when the reagent is added to a protein food 60. The most reliable estimate of growth is by
item, a white precipitate is produced which turns measuring changes in
(A) blue on heating (B) yellow on heating (A) length (B) volume (C) surface area (D) dry weight
(C) green on heating (D) red on heating 61. Which of the following is a physical change?
53. Regulation of sugar level takes places in the (A) pancreas (A) the bubbling of chlorine
(B) Ileum (C) liver (D) kidney (B) the bubbling of chlorine into a jar containing
54. Unicellular organisms transport essential hydrogen
nutrients direct to all parts of their bodies by the (C) the dissolution of sodium chloride in water (D) the
process of diffusion because they have passing of steam over heated iron
(A) a large volume to surface area ratio 62. In the reaction SnO2 + 2C Sn2CO, the mass of coke
(B) a large surface area to volume ratio containing 80% carbon required to reduce 0.302kg of
(C) their bodies immersed in the nutrients pure tin oxide is
(D) their outer membrane made of cellulose auricles 55. The (A) 40kg (B) 0.20kg (C) 0.06kg
heart of the adult frog consists of (D) 0.0kg (Sn = 119, O=16 C=12)
(A) two auricles and two ventricles 63. The Avogadro number of 24g of magnesium is the
(B) one auricle and one ventricle same as that of
(C) two ventricles and one auricle (A) 1g of hydrogen molecules
(D) one ventricle and two auricles (B) 16g of oxygen molecules
56. In adult mammalian blood, the cells which lack nuclei (C) 12g of carbon molecules
are the (D) 35.5g of chlorine molecules.
(A) erythrocytes (B) lymphocytes 64. If gas occupies a container of volume 146cm3 at 180C
(C) Leucocytes (D) phagocytes and 0.971atm, its volume in cm3 at STP is (A)133 (B) (C)
57. Which of the following movements occurs during 266 (D) 292
exhalation?
(A) the diaphragm and intercostals muscles relax (B) the
thoracic cavity increases in volume
(C) the diaphragm and intercostals muscles contract

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 65. The volume occupied by 1.58g of a gas at STP is (A) 50.2 (B) 47.0 (C) 4.70 (D) 0.47 (Pb =207, S = 32 GMV
500cm3. what is the relative molecular mass of the gas? at STP = 22.4dm3)
(A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 44 (D) 71 (GMV at STP = 72. A blue solid, T, which weighed 5.0g was placed on a
22.40dm3) table. After 8 hours, the resulting pink solid was found to
66. Equal volume of CO2, SO2, NO2 and H2S were weigh 5.5g it can be inferred that substrate T.
released into a room at the same point and time. (A) is deliquescent (B) is hydroscopic
Which of the following gives the order of diffusion of the (C) has some molecule of water of crystallization (D) is
gases to the opposite comer of the room? efflorescent.
(A) CO, SO2, NO2, H2S 73. The effluent of an industrial plant used plant used in the
(B) SO2, NO2 SO2, H2S, CO electrolysis of concentrated brine, with a flowing mercury
(C) CO, H2S, SO2 NO2 cathode may contain impurities like
(D) CO, H2S, NO2 SO2 (S=32, C=12; O=16, N=14, H=1) (A) oxygen (B) hydrogen
67. A basic postulate of the kinetic theory of gases is that the (C) mercury(II) chlorine
molecules of a gas move in straight lines between collisions. (D) hydrogen chloride
This implies that 74. The solubility in moles per dm3 of 20g of CuSO4
(A) collisions are perfectly elastic dissolved in 100g of water at 1800C is
(B) forces of repulsion exist (A) 0.13 (B) 0.25 (C) 1.25
(C) forces of repulsion and attraction are in (D) 2.00 (Cu = 63.5; S = 32, O = 16)
equilibrium 75. Smoke consists of
(D) collisions are inelastic. (A) solid particle dispersed in liquid
68. Which of the following terms indicates the number (B) solid particles dispersed in gas
of bonds that can be formed by an atom? (C) gas or liquid particles dispersed in liquid
(A) oxidation number (B) valence (C) atomic (D) liquid particles dispersed in liquid
number (D) electronegativity 76. Na2C2O4 + CACl2CACO2O4NaCl. Given a solution
69. X(g)X(g): The type of energy involved in the above of 1.9g of sodium oxalate in 50g of water at room
transformation is temperature, calculate the minimum volume of 0.1 M
(A) ionization energy (B) Sublimation energy (C) calcium chloride required to produce
lattice energy (D) electron affinity maximum calcium oxalate using the above equation (A)1.40
70. Chlorine, consisting of two isotopes of mass x 102dm3 (B) 1.40x10-2dm3
number 35 and 37, has an atomic mass of 35.5. The relative (C) 1.40x10-2dm3 (D) 1.40x10-2dm3
abundance of the isotopes of the isotopes of mass number 37 is 77. 2.0g of a monobasic acid was made up to
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75 250cm3 with distilled water 25.00cm3 of this
71. 10.0dm3 of air containing H2S as an impurity solution required 20.00cm3 of 1.0M NaOH solution for
was passed through a solution of Pb(NO3) until all the H2S complete neutralization. The molar mass of the acid is
had reacted. The precipitate of PbS was (A) 200g (B) 150g (C) 100g (D)50g
found to weigh 5.02g. according to the equation,
Pb(NO3)2 + H2S PbS +
2HNO3 the percentage by volume of hydrogen
sulphide

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 78. What is the concentration of H+ ions in moles per Fromthe wordslettered A to E,choosethe word that
dm3 of a solution of pH 4.398? bestcompleteeachofthe following
(A) 4.0x10-5 (B) 0.4x10-5 (C) 4.0x10-3 sentences
(D) 0.40x10-3 86. The fishermen threw a stone into the river and this
79. What volume of 11.0M hydrochloric acid must be caused a _________
diluted to obtain 1dm3 of 0.05M acid? (A) sprinkle (B) sparkle (C) splash
(A) 4.5cm3 (B) 5.65cm3 (C) 6.76cm3 (D) spring (E) storm
(D) 7.78cm3 87. The play was so interesting that the ____ clapped for
80. If 10.8g of silver is deposited in a silver quite a long time at the end.
coulometer connected in series with a copper (A) spectators (B) watchers (C) congregation (D) people
coulometer, the volume of oxygen liberated is (E) audience
(A) 0.56cm3 (B) 5.60dm3 (C) 11.20dm3 (D) 88. The building ____ because of weak structural foundation
22.40dm3 (Ag = 108; Cu = 64; GMV at STP =
22.40dm3) (A) tumbled (B) succumbed
Instruction:Choosethewordopposite in (C) somersaulted (D) collapsed
meaningtothe underlinedword (E) caved
81. The young engineer is good at terminating other 89. The magazine was ____ by the government for an
people‘s products but has not been capable of ___ offensive publication.
any of his own. (A) integrating (B) finishing (C) (A) prescribed (B) proscribed (C) suspended (D)
completing condemned (E) persecuted
(D) initiating (E) organizing 90. Many people reacted to the brutal murder of the
82. The manager who expected to be given respect was popular journalist with strong ____
treated with ______ (A) indignation (B) demonstration (C) mobilization (D)
(A) dignity (B) scorn (C) shame condemnation (E) accusation
(D) cruelty (E) disloyalty Fromthe wordsofgroupsofwordslettered A to
83. Those who had invitation cards were admitted to the Ebeloweachofthefollowingsentences, choose
party while those who had none were _____ (A) barred thewordorgroup ofwordsthatisnearestin meaning
(B) repelled (C) expelled (D) compelled (E) restricted totheunderlined wordorgroupof
84. Nobody expects him to show _____ for his children wordsasused inthe sentence
but he certainly bestows too much 91. It takes a great deal of stamina to run the
affection on them. marathon race.
(A) love (B) concern (C) intimacy (D) devotion (E) hatred (A) courage (B) determine (C) energy (D)
85. The challenger was crude and inexperienced in contrast intelligence (E) cleverness
to the champion who was ____ 92. But for the principal actor the play would have been
(A) great (B) exposed (C) celebrated (D) refined (E) dull.
strong1

38 | P a g e
 (A) important (B) head (C) master (D) famous (E) main 93. An 1. A FORCE is an agent that changes or tends to
open car has no protection against the elements (A) weather change the state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line
(B) emergency of a body but MASS is the quantity of matter or stuff
(C) molecule (D) atoms (E) atmosphere contained in a body =D
94. He was reluctant to grant my request. 2. V = wr = 0.6 x 3 = 1.8m/s =D3.=B
(A) disposed (B) delighted 4. 44.3 + 45.5 + 45.7 = 45.17 and 45.17 = 2.26s =C 3 20
(C) reticent (D) unwilling (E) agreeable 5. u = 0, a = 0.5ms-2, s = 25, t = ? using v2 = u2 + 2as = 0 +
95. The detective was perplexed when the clues in the murder 2(0.5)(25) = 25 if v2 = 25 then v = 5 now using v = u + at we
case pointed to at least a dozen different get t = v - u = 5 – 0 = 10s =C a 0.5 6. From
suspects (A) surprised (B)confused (C) excited (D) -1(Tg) = sin-1 (10x10) = sin-1 (0.5) = 300= B (2U) (2x100)
discouraged (E) disappointed 7. S = ut + ½ at2 = 0 + ½ (2)(42) = 16m = C
96. The military governor called a concerted effort in solving 8. = C 10 = C
the problems of the state. – l1 = e
(A) a dramatic (B) an agitated (C) a joint (D) a directed (E) an --
unfailing - -5 x 10 x (60 – 10) = 6.0cm3= E
97. My financial situation is so precarious that very soon I may 12. From Charles‘s Law V1 = V2, V2 = V1T2 =
be insolvent 546x173
(A) borrowing (B) stealing T1 T2 T1 273 = 346cm3= A
(C) soluble (D) dependent (E) bankrupt 13. = C 14. C 15. C 16. B
98. The chairman is of the opinion that accepting the proposal – distance of image from lens and u – u distance of object
would be inimical to the objectives of the association. (A) from lens
harmful (B) relevant (C) irrelevant (D) indispensable (E) v = - v = 4u (any upright image is virtual and thus negative)
helpful From 1 + 1 = 1 we put 1+ 1 = 1 thus 3 = 1 v u f -4u u 15 4u
99. The famous politician was noted for his pragmatic 15
approach to issues of national interest. 4u = 45 and u = 11.25. hence v = 4u = 45.0cm = D 18. = D
(A) idealistic (B) romantic 19. STV 20. C
(C) compromising (D) practical
(E) inconsistent
100. Kunle is very pessimistic about our chance of success
(A) sad (B) despondent (C) unconvinced (D) worried (E)
concerned
SOLUTIONSTOPOSTUTME2009/2010

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 21. 125-1/3 x 49-1/2 x 100= 1 1/3 x 1 1/2x 100 = 1 x 1 x 1 same number of molecules. N = 6.022 x 1023 units of a
=1 specified item. H2 = 2.02, O2 = 32.00, Cl2 = 70.91 =C
125 49 5 7 35= C 64. Using P1V1 =P2V2 thus V2 = 0.971 x 146 x 273 T1 T2
22. 32x = 27 and 27 = 33 1 x 291 = 133 =A
2x = 3 and x = 3/2 = 1.5=B 65. Using PV = nRT but n m/M where m = given mass and
23. 5.62 x 10-3= A M = Molar mass
24. 1/3 log10P = 1thus log10 P1/3 = 1 = log101 P1/3 = 10 PV = m RT and M = mRT = 1.58 x 8.314 x 272 M PV
so P = 103 = 1000 =E 101325 x 5 10-4= 71=D
25. log8½ = ½ =B log 81 66. CO2 = 12 + 2(16) = 44 NO2 = 14 + 2(16) = 46 SO2 =
26. Log x = 2.3675, log y = 0950 32 + 2(16) = 64 H2S = 2(1) + 32 = 34
X + y = logx x log y = 2.3675 x 0.9750 = 2.3083 = 2.31 The order should be: H2S, CO2, NO2 SO2
(3s.f) = B 67. = A 68. B
27. 1.21 – 1.12 = 0.09 x 100% = 9% = E X(g)X- (g) Z. Electron affinity
28. U4= ?, a = 2, d = 0.5 Using Un = a + (n – 1)d U4 = 2 + 70. K x 37 (100 – K) x 35 = 35.5
(4 – 1) 0.5 = 2 + (3) 0.5 = 3.5 29. STV 30. Sn = a (rn – 1) 100 100
=2(35 – 1) = 2(242) 0.37K + 35 – 0.35 = 35.5
r – 1 5 – 1 4 = 121 = E 31. = A 0.37K – 0.35K = 35.5 – 35
- 80 = 38 =C 0.02K = 0.5 Thus K 0.5 = 25 =B 0.02
33. (x – 12) (x + 16) 71. Pb (NO3)2 + H2SPbS + 2HNO3
34. 2e2 – 3e + 1 = e (2e – 3) + 1 = (2e – 3) (e + 1) 35. 7y2 = 1 mole of H2S 1 mole of PbS
3y so 7y2 – 3y = 0 22.4dm3(207) + 32 = 239
36. 2a2 – 3a – 27 = 0 thus x = 9/2 or x = -3 =E = D 360 X 5.02
360 7 X =22.4dm3 x 5.02g = 0.47dm3 239g
=B Percentage by volume is 0.47dm3 x 100 = 4.7 =C 10.0dm3
39. tan 69 = x/10 thus x = 26.1 =E 1
40. 180 + 74 = 2540=D 72. = B 73. C
41. A 46. B 51. B 56. A 74. CuSO4 = 63.5 + 32 + 32 + 4(16) = 159.5
42. A 47. C 52. D 57. A Moles =20 = 0.125 159.5
43. C 48. D 53. A 58. B
44. A 49. 54. B 59. C
45. D 50. C 55. D 60. D
61. C 62. STV
63. Avogadro‘s Number: at the same temperate and
Pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain the

40 | P a g e
 100 0.125 and 1000 x hence1000 x 0.125 = 1.25 = C 100
75. = B 76. STV 77. STV
78. pH: The negative logarithm of the concentration (mol/L) of the H3O+ or (H+) ion; the commonly used scale ranges from
0 – 14. pH = -log(H+) and –log(H+) = 4.398
Multiplying through by -1 gives log (H+) = -4.398
Taking antilog of both sides gives (H+) = 10-4.398 = 4.0 x 10-5 79. STV
80. If 10.8g of sulphur is deposited in a silver coulometer connected in series with a copper coulometer, the volume of oxygen
liberated is?
81. D 86. C 91. C 96. C
82. B 87. E 92. E 97. E
83. A 88. D 93. A 98. A
84. E 89. B 94. D 99. A
85. D 90. A 95. B 100. B

41 | P a g e
 UNIVERSITY OFIBADAN2007/2008 POSTUMESCREENINGEXERCISE
INSTRUCTIONTOCANDIDATES
PLEASEENSURETHATYOUHAVESUBMITTEDONLINEREGISTRATION FORMBEFOREANDAFTERTHE
EXAMINATION.
ANSWERALLQUESTIONTIMEALLOWED 1 ½HOURS
Shadethe answersheet as appropriatewithHB pencilOnly
MATHEMATICS 11. The sum to infinity of the series 1 + ½ + ¼ + 1.
Simplify 12 B. 2 - 1/8 Z. Is
2. Without using tables, the numerical value of log749 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. ½ E. 1/3
+ log7(1/7) is A. 0 B. -1 C. 1 D. ½ E. 36 12. The value of sin 3000 is A. B. ½ C. –½ E. 1 3. If
x2 – 6x + 1 = 0, has coincident roots, the value of n 13. How many sides has a rectangular polygon is A. 9
B. -9 C. 3 D. 4 E. 36 whose interior angle is 144?
4. The roots of y2 – y – 12 = 0 are A. 4, -3 B. -4, 3 C. -4, - A. 12 B. 9 C. 8 D. 10 E. 11
3 D. 4,3 E. 36 14. Simplify 272/3 x 322/5 A. 36 B. 9 C. 4 D.1/36 E.
- C. - None of the above
6. If 8x/2 = 23/8 x 43/4 the value of x is A.1 B.11/4 C. 15. The equation n2 – 16n + 64 has
15/8 D. ¼ E. ½ A. equal roots B. imaginary roots C. Distinct roots D.
7. In set theory, an empty set is represented with B. { } No roots E. None of the above
C. {.} D. A and B E. All of the above 16. The values of C for which 2c2 – 11c + 12 = 0 are 8. If
A = {xeN:x2 – 3X + 2 = 0}, B = xeN: x(x – 3) = 0}, A. 4, ½ B. -4, 3/2 C. 4, -3/2 D. -4, -3/2 E. 4,3 AB us A. {3}
B. {12} D. {2} E. {1,2,3} 17. Which of the following is not a surd E. None of 9. What
value of x satisfy the inequality 2x + 2 < 5. A. the above
x<1 B. x<1 C. x>1 D. x>1 E. 0<x<1 18. Simplify 4 – 1 1 C. 1 - D. 4 – 1
10. If the 39th term of an arithmetic progression is 19. Solve 7/8 of 2¼ + (25/16 – 17/24) A.12/27 B.
141, what is the first term if the common difference is 15/22 C.63/32 D.48/77 E. 17/24
2 20. For what values of x and y are x + y = 2 and 2x – A. 65
B. 141 C. 39 D. None of the above E. All of the y = 7?
above

42 | P a g e
 y = 3 E. x = -1, y = 3 C. Methyl propanone and propyl methanone
Usethe followingdatatoanswer:questions21–25 D. Methyl propanonne and methyl propyl butanone 5. The
6,0,1,2,6,8,2,1,5,1,4,9,6,1,5,6,5,6,8,6,6 oxide that remains unchanged when heated with hydrogen
21. The range of the values is A. 8 B. 9 C. 6 D. 7 E. 5 22. is
The sum of the numbers and the number of A. CUO B. Fe2O3 C PoO2 D. ZnO E. Ag2O
items are 6. What is the most metallic element in the set A. Na B. Ar
A. 85, 20 B. 85, 19 C. 80, 20 D. 95, 21 E. 80,19 C. P D. A E. Mg
23. The mean value is A. 4.47 B. 4.0 C. 4.25 D. 4.05 E. 4.21 7. What is the mole fraction of water in a solution prepared
by mixing 12.5g of H2O with 220g of
24. The medium mark is A. 6 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8 E. 4 acetone?
25. The mode of the marks is A. 7 B. 6 C. 8 D. 5 E. 4 A. 0.817 B. 0.845 C. 0.183 D. 0.155 E. 0.205
CHEMISTRY 8. A consequence of global warming is:
1. Rhombic sulphur, monoclinic sulphur and A. Air pollution B. Wafer pollution C. Increased humidity D.
amorphous sulphur are: Flooding E. Little sunshine
A. Isomels B. Isotopes C. Allotropes D. Monomers E. 9. Gunpowder is made from charcoal, Sulphur and
Polymorphs Potassium trioxonitrate(V). The salt in the mixture perform^
2. Laughing gas is function of: A. An oxidant B. A reductant C.A solvent, D. A
A. nitrogen (II) oxide B. Nitrogen (I) oxide C. catalyst E. Exploder
Nitrogen (III) oxide D. Nitrogen (V) oxide E. 10. Which one of the following group II elements has the
Ammonia highest first ionization energy?
3. The correct name of the compound A. Be B. Mg C. Ca D. Sr E. B
CH3CH2CONH3is 11. In which one of the following compounds does
A. N-methyl-propionyl amide sulphur have an oxisation number of +4?
B. Propionyl amide A. H2SO4 B. H2S C. SO2 D. Na2SO3 E. H2S2O7 12.
C. Methyl propanamide Which one of the following does not show allotropy at
D. Methyl propionylamide room temperature and pressure?
E. Propionylmethamide A. Nitrogen B. Phosphorous C. Oxygen D. Carbon E.
4. The name pentanone is not specific and proper Sulphur
because it can refer to 13. Cellulose and starch can classified as one of the
A. 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone following:
B. 1- pentanone and 5-pentanone

43 | P a g e
 A. Sugar B. Sucrose C. hydrocarbon D. Carbohydrates E. A. 2-butanone E. Methyl butane
Fibres B. 2-butanal C. Butane D. Butanoic
14. What mass of anhydrous solution of sodium 22. The solubility of alkanols in water is due to:
trioxocarbonate (IV) is required to prepare 250cm3 of 0.10m A. Their ionic character
solution? (Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16) B. Their covalent nature
15. How many isomers can be formed from organic C. Ability to form hydrogen bond
compounds with molecular formular C3H8O? D. Their low boiling points
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 E. Their low dielectric com
16. Which of the following is not a property of 23. The gas that is not associated with global warming is
magnesium oxide? A. CO2 B. H2 C. CH4 D. SO
A. High melting point 24. In which order are the following salts sensitive to light:
B. Dissolution in polar solvent A. AgBr>AgCl>Agl
C. Pressure of ionic bonds B.AgCl>Agl>AgBr
D. Possession of crystal lattice C. Agl>AgCl>AgBr
E. low binding energy D. AgCl>AgBr>Agl
17. Catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes produces E. AgBr>Agl>AgCl
compounds with general formula 25. A phenomenon where an element exists in
A. CnH2n+1OH. B. CnH2n+1 C. CnH2n+2 D. CnH2n-1 E. different forms in the same physical state known as: A.
Cn(H20)y Isomerism B. Amorphism
18. Tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid is described as strong acid C. Isotopy D. Allotropy E. Enantiomerism
because it is highly PHYSICS
A. Corrosive B. Concentrated 1. A piece of rubber 10cm long stretches 6mm when a load
C. Reactive D. Soluble in water of 100N is hung from it. What is the strain?
E. Ionized in water A. 6 x 10'2 B. 60 C. 6 D. 0.6 E. 2 x 10-2
19. Which of these metals. Mg, Fe, Pb, and Cu will dissolve in 2. Which of the following does not cause a reduction of the
diluteHCl if air is blown through the surface tension of water?
solution? A. Soap solution B. Alcohol C. Camphor D. Grease E.
A. Mg and Fe only B. All the metals Solvent
C. Mg, Fe and Cu D. Mg, Fe and Pb 3. The amount of heat required to raise the
E. Mg, Pb and Cu. — temperature of a body is
20. A correct electrochemical series can be obtained from A. Thermal capacity B. Thermal energy
K, Na, Ca, Al, Mg, Zn, Fe, Pb, H. Ag, Au by interchanging C. Specific heat capacity D. Heat lost E. heat gain
A. Zn and Fe B. Zn and Pb C. Al and Mg
D. Au and Ag E. None of the above. '
21. The oxidation of CH3CH2(CH3)OH gives:

44 | P a g e
 4. Water shows anomalous behaviour 12. Which of the following media allow the
A. below 100C B. At exactly 4°C C. between 4°C and 100°C transmission of sound waves through them: I Air II
D. Between 0°C and 4°C E. Above 1000C 5. Which of the Liquid III Solid.
following phenomena cannot be A. I, II and III B. I and II only
explained by the molecular theory of matter? C. I and III only D. II and III only
A. Radiation B. Conduction E. Ill only
C. Convection D. Evaporation 13. The power dissipated in an a.c circuit with an r.m.s of
E. Saturation 5A, r.m.s voltage of 10V and a phase angle of 60° is
6. A gas occupies a volume of 300cm3 at a A. SOW B. 120W C. 125W D. 25W E. 12W
temperature of 27°C. What is its volume at 540C, when 14. A light of energy 5eV falls on a metal and the electrons
the pressure is constant? with a maximum kinetic energy of 2eV are ejected. The
A. 150cm3. B 273cm3 C.327cm3 work fraction of the metal is A. 0.4eV B.
D. 600cm3 E. 125cm3 7.0eV C. 2.5eV D. 3.0eV E. 1.0eV
7. A man clapping his hands at regular intervals observes 15. In semiconductors, the carriers of current at
that the echo of a clap coincides with the next clap. If the temperature are
reflecting cliff is 160m away and the speed of the sound is A. Electrons only B. Electrons and holes
320mS-1, what is the C. Holes only D. Electrons and ions E. Ions only 16. The
frequency of the clapping? temperature at which water vapour present in the air
A. 2HzK B.4Hz C. 8Hz D. 1Hz E. 12Hz saturates the air and begins to condense is known as
8. Which of the fallowing properties is/are common to all A. Boiling point B. Melting point
waves? I Diffraction II Refraction III Frequency A. IIonly B. I C. Dew point D. Triple point E. Violet light
and II only C.I, II and III only D. I and III only E. II only 17. Which of the following pairs is not part of the
9. Which of the following factors affects the speed of sound in electromagnetic spectrum?
air? I Temperature II Pressure III I Radio wave II Beta waves III Gamma rays IV Alpha rays
Frequency A. I and II B. II and IV C. Ill and IV
A. II only B.I and II only C. I only D. II and III only E. D. I and III E. all of the above
Ill only : 18. A wave of frequency 10Hz forms a stationary wave
10. When white light is dispersed by a spectrometer, the pattern in a medium where the velocity is
component having the shortest wavelength is A. Orange B. 20cmS-1. The distance between the adjacent modes is
Green C. Red D. Violet E. Black A. 15cm B. 1.0cm C. 2.0cm
11. Shadows and eclipses result from the
A. Refraction of light
B. Diffraction of light
C. Rectilinear propagation of light
D. Reflection of light
E. Above tight

45 | P a g e
 D. 5.0cm E. 6.0cm ENGLISH
19. The length of a displaced pendulum bob which passes its A.Intheflowingquestionschoosethe
lowest point twice every second, assuming g = 10ms-1 is A. expression orwordwhich bestcompleteseach
0.25m B. 0.45m C. 0.58m D. 1.00m E. sentence.
1.2m 1. The student who went home without an exit has
20. The inner diameter of a small test tube can be apologized ____ his misconduct.
measured accurately using a A. On B. At C. About D. For E. It 2.
A. micrometer screw gauge B. Pair of dividers C. The man has atoned ___ his sins.
Meter rule D. Pair of vernier calipers E. meter screw 21. A. Upon B. On C. For D. At E. Against 3. I
An object is projected with a velocity of 80ms-1 at an am ____ seeing your family.
angle of 300 to the horizontal. The maximum height A. Forward to B. Ahead to C. Forward on
reached, assuming g = 10m/s, is A. 20m B. D. Ahead to E. At
80m C. 160m D. 320m E. 40m 4. These folk tales have been landed ____ from
22. A cone in an unstable equilibrium has its generation to generation
potential energy, A. In B. At C. Over D. Over E. Eat
A. Decreased B. Increased 5. The young lovers first met _____ the University of Ibadan
C. Oscillating D. Unchanged Night dancer
E. Undulating A. In B. At C. Inside D. In course of E. From
23. A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25ms-1 in 20 6. I have not seen my house master _____ the
seconds. The power developed in the engine is A. 12.5KW beginning of this session
B. 25.0KW C. 1.25MW A. From B. In C. For D. Since E. Concerning
D. 2.50MV E. 1MV 7. Get ______ the untimely death of his son
24. When a ship sails from salt water into fresh A. Off B. By C. Through D. Over E. Eat 8.
water, fraction of its volume above the water surface will 8. If you keep playing with this door handle, it will get ___
A. Decrease B. Remain the same
C. Increase D. Increase then decrease A. lose B. Loose C. lost D. Loosing
E. All of the above E. Renewed
25.A machine gun with a mass of 5kg fires a 50g bullet at a
speed of 100ms-1. The recoil speed of the machine gun is A.
0.5m/s B. 3.5m/s C. 1m/s D. 2m/s E. 4m/s

46 | P a g e
 (B) Ineach ofthefollowing questions,choose C. Detailed D. Pathetic E. Stupid
theoptionnearestin meaningtothe underlined word. (C)In eachofthefollowing questionschoosethe
9. She was dressed in a gorgeous costume optiooppositein meaning totheunderlined
A. Richly coloured B. Loose word
C. Badly sewn D. Tight fitting E. Bad Colour 18. A tentative date was given
10. Obi's reaction is too subtle to be understood A. Violet B. A. definite B. A provisional
Real C. Clever D. Wild E. Cold C. An amicable D. Convincing E. None of the
11. Many people are often deceived by superficial 19. Obi was the hero of the story
knowledge A. Assassin B. Villain C. Devil
A. Cheap B. Shallow C. Attractive D. Criminate E. Goliath
D. Penetrating E. All of the above 20. The man drew a sword as people congregated round him
12. His subjects rejoiced in the end of his tyrannical rule
A. Cruel B. Long C. Just A. Fled from B. Praised
D. Peaceful E. Ancient C. Gathered round D. Mobbed E. Bent
13. Danqual is a very versatile scholar things 21. The point you have made is quite apt
A. Dull B. Clever at his special field C. Interested in many A. Helpful B. Irrelevant C. Illogical D. Insensitive E.
different things D. Slow E. lazy All of the above
14. Nigerian sailors are very virile 22. That little boy has become quite chubby
A. Strong and manly B. Vindictive C. Virtuous D. A. Intelligent . B. Tall C. Thin D. Huge E. Large 23. The
Vicious and cunning action was premeditated
E. Friendly A. Unplanned B. Unnecessary
15. I have to wade through that stream C. Catastrophic D. Uncoordinated E. Good
A. Walk hurriedly B. Swain C. Toddle D. Walk with 24. The boy made flippant remark A. serious B. well- meant
difficulty E. Walk up C. A correct D. An expected E. Yes
16. His rise to fame was metoric 25. The weather is getting warmer, so the ice should thaw
A. Well deserved B. Very gradual soon
C. Very swift D. Too slow E. All of the above A. Frost B. Freeze C. Melt
17. Martha came late this morning but she gave plausive D. Escape E. Run
excuse
A. Reasonable B. Very interesting

47 | P a g e
 SOLUTIONSTOMATHS2007/2008CONTINUED 320 = 2 x f x 160 thus f = 320 = 1Hz =D 2 x 160 8. = C
=B 9. C 10.D 11. C 12 A
1–r1–½ 10 x 5 x cos 60 = 25W =D
12. Sin 3000 = sin (3600 – 600) = sin 3600. cos 600 – sin 14. EK =hv – W
600 . cos 3600 = (0 x 1/2 ) – =B W = Ek – hv = 5 – 2 = 3eV =D
13. For a regular polygon: internal angle + external angle = 15. B 16. C 17. B
1800 But distance between adjacent nodes is 2.0/2 = 1.0cm
144 + x = 1800 =B
X = 1800 – 1440 = 360
No of sides of regular polygon = 360/36 = 10sides = D
14. 272/3 x 322/3 = (33)2/3 x (25)2/5 = 32 x 22 = 36 = A
15. n2 – 16n + 64 = n2 – 8n – 8n + 64
n = 8(twice) – Equal roots = A
16. 2c2 – 11c + 12 = 0 Using the quadratic equation on
-(--11)2 – -96 2(2) 4
=A44
=D
––=B
– 17/24)
= 7/8 x 9/4 x 48/77 = 15/22=B
20. x + y = 2 ZZZZZZ.. (1)
2x – y = 7 ZZZZZZ.. (2) subtracting (1) from (2) 3x = 9 x =
9/3 = 3
Substituting the value of x into (1) we have 3 + y = 2 hence
y = -1 =A
21. Range = highest value –lowest value 9 – 0 = 9 =B 22.
(94, 21) =D
23. 94/21 = 4.47 =A
24. The Median is obtained by rearranging to order and then
picking the middle term.
0,1,1,1,1,2,2,4,5,5,5,6,6,6,6,6,6,8,8,9
The median is 5 =B
25. The mode is the most occurring value is 6 =B
CHEMISTRY
1. = C 7. D 13. D 19. A 25. D
2. = B 8. D 14. A 20. C
3. = A 9. E 15. A 21. A
4. = A 10. A 16. E 22. C
5. = D 11. C 17. C 23. A
6. = A 12. A 18. E 24. D
PHYSICS
1. Strain = elongation = L = 6mm
Original – length L0 (10 x 10)
28 = 0.06 = 6 x 10-2=A
2. = D 3. = C 4. = D 5. = A
6. Since pressure is constant: V1 =V2 T1 T2
300 = V2thus V2 = 327 x 300 = 327 =C
300 327 300

48 | P a g e
 =A
20. = D
2g 2 x 10 = 80m =B
22. = A decreased 23. B 24. A 25. STV
ENGLISH
1. = D 2. = C 3. = A 4. = B
5. = B 6. = D 7. = D 8. = B
9. Gorgeous: very beautiful and attractive; giving pleasure and enjoyment (2) of colours clothes etc) with
very deep colours: impressive ANS Richly coloured = A
10. Subtle: not very noticeable or obvious (2) (of a person or their behaving in a clever way and using
indirect methods, in order to achieve something ANS Clever = C
11. Superficial: ANS shallow = B
12. Tyrannical: using power or authority over people in an unfair and cruel way ANS cruel = A
13. Versatile = C
14. Virile: strong and full of energy = A
15. Wade: to walk with an effort through something especially water or mud = D
16. Meteoric: achieving success very quickly = C
17. Plausible: reasonable and likely to be true = A
18. Tentative: not definite of certain because you may want to change it later ANS Definite = A
19. Hero: ANS viliain = B
20. Congregated round: to come together in a group ANS gathered round = C
21. Apt: suitable or appropriate in the circumstances ANS irrelevant = B
22. Chubby: slightly fat in a way that people usually find attractive ANS thin = C
23. Premeditated: planned in advance ANS unplanned = A
24. Flippant: showing that you do not take something as seriously as other people think you should ANS
serious=A
25. Thaw: to turn back into water after being frozen ANS freeze = B

49 | P a g e
BIOLOGY
Indicatethecorrectoptionineachofthe followingquestions
1. The mitochondrion consists of
A. Chemical that break up complex compounds in the cells into simpler compounds B. Rich
store of ribonucleic acid
C. Digestive enzymes and hormones
D. Protein phosphorus and
2. In Amoeba, the ectoplasm is bounded by a thin membrane known as the
A. Plasmasol B. Plasmagel C. Plasalemma D. Protoplasm
3. Centipedes are
A. Equally dangerous as millipedes B. Less dangerous than millipedes
C. More dangerous than all D. Not dangerous at all
4. Odontophore is a skeletal structure found in the phylum
A. Pisces B. Echinodermata C. Mollusca D. Amphibian
5. Cattle is the name of a structure found in
A. Lizard B. Chameleon C. Cock D. Dogfish
6. One of these is not a feature of the caudal vertebrae in a mammal
A. They possess neural canal B. Theft transverse processes axe poorly developed C. Their
neural spines are gradually lost D. There are not many articular Surfaces.
7. The inner ear has two types of coiled structures called cochlea which
A. Receive sound impulses-
B. Has sensory cells which carry impulses to the spinal cord
C. Connects to the Eustachian tube
D. Possess cells sensitive to balance
8. Viruses are the smallest known organisms and are divided into two parts the outer part and an inner part.
The outer
parts protein and the inner part is
A. Nucleus B. Vacuole C. Particle D, DNA and RNA
9. The thallus of a lichen consists of
A. A virus and a fungus B. Alga cells and fungal hyphae
C. Bacteria and fungal cells D. Soredium and basisospor
10. The palisade parenchyma is found in the
A Stem B. Leaf C. Rower D. Root
11. The tomato fruits is a very good example of
A. An aggregate fruit B. A drupe C. A berry D. A multiple fruit
12. Cremation occurs in the Red Blood cell when
A. It is placed in isotonic B. It is placed in hypertonic solution
C. Osmosis is allowed to occur D. Transpiration occurs
13. The capillaries act as Filters between
A. The veins B. The arteries C. The venules D. The arteries and the veins 14. The
primary openings for gaseous exchange in a plant stem at night are A. Opening in
the cuticles B. Stomata C. Lenticels D. Branches
15. The outer membrane covering the brain is known as
A. Brain ventricle B. Anchnoid C. Pia meter D. Dura meter

2007/2008
50 | P a g e
 BIOLOGY

A. Do not have a definite shape B. Have definite shapes

C. Have cellulose cell walls D. Are very large in size when compared with plant cells 2. The
attachment regions of chromosome is called.
A. Chromatid B. Centromere C. Spindle fibre D. ‗Chromonemata
3. In some Tapeworm the fertilized eggs develop into an embryo enclosed within a membrane called.
A. Onehosphere B. Zygospere C. Zygote D. Plerocerciod
4. In a Caterpillar, the last pair of eggs occurs on the last segment and they are called.
A. Larves B. Cluthes C. Claspers D. Ovopositor
5. Nuchal crest is a characteristic feature of
A. Toad B. Tilapia C. Agama D. Salamander
6. The subcutaneous layer of the mammalian skin contains A. The
outer layer, middle layer and the malphighian layer.
B. Sweat duct, sweat glands, erector and hair muscles. .
C. Sebaceous glands, nerve endings, hair follicles and blood vessels.
D. Nerve fibres, blood vessels, hair follicles and adipose layer.
7. The phenomenon whereby oxygenated blood leaves the heart through the left side and returns to the heart in
deoxygenated form through the right is called.
A. Circulatory system B Plan of circulation C. Single circulation D Double circulation 8. The urine
enters into the bladder through the
A. Urethra B. Pelvis C. Bowman‘s capsule D. Urether
9. Spirogyra cells are enclosed within cell walls that are lined by slimy substance called.
A. Mucus B. Cytoplasmic strand C. Mucilage D. Chloroplast
10. One of these is not a storage root
A. Carrot B. Onion C. Potato D. Cassava
11. A common example of a caryopsis is
A Groundnut B Sun flower C. Maize D. Tridax
12. The term ―scion‖ refers to -
A. The plant that is firmly attached to die soil
B. The mupper plant that should be united with the plant attached the ground.
C. The wounds created when a plant is grafted
D. The stem into which a bud is sintered
13. Water and mineral salts are absorbed from the soil when
A. Osmosis occurs B. Evapo-transpiration occurs
C. Photosynthesis occurs D. Wilting occurs
14. In plants, the water and mineral transported from the root hairs are used for.
A. osmosis B. transpiration C) photosynthesis D) Homostasia 15.
Phototaxis is a tactic movement which
A. Takes place in response to -stimulation of Heat.
B. Takes place in response to light
C. Takes place because of chemical exchange
D. A movement carried out by the cell

ECONOMICS
1. A mathematical table that gives a relationship among many economic variable is called a) Pie
chart b) Graph c) Frequency table d) Pictograph
2. Wants in economics refers to
a) Goods meant for consumption b) Service rendered
51 | P a g e
 c) Goods and serviced desired for consumption d) Products made 3 The
main importance of drawing a scale of preference is. .
a) to enable One make a rational choice b) to enable one to take a good decision
c) to enable one limit his or her need d) None of the above
4. Creation of utility yielding goods and services means
a) Production b) Consumption c) Manufacturing c) Extraction
5. If the variance for a set of scores is 7, the I standard deviation is
a)6.2 b) 1.6 c)2.6 d)3.6
6. Total changing of raw materials to finished goods ready for consumption is
a) Manufacturing b) Transformation c) Extraction d) Distribution
7. The quest to hold balances of cash is called
a) Precautionary motive b) Liquidity preference
c) Speculative motive d) Transactionary motive
8. The decentralization of resources allocation to meet the needs of a society is called
a) Socialism b) Mixed economy c) Capitalism d) Dualism
9. When elasticity of Demand is above I, the demand is
a) Elastic b) Inelastic c) Perfectly elastic d) Zero elastic
10. The bank that provides credit by lending of money to the public is
a) World bank b) Central Bank c) Mortgage Bank d) Commercial Bank
11. John has N70 to buy goods X and Y; and each cost N70. He buys X and forgoes Y. The economic concept
that
adopts this is
a) Scarcity b) Opportunity cost c) Scale of preference d) Choice
12. The exchange of commodities between Ghana and Nigeria is called
a) Multinational grade b) International trade c) External trade d) Bilateral trade
13. The role of ECOWAS is to attain
a) Multilateral trade b) Bilateral trade c) Economics elf reliance d) Regional free trade
14. The banker‘s bank is
a) Central bank b) Mortgage bank c) Commercial bank d) World bank
15. Prices of commodities are regulated by
a) Demand b) Supply c) Demand and Supply d) Advisement

GOVERNMENT
1. The adjudication of rule is the major responsibly of the
2. Which of these countries possesses an unwritten constitution?
a) France b) Great Britain c) United State of America d) Federal Republic of Germany
3. The power of emergency placed on the Federal Government in the independence constitution was first practiced in
the
a) Eastern region b) Western region c) Mid-western region d) Northern region
4. The anonymity principle of Civil service workers means that they are
a) Entitled to gratuity and pension b) Career officer
c) No credited for anything they do d) Trained for duties they perform
5. The meeting of Commonwealth Heads of State was hosted by Nigeria in
a) 1967 b) 1966 c) 1957 d) 1968
6. Capitalism supports
a) Ownership of the means of production by private individual
b) Anarchy
c) A centrally planning economic system
d) Public ownership of means of production
7. A unitary system of government is characterized by
a) weak parliament b) diffused political power
52 | P a g e
 c) high level of concentration of power d) no legislature
8. A government that has a fusion of executive and ceremonial power is
a) Parliamentary b) Presidential c) Unitary d) Oligarchy
9. The respect of individual rights and industrial revolution necessitated the development of.
a) Fascism b) Capitalism c) Socialism d) Feudalism
10. Parliament can only be dissolved by
A) Referendum B) Bye election C) plebiscite D) General election 11.
The day set aside for united Nation celebration is
A) September17 B)August 10 C) May 5 D) October24.
12. A common provision in the 1963 and 1979 constitution was the
a) provision for bicameral legislation at the apex
b) political parties registration
c) indirect funding of local government by the federal
d) none of the above
13. The 1976 local Government Reform in Nigeria resulted in
a) Five-tier system of local government b) one-tier local government system
c) three-tier local government system d) six-tier local government system
14. public or corporation are financed by
a) individual funds b) taxpayer c) federal funds d) political parties
15. the duration for the appointment of the secretary by the united Nation Organization is a) 3years
b) 4years c) 5 year d) 7 year

CHRISTIANRELIGIOUSKNOWLEDGE(C.R.K)
1. God‘s creative strength was shown by his
a) approving that a thing be done b) making a command prefaced by ―there be‘ c)
ordering the holy spirit to act d) allowing created things to evolve naturally. 2. which of
these did not form part of Asa‘sreligious reform in Judah?
a) termination of male cult prostitution in the land,
b) Demolition of all the idols his father made
c) Cutting down of the image made by maacah for Asherah d)
Destruction of high places
3. Paul was grateful to God whenever he remembered Philemon in his prayer because of Philemon‘s.
a) Determination not to forgive Philemon b) Love for, and faith in Jesus
c) Lack of appreciation of Onesimus to him d) Pretended goodness
4. which of the following officials were charged by pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male children
a) Egyptian physician b) Egyptian taskmasters c) Hebrew midwives d) Egyptian soldiers
5. Jesus decided to send the multitude to buy food for themselves when it was already getting late because a) He
wanted to reveal his messiah ship
b) He knew that his words were of greater value than food
d) He know that the little food available would satisfy them.
6. Naaman the Syrian leper was healed by
a) Amos b) Hosea c) Elisha d) Elijah
7. This is my beloved son, listen to him this statement as made on
A) Baptism of Jesus b) Transfiguration
c) Triumphant entry into Jerusalem d)Ascension of Jesus
8. Jonah cried to God from the bowel of shem Sheol here implies to
a) region of darkness and death b) Tempestuous sea c) deep sea d) belly offish 9. The
second account of creation was centers on the creation
a) birds b) heavens c) Deep d) plants
10. All the tribes of Israel was gathered by Joshua for his address of farewell at a) Sinai
b) bethel c) Jordan d) shechem
53 | P a g e
 11. Moses experienced the burning bush at
12. Hosea called on Israel to return to the lord by
a) Allying with Assyria b) Steadfastly loving God
c) Ensuring regular sacrifices d) following the ways of their things
13. My father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me. The ―cup‖ here means
a) Baptism b) Temptation c) Death d) Loneliness
14. The reaction of the elder brother when the prodigal son returned illustrated the behaviour of the a)
Herodians b) Pharisees c) Saducees d) Zealots
15. God created man to have dominion things.
Dominion here means
a) Mastership b) control
c) manage

GOVERNMENT
1. Government by the few is
a) Dictatorship b) Oligarchy c) Monarchy d) Autocracy
2. The primary function of the Judiciary is to
a) make laws b) protect the citizens c) interpret laws d) execute laws
3. A characteristic feature of communism is
a) free enterprise b) liberal democracy c) dictatorship d) multi-party system
4. A tax law is a
a) Private bill b) Speaker‘s bill c) Public bill d) Judicial bill
5. Nigeria is a member of
a) OPEC, NATO and ECOWAS b) O.A.U, the U.N.O and ECOWAS
c) ECOWAS, NATO and O.A.U d) The Commonwealth of Nations, OPEC and the O.A.S 6. A
country made up of semi-autonomous units is
a) a confederation b) a federation c) a region d) unitary
7. Unicameralisrn refers to a
a) a two-chamber legis1ature
b) the process of secpW5ting in the legislature
c) the lower chamber legislature
d) a one- chamber legislature
8. An important function of the legislature is
a) Judicial review b) review of executive policies and action
c) lobbying d) defending government policies
9. Fascism is a system of government which
a) encourages political dissent and opposition
b) represses individual freedom and opposition
c) promotes equality
d) promotes the individual brotherhood of man
10. The 1963 Constitution of Nigeria was
a) written and flexible b) written and rigid
c) flexible and unwritten d) unitary and rigid
11. The main source of Local government finance since the 197 6 Reform has been a) local rate b)
levies
c) revenue from court fines and licenses d) the Federal government
12. Sovereignty is limited by
a) the criminal code b) decrees c) the legal system d) international laws
13. Marxism is directed against
a) state ownership of the means of production b) materialism c) The proletariat d) Socialism 14. The rule
of law implies that
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 a) judges interprets the law b} lawyers interpret the law
c) everyone is subject to the law d) the legislature makes the law
15. Freedom of speech in a democratic state is limited by
a) law of sedition b) law of trespass c) Press censorship d) Martial law
16. Liberalism is a philosophy underlying
a) Socialism b) Capitalism c) Feudalism. d) Nazism
17. In international relations, countries have right to
a) export Oil b) create more states
c) diplomatic immunity of their envoys d) own a police force
1 8. Political authority is normally vested in the
a) State b) Judiciary c) Government d) Armed force
19. Case-law are made by the
a) legislature b) Council of ministers c) Judiciary d) President
20. Bicameral legislatures are popular in
a) Unitary system b) Federal systems c) Con-federal system d) Rigid system
21. A flexible constitution is one that is
a) amended periodically b) easy to amend c) amendable with difficulty d) easy to interpret 22. Which
of the following is NOT associated with local government elections?
a) Constituency b) Ballot box c) Electoral officer d) Ward
23. The fusion of the executive and legislative organs of government is associated with a)
Monarchy b) The presidential system c) Fascism D) The parliamentary system 24. The most
important objective of political partiesis to
a) Elect their spokesman b) Lobby the government
c) Form effective national organizations have d) Control the government
25. The primary function of a pressure group is to
a) Win and control governmental power b) Elect their official
c) Influence government policy d) Organize workers to confront government
26. The Yomba traditional government system was
a) Egalitarian b) Republican c) Democratic d) Monarchical
27. The highest court in Nigeria before 1963 was the
a) Supreme Court b) High Court
c) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council d) Court of Appeal
28. Political authority refers to the
a) ability to effect political action
b) capacity to produce desired political results
c) capacity to reshape the political behaviour of citizen
d) recognized right to exercise political power.
29. The Civil service belong to the organ of government called the
a) Legislature b) Executive c) Judiciary d) Parastatals
30. Gerrymandering means
a) the second ballot system b) single transferable vote
c) the manipulation of constituency boundaries d) the tyranny of the majority 31. In
Nigeria, the function of the Council of States - is
a) Judiciary b) Investigative c) Legislative d) Advisory
32. To highest policy making body of the O.A.U is the
a) Economic and Social Commission b) Council of Minister
c) General Secretariat d) Assembly of Heads of State and government 33. A society
that is politically organized under a government is called a a) Sovereign state b)
Community c) National state d) Polity
34. One of the main functions of Political party is
a) Political evaluation b) Interest aggregation
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 c) Political accountability d) Interest determination
35. The Political party that replaced NNDP before Independence was
a)NYM b)NCNC c) UNDP d)AG
36. The first minority state to be created in the Nigeria federation was
a) Benue-Plateau b) Cross River c) Kwara d) Mid-West
37. The committee that recommended Abuja as the new Federal Capital was headed by a)
Graham Douglas b) Mamman Nasir c) Rotimi Williams d) Akinola Aguda
B) influencing buyers at the International market to buy at high price
c) allowing member countries to produce at their discretion
d) increasing the supply of the commodities.
39. Power is understood to mean the
a) right to compel obedience b) capacity to compel obedience
c) relationship between the government and the people d) desire to seize the State apparatus 40. The
executive arm of government includes the
a) Police b) Court c) National Assembly d) Senate President
41. Laws made by the Attorney-General and Minister of Justice are called
a) temporary laws case laws b) bills of attainder d) expose facto laws
42. Nigeria adopted the nineteen-state structure in
a) 1960 b) 1966 c) 1969 d) 1976
43. The OAU is founded on the principle of
a) settlement of international disputes armed struggles
b) Justifiable interference in the domestic affairs of members state
c) sovereign equality of member states
d) equal contribution by member states
44. One of the achievements of ECO WAS is the
a) eradication of colonialism b) adoption of vehicle insurance scheme
c) settlement of Liberian refugees d) respect for human rights.
45. The most distinguished characteristics of the state is
a) Government b) Population c) Territory d) Sovereign
46. In a democracy, ultimate authority resides in the
a) Electorate b) People c) Head of State d) Armed forces
47. Ceremonial and executive powers are fused in the
a) Parliamentary system of government b) Presidential system of government
c) Federal system of government d) Unitary system of government
48. Nationalism in Nigeria was facilitated by
a) the actions of the veterans of the two World wars and traditional rulers
b) the activities of Christian churches and missionaries
c) education and urbanization
d) rapid economic growth
49. An example of Nigeria‘s external Cultural relations is her
A) establishment of diplomatic relations with other nations
b) economic aid to neighbouring countries
c) exchange of students with friendly nations
d) trade interactions with developing countries
50. A hereditary an oligarchy aristocracy system of government is
a)an oligarch b) a gerontocracy c) an aristocracy d) a monarchy
51. The most important function of the executive organ of government is to
a) formulate policies b) give, assent to bills c) control foreign policy d) enforce law
52. The process of learning the norms and values with a Political system is referred to as Political a)
Socialization b) introduction c) Culture d) Participation
53. One instrument for safeguarding the rights of citizen is
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 a) Judicial interpretation b) Presidential pardon
c) Legislative intervention d) Writ of habeas corpus
54. Naturalization is a process. of acquiring citizenship by
a) persons of dual nationality b) foreign visitors to a country
c) resident foreigners of good chambers d) persons born abroad
55. One of the major sources of a Constitution is
a) Opinion Poll b) Political debate c) Judicial precedence d) Executive order
56. The rule of law is a cardinal principle associated with
a) communist system b) democratic systems c) Federal system d) Federal system
57. Citizenship refers to the
a) indigenous member of a state b) legal status of a member of a state
c) highest position in a state d) Social status of a person in a state
58. Nigeria‘s relations with African countries are underscored by its policy of
a) Non-alignment b) Political diplomacy c) Afro centralism d) peaceful co-existence
59 . The two leaders that played the most prominent roles in the formation of the ECO WAS were a)
Acheampong and. Jawara b) Kounche and Senghor
c) Kerekou and Tubman d) Gowon and Eyadema
60. In the legislative process, a bill is a
a) motion accepted for debate b) motion rejected after debate
c) proposal before the legislature d) law passed by the legislature
61. The fundaments rights of citizen include rights to
a) free education, employment and freedom of thought
b) life, speech and association
c) life, liberty and property
d) association, property and social security
62. Public opinion is a view that is
c) widely publicized d) no longer a secret
a) Kebbi b) Ilorin c) Bida d) Gwandu
64. The equivalent of a commissioner at the local government level is the
a) executive chairman b) Secretary c) Councilor d)Supervisory councilor
65. Which of the following is the function of the Council of Ministers of the O.A.U.?
a) Co-coordinating the general policy of the organization
b) Directing the finances of the organization
c) Preparing the agenda of the organization‘s Meeting
e) Reviewing the functions and activities other organs of the organization
66. The structure of the Civil service is based on
a) Lateral organization b) Merit system c) Patronage system
67. One major factor that differentiates the presidential from the parliamentary system is a)
Separation of powers b) Judicial independence c) Passage of bills d) Party system 68. Centralization
of power is the basic feature of
a) Federalism b) a confederation c) a presidential system d) a unitary government 69. The fees
collected by local governments motor parks represent
a) levies b) fines c) income tax d) user charge
70. In Nigeria, the Council of State was first created by
a) General Murtala Mohammed b) General Olusegun Obasanjo
c) Major-general Aguyi lronsi d) General Yakubu Gowon
71. Which of the following is a founding member of the OPEC?
a) Nigeria b) Indonesia c) Venezuela d) Algeria
72. Government of the wealthy is known as
a) Plutocracy b) Oligarchy c) aristocracy d) democracy
73. The best form of government for a heterogeneous society is a
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 a) quasi federal system b) Confederal system c) federal system d) unitary system 74.
Election as a political process is significant because it
a) is associated with campaigns for public office b) Facilitates the recall process c)
Facilitates constitutional change of government d) enables citizens to vote 75. The military
head of state during the Third Republic was
a) General Olusegun Obasanjo
b) General Ibrahim Babangida
c) General Murtala Mohammed
d) General Sani Abacha.
76. Nigeria‘s relations with Britain were at a low ebb under the
a) Shagari Regime b) Buhari Regime c) Gowon Regime d) Babangida Regime
77. A major problem of the defunct Organization of African Unity was
a) Language barrier b) Cultural diversity c) Inadequate resources d)Ideological differences 78. The
Native Authority system was most effective and successful in
a) Eastern Nigeria b) Northern Nigeria c) Mid Western Nigeria d) Western Nigeria a) westernize
Nigerians b) spread religion
c) protect Nigeria from external attack d) satisfy British economic interests.
80. The body responsible for running the personnel affairs senior local government staff in Nigeria is the a) Local
Government Service Commission b) Local Government Council
c) State Civil Service Commission d) Senior Staff Committee
81. The difference between commercialized and privatized companies is that in the former,
a) public ownership is dominant b) government subsidizes costs
c) profit motive is recessive d) private ownership is dominant.
82. A Security Council resolution requires the concurrence of
a) 1 of the 5 permanent members b) All of the 5 permanents
c) 9 of the 15 permanent members d) 3 of the 5 permanent members.
83. The political party formed in 1923 by Herbert Macaulay was
a) Nigerian Youth Movement b) National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroon c) United
National Independent Party d) Nigerian National Democratic Party 84. The pre-colonial Tiv
society can best be described as
a) Republican b) aristocratic
85. Serfs are the dominated class under
a) capitalism b) socialism c) fascism d) feudalism
86. In the present day local government structure, traditional rulers play,
a) an advisory role b) an executive role c) a judicial role d) a legislative role
87. Judges of the World Court are appointed to serve for
a) five years b) ten years c) four years d) nine years
88. In Nigeria, military regimes returned power to civilians through
a) transition programmes b) constitutional conferences c) impositions d) negotiations 89.
Fascism originated from
a) China b) Greece c) Germany d) Italy
90. The type of government in which an individual wealds absolute power is called a)
autocracy b) theocracy c) oligarchy d) plutocracy
91. One of the greatest advocates of socialism was
a) Baron de Montesquieu b) A. V Dicey c) Karl Max d) Adam Smiths

BIOLOGY
1. The mitochondrion consists of
A. Chemical that break up complex compounds in the cells into simpler compounds B. Rich
store of ribonucleic acid
C, Digestive enzymes and hormones
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 D. Protein phosphorus and
2. In Amoeba, the ectoplasm is bounded by a thin membrane known as the
A; Plasmasol B. Plasmagel C. Plasalemma D. Protoplasm
3. Centipedes are
A. Equally dangerous as millipedes B. Less dangerous than millipedes
C. More dangerous than all D. Not dangerous at all4. Odontophore is a skeletal structure found in the phylum A. Pisces B.
Echinodermata C. Mollusca D. Amphibia
5. Wattle is the name of a structure found in
A. Lizard B. Chameleon C. Cock D. Dogfish
6. One of these is not a feature of the caudal vertebrae in a mammal
A. They possess neural canal
B. Their transverse processes are poorly developed
C. Their neural spines are gradually lost
D. There are not many articular surfaces.
7. The inner ear has two types of coiled structures called cochlea which
A. Receive sound impulses
B. Has sensory tells which carry impulses to the spinal cord
C. Connects to the Eustachian tube
D. Possess cells sensitive to balance
8. Viruses are the smallest known organisms and are divided into two parts the outer part and an inner part.
The outer
parts protein and the inner part is
A. Nucleus B. Vacuole C. Particle D. DNA and RNA
9. The thallus of a lichen consists of
A. A virus and a fungus B. Alga cells and fungal hyphae
C. Bacteria and fungal cells D. Soredium and basisospor
10. The palisade parenchyma is found in the
11. The tomato fruits is a very good example of
A. An aggregate fruit B. A drupe C. A berry D.A multiple fruit
12. Cremation occurs in the Red Blood cell when
A. It is placed in isotonic B. It is placed in hypertonic solution
C, Osmosis is allowed to occur D. Transpiration occurs
13. The capillaries act as filters between
A. The veins B. The arteries C. The venules D The arteries and the veins 14. The
primary openings for gaseous exchange in a plant stem at night are A. Opening in
the cuticles B. Stomata C. Lenticels D. Branches
15. The outer membrane covering the brain known as –
A. Brain ventricle B. Mchnoid C. Pia meter D. Dura meter

BIOLOGY
Pleaseselectas youranswerthecorrectionoption
A. Do not have a definite shape B. Have definite shapes
C. Have cellulose cell walls D. Are very large in size when compared with plant cells 2. The
attachment regions of chromosome is called
A. Chromatid B. Centromere C. Spindle fibre D. Chromonemata
3. In some tapeworm, the fertilized eggs develop into an embryo within a membrane called A.
Onehosphere B. Zygospere C. Zygote D. Plerocerciod
4. In a caterpillar, the last pair of eggs occurs on the last segment and they are called A. Larvae B.
Clutches C. Laspers D. Ovopositor
5. Nuchal crest is a characteristic feature of
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 A. Toad B. Tilapia C. Agama D. Salamander
6. The subcutaneous layer of the mammalian skin contains
A. The outer layer, middle layer and the malphighian layer
B. Sweat duct, sweat glands, erector and hair muscles
C. Sebaceous glands, nerve endings, hair follicles and blood vessels.
D. Nerve fibres, blood vessels, hair follicles and adipose layer
7. The phenomenon whereby oxygenated blood leaves the heart through the left side and returns to the heart in
deoxygenated form through the right is called
A. Circulatory system B. Plan of circulation C. Single circulation D. Double circulation
8. The urine enters into the bladder through the
A. Urethra B. Pelvis C. Bowman‘s capsule D. Ureter
9. Spirogyra cells are enclosed within cell walls that are lined by slimy substanc e called A. Mucus B.
Cytoplasmic strand C. Mucilage D. Chloroplast
10. One of these is not a storage root
A. Carrot B. Onion C. Potato D. Cassava
11. A common example of a caryopsis is
12. The term ‗scion‘ refers to
A. the plant that is firmly attached to the soil
B. The mupper plant that should be united with the plant attached to the ground
C. The wounds created when a plant is grafted
D. The stem into which a bud is sintered
13. Water and mineral salts are absorbed from the soil when
A. Osmosis occurs B. Evapotranspiration occurs C. Photosynthesis occurs D. Wilting occurs 14. In
plants, the water and mineral salts transported from the root hairs are used for A. Osmosis B.
Transpiration C. Photosynthesis D. Homostasia
15. Phototax is a tactic movement which
A. Takes place in response to stimulation of heat
B. Takes place in response to light
C. Takes place because of chemical exchange
D. A movement carried out by the cell cytoplasm

ECONOMICS
1. A mathematical table that gives a relationship among many economic variable is called A. Pie
chart B. Graph C. Frequency table D. pictograph
2. Wants in economics refers to
A. Goods meant for consumption B. Service rendered
C. Goods and serviced desired for consumption D. Products made
3. The main importance of drawing a scale of preference is
A. to enable one make a rational choice B. to enable one to take a good decision
C. to enable one limit his or her need D. None of the above
4. Creation of utility yielding goods and services means
A. production B. Consumption C. Manufacturing D. Extraction
5. if the variance for a set of scores is 7, the standard deviation is
A.6.2 B. 1.6 C. 2.6 D. 3.6
6. Total changing of raw materials to finished goods ready for consumption is
A. Manufacturing B. Transformation C. Extraction D. Distribution
7. The quest to hold balances of cash is called
8. The decentralization of resources allocation to meet the needs of a society is called A. Socialism B.
Mixed economy C. Capitalism D. Dualism
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 9. When elasticity of Demand is above 1, the demand is
A. Elastic B. Inelastic C. Perfectly elastic D. Zero elastic
10. The bank that provides credit by lending of money to the public is
A. World bank B. Central bank C. Mortgage bank D. Commercial bank
11. John has N70 to buy goods X and Y: and each cost N70. He buys X and forgoes Y, the economic concept that adopts
this is
A. Scarcity B. Opportunity cost C. Scale of preference D. Choice
12. The exchange of commodities between Ghana and Nigeria is called
A. Multinational grade B. International trade C. External trade D. Bilateral trade
13. The role of ECOWAS is to attain
A. Multilateral trade B. Bilateral trade C. Economics elf reliance D. Regional free trade
14 The banker‘s bank is KKKK
A. Central bank B. Mortgage bank C. Commercial bank D. World bank
15. Prices of commodities are regulated by
A. Demand B. Supply C. Demand and Supply D. Advisement

GOVERNMENT
1. The adjudication of rule is the major responsible of the
A. Legislative B. Judiciary C. Executive D. National assembly 2. Which
of these countries possesses an unwritten constitution?
A. France B. Great Britain C. United State of America D. Federal Republic of Germany
3. The power of emergency placed on the Federal Government in the independence constitution was first practical in
the
A. Eastern region B. Western region C. Mid-western region D. Northern region
4. The anonymity principle of Civil service workers means that they are
A. Entitled to gratuity and pension B. Career officer
C. No credited for anything they do D. Trained for duties they perform
5. The meeting of commonwealth heads if state was hosted by Nigeria in
A. 1967 B. 1966 C. 1957 D.1968
6. Capitalism supports
A. Ownership of the means of production by private individual
B. Anarchy
C. A centrally planning economic system
D. Public ownership of means of production
7. A unitary system of government is characterized by
A. weak parliament B. diffused political power
C. high level of concentration of power D. No legislature
8. A government that has a fusion of executive and ceremonial power is
A. Parliamentary B. Presidential C. Unitary D. Oligarchy
9. The respect of individual rights and industrial revolution necessitated the development of
A. Fascism B. Capitalism C. Socialism D. Feudalism
10. Parliament can only be dissolved by
A. Referendum B. Bye election C. Plebiscite D. General election
11. The day set aside for United nation Celebration is
A. September 17 B. August 10 C. May 5 D. October 24.
12. A common provision in the 1963 and 1979 constitution was the
A. provision for bicameral legislation at the apex B. Political parties registration C. indirect
funding of local government by the federal D. none of the above

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 13. The 1976 local government reform in Nigeria resulted in
A. Five-ties system of local government B. one-ties local government system
C. three-ties local government system D. six-tier local government system
14. Public or corporation are financed by
A. individual funds B. tax payer C. federal fund D. political parties
15. The duration of the appointment of the secretary-general united nation organization is A. 3 year
B. 4 years C. 5 years D. 7 years

CHRISTIANRELIGIOUSKNOWLEDGE(C.R.K)
1. God‘s creative strength was shown by his
A. approving that a thing be done B. making a command prefaced by ―there be‖ C.
ordering the holy spirit to act D. allowing created things to evolve naturally 2. Which of
these did not form part of Asa‘s religious reform in Judah?
A. termination of male cult prostitution in the land
B. Demolition of all the idols his father made
C. Cutting down of the image made by maacah for Asherah D.
Destruction of high places
3. Paul was grateful to God whenever be remembered Philemon in his prayer because of Philemon‘s A. Determination
not to forgive Philemon B. Love for and faith in Jesus
C. lack of appreciation of the value of onesimus to him D. pretended goodness
4. Which of the following officials were charged by pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male children
A. Egyptian physician B. Egyptian taskmasters C. Hebrew midwives D. Egyptian soldiers
5. Jesus decided to send the multitude to buy food for themselves when it was already getting late because A. he
wanted to reveal his messiahship
B. he knew that his words were of greater value than food
D. he know that the little food available would satisfy them.
6. Naaman the Syrian leper was healed by
A. Amos B. Hosea C. Elisha D. Elija
7. This is my beloved son, listen to him this statement as made on
A. Baptism of Jesus B. Transfiguration
C. triumphant entry into Jerusalem D. Ascension of Jesus
8. Jonah cried to God from the bowel of Sheol here implies to
A. region of darkness B. tempestuous sea C. deep sea D. belly of fish
9. The second account of creation was centered on the creation
A. Birds B. heavens C. man D. plants
10. All the tribes of Israel was gathered by Joshua for his address of farewell at A. Sinai
B. Bethel C. Jordan D. Shechem
11. Moses experienced the burning bush at
A. Horeb B. Bethel C. Nebo D. Midian
12. Hosea called on Israel to return to the lord by
A. Allying with Assyria B. Steadfastly loving God
C. Ensuring regular sacrifices D. Following the ways of their things
13. My father if it is possible, let this cup pass from me. The ―cup‖ here means
A. Baptism B. Temptation C. Death D. Loneliness
14. The reaction of the elder brother when the prodigal son returned illustrated the behaviour of the A.
Herodians B. Pharisees C. Saducees D. Zealots
15. God created man to have dominion over all things. Dominion here means

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 A. Mastership B. Control C. Manage D. Leadership

BIOLOGY

21. Encystment in Amoeba is a device to

A. Reproduce B. conserve energy
C. protect itself from enemies D. tide over unfavourable seasons 22.
Which of the following is a typical feature of a mould?
A. It ingests its food B. digestion is external C. it is symbiotic 23.
Which of the following is not true of bacteria they are all A. harmful
B. Amoeboid C. saprophytic D. parasitic
24. which of these is absent from a wind pollinated plant?
A. feathery stigma B. Inflorescence C. production of nectar D. abundant pollen 25. The
whole of a flower are bone directly on the
A. peduncle B. pedicel C. receptacle D. Bracts
26. Which of the following sets of conditions is suitable for germination?
A. water. Light, warmth B. oxygen; mineral salts, light C.
oxygen, right, moisture D. oxygen, warmth, water 27. Which of
the following explains epigeal germination?
A. Hypocotyls is formed B. Cotyledon come above soil surface
C. Cotyledons remain in the soil D. plumule pierce through the soil
28. Which of those may not be propagated vegetatively from part of the plant?
A. Onion B. Maize C. Cassava D. sugarcane29. Dead plant and animal tissue do not accumulate on the
earth‘s surface because they
A. are eaten by predators B. are washed away
C. decompose to form other substances D. sink into deeper layers of the soil A. adrenal
body productions of adrenalin B. kidney production of urea C. Mammary gland
production of milk D. pancreas production of insulin

ECONOMIcs

1. A major liability of a commercial bank arise from

(A) customer‘s deposits (B) loans and advances (C)overdrafts (D) staff allowances
2. Retailers in an economy perform the function of
(A) production (B) exchange (C) distribution (D) investment
3. In a sole proprietorships the decision are made by the
(A)government (B) board of directors (C)owner (D)shareholders conference
4. The meaning of wage-price spiral is
(A)demand pull and cost push inflation pulling each other in different
(B) demand pull and cost push intensifying each other
(C) that wages and price are rising at a proportional rate
(D) that demand pull and cost push inflation increase employment
5. Which of the following enterprise does not pursue the sole objective of profit maximization (A) roads
Nig Ltd (B) Union bank of Nigeria Ltd
(C) power holding & company of Nigeria (D) Kingsway Nigeria Ltd.
6. Palm oil industry is located in Edo state because the state
(A)imports raw material for oil industry

63 | P a g e
 (B) is a palm tree growing area
(C) government does not engage land for other crops
(D) land is suitable for oil
7. Disequilibrium in the balance of payments means
(A) imports of the country exceeding its export
(B) deficit in the trade balance
(C) capital flowing out of the country exceeds the capital flowing into the country
(D) overall deficit or surplus in the current account and capital account of the balance of payment.
8. Full employment is a situation in which
(A) every adult is employed
(B) all adult who can work are employed
(C) only the disable are not employed
(D) all those who are able and eligible to work can find employment
9. PHCN as a public corporation is
(A) duopoly (B) a power-generating industry in Nigeria
(C) a monopoly (D) a monopolistically competitive industry
10. Demand for a factor of production is
(A) a composite demand (B) a joint demand (C) a derived demand(D) an elasticity demand 11.
Differential product is the characteristic feature of
(A) perfect competition (B) pure competition(C) monopoly (D) monopolistic competition 12. The
channel for food distribution in Nigeria consists of
(A) producers wholesalers and retailers (B) producers and consumers
(C)producers and processor (D) farmers processors and consumers
13. One disadvantage of sole proprietorships is its
(A) limited liability (B) high profits (C) high sense of ownership (D) low credit rating .
14. For two substitute goods, the cross elasticity of demand is (A) greater than one but less than two(B) zero (C) negative
(D) positive
15. An imperfectly competitive market is one where
(A) a large number of firms sell homogenous product
(B) input and output prices are unaffected
(C) commodities are differentiated
(D) each firm maximizes profit by selecting an out put level at which marginal cost equal mark price land is suitable for
oil.
16. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the size of economically active population (A) age
structure (B) occupation of workers
(C) proportion of men to women (D) efficiency of labour force.
17. The economic goal of public utilities is to
(A) maximize profit (B) expand assets(C) minimize cost(D) provide essential services 18. The most
important characteristic of money is
(A) portability (B) intrinsic value(C) acceptability (D) usefulness
19. Which of the following is not a feature of economic under development of a country?
(A) large number of hg income earners relative to the population
(B) high annual income for the few
(C) high incidence of poverty
(D) high infant mortality rate
20. Given the present state of the Nigerian economy which of the following measurers will promote a more rapid
economic
development
(A) complete dependence on oil exports
(B) concentration on agricultural exports

64 | P a g e
 (C) diversification of the economy
(D)introduction of nuclear energy in Nigeria
21. The following except ONE, are the differences between international trade and internal trade.
(A)differences in currency (B) government control
(C) mobility of factors of production (D) exchange of goods and services
22. The central bank instrument of control does NOT include
(A) open market operations (B) moral suction (C) selective credit control (D) printing banknotes
23. The basic principle of co-operative societies are those of
(A) workers ownership and worker control (B) sole proprietorship
(C) partnership (D) denying of credit facilities to members
24. Generally property taxes
(A) are borne entirely by landlords (B) cannot be shifted in the long run
(C) are borne only by renters (D) are born by all (renter, owner-occupiers and landlords)
25. The population level that yields the maximum output when combined with available resources is known as
(A)dependent population (B) maximum population(C) active population(D) optimum population

ECONOMICS

1. Which of the following is likely to be inflationary?

A. Tax increase B. Increase in unemployment
C. Budget surplus D. Wage increase
2. Industries that can be randomly located are characterized by
A. Relatively low transport cost for both raw materials and output and factor mobility. B.
Relatively heavy transport cost for raw materials or output.
C. Constant returns to scale
D. Significant economy of scale.
3. Full employment is a situation in which
A. Every adult is employed
B. All adults who can work are employed
C. All those who are able and eligible to work can find employment D. Only
the disabled are not employed.
4. The axiom, cannon laws of taxation is attributable to
A. Prof. Lionel Robinson B. Adams Smith
C. Prof. Paul Samuelson D. Prof. Irving Fisher
5. Taxes which are levied on a person‘s expenditure are known as
A. Purchase tax B. Sales tax C. Direct tax D. Poll tax
6. In a flee market economy, the rationing of scarce goods is done principally by A, Price mechanism B. Consumers
C. The government D. A and B.
7. Given the table above, what is the firm‘s short-run profit-maximizing output?
8. Developments outside a given firm which reduce20 the firm costs are called A. Internal
economics B. External economics C. External economic
D. Eternal; diseconomies E. Optimum effects
9. A production possibility curve shows
A. How much of the resources of society are used to produce a particular commodity B. The
rate of unemployment in the economy
C. The various combinations of two commodities that can be produced
D. The rate of inflation

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 10. Given that the cash reserve ratio is 10% what is the maximum amount of money that the banking system can create
from an initial cash deposit of#l,000,00?
A. #100.00 B. #1,000.00 C. #000.00 D. #10,000.00
11. For normal goods the income elasticity of demand is
A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Infinite
12. Let Px represent the price of exports and Pm the prince of imports. Then, the tents of trade (TOT) are said to be
favourable if
A. Px>l
Pm
B. Px=1
Pm
C. O<Px<1
D. Px< I
Pm
13. The basic principles of co-operation societies are those of
A. Active participation of capitalists in the affairs of co-operative societies
B. Worker ownership and worker control
C. Sale proprietorship
D. Partnership
14. Under perfect competition, the long-tern equilibrium requires
A. Mr=MC B, MR=AC=AR C. MR>MC D. MR‘MCARAC
15. The argument of tariff protection in less developed economics is that such measure would.
A. Raise the price of goods affected abroad
B. Help reduce excess capacity in domestic industry
C. Protect infant-industries from ruinous competition from abroad D.
Stifle private investment initiatives
16. Mobility of labour is NOT affected by
A. Marriage B. Regulation of trade union
C. Period of training D. Optimum size of population
17. What is the degree that peas occupy on the pie chart?
A. 144° B. 0.72% C. 72%
18. An imperfect market in which there is only one buyer of a commodity is
A. Duopoly B. Monophony C. Oligopoly D. Monopoly
19. The major reason for the survival of small shops despite competition from large business enterprise is because of
A. The small capital outlay involved
B. Regularly and constant supply of commodities by them
C. Their local services and longer hours of operation
D. Their level of managerial competence
20. A sustained increase in the per capital income of a country over a period of time is called
A. Economic growth B. Economic development C. Structural change D. Stagflation
21. To facilitate the exportation of crude oil from Nigeria, special
A. Airstrips were constructed for jets to evacuate the oil
B. Roads were built to connect the major oil well to the ports
C. Pipelines were laid to connect the major
D. Railways lines were constructed to connect the major oil wells to the ports
22. The major reason why nations engage in international trade is that
A. It allows free movement of factors of production
B. It makes possible the u se of capital intensive method of production

66 | P a g e
 C. It affords the trading nations the opportunity to earn high profit
D. Nations are substantially different in their endowments of economic resources.
23. If the country‘s GNP in the current year is #65billion and the GNP in the base year is #50billion the GNP
deflator is
A. 130.0 B. 30.0 C. 15.0 D.1.3
24. Some of the key indicates of under development in a country are
A. Poverty, high level of literacy and low income
B. Poverty, low level of literacy and low income
C. Low level of illiteracy, low income and povertyD. Poverty, low income and low unemployment level.
25. In a free market system, trading can only take place when the
A. Market is not working efficiently B. Equilibrium price is attained
C. Price of a commodity tends to attract consumers D. Consumer sovereignty is lacking

ECONOMICS
1. A major liability of a commercial bank arise from
(A) Customer‘s deposits (B) loans and advances (C)overdrafts (D) staff allowances
2. Retailers in an economy perform the function of
(A) Production (B) exchange (C) distribution (D) investment
3. In a sole proprietorships the decision are made by the
(A) government (B) board of directors (C)owner (D)shareholders conference
4. The meaning of wage-price spiral is
(A) demand pull and cost push inflation pulling each other in different
(B) demand pull and cost push intensifying each other
(C) that wages and price are rising at a proportional rate
(D) that demand pull and cost push inflation increase employment
5. Which of the following enterprise does not pursue the sole objective of profit maximization?
(A) roads Nig Ltd (B) Union bank of Nigeria Ltd
(C) power holding & company of Nigeria (D) Kingsway Nigeria Ltd.
6. Palm oil industry is located in Edo state because the state
(A)imports raw material for oil industry
(B) is a palm tree growing area
(C) government does not engage land for other crops
(D) land is suitable for oil
7. Disequilibrium in the balance of payments means
(A) imports of the country exceeding its export
(B) deficit in the trade balance
(C) capital flowing out of the country exceeds the capital flowing into the country
(D) overall deficit or surplus in the current account and capital account of the balance of payment.
8. Full employment is a situation in which
(A) every adult is employed
(B) all adult who can work are employed
(C) only the disable are not employed
(D) all those who are able and eligible to work can find employment
9. PHCN as a public corporation is
(A) duopoly (B) a power-generating industry in Nigeria
(C) a monopoly (D) a monopolistically competitive industry
10. Demand for a factor of production is
(A) a composite demand (B) a joint demand (C) a derived demand(D) an elasticity demand 11.
Differential product is the characteristic feature of
(A) perfect competition (B) pure competition(C) monopoly (D) monopolistic competition 12. The
channel for food distribution in Nigeria consists of

67 | P a g e
 (A) producers wholesalers and retailers (B) producers and consumers
(C)producers and processor (D) farmers processors and consumers
13. One disadvantage of sole proprietorships is its
(A) limited liability (B) high profits (C) high sense of ownership (D) low credit rating .
14. For two substitute goods, the cross elasticity of demand is
(A) greater than one but less than two(B) zero (C) negative (D) positive
15. An imperfectly competitive market is one where
(A) a large number of firms sell homogenous product
(B) input and output prices are unaffected
(C) commodities are differentiated
(D) each firm maximizes profit by selecting an out put level at which marginal cost equal mark price land is suitable for
oil.
16. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the size of economically active population (A) age
structure (B) occupation of workers
(C) proportion of men to women (D) efficiency of labour force.
17. The economic goal of public utilities is to
(A) maximize profit (B) expand assets(C) minimize cost(D) provide essential services 18. The most
important characteristic of money is
(A) portability (B) intrinsic value(C) acceptability (D) usefulness
19. Which of the following is not a feature of economic under development of a country?
(A) large number of hg income earners relative to the population
(B) high annual income for the few
(C) high incidence of poverty
(D) high infant mortality rate20. Given the present state of the Nigerian economy which of the following measurers
will promote a more rapid economic
development
(A) complete dependence on oil exports
(B) concentration on agricultural exports
(C) diversification of the economy
(D)introduction of nuclear energy in Nigeria
21. The following except ONE, are the differences between international trade and internal trade.
(A)differences in currency (B) government control
(C) mobility of factors of production (D) exchange of goods and services
22. The central bank instrument of control does NOT include
(A) open market operations (B) moral suction (C) selective credit control (D) printing banknotes
23. The basic principle of co-operative societies are those of
(A) workers ownership and worker control (B) sole proprietorship
(C) partnership (D) denying of credit facilities to members
24. Generally property taxes
(A) are borne entirely by landlords (B) cannot be shifted in the long run
(C) are borne only by renters (D) are born by all (renter, owner-occupiers and landlords)
25. The population level that yields the maximum output when combined with available resources is known as
(A)dependent population (B) maximum population(C) active population(D) optimum population

GOVERNMENT 2005

6. Representative democracy is best characteristic by

(A) free elections and proper registers of voters
(B) a politically educated electorate
68 | P a g e
 (C) rule by the interest group
(D) proper constituencies and a real choice of candidates
7. While political partial parties aim at forming a government pressure groups aim at (A)
causing social unrest (B) influencing governmental decisions
(C) controlling nation‘s economy (D) getting workers to unite
8. When the electorate vote for representatives who is turn vote on their behalf we say it is (A) an
indirect election(B) an unfair election (C) a disputed election (D) a rigged electron 9. An election
which is conducted to fill a vacant seat in a legislature is called a
(A) by election (B) general election (C) referendum (D) plebiscite
10. Which of these countries does NOT operate a federal constitution
(A)USA (B) Nigeria (C) Canada (D) France
11. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that
(A) it is faster than other systems
(B) nobody can be prevented from voting
(C) it ensures the anonymity of each voter
(D) losers can ask for another secret voter
12. In a one party state
(A) there are no free citizens
(B) the communist party is the only legal party
(C) the ruling party is the only legal party
(D) elections to be legislature are held at the party‘s conferences
13. A cabinet system of government is practiced in
(A) Britain and Canada (B) the soviet union
(C) all European Countries including Britain (D) the United State of America 14. A
proclamation by the head of state ending a session of parliament is called (A) a
dissolution (B) an adjournment (C) a prorogation (D) a devolution 15. The constitution of
the federal republic of Nigeria
(A) promotes unity of diversity
(B) allows for the dominance of the minority ethnic groups
(C) concentrates governmental power at on one level of government
(D) ensures the dominance of one political party.
16. The transfer of authority to local government council is known as
(A) delegation (B) fusion (C) fragmentation
(D) devolution
17. The principle of anonymity of civil servants means that they
(A) are not the servant of a particular government(B) are trained for the duties they perform(C) are credited or blamed
for any thing they do (D) have a career
18. The six registered political parties in Nigeria in 1982 were
(A) UPN, NPN, PPA, PPP, NPP, and NAP
(B) UPN, GNPP, NAP, PRP, NPP, NPN,
(C) NPN, UPN, NPP, PRP, PPP NNDP,
(D) NPC, GNPP, PRP, UPN, NPP and PPA
19. Which of the following is NOT a pressure group in Nigeria
(A) farmers (B) the Nigerian union of teachers (NUT)(C) Nigeria medical associate (NMA) (D) academic staff union of
university (ASUU)
20. The N.C.N.C sent a delegation to London in 1947 to protest against the
(A) burns constitution
(B) Richards constitution
(C) Littleton constitution

69 | P a g e
 (D) Macpherson constitution
21. A popular principle of colonial administration in British west Africa was (A) association
(B) indirect rule (C) paternalism
(D) assimilation
22. The first governor-general of colonial Nigeria was
(A) sir, Hugh Clifford(B) sir James Robertson (C) lord Lugard(D) sir Ralph moore.
23. The first military government in Nigeria was headed by (A)
General Yakubu Gowon, (B) General Agunyi Ironsi (C) General
M. Mohammed (D) General O. Obasanjo.
24. The first general election in Nigeria was hold in
(A) 1933 (B) 1952 (C) 1955 (D) 1959
25. The supreme organ of the U.N O is the
(A) general assembly (B) secretary general (C) world court (D) world bank
ANSWERS
1D 2B 3A 4C 5D 6A 7B 8A 9A 10D
11C 12C 13A 14A 15A 16A 17C 18B 19A 20B
21B 22C 23B 24D 25A

GOVERNMENT
1. Which of the following countries does not operate a federal constitution (A).U.S.A (b).Canada (c).Nigeria (d).France
(e).Switzerland.
2. The transfers of authority to local government council is known as (A).Demarcation (b). Delegation (c) fusion
(d). Fragmentation
(e) Devolution.
3. A popular principle of colonial administration in British West Africa was (A).Association (b).indirect rule (c)
paternalism (d).westernization (e) assimilation.
4. The first Governor- General of colonial Nigeria was?
(A). Sir Hugh Clifford b). Sir James Roberson (c). Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (d).Sir. Ralph Moore (e). Lord Lugard.
5. Lagos became a Crown Colony in (A).1900 (b).1914 (c).1886 (d). 1881. (E). 1862
6. The first general election in Nigeria was held in (A).1933 (b).1952 (c).1955 (d).1959 (e).1964 7. Asocial system
in which power derives form control over land is called (A).Oligarchy (b).feudalism (c) socialism (d). Presidential
8. Per- colonial Igbo society was (A).centralized (b).Cephalous (c) feudal (d). Capitalist
9. When did Nigeria adopt the nineteen- state structure?
(A). powerful (b). Legitimate (c). Authoritative (d). Sovereign.
10. When a state is subject to no other authority, it is said be (A).
Powerful (b.)Legitimate (c).Authoritative (d). Sovereign.
Choose the best answer to each questions from the options below (1)
Under perfect competition, long run equilibrium requires.
(A) R=MC (B)MR=AR (C) MR = MC=AR-AC (D) MR=AC
(2) A Government bond is a form of debt which falls due for repayment after (A) 6 Months (B)
9 months (C) 2 years (D) 5 years
(3) How many National Development plans did Nigeria have between 1960 and 1984 (A) One
(B) Two (C) Four (D) Six
(4) When total revenue is at maximum, marginal revenue is
(A) Constant (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Positive
(5) If person receives a higher wage than would be necessary for him, he is said to be
70 | P a g e
 Receiving.
(A) Profit. (B) Rent (C) Interest (D) excess income

GOVERNMENT 2006

(1) Which of the ‗following countries does not operate a federal constitution
(A)U.S.A (B) Canada (C) Nigeria (D) France
(2) The transfers of authority to local government council is known as (A)
Demarcation (B) Delegation (C) Fusion (D) devolution
(3) A popular principle of colonial administration of British West Africa was (A)
Association (B) Indirect Rule (C) Paternalism (D) Westernization. (4) The first
Government-General of colonial Nigeria was?
(A) Sir Hugh Clifford (B) Sir James Robertson (C) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (D) Sir.
Ralph Moore (E) Lord Lugard.
(5) Lagos became a crown colony in
(A) 1900 (B) 1914 (C) 1886 (D)l881 (E) 1862

GOVERNMENT 2007

1. Government by Che few is

a) Dictatorship b) Monarchy c) Oligarchy d) Autocracy
2. The primary function of the Judiciary is to
a) make laws b) protect the citizens c) interpret laws d) execute laws 3. A
characteristic feature of communism is
a) free enterprise b) liberal democracy c) dictatorship d)multi-party system 4. A tax
law is a
a) Private bill b) Speaker‘s bill c) Public bill d) Judicial bill
5. Nigeria is member of
a) OPEC, NATO and ECO WAS b) O.A.U, the U.N.O and ECOWAS
c) ECOWAS, NATO and O.A.U d) The Commonwealth of Nations, OPEC and the OA.S
6. A country made up of semi-autonomous units is
a) a confederation b) a federation c) region d) unitary
7. Unicameralism refers to
a) a two-chamber legislature b)the process of secret voting in the legislature
c)the lower chamber in a legislature d) a one- chamber legislature
8. An important function of the legislature is
a) Judicial review b) review of executive policies and action
c) lobbying d) defending government policies
9. Fascism is a system of government which
a) encourages political dissent and opposition b) represses individual freedom and opposition c)
promotes equality d) promotes the individual brotherhood of man
10. The 1963 Constitution of Nigeria was
a) written and flexible b) written and rigid c) flexible and unwritten d) unitary and rigid 11. The main
source of Local government finance since the 1976 Reform has been
a) local rate b) levies c) revenue from court fines and licenses d) the Federal government 12. Sovereignty
is limited by
a) the criminal code b) decrees c) the legal system d) International laws
13. Marxism is directed against

71 | P a g e
 a) state ownership of the means of production b) Materialism
c) The proletariat d) Socialism
14. The rule of law implies that
a) judges interprets the law b) lawyers interpret the law
c) everyone is subject to the law d) the legislature makes the law
15. Freedom of speech in a democratic state is limited by
a) law of sedition b) law of trespass c) Press censorship d) Martial law
16. Liberalism is a philosophy underlying
a) Socialism b) Capitalism c) Feudalism d) Nazism
17. In international relations, countries have a right to
a) export Oil b) create more states
c) diplomatic immunity of their envoys d) own a police force
18. Political authority is normally vested in the
a) State b) Judiciary c) Government d) Armed force
19. Case-law are made by the
a) Legislature b) Council of ministers c) Judiciary d) President
20. Bicameral legislatures are popular in
(a) Unitary system (b) Federal system (c) Con-federal system (d) Rigid system
21. A flexible constitution is one that is
a) amended periodically b) easy to amend c) amendable with difficultyd) easy to interpret 22. Which
of the following is NOT associated with local government elections?
a) Constituency b) Ballot box c) Electoral officer d) Ward
23. The fusion of the executive and legislative organs of government is associated with a) Monarchy b)
The presidential system c) Fascism d) The parliamentary system
24. The most important objective of political parties is to
a) Elect their spokesman b) Lobby he government
c) Form effective national organizations d) Control the government
25. The primary function of a pressure group is to
a) Win and control governmental power b) Elect their official
c) Influence government policy d) Organize workers to confront government
26. The Yoruba traditional government system was
a) Egalitarian b) Republican c) Democratic d) Monarchical
27. The highest court in Nigeria before 1963 was the
a) Supreme Court b) High Court c) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council d)Court of Appeal 28.
Political authority refers to the
a) ability to effect political action
b) capacity to produce desired political results
c) capacity to reshape the political behaviour of citizen
d) recognized right to exercise political power.
29. The Civil service belong to the organ of government called the
a) Legislature b) Executive c) Judiciary d) Parastatals
30. ` Gerrymandering means
a) the second ballot system b) single transferable vote
c) the manipulation of constituency boundaries d) the tyranny of the majority 31. In
Nigeria, the function of the Council of States is
a) Judiciary b) Investigative c) Legislative d) Advisory
32. To highest policy making body of the O,A.U is the
a) Economic and Social Commission b) Council of Minister
c) General Secretariat d) Assembly of Heads of State and Government 33. A society
that is politically organized under a government is called a a) Sovereign state b)
Community c) National state d) Polity

72 | P a g e
 34. One of the main functions of Political party is
a) Political evaluation b) Interest aggregation
c) Political accountability d) Interest determination
35. The Political party that replaced NNDP before Independence was)
a)NYM b) NCNC c) UNDP d) AG
36. The first minority state to be created in the Nigeria federation was
a) Benue-Plateau b) Cross River c) Kwara d) Mid-West
37. The committee that recommended Abuja as the new Federal Capital was headed by a)
Graham Douglas b) Mamman Nasir c) Rotimi Williams d) Akinola Aguda
38. The major strategy used by OPEC to influence Oil price is by
a) determining the quantity of Oil to be produced at any given period
b) influencing buyers at the International market to buy at high price
c ) allowing member countries to produce at their discretion
d) increasing the supply of the commodities.
39. Power is understood to mean the
a) right to compel obedience
b) capacity to compel obedience
c) relationship between the government and the people
d) desire to seize the State apparatus
40. The executive arm of government includes the
a) Police b) Court c) National Assembly d) Senate President
41. Laws made by the Attorney-General and Minister of Justice are called a)
temporary laws b) bills of attainder c) case laws d) ex post facto laws 42. Nigeria
adopted the nineteen-state structure in
a) 1960 b) 1966 c) 1969 d) 1976
43. The OAU is founded on the principle of
a) settlement of international disputes by armed struggles
b) Justifiable interference in the domestic affairs of members state
c) sovereign equality of member states
d) equal contribution by member states
44. One of the achievements of ECOWAS is the
a)eradication of colonialism b)adoption of vehicle insurance scheme c)settlement
of Liberian refugees d)respect for human rights.
45. The most distinguished characteristics of the state is
a) Government b) Population c) Territory d) Sovereign
46. In a democracy, ultimate authority resides in the
a) Electorate c) Head of State b) People d) Armed forces
47. Ceremonial and executive powers are fused in the
a) Parliamentary system of government b) Presidential system of government c) Federal
system of government d) Unitary system of government
57. Citizenship refers to the
a) indigenous member of a state b) legal status of a member of a state
c) highest position in a state d) Social status of a person in a state
58. Nigeria‘s relations with African countries are underscored by its policy of
a) Non-alignment b) Political diplomacy c) Afro centralism d) peaceful co-existence
59. The two leaders that played the most prominent roles in the formation of the ECOWAS were a)
Acheampong and Jawara b) Kounche and Senghor
c) Kerekou and Tubman d) Gowon and Eyadema
60. In the legislative process, a bill is a
a) motion accepted for debate b) motion rejected after debate
c) proposal before the legislature d) law passed by the legislature

73 | P a g e
 61. The fundaments rights of citizen include rights to
a) free education, employment and freedom of thought
b) life, speech and association
c) life, liberty and property
d) association, property and social security
62. Public opinion is a view that is
a) held by the majority b) active in the public realm
c) widely publicized d) no longer a secret
63. The Western zone of the Sokoto caliphate was administered from
a) Kebbi b) Ilorin c) Bida d) Gwandu
64. The equivalent of a commissioner at the local government level is the
a) executive chairman b) Secretary c) Councilor d) Supervisory councilor
65. Which of the follow.ing is the function of the Council of Ministers of the O.A.U.?
a) Co-coordinating the general policy of the Organization
b) Directing the finances of the organization
c) Preparing the agenda of the organization‘s meeting
d) Reviewing the functions and activities of other organs of the organization
66. The structure of the Civil service is based on
a) Lateral organization b) Merit system
c) Patronage system d) Hierarchical organization
67. One major factor that differentiates presidential from the parliamentary system is a)
Separation of powers b) Judicial independence
c) Passage of bills d) Party system
68. Centralization of power is the basic feature of
a) Federalism b) a confederation c) a presidential system d) a unitary government 69. The fees
collected by local governments at motor parks represent
a) levies b) fines c) income tax d) user charge
70. In Nigeria, the Council of State was first created by
a) General Murtala Mohammed b) General Olusegun Obasanjo
c) Major-general Agunyi Ironsi d) General Yakubu Gowon
71. Which of the following is a founding member of the OPEC?
a) Nigeria b) Indonesia c) Venezuela d) Algeria
72. Government of the wealthy is known as
a) Plutocracy b) Oligarch c) aristocracy d) democracy
73. The best form of government
heterogeneous society is a
a) quasi federal system b) federal system c) Confederal system d) unitary system 74.
Election as a political process is significant because it
a) is associated with campaigns for public office b) Facilitates the recall process c)
Facilitates constitutional change of government d) enables citizens to vote 75. The military
head of state during the Third Republic was
a) General Olusegun Obasanjo b) General Ibrahim Babangida
c) General Murtala Mohammed d) General Sani Abacha
76. Nigeria‘s relations with Britain were at a low ebb under the
a) Shagari Regime b) Buhari Regime c) Gowon Regime d) Babangida Regime 77. A major
problem of the defunct Organization of African Unity was
a) Language barrier b) Inadequate resources
c) Cultural diversity d) Ideological differences
78. The Native Authority system was most effective and successful in
a) Eastern Nigeria b) Northern Nigeria c) Mid Western Nigeria d) Western Nigeria

74 | P a g e
 79. The major motivation for British colonization of Nigeria was to
a) westernize Nigerians b)spread religion
c) protect Nigeria from external attack d) satisfy British economic interests.
80. The body responsible for running the personnel affairs senior local government staff in Nigeria is
(a) Local Government Service Commission (b) Local Government Council
(c) State Civil Service Commission (d) Senior Staff Committee
81. The difference between commercialized and privatized companies is that in the former, a) public
ownership is dominant b) government subsidizes costs
c) profit motive is recessive d) private ownership is dominant
82. A Security Council resolution requires the concurrence of
a) 1 of he 5 permanent members b) All of the5 permanents
c) 9 of the 15 permanent members d) 3 of the 5 permanent members.
83. The political party formed in 1923 by Herbert Macaulay was
a) Nigerian Youth Movement b) National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroon c) United
National Independent Party d) Nigerian National Democratic Party 84. The pre-colonial Tiv
society can best be described as
a) Republican b) aristocratic c) Feudalistic d) monarchical
85. Serfs are the dominated class under
a) capitalism b) socialism c) fasci d) feudalism
86. In the present day local government structure, traditional rulers play,
a) an advisory role b) an executive role c) a judicial role d) a legislative role
87. Judges of the World Court are appointed to serve for
a) five years b) ten years c) four year d) nine years
88. In Nigeria, military regimes returned power to civilians through
a) transition programmes b) constitutional conferences c) impositions d) negotiations 89.
Fascism originated from
a) China b) Greece c) Germany d) Italy
90. The type of government in which an individual wealds absolute power is called a)
autocracy b) theocracy c) oligarchy d) plutocracy
91. One of the greatest advocates of socialism was
a) Baron de Montesquieu b) A. V Dicey c) Karl Max d) Adam Smiths

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (C.R.K)

1. God‘s creative strength was shown by his
a) approving that a thing be done b) making a command prefaced by ―there be‘ c)
ordering the holy spirit to act d) allowing created things to evolve naturally.
2. which of these did not form part of Asa‘s religious reform in Judah?
a) termination of male cult prostitution in the land,
b) Demolition of all the idols his father made
c) Cutting down of the image made by maacah for Asherah
d) Destruction of high places
3. Paul was grateful to God whenever he remembered Philemon in his prayer because of Philemon‘s.
a) Determination not to forgive Philemon b) Love for, and faith in Jesus
c) Lack of appreciation of Onesimus to him d) Pretended goodness
4. which of the following officials were charged by pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male children
a) Egyptian physician b) Egyptian taskmasters c) Hebrew midwives d) Egyptian soldiers
5. Jesus decided to send the multitude to buy food for themselves when it was already getting late because a) He
wanted to reveal his messiah ship
b) He knew that his words were of greater value than food
c) The multitude was unwilling to go home

75 | P a g e
 d) He know that the little food available would satisfy them.
6. Naaman the Syrian leper was healed by
a) Amos b) Hosea c) Elisha d) Elijah
7. This is my beloved son, listen to him this statement as made on
A) Baptism of Jesus b) Transfiguration
c) Triumphant entry into Jerusalem d)Ascension of Jesus
8. Jonah cried to God from the bowel of shem Sheol here implies to
a) region of darkness and death b) Tempestuous sea c) deep sea d) belly offish 9. The
second account of creation was centers on the creation
a) birds b) heavens c) Deep d) plants
10. All the tribes of Israel was gathered by Joshua for his address of farewell at a) Sinai
b) bethel c) Jordan d) shechem
11. Moses experienced the burning bush at
a) Horeb b) Bethel c) Nebo d) Midian
12. Hosea called on Israel to return to the lord by
a) Allying with Assyria b) Steadfastly loving God
c) Ensuring regular sacrifices d) following the ways of their things
13. My father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me. The ―cup‖ here means
a) Baptism b) Temptation c) Death d) Loneliness
14. The reaction of the elder brother when the prodigal son returned illustrated the behaviour of the a) Herodians
b) Pharisees c) Saducees d) Zealots
15. God created man to have dominion things. Dominion here means:
a) Mastership b) control c) manage.

LECTURE NOTE ON POST UME SYLLABUS

COMMUNISM
Definition: Communism may be defined as an economic system and a system of government in which the means of
production and distribution are totally controlled by the state (government). Communism is the highest stage of
socialism. Individual ownership of property is completely abolished in a communist state. The state owns everything
and the resources are distributed to the citizens according to their needs and ability. The theory and principles of
communism enunciated by Karl Marx and Lenin are embodied in the book titled “Communist Manifesto” published in
1848. No country has attained the level of communism but countries like Soviet Union, China, Poland, Cuba etc who
are practicing advanced socialism are aspiring to reach a communist stage.

TYPES OF GOVERNMENT AND CHARACTERISTICS OF GOVERIMENT

Unitary Government (Unitarianism)

Definition: A unitary system of government may be defined as one in which all governmental powers are concentrated
in the hands of a single authority or central government. This single authority does not share governmental powers with

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any other body but can delegate powers to other subordinate bodies. The central government is the only source from
which power emanates. A unitary government adopt unitary system of government include, Britain, Italy, France,
Belgium, New Zealand, Sweden, Ghana, Gambia, Sierra Leone, Ethiopia, Togo, Cameroun etc.
FEATURES OR ATTRIBUTES OR CHARACTERISTICS OF UNITARY GOVERNMENT -
1. All governmental powers are concentrated in the hands of a single authority or central government.
2. It adopts a unitary constitution
3. The various areas or regions into which the nation is divided for administrative purposes are created by the central
government.
4. The legislature can alter the powers and boundaries of the various units or regions.
5. There is no constitutional division of powers between the central government and the local districts or regions.
6. The central government can delegate powers to other subordinate bodies.
7. The Central government is the only source from which power emanates.
8. The constitution need not necessarily be supreme for the central government may have the power to modify it.
9. The constitution also need not necessarily be rigid.
10 No constitutional conflict between the central- government and the subordinate bodies.
11. The central government and the nation as a whole are strong.
12. There need not be any local legislative assemblies.
13. There is no need to have any final authority that resolves conflicts between the central government .and local districts
or regions.
FACTORS OR CONDITIONS THAT GIVE RISE TO THE ADOPTION OF UNITARY GOVERNMENT
1. Size of the Country: Small size of a country gives rise to the adoption of unitary system of government for example;
Togo, Ghana etc.
2.. Absence of Fear of Domination: A unitary system of government is adopted in countries with homogenous people
which removes tribal differences.
3.. Lack of Fear of Domination: Countries where the different sections of the nation do not fear any form of domination
usually adopt unitary system of government.
4. Common Language and Culture: Common language and culture bind together\ and these give rise to the adoption of
unitary system of government.
5. Lack of Marked Economic Inequalities: This will remove any form of domination and unitary system of government will
work very well in such country.
6. Absence of Minority Group: Where there are no minority groups, unitary system of government can work well there.
7. Strong Loyalty to the Central Government: Unitary system of government is adopted and works very well in countries
were the citizens show strong loyalty to the central government.
8. Political Expediency: This may be as a result of the need for solidarity and cohesion for the defence and survival of the
country.
CONFEDERAL SYSTEM OF GOVERNMENT (CONFEDERATION)

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Definition: Confederation may be defined as a loose political arrangement in which autonomous or sovereign states or
republics come together to form a union in which almost the major functions.
FEATURES OR ATTRIBUTES OR CHARACTERISTICS OF CONFEDERATION
1. It is a union of sovereign or autonomous states
2. Major functions or powers of the government are reserved exclusively for the component states. 3. It has weak central
government
4. The constitution makes the component states very powerful.
5. The component states have legal rights to secede.
6. Citizens have to obey only one government
7. The component states have their own army and police.
8. As a loose union, it is generally less politically stable.
9. Confederation has a flexible constitution
10. The component states have constitutional rights to secede.
11. The component states retain their sovereignty and identity.
PRESIDENTIAL SYSTEM OF GOVERNMENT
Definition: Presidential system of government may be defined as one in which all executive powers are vested in one
in which all executive president and in which the executive arm of government separated from the legislature but equal
to it. The president is both the head of government and head of state and is referred to as executive president because
he has executive powers.
FEATURES OR ATTRIBUTES OR CHARACTERISTICS OF PRESIDENTIAL
SYSTEM OF GOVERNMENT
1. In a presidential system of government the president is both the head of state and head of government. 2. The principle of
separation of powers where the executive arth of government separated from the legislature and
judiciary applies in the presidential system of government.
3. The president and his ministers are not members Of the parliament.
4. The principle of collective responsibility that takes place in the cabinet system does not apply in the presidential
system.
5. The president exercises real executive powers.
6. The president is elected by the electorate. Either directly or indirectly through an electoral college and not chosen by
the legislature.
7. The powers to pardon prisoners, appointment of judges to the supreme court, assenting of bills etc invested in
Nigeria’s president betw3een 1979 to 1983 made the president perform legislative and judicial functions. 8. The principles
of checks and balances apply in presidential system.
9. The constitution is the supreme law in a presidential system.
10. The tenure of Office of the president is limited to a fixed term.
11. The president is not above politics, he is a member of a party and may be head of his political party and above the
party.
12. The application of the rule of law.
13. The application of judicial review and interpretation which empowers the highest court-the supreme court the right to
declare and bill or executive action unconstitutional.

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14. Cabinet ministers are responsible to the president not the legislature.
15. The executive and the legislature could be controlled by different political parties.
16. The president is responsible to the constitution not the legislature.
17. Ministers are appointed outside the legislature and not members of the legislature. Any members of the legislature
appointed a minister automatically loses his membership of the legislature.
18. The president has the power to dismiss any member of his cabinet at anytime.
19. The party system is loose and lacks discipline.
20. Absence of opposition party.
REPUBLICAN GOVERNMENT
A republican government is that which has an elected head of state by the people. That means a sovereign state is
referred to as a republic if the country has no traditional ruler or its representative as its head of state but with the one
chosen by the people with a fixed term of office. Such head: of state: is known as president in a republic. The president
may be an executive president or. a ceremonial president may be an executive president or a ceremonial president.
Nigeria became independent in 1960 and still remained a monarchy with the British Queen represented by the Governor-
Gene3ral as Nigeria’s Head of States.
FEATURES OF A REPUBLIC
1. The head of state known as the president is elected by the people.
2. A republic must be politically independent. . 4T
3. Members of the legislature in a republic are directly elected by the people.
4. The functions of government in a Republic are performed by officials and not traditional r rulers.
5. A republican constitution is entirely home made. .
CENTRALISATION
The term centralisation refers to a system of governmental administration in which power is concentrated in one single
central
authority. In such acentraise & system- of government, there is no constitutional. provision for the sharing f governmental
powers between the single central authority an4- any other body but .powers can be delegated to subordinate bodies. The
highest degree of centralisation is achieved in unitary states.
DECENTRALISATION
The: term decentralization refers to a system of governmental of administration in which powers are not concentrated in a.
single central authority

Powers allocated to different constitution. . There axe areas of authority such as foreign, affairs, defence, currency,
immigration
and emigration etc that are reserved exclusively for the. central authority and are known in the constitution as the exclusive
.listsDitra1isation I exists in a federal structure. Federal states such as U.S.A Nigeria, Federal Republic Germany etc, are
examples of decentralisation of government administration.
CONSTITUTION
Definition: A constitution may be defined as the whole body of fundamental laws, customs, conventions, principles, rules
and

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regulations according to which a particular government of a country or an organization operates. The constitution therefore

specifies the working of a government or organization, the functions of its officials the rights and duties of its citizens or
members as a result of the complex P-nature of modern dab’ government, the use of constitution in order to spell out the
functions and relationship, among the branches of government has become a desideratum
RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN CONSTITUTION AND CONSTITUTIONALISM
A constitution is the basic of fundamental laws of the land. It is the sun total of formal and informal rules, conventions and
practices by which a society is governed. Constitutionalism means adherence to the letter and spirit of the constitution, that
is,
those who govern should govern according to the dictates of the law. Constitutionalism denotes the supremacy of the law.
FEATURES OF A CONSTITUTION
1. A constitution is the whole body of fundamental laws, customs etc. According to which a particular government of a
country or an organisation operates.
2. It has a preamble or an introduction which states the ideological stand of the constitution system that will operate in a
country.
3. The constitution states the type party system that will operate in a country
4. It names the organs of government, their functions and their relations to one another.
5. A constitution of a country specifies the rights and duties of the citizens.
6. It may be found in one document but supplemented by organic Jaws.
7. It specifies the type and characteristics of government either unitary, federal, presidential or cabinet systems to be
adopted.
8. It provides the procedure for, the amendment of the constitution.
9. Constitution provides for revenue allocation formula.
10. It states the tenure of office holders and their qualifications.
TYPES OF CONSTITUTION
A. Written Constitution ,
A written constitution refers to when the whole body of fundamental laws, customs, conventions, principles, rules and
regulations according to which a particular government of a country operates are written or documented down. This
implies that
a written constitution can be found in a single document. Some change like revolution, war, coup d’atat, gaining of
independence, etc. That may take place in a country may warrant the writing down of a country’s constitution.
Countries’ like
U.S.A, Nigeria, India, France, Canada, Ghana, Sierra Leone, Gambia and many other countries of the world have written
constitutions.
FEATURES OF WRITTEN CONSTITUTION
1. A written constitution has a preamble or introduction which expresses the essence of the
constitution:
2. It stipulates the methods and conditions for its amendment and change.
3. A written constitution looks very simple because, it can be obtained in a single document.
4. It spells out the fundamental human rights and duties of the citizens of a country.

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5. It states and defines the organs of government, their functions and relationship.
6 A written constitution is rigid in nature.
B. Unwritten Constitution
An unwritten constitution refers to when the whole body of fundamental laws, customs, conventions principles, rules
and regulations according to which a particular government of a country operates are not written down’ or codified seems
to be
the opposite of written constitution ‘Britain and New Zealand are good examples of countries that have unwritten
constitution. An
unwritten constitution is not synonymous with nonexistent laws but what it means is that these laws, customs, etc cannot
be
obtained from one single book or document.
Advantages or Merits of an Unwritten Constitution
1. An unwritten constitution has an advantage of having high degree of flexibility which can easily adapt to a country’s
changing social, political and economic situations.
2. An unwritten Constitution makes for easy and quick decisions.

3. It does not pos problems of amendment.

4. Unwritten constitution develops from many years of practical experiences of the people and government of a country.
5. Its non-rigidity makes for high degree of compromise between the organs of government.
6. For the fact that the constitution is not codified in one document, it eliminates many areas of disputes. 7. It meets
both the present and future needs of a country.
8. It does not lead to constant litigation as in the case with written constitution.
9. Unwritten constitution does not pose problem or difficulty in interpreting its provisions since it is not rigid.
C. Rigid Constitution
A rigid constitution may be defined as that constitution which, cannot be amended or changed so easily because of its
special stringent and cumbersome prce4ures qf amendment. The procedures for the amendment of a rigid constitution are
different from the processes of making ordinary laws. Rigid constitutions are normally written constitutions but not all
written
constitution are difficult to, amend. United States of America, Australia, France, Canada, Switzerland, Ghana, Nigeria, Sierra
Leona, Gambia etc. have rigid constitutions.
Advantages or merits of a Rigid Constitution
1. A rigid constitution is difficult to amend or change, which prvents hasty actions.
2. It prevents dictatorial leaders from amending the constitution to serve their dictatorial interest.
3. It protects the interest of the minority groups.
4. It ensures political stability in a country because, no one, section can amend the constitution to its favour. 5. It allays
fears of ethnic domination by the majority groups in a multi-ethnic nation like Nigeria.
6. A rigid constitution is normally a written constitution.
7. It makes for smooth change of government and ensures continuity of the system of government adopted. V D. Flexible
Constitution
A flexible constitution may be defined as that constitution which can be amended or changed so easily without stringent
and cumbersome procedures. Flexible constitution can be amended with the same procedure used in making ordinary
laws. It

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requires simple majority for a flexible constitution to be amended. Some flexible constitution are written while others are
unwritten. Britain, Italy, New Zealand, Ghana ‘(independence constitution of 1957) etc, are examples of countries that have’
flexible constitutions.
Advantages or Merits of a Flexible Constitution
I. A flexible constitution is easy to amend
2. It is flexible and allows for quick action to be take in time of emergency.
3. It does not encourage revolution or civil war since its flexibility does not make for violent change or amendment.
4. Its amendment is not expensive, time and energy consuming.
5. A flexible constitution suits the changing social, economic and political situations of a country.
E. Federal Constitution
A federal constitution refers to one in which governmental powers exist in the country are shared between a central
government that represents the whole country and governments .of component regions or states, so that each government
is
legally and constitutionally independent and autonomous. A country that adopts this type of constitution is known as a
federation
and the system is referred to as the federal ‘system of government. The federal constitution specifies the legislative powers
of
these different government in Nigeria for instance, the central government otherwise known as federal government
legislates on
the exclusive list, while both the federal and the component governments called states make laws on the concurrent list of
subjects. The example of countries with federal constitutions are U.SA, Nigeria, Federal Republic of Germany, Brazil,
Switzerland, Australia, Yugoslavia, India etc.
Features of a Federal Constitution
1. Division of governmental powers between the central government and component government of the regions.
2. It guarantees the supremacy of the constitution.
3. The different governments derive their powers from the constitution.
4. Federal constitution is always written.
5. It is also always rigid.
6. Judicial interpretation and review
7. Allows for bicameral legislatures
8. Supremacy of the central government.
9. Duplication of organs of government in all governments.
F. Unitary Constitution
A unitary constitution refers to one that concentrates governmental powers and authority in a single central government
or legislature. The central government is the only source from which power emanates. It does not share governmental
powers
with any other body but can delegate powers to other subordinate bodies. A unitary constitution is guided by the principle
of
Unitarianism which means the belief and concentration of governmental powers and authority in a single
authority.

Features of a Unitary Constitution

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1. It concentrates governmental powers and authority in a single central government or legislature.
2. It is a flexible constitution.
3. A unitary constitution is not necessarily written.
4. The constitution is not supreme but the legislature.
5. State and local governments are made subordinate to the central government by the unitary constitution.
6. Other authorities do not derive their powers from the constitution but from the central government.
7. Unlike Federal constitution, the citizens owe allegiance to only one government in a unitary constitution.
G. Confederal Constitution
This is a constitution in which almost major powers and functions of government are reserved exclusively for the
component states save the common currency, defence and foreign affairs in which the national or central government may
hold
power. The constitution reserves powers to the central government in only certain matters that affect all the unions or
autonomous states involved. Confederal constitution is not common with .nations of the world in the present day.
FRANCHISE
Definition: Franchise may be defined as the rights of qualified adult citizens of a given society to vote and to be voted for in
an
election. The electors re constitutionally known as the electorate while those seeking to. be elected are called candidates.
Those
to be given the right to vote and be voted for-franchise, vary from country to country based on certain criteria.
A production possibility Curve for food and cash crops
A production possibility curve
THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE PRODUCTION POSSIBILITY CURVE AND THE CONCEPT OF OPPORTUNITY
COST
As discussed in chapter one, opportunity cost means the satisfaction of one want at the expense of another want. It simplify
refers to forgone or sacrificed alternative.
Production possibility curve on the other hand involves opportunity cost. The PPC involves sacrifice in the production of
one
commodity in order that another commodity can be produced.
Therefore, the opportunity cost producing one Gmmodity is the resources that are sacrificed in order to produce another
commodity. The slapping down of the PPC indicates the opportunity of production of another commodity From the figure
above
movement of the curve form point A to point B means the sacrifice of 700 tonnes of food crop in order to produce 600
tonnes of
cash crop and vice versa. This shows that production possibility curve and opportunity cost are closely related in solving
economic problems and maximising the satisfaction of human wants with The limited available resources.
CONCEPTS OF TOTAL, AVERAGE AND MARGINAL PRODUCTIVITY
a. Total Product (TP): Total product refers to the total quantity of goods produce at a particular time as a result of the use
all the factors of production. Total product depends mainly on the quantity of all the factors of production that applied
production. TP = AP x Labour
b. Average Product (AP): Average product refers to total product divided by the number of variable factor of
productionlabour.
It is. therefore per unit of product produced by each labour or worker. AP= TP

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Labour
i.,e AP = Total output
(number of men (or capital employed)
e.g Using 20 labourers to produce 2500 of rice daily implies AP =
2500/20 = 125kg.
i.e output per labour (A.P) is 125kg.
c. Marginal Product (MP): This is the additional product produced as a result of the application of one additional unit
variable factor when all other factors are fixed.
There are basically two schools of thought in the analysis of utility and they are as follows
i. Cardinal school of though
ii. Ordinal school of thought
Cardinal School of Thought: This approach emphasizes that utility is measurable. That is, after consuming a given
quantity of
a commodity, the consumer can simply- evaluate his satisfaction through the use of figures which range from zero to
infinity.
Assumpt4on of the Cardinal Approach
i Utility is measureable
ii. The consumer is rational
iii. There is diminishing marginal utility
iv. Total utility (TU) depends of the quantity consumed
v. Money income of the consumer is held constant
TOTAL UTILITY
This is the total amount of satisfaction a consumer derives from the consumption of a particular commodity at
a point in time.

The amount of satisfaction derived from commodities increases with their consumption. The more the quantity of goods
available to a consumer, the more the total utility derived from them. However, the amount of satisfaction or utility received
from
the cOnsumption of goods does, not increase at equal rate to the quantity of goods consumed. The consumer has a
saturation
point in the consumption of a particular commodity at a given time.
Total Utility Curve
UNEMPLOYMENT AND RURAL URBAN MIGRATION
Unemployment
Definition: Unemployment may be defined as a situation where some people who fall within the ages of the working
population,
capable and willing to work, are unable to obtain befitting work to do. The problem of unemployment is becoming chronic
and
without any solution in sight. It has constituted itself into one of the worst enemies of the people in this part of the world.
The
problem of unemployment has been exacerbated by the prevalent retrenchments, unbridled rural-urban migration, etc.
Unemployment Rate: This is the proportion or percentage of the labour force or working population which is not
employed at
any given point in time.
Unemployment rate is usually represented using the symbol “U” and is usually calculated as follows: U =
number of people unemployed x 100
Labour force 1

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TYPES OF UNEMPLOYMENT
1. Under-employment: This is a situation whereby the potentialities of a worker are not fully utilised. There are financial,
mental
and physical under-employment. It is financial when the worker is not getting equal pay from the work he is doing; mental
when
there is a mismatch between the work a person is doing and what he studied; and physical when the worker is
underutilised.
2. Frictional Unemployment: It arises when people leave their present job with the hope of getting a new and better one
but
fail to do so. It may or may not be a temporary unemployment depending on the prevailing economic situation.
Therefore, this is
the period between the time the worker left his former work and the time of getting a new work.
3. Deficient Demand (cyclical) Unemployment: If there is a decrease in the quantity of goods demanded or there
overproduction
which results in fall in prices, industries will be affected, which may cause retrenchment or lay-off workers in the
industries affected. The workers affected will suffer from deficient demand or cyclical occurs whenever there is a fall in
demand.
This is so because the demand for labour is a derived one and depends on the demand for goods and services. 4. Structural
Unemployment: This arises as a result of slight changes in the industrial structure of a country.
Workers will be
retrenched as a result of economic recession and it happened in Nigeria in 1984, when many firms folded up as a result of
this.
It may also occur as a result of changes in production technique e.g when production becomes capital intensive.
5. Voluntary Unemployment: This unemployment which is deliberate, occurs when some people refuse to take up any
paid
employment or decide not do any work. For example, some husbands may order their wives not to do any type work but to
stay
at home as fill time housewives.
6. Seasonal Unemployment: This is caused by seasonal changes that affect some types of work. Workers that work in
road
construction companies return unemployed during rainy season. Also farmers stay idle in-between harvesting and planting

periods.
7. Search Unemployment: This arises when some people turn down offers of work in search of better paid employment;
Howe
long this search will last will depend on the prevailing economic situation in the country.
8. Residual Unemployment: This is the type of unemployment faced by people who are so low in a standard of efficiency
that
few occupations may be open to them e.g handicaps.
9. Technological Unemployment: This is an unemployment as a result of switching from labour intensive production
technique
to capital intensive production technique. Those who are skilled will be retained while the unskilled labour will be replaced
with
machines.
PRINCIPLES OR ATTRIBUTES OF A GOOD TAX SYSTEM
Adam Smith propounded the following principles of taxation otherwise known as cannons of taxation. 1. Equity or Fairness
or Ability to Pay: Tax should be based on a person’s ability to pay and there should be equality of sacrifice, that is the burden
of tax should be according to one’s ability.

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The equity principle says that the tax-payers should be levied in accordance with their ability to pay. Ability to pay is usually
based either on income disparity or on the differences in expenditure of consumers. In this case, those that spend more are
meant to pay more tax.
2. Certainty: Tax payers should know the exact amount they are expected to pay as tax, when and how to pay it. 3.
Conveniences: The method and time of tax collection should be convenient to the tax payers. P.A.Y.E is considered
the most convenient method of tax system because workers are meant to pay when they receive their salaries and at
their various work places.
4. Economy: The amount spent in the course of collecting tax should be smaller than the amount collected.
Therefore it
emphasizes on the cost effectiveness of the tax system.
5. Impartiality: There should be no discrimination in the imposition and collection of taxes i.e people of equal financial
positions should pay the same amount of tax.
6. Flexibility: A good tax system changes with the changing circumstances in the area it is charged. It should be responsive to
economic realities.
7. Simplicity: A good tax system should be simple enough for everybody’s understanding.
8. Easy to Collect: People collecting the tax should not find it difficult to collect.
9. Difficult to Evade: It should not be one that people can easily evade
10. Productivity: A good tax system should yield enough revenue to the government and also not hinder production.
INCIDENCE OF TAXATION
By incidence of taxation, we mean the sharing of the final brunt or who bears the burden of taxation. Incidence of tax may be

formal or effective.
Formal Incidence: This refers to the initial effects of tax on the tax object i.e the tax payer. For direct tax, the tax payer bears
the
brunt while the manufactures or the middlemen bear the brunt of the tax initially.
Effective Incidence: Effective incidence of tax refers to who bears the final brunt of the tax. For direct taxes, the payer bears
the
full brunt of taxation while the brunt. may be borne by the manufactures or consumer if it is indirect tax. The elasticity of
demand
determines the extent to which the consumer or producer bears the brunt of the incidence. This could be analysed as
follows:
1. When Direct Tax is Involved: It is the worker who pays income tax that bears the brunt.
2. When Indirect Tax is Involved: If demand is neither elastic nor inelastic, the producer and the consumer share the
burden.
3. When Demand is Perfectly Inelastic: The burden of tax is shifted to the buyer in form of high prices of goods. 4. When
Demand is Perfectly Elastic: The incidence of tax is borne by the producer in form of low prices of goods which,
if increased demand will fail.
TYPES OF TAX
There are two major types of tax: direct and indirect tax
a. Direct Tax: As the name indicates, it is collected directly from individuals and profits of companies. The burden of direct
tax is borne by the payers. The tax payers are usually aware of the payment of such tax

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Types of Direct Tax
1. Personal Income Tax: This is a compulsory contribution imposed on the personal income of individuals based on their
gross income and depends on the total income, the family size of the payer, etc.
2. Company Income Tax: It is levied on the profit made by companies that operate in a particular country. It is also known
as corporate tax.
3. Capital or Property Tax: It is levied on the assets or properties of individuals including the assets of the deceased.
4. Airport Tax: This is a form of direct tax paid by those who travel with aeroplane within and outside the country.
5. Miscellaneous Direct Taxes: There are other petty direct taxes such as poll, expenditure, educational, development,
cattle, surtax etc. These taxes come in one form of levy or the other like the one they called survival levy in Imo State
of Nigeria in 1984 after the demise of the second republic.
INDIRECT TAXES
They are taxes levied on locally made imported and exported goods and services. These taxes imposed on goods and
services
are later on transferred to consumers in form of high prices, and this is why they are called indirect. The payers of these
taxes
do not bear the final brunt. Rather, they are usually imposed on finished goods and services and shifted to consumers in the
form of increase in prices.
Types of Indirect Tax
1. Excise Duties: These are duties levied on locally made consuixixi goods.
2. Import Duties: Also known as tariffs. They are imposed on foreign goods coming into a country.
3. Export Duties: They are levied on locally made goods taken to other countries.
4. Purchases and Sales Taxes: These are levied on certain durable goods and are paid by those who purchase
and sell

these goods.
METHODS OF IMPOSING INDIRECT TAXES
The imposition of indirect taxes could take any of the following form.
i. Specific Tax: This means imposing taxes according to the volume or units of goods imported, exported or
manufactured within a country.
ii. Ad Valorem: This means imposing tax according to the monetary value of the commodity concerned.
SYSTEMS OF TAXATION
The system of imposing both direct and indirect taxes are as follows:
i. Progressive Tax System: This is a tax system where higher tax rate falls on high income earners and lower tax rate on
low income earners. In order words, the high income earners pay more tax than the low income earners eg Pay As You
Earn
ii. Proportional Tax System: Under this system, every taxpayer pays equal proportion of his or income. The slight
difference between proportional and progressive tax system is that while progressive tax rate varies with income,
proportional tax rate is usually fixed, but the amount of tax payable varies in both cases.

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iii. Regressive Tax System: This tax system calls for a higher tax rate on the low income earners than the high income
earners. In order words, the proportion removed as tax from taxpayer’s income• decreases as income increases.
TYPES OF INFLATION
Inflation is divided into two major types, viz;
1. Ordinary Inflation: This is a gradual and intermittent rise in the price of goods and services caused by under-production,
hoarding and increase in the volume of money circulation in a country.
2. Persistent Inflation: This is a continuous sharp and not easy to control rise in the prices of goods and services which
occurs mainly as a result of large volume of money in circulation far more than the available goods and services.
PERSISTENT INFLATION IS DIVIDED INTO THE FOLLOWING
1. Demand Pull Persistent Inflation: This occurs when the demand for goods and services is greater than their supply
caused mainly by increase in worker’s salaries and wages, or population explosion.
2. Cost Pull Persistent Inflation: Rise in prices of goods and services caused by increase in the cost of factors of production,
demand for more wages by workers, etc
3. Galloping or Hyper-Inflation: War deficit budget. etc are the causes of this inflation prices rise at a fast rate and money
ceases to function as a medium of exchange.
4. Imported Inflation: This type of inflation occurs whenever raw materials and finished goods are imported into a country
at a very high cost. For example, devaluation of imported makes imports to become relatively expensive. This can
easily give rise to inflation in the economy of the importing country.
GALLOPING PRICES
Galloping prices may be defined as continuous rise in the prices of goods and services. It is same as period of inflation in a
country.
Causes of Galloping Prices
The above causes of inflation are equally responsible for galloping prices in a country.
HOW TO CONTROL GALLOPING PRICES IN A COUNTRY
The measures itemised and discussed above, can equally be applied in controlling galloping prices in a country.
Causes of Inflation
1. When Demand is Greater than Supply: Inflation may occur if increase in demand does not correspond with increase in
the quantity of goods and services supplied.
2. Decrease in Production: This decreases the quantity of goods available without equal decrease in the volume of money
in circulation.
3. War: It diverts people’s attention away from the production of goods to the acquisition of arms and ammunitions.
4. Increase in the Cost of Production: This will be passed to consumers in form of high prices of goods. 5. Monopoly:
Monopolists may deliberately reduce production in order to make fantastic profits thereby causing inflation.
6. Hoarding: Hoarders reduce the quantity of goods available irrespective of the level of production.
7. Over-Population: This, in addition to large volume of money in circulation causes galloping prices.
8. Poor Weather: It reduces the quantity of agricultural products available.

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9. Poor Storage Facilities: It will lead to the consumption of all goods produced at a particular period without reserve.

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