QUIZ 1

1. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet at 7. What do you call the study of forces in EQUILLIBRIUM?
• a common point • Dynamics
• two points • Kinematics
• a plane • Kinetics
• perpendicular planes • Statics
2. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on a body lie in 8. If a walking stick with a mass of 300g can be balanced by placing a mass M of 120g at a
• one point distance L of 30 cm from the fulcrum, then the center of gravity of the stick is ___ cm away
• two points from the fulcrum.
• a plane • 90
• perpendicular planes • 40
3. When trying to turn a key into a lock, which of the following is applied? • 12
• coplanar forces • 4
• lever 9. Building and bridges are examples of _____
• moment of force • translational
• couple • static
4. The following are scalar quantities EXCEPT • rotational
• time • dynamic
• volume 10. The center of gravity of a thin rectangular metal plates is at the ______
• density • one of the vertices
• acceleration • midpoint of the shorter side
5. According to the principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is • midpoint of the longer side
• maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body. • intersection of its diagonals
• different at different points in its line of action 11. A mass of 70 g is attached at one end of a rod, and a mass of 30 g is attached at the other
• the same at every point in its line of action end. If the length of the rod is 60 cm, then the fulcrum should be placed ____ cm away
• minimum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body from the 70 g mass for the rods to balance.
6. The force that acts upward on an object suspended from a spring is called • 42
• gravity • 36
• normal • 24
• tension • 18
• compression
• NA
12. An object with a high center of gravity is ____ than an object with a low center of gravity. 15. Given the Free-Body Diagram (FBD) of the block of wood of mass m lying along a rough
• more stable inclined plane with a cord pulling it up the incline. Which of the arrows represent the
• less stable normal force?
• of the same stability
• incompatible
13. Which of the following states that “A body will be in equilibrium if the resultant of all the
forces acting on it is zero?
• First Condition of Equilibrium
• Second Condition of Equilibrium
• Pythagorean Theorem
• Varignon’s Theorem
14. Given the Free-Body Diagram (FBD) of the block of wood of mass m lying along a rough • A
inclined plane with a cord pulling it up the incline. Which of the arrows represent the • B
frictional force? • C
• D
16. Given the Free-Body Diagram (FBD) of the block of wood of mass m lying along a rough
inclined plane with a cord pulling it up the incline. Which of the arrows represent the
tension in the cord?

• A
• B
• C
• D
• A
• B
• C
• D
17. Given the Free-Body Diagram (FBD) of the block of wood of mass m lying along a rough 21. If vector A = -12i + 25j + 13k and vector B = -3j + 7k, then the resultant when A is subtracted
inclined plane with a cord pulling it up the incline. Which of the arrows represent the force from B is ____?
of gravity? • -12i +22j + 6k
• 12i - 28j - 6k
• -12i – 22j + 6k
• 12i + 28j – 6k
22. A bug starts at point A, crawls 8.0 cm East, then 5.0 cm South, 3.0 cm West, and 4.0 cm
North to point B. How far North and East is B from A?
• 5.0 cm North, 1.0 cm East
• 5.0 cm East, 1.0 cm North
• 11.0 cm North, 9.0 cm East
• A • 11.0 cm East, 9.0 cm North
• B 23. What must be the angle between two vectors to produce a maximum resultant?
• C • 0 degree
• D • 45 degrees
18. If the vector sum of the torques acting on a body is zero, it is said to be in ____ equilibrium. • 90 degrees
• translational • 180 degrees
• static 24. What must be the angle between two vectors to produce a minimum resultant?
• rotational • 0 degree
• dynamic • 45 degrees
19. Two forces which cannot be replaced by a single equivalent force are said to form a/an __ • 90 degrees
• action-reaction • 180 degrees
• bond 25. Given two equal vectors A and B, what must be the angle between them to produce a
• couple resultant R with magnitude equal to either A or B?
• equilibrium • 30 degrees
20. When line of action of a forces passes through the axis of rotation, due to which its turning • 45 degrees
effect will be _____ • 60 degrees
• maximum • 120 degrees
• minimum
• zero
• undetermined
26. What is the resultant of the concurrent forces in the figure acting on a body? 28. What is magnitude and the direction of the resultant force acting on a 10 m x 6 m
rectangular plates shown below?

• 51 N, 79 degrees below the -x-axis

• 51 N, 79 degrees above the -x-axis
• 65 N, 29 degrees above the +x-axis
• 51 N, 79 degrees below the +x-axis
• 65 N, 29 degrees below the +x-axis
• 51 N, 79 degrees above the +x-axis
• 6.5 N, 29 degrees above the +x-axis
29. A uniform 25-kg bar, 6m long, is suspended by a cord as shown below. What is the tension
• 6.5 N, 29 degrees below the +x-axis in the cord?
27. Find the values of M and E so that the forces acting on the bar produce a upward resultant
of 200 lb acting 4 ft to the right of the left end.

• 120 N
• M = 733 lb, E = 433 lb • 270 N
• M = 433 lb, M = 733 lb • 370 N
• M = 700 lb, E = 500 lb • 540 N
• M = 500 lb, E = 700 lb
• NA
30. A uniform beam of mass 25 kg rests on supports P and Q, as shown in the diagram below. 32. A 25-kg block is pulled by a horizontal force. The supporting rope can withstand a
What forces is exerted by the support Q on the beam? maximum tension forces of 620 N. To what maximum angle, θ, can the block be pulled
without the rope breaking?

• 120 N
• 160 N • 22 degrees
• 330 N • 23 degrees
• 490 N • 67 degrees
31. A boom hinged at P is held stationary, as shown in the diagram below. If the tension in the • 88 degrees
supporting cord, attached three quarters of the way along the boom from P is 720 N, what 33. The motorcycle shown has a mass of 200 kg and a wheel base of 1.8 m. If the rear wheel
is the weight of the boom? exerts a 1,200 N forces on the ground, find how far the motorcycle’s center of gravity is
located from the front wheel.

• 70 cm
• 90 cm
• 720 N • 110 cm
• 1,080 N • 120 cm
• 1,440 N
• 2,160 N
34. A uniform 3.5-m beam of negligible mass, hinged at P, supports a hanging block as shown 36. A uniform beam of length 8 m and mass 25 kg is connected to a wall by a hinge as shown
below. If the tension in the horizontal cord is 150 N, what is the mass of the hanging block? below. A 45-kg mass is suspended from the beam. What is the tension the rope to
maintain equilibrium?

• 9.2 kg
• 12 kg • 240 N
• 16 kg • 340 N
• 46 kg • 440 N
35. The diagram below shows the forces acting on a massless ladder resting on a floor and a • 540 N
frictionless slope. As the person walks up the stationary ladder, what happens to the 37. Determine the force P needed to lift the load. Also determine the proper placement x of
magnitude of the normal forces N1 and N2? the 600 N load for equilibrium. Neglect the weight of the beam and the pulleys. The radius
of each frictionless pulley is 100 mm.

• N1 decreases, N2 decreases • P = 300 N, x = 0.3 m

• N1 decreases. N2 increases • P = 200 N, x = 0.3 m
• N1 increases, N2 decreases • P = 300 N, x = 0.45 m
• N1 increases, N2 increases • P = 200 N, x = 0.45 m
38. The system of knotted cords in the figure below is in equilibrium. If the weight of the load
W = 80 lb, what is the tension in cord T4?

• 37 lb
• 77 lb
• 88 lb
• 140 lb
QUIZ 2 6. The material is less compressible when the bulk modulus is ___
• Larger
1. The elastic modulus that applies to fluids is ____
• Smaller
• Young’s Modulus
• 1
• Shear Modulus
• Zero
• Bulk Modulus
7. The material is more rigid when the shear modulus is ____
• All of the above
• Greater
2. Which of the following will be affected when a shear stress acts on a solid object?
• Lesser
• Length
• 1
• Volume
• Zero
• Width
8. The stress on a wire supporting a load depends on the following EXCEPT
• Shape
• Wire’s length
3. When equal and opposite forces are exerted on an object along the same lines of action,
• Wire’s diameter
the object is said to be under ____
• Mass of the load
• Shear
• Acceleration due to gravity
• Compression only
9. The elastic limit and the ultimate strength of a material do NOT depend on its
• Tension only
• Composition
• Either compression or tension
• History
4. When equal and opposite forces are exerted on an object along the different lines of
• Size
action, the object is said to be under ___
• Both composition and size
• Shear
10. The force needed to punch a hole in a metal sheet depends upon the material’s ___
• Compression only
• Density
• Tension only
• Compressive strength
• Either compression or tension
• Yield strength
5. According to Hooke’s Law, the force needed to elongate an elastic object by an amount x
• Shear strength
is proportional to ___
11. A cable stretches by an amount L under a certain load. When it is replaced by another
• X
cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter of the original, the same
• 1/x
load will stretch the new cable by ___
• X^2
• L/4
• 1/x^2
• L/2
• L
• 2L
12. A cable stretches by an amount L under a certain load. It is replaced by another cable of 17. When a pressure of 2.0 MPa is applied to a sample of kerosene, it contracts by 0.15%. The
the same material but half as long and half the diameter of the original. The original cable value of the compressibility of kerosene in per Pa is approximately
could support a maximum load of W of exceeding the Elastic Limit. For the new cable, the • 5.0 x 10^-10
Elastic Limit will not be exceeded up to the load of ____ • 7.5 x 10^-10
• W/4 • 5.0 x 10^-7
• W/2 • 7.5 x 10^-7
• W 18. A brass rod 5 ft long with a square cross-section 1/2 in on a side is used to support a 520-
• 2W Ib load. If the Young's Modulus of brass is 1.32 x 10^7 psi, its elongation is approximately
13. The Young’s Modulus of Aluminum is 7 x 10^10 Pa. What minimum force is needed to ____
stretch by 1 mm an Al wire 2 mm in diameter and 800 mm long? • 0.0008 in
• 2.75 N • 0.0048 in
• 27.5 N • 0.0095 in
• 275 N • 0.0480 in
• 2.750 N 19. Two wires are made of the same material but wire A is twice as long and has twice the
14. The Elastic Limit of Aluminum is 1.8 x 10^8 Pa. The maximum mass the Al wire 2 mm in diameter of that of wire B. When both wires are subjected to the same load, the
diameter and 800 mm long can support without exceeding its elastic limit is approximately elongation of wire A is 10 mm. What is the elongation of wire B?
____ • 40 mm
• 57 kg • 20 mm
• 58 kg • 10 mm
• 565 kg • 5 mm
• 566 kg 20. A piece of stone is heaviest when measured in _____
15. The ultimate strength in compression of Aluminum is 2 x 10^8 Pa. What maximum mass • Vacuum
can an Al cube 1 cm on a side support? • Freshwater
• 200,000 kg • Saltwater
• 20, 000 kg • Air
• 2, 000 kg 21. When a solid floats in a liquid, the buoyant force on the solid is ____
• 200 kg • Zero
16. A certain rope with a diameter D has a breaking strength S. What is the breaking strength • Less than the solid’s weight
of similar rope with twice the diameter? • Equal to the solid’s weight
• S/4 • Greater than the solid’s weight
• S/2
• S
• 2
22. When a solid metal immersed in water sinks, the buoyant force on a solid is ____ 27. A solid immersed in a fluid experiences a buoyant force which depends on ____
• Zero • Density of a solid
• Less than the solid’s weight • Density of a fluid
• Equal to the solid’s weight • Volume of a solid
• Greater than the solid’s weight • Volume of a fluid
23. In the operation of the hydraulic press, it is impossible for the output piston to exceed the 28. Which of the following factors affects hydrostatic pressure?
input piston’s ___ • Density and volume of the liquid
• Displacement • Depth and density of the liquid
• Speed • Liquid’s density and bottom area of the container
• Force • Depth and volume of the liquid
• Work 29. Buoyancy occurs because with increasing depth in a fluid, the ___
24. The following are values of the standard atmospheric pressure EXCEPT • Pressure increases
• 0.1013 MPa • Pressure decreases
• 1.013 bar • Density increases
• 760 mm-Hg • Density decreases
• 1 atm 30. For solids that sink in a fluid, all of the following are numerically the same EXCEPT the __
• NA • Buoyant force
25. The pressure at the bottom of a container filled with a liquid depends on the following • Weight of the solid
factors EXCEPT ____ • Loss of weight
• Acceleration due to gravity • Weight of the fluid displaced
• Bottom area of the container 31. The hydraulic press is able to produce a mechanical advantage because ____
• Height of the liquid • The forces of the fluid exerts on a piston is always parallel to its surface.
• Density of the liquid • At any depth in a fluid, the pressure is the same in all directions
26. In order for an object to float when placed in distilled water, its average density expressed • The pressure in a fluid varies with its speed
in g/cc must be ___ • An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout its volume
• Less than 1 32. Fluid at rest at the bottom of the container is ___
• Equal to 1 • Under less pressure than the fluid at the top
• Greater than 1 • Under the same pressure as the fluid at the top
• Zero • Under more pressure than the fluid at the top
• Any of the above, depending on the circumstances
33. The relative density of gasoline is 0.82 and that of saltwater is 1.025. When these two 37. The pressure at the bottom of a filled glass of water is P. The water is poured out, and the
liquids are mixed with freshwater in a beaker, which will be on top? glass is filled with ethyl alcohol (specific gravity = 0.806), what is now the pressure at the
• Freshwater bottom of the glass?
• Saltwater • Less than P
• Gasoline • Equal to P
• Cannot be determined • Greater than P
34. A beaker contains 40 mL of water. A marble is dropped into the water and sinks. The water • Cannot be determined
level rises to 60 mL. The following statements are correct EXCEPT ___ 38. Several common barometers are built, with variety of liquids. For which of the following
• The marble displaced water liquids with the column of liquid in the barometer the highest?
• The volume of the marble is 20 mL • Mercury
• There is no buoyant force on the marble • Ethyl alcohol
• The mass of the displaced water is 20 g • Water
35. A barometer reads 75 cm of mercury at the ground floor of Engineering Building of height • Glycerin
20 m. At the top of the building the barometer reading will be ___ 39. Two immiscible liquids, water and mercury, are poured in a U-shaped tube open at both
• Greater than 75 cm ends. Compared to the level of water on one side of the tube, the level of mercury will be
• Equal to 75 cm • Greater
• Less than 75 cm • The same
• Zero • Lesser
36. Four vessels of different shapes are filled to the same level with water as in the figure • Negligible
below. The pressure at the bottom of which vessels is the greatest? 40. The densities of these liquids are D, 2D, and 3D. What will be the density of the resulting
mixture if equal volumes of the three liquids are mixed?
• 6D
• 3D
• 2D
• 1.5D
41. As an engineer, you are task to design a hydraulic breaking system used in automobile,
which of the following will best help you in the design?
• Archimedes’ principle
• F • Bernoulli’s principle
• O • Pascal’s principle
• R • Torricelli’s principle
• C
• NA
42. The following are characteristics of an ideal fluid flow EXCEPT the __ 48. In a horizontal pipe, the pressure is least when the velocity of the fluid is ___
• Fluid is nonviscous • Greatest
• Fluid is incompressible • Constant
• Fluid is nonsteady • Least
• Fluid is irrotational • Zero
43. Bernoulli’s Principle is based on the ___ 49. A water tank on the top of a tall building feeds water in the taps of different floors. The
• Newton’s Second Lsaw of Motion water will gush out at the highest speed from a tap on the floor ___
• Newton’s Third Law of Motion • Nearest the tank
• Law of Conservation of Momentum • Near the middle of the building
• Law of Conservation of Energy • Farthest from the tank
44. Which of the following is NOT a unit of the coefficient of viscosity of fluid? • Below the top of the building
• N m/s 50. A table tennis ball has a diameter of 38 mm and average specific gravity of 0.084. What
• N s/m^2 force is required to hold it completely submerged under pure water?
• Poise • 0.2579 N downward
• Kg/m/s • 0.2579 N upward
45. Which of the following best explains why typhoons often lift the roots of the houses? • 0.3052 N downward
• Archimedes’ Principle • 0.3052 N upward
• Bernoulli’s Principle 51. What is the level of oil with SG = 0.8 will you determine in a barometer when measuring
• Pascal’s Principle the normal atmospheric pressure?
• Torricelli’s Theorem • 760 mm
46. The upward force experienced by an airplane can be best explained on the basis of __ • 76 cm
• Archimedes’ Principle • 10.34 m
• Bernoulli’s Principle • 12.91 m
• Pascal’s Principle 52. The specific gravity of ice is 0.917 while that of seawater is 1.025. What percent is iceberg
• Torricelli’s Theorem is above the seawater surface?
47. Which of the following explains why a liquid rises higher in a narrower tube? • 91.70%
• Viscosity • 89.46%
• Turbulence • 10.54%
• Surface tension • 8.30%
• Capillarity
53. At what depth in seawater (SG = 1.025) is the gauge pressure 1 bar? 58. A gardener uses a water hoses 25 mm in diameter to fill a 30-L bucket. The gardener notes
• 9.95 m that it takes 1 min to fill the bucket. A nozzle with an opening of cross-sectional area of
• 10.07 m 0.5 cm^2 is then attached to the hose. What is the speed of water with which the water
• 10.20 m exists the nozzle?
• 10.34 m • 1.02 m/s
54. A wooden block in the form of a cube 20 cm on the edge is submerged to 3/4 of its volume • 2.04 m/s
in pure water. What is the mass of the block? • 10 m/s
• 6,000 kg • 40 m/s
• 300 kg 59. A solid hangs from a spring balance. The balance registers 30 lb when the solid is measured
• 15 kg in air, 20 lb when it is immersed in pure water, and 24 lb when it is immersed in an
• 6 kg unknown liquid. What is the density of the solid?
55. A wooden block in the form of a cube 20 cm on the edge is submerged to 3/4 of its volume • 3 g/cm^3
in pure water. What is the specific gravity of the block? • 300 kg/m^#
• 1.33 • 1.5 g/cm^3
• 1.00 • 150 kg/m^3
• 0.75 60. A solid hangs from a spring balance. The balance registers 30 lb when the solid is measured
• 0.25 in air, 20 lb when it is immersed in pure water, and 24 lb when it is immersed in an
56. What is the approximate buoyant force on a solid gold rectangular bar with dimensions unknown liquid. What is the weight density of the unknown liquid?
45 cm x 11 cm x 26 cm when immersed in pure water? • 5000 N/m^3
• 126 N • 49,050 N/m^3
• 2,437 N • 600 N/m^3
• 126 kN • 5,886 N/m^3
• 243.7 kN 61. A solid hangs from a spring balance. The balance registers 30 lb when the solid is measured
57. The approach of a storm causes a height of a mercury barometer to drop by 20 mm from in air, 20 lb when it is immersed in pure water, and 24 lb when it is immersed in an
the normal height. What is the atmospheric pressure during that time? unknown liquid. What will be the buoyant force of Mercury (SG = 13.6) on the solid?
• 98.63 kPa • Zero
• 97.36 kPa • 6 lb
• 98.63 MPa • 10 lb
• 97.36 MPa • 30 lb
62. A vertical cylinder is poured with four immiscible liquids as shown in the figure below. The 64. The U-tube device connected to the lank in the figure below is called a MANOMETER. The
liquids and their corresponding specific gravity are listed. If the container is open to the mercury (SG = 13.6) in the tube stands higher in one side than the other. What is the
atmosphere, what is the gauge pressure in mm-Hg at the liquid interface B? pressure in the tank if the atmospheric pressure is 760 torr?

• 55. 35
• 83.77
• 123.04 • 95 cm-Hg
• 7,377.12 • 95 torr
63. A vertical cylinder is poured with four immiscible liquids as shown in the figure below. The • 95 bar
liquids and their corresponding specific gravity are listed. If the container is open to the • 95 kPa
atmosphere, what is the absolute pressure at the bottom in psi? 65. The diameter of the large piston of a hydraulic press is 20 cm, and the area of the small
piston is 0.50 cm^2. 1F the force of 400 N is applied to the small piston, what is the
increase in pressure underneath the large piston? Assume 100% efficiency
• 2 MPa
• 4 MPa
• 8 MPa
• 32 MPa
66. What horsepower is required to force 8,000 L of water per minute in a water main pipe at
a pressure of 2.2 bar?
• 29 hp
• 3.45 • 39 hp
• 34, 502, 91 • 3.9 hp
• 3.50 • 2.9 hp
• NA
MIDTERM 7. An example of a car that does NOT exhibit acceleration is a car that ____
• Turns a corner at a speed of 10 kph
1. It is a branch of mechanics that deals with the study of moving bodies without reference
• Descends a hill at a constant speed of 20 kph
to the force that caused the motion
• Descends a hill that decreases its speed uniformly
• Statics
• Climbs a hill, goes over its crest and descends on other side all at constant speed
• Kinetics
8. A car travelling in a circle at constant speed of 40 kph is ___
• Kinematics
• Having a constant displacement
• Dynamics
• Having a constant velocity
2. An accelerated body must at all times ___
• Accelerating
• Be moving uniformly
• All of the above
• Have a changing velocity
9. It refers to the time it takes a driver to engage the brakes of his car when he needs to stop.
• Have a constant velocity
• Stopping time
• Have a changing direction
• Reaction time
3. A body whose velocity is constant has a ____
• Break time
• Positive acceleration
• Braking time
• Zero acceleration
10. A marine engineer in a cargo ship travels 120 km at a constant velocity. Its velocity after
• Negative acceleration
traveling for 20 min is ___
• Changing acceleration
• 40 kph
4. Which of the following statement is correct?
• 80 kph
• A body can have a constant velocity and still has acceleration
• 120 kph
• A body can have a constant speed and still has a varying velocity
• 360 kph
• A body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speed
11. A car travels with a constant speed of 100 kph in a highway. What is its speed after 1/2 hr?
• All of the above
• 50 kph
5. The speedometer of a car measures specifically the car’s ____
• 100 kph
• Average speed
• 150 kph
• Total distance travelled
• 200 kph
• Instantaneous speed
12. What is the constant acceleration of a delivery truck from a department store if it stars
• Instantaneous acceleration
from rest and travels at 40 ft/s in 1/3 min?
6. In the Olympics, the fastest runner is one with ___
• 1/2 ft/s^2
• Largest recorded time
• 2 ft/s^2
• Shortest recorded time
• 8 ft/s^2
• Largest distance travelled
• 120 ft/s^@
• All of the above
13. A certain EA-14 airplane has travelled a range of 1,000 km at an average velocity of 500 16. The speed vs. time graph of the motion of a robot was shown below. What is the total
kph. What is the maximum time in the air at this velocity? distance travelled by the robot?
• 30 min
• 40 min
• 50 min
• 60 min
• NA
14. What is the average speed of a car that travels at 50 mph for 2.5 hours, at 100 mph for 2
hours, and at 150 mph for 1.5 hours?
• 75 mph
• 100 mph
• 125 mph • 10 m
• 300 mph • 20 m
• NA • 35 m
15. Which speed vs. time graph best represents the speed of a falling ball as a function of time • 50 m
with negligible air resistance? 17. The speed vs. time graph of the motion of a robot was shown below. What is the average
speed of a robot at the end of 5s?

• F
• O • 3 m/s
• R • 5 m/s
• C • 7 m/s
• 10 m/s
18. The speed vs. time graph of the motion of a robot was shown below. At what time interval 21. A powerful rocket moves for a short time with an acceleration that grows with time
is the robot moving with constant positive acceleration? according to the formula a=3t^2. If the rocket starts from rest, what is the total distance
travelled after 2 s?
• 64 ft
• 16 ft
• 8 ft
• 4 ft
22. A powerful rocket moves for a short time with an acceleration that grows with time
according to the formula a=3t^2. If the rocket is to accelerate from rest until it reaches a
speed of 64,000 ft/s, how long must the acceleration be maintained?
• 80 s
• From 0 s to 2 s • 40 s
• From 2 s to 4 s • 32 s
• From 4 s to 5 s • 20 s
• All of the above 23. The acceleration of the ball thrown upward in the absence of air resistance is ___
19. The displacement in cm an object travels is given by x=10t^3-5t^2+2t, where t is in second. • Greater than that of the ball thrown downward
What is the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity for t = 2s? • The same as that of the ball thrown downward
• 120 cm/s • Less than that of the ball thrown downward
• 102 cm/s • Zero when it reached the highest point in its motion
• 42 cm/s 24. A projectile is fired at angle above the horizontal. If air resistance is neglected, what is the
• 30 cm/s acceleration of the horizontal component?
20. The displacement in cm an object travels is given by x=10t^3-5t^2+2t, where t is in second. • Zero
What is the magnitude of the acceleration at t = 2 s? • Constant
• 60 cm/s^2 • 9.81 m/s^2
• 50 cm/s^2 • 32.2 ft/s^2
• 22 cm/s^2 25. In the absence of air resistance, the projectile has its maximum range when fired with an
• 7 cm/s^2 initial velocity at angle above the horizontal of ____
• NA • 30 degrees
• 45 degrees
• 75 degrees
• 90 degrees
26. In the absence of air resistance, the projectile has its maximum height when fired with an 31. A stone is dropped into a river from Calumpang Bridge. At the same time and from the
initial velocity at angle above the horizontal of ___ same height, another stone is thrown vertically downward towards the water. Neglecting
• 30 degrees air resistance, the acceleration just before striking the water ___
• 45 degrees • Is greater for the dropped stone
• 75 degrees • Is the same for each stone
• 90 degrees • Is greater for the thrown stone
27. Objects A and B were dropped simultaneously inside an airless chamber. If A is heavier • Depends on how high they started
than B, then ____ 32. Projectile accelerate ______
• B will fall faster • Downward only
• A will fall faster • Forward only
• Both will fall at the same time • Both downward and forward
• Neither will fall • Neither downward and forward
28. If a ball and a leaf are dropped from the same level at exactly the same time, the ball hits 33. A projectile is launched at angle of 15 degrees with the horizontal and lands downrange.
the ground first because ___ What other projection angle for the same speed would produce the same downrange
• Air resistance speeds up the ball’s fall distance?
• Gravity pulls stronger on the ball • 30 degrees
• Air resistance slows down the leaf’s fall • 45 degrees
• The ball weighs more than the leaf • 60 degrees
29. The path traversed by a projectile is called ____ • 75 degrees
• Ballistics 34. Two identical projectiles are fired at the same angle from the same location. If the initial
• Maximum height speed of B is twice that of A, then the range of B is ____ that of A.
• Range • Half
• Trajectory • Equal to
30. Two balls are thrown vertically upward, one with an initial speed twice that of the other. • Twice
Neglecting air resistance, the ball with greater initial speed will reach a height ___ that of • Four times
the other.
• Twice
• Square root of 2
• Four times
• Eight times
35. Projectile B is launched at an angle of 45 degrees with the horizontal and lands at point x. 39. When an object exerts a normal force on the surface, the force is ____
Where did projectiles A and C land if they were launched with the same velocity as • Frictional in origin
Projectile B? • Parallel to the surface
• Equal to the object’s weight
• Perpendicular to the surface
40. A body of mass m is accelerated by a net force F. If the net force F is reduced to one-half,
the acceleration of the same body is ___
• Halved
• The same
• Between L and x
• Doubled
• Between x and 2
• Four times
• Between 2 and 3
41. In an Atwood Machine consisting of a frictionless and massless fixed pulley and two blocks
• Beyond 3
connected by a light, flexible cord on both ends, the system is in equilibrium when the ___
36. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s^2. Compared with his mass and weight
• Blocks are accelerating
on Earth, an astronaut on Mars has ___
• Mass of the blocks are equal
• Less mass and less weight
• Tension in the cord is zero
• The same mass and less weight
• Tension in the cord is maximum
• Less mass and more weight
42. When the elevator is moving with an upward acceleration, the tension in the supporting
• The same mass and more weight
cable is ___
37. An automobile that is towing a trailer is accelerating on a level road. The force that the
• equal to zero
automobile exerts on the trailer is equal to the force the ___
• equal to the weight of the elevator and its load
• Trailer exerts on the automobile
• greater than the weight of the elevator and its load
• Trailer exerts on the road
• less than the weight of the elevator and its load
• Road exerts on the trailer
43. What is the quantitative measure of the inertia of a body?
• Road exerts on the automobile
• force
38. The action and reaction forces referred to in Newton’s Third Law of Motion ___
• mass
• Act on the same body
• velocity
• Act on different bodies
• weight
• Need not be equal in magnitude
• Must be equal in magnitude but need not have the same line of action
44. When a 10 N force acts on a 10-kg object that is able to move freely, the object moves 49. Which of the following quantities is the heaviest on Earth’s surface?
with a/an ____ • 100 dyne
• speed of 1 m/s • 100 kg
• acceleration of 0.102 m/s^2 • 100 N
• acceleration of 1 m/s^2 • 100 lb
• acceleration of 9.8 m/s^2 50. A 10-lb block lies on a rough plane inclined at an angle of 22 degrees with the horizontal.
45. When an 10 lb force acts on a 10-lb object that is able to move freely, the object moves The coefficients of static and kinetic friction are 0.4 and 0.3, respectively. What is the
with a/an ____ acceleration of the block as it slides down the plane?
• Speed of 1 ft/s • 0.12 ft/s^2
• Acceleration of 0.031 ft/s^2 • 3.11 ft/s^2
• Acceleration of 1 ft/s^2 • 12.06 ft/s^2
• Acceleration of 32.2 ft/s^2 • 32.2 ft/s^2
46. A force of 300 lb slows down a cart from 60 ft/s to 20 ft/s in 10 s. What is the weight of 51. What provides the centripetal force on a car rounding a curve on a level road?
the cart? • Torque applied to its steering wheel
• 75 lb
• Friction between the tires and road
• 300 lb
• Gravity
• 735 lb
• Its brakes
• 2,415 lb
52. When the radius of the path of an object in uniform circular motion is doubled, what
47. Which of the following is the reaction force to the gravitational force acting on your body
happens to the required centripetal force if its speed remains the same?
as you sit in your desk chair?
• Half as great as before
• The normal force exerted by the chair
• The force you exert downward on the seat of the chair • The same as before
• The upward force on the earth due to you • Twice as great as before
• The friction force on the chair • Four times as great as before
48. A mechanical engineer placed a physics book on a wooden board. One end of the board 53. What provides the centripetal force needed to keep the Earth in orbit?
is raised so that the angle of the incline increases. Eventually, the book starts sliding on • Inertia
the board. If the angle of the board is maintain at this value, the book _____ • Its rotation about its axis
• Moves at constant speed • Gravitational pull of the sun
• Slows down • Gravitational pull of the moon
• Speeds up
• Is at rest
54. The speed needed to put a satellite in orbit does NOT depend on ____ 60. Which of the following quantities is doubled when the velocity of a moving object is
• Radius of the orbit also doubled?
• Value of the “g” at the orbit • Acceleration
• Shape of the orbit • Momentum
• Mass of the satellite • Kinetic energy
55. The physical quantity which produces angular acceleration is called ___ • Potential energy
• Angular momentum 61. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly elastic collision?
• Centripetal force • Momentum is conserved but not kinetic energy
• Centrifugal force • Kinetic energy is conserved but not momentum
• Torque • Momentum and kinetic energy are both conserved
56. Which of the following quantities does an object at rest possess? • Neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved
• Velocity 62. Which of the following is a characteristic of an inelastic collision?
• Momentum • Momentum is conserved but not kinetic energy
• Kinetic energy • Kinetic energy is conserved but not momentum
• Potential energy • Momentum and kinetic energy are both conserved
57. An object that has momentum must also have ___ • Neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved
• Impulse 63. In a perfectly elastic collision between two objects, how does the relative velocity
• Acceleration after collision compared to the relative velocity before collision?
• Kinetic energy • Less than
• Potential energy • More than
58. Which of the following is NOT a unit of power? • Equal
• J/s • Negligible
• kWh 64. What is the centripetal acceleration of a 0.50 kg ball that moves in a horizontal circle
• ft lb/s 40 cm in radius at a speed of 4 m/s?
• hp • 10 m/s^2
59. Which of the following is an equivalent unit in which linear momentum can be • 40 m/s^2
expressed? • 50 m/s^2
• N/s • 100 m/s^2
• Ns
• Nm
• N m/s
65. A car is travelling at 50 kph on a road such that the coefficient of friction between the 70. What is the power output of a 100-ln boy that runs up a staircase to a floor 15ft
tires and the road is 0.5. What is the minimum turning radius of the car? higher in 5.45 s?
• 10 m • 1/64 hp
• 20 m • 1/2 hp
• 39 m • 1 hp
• 510 m • 275 hp
66. How much work can a 0.6 kW electric drill do in 1 min? 71. What is the kinetic energy of a 1,000 kg car whose speed is 80 kph?
• 0.6 J • 25.2 kJ
• 36 J • 247 kJ
• 0.6 kJ • 2.42 MK
• 36 kJ • 3.20 MJ
67. An iron sphere of mass 30 kg has the same diameter as an aluminum sphere of mass 72. How high a 50-kg mass was raised if a total of 4,900 J is expended in lifting it?
15 kg. The spheres are simultaneously dropped from the cliff. When they are 10 m • 10 m
from the ground, they have identical _____ • 98 m
• Accelerations • 980 m
• Moments • 245 km
• Kinetic energies 73. How long can a 60-kg girl whose average power is 30 W can climb a mountain 2 km
• Potential energies high?
68. How much work is done in lifting 30 kg bricks to a height of 20 m on a building under • 0.65 hours
construction? • 1 hour
• Zero • 10.9 hours
• 600 J • 2 hours
• 5, 886 J 74. If an 800 kg white horse has a power output of 1 hp, what maximum force can exert
• 11, 772 J on a cart to have a speed of 3 m/s?
69. Six thousand foot pounds of work is used to raise an object to a height of 100 ft. • 0.25 kN
What is the weight of the object? • 2.2 Kn
• 1.86 lb • 2.5 kN
• 18.63 lb • 3.6 kN
• 60 lb
• 1,932 lb
75. Car has a mass of 1,000 kg and a speed of 60 kph while car B has a mass of 2,000 kg 81. A 800 kg car moving at 80 kph collides with a 1,200 kg car moving at 40 kph in the
and a speed of 30 kph? How is the kinetic energy of car A compared to that of car B? same direction. If the cars stick together, what is their common speed after collision?
• 1/2 • 8 kph
• Equal • 40 kph
• Twice • 56 kph
• Four times • 60 kph
76. Car has a mass of 1,000 kg and a speed of 60 kph while car B has a mass of 2,000 kg 82. A 800 kg car moving at 80 kph collides with a 1,200 kg car moving at 40 kph in the
and a speed of 30 kph? How is the linear momentum of car A compared to that of opposite direction. If the cars stick together, what is their common speed after
car B? collision?
• 1/2 • 8 kph
• Equal • 40 kph
• Twice • 56 kph
• Four times • 60 kph
77. What is the average momentum in kg m/s of a 70-kg runner who covers 400 m in 50 83. A motor boat moving with a constant velocity of 22
seconds? 84. A 2 hp electric motor drives a machine with an efficiency of 45 %. Assuming that it is used
• 8.75 for 8 hours/day, what is the energy consumption of the machine for the month of April?
• 56 • 5.37 kJ
• 560 • 3.37 kWh
• 5,488 • 161.14 kJ
78. A 1,200 kg car moving north at 50 kph collides with a 1,500 kg car moving east at 30 • 161.14 kWh
85. What is the coefficient of restitution of a ball dropped from a height of 3 m and bounces
kph. If the car stick together, what is their common speed?
up to a height of 1 m
• 27.44 kph
• 0
• 85.57 kph
• 0.33
• 54.86 kph
• 0.58
• 77.44 kph • 1
79. A 1,200 kg car moving north at 50 kph collides with a 1,500 kg car moving east at 30
kph. If the car stick together, in what direction do the cars move after collision?
80.
86. A rubber ball dropped from a height of exactly 6 ft above the level floor bounces several 91. A satellite orbits the earth at 4,500 km above the planet. The mass of earth is 5.98 x 10^24
times, losing 10 % of its kinetic energy each bounce. After how many bounces will the ball kg and the radius of the Earth is 6.38 x 10^3 km. What is the orbiting speed of the satellite?
subsequently not rise above 3 ft? • 3,570 m/s
• 1 • 4,390 m/s
• 2 • 5,210 m/s
• 3 • 6,055 m/s
• 4 92. A certain laptop uses 150 W of power. It the cost of electricity is Php 6.00 per kWh. What
87. Water is pouring down from a water fall at the rate of 75 kg/s on the blades of a turbine. is the cost of running the laptop 4 hours per day for an entire month of March?
If the height of a fall be 100 m, then the power delivered to the turbine is approximately • Php 108.00
• 73.58 kW • Php 111.60
• 75kW • Php 216.00
• 735.75 kW • Php 223.20
• 7,500 kW 93. A force of 50 N is applied to a 10 kg solid disk with a radius of 65 cm. What is the angular
88. Two bodies A and B having masses in the ratio 1:4 have kinetic energies in the ratio of 4:1. acceleration of the disk?
What is the ratio of the linear moment of A to B? • 15.4 rad/s^2
• 1:4 • 16.9 rad/s^2
• 1:3 • 17.8 rad/s^2
• 1:2 • 19.4 rad/s^2
• 1:1 94. A wheel accelerates from 15 rad/s to 85 rad/s in 6 seconds. How many complete
89. Four identical railway trucks, each mass M are coupled together and rest on a smooth revolutions does the wheel make during this time?
horizontal track. A fifth truck of mass 2M and moving at 5 m/s collides and couples with • 96
the stationary trucks. After the impact, what is the speed in m/s of the truck? • 95
• 5/6 • 48
• 1 • 47
• 5/4 95. A wheel with a radius of 75 cm is spinning at an angular speed of 90 rpm. What is the
• 5/3 linear speed of this wheel in mph?
90. Two object with masses M are separated by distance R and the gravitational force • 12
between them is F. Which expression represents the gravitational force acting on each • 16
object if the masses are now 3M and 4M separated by a distance of 1/2 R? • 19
• 1/24 F • 24
• 1/6 F
• 6F
• 48 F
96. A ball is kicked from the level ground at an angle of 30 degrees with the horizontal with 99. The Atwood Machine Is shown below. The pulley is both massless and frictionless.
an initial speed of 45 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, what is the maximum height and the Determine the tension the cord.
range of the ball to the nearest integer?
• R=179 m, h=20m
• R=179 m, h=26m
• R=193 m, h=26m
• R=193 m, h=20m
97. In the system shown below, the friction and the mass of the pulley are negligible. What is
the acceleration of m2 along a frictionless surface if m1 = 300 g, m2 = 500 g and F = 1.50
N?

• 11 N
• 17 N
• 25 N
• 77 N
• 1.875 m/s^2
•
• 0.882 m/s^2
100. Pulled by the 8.0-N block shown in the figure below, the 20-N block to the right
• 0.469 m/s^2
at a constant velocity. Assumed the pulley to be massless frictionless. What is the
• 0.441 m/s^2 coefficient of kinetic friction between the block the table.
98. Given the system of two blocks as shown in the figure below. If the surfaces are
frictionless, what is the acceleration of the system?

• a = mB g cos 30 / (mA+mB) • 0.29

• a = mB g sin 30 / (mA+mB) • 0.40
• a = mA g cos 30 / (mA+mB) • 0.71
• a = [mA - mB g sin 30] / (mA+mB) • 2.50
FLUID MECHANICS 9. An egg is placed at the bottom of a bowl filled with water. Salt is slowly added to the water until
1. When a chocolate is cut into half, its density is ______________. the egg rises and floats. From this experiment, one concludes
a. halved c. tripled a. calcium in the egg’s shell repelled sodium chloride
b. doubled d. unchanged b. salt sinks to the bottom
2. The density of a lake full of water is ___________ the density of a cup full of lake water. c. the density of the salt-H2O solution exceeds that of the egg
a. greater than c. less than d. buoyant force does not always act upward
b. incomparable to d. equal to 10. Pumice is a volcanic rock that floats in water. Its density _________________.
3. Which of the following cannot be a unit of weight density? a. is less than that of water c. is equal to that of water
a. lbs/ft3 c. N/m3 b. is more than that of water d. depends on the density of water
b. g/mL d. dyne/cm3 11. A piece of stone is heaviest in _____________.
4. Pascal’s principle is applied to all of the following, except ___________. a. air c. vacuum
a. can crusher c. spray net b. salt water d. freshwater
b. hydraulic lift d. car brakes 12. Three ice blocks are floating in bathtubs filled to the brim with water. Block A has large air
5. At the same depth, which exerts the greatest pressure? bubbles trapped in it. Block B has unfrozen water in it and block C has an iron spike embedded
a. gasoline c. blood in it. When the ice melts, what happens?
b. glycerin d. margarine a. water level in C will decrease while the other two remains
6. For bodies that sink, all of the following are numerically the same except the b. only water in letter C will spill over
________________________. c. water level in A will stay the same while the other two spill over
a. buoyant force c. loss of weight d. all stays exactly the same
b. apparent weight d. weight of the displaced liquid 13. Ice cubes submerged at the bottom of a liquid mixture indicate that the mixture
a. fails to produce a buoyant force on the ice
7. A fishbowl with a goldfish stands on a very sensitive scale. The fish swims suddenly, hitting the
b. has dissolve air in the liquid state
side of the bowl. The reading on the scale __________________.
c. is composed of open-structured crystals
a. does not change c. increases
d. is less dense than ice
b. decreases d. fluctuates
14. A cylinder contains 40 mL of water. A stone is dropped into the water and sinks. The water
8. A dam is thicker at the base than at the top because ________________.
a. water is denser at deeper levels
level rises to 60 mL. Which statement is false?
b. it looks better a. the stone displaces water
c. surface tension exists only on the surface of liquids b. the stone’s volume is 20 mL
d. water pressure is greater with increasing depth c. the mass of displaced water is 20 g
d. there is no FB on the stone
15. As the diameter of the tube increases, the velocity of the fluid 21. The volume of liquid flowing per second out an orifice at the bottom of a tank does not
a. increases depend on the
b. decreases a. area of the orifice
c. remains the same b. density of the liquid
d. does not change but the flow rate increases c. value of the acceleration due to gravity
16. In a well-designed aircraft wing, the velocity above the wing is great. As a consequence, d. height of the liquid above the orifice
the pressure above the wing 22. A bubble of air released from the bottom of a lake ___________.
a. remains the same c. is greater than below a. rises to the top at a constant volume
b. is less than below d. is equal to the pressure below b. becomes smaller as it rises
17. In drinking water, the number of coliform bacteria should not exceed c. expands and contracts as it rises
a. 10/100 mL c. 100/100 mL d. becomes larger as it rises
b. 1/1000 mL d. zero 23. For turbulent flow of fluid in a pipe, all of the following are true, except
18. Two life preservers have identical volumes, one filled with Styrofoam, and the other is filled a. Pipe roughness affects the friction factor
with sand. When these are worn by swimmers, so that one swimmer floats with part of the b. Reynold’s number will be less than 2000
preserver above the water, and the other swimmer sinks, the buoyant force is actually greater c. Flow of gases and low viscosity is usually turbulent
on the preserver filled with ________. d. The average viscosity will be nearly the same at the center
a. Styrofoam c. sand 24. In a system of pipes in series,
b. same for each d. undetermined a. head losses are equal
19. If the part of an iceberg that extends above the water were suddenly removed, the b. velocities are equal
__________________ c. flows are the same
a. iceberg will sink d. frictional coefficients are equal
b. density of the iceberg would change 25. A barrier constructed around a post area to shelter the interior water areas against heavy
c. buoyant force on the iceberg would decrease seas. It’s used to reduce wave heights, tidal currents and surges in order to avoid damage to
d. pressure on the bottom of the iceberg would increase ships at their moorings.
20. An express train goes past a station platform at a high speed. A person standing on the a. seawall c. quay wall
edge of the platform tends to be b. levees d. breakwater
a. attracted to the train 26. In a fluid flow, if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual
b. unaffected by the train’s passage particles do not cross, the flow of the fluid is said to be _________.
c. repelled from the train a. laminar c. critical
d. attracted/repelled depending on the ratio of their speeds b. turbulent d. chaotic
27. A hydraulic structure built for the purpose of impounding or holding back water. 34. An umbrella tends to move upward on a windy day principally because
a. dike c. dam a. Air gets trapped under the umbrella, warms and then rises
b. open channel d. breakwater b. Buoyancy increases with increasing wind speed
28. An earthen embankment built on each side of a river, some distance away from its banks, c. air pressure is reduced over the curved top surface
to control flood is known as ______________. d. all of these
a. earthen dam c. grone 35. When water is turned on in a shower, the shower curtain moves towards the water. This
has to do with
b. sand bags d. dike
a. capillary action c. surface tension
29. The viscosity of a fluid in the SI system is Ns/m2. It is also equal to __________.
b. released body heat d. pressure of moving fluid
a. 1 poise c. 10 poise
b. 1 centipoise d. 0.10 poiseuille
30. Bernoulli’s equation is based upon the
a. second law of motion
b. law of conservation of momentum
c. third law of motion
d. law of conservation of energy
31. Of the following substances, the least viscous at room temperature is ____.
a. sesame oil c. crude oil
b. asphalt d. grease
32. An assumption that means the density of the fluid is constant
a. the fluid motion is steady
b. the fluid is non-viscous
c. the fluid is incompressible
d. the flow is irrotational
33. All of the following are characteristics of a real fluid flow, except ________.
a. rotational c. laminar
b. viscous d. incompressible
THERMAL PHYSICS 7. Consider a closed, rigid and sealed can of air placed on a hot stove. The contained air
undergoes an increase in
1. Heat has the same unit as ________________. a. mass b. volume
a. power b. specific heat capacity
c. pressure d. none of these
c. work d. temperature
8. The reason that the white hot sparks that strike your skin from a 4th-of-July type sparkler
2. All but one are units used in measuring the amount of heat. Which is it? (luces) don’t harm you is because
a. BTU b. calories a. they have a low temperature
c. ft-lbs d. watts b. the energy per molecule is very low
c. it is light alone, no heat actually
3. Compared to a giant iceberg, a hot cup of coffee has more d. the energy per molecule is high, but little energy is transferred because of the few
a. internal energy and higher temperature molecules in the spark
b. temperature but less internal energy 9. Which one of the following comments regarding the addition of heat to a system is false?
c. specific heat and internal energy a. The conduction of heat always involves a transfer of heat
d. none of these b. Heat and temperature are not the same thing
c. Temperature can change even though no heat is lost or gained
4. The internal energy of water is determined by which of the following? d. The addition of heat always causes a rise in temperature
I. Temperature 10. If glass expands more than mercury, the column of mercury in a thermometer would rise
when the temperature
II. Phase a. increases b. stabilizes
III. Mass
a. I only b. I and II only c. decreases d. undetermined

c. II only d. all them three 11. During a very cold winter, water pipes sometimes burst. The reason for this is
a. the ground contracts when colder pulling the pipes apart
5. The fact that a thermometer takes its own temperature best illustrates ______. b. water contracts when cooling
a. thermal equilibrium b. heat transfer c. water expands when cooling
d. the thawing process releases pressure on the pipes
c. energy conservation d. thermal expansion 12. A typical liquid-filled thermometer works due to the fact that as the thermometer heats
6. Pour a liter of water at 40oC into half-a-liter of water at 20oC and the final temperature of up, its _____________.
the two becomes a. Liquid molecules expand
a. more than 30oC b. less than 30oC b. Liquid molecules require more spaces between themselves
c. Outer tube contracts and squeezes liquid into the thermometer
c. about 30oC d. undetermined d. Both B and C
13. A brass pin is a little too large to fit in a hole in a steel block. In order to insert the pin on 19. Ice is put in a cooler in order to cool the contents. In order to speed-up the cooling process,
the hole in the block, we should the ice can be
a. cool the pin and heat the block a. wrapped in newspaper
b. heat the pin and cool the block b. drained of icy water periodically
c. cool them both c. kept out of contact with the food
d. heat them both d. crushed
14. The fact that desert sand is scorchingly hot in the day and extremely cold at night is 20. A paper cup of water held in flame will not set on fire. This is because
evidence that the sand has a a. the inside of the paper is wet
a. high specific heat b. low specific heat b. paper is an excellent conductor of heat
c. paper is a poor conductor of heat
c. low conductivity rate d. blackbody character d. the paper cannot become appreciably hotter than the water that it is in contact
15. The absolute zero temperature is equal to _______________. with
a. 273.15 K b. -32oC 21. Firefighters find that the temperature of a burning material is best lowered when water is
a. used in very small amounts b. pointed away from flames
c. 0 K d. -273.15 K
c. sprayed as a fine mist d. salted
16. An inventor discovers a harmless and tasteless salt, which, when added to water changes
its boiling point. The market value of this salt will be best if the salt 22. Thermal energy is transferred between any two bodies of different
a. lowers the boiling point of water a. latent heat of fusion b. specific heat
b. raises the boiling point of water c. temperatures d. internal energy
c. either it lowers or raises the boiling point as the food will be cooked anyway
d. is of low calorie 23. The amount of energy that must be added to a unit quantity of a material to raise its
17. If you want to cook eggs by boiling them while in a deep cavern in the ground, you should temperature by one degree is called the _________.
a. use a hotter flame b. boil eggs for a shorter time a. thermal energy b. heat content

c. boil eggs for a longer time d. none of these c. internal energy d. specific heat

18. A large square sheet of copper with a small hole in it is heated by 100 Co. Which of the 24. Thermal energy added to a sample of a substance that changes the phase of the substance
following will occur? is called _________.
a. The area of the sheet decreases and the diameter of the hole increases a. heat of formation b. heat content
b. The area of the sheet increases and the diameter of the hole decreases
c. The area of the sheet increases and the diameter of the hole increases c. heat of reaction d. latent heat
d. The area of the sheet increases and the diameter of the hole remains constant 25. When a vapor condenses into a liquid, _________________.
a. it absorbs heat b. its temperature rises

c. it releases heat d. its temperature drops

26. A hot dog pants 33. Steam burns are more damaging than burns caused by boiling water because
a. to help evaporation occur in its mouth and bronchial tract a. Steam gives-up additional energy when it condenses
b. to bring more oxygen to its lungs b. Steam has more energy per kilogram than boiling water
c. to impress dogs of the opposite sex c. both of these
d. for no particular reason—some things happen the way they do d. neither of these
27. Water droplets appear on a cold glass because water vapor in the air 34. Which phase changes require an overall energy loss.
a. evaporated b. condensed a. Condensation and vaporization
b. Melting and freezing
c. melted d. vaporized c. Freezing and condensation
d. Melting and vaporization
28. When heat is added to a briskly boiling water, its temperature
35. A block of ice is being converted to liquid at melting point. During the process of melting,
a. increases b. decreases
its temperature
c. stays the same d. fluctuates a. fluctuates b. increases

29. Evaporation is a cooling process and condensation is c. decreases d. is constant

a. warming process b. cooling process also
36. Heat energy travels from an object with a high
c. either of the two d. neither cooling nor warming a. internal energy to an object of lower internal energy
b. temperature to an object with lower temperature
30. The boiling point of water is c. both of these, for they essentially mean the same thing
a. the same everywhere b. lower at higher altitudes d. neither of these
37. If a volume of air is warmed, it expands. If a volume of air expands, it _________.
c. lower at low altitudes d. unaffected by air pressure
a. warms b. cools
31. We feel uncomfortably warm on a muggy day because water molecules are
c. is heated d. neither warms nor cools
a. evaporating from our moist bodies
b. condensing on our bodies 38. A person shakes a sealed, insulated bottle containing coffee for a few minutes. What is the
c. preventing the evaporation from our moist bodies change in the temperature of the coffee?
d. trapped in our skin pores thus heat is trapped a. a large decrease b. a slight decrease
32. The latent heat of fusion of ice is 335 kJ/kg. This means that 335 kJ of heat is required to
___________________________. c. no change d. a slight increase
a. raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1oC.
b. lower the temperature of 1 kg of ice by 1oC 39. Boiling water does not increase in temperature when additional heat is applied because
c. change 1 kg of water to steam a. the temperature doesn’t change in a state of phase change
d. melt 1 kg of ice b. added input energy doesn’t increase the water’s internal energy
c. the increased heating produces increased boiling and therefore, increased
cooling
d. none of these
40. Your feet feel warmer on a rug than on a tile floor in the same room because the rug 46. A poker is a stiff, non-flammable rod used to push burning logs around in a fireplace.
a. is usually warmer than the tile b. is a better insulator than the tile Suppose it is to be made of a single material. For best functionality and safety, should the
poker be made from a material with
c. has more internal energy d. all of these a. high specific heat and high thermal conductivity
41. Suppose you were served coffee at a restaurant before you are ready to drink it. In order b. low specific heat and low thermal conductivity
for it to be the hottest when you are ready for it, you should add cream c. low specific heat and high thermal conductivity
a. right away d. high specific heat and low thermal conductivity
b. at any time
c. when you are ready to drink the coffee 47. Which of the following has the highest caloric value per mass?
d. after you have gulped it to the last drop a. proteins b. fats
42. The main reason why one can walk barefoot on red-hot coals of wood without burning his
feet has to do with c. carbohydrates d. salts
a. low temperature of the coals
b. low thermal conductivity of the coals
c. mind-over-matter techniques
d. the high threshold of pain of the soles of our feet
43. A good absorber of radiation is a
a. good emitter of radiation b. poor emitter of radiation

c. good reflector d. none of these

44. If you were caught in the freezing weather with only a candle for heat, you would be
warmest in
a. a wooden shack b. a car

c. an igloo d. a tent

45. Solid X is placed in contact with solid Y. Heat will flow simultaneously from X to Y when
________________.
a. X is -25oC and Y is -10oC
b. X is 32oF and Y is 20oC
c. X is 10oC and Y is 5oC
d. X is 25oC and Y is 30oC
ELECTROSTATICS AND ELECTRODYNAMICS

1. Which force binds atoms together to form molecules? 8. He was responsible for providing electromagnetism a sound theoretical basis.
a. electrical b. gravitational a. James Clerk Maxwell b. Michael Faraday

c. nuclear d. magnetic c. Heinrich Hertz d. Albert Einstein

2. Strip electrons from an atom and the atom becomes 9. The discovery of electrical nature of lightning was made by Benjamin Franklin. He was
a. a positive ion b. a negative ion of ________________ descent.
a. English b. Australian
c. an electrolyte d. a different element
c. Austrian d. American
3. A positive ion has more
a. electrons than protons b. protons than neutrons 10. Relative to the electrical force between two protons, the gravitational force between
them
c. protons than electrons d. electrons than neutrons a. is weaker b. is stronger
4. The main difference between gravitational and electrical force is that the latter c. is equal in magnitude d. is any of the above
a. act over short distances b. attract
11. An object has positive charge whenever
c. are weaker d. attract or repel a. it has an excess of electrons
5. The electrical force between charges is strongest when the charges are b. it has a deficiency of electrons
a. of opposite charges b. far apart c. the nuclei of its atoms are positively charged
d. the electrons of its atoms are positively charged
c. of same charges d. close together 12. The negative electric charge interacts
a. only with positive charges
6. In an electrically neutral atom, the number of protons in the nucleus is equal to the b. only with negative charges
number of c. either with both positive and negative charges depending on the
a. electrons that surround the nucleus circumstances
b. neutrons in the nucleus d. with both positive and negative charges
c. both of these 13. If you comb your hair and the comb becomes positively charged, then your hair
d. neither of these becomes
7. Hans Christian Oersted accidentally discovered a connection between electricity and a. neutrally charged b. positively charged
magnetism in the year _____________
a. 1830 b. 1820 c. negatively charged d. uncharged

c. 1810 d. 1815
14. The difference between electrical and gravitational forces is that the former includes 21. The electric field inside a truck struck by lightning is
a. separation distance b. repulsive interactions a. normally huge but for a brief time
b. zero
c. infinite range d. none of these c. small enough to harm an occupant inside
15. Charge carriers in a metal are electrons rather than protons because electrons are d. normally huge, for a time longer than the lightning stroke itself
a. negative b. loosely bound 22. Coulomb’s Law belongs in the same category as the
a. Law of Gravitation b. Law of Thermodynamics
c. smaller d. all of these
c. Law of Motion d. Conservation Principles
16. A conductor differs from an insulator in that a conductor has
a. more electrons than protons b. more protons than electrons 23. Of the following quantities, the one that is a vector in character is
a. electric charge b. electric field
c. more energy than an insulator d. none of these
c. electric potential difference d. electric energy
17. The electric field inside an isolated electron has certain strength 1 cm from the
electron. The electric field strength 2 cm from the electron is 24. Electric lines of force
a. the same b. twice as much a. are imaginary
b. exist everywhere
c. half as much d. none of these c. exist only in the immediate vicinity of electric charges
d. exist only when both positive and negative charges are near each other
18. To be safe in an unlikely case of a lightning strike, it is best to be inside a building 25. The electric field at a point in space is equal in magnitude to the
framed with a. potential difference there
a. steel b. wood b. electric charge there
c. paper d. any of the above c. force of a charge of 1 C would experience there
d. force an electron would experience there
19. Two charged particles held close to each other are released. As they move, the force 26. A charged object will cause another object that is also charged to (be)
on each particle increases. Therefore the particles have a. repelled b. attracted
a. the same sign b. the opposite sign
c. remain unchanged d. attracted or repelled
c. moved away further d. not enough information given
27. Two charges are both charged +Q and are 1 cm apart. If one of the charges is replaced
20. When the distance between two charges is halved, the electrical force between them by a charge –Q, the magnitude of the force between them is
a. quadruples b. doubles a. zero b. smaller

c. reduced fourfold d. halved c. the same d. larger

28. Charles Augustin de Coulomb was the leading proponent of electrostatics. He hailed 34. Two equally charged pithballs are 3 cm apart in air and repel each other with a force
from __________________. of 4.5 X 10-5 N. The charge on each ball is ________________.
a. Switzerland b. French Guyana a. 2 X 109 C b. 8 X 10-5 C

c. The Netherlands d. France c. 2 X 10-9 C d. 2 X 10-5 C

29. Static electricity is used in all of the following except, 35. If 10,000 electrons are removed from a neutral plastic ball, its charge is now _______.
a. paint-spraying using spray guns b. sand paper manufacturing a. 1.6 X 10-15 C b. – 1.6 X10-23 C

c. paint mixing d. laser printing c. 1.6 X 1015 C b. – 1.6 X1023 C

30. If two equal charges, each of 1 C charge, were separated in air by a distance of 1 km, 36. Electric potential, measured in volts, is the ratio of the electric energy per unit
the force between them would be ____________ ________.
a. 9 kN b. 9 mN a. current b. voltage

c. 1 kN d. 1 mN c. resistance d. charge

31. Two charges separated by one meter exert a 1 newton force on each other. If the 37. A coulomb of charge that passes through a 6-V battery is given
charges are pushed to ¼ m separation, the force on each charge will be a. 6 ohms b. 6 joules
a. 8 newtons b. 16 newtons
c. 6 amperes d. 6 watts
c. 2 newtons d. 4 newtons
38. The electronvolt is a unit of
32. The electrical force on a 2 coulomb charge is 60 N. What is the value of the electric a. charge b. energy
field at the place where the charge is located?
a. 20 N/C b. 30 N/C c. resistance d. electromotive force

c. 120 N/C d. 60 N/C 39. A transistor radio is an example of a

a. semiconductor b. superconductor
5
33. A spark of man-made 10 million volt lightning had an energy output of 1.25 X 10
joules. The charge that flowed is _____________. c. resistor d. conductor
a. 125 C b. 1250 C 40. Ampere-volt is a unit of electrical ______________________.
c. 12.5 mC d. 1.25 mC a. current b. energy

c. electrical resistance d. power

41. All of the following means the same, except 48. The number of electrons delivered to an average home by an average power utility in
a. potential difference b. electric potential the year 2010 is __________________.
a. 220 b. zero
c. electromotive force d. conductance
c. 110 d. innumerable
42. Stretch a copper wire so that it is thinner and the resistance between its ends
a. decreases b. increases 49. The temperature of a copper wire is raised. Consequently, its resistance
____________.
c. remains unchanged d. fluctuates a. decreases
43. A woman drying her hair experiences an electrical shock. The electrons making the b. increases
shock come from the ______________. c. remains the same
a. power plant b. hairdryer d. any of the above depending on the temperature]
50. Superconductors are noted for their
c. ground d. woman’s body a. high electrical resistance
b. low electrical resistance
44. The resistance of a conductor does not depend on its _______________. c. near absence of electrical resistance
a. length b. mass d. low conductance
c. cross-sectional area d. resistivity 51. When we say that an appliance “uses up” electricity, we really are saying that
________.
45. Which of the following materials has the lowest resistivity? a. current disappears
a. carbon b. tungsten b. electric charges are dissipated
c. the main power supply voltage is lowered
c. aluminum d. iron d. electron-kinetic energy is changed into heat or any other forms of energy
46. All of the following are of low conductance G, except ______________. 52. If you plug an electric toaster rated at 110 V into a 220 V outlet, current in the toaster
a. aluminum b. nickel will be _________________________.
a. half of what it should be
c. platinum d. copper b. twice of what it should be
c. the same as if it was plugged into a 110 V power source
47. The unit of emf, electromotive force is the _______________. d. more than twice of what it should be
a. ohm b. volt 53. A certain wire has a resistance R. the resistance of another wire, identical with the
first but having twice its diameter is _______.
c. siemens d. electronvolt
a. ¼ R b. 2R

c. ½ R d. 4R
54. A certain piece of silver is to be shaped into a conductor of minimum resistance. Its 60. A wire has a diameter of 0.05 inch. Its cross-sectional; area in circular mil is
length and cross-sectional area ___________________________. _________.
a. should respectively be L and A a. 0.02 cmil b. 0.0025 cmil
b. should be respectively, 2L and ½A
c. should be respectively, ½L and 2A c. 50 cmil d. 2.5 kcmil
d. do not matter since the volume of the silver remains the same For nos. 61-77, choose from the following coys given below:
55. Of the following combination of units, the one that is not equal to the “watt” is
________.
a. X is true and Y is false b. X is false and Y is true
a. ampere-volt b. ampere squared-ohm

c. joule/second d. ohm squared/volt c. X and Y are both true d. X and Y are both false

56. In saving electrical energy consumption, it is not advisable and impractical to 61. X- Albert Einstein based his relativity theory on Maxwell’s equations
a. use fluorescent lights instead of incandescent light bulbs Y- The positive and negative labels for electric charge were due to Benjamin Franklin.
b. switch-off the flat iron in the last few minutes of ironing clothes
62. X- Electricity is the most important invention of man.
c. defrost the refrigerator not too often
Y- Electric forces hold electrons to form molecules.
d. none of the above
57. All of the following are true of electrical energy, except 63. X- Hall Effect demonstrates that it is the electrons that are free to move.
_________________________. Y- Germanium and Selenium are materials that are intermediate between insulators
a. it is free from product s of combustion such as flames, ashes and smoke and conductors.
b. it is hardly controllable
c. it may effectively be transmitted for great distances to places where it can be 64. X- Water when pure, is a good insulator.
used Y- Gold is the best conductor of all metallic elements
d. it may be generated at the most favorable locations
58. The SI unit for conductance is _______________________. 65. X- Majority of our home appliances work on a 110 V line.
a. mho b. reciprocal ohm Y- AC is called alternating current because it changes direction many times each
second.
c. ohm d. siemens
66. X- The higher the wattage of an appliance, the greater the electrical energy
59. If the diameter of a circle is expressed in mils, its area in circular mil is consumption.
a. d b. d2 Y- Energy can be expressed in watt/second.
c. d d. d2 67. X- Power consumption is what you pay for an electric bill.
Y- Appliances that operate for heat and cold have the least energy demand.
68. X- Current really flows through a conducting wire. 78. A power line with a resistance of 2 ohms has a current of 80 A in it. The power
Y- Conductance is directly proportional to current. dissipated in the line is __________.
a. 40 watts b. 12.8 kilowatts
69. X- No material is a perfect insulator.
Y- Georg Simon Ohm is of Belgian descent. c. 160 watts d. 320 watts

70. X- An appliance should be connected to the ground to avoid electrocution. 79. The 8 ohm coil of a loudspeaker carries a current of 800 mA. The potential difference
Y- Pull away a grounded/electrocuted person by the hair or clothing. across its terminals is ________.
a. 0.10 volt b. 6.4 volts
71. X- When several persons are electrocuted, the first to expire is the one nearest the
source. c. 5.12 volts d. 10 volts
Y- A current of amperage---- 0.10 is quite small to biologically harm a person.

72. X- Electric cables are not always circular in cross-section.

Y- Platinum wires are used as heating elements in ovens.

73. X- Every conductor, no matter how good, has some resistance still.
Y- Cross-sectional areas of all wires are figured in circular mils alone.

74. X- The larger the AWG #, the smaller the wire.

Y- Odd-numbered conducting wires are rarely used and are seldom found.

75. X- Most house wires are numbered 14 and 12.

Y- Electronic circuits use AWG # 22 gage wire.

76. A 60 watt light bulb and a 100 watt bulb are each rated at 120 V. Which bulb has a
larger resistance?
a. the 60 W bulb b. the 100 W bulb

c. undetermined d. both have the same resistance

77. A heater uses 20 A when used in a 110 volt line. If the electric energy costs 10
cents/kWh, the cost of running the heater 10 hours is ________
a. 22 cents b. 220 cents

c. 550 cents d. 55 cents