JEE Advanced – 2025 (Paper - 02)

MATHEMATICS ANALYSIS – JEE (ADVANCED) 2025 PAPER-2

Topics Class Easy Medium Difficult Total Percentage

Calculus 11, 12 2 3 1 6 37.50%
Algebra 11, 12 0 1 2 3 18.75%
Co-ordinate Geometry 11 0 2 1 3 18.75%
Trigonometry 11, 12 1 0 1 2 12.50%
Vectors & 3D 12 0 1 0 1 6.25%
Probablity & Statisctics 11, 12 0 1 0 1 6.25%
Total 3 8 5 16 100%

1
 MATHEMATICS

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

If none of the options is chosen (i.e.

Zero Marks : 0
the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

1. Let 𝑥0 be the real number such that 𝑒 𝑥0 + 𝑥0 = 0. For a given real number 𝛼,
define
3𝑥𝑒 𝑥 + 3𝑥 − 𝛼𝑒 𝑥 − 𝛼𝑥
𝑔(𝑥) =
3(𝑒 𝑥 + 1)
for all real numbers 𝑥.
Then which one of the following statements is TRUE?
𝑔(𝑥)+𝑒 𝑥0 𝑔(𝑥)+𝑒 𝑥0
(A) For 𝛼 = 2, lim | |=0 (B) For 𝛼 = 2, lim | |=1
𝑥→𝑥0 𝑥−𝑥0 𝑥→𝑥0 𝑥−𝑥0

𝑔(𝑥)+𝑒 𝑥0 𝑔(𝑥)+𝑒 𝑥0 2
(C) For 𝛼 = 3, lim | |=0 (D) For 𝛼 = 3, lim | |=
𝑥→𝑥0 𝑥−𝑥0 𝑥→𝑥0 𝑥−𝑥0 3

Answer (C)
2. Let ℝ denote the set of all real numbers. Then the area of the region
1
{(𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ ℝ × ℝ: 𝑥 > 0, 𝑦 > , 5𝑥 − 4𝑦 − 1 > 0,4𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 17 < 0} is
𝑥

17 33 57 17
(A) − log 𝑒 4 (B) − log 𝑒 4 (C) − log 𝑒 4 (D) − log 𝑒 4
16 8 8 8

Answer (B)

2
3. The total number of real solutions of the equation
1 6tan⁡ 𝜃
𝜃 = tan−1 ⁡(2tan⁡ 𝜃) − sin−1 ⁡ ( ) is
2 9+tan2 ⁡ 𝜃
(Here, the inverse trigonometric functions sin ⁡ 𝑥 and tan−1 ⁡ 𝑥 assume values in
−1
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
[− , ] and (− , ), respectively).
2 2 2 2

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5

Answer (C)
4. Let 𝑆 denote the locus of the point of intersection of the pair of lines
4𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 12𝛼,
4𝛼𝑥 + 3𝛼𝑦 = 12,
where 𝛼 varies over the set of non-zero real numbers. Let 𝑇 be the tangent to 𝑆
passing through the points (𝑝, 0) and (0, 𝑞), 𝑞 > 0, and parallel to the line 4𝑥 −
3
𝑦 = 0.
√2

Then the value of 𝑝𝑞 is

(A) −6√2 (B) −3√2 (C) −9√2 (D) −12√2
Answer (A)
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 16)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN
ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct
answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:

Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;

If all the four options are correct but ONLY three

Partial Marks : +3
options are chosen;

If three or more options are correct but ONLY two

Partial Marks : +2
options are chosen, both of which are correct;

3
 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one
Partial Marks : +1
option is chosen and it is a correct option;

Zero Marks :0 If unanswered;

Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

1 0 2 0 𝑥 𝑦
5. Let 𝐼 = ( ) and 𝑃 = ( ). Let 𝑄 = ( ) for some non-zero real numbers
0 1 0 3 𝑧 4
𝑥, 𝑦, and 𝑧, for which there is a 2 × 2 matrix 𝑅 with all entries being non-zero
real numbers, such that 𝑄𝑅 = 𝑅𝑃.
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
(A) The determinant of 𝑄 − 2𝑙 is zero
(B) The determinant of 𝑄 − 6𝐼 is 12
(C) The determinant of 𝑄 − 31 is 15
(D) 𝑦𝑧 = 2
Answer (A, B)
6. Let 𝑆 denote the locus of the mid-points of those chords of the parabola 𝑦 2 = 𝑥,
such that the area of the region enclosed between the parabola and the chord is
4
. Let ℛ denote the region lying in the first quadrant, enclosed by the parabola
3
𝑦 2 = 𝑥, the curve 𝑆, and the lines 𝑥 = 1 and 𝑥 = 4.
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
(A) (4, √3) ∈ 𝑆
(B) (5, √2) ∈ 𝑆
14
(C) Area of 𝑅 is − 2√3
3
14
(D) Area of 𝑅 is − √3
3

Answer (A, C)
7. Let 𝑃(𝑥1 , 𝑦1 ) and 𝑄(𝑥2 , 𝑦2 ) be two distinct points on the ellipse
𝑥2 𝑦2
+ =1
9 4
such that 𝑦1 > 0, and 𝑦2 > 0. Let 𝐶 denote the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 9, and 𝑀 be the
point (3,0). Suppose the line 𝑥 = 𝑥1 intersects 𝐶 at 𝑅, and the line 𝑥 = 𝑥2

4
 intersects 𝐶 at 𝑆, such that the 𝑦-coordinates of 𝑅 and 𝑆 are positive. Let
𝜋 𝜋
∠𝑅𝑂𝑀 = and ∠𝑆𝑂𝑀 = , where 𝑂 denotes the origin (0,0). Let |𝑋𝑌| denote the
6 3
length of the line segment 𝑋𝑌.
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
(A) The equation of the line joining 𝑃 and 𝑄 is 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 3(1 + √3)
(B) The equation of the line joining 𝑃 and 𝑄 is 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3(1 + √3)
(C) If 𝑁2 = (𝑥2 , 0), then 3|𝑁2 𝑄| = 2|𝑁2 𝑆|
(D) If 𝑁1 = (𝑥1 , 0), then 9|𝑁1 𝑃| = 4|𝑁1 𝑅|
Answer (A, C)
8. Let ℝ denote the set of all real numbers. Let 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be defined by
6𝑥 + sin⁡ 𝑥
if 𝑥 ≠ 0,
𝑓(𝑥) = {2𝑥 + sin⁡ 𝑥
7
if 𝑥 = 0.
3
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
(A) The point 𝑥 = 0 is a point of local maxima of 𝑓
(B) The point 𝑥 = 0 is a point of local minima of 𝑓
(C) Number of points of local maxima of 𝑓 in the interval [𝜋, 6𝜋] is 3
(D) Number of points of local minima of 𝑓 in the interval [2𝜋, 4𝜋] is 1
Answer (B, C, D)
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 32)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
enter the answer.
• If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off
the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the
designated place;

5
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
9. Let 𝑦(𝑥) be the solution of the differential equation
𝑑𝑦 1
𝑥2 + 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 , 𝑥 > ,
𝑑𝑥 𝑒
(𝑦(𝑒))2
satisfying 𝑦(1) = 0. Then the value of 2 is _______________.
𝑦(𝑒 2 )

Answer (0.75)
10. Let 𝑎0 , 𝑎1 , … , 𝑎23 be real numbers such that
2 23
(1 + 𝑥) = ∑23 𝑖=0 𝑎𝑖 𝑥
𝑖
5
For every real number 𝑥. Let 𝑎𝑟 be the largest among the numbers 𝑎𝑗 for 0 ≤ 𝑗 ≤
23.
Then the value of 𝑟 is __________________.
Answer (6.00)
11. A factory has a total of three manufacturing units, 𝑀1 , 𝑀2 , and 𝑀3 , which produce
bulbs independent of each other. The units 𝑀1 , 𝑀2 , and 𝑀3 produce bulbs in the
proportions of 2: 2: 1, respectively. It is known that 20% of the bulbs produced in
the factory are defective. It is also known that, of all the bulbs produced by
𝑀1 , 15% are defective. Suppose that, if a randomly chosen bulb produced in the
2
factory is found to be defective, the probability that it was produced by 𝑀2 is . If
5
a bulb is chosen randomly from the bulbs produced by 𝑀3 , then the probability
that it is defective is _____________.
Answer (0.30)
12. Consider the vectors
𝑥⃗ = 𝑖ˆ + 2𝑗ˆ + 3𝑘ˆ, 𝑦⃗ = 2𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ + 𝑘ˆ and 𝑧⃗ = 3𝑖ˆ + 𝑗ˆ + 2𝑘ˆ
For two distinct positive real numbers 𝛼 and 𝛽, define

𝑋⃗ = 𝛼𝑥⃗ + 𝛽𝑦⃗ − 𝑧⃗, 𝑌

⃗⃗ = 𝛼𝑦⃗ + 𝛽𝑧⃗ − 𝑥⃗, and 𝑍⃗ = 𝛼𝑧⃗ + 𝛽𝑥⃗ − 𝑦⃗

If the vectors 𝑋⃗, 𝑌

⃗⃗, and 𝑍⃗ lie in a plane, then the value of 𝛼 + 𝛽 − 3 is __________.

Answer (–2)
13. For a non-zero complex number 𝑧, let arg⁡(𝑧) denote the principal argument of 𝑧,
with −𝜋 < arg⁡(𝑧) ≤ 𝜋. Let 𝜔 be the cube root of unity for which 0 < arg⁡(𝜔) < 𝜋.
Let
2025

𝛼 = arg⁡ ( ∑ (−𝜔)𝑛 )
𝑛=1

6
 3𝛼
Then the value of is ______________.
𝜋

Answer (–2)
14. Let ℝ denote the set of all real numbers. Let 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ and 𝑔: ℝ → (0,4) be
functions defined by
4
𝑓(𝑥) = log 𝑒 ⁡(𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 4), and 𝑔(𝑥) = .
1+𝑒 −2𝑥

Define the composite function 𝑓 ∘ 𝑔−1 by (𝑓 ∘ 𝑔−1 )(𝑥) = 𝑓(𝑔−1 (𝑥)), where 𝑔−1 is
the inverse of the function 𝑔.
Then the value of the derivative of the composite function 𝑓 ∘ 𝑔−1 at 𝑥 = 2 is
⁡___________.
Answer (0.25)
15. Let
1 1 1
𝛼= + + ⋯+ .
sin⁡ 60∘ sin⁡ 61∘ sin⁡ 62∘ sin⁡ 63∘ sin⁡ 118∘ sin⁡ 119∘

cosec1∘ 2
Then the value of ( ) is⁡______________.
𝛼

Answer (3)
16. If
2
tan−1 ⁡ 𝑥
𝛼=∫ 𝑑𝑥⁡,
1 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 2
2

2𝛼 √7
then the value of √7tan⁡ ( ) is⁡______________.
𝜋
𝜋 𝜋
(Here, the inverse trigonometric function tan−1 ⁡ 𝑥 assumes values in (− , ).)
2 2

Answer (21)

7
 PHYSICS ANALYSIS – JEE (ADVANCED) 2025 PAPER-2

Topics Easy Medium Difficult Total Percentage

Electrostatics 2 2 0 4 25%
Modern Physics 0 0 1 1 6.25%
Mechanics 1 1 1 3 18.75%
Heat & Thermodynamics 2 1 0 3 18.75%
Optics 0 1 1 2 12.5%
Oscillations & Waves 1 1 0 2 12.5%
Units & Dimensions 1 0 0 1 6.25%
Total 7 6 3 16 100%

8
 PHYSICS

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks : 12)

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the

Zero Marks : 0
question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

1. A temperature difference can generate e.m.f. in some materials. Let 𝑆 be the e.m.f.
produced per unit temperature difference between the ends of a wire, 𝜎 the
electrical conductivity and 𝜅 the thermal conductivity of the material of the wire.
Taking 𝑀, 𝐿, 𝑇, 𝐼 and 𝐾 as dimensions of mass, length, time, current and
𝑆2𝜎
temperature, respectively, the dimensional formula of the quantity 𝑍 = is
𝜅

(A) [𝑀0 𝐿0 𝑇 0 𝐼 0 𝐾 0 ] (B) [𝑀0 𝐿0 𝑇 0 𝐼 0 𝐾 −1 ]

(C) [𝑀1 𝐿2 𝑇 −2 𝐼 −1 𝐾 −1 ] (D) [𝑀1 𝐿2 𝑇 −4 𝐼 −1 𝐾 −1 ]
Answer (B)
2. Two co-axial conducting cylinders of same length ℓ with radii √2𝑅 and 2𝑅 are
kept, as shown in Fig. 1. The charge on the inner cylinder is 𝑄 and the outer
cylinder is grounded. The annular region between the cylinders is filled with a
material of dielectric constant 𝜅 = 5. Consider an imaginary plane of the same
length ℓ at a distance 𝑅 from the common axis of the cylinders. This plane is
parallel to the axis of the cylinders. The cross-sectional view of this arrangement
is shown in Fig. 2. Ignoring edge effects, the flux of the electric field through the
plane is ( 𝜀0 is the permittivity of free space)

9
 𝑄 𝑄 𝑄 𝑄
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30𝜀0 15𝜀0 60𝜀0 120𝜀0

Answer (C)
3. As shown in the figures, a uniform rod 𝑂𝑂′ of length / is hinged at the point 𝑂
and held in place vertically between two walls using two massless springs of same
spring constant. The springs are connected at the midpoint and at the top-end (
𝑂′ ) of the rod, as shown in Fig. 1 and the rod is made to oscillate by a small
angular displacement. The frequency of oscillation of the rod is 𝑓1 . On the other
hand, if both the springs are connected at the midpoint of the rod, as shown in
Fig. 2 and the rod is made to oscillate by a small angular displacement, then the
frequency of oscillation is 𝑓2 . Ignoring gravity and assuming motion only in the
𝑓1
plane of the diagram, the value of is
𝑓2

5 2
(A) 2 (B) √2 (C) √ (D) √
2 5

Answer (C)

10
4. Consider a star of mass 𝑚2 kg revolving in a circular orbit around another star
of mass 𝑚1 kg with 𝑚1 ≫ 𝑚2 . The heavier star slowly acquires mass from the
lighter star at a constant rate of 𝛾kg/s. In this transfer process, there is no
other loss of mass. If the separation between the centers of the stars is 𝑟, then
1 𝑑𝑟
its relative rate of change (in s−1 ) is given by:
𝑟 𝑑𝑡
3𝛾 2𝛾 2𝛾 3𝛾
(A) − (B) − (C) − (D) −
2𝑚2 𝑚2 𝑚1 2𝑚1

Answer (B)
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 16)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN
ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct
answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:

Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;

If all the four options are correct but ONLY three

Partial Marks : +3
options are chosen;

If three or more options are correct but ONLY two

Partial Marks : +2
options are chosen, both of which are correct;

If two or more options are correct but ONLY one

Partial Marks : +1
option is chosen and it is a correct option;

If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is

Zero Marks :0
unanswered);

Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

5. A positive point charge of 10−8 C is kept at a distance of 20 cm from the center of

a neutral conducting sphere of radius 10 cm. The sphere is then grounded and
the charge on the sphere is measured. The grounding is then removed and

11
 subsequently the point charge is moved by a distance of 10 cm further away
1
from the center of the sphere along the radial direction. Taking =
4𝜋𝜀0
9 × 109 Nm2 /C 2 (where 𝜀0 is the permittivity of free space), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(A) Before the grounding, the electrostatic potential of the sphere is 450 V.
(B) Charge flowing from the sphere to the ground because of grounding is
5 × 10−9 C.
(C) After the grounding is removed, the charge on the sphere is −5 × 10−9 C.
(D) The final electrostatic potential of the sphere is 300 V .
Answer (A, B, C)
6. Two identical concave mirrors each of focal length 𝑓 are facing each other as
shown in the schematic diagram. The focal length 𝑓 is much larger than the
size of the mirrors. A glass slab of thickness 𝑡 and refractive index 𝑛0 is kept
equidistant from the mirrors and perpendicular to their common principal axis.
A monochromatic point light source 𝑆 is embedded at the center of the slab on
the principal axis, as shown in the schematic diagram. For the image to be
formed on 𝑆 itself, which of the following distances between the two mirrors
is/are correct?

1 1
(A) 4𝑓 + (1 − )𝑡 (B) 2𝑓 + (1 − )𝑡
𝑛0 𝑛0

(C) 4𝑓 + (𝑛0 − 1)𝑡 (D) 2𝑓 + (𝑛0 − 1)𝑡

Answer (A, B)
7. Six infinitely large and thin non-conducting sheets are fixed in configurations I
and II. As shown in the figure, the sheets carry uniform surface charge
densities which are indicated in terms of 𝜎0. The separation between any two

12
 consecutive sheets is 1𝜇m. The various regions between the sheets are denoted
as 1,2,3,4 and 5 . If 𝜎0 = 9𝜇C/m2 , then which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(Take permittivity of free space 𝜀0 = 9 × 10−12 F/m)

(A) In region 4 of the configuration I, the magnitude of the electric field is zero.
𝜎0
(B) In region 3 of the configuration II, the magnitude of the electric field is .
𝜀0
(C) Potential difference between the first and the last sheets of the configuration
I is 5 V.
(D) Potential difference between the first and the last sheets of the configuration
II is zero.
Answer (A)
8. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with a hot reservoir kept at a
temperature of 1000 K is 0.4. It extracts 150 J of heat per cycle from the hot
reservoir. The work extracted from this engine is being fully used to run a heat
pump which has a coefficient of performance 10. The hot reservoir of the heat
pump is at a temperature of 300 K. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(A) Work extracted from the Carnot engine in one cycle is 60 J.
(B) Temperature of the cold reservoir of the Carnot engine is 600 K.
(C) Temperature of the cold reservoir of the heat pump is 270 K.
(D) Heat supplied to the hot reservoir of the heat pump in one cycle is 540 J.
Answer (A, B, C)
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks : 32)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.

13
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the
mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
enter the answer.
• If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off
the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the
designated place;
Zero Marks :0 In all other cases.
9. A conducting solid sphere of radius 𝑅 and mass 𝑀 carries a charge 𝑄. The sphere
is rotating about an axis passing through its center with a uniform angular speed
𝜔. The ratio of the magnitudes of the magnetic dipole moment to the angular
𝑄
momentum about the same axis is given as 𝛼 . The value of 𝛼 is _________. ⁡
2𝑀

Answer (1.67)
10. A hydrogen atom, initially at rest in its ground state, absorbs a photon of
frequency 𝑣1 and ejects the electron with a kinetic energy of 10 eV . The electron
then combines with a positron at rest to form a positronium atom in its ground
state and simultaneously emits a photon of frequency 𝑣2 . The center of mass of
the resulting positronium atom moves with a kinetic energy of 5 eV . It is given
that positron has the same mass as that of electron and the positronium atom
can be considered as a Bohr atom, in which the electron and the positron orbit
around their center of mass. Considering no other energy loss during the whole
process, the difference between the two photon energies (in eV) is _________. ⁡
Answer (11.80)
11. An ideal monatomic gas of 𝑛 moles is taken through a cycle 𝑊𝑋𝑌𝑍𝑊 consisting
of consecutive adiabatic and isobaric quasi-static processes, as shown in the
schematic 𝑉 − 𝑇 diagram. The volume of the gas at 𝑊, 𝑋 and 𝑌 points are, 64 cm3 ,
125 cm3 and 250 cm3 , respectively. If the absolute temperature of the gas 𝑇𝑊 at
the point 𝑊 is such that 𝑛𝑅𝑇𝑊 = 1 J(𝑅 is the universal gas constant), then the
amount of heat absorbed (in J) by the gas along the path 𝑋𝑌 is _________.

14
 Answer (1.6)
12. A geostationary satellite above the equator is orbiting around the earth at a fixed
distance 𝑟1 from the center of the earth. A second satellite is orbiting in the
equatorial plane in the opposite direction to the earth's rotation, at a distance 𝑟2
from the center of the earth, such that 𝑟1 = 1.21𝑟2 . The time period of the second
24
satellite as measured from the geostationary satellite is hours. The value of 𝑝
𝑝
is _________.⁡
Answer (2.33)
13. The left and right compartments of a thermally isolated container of length 𝐿
are separated by a thermally conducting, movable piston of area 𝐴. The left and
3
right compartments are filled with and 1 moles of an ideal gas, respectively. In
2
the left compartment the piston is attached by a spring with spring constant 𝑘
2𝐿
and natural length In thermodynamic equilibrium, the piston is at a distance
5
𝐿
from the left and right edges of the container as shown in the figure. Under
2
𝐾𝐿
the above conditions, if the pressure in the right compartment is 𝑃 = 𝛼,then
𝐴
the value of 𝛼 is _________.

Answer (0.20)
14. In a Young's double slit experiment, a combination of two glass wedges 𝐴 and
𝐵, having refractive indices 1.7 and 1.5, respectively, are placed in front of the
slits, as shown in the figure. The separation between the slits is 𝑑 = 2 mm and
the shortest distance between the slits and the screen is 𝐷 = 2 m. Thickness of
the combination of the wedges is 𝑡 = 12𝜇 m. The value of 𝑙 as shown in the

15
 figure is 1 mm . Neglect any refraction effect at the slanted interface of the
wedges. Due to the combination of the wedges, the central maximum shifts (in
mm ) with respect to O by __________.

Answer (1.2)
15. A projectile of mass 200 g is launched in a viscous medium at an angle 60∘ with
the horizontal, with an initial velocity of 270 m/s. It experiences a viscous drag
force 𝐹⃗ = −𝑐𝑣⃗ where the drag coefficient 𝑐 = 0.1 kg/s and 𝑣⃗ is the instantaneous
velocity of the projectile. The projectile hits a vertical wall after 2 s. Taking 𝑒 =
2.7, the horizontal distance of the wall from the point of projection (in m) is
________.
Answer (170)
16. An audio transmitter (𝑇) and a receiver (𝑅) are hung vertically from two identical
massless strings of length 8𝑚 with their pivots well separated along the 𝑋 axis.
They are pulled from the equilibrium position in opposite directions along the 𝑋
axis by a small angular amplitude 𝜃0 = cos −1 ⁡(0.9) and released simultaneously.
If the natural frequency of the transmitter is 660 Hz and the speed of sound in
air is 330 m/s, the maximum variation in the frequency (in Hz) as measured by
the receiver (Take the acceleration due to gravity 𝑔 = 10 m/s2 ) is _________.⁡

Answer (32)

16
 CHEMISTRY ANALYSIS – JEE (ADVANCED) 2025 PAPER-2

Topics Class Easy Medium Difficult Total Percentage

Physical Chemistry Class 11 0 1 1 2 12.5%
Inorganic Chemistry Class 11 0 0 0 0 0%
Organic Chemistry Class 11 0 1 0 1 6.25%
Physical Chemistry Class12 0 3 2 5 31.25%
Inorganic Chemistry Class12 2 0 1 3 18.75%
Organic Chemistry Class12 1 1 3 5 31.25%

Total 3 6 7 16 100%

17
 CHEMISTRY

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

If none of the options is chosen (i.e.

Zero Marks : 0
the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

1． During sodium nitroprusside test of sulphide ion in an aqueous solution, one of

the ligands coordinated to the metal ion is converted to
(A) NOS − (B) SCN− (C) SNO− (D) NCS−
Answer (A)
2． The complete hydrolysis of ICl, ClF3 and BrF5 ，respectively gives
(A) IO− , ClO−
2 and BrO3
−
(B) IO3 ⁡− , ClO2 ⁡− and BrO3 ⁡–
(C) IO− , ClO− and BrO−
2 (D) IO3 ⁡− , ClO4 ⁡− and BrO2 ⁡−
Answer (A)

18
3． Monocyclic compounds 𝐏, 𝐐, 𝐑 and 𝐒 are the major products formed in the
reaction sequences given below．

The product having the highest number of unsaturated carbon atom(s) is

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
Answer (D)
4. The correct reaction/reaction sequence that would produce a dicarboxylic acid
as the major product is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
Answer (C)

19
 SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 16)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN
ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct
answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:

Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;

If all the four options are correct but ONLY three

Partial Marks : +3
options are chosen;

If three or more options are correct but ONLY two

Partial Marks : +2
options are chosen, both of which are correct;

If two or more options are correct but ONLY one

Partial Marks : +1
option is chosen and it is a correct option;

If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is

Zero Marks :0
unanswered);

Negative Marks : -2 In all other cases.

5. The correct statement(s) about intermolecular forces is(are)

(A) The potential energy between two point charges approaches zero more
rapidly than the potential energy between a point dipole and a point charge as
the distance between them approaches infinity.
(B) The average potential energy of two rotating polar molecules that are
separated by a distance 𝑟 has 1/𝑟 3 dependence.
(C) The dipole-induced dipole average interaction energy is independent of
temperature.

20
 (D) Nonpolar molecules attract one another even though neither has a
permanent dipole moment.
Answer (D)
6. The compound(s) with P-H bond(s) is(are)
(A) H3 PO4 (B) H3 PO3 (C) H4 P2 O7 (D) H3 PO2
Answer (B, D)
7. For the reaction sequence given below, the correct statement(s) is(are)

(A) Both 𝐗 and 𝐘 are oxygen containing compounds

(B) Y on heating with CHCl3 /KOH forms isocyanide
(C) 𝐙 reacts with Hinsberg's reagent
(D) Z is an aromatic primary amine
Answer (A, C)
8. For the reaction sequence given below, the correct statement(s) is(are)

(A) 𝐏 is optically active

(B) 𝐒 gives Bayer's test
(C) Q gives effervescence with aq. NaHCO3
(D) 𝐑 is an alkyne
Answer (B, C)
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks : 32)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.

21
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
enter the answer.
• If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off
the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking
scheme:

Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in

the designated place;

Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

9. The density (in gcm−3 ) of the metal which forms a cubic close packed (ccp) lattice
with an axial distance (edge length) equal to 400 pm is _______________.
Use: Atomic mass of metal = 105.6 amu and Avogadro's constant = 6 × 1023 mol−1
Answer (11)
10. The solubility of barium iodate in an aqueous solution prepared by mixing 200
mL of 0.010 M barium nitrate with 100 mL of 0.10 M sodium iodate is
𝑋 × 10−6 mol. dm−3 . The value of 𝑋 is _______________.
Use: Solubility product constant ( K sp ) of barium iodate = 1.58 × 10−9
Answer (3.95)
11. Adsorption of phenol from its aqueous solution on to fly ash obeys Freundlich
isotherm. At a given temperature, from 10mgg −1 and 16mgg −1 aqueous phenol
solutions, the concentrations of adsorbed phenol are measured to be 4mgg −1
and 10mgg −1 , respectively. At this temperature, the concentration (in mgg −1 ) of
adsorbed phenol from 20mgg −1 aqueous solution of phenol will be⁡_______________.
Use : log10 ⁡2 = 0.3
Answer (16.00)
12. Consider a reaction 𝐴 + 𝑅 → Product. The rate of this reaction is measured to be
𝑘[𝐴][𝑅]. At the start of the reaction, the concentration of 𝑅, [𝑅]0 , is 10-times the
concentration of 𝐴, [𝐴]0 . The reaction can be considered to be a pseudo first
order reaction with assumption that 𝑘[𝑅] = 𝑘 ′ is constant. Due to this
assumption, the relative error (in %) in the rate when this reaction is 40%
complete is⁡_______________.
[k and k ′ represent corresponding rate constants]

22
 Answer (04.17)
13. At 300 K, an ideal dilute solution of a macromolecule exerts osmotic pressure
that is expressed in terms of the height (h) of the solution (density = 1.00 g cm−3 )
where h is equal to 2.00 cm. If the concentration of the dilute solution of the
macromolecule is 2.00 gdm−3 , the molar mass of the macromolecule is calculated
to be 𝑿 × 104 g mol−1 . The value of 𝑿 is _______________.
Use: Universal gas constant (R) = 8.3JK −1 mol−1 and acceleration due to gravity
(g) = 10 ms −2
Answer (2.49)
14. An electrochemical cell is fueled by the combustion of butane at 1 bar and 298
𝑋
K . Its cell potential is × 103 volts, where 𝑭 is the Faraday constant. The value
𝐹
of 𝑿 is _______________.
Use: Standard Gibbs energies of formation at 298 K are:
o o o
Δf GCO 2
= −394 kJ mol−1 ;⁡Δf Gwater = −237 kJ mol−1 ; Δf Gbutane = −18 kJ mol−1
Answer (105.5)
15. The sum of the spin only magnetic moment values (in B.M.) of [Mn(Br)6 ]3− and
[Mn(CN)6 ]3− is ⁡____________.
Answer (7.74)
16. A linear octa saccharide (molar mass = 1024 g mol−1 ) on complete hydrolysis
produces three monosaccharides: ribose, 2-deoxyribose and glucose. The
amount of 2-deoxyribose formed is 58.26%(w/w) of the total amount of the
monosaccharides produced in the hydrolyzed products. The number of ribose
unit(s) present in one molecule of octa saccharide is ____________.
Use: Molar mass (in g mol⁡−1 ): ribose = 150, 2-deoxyribose = 134, glucose = 180;
Atomic mass (in amu): H = 1, O = 16
Answer (2)

*****

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