BABA FARID

PUBLIC SCHOOL
FARIDKOT

June 1, 2025 to June 30, 2025

The classes will resume from
July 1, 2025, Tuesday
 Sub: Accountancy
Chapter No. 1 Fundamentals of Partnership,
Ch No. 2 Valuation of Goodwill
Ch. No. 3 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio
A. Multiple choice questions
Q1. Following are the essential elements of a partnership firm except:

a. At least two person’s b. There is an agreement between all partners

c. Equal share of profits and losses d. Partnership agreement is for some business
Q2. The relation of partner with firm is that of:
a. An owner b. An agent c. An owner and agent d. Manager
Q3. Liability of partner is:
a. Limited b. Unlimited c. Determined by court d. Determined by partnership Act
Q4. Forming a partnership deed is:
a. Mandatory b. Mandatory in writing c. Not mandatory d. None of the above
Q5. Partnership deed is also called:
a. Prospectus b. Article of association c. Principle of partnership d. Article of partnership

Q6. A and B are partner in partnership firm with out any agreement. A has given loan of Rs.50000 to firm. At
the end of year Loss was incurred in the business. Following interest may be paid to a by firm:

a. @5% per annum b. @6% per annum c. @ 6% per month d. As there is a loss in business, interest
can’t be paid

Q7. A and B are partners in partnership firm without any agreement. A has withdrawn Rs.50,000 out of his
capital as drawings. Interest on drawings may be charged from a by the firm:

a. @5% per annum

b. @6% per annum
c. @ 6% per month
d. @6% per month no interest can be charged
Q8. India absence of partnership deed, the following rules will apply:
a. no interest on capital c. profit sharing in capital ratio
b. Profit based salary to working partner d. 9% per annum trust on drawings
Q9. Interest on partner’s loan is credited to:
a. Partners fixed capital account b. partners loan account
c. Partner’s current account d. partners drawing account
Q10. Sarvesh commerce sriniketan and srinivas are partners in ratio 5:3:2. If sriniketan share of profit at end
of year amounted Rs.1,50,000 what will we survey share of profit?
 a. Rs. 5,00,000 c. Rs.3,00,000
b. Rs.1,50,000 d. Rs.2,50,000

Q11. Ajay is a partner in a firm he withdrew peace 2000 per month on the last day of every month during the
year and 31st March 2024 if interest on drawings is charged at the rate 9% per annum the interest charge will
be.

a. Rs.990 c. Rs.1170
b. Rs.1080 d. Rs.2160

Q12.Sushil is a partner in a firm he withdrew Rs.4000 per month in the middle of every month during the year
and 31st March 2024 interest on drawings at the rate 8% per annum the interest charge will be.

a. Rs.2018 c. Rs.3840
b. Rs.1760 d. Rs.1920

Q13. Anuradha is a partner in a firm she will drew Rs.6000 in the beginning of each quarter during the year
ended 31st March 2024 and intrust on drawings at the rate 10% per annum will be.

a. Rs.900 c. Rs.1500
b. Rs.1200 d. Rs.600

Q14. Vipasha is a partner enough form she would Rs.6000 at the end of each quarter during the year ended
31st March 2024 and trust on her drawings at the rate 10% per annum will be.

a. Rs.900 c. Rs.1500
b. Rs.600 d. Rs.1200

Q15. Charulata is a partner she withdrew Rs.6000 in in each quarter during the year ended 31st March interest
on her drawings at the rate 9% per annum will be:

a. Rs.1350 c. Rs.900
b. Rs.2250 d. Rs.1800

Q16. If equal amount is withdrawn by a partner in the end of each month during a period of 6 months ending
31st March 24 interest on the total amount will be charged for how much months.

a. 2.5 c. 3.5
b. 3 d. 6
Q17. When a partner is given a guarantee by other partners loss of such guarantee will be born by.

a. Partnership firm c. Partners who gave the guarantee

b. all the other partners d. Partners with highest profit sharing ratio

Q18. P, Q and R partners in 3:2:1 Rs granted that his share of profit will be not less than 70,000 any
deficiency will be borne by P&Q in the ratio 2:1 Firms profit was Rs.2,40,000 share of P will be.

a. Rs.1,00,000 c. Rs.1,20,000
b. Rs.1,10,000 d. Rs.1,02,000
Q19. A and B are partners b draw fixed mount at the end of every month interest and drawing is charged at the
rate 15% per annum at the end of year interest and b drawing will Amount of Rs.8250Drawings of B were:

a. Rs.12,000 per month c. Rs.9000 per month

b. Rs.10,000 per month d. Rs.8000 per month
Q20. Any change in the relationship of existing partners which results at an end of the existing
agreement and enforces the making of a new agreement is called _______.
a. Reconstitution of partnership. c. None of the options are correct.
b. Realisation of partnership. d. Revaluation of partnership.
Q21. The ratio of surrendering of profit sharing ratio is called _____.
a. Gaining Ratio c. Sacrifing Ratio
b. Old Ratio d. New Ratio
Q22. A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They
decided to share future profits equally. Calculate A’s gain or sacrifice
a. 2/10 (sacrifice) c. 5/10 (gain)
b. 1/10 (Gain) d. 1/10 (sacrifice)
Q23. In case of change in profit-sharing ratio, the accumulated profits are
distributed to the partners in
a. Equal Ratio c. Sacrifing Ratio
b. Old Ratio d. New Ratio
Q24. In which of the following cases, revaluation account is credited?

a. Decrease in value of liability c. Increase in value of liability

b. Decrease in value of asset d. No change in value of liability
Q25. In which of the following case, revaluation accou nt is debited?

a. Decrease in value of Asset c. Increase in value of Asset

b. Decrease in value of Liability d. No change in value of Asset

Keywords:-

A. A and R are correct and are correctly explains A

B. A and are are correct but are is not correct explanation of a
C. Both A and R are incorrect
D. A is correct but R is incorrect
Q26. Assertion- A partnership firm is a separate and distinct entity from partners from viewpoint

Reason- As per business entity concept business transactions are recorded from viewpoint of firm hence it is a
separate and distinct entity from partners from vviewpoint
Q27 Assertion- A partnership firm can have maximum 50 partners
Reason- Maximum limit of partners is prescribed in partnership act 1932
Q28. Assertion- Partners are principal but not the agents of partner
Reason- Partner principles as well as agents of other partners
Q29. Assertion- When profit sharing ratio growth among the partners they will share the losses also in same
ratio

Reason- Although in the definition of partnership given in partnership act it stated that the profit will be shared
profit includes losses are also.
Q30. Assertion- A minor cannot be admitted in a firm as partner
Reason- A minor can participate in profits of firm

Q31. Assertion- Fixed capital account of partner always show credit balance is even when the firm suffers
losses after year
Reason- Current account of partner are maintained under fluctuating method.
Q32.Assertion- Goodwill is valued on the basis of normal business profit
Reason- goodwill of firm is valued at the time of change in profit sharing rratio
Q33. Assertion- Goodwill is an intangible but not fictitious asset

Reason- Goodwill is in and diploid because it does not have a physical existence but it is a valuable asset
because it is helpful in earning excess profit
Q34. Assertion- Goodwill exists only when a firm earns more profit than normal profit
Reason- Self generated goodwill shows in book because consideration and money has paid for it
Q35. Assertion- Value of goodwill is subjected andnot an executive value under any method

Reason- Value of goodwill is subjected because it is based on estimated as the number of year purchase or
return on capital eemployed
Q36. Which of the following is true in relation to goodwill?

a. Good will Is a fictious asset c. Goodwill Is a wasting asset

b. Goodwill Is a current asset d. Goodwill Is an intangible asset

Q37. The excess amount which the firm can get on selling its asset over and above the syllable value of its
assets is called.

a. Surplus c. Reserve
b. super profits d. Goodwill
Q38. Under the capitalization method the formula for calculating the goodwill is.

a. Super profits multiplied by the normal rate of returns

b. capital employed multiplied by the normal rate of return
c. super profit divided by the normal rate of return
d. capital employed divided by the normal rate of return

Q39. Total asset of perform including fixes assets of Rs.5000 Rs.85,000 the Natal liabilities of former
Rs.38,000 the normal rate of return is 10% and the average profit of the former Rs.8000 calculate the goodwill
as per capitalization of of super profits.

a. Rs.20,000 c. Rs.25,000
b. Rs.30,000 d. None of these
Q40. A business earned every profit of Rs.60,000 during the last 3 years the normal rate of return on similar
business is 12% the value of net assets of business is Rs.4,00,000 it is goodwill by capitalisation of average
profit method will be.

a. Rs.1,00,000 b. Rs.4,00,000
b. Rs.2,00,000 d. Rs.50,000

Case based questions:-

Q41. Ravi and kishan are partners in ratio of 3:2 They are fixed capitals on 1st April 2023 Rs.2,00,000 and
Rs.1,00,000 respectively the partnership deed provide that

(a) International capitalism to be allowed at the rate 6% per annum and charged on drawings 10%
per annum
(b) ravi was to be paid a salary of Rs.5000 per month whereas kishan wants to get a commission of
4% on sales

It is as certain that Ravi withdraw Rs.4000 at the end of every month and kishan withdrew Rs.12,000 at the
end of every quarter. Sale for the year ended 31st March amounted TO Rs.3,00,000. the net profit of the
firm before making the above adjustments was Rs.56,000.
(i). Interest on drawing will amount to.
a. Ravi Rs.2600 and kishan Rs.1800 c. Ravi Rs.2200 and kishan Rs.1800
b. Ravi Rs.2600 and kishan Rs.3000 d. Ravi Rs.2200 and kishan Rs.3000
(ii). Share of profit will be.

a. Ravi Rs.44,800 and kishan Rs.11,200

b. Ravi Rs.48,000 and kishan Rs.12,000
c. Ravi Rs.36,000 and kishan Rs.24,000
d. Ravi Rs.72,000 and kishore v 18,000
(iii). Ravish current account balance will be.

a. debit Rs.2200 c. debit Rs.14,200

b. credit Rs.2200 d. debit Rs.5400

(iv). If capital of partner is Rs.1, 00,000 and his personal assets are Rs.40,000 and personal liabilities are
Rs.10,000 the extent of his liability in the firm will be.

a. Rs.1,00,000 c. Rs.30,000
b. Rs.1,30,000 d. Rs.1,10,000
Q42. A, B and C were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1, decided to share future profits in 1 : 2
: 3. On this date firm had assets of ₹ 3,80,000 including cash of ₹ 20,000. The partner’s capital accounts
showed a balance of ₹ 3,00,000 and reserves constituted the rest. Normal rate of return is 10% and
goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 75,000 at 3 year’s purchase of super profits. On the basis of the above
information, answer the following:
(i) Normal Profit of the firm is
(a) ₹ 30,000 (b) ₹ 38,000 (c) ₹ 36,000 (d) ₹ 40,000
(ii) Super Profit will be:
(a) ₹ 2,25,000 (b) ₹ 13,000 (c) ₹ 25,000 (d) ₹ 75,000
(iii) Average Profit will be:
(a) ₹ 13,000 (b) ₹ 38,000 (c) ₹ 25,000 (d) ₹ 63,000
 (iv) For adjustment of goodwill:
(a) Dr. C by ₹ 22,500; Cr. A by ₹ 15,000; Cr. B by ₹ 7,500
(b) Dr. C by ₹ 22,500; Cr. A by ₹ 5,000; Cr. B by ₹ 17,500
(c) Cr. C by ₹ 22,500; Dr. A by ₹ 17,500; Dr. B by ₹ 5,000
(d) Dr. C by ₹ 22,500; Cr. A by ₹ 17,500; Cr. B by ₹ 5,000

Q43. A and B are partners in a firm since 2011. They have not registered their firm yet. On 1st April, 2023
their capitals were Rs. 8000000 and Rs. 5000000 respectively. On the same date A advanced Rs. 300000 by
the way of loan to the firm, wheras B has borrowed 600000 from the firm on 1st December 2023.
It was agreed to allow and charge interest on loan by partners and loan to partners @10% p.a. profit for the
year ended 31st March 2024 was Rs. 530000.
Based on the above case, answere the following questions:

(i) Interest on loan to B will be

(a) ₹ 20,000 (b) ₹ 30,000 (c) Nil (d) ₹ 18,000
(ii) Interest on loan given by A to the firm will be
(a) ₹ 30000 (b) Nil. (c) ₹ 8333. (d) ₹ 15,000
(iii) Interst on loan charged from B is
(a) Debited to Profit and loss Account. (b) Credited to Profit and loss Appropriation Account
(c) Credited to Profit and loss Account (d) Debited to Profit and loss Appropriation Account.
 Class 12-Business Studies
Chapter 1-Nature and Significance of Management
Chapter-2 Principles of Management
Chapter-3 Business Environment
Multiple Choice Questions
1. "Panchayats in our country have been given more powers to decide and spend funds granted to
them by the government for welfare of villages". Identify the principle of management
highlighted in the statement:
(a) Equity
(b) Centralisation and decentralisation
(c) Authority and responsibility
(d) Esprit De Corps
2.The CEO of Radhe Cycles Pvt Ltd. Mr. Kumar wants to get maximum output from the
employees at a competitive cost. On the other hand Ramakaant, an employee of the company
wants to get the maximum salary while working the least. The Principle of management given by
Fayol being violated by Ramakaant is
(a) Remuneration
(b) Equity
(c) Discipline
(d) Subordination of individual interest to general interest
3. The principle which minimises employee's turnover is called :
(a) Principle of Equity
(b) Principle of Fair Remuneration
(c) Subordination of individual interest to general interest
(d) Stability of Tenure of Personnel.
4. Which of the following principles of management prevents overlapping of activities?
(a) Fair Remuneration
(b) Unity of command
(c) Unity of Direction
(d) Equity
5. Right place for resources is indicated in-
(a) Principle of order
(b) Principle of discipline
(c) Principle of division of work
(d) None of the above
6.Kindness and justice in behaviour of managers is related to-
(a) Principle of Discipline
(b) Principle of Equity
(c) Principle of fair Remuneration
(d) Principle of order
7. Violation of this principle will create Insecurity among the employees. This statement is
related to
(a) Esprit De Corps
(b) Remuneration
(c) Stability of Personnel
(d) Authority and Responsibility
8. Pioneer Ltd. is dealing in fruit juices and hair oils. To ensure unity of action and coordination,
it has made two separate divisions for each product. Each division has its own incharge, plans
and execution resources. Thus, both the divisions are moving towards the same objectives
through focused efforts.
Identify the Principle of management followed by Pioneer Ltd. in the above
case.
(a) Espirit de corps
(b) Equity
(c) Unity of Direction
(d) Authority and Responsibility
9. In 'Delight Ice Creams Ltd.' decision making authority is concentrated at the top level and no
authority has been delegated among the subordinates. On the other hand in "Tasty Ice Creams
Ltd.' a big organisation as compared to 'Delight Ice Creams Ltd.' decision making authority is
always delegated among more than one person.
Identify the principle of management discussed above.
(a) Stability of Personnel
(b) Centralisation and Decentralisation
(c) Authority and Responsibility
(d) Scalar Chain
10. Vidhya Public School is a renowned school in Nagpur. The management recently appointed a
new Business Studies teacher, Shweta, to teach classes XI and XII and gave her a monthly salary
of ₹50,000. Shweta is not satisfied with it and said The salary is not jut and equitable as per the
amount of work required to be done by a Business Studies teacher. Other schools in the city are
paying ₹70,000 to their teachers teaching classes XI and XII.'
Name the principle of management that has been violated by Vidhya Public School in the above
case:
(a) Discipline
(b) Remuneration of Employees
(c) Equity
(d) Espirit de corps
11. When a superior does not fulfil the promise to raise the salary/wages of workers on
achievement of target effectively and efficiency, it is violation of
(a) Principle of Remuneration
(b) Principle of Discipline
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
12. The principle of management overlapping of activities is: given by Fayol which aims at
preventing
(a) Division of work
(b) Unity of Command
(c) Unity of Direction
(d) Order
13. Sangeeta visited 'Smile Dental Clinic' for treatment of toothache. She observed that the
receptionist was seated at the reception desk, the place fixed for her. Dental instruments were
laid neatly in dental instrument trays and the used instruments were placed in the sterilisation
area. There was a fixed place for everything and it was present there. There was no hindrance in
the work of the dentist and he was working with her maximum efficiency.
The principle of management followed at the Smile Dental Clinic was:
(a) Equity
(b) Discipline
(c) Order
(d) Initiative
14. Unique Ltd. is an electronic goods manufacturing company situated in Uttar Pradesh. It is
earning low revenue in comparison to another electronic company 'Pace Ltd.' situated in Delhi.
Both the enterprises are affected by the investors, customers, competitors and suppliers in their
respective locations. At the same time, both are also affected by economic condition, change in
technology, etc. Identify the features of business environment discussed in above paragraph:
(a) Relativity and complex
(b) Complex and all external forces
(c) Specific, general and dynamic
(d) Relativity and specific and general
15. With the introduction of mineral water bottle in India, Bisleri was able to capture the big
market share in India. Which importance of Business Environment is highlighted here? (a) Help
in Policy Making
(b) Identifying threat and getting warning signals
(c) Helps in tapping resources
(d) Helps to identify opportunities and getting first mover advantage.
16. Business environment includes
(a) Surroundings of Business.
(b) Forces, Factors, Institutions which directly or indirectly affect business.
(c) Customers and Employees.
(d) None of the above
17. The forces in Business Environment that affect all the business houses are known as
(a) General
(b) Specific
(c) Particular
(d) Influential
18. The conditions in Business Environment keep changing as it is
(a) External Environment
(b) Complex
(c) Dynamic
(d) None of the above
17. The environment scanning helps to identify
(a) Opportunities
(b) Threats
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
18. The importance of business environment which helps to know in advance the forthcoming
constraints and threats of business is
(a) Helpful in getting first mover advantage
(b) Early warning signals
(c) Assist in planning and policy making
(d) All of the above
19. Mohammad Kanjiwal, a beekeeper since April 2021 is now part of the growing tribe of at
least 50 urban dwellers across Maharashtra raising bees and harvesting honey in their balconies,
rooftops and back gardens. As he had been focussed on eating right the thought of domesticating
honey bees to promote healthy consumption habits and seeing honey being cultivated right
before his eyes was mesmerising for him. Identify the factor constituting the general
environment being discussed above.
(a) Economic environment
(b) Social environment
(c) Technological environment
(d) Political environment
20. Customers and suppliers represent :
(a) General forces
(b) Specific forces
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
21. Which of the following does not characterise the business environment?
(a) Uncertainty
(b) Employees
(c) Relativity
(d) Complexity
22. Which of the following best indicates the importance of business environment?
(a) Identification
(b) Improvement in performance
(c) Coping with rapid changes
(d) All of them
23. India's population is expected to grow under 0.5 per cent during 2033-34 due to decline in
fertility rate and increase in life expectancy. These changes in India's demography will also have
implications such as the proportion of elementary school going children will witness significant
declines, lack of hospital beds and increase in retirement age. The related feature of business
environment being described in above line is
(a) Totality of external forces
(b) Dynamic nature
(c) Inter-relatedness
(d) Relativity
24. Since more people have become beauty and health conscious, our economy has witnessed an
unprecedented surge in number of health and beauty spas and wellness clinics. This related
feature of business environment being described in above line is
(a) Totality of external forces
(b) Dynamic nature
(c) Interrelatedness
(d) Relativity
25. Government of India demonetised notes of ₹500 and 1000 on November 8, 2016.
Demonetisation means:
(a) They ceased to be legal tender except for a few specified purposes.
(b) These notes could not be banked but could be freely used otherwise.
(c) These notes could be converted into gold coins from Reserve Bank of India.
(d) These notes could be used for household purposes but not for business purposes.
Assertion-Reason Questions
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Choose the correct alternative from
those given below:
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is False.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is True.
26. Assertion (A): The principles of management have universal applicability.
Reason (R): The principle of management are applicable in all types and sizes of organisations.
27. Assertion (A): The principles of management are specific guidelines to action.
Reason (R): The principles of management provides readymade solutions to all managerial
problems.
28. Assertion (A): Different element space of business environment are closely interrelated.
Reason (R): A change in any dimension of business environment necessitates a corresponding
change in other dimensions as well.
29. Assertion (A): Business environment is largely certain.
Reason (R): The future happenings in the business environment can not be predicted easily.
30.Assertion: Every Manager has to perform all the functions of management.
Reason: The time spent by managers in performing different functions is same.
31.Assertion: Authority-responsibility relationship give rise to different levels in an organisation.
Reason : The individuals in an enterprise are bound together in a hierarchy of relationships of
superior and subordinates.
32. Assertion: Coordination is the essence of management
Reason : Coordination is required at top level management.
Statement Based Questions
Choose the correct option from the options given :
(a) Statement I is true and II is false
(b) Statement II is true and I is false
(c) Both the statements are false
(d) Both the statements are true
33.Statement I: Management is multi-dimensional.
Statement II: The activities involved in managing an enterprise are common to all organisations
whether economic, social or political.
34.(a) Management helps in achieving group goals
(b) Management helps in achieving personal objectives
(c) Management helps in development of society
(d) Management increases efficiency
35. Statement I : Values are general rules for behaviour of individuals in society formed on the
basis of common practice and principles after research in work situations.
Statement II: While practising principles of management, values cannot be neglected as
businesses have to fulfil social and ethical responsibilities towards society.
36.Statement I: The development of the principles of management is considered science and their
application, an art.
Statement II: The principles of management cannot be applied in all types of organisations.
37.Statement I : 'Rates of saving and investment' is a component of political environment.
Statement II: 'Social trends present various opportunities and threats to business enterprises.
38.Statement I: Business environment helps in coping with rapid changes.
Statement II: 'Nowadays retailers have direct links with suppliers who replenish stocks when
needed'.
This statement is related to the technological environment.
Case Based Mcqs
39. Techpack Ltd. is a company in Hyderabad that produces and sells packaging material to
various industries across the nation in a B2B e-business form. It is a dynamic company. Over the
years, due to rising concerns for climate change and shift of preferences of Indian customers
towards environment-friendly products, the company has shifted to the production of
biodegradable packaging material. Moreover, due to its digital transformation, the company has
tremendously benefited as its customers could place orders and make cashless payments in
various online modes.
The dimensions of business environment discussed in the above case are:
(a) Economic and social environments
(b) Social and technological environments
(c) Technological and economic environments
(d) Social and political environment
40.Rajat was carrying on a business of manufacturing plastic disposables like plastic plates,
plastic cups and plastic straws. He heard about the upcoming ban on single use plastics. He was
able to identify this external environmental trend which could hinder his firm's performance. So
he took action and shifted to manufacturing the plates, cups and straws from bamboo and palm
leaves. As a result, his business not only survived but was able to generate profit.
The point of importance of Business Environment highlighted above is:
(a) It enables the firm to identify opportunities and getting the first mover advantage.
(b) It helps the firm to identify threats and early warning signals.
(c) It helps in tapping useful resources.
(d) It helps in assisting in planning and policy formulation.
41.Since business environment consists of numerous interrelated and dynamic conditions or
forces which arise from different sources, it becomes difficult to comprehend at once what
exactly constitutes a given environment'. Thus it is relatively easier to understand business
environment highlighted above:
the environment in parts but difficult to grasp in its totality. Identify the feature of
(a) Uncertainty. (b) Complexity
(c) Relativity. (d) Dynamic nature
42.As per Plastic Waste Management Rule 2022, single use plastic items were prohibited in
Delhi from 1st July, 2022. The dimension of business environment referred to here is
(a) Economic environment
(b) Legal environment
(c) Technological Environment
(d) Political environment
43.. Cross Ltd. a company manufacturing cars is a highly successful organisation. For designing
their cars, they follow assembly line production which entails the sequence of operations, place
for men, machines and raw materials etc.
Identify the technique of scientific management being followed by Cross Ltd.
(a) Time study. (b) Motion study
(c) Method study. (d) Fatigue study
44.A manager should replace "I" with "We" in all his conversation with workers to foster team
spirit. Identify the principle of management stated above.
(a) Stability of personnel. (b) Order
(c) Discipline. (d) Espirit De Corps
45. ‘Flavours of South’ is a famous chain of South Indian restaurants It believe, in complete
cooperation between Labour and Management. Its management encourages the employees for
their constructive suggestions. They take their employees into confidence for all important
decisions, Identify the related principle.
(a) Science not rule of thumb
(b) Harmony, not discord
(c) Cooperation, not individualism
(d) Development of each and every person to his/her greatest efficiency and prosperity.
46.Pioneer Ltd. is dealing in fruit juices and hair oils. To ensure unity of action and coordination,
it has made two separate divisions of each product. Each division has its own incharge, plan and
execution resources. Thus both the divisions are moving towards the same objectives to focus
their efforts. Identify the principle of management followed by Pioneer Ltd. in the above case
(a) Espirit De Corps. (b) Equity
(c) Unity of Direction. (d) Authority and Responsibility
47.Somesh works as a foreman in Lakshmi Automotives Ltd.' a company manufacturing cars. He
is subordinate to Ramesh, who is production incharge in the factory. Somesh is incharge of
timely and accurate completion of job by workers, working in production deptt. There are three
other foreman working under Naresh, planning Incharge in the factory. Each of the foreman is a
specialist in his area and gives orders to workers relating to it. The technique of scientific
management, highlighted in the above case is
(a) Method study
(b) Differential piece wage system
(c) Functional Foremanship
(d) Standardisation and Simplification
48.'Bonfast Cement Ltd.' supports 7 villages with housing facilities, schools, safe drinking water,
health and hygiene. The company sends its employees to visit a nearby village every 15 days to
provide support and to see whether the facilities provided are being implemented on ground. The
objective which 'Bonfast Cement Ltd.' is trying to achieve is:
(a) Personal objective.
(b) (b) Social objective
(c) Organizational objective
(d) Economic objective
49.Panmol Dairy' started using environment-friendly 'Bilona' method of making ghee, unlike
other dairies which were using modern methods involving machines and chemicals. By doing
this, 'Panmol Dairy' is providing employment to hundreds of illiterate people in the rural areas.
Which objective of management is 'Panmol Dairy' trying to achieve:
(a) National objective
(b) Personal objective
(c) Social objective
(d) Economic objective
50.A multinational sweets and snacks company had been into catering business for the last many
years. To add to its prospects and to grow in the long run, it wants to increase its sales volume,
the number of products and capital investment.
The organisational objective of management it seeks to achieve is :
(a) Survival
(b) Profit
(c) Growth
(d) Corporate
 ECONOMICS

Chapter 2: Some basic concepts of National Income

Chapter 3: National Income and related Aggregates

Chapter 4: Measurement of national income

Chapter 5: Money

Chapter 6: Banking

(CLASS : 12)

1. GDP can be greater than GNP when_________

a) Net factor income from abroad is negative
b) Net change in stock is negative
c) Net factor income from abroad is negative
d) Net change in stock is positive
2. Which one of the following it not included in compensation of employees?
a) House rent allowance by the employer
b) Free medical facilities by the employer
c) Payment of bonus by a firms in its employees
d) Festival gift from an employer
3. The sum of factor payments by a firm is equal to____
a) GVAmp
b) GVAfc
c) NVAmp
d) NVAfc
4. Net Domestic Fixed Capital Formation + Change in stock=________.
a) Gross Domestic Capital Formation
b) Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation
c) Net domestic capital formation
d) National income
5. Rent and Royalty + Interest + Profit= _______.
a) National income
b) Income from property and entrepreneurship
c) mixed income of self employed
d) Domestic factor income
6. That part of NNP which actually accrues to the owners of factors of production is
called__________
a) National income
b) National disposable income
c) Domestic factor income
 d) mixed income
7. __________ is the value of all the final goods and services that are produced by the
normal residents of India and is measured at the market prices, in a year, regardless of
whatever they are located within the economic territory or abroad.
a) GDP at market prices
b) GNP at market prices
c) NDP at factor cost
d) National income
8. Which of the following will be included in national income?
a) Money receipt from sale of old car
b) Remittances from abroad
c) Scholarships received by students
d) Free services of owner occupied building
9. Which of the following transactions is not included in national income?
a) Brokerage for facilitating sale of old car
b) Interest paid by productions units to households
c) Payment of GST by firms to the government
d) Interest paid by banks on deposits by individuals
10. Which of the following transactions is not included in national income?
a) Payment of interest by a private firm
b) Payment of interest by banks on deposits
c) Interest paid by an individual on a car loan taken from a bank
d) Interest on finance provided by the owners of the production units
11. Which one of the following is not a part of a country's Net Domestic Product at market
prices?
a) Depreciation
b) Net exports
c) Indirect tax
d) Net change in stocks
Read the following statements and select the correct alternatives (12-21)

a) Both the statements are true

b) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 false
c) Both the statements are false
d) Statement 2 is true, but statement 1 is false
12. Statement 1: inventories are created as capital, whereas change in the Inventory of a firm
is created as investment.
Statement 2: Inventory is a stock variable, whereas change in inventories in a flow
variable
13. Statement 1: Value added is a stock variable.
 Statement 2: Use of fertilizers and pesticides to produce when are intermediate costs
14. Statement 1: Change in inventories of a firm during a year = Value added + intermediate
consumption - Sales of the firm during the year
Statement 2: Inventory a stock variable, whereas change in inventories in a flow variable.
15. Statement 1: If the value of inventories is less at the end of the year compared to the
beginning of the year, inventories have decumulated.
Statement 2: Production of the firm= Value added+ Intermediate goods used by the firm
16. Statement 1: Inventory may have a higher value at the end of the year than that at the
beginning of the year in ; in such a case inventories have accumulated. Statement 2:
Change in inventories of a firm during the year = Production of the firm during the year –
Sales of the firm during
17. Statement 1: Economists define ‘investment’ as using money se buy physical or financial
assets.
Statement 2: In economics, “inventory refers to the part of output produced which is not
sold, and remains with the firms
18. Statement 1: Depreciation is an accounting concept. No real expenditure may have
actually been incurred each year yet depreciation is annually accounted for. Statement 2:
Depreciation does not take into account unexpected or sudden destruction or disuse of
capital as can happen with Accidents, natural calamities or other such unforeseen
circumstances.
19. Statement 1: The consumer goods are a part of final goods and sustain the consumption
of the entire population of the economy.
Statement 2: The capital goods are the other part of the final goods that are used either for
maintenance of the capital stuck or for addition to the capital stock
20. Statement 1 Expected obsolescence is included in depreciation
Statement 2: Wages earned by a citizen of India working is Saudi Arabia will be included
in GDP of India.
21. Statement 1: Unexpected obsolescence is a component of depreciation.
Statement 2: Purchase of machinery by a producer is an intermediate product.
22. if the Legal Reserve Ratio is 20% and Initial deposit is 2000 then value of money
multiplier and total money creation will be ______ & _______
a) 5; Rs. 10000
b) 4; Rs 8000
c) 6; rs. 2000
d) 4; rs. 10000
23. Loans offered by commercial banks_____ the money supply in the economy
a) Increase
b) do not change
c) decrease
d) None of these
24. _________ are legal tenders
a) Demand deposit
b) Time deposit
c) Inter- bank deposit
d) Currency notes & coins
25. __________ is the total volume of money held by the public, for the purpose of disposing
of at a particular point of time.
a) Term deposits
b) Money supply
c) Demand for money
d) Credit creation
Read the following statements and select the correct alternatives (26-32)
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason does not explain assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
26. Assertion: money supply is a stock variable.
Reason: The total stock of money in circulation among the public is measured at a
particular point of time.
27. Assertion: currency notes and coins are legal tenders.
Reason: they do not have intrinsic val like a gold or silver coin.
28. Assertion: Besides Central Bank, commercial banks are the other types of institutions
which are a part of the money creating system of the economy.
Reason: commercial banks accept deposits from the public and land out part of these
funds to those who want to borrow.
29. Assertion: SLR is the ratio of demand deposits of a commercial bank which it has to keep
in the form of specified liquid assets.
Reason: SLR is a component of legal reserve ratio, which affects the credit creation in the
economy.
30. Assertion: payment of interest by banks to its depositors is included in national income.
Reason: it is a factor payment.
31. Assertion: In the expenditure method of calculating national income, we add the final
expenditures that each from makes.
Reason: final expenditure is that part of expenditure which is undertaken not for
intermediate purposes.
32. Assertion: free services provided by the government will be included in national income.
Reason: it is government final consumption expenditure.
How will you treat the following while estimating GDP or domestic factor income of
India?
33. Rent received by an Indian resident from his property in Singapore.
 34. Salaries received by Indian residence working in Russian embassy in India.
35. Profits earned by foreign company or a foreign bank in India.
36. Salary speed to Koreans working in Indian embassy in Korea.
37. Compensation of employees to the resident of Japan working in Indian embassy in Japan.
38. Profits earned by branch of State Bank of India in Japan.

Read the following News Report and answer the questions that follow:

“RBI extends CRR and SLR relaxations for three more months”. Keeping in view the continuing
of hardships faced by banks in terms of social distancing of staff and consequent strains on
reporting requirements, the Reserve Bank of India has extended the relaxation of the minimum
daily maintenance of the CRR of 80% for up to September 25, 2022. Currently CRR is 3% and
SLR is 18.50%.

“As announced in the Statement of Developmental and Regulatory Policies of March 27, 2022,
the minimum daily maintenance of CRR was reduced from 90% of the prescribed CRR to 80%
effective the fortnight beginning March 28, 2022 till June 26, 2022 that has now been extended up
to September 25, 2022,” said the RBI.

39. What will be the value of money multiplier?

40. What is SLR?
41. What will be the effect of decrease in CRR on the general price level?

Read the following News Report and answer the questions that follow:

During Covid-19, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), cut Repo Rate to 4.4% the lowest in at least
15 years. Also, it reduced the CRR by 100 basis points. It all depends on how India responds to
the situation. Aggregate demand may weaken and ease core inflation.

42. What is the likely effect of cut in Repo Rate by RBI on the money supply in the Indian
economy?
43. “… reduced the CRR by 100 basis points. Previously, it was 4%.” Thus, CRR is reduced
to____________
44. Besides reduction in CRR and Repo Rate, what other measure can be taken by the
Government of India through its budgetary policy to combat recession? State any one.

Read the following text carefully:

In India, after Covid-19 period, household and private sector consumption, as measured by Private
Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), was 39.7 trillion in nominal terms in Q1 FY23, compared
with 28.4 trillion for the same period last year, and 39.2 trillion in the fourth quarter (Q4) of 2021-
22 (FY22). As a percentage of Nominal GDP, PFCE was 61.1 per cent, compared with 55.5 per
cent in Q1 FY22. However, in real terms at constant prices, PFCE grew just 9.88 per cent,
compared with Q1 of 2019-20-the year before the Covid-19 pandemic. “Recovery in domestic
demand is reflected in the growth rates of PFCE and Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) over
the corresponding quarter of the previous year,” said D.K. Srivastava. GFCF came in at 19 trillion
in Q1 FY23, compared with 14.4 trillion in Q1 FY22. However, it was slightly lower than 20.2
trillion in Q4 FY22. In the media briefing after the GDP numbers, Finance Secretary T.V.
Somanathan said this trend was expected as GFCF in present Q1 was usually lower than the
previous year’s Q4.

45. Compare and analyse the trends of change in PFCE as a percentage of GDP, both in real
and nominal terms.
46. “Private Final Consumption Expenditure is an important factor determining GDP.”
Justify the given statement.

Read the following text carefully:

“After setting up a working group to study the possibility of a Central Bank Digital Currency
(CBDC) in India in 2020, the RBI revealed a concept note on digital rupee (e-Rupee) on 7th
October, 2022.” “The e-Rupee will provide an additional option” to the currency available forms
of money. It is substantially not different from bank notes, but being digital it is likely to be easier,
faster and cheaper.” RBI said that it broadly defines CBDC as the legal tender issued by a central
bank in a digital form. It is akin to paper currency in a different form.

47. Identify and discuss the function of the central bank indicated in the above text.
48. “Modern countries have made an attempt to move towards an economy which uses less of
cash and more of digital transactions. In India, government has been consistently investing
in various reforms for greater financial inclusion.” What kind of economic state is
described by a cashless society? How far has India been successful in going cashless? Give
any two advantages of digital rupee.

Read the following text carefully. Answer the given questions on the basis of the same
and common understanding:

On 30th September 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raised Repo Rate for the fourth time
in a row. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decided to raise the policy rate by 50 basis
points. (1 basis point = 1/100th of a percent). After this Announcement, the new repo rate stands
at 5.9%, while the reverse repo rate continues to stand at 3.35%. Commercial banks borrow
money from the Central Bank, when there is a shortage of funds. With the surge in the repo
rate, borrowings by general public will become costlier. This is because, as RBI hikes its repo
rate, it becomes costly for the banks to borrow short term funds from the Central Bank. As a
result, the banks hike the rates at which customers borrow money from them to compensate
for the hike in the repo rate. This happens because banks offer loans to retail consumers at an
interest rate which is, generally, directly proportional to the repo rate. The increase of 0.50
percent in repo rate will lead to a higher interest rate on loans for borrowers, implying that the
Equated monthly Instalments (EMIs) for repaying the existing loans will also increase.
49. State the meaning of repo rate and reverse repo rate.
50. “Increase in repo rate is an important tool used by Monetary Policy Committee to
combat the situation of inflation in the Economy.” Justify the given statement.
Class 12th Subject English

1 Reading Skills

(i) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions :-

1. In a room filled with people, each face illuminated by the soft glow of their smartphones,
moments drift away like autumn leaves in the wind. The constant hum of notifications fills
the air, punctuating conversations like an incessant drumbeat. Every vibration or ping sends
fingers flying to screens, a response ingrained by years of digital conditioning. The once-
reliable tick-tock of analog timepieces has been overshadowed by the constant flicker of
notifications on the wrist watch, blurring the boundaries between the virtual and the real.

2. Anxiety gnaws at the edges of consciousness when the phone is out of reach, a phantom
limb syndrome that leaves us feeling incomplete without our digital appendage. The fear of
missing out permeates every moment spent away from the screen, driving us to constantly
check for updates and notifications.

3. Thumbs move with the speed and precision of skilful pianists, tapping out messages and
scrolling through feeds with practiced ease. Yet amidst the flurry of activity, the true rhythm
of life remains unheard, drowned out by the dissonance of digital noise. The weight of
constant connectivity forms a hunch upon our shoulders, a physical manifestation of the
burden we carry in an age of information overload. Our minds are perpetually on high alert,
scanning for the next wave of excitement that comes with each like, share, or comment.

4. And yet, for all our efforts to stay connected, we find ourselves increasingly isolated in a
sea of digital faces. Genuine connections are fleeting, drowned out by the constant clamour
for attention. In the pursuit of digital validation, we sacrifice the wealth of lived experience,
trading meaningful moments for fleeting glimpses of connection. The true essence of life lies
not in the pixels on a screen, but in the depth of human connection and the richness of shared
experiences.

5. As we navigate this brave new world of constant connectivity, let us not forget the value of
presence and the beauty of being fully engaged in the moments that matter most. For in the
end, it is not the number of likes or followers that defines us, but the depth of our connections
and the richness of our experiences that truly matter.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

I. According to paragraph 1, what effect do smartphone notifications have on the people in

the room?

II. How does the author use the metaphor of 'autumn leaves in the wind to interpret the
passing of time in the setting described?

III. Read and complete the following sentence suitably.

The phrase 'a phantom limb syndrome that leaves us feeling incomplete without our digital
appendage suggests that just as an amputee might feel pain in a limb they no longer have,
individuals can feel a sense of loss or incompleteness when they are separated from their
digital devices.

Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence. The concern this
analogy points towards is about_________.

A. a deep (psychological) dependence on technology for a sense of wholeness or connection

B. excessive physical damage that can be caused due to constant use of digital devices
IV. Complete the following suitably with ONE advantage, with reference to paragraph 2.
Designating specific hours each day to intentionally avoid checking digital devices can
help_____.

V Why does the writer refer to digital noise as 'dissonance' in paragraph 3? Because:

A. It creates a jarring and chaotic environment that disrupts focus.

B. It contributes to a sense of overload, overwhelming the senses.

C. It interferes with our ability to engage with meaningful aspects of our life.

D. It induces stress by interrupting with regular updates about the device.

VI. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 3, to prove the following: The
need to be perpetually engaged with digital notifications manifests in the body.

VII. In the line, 'Yet amidst the flurry of activity, the true rhythm of life remains unheard...,'
what does the phrase 'true rhythm of life' refer to? (Paragraphs 3-4)

VIII. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 4. :

whisper: quietly________: loudly

A. validation B. fleeting C. essence D. clamour

IX. Why is it fair to say that the statement 'And yet, for all our efforts to stay connected
,______ we find ourselves increasingly isolated in a sea of digital faces' from paragraph 4,
employs irony?

A. Despite the intent to connect more effectively, the result is the opposite.

B. The writer mocks the seriousness with which people approach digital connectivity.

C .The writer exaggerates the effects of digital connectivity to highlight its impact.

D. Use of 'a sea of digital faces' to symbolically represent digital platforms.

X. Assess the potential challenges OR benefits of relying on survey outcomes for designing
health interventions ,as outlined in paragraph 5.

(ii) Volcanoes, not Asteroids, May Have Taken Out the Dinosaurs

2. Dinosaurs died gradually from climate change caused by a series of severe volcanic
eruptions in the Deccan traps in India at the end of the Cretaceous period, says Gerta Keller,
professor at Princeton University. This theory debunks the long-held notion that dinosaurs
died due to climate change when a giant meteor hit the Yucatan region of Mexico. "The
Chicxulub impact hit the Yucatan about 300,000 years before the mass extinction that
included dinosaurs and therefore could not have caused it," Keller says.

2. Research by volcanologists shows that lava eruptions in the Deccan were not continuous
but occurred in pulses, with each pulse lasting about 10 to at most a 100 years, and the pulses
were separated by short periods of quiescence. New results from eight subsurface cores
drilled by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation of India, a public-sector undertaking, in the
Krishna-Godavari Basin of eastern India, reveal that at least nine lava flows mark the critical
volcanic phase that ended in the mass extinction. This ending phase may have occurred over
as little as 10,000 to 100,000 years. During each lava eruption, fire shot up in tall columns
from fissures in the Earth's surface and lofted gases into the stratosphere while the oozing
lava flow as sheets, or in rivers, up to 1046 kilometres across India, and formed the longest
lava flows on Earth. "Their destructive nature is evident in the marine life record: the
population of marine life decreased by about 50 percent after the first of these long lava
flows," says Keller. "By the time of the last lava flow, the mass extinction was complete."
The sulphur dioxide gas injected into the stratosphere converted to sulfate aerosols that
caused climate cooling. The cooling lasted until the sulfate aerosols were washed out as acid
rain and caused the ocean to acidify in the process.

3. Keller doesn't disagree with scientists who believe that the Chicxulub impact affected the
climate. The event would certainly have caused earthquakes, tsunamis, regional fires and
injected huge quantities of sulphur dioxide into the stratosphere, causing cooling and
acidification of the land and oceans. "The difference is that the quantity of gas injection from
the main phase of Deccan eruptions was 30 το 100 times larger than the Chicxulub impact
and occurred over a shorter geological period of time, with each pulse lasting about 10 years
or more."

4. Up until now, sceptics have doubted whether gas from Deccan-like eruptions can reach the
stratosphere, but the relatively small 1783-1784 Laki eruption in Iceland revealed that even
rather small eruptions loft gases into the stratosphere. Field research by Keller and her
collaborators has revealed that the mass extinction coincided with the end of the main phase
of Deccan eruptions, Suggesting that volcanism killed dinosaurs.

Answer the following questions based on the passage above.

I. Choose the option that arranges the following events in the correct chronological order.

(i) the first lava eruption that occurred in the Deccan region
(ii) the mass extinction of dinosaurs and many other species

(iii) the climate change caused by the volcanic eruptions in India

(iv) the drilling of subsurface cores in the Krishna-Godavari Basin

A. (ii) - (iv) - (iii) - (i)

B. (iv) (ii) (i) - (iii)

C. (iii) - (iv) - (i) - (ii)

D. (i) (iii) (ii) - (iv)

II. What does the word 'quiescence' mean as used in paragraph 2?

A. change B. inactivity C. confusion D. disturbance

III. Which of the following events took place during the time of the first lava eruption in the
Deccan?

(i) the acidification of oceans

(ii) the formation of lava sheets

(iii) the mass extinction of species

(iv) the release of fire from fissures

A. only (ii) and (iv). B. only (iii) and (iv)

C. only (i), (ii) and (iii). D. only (ii), (iii) and (iv)

IV. Why does the author refer to the 1783-1784 Laki eruption in the passage?

A. to criticise the viewpoint that diverges from the findings of Keller's research

B. to propose an alternative way of exploring the properties of the stratosphere

C. to acknowledge a drawback in the field research done by Keller and her team

D. to show that there are findings to corroborate the new theory proposed by Keller

V. ow that there are findings to corroborate the new theory proposed by Keller Which of these
best describes the author's tone in the passage?

A. sarcastic. B. concerned. C. awestruck. D. compelling

VI. Which of these statements is true about the final stage of volcanic eruptions in the
Deccan?

A. They occurred over a relatively small period of time.

B. They occurred as a continuous flow without any interruptions.

C. They resembled the eruptions in Iceland in terms of magnitude.

D. They released an insignificant amount of gases into the atmosphere.

VII. Which of the following does NOT reflect Gerta Keller's viewpoint on the Chicxulub
impact?

A. It contributed to climate change.

B. It caused the emission of sulphur dioxide.

C. It caused acidification of land and oceans.

D. It led to the phenomenon of mass extinction.

VIII. Based on the passage, choose an option to aptly complete the sentence below.

The research by Keller and her collaborators showed that the___ of mass extinction and
Deccan eruptions overlapped with each other.

A. time period. B. primary cause. C. destructive effects. D. main characteristics

IX. What is the relationship between statements (1) and (2) from the passage?

(1) This theory debunks the long-held notion that the dinosaurs died due to climate change (
giant meteor hit the Yucatan region of Mexico.

(2) "The Chicxulub impact hit the Yucatan about 300,000 years before the mass extinction
that the dinosaurs and therefore could not have caused it," Keller says.

A. (2) revises the claim in (1. B. (2) challenges the claim in (1)

C.(2)Summarises the claim in (1). D. (2) elaborates on the claim in (1)

XI. Which phrase from paragraph 4 captures the statement given below?

The theory proposed by Greta Keller was based on observations from a real, natural
environment and not a controlled environment.
2 Reading skills. ( Case Study based)

(I) Adoption in India and Its Status since 2013

1. Adoption in India is governed by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children)
Act, 2015. According to the relevant guidelines, the eligibility criteria for a Prospective
Adoptive Parent (PAP) an individual who intend to adopt a child-are the following.

2. (i) They should be physically, mentally, and emotionally stable, financially capable and
should not have any life-threatening medical condition.

(ii) Any PAP can adopt a child subject to the following:

a. the consent of both spouses is mandatory in case of a married couple

b. a single female can adopt a child of any gender

C. a single male is not eligible to adopt a girl child

(iii) A couple should have at least two years of stable marital relationship to become eligible
for adoption.

(iv) The age apply for children of different age groups. In case of couples, the composite age
of PAPs as on the date of registration shall be counted for deciding their eligibility to apply
for children of different age groups. In case of couples, the composite age of PAPs shall be
counted as given in the the table below

(v) The minimum age difference between the child and either of the PAPs should be at least
twenty-five years.

(vi) The age criteria for PAPs shall not be applicable in the case of relative adoptions and
adoption by a step-parent.

(vii) Couples with three or more children shall not be considered except in certain
conditions.

The graph given below gives details of the in-country adoptions and inter-country adoptions
(adoptions by a person from another nation) that took place in India between 2013-15 and
2020-21.
3. Various estimates indicate that the number of orphaned and abandoned children in the
country has increased since 2020 because of the COVID-19 pandemic. These children are at a
high risk of becoming victims of trafficking and illegal adoptions. But the lengthy and
complicated adoption process is a stumbling block in their rehabilitation. The government has
made some amendments to increase the pace of adoptions. Whether these will reduce the
delay in the adoption process and increase the adoption numbers remains to be seen.

Glossary: composite – combined; rehabilitation – restoring someone to normal life

Source (edited): 'Data: Adoptions decreased in 2020-21 as number of Orphaned children

increase on account of COVID-19'

I. Which of these can be inferred from the table given in the passage?

A. The younger parents should adopt younger children and older parents should adopt older
children.
B. The age of single prospective adoptive parents should be the half of prospective adoptive
couples
C. The youngest group of children will be adopted by relatively young prospective adoptive
parents.

D. The youngest group of children have higher chances of being adopted by couples than
single individuals.

II. Based on point (v) in the passage, choose a suitable option to complete the sentence below.

Couples can adopt a child if______.

A. one of them is at least 25 years older than the child
B. both parents are at least 25 years older than the child

C. both parents have completed at least 25 years of age

D. there is an age difference of at least 25 years between the partners

III. According to the graph, the trend in inter-country adoptions has been_____ 2021.
between 2013 and

A. unvarying. B. increasing. C. fluctuating. D. decreasing

IV. Which of these can replace the word 'amendments' in paragraph 4?

A. sections. B. changes. C. schemes. D. agreements

V. Which of these facts from the passage shows a cause-effect relationship?

VI. Why does the eligibility criteria specify that prospective adoptive parents should be
emotionally stable? Answer 40-50 words.

VII. Select a suitable word from the eligibility criteria listed to complete the below sentence
appropriately.

The students were required to have their parents' ____to participate in the 10 -kilometer hike.

VIII. What do you think could be a challenge associated with inter-country adoptions?
Answer in one sentence.

IX. The rules and regulations regarding adoptions in India include restrictions.
Based on the information in the passage, which of the following responses best fits the
statement above?

Responses:

Yes - if the statement agrees with the information

No - if the statement contradicts the information

Not Given - if there is no information on this

(ii)Read the following carefully.

1. Introduction: In the hasty lifestyle of today's world, the choice of snacks can greatly impact
one's health and well-being. This case study aims to analyse the preference for seasonal fruits
compared to packaged snacks among different age groups and the implications for overall
health.

2. Methodology: A survey was conducted among individuals across various age groups,
ranging from children to seniors, to determine their snacking preferences. Participants were
asked to indicate their preferred snack choices and provide reasons for their preferences. The
data was then analysed to identify trends and patterns among different age demographics.

3. Survey Examination: The survey encompassed a comprehensive examination of snacking

habits, including not only preferred snack choices but also delving into the underlying
motivations and influences guiding these choices. Beyond mere preference, participants were
encouraged to articulate the reasons behind their selections, providing invaluable insights into
the multifaceted nature of snacking behaviour.

4. Results: The survey results revealed interesting insights into snacking preferences among
different age groups.

5. Implications for Interventions: By discerning the diverse preferences among different age
groups, policymakers and health practitioners can tailor interventions to address specific
demographic needs. For instance, targeting educational campaigns towards parents could
empower them to ins-till healthy eating habits in their children from an early age.
Concurrently, efforts to mitigate the influence of advertising and peer pressure on teenagers
could involve regulatory measures and educational initiatives aimed at promoting critical
thinking and informed decision-making. Furthermore, the prominence of seasonal fruits as a
preferred snack choice among middle-aged adults and senior's points towards the importance
of promoting access to fresh produce and nutritional education across all age demographics.

6. Conclusion: The survey outcomes serve as a roadmap for designing targeted interventions
that not only cater to diverse demographic needs but also nurture a culture of health and well-
being. By harnessing the insights gleaned from this study, stakeholders can collaboratively
work towards building healthier communities and promoting sustainable practices for
generations to come.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
I. Complete the following suitably.

In the introduction, the researcher links a hasty lifestyle with the choice of snacks in the study
to highlight _____.

II. What would the following be classified as?

To examine snacking preferences across various age groups in detail, and assess health
implications Select the appropriate response.

A. Primary purpose B. Secondary objective

C. Method of analysis. D. Research outcome

III Give two points to support why it is likely that fresh fruits were given as an option to the
survey participants to choose from in the study on snacking preferences.

IV. Paragraph 3 includes words - 'motivations' and 'influences.'

Classify the following sentences as 'influence' or 'motivation':

Sentence 1: Peer pressure leads teenagers to prefer packaged snacks over healthier options.

Sentence 2: The drive to maintain health as one ages makes middle-aged adults to choose
seasonal fruits.

V. Read the following:

Seema regularly enjoys snacking on chips and cool drinks while watching movies. Mohan,
her neighbour, prefers to snack on oranges and also some nuts occasionally. Arindam, who
lives across, often tends to eat a mix of carrot sticks and instant noodles, in between meals.

Select the option that identifies the correct demographic Seema, Mohan and Arindam belong
to.

A. Seema - young adult; Mohan - teenager; Arindam -middle-age

B. Seema - teenager; Mohan - middle-age; Arindam -child

C. Seema - young adult; Mohan - child; Arindam - teenager

D. Seema - teenager; Mohan - elderly; Arindam -young adult

VI. Although children, middle-aged, and elderly groups all prefer seasonal fruits, why is the
preference percentage highest among the elderly?

VII. Analyse how targeted interventions based on the diverse snacking preferences of
different age groups can lead to improved health outcomes. (Paragraph 5)

VIII. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study?

A. Increasing profitability through enhanced snack marketing

B. Building healthier communities

C. Reducing the cost of healthcare services

D. Expanding the range of available snack product

3. Writing Skills

Write in fair notebook

You are Anjali/Anand, a resident of Lucknow. Write a job application with a resume to
1
the Manager of a publishing house for the post of a Content Editor.
You saw an advertisement in The Times of India for the post of a Sales Executive in a
2
reputed company in Delhi. Write a letter applying for the post, giving your biodata.
You are Rohan/Ritika from Kolkata. Apply for the post of a junior accountant in a textile
3
company. Draft a job application along with your resume.
You are a recent graduate in Computer Science. Apply for the post of a Software Intern at
4
a tech startup in Bengaluru. Include your resume.
Draft a job application letter for the position of a school librarian in response to an
5
advertisement by a private school in Jaipur.
You are interested in working as a Graphic Designer in a media firm. Write an
6
application along with a biodata, highlighting your creative skills.
You are a trained nurse looking for a job in a hospital. Draft a formal application to the
7
Medical Superintendent.
Write a job application in response to a vacancy for an English teacher in a reputed
8
school. Include a brief resume.
You have a diploma in Hotel Management. Apply for the post of a Front Office
9
Executive in a hotel chain in Mumbai. Write a formal job application.
Write a job application to a company seeking a Data Entry Operator. Include your
10
educational background, typing speed, and software knowledge in the resume.

Read the given extracts and find the correct option:-

1. The Last Lesson – Alphonse Daudet

Extract 1:

“My children, this is the last lesson I shall give you. The order has come from Berlin to teach
only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine.”

1. Who is the speaker of these lines?

• a) Franz. b) M. Hamel. c) Hauser. d) Wachter

2. What does the ‘order from Berlin’ signify?

a) Start of summer vacations. b) Introduction of a new syllabus

c) Imposition of German language in schools. d) Closure of schools in Alsace and Lorraine

3. What is the significance of this being the ‘last lesson’?

a) M. Hamel is retiring. b) Students are graduating

c) French will no longer be taught. d) School is being demolished

4. How do the students react to this announcement?

a) Indifferent. b) Joyful c) Regretful and attentive. d) Angry and rebellious

5. What theme is highlighted through this extract?

a) Importance of discipline. b) Value of freedom

c) Significance of mother tongue. d) Need for punctuality

Extract 2:

“Ah! That’s the great trouble with Alsace; she puts off learning till tomorrow. Now those
fellows out there will have the right to say to you, ‘How is it; you pretend to be Frenchmen,
and yet you can neither speak nor write your own language?’”

1. Who is referred to as ‘those fellows out there’?

a) The villagers. b) The Prussian soldiers

c) The students. d) The school inspectors

2. What does the speaker criticise about Alsace?

a) Its food habits. b) Its procrastination in learning

c) Its architecture. d) Its festivals

3. What is the tone of the speaker in this extract?

a) Humorous. b) Sarcastic. c) Regretful. d) Indifferent

4. What literary device is used in ‘she puts off learning till tomorrow’?

a) Simile. b) Metaphor. c) Personification. d) Hyperbole

5. What lesson does this extract convey?

a) Importance of timely learning. b) Value of sports

c) Significance of cultural festivals. d) Need for architectural preservation

2. Lost Spring – Anees Jung

Extract 1:

“I sometimes find a rupee, even a ten-rupee note. When you can find a silver coin in a heap
of garbage, you don’t stop scrounging, for there is hope of finding more.”

1. Who is the speaker in this extract?

a) The author. b) Saheb. c) Mukesh. d) A ragpicker

2. What does the ‘heap of garbage’ symbolise?

a) Wealth. b) Opportunity. c) Despair. d) Pollution

3. What keeps the ragpickers motivated?

a) Parental pressure. b) Hope of finding something valuable

c) Love for the job. d) Government incentives

4. What theme is depicted in this extract?

a) Child labor. b) Environmental conservation

c) Urban development. d) Education

5. What literary device is used in ‘heap of garbage’?

a) Metaphor. b) Simile. c) Alliteration. d) Irony

Extract 2:“He goes through the garbage with his friends and finds a coin or two. Garbage to
them is gold.”

1. What does ‘Garbage to them is gold’ imply?

a) They sell garbage for gold. b) They find gold in garbage

c) Garbage is valuable to them. d) They dislike garbage

2. What is the tone of this statement?

a) Sarcastic. b) Ironic. c) Literal. d) Humorous

3. What does this extract highlight?

a) Economic disparity. b) Environmental issues

c) Educational reforms. d) Technological advancements

4. Who are ‘they’ in this context?

a) The government officials. b) The shopkeepers

c) The ragpickers. d) The teachers

5. What is the central theme of this extract?

a) Wealth distribution. b) Child labor and poverty

c) Urbanisation. d) Cultural heritage

3. Deep Water – William Douglas

Extract 1:

“The experience had a deep meaning for me, as only those who have known stark terror and
conquered it can appreciate.”

1. What experience is the speaker referring to?

a) Climbing a mountain. b) Learning to swim

c) Flying an airplane. d) Winning a race

2. What is meant by ‘stark terror’?

a) Mild fear. b) Intense fear. c) Excitement. d) Joy

3. What does the speaker convey through this extract?

a) Importance of education. b) Value of friendship

c) Triumph over fear. d) Love for nature

4. What literary device is used in ‘stark terror’?

a) Metaphor. b) Simile. c) Alliteration. d) Personification

5. What lesson does this extract impart?

a) Avoid water bodies. b) Fear is unconquerable

c) Facing and overcoming fears. d) Swimming is dangerous

Extract 2:
“I had a fear of water. It had taken possession of me completely. My legs felt paralysed, my
lungs were aching, and I was suffocating.”

1. What caused the speaker’s fear of water?

a) A near-drowning incident. b) Watching a horror movie

c) Reading a scary book. d) Hearing a ghost story

2. What physical symptoms did the speaker experience?

a) Joy and excitement. b) Paralysis and suffocation

c) Hunger and thirst. d) Sleepiness

3. What does ‘taken possession of me completely’ suggest?

a) Temporary fear. b) Overwhelming fear

c) Mild anxiety. d) Physical illness

4. What is the tone of this extract?

a) Joyful. b) Fearful. c) Indifferent. d) Excited

5. What theme is highlighted here?

a) Importance of physical fitness. b) Overcoming personal fears

c) Love for water sports. d) Significance of education

SUBJECT: PHYSICAL EDUCATION
CLASS: 12th

Chepter-1 Management of Sporting events

Chapter-2 Children and women in Sports
Chepter-3 Yoga as pervention measure for lifestyle disease
Chapter-4 Physical education and Sports for CWSN
Chepter-5 Sports and Nutrition
CASE STUDY
Q1. Apoorva is a student of class 12th. She is very good in
sports. She wants to participate in district level
competitions. Her Physical Education teacher has advised
her to take balanced diet and practice regularly.
Based on this, answer the following questions :
1. Physical Education teacher has advised Apoorva to take
a diet consisting of
(a) micro nutrients
(b) macro nutrients
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
2. Which of the following is required in large quantities in
our diet ?
(a) Micro nutrients
(b) Macro nutrients
(c) Additives
(d) Vitamins
3. Which of the following is not a macro nutrient ?
(b) Carbohydrates
(a) Vitamins
(d) Proteins
(c) Fats
Q.2 The International Paralympic Committee is the global
governing body of the Paralympic Movement. Its purpose
is to organise the summer and winter Paralympic Games
and act as the International Federation for ten sports,
supervising and coordinating World Championships and
other competitions.
Based on this, answer the following questions:
1. IPC in sports stands for:
(a) International Paralympic Committee
(b) Indian Paralympic committee
(c) Indian Peoples Committee
(d) None of the above
2. The reason Paralympic Games got their name was
because
(a) they were meant for athletes suffering from paraplegia
(b) they run alongside or parallel to the Olympic Games
(c) the athletes are paragons of their sports
(d) they are attended by a large number of paramedics
3. Which body governs the Paralympic Movement?
(a) Special Olympics InInternational.
(b) Indian Paralympic Committee
(c) Sports Authority of India
(d) International Paralympic Committee
PIE CHART BASED QUESTIONS
Q3. Below given is the pie-chart of the medals won by the
athletes of Special Olympics Bharat who participated is
seven World Summer Games and five World Winter
Games between 1987 and 2013.
Based on the above data, answer the following questions:
1. Which agency has accredited the Special Olympics
Bharat Programme?
(a) Special Olympics International
(b) Special Olympics India
(c) National Sports Federation
(d) Sports Authority of India
2. The special Olympics Bharat was formed and registered
in:
(a) 1998
(b) 2001-
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
3. The Special Olympics Athlete oath is:
(a) Let me win at all costs
(b) I can win
(c) Let me win. But if I cannot win, let me be brave in the
attempt
(d) I must win
PICTURE BASED QUESTIONS
Q4.In relation to the pictures, answer the following
questions

(a) Logo shown in picture………..refers to Special

Olympics.
(b) Who was the founder of Special Olympics ?
(c) According to figure 'B', the hand shapes of 'OK',
'Good' and 'Great' that overlap each other in a circle,
represent the original sign for…………..
REASONING QUESTIONS
1. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion
(A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Education is meant for all the students
irrespective of the state of their physical and mental
health.
Reason (R): Education is a fundamental right of every
child between the age group of 6 to 14 years. In the context
of above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
2. Given below are the two statements labelled Assertion
(A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): Special olympics provides year-round
training and competitions to 5 million athletes and unified
sports partners in 172 countries.
Reason (R): Special olympics is not recognised by the
international olympic committee.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the
following is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
3. Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion
(A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A balanced diet may be defined as that diet
which contains all the nutrients in the correct amount as
required by the body.
Reason (R): A diet which consists of all the essential food
elements e.g. proteins, carbohydrates, vitamins, fats,
minerals and water in correct proportion is essential for
growth and maintenance of the body.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the
following is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Vitamins are compounds of carbon which
are essential for the normal growth and working of the
body.
Reason (R): Vitamins are required by our body in large
quantities.
In the context of above two statements which one of the
followings is correct:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
5.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): An obese person has BMI more than 30.
Reason (R): BMI indicates the flexibility of a person.
Find the correct answer from the following:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
FiILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. Sugar, sweets, bread are rich sources of………………
2. Sunlight is a source of …………………..
3. Vitamin K' is essential for ………………….
4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes………………..
5. Balanced diet is important for ……………………..
6. Carbohydrates contain elements of ……………………
7. Glucose is a type of …………………….
8. 1 gram of fat provides ………………..

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What is the first step in organizing a sports event?
A.Budgeting B. Planning C. Execution D. Evaluation
2. Which committee handles the arrangements of
accommodation for players?
A. Transport Committee
B. Reception Committee
C. Accommodation Committee
D. Technical Committee
3. The main aim of sports event management is:
A. Entertainment
B. Profit making
C. Smooth conduct of the event
D. Decoration
4. Which committee is responsible for preparing fixtures and
enforcing rules?
A. Publicity Committee
B. Technical Committee
C. Finance Committee
D. Transport Committee
5. In a knockout tournament, a team is eliminated after:
A. Two losses
B. One loss
C. Three losses
D. One win
6. The formula for the number of matches in a knockout
tournament is:
A. N + 1
B. N/2
C. N – 1
D. N × (N – 1)
7. In a league tournament, every team plays against:
A. Only strong teams
B. Only once
C. Every other team
D. Only local teams
8. A combination tournament is conducted when:
A. The number of teams is very small
B. Time and resources are limited
C. Only finals are to be played
D. Only league matches are needed
9. What is the primary goal of a community sports program?
A. To generate income
B. To promote local talent
C. To advertise sponsors
D. To win international medals
10. Which of the following can be considered a part of
community sports programs?
A. State-level championship
B. Inter-school national tournament
C. Neighborhood cricket league
D. Professional s
11. Which factor most influences the participation of girls in
sports activities?
A. Physical strength
B. Cultural and social norms
C. Academic pressure
D. Weather conditions
12. What is the primary purpose of introducing modified
sports programs for children?
A. To make them win competitions
B. To prepare them for professional sports only
C. To ensure fun and developmentally appropriate learning
D. To reduce the number of participants
13. Menarche in girls is related to which aspect of sports
participation?
A. Physical injuries
B. Hormonal changes and performance
C. Mental stress
D. Coaching style

14. Which of the following is a major barrier for women in

competitive sports?
A. Availability of equipment
B. Time management
C. Lack of family and societal support
D. Weather conditions
15. Which of the following is a sideways curvature of the
spine?
A. Lordosis
B. Kyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Flat foot
16. What is the main cause of knock knees in children?
A. Lack of protein
B. Calcium and vitamin D deficiency
C. Excessive running
D. Improper footwear
17. Flat foot is a condition in which:
A. The spine bends inward excessively
B. The knees touch but ankles are apart
C. The natural arch of the foot is missing
D. The shoulders are uneven
18. Kyphosis is commonly known as:
A. Round back
B. Hollow back
C. Hunchback
D. Bow legs
19. Which postural deformity results in an exaggerated inward
curve of the lower back?
A. Kyphosis
B. Scoliosis
C. Lordosis
D. Flat foot
20. Bow legs can be identified when:
A. Knees touch but feet stay apart
B. Legs curve outward at the knees
C. Spine is twisted
D. The foot arch is raised
21. Which of the following is a common lifestyle disease
prevented by practicing yoga?
A. Malaria
B. Diabetes
C. Tuberculosis
D. Influenza
22. Pranayama in yoga mainly helps to:
A. Improve digestion
B. Control breathing and reduce stress
C. Increase muscle strength
D. Improve eyesight
23. Which yoga practice is best known for reducing high
blood pressure?
A. Surya Namaskar
B. Meditation
C. Kapalbhati
D. Trikonasana
24. Regular yoga practice helps in:
A. Increasing blood sugar levels
B. Improving flexibility and mental health
C. Weakening the immune system
D. Causing joint pain
25. Which of the following yoga postures is useful for
improving heart health?
A. Tadasana
B. Bhujangasana
C. Padmasana
D. Shavasana
CLASS -12 SUBJECT- PUNJABI

1. ਩ੰ ਜਾਬੀ ਸੱ ਭਿਆਚਾਰ ਦੀ ਜਾਣ – ਩ਛਾਣ

ਹ੃ਠ ਭਿਖ੃ ਬਹੁ-ਭਿਕਿ਩ੀ ਩ਰਸ਼ਨਾਂ ਦ੃ ਸਹੀ ਉੱਤਰ ਚੁਣ ਕ੃ ਭਿਖ੅-
(i) ਭ੃ਰ੃ ਤ੃ ਤਤਉਵਾਯਾਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚੋਂ ਕੀ ਲ੃ਖਣ ਨੂੂੰ ਤਭਰਦਾ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਤਤਉਵਾਯ (ਅ) ਴ੂੰ ਴ਤਕਿਤਕ ਨੁਵਾਯ
(ੲ) ਩ਿੱ ਛਭੀ ਴ੂੰ ਴ਤਕਿਤੀ (਴) ਭ੃ਰ੃
(ii) ਤਲਆਵ ਦਾ ਤਦਨ ਩ਿੱ ਕਾ ਕਯਨ ਰਈ ਕੀ ਕਢਲਾਇਆ ਜਾਂਦਾ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਯ਴ਭ-ਤਯਲਾਜ (ਅ) ਕੁੜਭਾਈ
(ੲ) ਴ਾਵਾ (਴) ਇਵਨਾਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚੋਂ ਕ੅ਈ ਨਵੀਂ
(iii) 'ਤਖਿੱ ਦ੅-ਖੂੂੰ ਡੀ' ਦੀ ਥਾਂ ਵੁਣ ਤਕ਴ ਖ੃ਡ ਨੇ ਰ੄ ਰਈ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਤਕਿਕ੃ਟ (ਅ) ਩ਤਵਰਲਾਨੀ
(ੲ) ਵਾਕੀ (਴) ਫ੄ਡਤਭੂੰ ਟਨ
(iv) ਩ੂੰ ਜਾਫ ਦ੃ ਤਕ਴ ਰ੅ ਕ-ਨਾਚ ਨੇ ਯਾਸ਼ਟਯੀ ਤ੃ ਅੂੰ ਤਯ-ਯਾਸ਼ਟਯੀ ਩ਿਤ਴ਿੱ ਧੀ ਩ਿਾ਩ਤ ਕੀਤੀ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਤਕਿੱ ਕਰੀ (ਅ) ਴ੂੰ ਭੀ
(ੲ) ਬੂੰ ਗੜਾ (਴) ਝੂੂੰ ਭਯ
2. ਹ੃ਠ ਭਿਖ੃ ਕਹਾਣੀਆਂ ਭਿੱ ਚੋਂ ਬਹੁ-ਭਿਕਿ਩ੀ ਩ਰਸ਼ਨਾਂ ਦ੃ ਸਹੀ ਉੱਤਰ ਚੁਣ ਕ੃ ਭਿਖ੅-
(i) ਗਲਾਰਾ ਰ੃ ਖਕ ਦ੃ ਘਯ ਨੀਰੀ ਦਾ ਦੁਿੱ ਧ ਤਕਿੱ ਥ੃ ਚੋਂਦਾ ਴ੀ ?
(ੳ) ਲਯਾਂਡ੃ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ (ਅ) ਤ਩ਿੱ ਩ਰ ਦ੃ ਯੁਿੱ ਖ ਵ੃ਠਾਂ
(ੲ) ਤੂਤ ਦ੃ ਯੁਿੱ ਖ ਵ੃ਠਾਂ (਴) ਭਤਵੂੰ ਦੀ ਦ੃ ਫੂਟ੃ ਵ੃ਠਾਂ
(ii) ‘ਭਾੜਾ ਫੂੰ ਦਾ' ਕਵਾਣੀ ਅਨੁ਴ਾਯ ਰ੃ ਖਕ ਦੀ ਬੂਆ ਦਾ ਩ੁਿੱ ਤਯ ਤਕ਴ ਭਤਵਕਭ੃ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਅਫ਼਴ਯ ਴ੀ ?
(ੳ) ਡੀ . ਴ੀ (ਅ) ਜੂੰ ਗਰਾਤ
(ੲ) ਅਖ਼ਫਾਯ (਴) ਫੈਂਕ
(iii) ਇਤਤਵਾ਴ਕ ਗੁਯਦੁਆਯ੃ ਦ੃ ਦਯਲਾਜ੃ ਕ੅ਰ ਴ਲਾਯੀਆਂ ਫਿੱ ਴ ਦਾ ਇੂੰ ਤਜਾਯ ਤਕਿੱ ਥ੃ ਕਯ ਯਵੀਆਂ ਴ਨ ?
(ੳ) ਅੂੰ ਫ ਦ੃ ਯੁਿੱ ਖ ਵ੃ਠਾਂ (ਅ) ਤ਩ਿੱ ਩ਰ ਦ੃ ਯੁਿੱ ਖ ਵ੃ਠਾਂ
(ੲ) ਧਯ੃ਕ ਦ੃ ਵ੃ਠਾਂ (਴) ਅਿੱ ਕ ਦੀ ਝਾੜੀਆਂ ਵ੃ਠਾਂ
(iv) ਜੀਤ੅ ਦ੃ ਲਿੱ ਡ੃ ਲੀਯ ਦਾ ਴ੁਬਾਅ ਤਕਵ੅ ਤਜਵਾ ਴ੀ ?
(ੳ) ਅੜਫੀ ਤ੃ ਯ੅ਵਫ ਲਾਰਾ (ਅ) ਤਜਿੱ ਦੀ ਤ੃ ਜਜਫਾਤੀ
(ੲ) ਤਜਿੱ ਦੀ ਤ੃ ਕਾਇਯ (਴) ਜਜਫਾਤੀ ਤ੃ ਡਯ਩੅ਕ
3. ਹ੃ਠ ਭਿਖ੃ ਕਭਿਤਾਿਾਂ ਭਿੱ ਚੋਂ ਬਹੁ-ਭਿਕਿ਩ੀ ਩ਰਸ਼ਨਾਂ ਦ੃ ਸਹੀ ਉੱਤਰ ਚੁਣ ਕ੃ ਭਿਖ੅-

(i) ‘ਲਗਾਯ' ਸ਼ਫਦ ਦਾ ਕੀ ਅਯਥ ਵ੄ ?

(ੳ) ਤਭਵਨਤ (ਅ) ਦੁਯਭਟ
(ੲ) ਤਫਨਾਂ ਩੄ਤ਴ਆਂ ਤੋਂ ਕੀਤਾ ਕੂੰ ਭ (਴) ਆ਩ਣੀ ਖੁਸ਼ੀ ਨਾਰ ਕੀਤਾ ਕੂੰ ਭ
(ii) 'ਵੀਤਯਆਂ ਦ੃ ਵਾਯ ਦੀ ਰੜੀ' ਤਕ਴ ਨਾਰ ਗੁੂੰ ਦਣ ਰਈ ਤਕਵਾ ਤਗਆ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਭ੅ਤੀਆਂ ਨਾ਱ (ਅ) ਪੁਿੱ ਰਾਂ ਨਾ਱
(ੲ) ਕਰੀਆਂ ਨਾ਱ (਴) ਗੁਰਾਫਾਂ ਨਾ਱
(iii) 'ਲ੃ ਦਯਦਭੂੰ ਦਾਂ ਤਦਆ ਦਯਦੀਆ ! ਉੱਠ ਤਿੱ ਕ ਆ਩ਣਾ ਩ੂੰ ਜਾਫ' ਉਕਤ ਤੁਕ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ 'ਦਯਦਭੂੰ ਦਾਂ ਤਦਆ ਦਯਦੀਆ'
ਤਕ਴ ਨੂੂੰ ਆਤਖਆ ਤਗਆ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਲਾਯ਴ ਸ਼ਾਵ (ਅ) ਅੂੰ ਤਭਿਤਾ ਩ਿੀਤਭ
(ੲ) ਩ੂੰ ਜਾਫ ਦ੃ ਰ੅ ਕਾਂ ਨੂੂੰ (਴) ਰੁਿੱਡਣ
(iv) ਠੂੰਢੀ ਯਾਤ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਭਾਂ ਤ੃ ਩ੁਿੱ ਤਯ ਤਕਵੜੀ ਝੁੂੰ ਫ ਭਾਯ ਕ੃ ਴ੁਿੱ ਤ੃ ਩ਏ ਴ਨ?
(ੳ) ਚਾਦਯ ਦੀ (ਅ) ਖ੃਴ੀ ਦੀ
(ੲ) ਕੂੰ ਫਰ ਦੀ (਴) ਨੇਹ ਯ੃ ਦੀ
4. ਖਾਿੀ ਥਾਿਾਂ ਿਈ ਸਹੀ ਭਿਕਿ਩ ਦੀ ਚ੅ਣ
(ੳ) ਖ਼ਾਰੀ ਥਾਲਾਂ ਰਈ ਴ਵੀ ਤਲਕਰ਩ ਚੁਣ੃ :
1. 'ਉੱਠੇ ਤਾਂ ਉੱਠ ਨਵੀਂ ਯ੃ਤ੃ ਦੀ ........................ । ਅਖਾਣ ਩ੂਯੀ ਕਯਨ ਰਈ ਴ਵੀ ਤਲਕਰ਩ ਚੁਣ੅ :
(ੳ) ਫ੅ਯੀ (ਅ) ਭੁਿੱ ਠ (ੲ) ਫਾਟੀ (਴) ਫਾਂਟਾ
2. ਅਸ਼ਯਫ਼ੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਰੁਟ ਤ੃ ................. ਤ੃ ਭ੅ਵਯਾਂ।
(ੳ) ਩ਿੱ ਥਯਾਂ (ਅ) ਇਿੱ ਟਾਂ (ੲ) ਲਿੱ ਤਟਆਂ (਴) ਕ੅ਤਰਆਂ
3. ਅਿੱ ਗ੃ .................... ਤ੃ ਤ਩ਿੱ ਛ੃ ਸ਼ੀਂਵ।
(ੳ) ਖੂਵ (ਅ) ਖਾਈ (ੲ) ਴ਿੱ ਩ (਴) ਲ਼੃ਯ
4. ਆਦਯ ਤ੃ਯੀ .................... ਨੂੂੰ ਫਤਵਣਾ ਤ੃ਯ੃ ਗਤਵਣ੃ ਨੂੂੰ।
(ੳ) ਚਾਦਯ (ਅ) ਆਦਤ (ੲ) ਖ੃਴ੀ (਴) ਫ੅ਰੀ
5. ਿਾਕ – ਿਟਾਂਦਰਾ
ਵ੃ਠ ਤਰਖ੃ ਲਾਕਾਂ ਦਾ ਫ੄ਕਟ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤਦਿੱ ਤ੃ ਗਏ ਤਨਯਦ੃ਸ਼ਾਂ ਅਨੁ਴ਾਯ ਲਾਕ-ਲਟਾਂਦਯਾ ਕਯ੅।
(i) ਉਵ ਅਭੀਯ ਵ੄ ਩ਯ ਫਵੁਤ ਕੂੰ ਜੂ਴ ਵ੄। (਴ਧਾਯਨ ਲਾਕ ਫਣਾਓ)
(ii) ਉਵ ਲਾ਩਴ ਨਵੀਂ ਩ਯਤ੃ਗਾ। (ਕਯਭਨੀ ਲਾਚ ਫਣਾਓ)
(iii) ਤ਴ਆਣ੃ ਫਿੱ ਚ੃ ਕਦੀ ਲੀ ਲਿੱ ਤਡਆਂ ਦਾ ਤਨਯਾਦਯ ਨਵੀਂ ਕਯਦ੃। (ਵਾਂ-ਲਾਚਕ ਫਣਾਓ)
(iv) ਜਦੋਂ ਭੈਂ ਴ਕੂਰ ਩ਵੁੂੰ ਤਚਆ ਤਾਂ ਘੂੰ ਟੀ ਲਿੱ ਜ ਗਈ। (਴ੂੰ ਮੁਕਤ ਲਾਕ ਫਣਾਓ)
(v) ਤਭਵਨਤ ਕਯਨ ਲਾ਱੃ ਤਲਤਦਆਯਥੀਆਂ ਨੂੂੰ ਵਭ੃ਸ਼ਾ ਴ਫ਼ਰਤਾ ਤਭਰਦੀ ਵ੄। (ਤਭਸ਼ਯਤ ਲਾਕ ਫਣਾਓ)
6. ਕਭਿਤਾਿਾਂ ਭਿੱ ਚੋਂ
ਹ੃ਠ ਭਦੱ ਤੀਆਂ ਗਈਆਂ ਕਾਭਿ-ਟੁਕੜੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਩ਰਸੰਗ ਸਭਹਤ ਭਿਆਭਖਆ ਕਰ੅-
1. ‘ ਴ਵਣੀ ਨੇ ਅ਴ਭਾਨ ਖੜ੅ ਕ੃ , ਧਯਤੀ ਲਿੱ ਰ ਤਕਾ ਕ੃।
ਇਵ ਭੁਿੱ ਠੀ ਖ੅ਰਹੀ ਤ੃ ਴ੁਿੱ ਤਟਆ, ਴ਬ ਕੁਝ ਵ੃ਠ ਤਕਾ ਕ੃।
ਤਜ਴ ਥਾਂਲੇਂ ਧਯਤੀ ਤ੃ ਆ ਕ੃ , ਇਵ ਭੁਿੱ ਠ ਤਡਿੱ ਗੀ ਴ਾਯੀ।
ਓ਴ ਥਾਂਉਂ 'ਕਸ਼ਭੀਯ' ਫਣ ਤਗਆ, ਟੁਕੜੀ ਜਿੱ ਗ ਤੋਂ ਨਮਾਯੀ।

2. '਩ਤਵਰ੃ ਡੂੰ ਗ ਭਦਾਯੀਆਂ ਭੂੰ ਤਯ ਗਏ ਗੁਆਚ

ਦੂਜ੃ ਡੂੰ ਗ ਦੀ ਰਿੱਗ ਗਈ ਜਣ੃-ਖਣ੃ ਨੂੂੰ ਰਾਗ
ਨਾਗਾਂ ਕੀਰ੃ ਰ੅ ਕ ਭੂੂੰ ਵ ਫ਴ ਤਪਯ ਡੂੰ ਗ ਵੀ ਡੂੰ ਗ
਩ਰ੅ -਩ਰੀ ਩ੂੰ ਜਾਫ ਦ੃ ਨੀਰ੃ ਩੄ ਗਏ ਅੂੰ ਗ
7. ਹ੃ਠ ਭਦੱ ਤ੃ ਭਿਸ਼੃ ' ਤ੃ 125 ਤੋਂ 150 ਸ਼ਬਦਾਂ ਭਿੱ ਚ ਩੄ਰਾ-ਰਚਨਾ ਕਰ੅।
1. ਭਤਨ ਜੀਤ੄ ਜਗੁ ਜੀਤੁ 2. ਕ੆ ਭੀ ਏਕਤਾ 3. ਭਹੰ ਮਤ ਅੱ ਗ੃ ਿੱਛਮੀ ਩ੱ ਖ੃ ਅੱ ਗ੃ ਩੆ਣ
8. ਕਹਾਣੀਆਂ ਭਿੱ ਚੋਂ
1.'਴ਾਂਝ' ਕਵਾਣੀ ਦ੃ ਤਲਸ਼੃-ਲ਴ਤੂ ਫਾਯ੃ 125 ਤੋਂ 150 ਸ਼ਫਦਾਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਚਯਚਾ ਕਯ੅।
2. ‘ਭਾੜਾ ਫੂੰ ਦਾ' ਕਵਾਣੀ ਦ੃ 'ਤਯਕਸ਼੃ ਲਾਰ੃ ' ਩ਾਤਯ ਦਾ ਩ਾਤਯ ਤਚਤਯਨ 125 ਤੋਂ 150 ਸ਼ਫਦਾਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਕਯ੅।

9. ਹ੃ਠ ਭਿਖ੃ ਿਾਰਤਕ ਩੄ਰ੃ ਨੂੰ ਭਧਆਨ ਨਾਿ ਩ੜਹ੅ ਅਤ੃ ਉਸ ਦ੃ ਹ੃ਠਾਂ ਩ੁੱ ਛ੃ ਗਏ ਬਹੁ-ਭਿਕਿ਩ੀ ਩ਰਸ਼ਨਾਂ ਦ੃ ਉੱਤਰ
ਉਹਨਾਂ ਭਿੱ ਚੋਂ ਚੁਣ ਕ੃ ਭਿਖ੅ -

1. ਸ਼ੁਯੂ ਤੋਂ ਵੀ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਦੂਤਜਆਂ 'ਤ੃ ਩ਿਬਾਲ ਩ਾਉਣ ਦਾ ਮਤਨ ਕਯਦਾ ਆਇਆ ਵ੄। ਉ਴ ਨੇ ਆ਩ਣੀ ਤਾਕਤ ਅਤ੃ ਲਾਕ-
ਸ਼ਕਤੀ ਨਾਰ ਦੂਤਜਆਂ ਨੂੂੰ ਵਭ-ਤਖ਼ਆਰ ਫਣਾਉਣ ਦੀ ਕ੅ਸ਼਴ ਕੀਤੀ ਵ੄। ਤਾਕਤ ਨਾਰ ਉ਴ ਨੇ ਤਕੂੰ ਨੀ ਕੁ ਴ਪਰਤਾ ਩ਿਾ਩ਤ

ਕੀਤੀ, ਇਵ ਕਤਵਣਾ ਤਾਂ ਭੁਸ਼ਕਰ ਵ੄ ਩ਯ ਲਾਕ-ਸ਼ਕਤੀ ਦ੃ ਚਭਤਕਾਯ ਨਾਰ ਉ਴ ਨੇ ਕਾਪੀ ਴ਪਰਤਾ ਩ਿਾ਩ਤ ਕੀਤੀ ਵ੄
। ਲਾਕ-ਸ਼ਕਤੀ ਦਾ ਇਵ ਚਭਤਕਾਯ ਵੀ ਬਾਸ਼ਣ-ਕਰਾ ਵ੄। ਇਵ ਕਰਾ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਨੂੂੰ ਦੂਤਜਆਂ ਤੋਂ ਉੱ਩ਯ ਅਤ੃ ਤਲਸ਼੃ਸ਼ ਗੁਣਾਂ
ਦਾ ਭਾਰਕ ਫਣਾ ਤਦੂੰ ਦੀ ਵ੄। ਇਿੱ ਕ ਚੂੰ ਗਾਂ ਬਾਸ਼ਣ-ਕਯਤਾ ਆ਩ਣ੃ ਸ਼ਫਦਾਂ ਨਾਰ ਴ੁਿੱ ਤ੃ ਵ੅ਏ ਴ਭਾਜ ਨੂੂੰ ਵਰੂਣ ਕ੃ ਚੂੰ ਗ ਗੁਣ
ਗਿਤਵਣ ਕਯਨ ਰਈ ਩ਿ੃ਯਦਾ ਵ੄। ਨੇਤਾ , ਅਤਧਆ਩ਕ ਅਤ੃ ਴ਭਾਜ-਴ੁਧਾਯਕ ਰਈ ਬਾਸ਼ਣ ਕਰਾ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤਨ਩ੁੂੰ ਨ ਵ੅ਣਾ
ਜਯੂਯੀ ਵ੄। ਨੇਤਾ ਆ਩ਣੀ ਰਿੱਛਦਾਯ , ਭੁਵਾਲਯ੃ਦਾਯ ਅਤ੃ ਕਰਾਤਤਭਕ ਫ੅ਰੀ ਨਾਰ ਦੂਤਜਆਂ ਉੱਤ੃ ਩ਿਬਾਲ ਩ਾ ਕ੃ ਆ਩ਣ੃
ਰਈ ਫਵੁਭਤ ਩ਿਾ਩ਤ ਕਯਦਾ ਵ੄ ਜ੅ ਉ਴ ਨੂੂੰ ਨੇਤਾਤਗਯੀ ਦ੃ ਅਖਾੜ੃ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤਾਕਤਲਯ ਤ਴ਿੱ ਧ ਕਯਨ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਴ਵਾਈ ਵੁੂੰ ਦਾ
ਵ੄। ਬਾਸ਼ਣ-ਕਰਾ ਨਾ ਕ੃ਲਰ ਨੇਤਾ , ਅਤਧਆ਩ਕ ਅਤ੃ ਴ਭਾਜ-਴ੁਧਾਯਕ ਰਈ ਵੀ ਜਯੂਯੀ ਵ੄ ਴ਗੋਂ ਇਵ ਆਭ ਆਦਭੀ
ਰਈ ਲੀ ਜਯੂਯੀ ਵ੄। ਴ਾਡੀ ਸ਼ਖ਼਴ੀਅਤ ਦਾ ਤਗਆਨ ਴ਬ ਤੋਂ ਩ਤਵਰਾਂ ਴ਾਡੀ ਫ੅ਰੀ ਤੋਂ ਵੀ ਵੁੂੰ ਦਾ ਵ੄। ਚੂੰ ਗੀ ਫ੅ਰੀ ਨਾਰ
ਅ਴ੀਂ ਆ਩ਣ੃ ਦਾਇਯ੃ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਩ਿਬਾਲੀ ਵ੅ਣ ਦ੃ ਨਾਰ-ਨਾਰ ਫਾਵਯੀ ਦਾਇਯ੃ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਲੀ ਆ਩ਣਾ ਉਚ੃ਯਾ ਴ਥਾਨ ਫਣਾ ਴ਕਦ੃
ਵਾਂ। ਇਵ ਕਰਾ ਤਭਵਨਤ ਅਤ੃ ਰਗਨ ਨਾਰ ਆਭ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਲੀ ਤਲਕਤ਴ਤ ਵ੅ ਴ਕਦੀ ਵ੄। ਇ਴ ਰਈ ਰ੅ ੜੀਂਦ੃ ਤਗਆਨ
ਅਤ੃ ਅਤਬਆ਴ ਦੀ ਰ੅ ੜ ਵ੄। ਆਭ ਤਲਅਕਤੀ ਨੂੂੰ ਬਾਲੇਂ ਇ਴ ਕਰਾ ਨੂੂੰ ਅ਩ਣਾਉਣ ਦਾ ਭ੆ਕਾ ਨ਴ੀਫ ਨਵੀਂ ਵੁੂੰ ਦਾ ਩ਯ
਴ਕੂਰਾਂ, ਕਾਰਜਾਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤਲਤਦਆਯਥੀ ਇ਴ ਕਰਾ ਤੋਂ ਜਾਣੂ ਵੁੂੰ ਦ੃ ਵਨ। ਜ੅ ਤਲਤਦਆਯਥੀ ਚਾਵ ਤਾਂ ਉਵ ਇ਴ ਴ਭੇਂ ਦ੆ਯਾਨ
ਆ਩ਣ੃ ਅੂੰ ਦਯ ਇ਴ ਕਰਾ ਨੂੂੰ ਴ੁਚਿੱਜ੃ ਢੂੰ ਗ ਨਾਰ ਤਲਕਤ਴ਤ ਕਯ ਴ਕਦਾ ਵ੄। ਇ਴ ਕੂੰ ਭ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਉ਴ ਦ੃ ਅਤਧਆ਩ਕ ਉ਴
ਦਾ ਭਾਯਗਦਯਸ਼ਨ ਲੀ ਕਯ ਴ਕਦ੃ ਵਨ। ਇ਴ ਨਾਰ ਉ਴ ਦ੃ ਅੂੰ ਦਯ ਆਤਭ-ਤਲਸ਼ਲਾਸ਼ ਜਾਗ੃ਗਾ ਅਤ੃ ਉਵ ਆ਩ਣ੃ ਤਲਸ਼੃
ਫਾਯ੃ ਅ਴ਯਦਾਯ ਢੂੰ ਗ ਨਾਰ ਴ਯ੅ਤਤਆਂ ਦ੃ ਭਨੋਬਾਲਾਂ ਨੂੂੰ ਴ਭਝਦਾ ਵ੅ਇਆ ਆ਩ਣੀ ਗਿੱ ਰ ਕਤਵਣ ਦੀ ਜੁਯਿੱਅਤ ਕਯ੃ਗਾ ਜ੅
ਤਕ ਇਿੱ ਕ ਚੂੰ ਗ੃ ਬਾਸ਼ਣ-ਕਯਤਾ ਦਾ ਉਚ੃ਯਾ ਗੁਣ ਵੁੂੰ ਦਾ ਵ੄।
(i) ਸ਼ੁਯੂ ਤੋਂ ਵੀ ਦੂਤਜਆਂ ' ਤ੃ ਩ਿਬਾਲ ਩ਾਉਣ ਦਾ ਮਤਨ ਕ੆ ਣ ਕਯਦਾ ਆਇਆ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਴ਭਾਜ (ਅ) ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ
(ੲ) ਭਨੁਿੱਖ (਴) ਇਵਨਾਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਕ੅ਈ ਨਵੀਂ
(ii) ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਨੇ ਆ਩ਣੀ ਤਾਕਤ ਅਤ੃ ਲਾਕ ਸ਼ਕਤੀ ਨਾਰ ਦੂਤਜਆਂ ਨੂੂੰ ਕੀ ਫਣਾਉਣ ਦੀ ਕ੅ਸ਼ਸ਼ ਕੀਤੀ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਵਭ-਴ਪਯ (ਅ) ਵਭ-ਤਖ਼ਆਰ
(ੲ) ਵਭ-ਤਨਲਾਰਾ (਴) ਵਭ – ਲ਼ਕਰ
(iii) ਤਕ਴ ਦਾ ਬਾਲ਼ਣ – ਕਰਾ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤਨ਩ੁੂੰ ਨ ਵ੅ਣਾ ਜਯੂਯੀ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਵਤਥਆਯ (ਅ) ਩ਿਮ੅ਗ
(ੲ) ਚਭਤਕਾਯ (਴) ਤਨ਩ੁੂੰ ਨਤਾ
(iv) ਤਕ਴ ਦਾ ਬਾਸ਼ਣ ਕਰਾ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤਨ਩ੁੂੰ ਨ ਵ੅ਣਾ ਜਯੂਯੀ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਨੇਤਾ ਦਾ (ਅ) ਅਤਧਆ਩ਕ ਦਾ
(ੲ) ਴ਭਾਜ-਴ੁਧਾਯਕ ਦਾ (਴) ਉ਩ਯ੅ਕਤ ਴ਾਯ੃
(v) ਴ਾਡੀ ਸ਼ਖ਼਴ੀਅਤ ਦਾ ਤਗਆਨ ਴ਬ ਤੋਂ ਩ਤਵਰਾਂ ਤਕਿੱ ਥੋਂ ਵੁੂੰ ਦਾ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਴ਾਡੀ ਫ੅ਰੀ ਤੋਂ (ਅ) ਴ਾਡ੃ ਯੁਤਫ੃ ਤੋਂ
(ੲ) ਴ਾਡੀ ਤਦਖ ਤੋਂ (਴) ਴ਾਡ੃ ਲਤੀਯ੃ ਤੋਂ
(vi) ਤਭਵਨਤ ਅਤ੃ ਰਗਨ ਨਾਰ ਤਕਵੜੀ ਕਰਾ ਆਭ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤਲਕਤ਴ਤ ਵ੅ ਴ਕਦੀ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਤਰਕਣ-ਕਰਾ (ਅ) ਩ੜਹਨ – ਕਰਾ
(ੲ) ਬਾਸ਼ਣ-ਕਰਾ (਴) ਴ੁਣਨ-ਕਰਾ
(vii) ਬਾਸ਼ਣ ਕਰਾ ਰਈ ਕ੆ ਣ ਤਲਤਦਆਯਥੀ ਦਾ ਭਾਯਗ-ਦਯਸ਼ਨ ਕਯ ਴ਕਦ੃ ਵਨ ?
(ੳ) ਤਯਸ਼ਤ੃ਦਾਯ (ਅ) ਫ੃ਰੀ
(ੲ) ਅਤਧਆ਩ਕ (਴) ਭਾਤਾ – ਤ਩ਤਾ
(viii) ਩੄ਯ ਦਾ ਢੁਕਲਾਂ ਤ਴ਯਰ੃ ਖ ਤਰਖ੅।
(ੳ) ਲਾਕ-ਸ਼ਕਤੀ (ਅ) ਚਭਤਕਾਯ
(ੲ) ਬਾਸ਼ਣ-ਕਰਾ (਴) ਤਰਖਣ ਕਰਾ

2. ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ ਴ਭਾਜ ਦੀ ਇਿੱ ਕ ਇਕਾਈ ਵ੄। ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਛ੅ਟ੃ ਅਤ੃ ਲਿੱ ਡ੃ ਫਵੁਤ ਴ਾਯ੃ ਤਯਸ਼ਤ੃ ਵੁੂੰ ਦ੃ ਵਨ। ਇਵਨਾਂ
਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਤਯਸ਼ਤਤਆਂ ਯਾਵੀਂ ਵੀ ਇਨ਴ਾਨ ਲਿੱ ਤਡਆਂ ਦਾ ਆਦਯ-਴ਤਤਕਾਯ ਅਤ੃ ਛ੅ਤਟਆਂ ਨਾਰ ਩ਿ੃ਭ-ਤ਩ਆਯ ਕਯਨਾ
ਤ਴ਿੱ ਖਦਾ ਵ੄। ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਭੁਿੱ ਖ ਯੂ਩ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤਤੂੰ ਨ-਩ਿੱ ਖੀ ਤਯਸ਼ਤ੃ ਵੁੂੰ ਦ੃ ਵਨ। ਩ਤਵਰ੃ ਤ਩ਤਾ ਲਿੱ ਰੋਂ , ਦੂ਴ਯ੃ ਭਾਤਾ ਲਿੱ ਰੋਂ ਅਤ੃
ਤੀ਴ਯ੃ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਦ੃ ਤਨਿੱਜੀ ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਤਯਸ਼ਤਤਆਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਤ਩ਤਾ ਲਿੱ ਰੋਂ ਦਾਦਾ , ਦਾਦੀ , ਤਾਇਆ , ਤਾਈ , ਚਾਚਾ , ਚਾਚੀ ,
ਬੂਆ ਆਤਦ ਭਾਤਾ ਲਿੱ ਰੋਂ ਨਾਨਾ , ਨਾਨੀ , ਭਾਭਾ , ਭਾਭੀ , ਭਾ਴ੀ ਆਤਦ ਅਤ੃ ਆ਩ਣ੃ ਤਨਿੱਜੀ ਤਯਸ਼ਤ੃ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਬ੄ਣ , ਬਯਾ ,

਩ਤਨੀ , ਩ੁਿੱ ਤਯ, ਩ੁਿੱ ਤਯੀ ਆਤਦ ਤਯਸ਼ਤ੃ ਭੁਿੱ ਖ ਵਨ। ਭਾਤਾ-ਤ਩ਤਾ ਦਾ ਤਯਸ਼ਤਾ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਰਈ ਴ਬ ਤੋਂ ਴ਤਤਕਾਯਮ੅ਗ
ਭੂੰ ਤਨਆ ਤਗਆ ਵ੄। ਭਾਂ ਜਨਭ ਦੇਂਦੀ ਵ੄ ਅਤ੃ ਉਵੀ ਘਯ ਦਾ ਕੇਂਦਯ ਵ੄। ਤ਩ਤਾ ਆਯਤਥਕ ਩ਿਫੂੰਧ ਚਰਾਉਂਦਾ ਵ੄। ਩ਤੀ-
਩ਤਨੀ ਦੀ ਴ਾਂਝ ਘਯ ਦੀ ਫੁਤਨਆਦ ਵੁੂੰ ਦੀ ਵ੄। ਇ਴ ਤੋਂ ਵੀ ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ ਲਧਦਾ-ਪੁਿੱ ਰਦਾ ਅਤ੃ ਪ੄ਰਦਾ ਵ੄। ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ
ਤਯਸ਼ਤਤਆਂ ਦੀ ਵੋਂਦ ਰਈ ਵੀ ਤਲਆਵ ਦੀਆਂ ਯ਴ਭਾਂ ਫਣਾਈਆਂ ਗਈਆਂ ਵਨ। ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਤਯਸ਼ਤ੃ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਦ੃ ਦੁਿੱ ਖ ਨੂੂੰ
ਲੂੰ ਡ ਕ੃ ਘਟਾਉਣ ਦਾ ਮਤਨ ਕਯਦ੃ ਵਨ ਅਤ੃ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਦੀ ਖ਼ੁਸ਼ੀ ਨਾਰ ਖੁਸ਼ੀ ਦਾ ਩ਿਗਟਾਲਾ ਕਯ ਕ੃ ਉ਴ ਦੀ ਖ਼ੁਸ਼ੀ ਨੂੂੰ ਚਾਯ
ਗੁਣਾ ਕਯਨ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਴ਵਾਈ ਵੁੂੰ ਦ੃ ਵਨ। ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਤਯਸ਼ਤਤਆਂ ਦਾ ਅ਴ਯ ਵਯ ਇਿੱ ਕ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਦੀ ਸ਼ਖ਼਴ੀਅਤ ਉੱਤ੃ ਩ੈਂਦਾ
ਵ੄। ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਤਯਸ਼ਤਤਆਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਕੁੜਿੱਤਣ ਩੄ਦਾ ਨਵੀਂ ਵ੅ਣ ਦ੃ਣੀ ਚਾਵੀਦੀ। ਴ਾਨੂੂੰ ਵਭ੃ਸ਼ਾਂ ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਴ਾਂਝ ਨੂੂੰ ਫਣਾਈ
ਯਿੱ ਖਣ ਦੀ ਕ੅ਸ਼ਸ਼ ਕਯਨੀ ਚਾਵੀਦੀ ਵ੄। ਜ੃ਕਯ ਴ਾਡਾ ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਬਾਈਚਾਯਾ ਭਜਫੂਤ ਵ੅ਲ੃ਗਾ ਤਾਂ ਴ਾਡਾ ਦ੃਴ ਲੀ
ਸ਼ਕਤੀਸ਼ਾਰੀ ਵ੅ਲ੃ਗਾ।
(i) ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ ਤਕ਴ ਦੀ ਇਿੱ ਕ ਇਕਾਈ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਤਯਸ਼ਤਤਆਂ ਦੀ (ਅ) ਦ੃਴ ਦੀ
(ੲ) ਴ਭਾਜ ਦੀ (਴) ਴ਿੱ ਤਬਆਚਾਯ ਦੀ
(ii) ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਪ੅ਟ੅ ਅਤ੃ ਲਿੱ ਡ੃ ਫਵੁਤ ਴ਾਯ੃ ਕੀ ਵੁੂੰ ਦ੃ ਵਨ ?
(ੳ) ਫਿੱ ਚ੃ (ਅ) ਤਯਲ਼ਤ੃
(ੲ) ਬਾਂਡ੃ (਴) ਕਿੱ ਩ੜ੃
(iii) ਤਯਸ਼ਤ੃ ਭੁਿੱ ਖ ਯੂ਩ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਵੁੂੰ ਦ੃ ਵਨ :
(ੳ) ਦ੅ ਩ਿੱ ਖੀ (ਅ) ਤਤੂੰ ਨ ਩ਿੱ ਖੀ
(ੲ) ਚਾਯ ਩ਿੱ ਖੀ (਴) ਩ੂੰ ਜ ਩ਿੱ ਖੀ
(iv) ਤਕਵੜਾ ਤਯਸ਼ਤਾ ਭਨੁਿੱਖ ਰਈ ਴ਬ ਤੋਂ ਴ਤਤਕਾਯਮ੅ਗ ਭੂੰ ਤਨਆ ਤਗਆ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਬ੄ਣ-ਬਯਾ ਦਾ (ਅ) ਦ੅਴ਤਾਂ-ਤਭਿੱ ਤਯਾਂ ਦਾ
(ੲ) ਭਾਤਾ-ਤ਩ਤਾ ਦਾ (਴) ਴ਵ੃ਰੀਆਂ ਦਾ
(v) ਘਯ ਦਾ ਕੇਂਦਯ ਕ੆ ਣ ਵੁੂੰ ਦਾ ਵ੄ ?
(ਉ) ਦਾਦਾ (ਅ) ਤ਩ਤਾ
(ੲ) ਭਾਂ (਴) ਚਾਚਾ
(vi) ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਆਯਤਥਕ ਩ਿਫੂੰਧ ਕ੆ ਣ ਚਰਾਉਂਦਾ ਵ੄ ?
(ੳ) ਦਾਦੀ (ਅ) ਚਾਚਾ
ੲ) ਭਾਂ (਴) ਤ਩ਤਾ
(vii) ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਤਯਸ਼ਤਤਆਂ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਩੄ਦਾ ਨਵੀਂ ਵ੅ਣੀ ਚਾਵੀਦੀ :
(ੳ) ਤਭਠਾ਴ (ਅ) ਕੁੜਿੱਤਨ
(ੲ) ਨਯਾਜਗੀ (਴) ਖੁਲ਼ੀ
(viii) ਉ਩ਯ੅ਕਤ ਩੄ਯ ਦਾ ਢੁਕਲਾਂ ਤ਴ਯਰ੃ ਖ ਤਰਖ੅ ।
(ੳ) ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ (ਅ) ਛ੅ਟਾ ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ
(ੲ) ਩ਤਯਲਾਤਯਕ ਤਯਸ਼ਤ੃ (਴) ਲਿੱ ਡਾ ਩ਤਯਲਾਯ

10. ਩ਰਿਾਿਸ਼ਾਿੀ ਭਿਖਣ-ਕ੆ ਸ਼ਿ

1. ਤੁਵਾਡਾ ਕਾਯ੅ਫਾਯ ਸ਼੃ਅਯ ਫਜਾਯ ਨਾਰ ਜੁਤੜਆ ਵ੅ਇਆ ਵ੄ ਅਤ੃ ਕਾਯ੅ਫਾਯ ਰਈ ਤੁਵਾਨੂੂੰ ਯ੅ਜਾਨਾ ਭ੅ਫਾਈਰ ਦੀ
ਲਯਤੋਂ ਕਯਨੀ ਩੄ ਯਵੀ ਵ੄। ਩ਯ ਤੁ਴ੀਂ ਬਾਯਤ ਴ੂੰ ਚਾਯ ਤਨਗਭ ਤਰਤਭਟਡ ਦੀ ਨਿੱਟਲਯਕ ਴੃ਲਾ ਕਯਕ੃ ਤਦਿੱ ਕਤ ਭਤਵ਴ੂ਴
ਕਯ ਯਵ੃ ਵ੅। ਵਾਰਾਤ ਤੋਂ ਜਾਣੂ ਕਯਲਾਉਂਦ੃ ਵ੅ਏ ਆ਩ਣ੃ ਇਰਾਕ੃ ਦ੃ ਴ੂੰ ਫੂੰ ਤਧਤ ਅਤਧਕਾਯੀ ਨੂੂੰ ਩ਿੱ ਤਯ ਤਰਖ ਕ੃ ਇ਴ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ
਴ੁਧਾਯ ਕਯਨ ਰਈ ਆਖ੅।

2. ਤੁ਴ੀਂ ਆ਩ਣ੃ ਕ਴ਫ੃ ਤਲਿੱ ਚ ਆਟਾ-ਚਿੱ ਕੀ ਰਾਈ ਵ੅ਈ ਵ੄ । ਇਰਾਕਾ ਤਨਲਾ਴ੀਆਂ ਨੂੂੰ ਇ਴ ਫਾਯ੃ ਖੁਿੱ ਰਹੀ ਤਚਿੱ ਠੀ ਯਾਵੀਂ
ਜਾਣਕਾਯੀ ਤਦੂੰ ਦ੃ ਵ੅ਏ ਕਣਕ , ਦਾਰਾਂ ਤ੃ ਵ੅ਯ ਅਨਾਜ ਆਤਦ ਤ਩ਵਾਉਣ , ਯ੃ਟ ਤ੃ ਵ੅ਯ ਤਲਸ਼੃ਸ਼ਤਾਲਾਂ ਦਿੱ ਴ਦ੃ ਵ੅ਏ ਅ਩ੀਰ
ਕਯ੅।
 XII- INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Unit – I (Database Concepts RDBMS Tools) Part- B
Note:-
❖ Do the below written MCQs on the sheets only.
❖ Complete the soft copy of your SQL practical file.
_____________________________________________________________________

1. Data is a collection of ________ facts which have not been processed to reveal useful information.
a. Raw b. Facts c. Process d. None of the above

2. Which of the following properties belong to the database _______________.

a. A database is a representation of some aspect of the real world also called mini world.
b. It is designed, built and populated with data for specific purposes.
c. It can be of any size and complexity.
d. All of the above

3. What are the benefits of databases ___________.

a. Data Redundancy b. Data Inconsistency
c. Lack of Data Integration d. All of the above

4. A ____________is a collection of programs that enables users to rate, maintain and use a database.
a. Database management system b. Database manageable system
c. Database updating system d. None of the above

5. Which of the following is not a valid SQL type?

a. FLOAT b. NUMERIC c. DECIMAL d. CHARACTER

6. Which of the following is not a DDL command?

a. TRUNCATE b. ALTER c. CREATE d. UPDATE

7. What are the various operations that need to be performed on a database _____________.
a. Defining the database b. Sharing the database
c. Manipulating the database d. All of the above

9. What are the different characteristics of Database management systems?

a. Self – describing Nature of a database system b. Insulation between programs and data
c. Sharing of data d. All of the above

10. A multiuser environment allows multiple users to access the database simultaneously; it means
___________.
a. Sharing of data b. Insulation between Program and data
c. Self-describing Nature of database system d. None of the above

11. any change in the structure of data would be done in the catalogue and hence programs which access this
data need not be modified. This property is called_____________.
a. Program-Data Independence b. Self-describing
c. Sharing of data d. None of the above

12. What are the different types of DBMS users ____________.

a. End users b. Database Administrator
c. Application programmers d. All of the above
13. Users who use the database for querying, modifying and generating reports as per their needs. They are
not concerned about the working and designing of the database known as _________.
a. End users b. Database Administrator
c. Application programmers d. All of the above

12. How many Primary keys can there be in a table?

a. Only 1 b. Only 2
c. Depends on no of Columns d. Depends on DBA

13. Which of the following is not Constraint in SQL?

a. Primary Key b. Not Null c. Check d. Union

14. What operator tests column for absence of data

a. NOT Operator b. Exists Operator c. IS NULL Operator d. None of the above

15. __________ is responsible for authoring access, monitoring its use, providing technical support,
acquiring software and hardware resources.
a. End users b. Database Administrator
c. Application programmers d. All of the above

16. ___________ write application program to interact with the database.

a. End users b. Database Administrator
c. Application programmers d. All of the above

17. _________ determines the requirements of the end users and then develops specifications to meet these
requirements
a. End users b. Database Administrator
c. System Analyst d. All of the above

18. __________plays a major role in the database design and all the technical, economic and feasibility
aspects.
a. End users b. Database Administrator
c. System Analyst d. All of the above

19. Advantages of using DBMS approach.

a. Reduction in Redundancy b. Improved consistency
c. Improved availability d. All of the above

20. Data in a DBMS is more concise because of the __________ of data.

a. Non availability of data b. Central repository
c. Data is not Security d. None of the above

21. By making use of ___________, the DBA can provide security to the database.
a. Database access rights b. Password
c. Controlling users d. All of the above

22. Limitation of using DBMS approach _________.

a. High cost b. Security and recovery overheads
c. Both a) and b) d. None of the above

23. __________organize collection of data as a collection of relations where each relation corresponds to a
table of values.
a. Data method b. Database c. Data system d. None of the above
24. A row is also called a ________.
a. Field b. Tuple c. Both a) and b) d. None of the above

25. A column is also called ________.

a. Attribute b. Relation c. Domain d. Degree

26. The data types of values in each column are called __________.
a. Attribute b. Relation c. Domain d. Degree

27. The number of attributes in a relation is called the _________ of a relation.

a. Attribute b. Relation c. Domain d. Degree

28. The number of rows in a relation is called the _________ of a relation.

a. Cardinality b. Relation c. Domain d. Degree

29. Some of the examples of databases are ___________.

a. IBM DB2 b. Oracle c. MySQL d. All of the above

30. __________ are restrictions on the values, stored in a database based on the requirements.
a. Method b. Constraints c. Properties d. None of the above

31. What are examples of constraints in relational models?

a. Domain constraint b. Key constraint
c. Entity Integrity constraint d. All of the above

32. What are the examples of key constraints?

a. Super key b. Candidate key c. Primary key d. All of the above

33. __________ is a set of attributes in a relation, for which no two tuples in a relation state have the same
combination of values.
a. Super key b. Candidate key c. Primary key d. All of the above

34. _________ key helps to protect duplication in the table.

a. Super key b. Candidate key c. Primary key d. All of the above

35. ____________ is a language that is used to manage data stored in a RDBMS.

a. DDL b. DML c. SQL d. None of the above

36. SQL Stands for __________.

a. System Query Language b. Structured Query Language
c. Social Query Language d. None of the above

37. DDL Stands for ___________.

a. Data Database Language b. Domain Definition Language
c. Data Definition Language d. None of the above

38. DML Stands for ___________.

a. Data Manageable Language b. Domain Manipulation Language
c. Data Manipulation Language d. None of the above

39. Database system needs to be installed on the Computer and this computer is known as ___________.
a. Database Server b. Database storage
c. Database memory d. None of the above
40. _________ command is used to create a new table in the database.
a. Select command b. Create command
c. Modify command d. Alter command

41. Which datatype belongs to numerical type.

a. Integer b. Number c. Decimal d. All of the above

41. What data type has a fixed length in the database.

a. Varchar(n) b. Char(n) c. Longvarchar(n) d. None of the above

42. Which syntax is correct for creating a table _________.

a. Create table <table name> ( <column name> <data type>);
b. Create table <column name> ( <table name> <data type>);
c. Create table ( <column1 name> <data type>);
d. None of the above
Unit – II (Operating Web Based Applications) Pert- B
1. An application that can be accessed via a web browser, over a network connection is called a
___________.
a. Web-based application b. Server-based application
c. Both a) and b) d. None of the above
2. Which one of the websites has an online reservation system?
a. www.irctc.co.in b. www.redbus.in
c. www.goibibo.com d. All of the above
3. What are the advantages of online reservation?
a. Convenient b. Price comparison
c. Security d. All of the above
4. What are the actions that can be taken to make a password?
a. Make a password complex, like a mix case, use numbers and special characters.
b. Never use common name, date of birth and city in the password
c. Don’t share passwords with your friends or relatives.
d. All of the above
5. Give some examples of search engines.
a. Google b. Yahoo c. Bing d. All of the above
6. NICNET Stands for ___________.
a. National Satellite Based Computer Network
b. New Satellite Based Computer Network
c. National State Based Computer Network
d. None of the above
8. NICNET is launched in _________.
a. 1986 b. 1977 c. 1987 d. 1977
9. DISNIC State for __________.
a. Digital Information System of the National Informatics Center
b. District Information System of the National Informatics Center
c. Digital Internet System of the National Informatics Center
d. None of the above
10. DEITY Stands for __________.
a. Department of Electric and Information Technology
b. Department of Electric and Indian Technology
c. Department of Electronics and Information Technology
d. None of the above
11. Examples of the Central initiatives for e-governance are ___________.
a. National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) b. National e-Governance Division (NeGD)
c. e-Governance Infrastructure d. All of the above

12. Which of the following is the National Portal of India website.

a. Indiagov.com b. Indianportal.com
c. India.gov.in d. None of the above
13. ________ website provides a single window access to information and services being provided by the
various Indian Government entities.
a. india.gov.in b. goidirectory.nic.in
c. data.gov.in d. None of the above
14. India.gov.in is a Mission Mode Project under the National E-Governance Plan, designed and maintained
by ___________.
a. National Informatics Center b. DeitY
c. MoCIT d. All of the above
15. ____________ portal is a one point source to access all Indian Government websites at all levels and
from all sectors.
a. india.gov.in b. goidirectory.nic.in
c. data.gov.in d. None of the above
16. Online shopping is an ____________ where the customer can purchase goods over the Internet.
a. Banking application b. e-Commerce application
c. Government application d. None of the above
17. What are the situations where Online Shopping is useful?
a. The customer does not have enough time to visit a store and purchase goods.
b. The store where you will get what you need may be very far off.
c. The product you may require is not available at your market.
d. All of the above
18. What are the different methods for making payment to the website?
a. Cash on delivery b. Wire transfer c. e-Voucher d. All of the above
19. Give examples of Online education sites.
a. www.eagetutor.com b. udacity.org c. coursera.org d. All of the above
20. NCERT portal that provides online learning resources like _________.
a. e-Book b. Question papers c. Journals & Children Book d. All of the above
21. A web application is a program that is stored on a _________.
a. Web Server b. Voice Server c. Data Server d. None of the above
22. What characteristics are required for a new project.
a. A project requires finite resources that are required to complete the project.
b. A project has a specific time frame
c. A project is complete when its end objectives are achieved
d. All of the above

23. What are the different phases in a Web application project?

a. Requirements Definition Phase b. Design Phase
c. Implementation Phase & Testing Phase d. All of the above
24. _____________ In this phase we identify the problem statement for which the web application is to be
developed. Identify the scope of the problem.
a. Requirements Definition Phase b. Design Phase
c. Implementation Phase d. Testing Phase
25. In the Requirements Definition Phase what are the feasibility required?
a. Check whether the project is technically feasible
b. Check whether the project is economically feasible
c. Both a) and b)
d. None of the above
26. In the Requirements Definition Phase, The focus is on “What” the application must do. to define the
scope of the application _____________.
a. Compile a detailed list with a clear description of application features.
b. Establish the goals that the solution must achieve.
c. Recognizing the limitations that are placed on the project.
d. All of the above
27. What are the different keys required to design the application database?
a. Identify the database tables that will be required in the application
b. Each table we need to identify the attributes of the tables, their data types and size of the column.
c. Decide the table structures
d. All of the above
28. _________ development means working on server-side software, which focuses on everything you can’t
see on a website.
a. Front – end b. Back – end c. Between – end d. None of the above
29. __________ phase helps to test applications (Front-End and Back-End) with multiple sample sets of
data.
a. Requirements Definition Phase b. Design Phase
c. Implementation Phase d. Testing Phase
30. __________ is an example of a B2B e-Commerce website.
a. Supply chain management b. Legacy computer system
c. Sustainable supply chain d. Electronic data interchange
31. According to the volume of transactions, it is the most widely used payment method and is quickly
convertible into other kinds of value without a middleman. Which payment mechanisms are meant by this
statement?
a. Plastic Card b. Credit Card c. Cash d. None of the above
32. Advantages of using an online website builder include-
a. Low cost b. Easy to learn c. Time taking d. Both a) and b)
33. Buying and selling goods over the internet is called _________.
a. Cyber-Commerce b. Digital-Commerce c. E-Commerce d. Hyper Selling
34. The IRCT (Indian Railways reservation) is an example of _________.
a. Expert System b. Transaction processing system
c. Management controls system d. None of the above
35. Which website belongs to B2C (Business to Customer).
a. Flipkart b. Amazon c. eBay d. All of the above
36. E-Commerce stands for ___________.
a. Electronic Commerce b. Electric Commerce
c. Entertainment Commerce d. None of the above
37. Which of the following products is appropriate for online sales?
a. Electronic Item b. Books c. Vegetables & Fruits d. All of the above
38. Which of the following functions is related to e-Commerce.
a. Marketing b. Finance c. Supply Chain d. All of the above
39. What precautions we have taken when performing online transactions
a. Make a password complex b. Be cautious when you are paying amount online
c. User antivirus in you device d. All of the above
40. To make a strong password you have to use ___________.
a. Capital Letter in password b. Use Numbers
c. Use Special symbol d. All of the above
Dear Parents
Kindly guide your child:

To take nutritious diet.

To have company of good friends.

To Converse in English.

To avoid unnecessary usage of mobile.

To read newspaper daily.

Dear students
\
Plant a sapling, nourish well and
click photographs of its growth.