FinQuiz - Stanley Notes™, Study Session 11, Reading 2
FinQuiz - Stanley Notes™, Study Session 11, Reading 2
Stanley Notes™ 2 0 2 5
&
𝜎! = ., 𝑤%# 𝜎)# +,, 𝑤% 𝑤) 𝜎% 𝜎) 𝜌
)'%*(
%'( %'(
According to Risk-return trade-off, higher returns can
only be achieved by taking on greater risk. The
where,
investment opportunity set can be expanded towards
the northwest, indicating an improved portfolio by E (Rp) = expected return on the portfolio
adding assets with correlation <+1 with the existing asset wi = fractional weight in asset i
class. Ri = expected return of asset i
For example, combination of risk-free asset and a risky The covariance between asset is and j, Cov (i,j) is
asset (known as Capital allocation line) provides better expressed as follows:
risk-return trade-off because correlation between risk-
free asset and risky asset is zero. Covariance between asset i &j = Cov (i, j) = ρij×σi×σj
Correlation coefficient (ρ) is expressed as:
Combining a Risk-Free Asset with a Portfolio of
Risky Assets COVij
r ij =
Expected return of a portfolio (with two assets) is s isj
estimated as follows:
Since the correlation of an asset with itself is 1,
E(rA) = wAE(rA)+wBE(rB)
where, Cov (i, j) = ρii×σi×σi = σ2i
A = first asset
B = second asset Assume three portfolios of risky assets, A, B, and C.
w = weights (respectively)
E(r) = expected return of assets • We can create three CALs by combining each
portfolio with the risk-free asset i.e. CAL (A), CAL
NOTE: (B), CAL (C).
• Among portfolios A, B and C, the portfolio C is the
It is assumed that portfolio contains all available risky most superior and is preferred by investors
assets. When any asset is not included in the portfolio, its because it has a greater expected return for any
weight will be = 0. given level of risk.
• The optimal allocation along the capital
Risk (S.D.) of a portfolio (with two assets) is given by: allocation line depends on the risk-aversion of
investors.
𝜎! = #𝑤"# 𝜎"# + 𝑤$# 𝜎$# + 2𝑤" 𝑤$ 𝜎" 𝜎$ 𝜌"$ o A risk-averse investor may prefer to invest a large
proportion of his/her assets in the risk-free asset
where, and earns low returns (due to lower risk
assumed).
A = first asset o A risk-seeking investor may prefer to invest a
B = second asset large portion of his/her assets in the risky asset
w = weights (respectively) and earns higher return (due to higher risk
σ = standard deviation of assets assumed).
r = correlation coefficient of the two assets
&
E(𝑟! ) = , 𝑤% 𝐸(𝑟% )
%'(
where,
As shown in the fig above,
• S.D. or total risk is plotted on the x-axis. w1 = proportion of wealth invested in the risk-
• Portfolio’s Expected return is plotted on y-axis. free asset
• The Y-intercept is the risk-free return (Rf). 1- w1 = proportion of wealth invested in the
• The market portfolio is represented by the point on market portfolio (risky asset)
the Markowitz efficient frontier. It represents the σf = risk of risk-free asset
optimal risky portfolio. σm = risk of the market portfolio
o All points that lie under (or below) CML are not σp = risk of portfolio
efficient portfolios because they generate the Cov (Rf, Rm) = covariance between the risk-free asset
same level of return with a higher level of risk or and the market portfolio
lower level of return with the same amount of
risk. Since, the S.D. of the risk-free asset is 0, the portfolio
o All points that lie above CML are not attainable. return and S.D. can be simplified as follows:
o All points that lie on the CML represent efficient
portfolios. E(Rp) = w1Rf+(1-w1) E(Rm)
o The optimal portfolio is the point of tangency
between CML and Markowitz efficient. 𝝈𝒑 = (𝟏 − 𝝎𝟏 )𝝈𝒎
Important to note:
Leveraged Portfolios • At point Rf, all of the wealth is invested into risk-free
securities. In other words, investor lends 100% of
his/her total wealth at risk-free rate.
• At point M, the investor invests 100% of his/her total
wealth in the market portfolio.
Decomposition of Total Risk for a Single-Index Return-Generating Models: The Market Model
Model
Ri – Rf = βi(Rm – Rf) + ei
where,
Where, ei = error term that reflects non-market changes αi = Intercept
We know, βi= slope coefficient
where, • αi = 0.0001
• βi = 0.90
βi × σm = systematic risk
σe = Non-systematic risk
Thus, regression equation can be stated as follows.
A well-diversified portfolio (i.e. the market portfolio) has Company’s expected daily returns = 0.0001 + 0.90 × Rm
no nonsystematic risk. Thus,
Assume, Rm = 1% and stock rises by 2%, then the
Total risk of for a well-diversified portfolio = Systematic risk abnormal return or company specific return is computed
=βi×σm as follows.
1) Investors are risk-averse, utility-maximizing, rational 5) All investments are infinitely divisible: An investor is
individuals: able to invest as little or as much as he/she wishes in
an asset.
• Utility maximization implies that investors prefer
higher returns, not lower returns. Implication:
• Rational investors imply that investors However, violation of this assumption does not have any
appropriately evaluate and analyze all available significant impact on the conclusions of the model.
information to make rational decisions.
6) Investors are price takers: There are many investors
Implication: and no investor is able to influence prices i.e. investors
Investors’ irrational behavior does not affect CAPM’s are price takers.
results unless prices are significantly affected.
The Security Market Line
2) Markets are frictionless, including no transaction costs
and no taxes: Frictionless markets refer to markets,
The security market line (SML) is a graphical
which have no transaction costs, taxes, or any costs
representation of the CAPM.
or restrictions on short-selling.
Port.1 Portfolio Risk and Return: Part II
Learning Module: 2
NOTE:
Practice: Example 7 from the
If short selling is allowed, then such an asset should be
CFA Institute’s Curriculum.
short sold.
𝛽, = , 𝑤% 𝛽% ; , 𝑤% = 1
As shown in the graph above, %'( %'(
• In order to have an accurate estimate of beta risk, • APT is not commonly used.
it is computed using a long history of returns (3-5 • APT does not specify risk factors to be used as
years). However, longer period data does not inputs into the model. Therefore, practically,
appropriately reflect asset’s current level of CAPM is superior to APT.
systematic risk.
• Using different periods for estimation results in ii) Practical Models
different estimates of beta and as a result different
estimates of expected return for the same asset.
A four-factor model is an example of practical model. It
better predicts asset returns relative to the CAPM. Four
4) The CAPM is a poor predictor of returns: The CAPM is factors include:
an ex-ante model; but it is based on ex-post data. In
addition, asset returns cannot be solely determined 1) Firm Size i.e. smaller companies outperform larger
by its systematic risk. companies.
Port.1 Portfolio Risk and Return: Part II
Learning Module: 2
2) Firm book value-to-market value ratio i.e. value • HML = high minus low = difference in returns
companies outperform growth companies. between high-book-to-market- stocks and low-
3) Excess return on the market portfolio (Rm – Rf) book-to-market stocks è it reflects value versus
4) Price momentum i.e. past winners outperform growth stocks.
past losers. • UMD = difference in returns of the prior year’s
winners and losers è It reflects momentum.
The model is expressed as follows: Historically, it has been analyzed that stock return is
unrelated to the market (i.e. βi, MKT is not significantly
𝑬(𝑹𝒊𝒕 ) = 𝛼% + 𝛽%,@AB 𝑀𝐾𝑇C + 𝛽%,D@$ 𝑆𝑀𝐵C + 𝛽%,E@F 𝐻𝑀𝐿C different from 0).
+ 𝛽%,G@H 𝑈𝑀𝐷C
Limitations of the model:
where,
• No strong economic arguments exist for the three
• E (Ri) = return on an asset in excess of the 1-month additional risk factors used by the model.
T-bill return • The model cannot necessarily be applied to other
• MKT = excess return on the market portfolio assets or assets in other countries.
• SMB = small minus big = difference in returns • The model does not necessarily continue to work
between small-capitalization stocks and large- well in the future.
capitalization stocks è It reflects size.
Performance Evaluation is termed as measuring, to be compared with the Sharpe ratio of another
attributing and evaluating the investment results. portfolio.
• It does not provide any information regarding the
Compare actual return of a portfolio or portfolio economic significance of differences in
manager with the CAPM return for performance performance.
appraisal purposes: • It cannot be used to evaluate portfolio’s
performance relative to the passive market
Portfolio performance can be evaluated using following portfolio.
ratios.
2. Treynor Ratio
1. Sharpe Ratio
𝑅, − 𝑅-
Sharpe Ratio (also known as reward-to-variability ratio): It 𝑇𝑟𝑒𝑦𝑛𝑜𝑟 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 =
𝛽,
is the slope of CAL.
𝑅, − 𝑅-
𝑆ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑝𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 = • Unlike Sharpe ratio, it is based on systematic
𝜎,
(beta) risk.
• In order to have meaningful results, both the
• The greater (lower) the ratio, the better (worse)
numerator and denominator must be positive.
the portfolio’s performance.
• It is based on the total risk of an asset. Therefore, it
is appropriate to use when the portfolio represents Limitations:
an investor’s total portfolio.
• This ratio is applicable only when all comparison • It cannot be used for negative beta assets.
portfolios have positive numerator value. When • It does not provide any information regarding the
the numerator is negative, the ratio results in economic significance of differences in
incorrect rankings. performance.
• It cannot be used to evaluate portfolio’s
Advantages: It is easy to compute. performance relative to the passive market
portfolio.
Limitations:
created by combining the account with borrowing or Alpha = Actual return on the portfolio during evaluation
lending (leveraging or de-leveraging, respectively*) at period – Expected return on the portfolio given
the risk-free rate so that its standard deviation is identical its systematic risk (measured by its beta)*
to that of the market index.
𝛼, = 𝑅, − F𝑅- + 𝛽, /𝑅. − 𝑅- 1G
𝜎.
M# = /R ! − R- 1 − /𝑅. − 𝑅- 1
𝜎, NOTE:
Interpretation:
By definition, alpha of the market = 0
• When M2 is positive (negative), it indicates that
All returns in the equation are realized, actual returns.
the portfolio outperformed (underperformed) the
market on a risk-adjusted basis.
Interpretation: When αp is positive (negative), it indicates
• When M2 = 0, it indicates portfolio’s return =
that portfolio has outperformed (underperformed) the
market return.
market.
NOTE:
• Like Treynor ratio, it is based on systematic risk.
M2 is stated in percentage terms. • It also reflects the maximum amount that an
investor should be willing to pay the manager to
• * When risk of a portfolio is lower (greater) than the manage his/her money.
market index, leverage (de-leverage) is used and
the hypothetical portfolio is compared to the
market.
• Like Sharpe ratio, it is based on total risk.
• Both Sharpe ratio and M2 provide the similar
rankings.
Example: Suppose,
The Jensen’s alpha or ex post alpha measures the excess Practice: Example 10 from the
of the portfolio’s return over that predicted by the CAPM CFA Institute’s Curriculum.
during the evaluation period i.e.