UGC NET COMPUTER SCIENCE NOV 2021 PAPER I & II

(IFAS SOLVED PAPER)

1) Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

It is always important and useful to include an 'alt' attribute on 'img' tag in HTML because
A. users who cannot see the image due to vision impairment can have a textual description of the
image (which can be spoken aloud by a screen reader).
B. If the image fails to load (slow connection, broken path, etc.) then alt text is displayed instead.
C. SEO (Search Engine Optimization) benefits.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A only
2. B and C only
3. C only
4. A, B, and C

2) What does the following function f() in 'C' return?

int f(unsigned int N) { unsigned int counter = 0; while(N > 0) { counter += N & 1; N = N >> 1;} return
counter == 1;}
1. 1 if N is odd, otherwise 0
2. 1 if N is a power of 2, otherwise 0
3. 1 if the binary representation of N is all 1's, otherwise 0
4. 1 if the binary representation of N has any 1's, otherwise

3) Consider the following recursive function F() in Java that takes an integer value and returns a string
value: public static String F( int N) { if ( N <= 0) return "‐"; return F(N ‐ 3) + N + F(N ‐ 2)N}
The value of F (5) is:
1. ‐2‐25‐3‐135
2. 2 ‐25‐1‐3‐135
3. ‐1‐145‐2‐245
4. ‐2‐25‐3‐1‐135

4) Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
(Programming Term) (Meaning)
A. JNDI I. Runtime support for running Java programs
B. RMI II. The API in support of naming and directory services
C. JDK III. The methods provided by the Java development
kit and runtime support for calling remote methods
D. JRE IV. The compiler and class libraries to develop Java
applications
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A‐II, B‐III, C‐IV, D‐I
2. A‐II, B‐IV, C‐III, D‐I
3. A‐I, B‐III, C‐IV, D‐II
4. A‐III, B‐II, C‐IV, D‐I
5) Match List I with List II
List I List II
(Programming Paradigm) (Characteristic)
A. Imperative I. Declarative, clausal representation, theorem proving
B. Object‐oriented II. Side‐effect free, declarative, expression evaluation
C. Logic III. Imperative, abstract data type
D. Functional IV. Command‐based, procedural
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A‐IV, B‐III, C‐I, D‐II
2. A‐III, B‐IV, C‐I, D‐II
3. A‐IV, B‐III, C‐II, D‐I
4. A‐II, B‐III, C‐I, D‐IV

6) Suppose you have eight 'black and white' images taken with a 1‐megapixel camera and one '8‐
color' image taken by an 8‐megapixel camera. How much hard disk space in total do you need to store
these images on your computer?
1. 1GB
2. 4 MB
3. 3 MB
4. 3 GB

7) Which of the statements given below are correct?

The midpoint (or Bresenham) algorithm for rasterizing lines is optimized relative to DDA algorithm in
that
A. it avoids round‐off operations.
B. it is incremental.
C. it uses only integer arithmetic.
D. all straight lines can be displayed as straight (exact).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. A, B, C, and D
4. A, B, and C only

8) matrix to What is the transformation a square in the xy-plane defined by and

(1,1) , (−1,1)𝑇 , (−1, −1)𝑇 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (1, −1)𝑇 to a parallelogram whose corresponding vertices are
𝑇

(2,1)𝑇 , (0,1)𝑇 , (−2, −1)𝑇 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (0, −1)𝑇 ?

1 1 0
1. M = [0 1 0]
0 0 1
1 0 0
2. M =[1 1 0]
0 0 1
 1 1 1
3. M = [0 1 0]
0 0 1
1 1 0
4. M =[1 1 0]
0 0 1

9) Suppose a Bezier curve P(t) is defined by the following four control points in the xy-plane:
𝑃0 = (−2,0); 𝑃1 = (−2,4); 𝑃2 = (2,4); 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃3 = (2,0) Then which of the following statements are
correct?
A. Bezier curve p(t) has degree 3.
1
B. 𝑃 ( ) = (0,3)
2
C. Bezier curve P(t) may extend outside the convex hull of its control points
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A, B, and C

10) Given below are two statements

Statement I: The maximum number of sides that a triangle might have when clipped to a rectangular
viewport is 6.
Statement II: In 3D graphics, the perspective transformation is nonlinear in z. In light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

11) In software testing, beta testing is the testing performed by _______________.

1. potential customers at the developer's location
2. potential customers at their own locations
3. product developers at the customer's location
4. product developers at their own locations

12) The V components in MVC are responsible for

1. User interface.
2. Security of the system
3. Business logic and domain objects.
4. Translating between user interface actions/events and operations on the domain objects.

13) In software engineering, what kind of notation do formal methods predominantly use?
1. textual
2. diagrammatic
3. mathematical
4. computer code
14) If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one
interpretation, then SRS is said to be
1. correct
2. consistent
3. unambiguous
4. verifiable

15) A system has 99.99% uptime and has a mean‐time‐between‐failure of 1 day. How fast does the
system has to repair itself in order to reach this availability goal
1. ~9 Seconds
2. ~10 Seconds
3. ~11 Seconds
4. ~12 Seconds

16) In the context of Software Configuration Management (SCM), what kind of files should be
committed to your source control repository?
A. Code files
B. Documentation files
C. Output files
D. Automatically generated files that are required for your system to be used
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. D and A only

17) Match List I with List II

List I List II
(Software Process Model) (Decsription)
A. Waterfall Model I. Software can be developed incrementally
B. Evolutionary Model II. Requirement compromises are inevitable
C. Component‐based Software Engineeering III. Explicit recognition of risk
D. Spiral Development IV. Inflexible partitioning of the project into stages
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A‐IV, B‐I, C‐III, D‐II
2. A‐I, B‐IV, C‐II, D‐III
3. A‐II, B‐III, C‐I, D‐IV
4. A‐IV, B‐I, C‐II, D‐III

18) Identify the correct order of the following five levels of Capability Maturity Model (from lower to
higher) to measure the maturity of an organisation's software process.
A. Defined
B. Optimizing
C. Initial
D. Managed
E. Repeatable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. C, A, E, D, B
2. C, E, A, B, D
3. C, B, D, E, A
4. C, E, A, D, B

19) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Cleanroom software process model incorporates the statistical quality certification of
code increments as they accumulate into a system.
Statement II: Cleanroom software engineering follows the classic analysis, design, code, test, and
debug cycle to software development and focussing on defect removal rather than defect prevention.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

20) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R
Assertion A: Software developers donot do exhaustive software testing in practice.
Reason R: Even for small inputs, exhaustive testing is too computationally intensive (e.g., takes too
long) to run all the tests.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

21) Which of the following are logically equivalent?

A. ¬p → (q → r)and q → (pvr)
B. (𝑃 → 𝑞) → 𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑝 → (𝑞 → 𝑟)
C. (𝑝 → 𝑞) → (𝑟 → 𝑠)𝑎𝑛𝑑(𝑝 → 𝑟) → (𝑞 → 𝑠)
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
1. A only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. A and C only

22) Which of these statements about the floor and ceiling functions are correct?
1
Statement I:⌊2x⌋ = ⌊x⌋ + ⌊x + (2)⌋ for all real number x
Statement II: ⌈x + y⌉ = ⌈x⌉ + ⌈y⌉for all real numders x and y
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false]
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

23) How many ways are there to assign 5 different jobs to 4 different employees if every employee is
assigned at least 1 job?
1. 1024
2. 625
3. 240
4. 20

24) A company stores products in a warehouse. Storage bins in this warehouse are specified by their
aisle, location in the aisle, and self. There are 50 aisles, 85 horizontal locations in each aisle, and 5
shelves throughout the warehouse. What is the least number of products the company can have so
that at least two products must be stored in the same bin?
1. 251
2. 426
3. 4251
4. 21251

25) Let us assume a person climbing the stairs can take one stair or two stairs at a time. How many
ways can this person climb a flight of eight stairs?
1. 21
2. 24
3. 31
4. 34

26) For which value of n is Wheel graph Wn regular?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

27) Which of the following Graphs is (are) planar?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A only
4. B only

28) Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
Identity Name
A. x + x =x 1. Identity Law
B. X + 0 =x I. Absorption Law
C. x + 1 =1 II. Idempotent law
D. x + xy=x IV. Domination Law
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
2. A-I, B-, C-IV, D-II
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. A-III, BW, C-I, D-II

29) Let (X, *) be a semigroup. Furthermore, for every a and b in X, if a ≠ b, then a*b= b*a.
Based on the defined seimigroup, choose the correct equalities from the options given below:
A. For every a in X, a*a = a
B. For every a, b in X, a* b*a= a
C. For every a, b, c in X, a*b "c= a*c
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A, B and C

30) Consider the following linear optimization problem:

Maximize Z=6x+5y
Subject to 2x-3y=5
x+3y <= 11
4x + y <=15
and x>=0, y> = 0.
The optimal solution of the problem is:
1. 15
2. 25
3. 31.72
4. 41.44

31) Which of the following languages are not regular?

A. L = {(01)𝑛 0𝑘 n > k, k >= 0)
B. L = {c 𝑛 b𝑘 a𝑛+𝑘 |n >= 0, k >= 0}
C. L = [0𝑛 1𝑘 | n ≠ k}
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A, B and C

32) Any string of terminals that can be generated by the following context free grammar (where S is
start nonterminal symbol)
S→XY
X→OX|1X|0
Y→YO| Y1|0
1. has at least one 1
2. should end with 0
3. has no consecutive 0's or 1's
4. has at least two O's

33) Let
L₁ = {0𝑛 1𝑛 0𝑚 | n >= 1, m >= 1}
L₂ = {0𝑛 1𝑚 0𝑚 | > 1, m >= 1]
L = {0𝑛 1𝑛 0𝑛 |n >= 1}
Which of the following are correct statements?
A. L3 = L₁ ∩ L2
B. L1 and L2 are context free languages butL3 is not a context free language
C. L1 andL2 are not context free languages butL3 is a context free language
D. L1 is a subset of L3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. A and D only
4. A only

34) Given below are two statements

Statement I: The family of context free languages is closed under homomorphism
Statement II: The family of context free languages is closed under reversal
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement is true

35) What is the minimum number of states required to the finite automaton equivalent to the
transition diagram given below?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

36) Find the regular expression for the language accepted by the automata given below.

1. (aa*(a+b)ab)*
2. (a+b)ab(ab+bb+aa-(a+b)ab)*
3. a*ab(ab+bb+aa*(a+b)ab)*
4. a*(a+b)ab(ab+bb+aa*(a+b)ab)*

37) What language is accepted by the pushdown automaton

M=({q0 , q2 , q2}, {a, b}, {a, b, z}, δ, q0 , z, {q2 })
With 𝛿 (𝑞0 , 𝑎, 𝑎) = {(𝑞0 , 𝑎𝑎)}; 𝛿 (𝑞0 , 𝑏, 𝑎) = {(𝑞0 , 𝑏𝑏)}
δ(q0 , a, b) = {(q0 , ab)}; δ(q0 , b, a) = {(q0 , ba)}
δ(q0 , a, z) = {(q0 , az)}; δ(q0 , b, z) = {(q0 , bz)}
δ(q0 , λ, b) = {(q1 , b)}; δ(q0 , λ, a) = {(q1 , a)}
δ(q0 , a, a) = {(q1 , λ)}; δ(q1 , b, b) = {(q1 , λ)}
δ(q1 , λ, z) = {(q2 , z)}?

1. L = {w|na (w) <= nb (w), wϵ{a, b} ∗}}

2. L = {w|na (w) <= nb (w), wϵ{a, b} ∗}}
3. L = {w|nb (w) <= na (w), wϵ{a, b} ∗}}
4. L = {ww 𝑅 |wϵ{a, b} ∗}}

38) Match List with List

List-I List-II
Production Rules Grammer
A.S→ XY I. Greibach Normal Form
X→0
Y→1
 B. S→ aS|bSS|c II. Context Sensitive Grammar
C. S → AB III Chomsky Normal Form
A → 0A|1A|0
B → 0A
D. S → aAbc IV. S-Grammar
Ab → bA
Ac → Bcc
Bb→ Bb
aB→ aa|aaA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

39) Which of the following concepts can be used to identify loops?

A. Depth first ordering
B. Dominators
C. Reducible graphs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and C and
4. A, B and C

40) Given below are two statements

Statement: LL (1) and LR are examples of Bottom-up parsers.
Statement II: Recursive descent parser and SLR are examples of Top-down parsers
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement and Statement are true
2. Both Statement and Statement are false
3. Statement is true but Statement false
4. Statement but Statement is true in

41) The postfix form of the expression (A+B)* (C*D-E)*F/G is_______

1. AB+CD*E-FG/**
2. AB+CD*E-F**G
2. AB+CD*E-*F*G
4. AR+CDE*-*F*G

42) A double-ended queue (dequeue) supports adding and removing items from both the ends of the
queue. The operations supported by dequeue are Add Front (adding item to front of the queue),
Addear (adding given only stacks to implement this data structure. You can implement only push and
pop operations. What's the time complexity of performing Add front) and Adder () assuming is the
size of the stack and n is the
1. O (m) and O (n)
2. O (1) and O (n)
2. O (n) and O (1)
4. O (n) and O (m)

43) Two balanced binary trees are given with m and n elements, respectively. They can be merged
into a balanced binary search tree in time.
1. O(m*n)
2. O(m+n)
3. O(m*log n)
4. O(m*log(m+n))

44) A data structure is required for storing a set of integers such that each of the following operations
can be done in O(logn) time, where n is the number of elements in the set.
⚫Deletion of the smallest element
⚫Imertion of an element if it is not already present in the set
Which of the following data structures can be used for this purpose?
1. A heap can be used but not a balanced binary search tree.
2. A balanced binary search tree can be used but not a heap.
3. Both balanced binary search tree and heap can be used.
4. Neither balanced binary search tree nor heap can be used.

45) Consider the following graph.

Among the following sequences

I. a b e g g f
II. a b f e h g
III. a b f h g e
Which are depth first traversals of the above graph?
1. I, II, and IV only
2. I and IV only
3. II,III and IV only
4. I,III and IV only

46) Given below are two statements

Statement I: In an undirected graph, number of odd degree vertices is even.
Statement II: In an undirected graph, sum of degrees of all vertices is even.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. Both Statement and Statement are true.
2. Both Statement and Statement are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

47) Which of the given options provides the increasing order of asymptotic complexity of functions f1,
f2, f3 and f4?
A. f1 (n)=2𝑛
B. f2 (n)=𝑛3/2
C. f3 (n) = n log n
D. f4 (n)= 𝑛log 𝑛
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. C, B, D. A
2. C, B, A, D
3. B, C, A. D
4. B, C, D. A

48) The order of a leaf node in a B+ tree is the maximum number of (value, data record pointer) pairs
it can hold. Given that the block size is 1K bytes, data record pointer is 7 bytes long, the
1.63
2. 64
3. 67
4.68

49) A hash function h defined as h(key)-key mod 7, with linear probing, is used to insert the keys 44,
45, 79, 55, 91, 18, 63 into a table indexed from 0 to 6. What will be the location of key 18?
1. 3
2.4
3. 5
4.6

50) In the following table, the left column contains the names of standard graph algorithms and the
right column contains the time complexities of the algorithms. Here, and are number of Standard
graph algorithms with its time complexity.
List I List II
Standard graph algorithms Time complexities
A. A Bellman-Ford algorithm I. O(m*log n)
B. Kruskal's algorithm II. o(𝑛3 )
C. Floyd-Warshall algorithm III. O(n*m)
D. Topological sorting IV O(n+m)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
51) Which agent deals with the happy and unhappy state?
1. Utility-based agent
2. Model-based agent
2. Goal-based Agent
4. Learning Agent

52) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Breadth-First Search is optimal when all the step costs are equal whereas uniform-cast
search is optimal with any step-cost.
Statement II: When all the step costs are same uniform-cost search expends more nodes at depth d
than the Breadth-First Search.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

53) Consider the given tree below. Calculate the value at the root of the tree using alpha-beta pruning
algorithm.

1. 3
2. 5
3. 6
4. 9

54) Which among the following statement)) FALSE?

A. Greedy best-first search is not optimal but is often efficient.
B. A is complete and optimal provided hin) is admissible or consistent.
C. Recursive best-first search is efficient in terms of time complexity but poor in terms of space
complexity.
D. hin) is an admissible heuristic for the 8-puzzle.
1. A only
2. A and D only
2. C only
4. C and D only

55) Consider the sentence below.

There is a country that borders both india and Pakistan.
Which of the following logical expressions express the above sentence correctly when the predicate
Country(x) represents that x is a country and Borders(x, y) represents that the countries
1. ∋ c Coutry(c) ∧ Border (c, India) ∧ Border(c, Pakistan)
2. ∋ c Coutry(c) ⇒ Border (c, India) ∧ Border(c, Pakistan)
3. [∋ c Coutry(c)] ⇒ [Border (c, India) ∧ Border(c, Pakistan)]
4. ∋ cCoutry(c), India ∧ Pakistan)

56) Next five questions are based on the following passage.

Consider a domain consisting of three Boolean variables Toothache, Cavity, and Catch. The full joint
distribution is a 2-2-2 table as shown in the figure below.
toothache ¬toothache
catch ¬catch catch ¬catch
cavity 0.108 0.012 0.072 0.008
¬ cavity 0.016 0.064 0.144 0.576
The marginal probability of cavity (cavity).
1. 0.200
2. 0.216
3. 0.120
4. 0.080

57) The probability of a cavity, given evidence of a toothache, Picavity toothache) is___
1. 0.400
2. 0.600
2. 0.280]
40.216

58) The probability of a toothache, given evidence of a cavity, Ptoothache | cavity) is______
1. 0.400
2. 0.600
2. 0.280
40.216

59) Plcavity V toothache) is,__________

1. 0.200
2. 0.120
3. 0.280
4. 0.600

60) The probability for Cavity, given that either Toothache or Catch is true, P(Cavity | toothache V
catch) is
1. 0.6000
2. 0.5384
3. 0.8000
4. 0.4615
61) Which of the DBMS component ensures that concurrent execution of multiple operations on the
database results into a consistent database state?
1. Logs
2. Buffer manager
3. File manager
4. Transaction processing system

62) Consider following two statements:

Statement I: Relational database schema represents the logical design of the database.
Statement II: Current snapshot of a relation only provides the degree of the relation.
In the context to the above statements, choose the correct option from the options given below:
1. Statement I is TRUE but Statement II is FALSE
2. Statement I is FALSE but Statement II is TRUE
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are FALSE
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are TRUE

63) Given a fixed-length record file that is ordered on the key field. The file needs B disk blocks to store
R number of records. Find the average access tim
𝐵
1.
2
2. B+ R
3. B
4. log 2 , B

64) Given the following STUDENT-COURSE scheme: STUDENT (Rolino, Name, courseno) COURSE
(courseno, coursename, capacity), where Rollno is the pri each course, along with its coursename.
A. SELECT coursename, count(*) 'total' from STUDENT natural join COURSE group by coursename;
B. SELECT C.coursename, count(*) 'total' from STUDENTS, COURSE C where S.courseno-C.courseno
group by coursename;
C. SELECT coursename, count(*) 'total' from COURSE C where courseno in (SELECT courseno from
STUDENT);
1. A and B only
2. Conly
3. A only
4. B only

65) Given the following STUDENT-COURSE scheme: STUDENT (Rollno, Name, Courseno) COURSE
(Courseno, Coursename, Capacity), where Rolino is the prrespectively. Following relational algebra
query is executed: R-STUDENT X COURSE
Match List I with List II in context to the above problem statement.
List I List II
A. Degree of table R I. 15
B. Cardinality of table R II. NIL
C. Foreign key of relation STUDENT III. 6
D. Foreign key of relation COURSE IV. Coursend
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
3. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

66) Suppose a B+ tree is used for indexing a database file. Consider the following information: size of
the search key field= 10 bytes, block size = 1024 bytes, size of the record pointer= 9 bytes, size of the
block pointer = 8 bytes.
Let K be the order of internal node and L be the order of leaf node of B* tree, then (K, L) =_
1. (57, 53)
2. (50, 52)
3. (60, 64)
4. (34, 31)

67) Given a relation scheme R(x,y,z,w) with functional dependencies set F={x-y, z-w). All attributes
take single and atomic values only.
A. Relation R is in First Normal FORM
B. Relation R is in Second Normal FORM
C. Primary key of R is xz
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C only
2. B and C only
3. A and C only
4. B only

68) A company is consuming parts in the manufacturing of other products. Each of the part is either
manufactured within the company or purchased from supplier, then supplier name is maintained.
Which of the following constraints need to be considered when modelling class/subclass concepts in
ERD for the
1. Total specialization and overlapping constraints
2. Disjoint constraint only
3. Partial participation [
4. Partial participation and disjoint constraints

69) A transaction may be in one of the following states during its execution life cycle in concurrent
execution environment.
A. FAILED
B. TERMINATED
C. PARTIALLY COMMITTED
D. COMMITTED
E. ACTIVE
Given a transaction in active state during its execution, find its next transitioned state from the options
given below:
1. A only
2. Either A or C only
3. C only
4. D only

70) Which of the following is used to create a database schema?

1. DML
2. DDL
3. HTML
4. XML

71) Given memory access time as p nanoseconds and additional q nanoseconds for handling the page
fault. What is the effective memory access time if a page fault occurs once for every 100 instructions?
𝑞
1. P+
100
𝑝+𝑞
2.
100
3. p+q
𝑝
4. +𝑞
100

72) In a file allocation system, the following allocation schemes are used:
A. Contiguous
B. Indexed
C. Linked allocation
Which of the allocation scheme(s) given above will not suffer from external fragmentation? Choose
the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A only
2. B and C only
3. A and B only
4. C only

73) Given below are three statements related to interrupt handling mechanism
A. Interrupt handler routine is not stored at a fixed address in the memory.
B. CPU hardware has a dedicated wire called the interrupt request line used for handling interrupts
C. Interrupt vector contains the memory addresses for specialized interrupt handlers.
In the context of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A is TRUE only
2. Both B and C are TRUE only
3. Both A and B are TRUE only
4. Both A, C are TRUE only

74) Match List I with List II

List I List II
System calls Description
A. fork() I. Sends a signal from one process to another process
B. exec() II. Indicates termination of the current process
C. kill() III. Loads the specified program in the memory
 D. exit() IV. Creates a child process
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

75) Consider the following 3 processes with the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds:
Process Arrival Time Burst Time
P1 0 8
P2 1 4
P3 2 9
What is the average waiting time for these processes if they are scheduled using preemptive shortest
job first scheduling algorithm?
1. 5.5
2. 2.66
3. 4.66
4. 6

PAPER II

1) Read the following and answer the questions:

Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB.
Frame size and page size is same
The number of bits reserved for the frame offset is
1. 12
2. 14
3. 32
4. 8

2) Read the following and answer the questions:

Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB.
Frame size and page size is same
Find number of pages required for the given virtual address space
1. 20
2. 220
3. 2
4. 22

3) Read the following and answer the questions:

Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB.
Frame size and page size is same
What is the minimum number of bits needed for the physical address?
1. 28
2. 34
3. 24
4. 12

4) Read the following and answer the questions:

Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB.
Frame size and page size is same
What is the size of page table for handling the given virtual address space, given that each page table
entry is of size 2 bytes?
1. 2MB
2. 2KB
3. 32MB
4. 12KB

5) Read the following and answer the questions:

Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB.
Frame size and page size is same
If a process of size 34KB is to be executed on this machine, then what will be the size of internal
fragmentation for this process?
1. 4KB
2. Zero
3. 1KB
4. 2KB

1) Match List I with List II

List I List II
A. Odd Function I. NAND gate
B. Universal Gate II. XOR gate
C. 2421 code III. Amplification
D. Buffer IV. Self-Complementing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-1, B-III, C-II, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-I

2) The Octal equivalent of hexadecimal (D. C)16 is:

1. (15.6)8
2. (61.6)8
3. (15.3)8
4. (61.3)8

3) A digital computer has a common bus system for 8 registers 16 bits each. How many multiplexers
are required to implement common
1. 16, 8x1
2. 8, 16x1
3. 8, 8x1
4. 16, 16x1

4) Which of the following is not an example of pseudo-instruction?

1. ORG
2. DEC
3. END
4. HLT

5) The reverse Polish notation of the following infix expression [A*[B+C*(D+E)}] / {F*(G+H)} is_
1. ABCDE+*+*FGH+*/
2. ABCDE*++*FGH+*/
3. ABCDE+*+*FGH +*/
4. ABCDE+**+FGH+*/

6) Arrange the following in the increasing order of complexity.

A. I/O Module
B. I/O processor
C. I/O Channel
D. DMA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. D, C, B, A
2. C, D, A, B
3. A, B, C, D
4. A, D, C, B

7) The characteristics of the combinational circuits are:

A. Output at any time is function of inputs at that time
B. Contains memory elements
C. Do not have feedback paths
D. Clock is used to trigger the circuits to obtain outputs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A and C only
4. B and D only

8) The cache coherence problem can be solved

A. by having multiport memory
B. allow only nonshared data to be stored in cache
C. using a snoopy cache controller
D. uisng memory interleaving
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and C only
2. B and C only
3. D and C only
4. B and D only

9) Given below are two statements

Statement I: CISC computers have a large of number of addressing modes.
Statement II: In RISC machines memory access is limited to load and store instructions.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

10) Which of the following statement is true?

A. Control memory is part of the hardwired control unit.
B. Program control instructions are used to alter the sequential flow of the program.
C. The register indirect addressing mode for accessing memory operand is similar to displacement
addressing mode.
D. CPU utilization is not affected by the introduction of Interrupts.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

11) Match List I with List II

List I List II
A. Data Link Layer I. True end‐to‐end layer
B. Network Layer II. Token Management
C. Transport Layer III. Produce billing information
D. Session Layer IV. Piggybacking
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ II
2. A ‐ IV, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ III
3. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV
4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ II

12) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Telnet, Ftp, Http are application layer protocol
Statement II: The Iridium project was planned to launch 66 low orbit satellites.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

13) Which of the following statement is False?

1. Packet switching leads to better utilization of bandwidth resources than circuit switching
2. Packet switching results in less variation in the delay than circuit switching.
3. Packet switching sender and receiver can use any bit rate, format or framing method unlike circuit
switching.
4. Packet switching can lead to reordering unlike circuit switching

14) In Ethernet when Manchester coding is used, the bit rate is_________
1. Half the baud rate
2. twice the baud rate
3. Thrice the baud rate
4. Same as the baud rate

15) The address of class B host is to be split into subnets with 6‐bit subnet number. What is the
maximum number of the subnets and the maximum number of hosts in each subnet?
1. 62 subnets and 262142 hosts
2. 64 subnets and 1024 hosts
3. 64 subnets and hosts 262142
4. 62 subnets and 1022 hosts

16) In electronic mail, which of the following protocols allows the transfer of multimedia?
1. IMAP
2. SMTP
3. POP3
4. MIME

17) A message is encrypted using public key cryptography to send a message from sender to receiver.
Which one of the following statements is True?
1. Sender encrypts using receiver’s public key
2. Sender encrypts using his own public key
3. Receiver decrypts using sender’s public key
4. Receiver decrypts using his own public key

18) Which of the following statements are true?

A. Frequency division multiplexing technique can be handled by digital circuits.
B. Time division multiplexing technique can be handled by analog circuits
C. Wavelength division multiplexing technique is used with optical fiber for combining two signals.
D. Frequency division multiplexing technique can be applied when the bandwidth of a link is greater
than the bandwidth of the signals to be transmitted.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B and D only
2. C and D only
3. A and D only
4. B and D only

19) Which of the following statements are true?

A. X.25 is connection‐oriented network
B. X.25 doesn’t support switched virtual circuits.
C. Frame relay service provides acknowledgements.
D. Frame relay service provides detection of transmission errors.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and D only
2. B and D only
3. C and D only
4. B and C only

20) Let G(x) be the generator polynomial used for CRC checking. The condition that should be satisfied
by the G(x) to catch all errors consisting of an odd number of inverted bits is
1. (x+1) is factor of G(x)
2. (x‐1) is factor of G(x)
3. (𝑥 2 + 1) is factor of G(x)
4. (1‐ 𝑥 2 ) is factor of G(x)

1) Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow
The following table has semester fees for four different courses in 5 different years
Years BCA MCA MTech MPhil
2016 25000 52000 60200 30000
2017 26500 53500 61400 32000
2018 27200 54200 62500 32000
2019 27600 55700 62900 33400
2020 28000 56800 63700 33900
What is the difference between the average semester fees of BCA and average semester fees of MCA
during 2016‐2020?
1. 27200/27200
2. 27365/27365
3. 27580/27580
4. 27400/27400

2) Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow
The following table has semester fees for four different courses in 5 different years
Years BCA MCA MTech MPhil
2016 25000 52000 60200 30000
2017 26500 53500 61400 32000
2018 27200 54200 62500 32000
2019 27600 55700 62900 33400
2020 28000 56800 63700 33900
Which course has highest percentage fee increase from 2019 to 2020?
1. BCA
2. MCA
3. MTech
4. MPhil

3) Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow
The following table has semester fees for four different courses in 5 different years
Years BCA MCA MTech MPhil
2016 25000 52000 60200 30000
2017 26500 53500 61400 32000
2018 27200 54200 62500 32000
2019 27600 55700 62900 33400
2020 28000 56800 63700 33900
Which course has the lowest percentage fee increase from 2017‐2018?
1. BCA
2. MCA
3. MTech
4. MPhil

4) Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow
The following table has semester fees for four different courses in 5 different years
Years BCA MCA MTech MPhil
2016 25000 52000 60200 30000
2017 26500 53500 61400 32000
2018 27200 54200 62500 32000
2019 27600 55700 62900 33400
2020 28000 56800 63700 33900
Find out the difference between total semester fees (for all courses) of 2018 and 2019.
1. 3250/3250
2. 3270/3270
3. 3150/3150
4. 3100/3100

5) Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow
The following table has semester fees for four different courses in 5 different years
Years BCA MCA MTech MPhil
2016 25000 52000 60200 30000
2017 26500 53500 61400 32000
2018 27200 54200 62500 32000
2019 27600 55700 62900 33400
2020 28000 56800 63700 33900
Find out the average of difference of fees of MCA and MTech for 2016‐2020.
1. 7700/7700
2. 7600/7600
3. 7650/7650
4. 7750/7750
1) The web portal of Swayam Prabha is maintained by
1. Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur
2. Doordarshan
3. Google India office
4. INFLIBNET centre

2) The National Repository of Open Educational Resources is managed by

1. Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
2. Indira Gandhi National Open University
3. Central Institute of Educational Technology, NCERT
4. University Grants Commission

3) Given below are two statements

Statement I: The ability to form and use symbols (words, gestures, signs, images, and so on) are
accomplished in the preoperational period.
Statement II: According to Piaget, preoperational children do not have a tendency to be egocentric.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

4) SWAYAM platform was developed by

A. MHRD (now Ministry of Education), Government of India
B. Google
C. Microsoft
D. IIT, Delhi
E. Adobe Inc.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and D only
4. D and E only

5) Match List I with List II

List I List II
MOOC Platform Developer
A. Coursera I. Anant Agarwal
B. Udacity II. Salman Khan
C. Edx III. Andrew Ng, Daphne Koller
D. Khan Academy IV Sebastian Thrun
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II
3. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III
4. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I

6) If a researcher has to test a hypothesis whether the difference between the means of two groups
are significant, s/he will use:
1. Chi‐square test
2. Correlation coefficient
3. Sign‐test
4. Student's t‐test

7) Which of the following are the stages of meta-analysis?

A. Understand the literature
B. Conduct new studies to fill the gap
C. Develop inclusion and exclusion criteria of the study
D. Locating primary studies
E. Identify secondary data
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and D only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, C and D only
4. B, D and E only

8) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Parametric statistics are more powerful than non‐parametric statistics
Statement II: Parametric statistics are assumption free statistics
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

9) Which among the following methods is commonly used in anthropological research?

1. Survey method
2. Case study method
3. Life history method
4. Ethnographic method

10) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Exploratory studies mainly aim at developing hypotheses or questions for further
research.
Statement II: The goal of formal study is to test the hypotheses or answer the questions posed.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
11) In communication, entropy refers to
1. Predictable message
2. Unpredictable message
3. Oratory
4. Defensive speech

12) Keeping quiet because of fear of punishment in communication is an _________ barrier.

1. Institutional
2. Interactional
3. Incentive
4. Individual

13) A general code of conduct circulated among the employees of an institution is an example of:
1. Downward communication
2. Lateral communication
3. Horizontal communication
4. Upward communication

14) What is a blog?

1. Internet
2. Search engine
3. Personal website in the form of a journal
4. Online journal

15) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R
Assertion A: Teachers should accept students as they are and with whatever cognitive level they have.
Reason R: Moralizing, being judgemental, exposing ignorance are barriers to successful
communication.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

16) Which one of the following fractions is the largest?

1. 5/8/5/8
2. 11/16/11/16
3. 31/40/31/40
4. 67/80/67/80

17) Find the next two terms in the series.

A, D, H, M, ___, ___
A, D, H, M, ___, ___
1. Q, X/Q, X
2. R, Y/R, Y
3. S, Z/S, Z
4. T, A/T, A

18) The ages of Swati and Manisha are in the ratio of 5:6 and the sum of their ages is 55 years. What
will be the ratio of their ages after 5 years?
1. 6:7/6:7
2. 7:6/7:6
3. 6:5/6:5
4. 5:6/5:6

19) Given below are two statements

Statement I: A vehicle's speed of 30.6 km/hr is the same as 5.8 m/s.
Statement II: The speed of a bus is 72 km/hr. The distance covered by the bus in 10 seconds is 100
meter.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. 70/70
2. 110/110
3. 77/77
4. 76/76

21) Which of the following statements correctly apply to deductive arguments?

A. Deductive arguments are either valid or invalid
B. There must be a necessary relation between the premises and the conclusion
C. Adding new premises improves the validity
D. False premises may lead to a true conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. A, C and D only
4. B, C and D only

22) Identify the fallacy committed in the argument:

Since no tragic actors are idiots and some comedians are not idiots, so some comedians are not tragic
actors.
1. Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Major Term
2. Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Minor Term
3. Existential Fallacy
4. Fallacy of Exclusive Premises

23) "No one has been able to prove the existance of extrasensory perception. We must therefore
conclude that extrasensory perception is a myth". Which of the following fallacies is committed in this
argument?
1. Appeal to ignorance
2. Straw man
3. Appeal to unqualified authority
4. Red herring

24) Which one of the following statements is true with reference to Sāmānyatodṛsṭā inference?
1. The middle term is related to the major term as a cause
2. The middle term is related to the major term as an effect
3. The middle term is related to the major term neither as a cause nor as an effect
4. The middle term is related to the major term both as a cause and an effect

25) Given below are two statements

Statement I: According to Nyāya, universals are eternal entities which are distinct from, but inhere in
many individuals
Statement II: The universal is the basis of the notion of sameness that we have with regard to all the
individuals of a certain class
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

26) Which one of the following is a type of malware embedded in a program on a computer that will
set off a malicious function when certain conditions are met?
1. Worm
2. Trojan
3. Spyware
4. Logic bomb

27) Which memory is used as part of the processor?

1. RAM
2. ROM
3. Registers
4. Hard disk

28) Given below are two statements

Statement I: The MAC address identifies which device is connected at a given IP address
Statement II: MAC addresses are unique to each device
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

26) Which one of the following is a type of malware embedded in a program on a computer that will
set off a malicious function when certain conditions are met?
1. Worm
2. Trojan
3. Spyware
4. Logic bomb

27) Which memory is used as part of the processor?

1. RAM
2. ROM
3. Registers
4. Hard disk

28) Given below are two statements

Statement I: The MAC address identifies which device is connected at a given IP address
Statement II: MAC addresses are unique to each device
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
26) Which one of the following is a type of malware embedded in a program on a computer that will
set off a malicious function when certain conditions are met?
1. Worm
2. Trojan
3. Spyware
4. Logic bomb

27) Which memory is used as part of the processor?

1. RAM
2. ROM
3. Registers
4. Hard disk

28) Given below are two statements

Statement I: The MAC address identifies which device is connected at a given IP address
Statement II: MAC addresses are unique to each device
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II
2. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
3. A ‐ IV, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ III
4. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

31) Which one of the following Millenium Development Goals is about ensuring Environmental
Sustainability?
1. Goal‐1
2. Goal‐3
3. Goal‐5
4. Goal‐7

32) The air pollutant NOx is a combination of

1. Nitrous oxide and Nitrogen dioxide
2. Nitrous oxide and Nitric oxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide and Nitric oxide
4. Nitrogen pentoxide and Nitrogen dioxide

33) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R
Assertion A: Schistosomiasis is a polluted water borne disease
Reason R: Schistosomiasis is mainly caused due to the presence of sulphate in water
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

34) Article 48A of the Indian Constitution directs the states to ensure protection and improvement of
1. Education
2. Environment
3. Businesses
4. Mineral resources

35) Which of the following states has maximum wind power potential in India as per MVRE's latest
report?
1. Rajasthan
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Gujarat

36) NSQF will be aligned with International Standard Classification of Occupations maintained by
1. ILO
2. UNESCO
3. NQFVE
4. Ministry of Skill Development

37) SARTHAQ is
1. A training programme for teachers launched by the Government of India
2. Implementation plan for NEP‐2020
3. A Government of India initiative to provide psychological support for students and teachers for
mental health and emotional well being
4. An organization for supporting the differently abled children
38) Given below are two statements
Statement I: The National Knowledge Commission recommended opening 500 universities to enable
India to attain a Gross Enrolment Ratio of at least 20 % by 2015
Statement II: The need to establish an Independent Regulatory Authority for Higher Education (IRAHE)
was recommended by the National Knowledge Commission
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

39) Which of the following statement(s) do NOT hold true with respect to the Vocational Education as
per NPE‐2020?
A. B. Voc degrees introduced in 2013 will be discontinued
B. Lok Vidya courses will replace existing vocational courses
C. Focus areas for vocational education will be chosen on skills gap analysis without mapping local
opportunities
D. National Committee for integration of Vocational Education will be constituted
E. Vocational education will be integrated into all schools and higher education institutions in a phased
manner over the next decade
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, C and D only

40) Match List I with List II

List I List II
A. Taxila I. Tantrik teachings
B. Ujjain II. Dvaita school of thought
C. Vikramshila III. Medicine
D. Manyakheta IV Astronomy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ III, D ‐ II
2. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I
3. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II
4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

1) Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows
Assessment is central to almost all forms of education around the world, and in recent years, a wider
variety of assessment has tended to be used. One such form of this change is the use of peer and self‐
assessment. Self‐assessment can be defined as "the ability to critically assess one's own work" (Brew,
1999) and peer assessment as "making judgments about, or commenting upon, each other's work".
As with all assessment methods, both have their own strengths and weaknesses. It can be argued that
peer and self‐assessment with careful initiation and moderation are effective methods of assessment.
However, this brief note will argue that in the high stakes environments of most educational settings,
these methods are inappropriate, as the making is unreliable. Peer and self‐assessment have become
increasingly common as methods of assessment. Particularly in further and higher education. They are
used as methods to reduce the marking loads of teachers and it is claimed, to enhance group work
and the critical thinking skills of students. It is also claimed that if marking criteria are discussed and
agreed at the start, students' marking does not differ significantly from teachers. In studies where the
assessment of different teachers is compared, and also in studies where teachers and peers and or
self‐assessments are compared, it has generally been found that, provided criteria are discussed and
agreed in advance, marks tend to be similar. Thus, it could be argued that with the right initial training,
there is no difference between work being marked by a teacher or a student.
1. Peer assessment
2. Assessment and Education
3. Assessment in general
4. Peer and Self‐assessment

2) Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow
Years BCA MCA MTech MPhil
2016 25000 52000 60200 30000
2017 26500 53500 61400 32000
2018 27200 54200 62500 32000
2019 27600 55700 62900 33400
2020 28000 56800 63700 33900

The following table has semester fees for four different courses in 5 different years
1. Ability to criticise other's work
2. Enhancement of group work and critical thinkng of students
3. Promotes uniform assessment
4. These methods do not require marking

3) Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow
Years BCA MCA MTech MPhil
2016 25000 52000 60200 30000
2017 26500 53500 61400 32000
2018 27200 54200 62500 32000
2019 27600 55700 62900 33400
2020 28000 56800 63700 33900

The following table has semester fees for four different courses in 5 different years
What argument the author desires to make?
1. Self‐assessment and peer‐assessment are innovative assessment practices
2. Assessment is central to education
3. Peer and self‐assessments are inappropriate in high‐stake examinations
4. Peer assessment is common in higher education
4) Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows
Assessment is central to almost all forms of education around the world, and in recent years, a wider
variety of assessment has tended to be used. One such form of this change is the use of peer and self‐
assessment. Self‐assessment can be defined as "the ability to critically assess one's own work" (Brew,
1999) and peer assessment as "making judgments about, or commenting upon, each other's work".
As with all assessment methods, both have their own strengths and weaknesses. It can be argued that
peer and self‐assessment with careful initiation and moderation are effective methods of assessment.
However, this brief note will argue that in the high stakes environments of most educational settings,
these methods are inappropriate, as the making is unreliable. Peer and self‐assessment have become
increasingly common as methods of assessment. particularly in further and higher education. They
are used as methods to reduce the marking loads of teachers and it is claimed, to enhance group work
and the critical thinking skills of students. It is also claimed that if marking criteria are discussed and
agreed at the start, students' marking does not differ significantly from teachers. In studies where the
assessment of different teachers is compared, and also in studies where teacher's and peer's and or
self‐assessments are compared, it has generally been found that, provided criteria are discussed and
agreed in advance, marks tend to be similar. Thus, it could be argued that with the right initial training,
there is no difference between work being marked by a teacher or a student.
1. Assessment is pivotal to education in all forms
2. Assessment is education in all forms
3. Assessment education is key to education in all forms
4. Assessment is peripheral to education in all forms

5) Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows
Assessment is central to almost all forms of education around the world, and in recent years, a wider
variety of assessment has tended to be used. One such form of this change is the use of peer and self‐
assessment. Self‐assessment can be defined as "the ability to critically assess one's own work" (Brew,
1999) and peer assessment as "making judgments about, or commenting upon, each other's work".
As with all assessment methods, both have their own strengths and weaknesses. It can be argued that
peer and self‐assessment with careful initiation and moderation are effective methods of assessment.
However, this brief note will argue that in the high stakes environments of most educational settings,
these methods are inappropriate, as the making is unreliable. Peer and self‐assessment have become
increasingly common as methods of assessment. particularly in further and higher education. They
are used as methods to reduce the marking loads of teachers and it is claimed, to enhance group work
and the critical thinking skills of students. It is also claimed that if marking criteria are discussed and
agreed at the start, students' marking does not differ significantly from teachers. In studies where the
assessment of different teachers is compared, and also in studies where teacher's and peer's and or
self‐assessments are compared, it has generally been found that, provided criteria are discussed and
agreed in advance, marks tend to be similar. Thus, it could be argued that with the right initial training,
there is no difference between work being marked by a teacher or a student. "Students' marking does
not differ significantly from teachers", means:
1. Marks that differ radically from teachers
2. Marks do not differ peripherally
3. Marks that are almost similar
4. Marks may or may not differ