GRADE 11 PHYSICS INTERIOR 1 MARKS

UNIT-1 NATURE OF PHYSICAL WORLD AND MEASUREMENT

01. The unit of surface tension Nm-1

02. One atomus equal to 160 ms
03. One light year is 9.46 × 1012 km
04. One Astronomical unit is 1.496 × 107 m
05. One parsec is 30.84 × 1015 m
06. One Fermi is 10-15 m
07. One Angstrom is 10-10 m
08. One solar mass is 2 × 1030 tonne
09. 1/12 of the mass of carbon 12 atom is mass of hydrogen
10. The word physics is derived from the word fusis
11. The study of forces acting on bodies whether at rest or in motion is classical mechanics
12. Mass of observable universe 1055 kg
13. Mass of an electron 9.11 × 10-31 kg
14. The study of production and propagation of sound waves Acoustics
15. The study of discrete nature of phenomena at atomic & subatomic levels Quantum mechanics
16. The technique used to study the crystal structure of various rocks are diffraction
17. The astronomers used to observe distant points of the universe by Radio telescope
18. The comparison of any physical quantity with its standard unit is known as measurement
19. Fundamental quantities can also be known as base quantities.
20. Which one of the following is not a fundamental quantity?
(a) length (b) luminous intensity (c) temperature (d) water current
21. The system of unit not only based on length, mass, and time is SI
22. The coherent system of units SI
23. The triple point temperature of water is 100 K
24. Unit of distance Light year
25. The unit of moment of force Nm
26. 1 radian is 57.27°
27. One degree of arc is 60′
28. One degree of arc is equal to 1.457 × 10-2 rad
29. 1 minute of arc is equal to 2.91 × 10-4 rad

30. 1 second of arc is equal to

31. 1 second of arc is equal to 0.00027°
32. Unit of impulse NS
33. The ratio of energy and temperature is known as Boltzmann constant
34. he range of distance can be measured by using direct methods is 10-2 to 102 m
35. Which of the following is in increased order?
(a) exa, tera, hector (b) tera, exa, hector (c) giga, tera, exa (d) hecto, exa, giga
36. 10-18 is called as atto
37. A radio signal sent towards the distant planet, returns after “t” s. If “c” is the speed of radio

waves then the distance of the planet and from the earth is
38. Find odd one out ….
(a) Newton (b) metre (c) candela (d) Kelvin
39. The shift in the position of an object when viewed with two eyes, keeping one eye closed at a
time is known as parallax
40. Chandrasekar limit is ….. times the mass of the sun 1.4
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41. The smallest physical unit of time is shake
42. Size of atomic nucleus is 10-14 m
43. Time interval between two successive heart beat is in the order of 10° s
44. Half life time of a free neutron is in the order of 103 s
45. The uncertainty contained in any measurement is error
46. Zero error of an instrument is a Systematic error
47. Error in measurement of radius of sphere is 2%. Then error in measurement of surface area is 4%
48. Imperfections in experimental procedure gives Systematic error.
49. Random error can also be called as chance error
50. To get the best possible true value of the quantity has to be taken arithmetic mean
51. The error caused due to the shear carelessness of an observer is called as Gross error.
52. The uncertainty in a measurement is called as error
53. The difference between true value & measured value of a quantity is known as Absolute error
54. If a1, a2, a3 …. an are the measured value of a physical quantity “a” and am is the true value then
absolute error Δan=am−an
56. The ratio of the mean absolute error to the mean value is called as Relative error
57. Relative error can also be called as fractional error
58. A measured value to be close to targeted value, percentage error must be close to 0
59. The maximum possible error in the sum of two quantities is equal to ∆Z = ∆A + ∆B
60. The maximum possible error in the difference of two quantities is ∆Z = ∆A + ∆B

61. The maximum fractional error in the division of two quantities is

62. The fractional error in the nth power of a quantity is

63. A physical quantity is given as y = ab3/c2. If ∆a, ∆b, ∆c are absolute errors, the possible fractional

error in y is
64. Number of significant digits in 3256 is 4
65. Number of significant digits in 32005 is 5
66. Number of significant digits in 2030. is 4
67. Number of significant digits in 2030N 4
68. Number of significant digits in 0.0342 is 3
69. Number of significant digit in 20.00 is 4
70. Number of significant digit in 0.030400 is 5
71. The force acting on a body is measured as 4.25 N. Round it off with two significant figure 4.2
72. The quantities a, b, c are measured as 3.21, 4.253, 7.2346. The sum (a + b + c) with proper
significant digits is 14.69
73. The dimensions of gravitational constant G are M−1L3T−2
74. The ratio of one nanometer to one micron is 103
75. Which of the following pairs does not have same dimension?
(a) Moment of inertia & moment of force (b) Work & torque
(c) Impulse & momentum (d) Angular momentum & Plank’s constant
76. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions. Which of the following is physically meaningful?
(a) A + B (b) A – B (c) A /B (d) None
77. The dimensional formula for moment of inertia ML2T0
78. Which of the following is having same dimensional formula?
(a) Work and power (b) Radius of gyration and displacement
(c) Impulse and force (d) Frequencies and wavelength
79. Which of the following quantities is expressed as force per unit area?
(a) Pressure (b) Stress (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None

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80. In equation of motion the dimensional formula for K is [LT−2]
81. The dimensional formula for heat capacity [ML2T2K−1]
82. The product of Avogadro constant and elementary charge is known as Faraday constant.
83. The force F is given by F = at + bt2 where t is time. The dimensions of ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are
[MLT−2] and [MLT−0]
84. Dimensions of impulse are [MLT−1]
85. If speed of light (c), acceleration due to gravity (g) and pressure (P) are taken as fundamental
units, the possible relation to gravitational constant (G) is c0g2p−1
86. Equivalent of one joule is kg m2 s-2
87. Pick out the dimensionless quantity specific gravity
88. Odd one out (a) strain (b) refractive index (c) numbers (d) stress
89. A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 + 0.06 cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of its density is 4%
90. The dimensions of planck constant equals to that of angular momentum

91.

(a) unit of λ is same as that of x & A (b) unit of λ is same as that of x but not of A
(c) unit of c is same as that of 2π/λ (d) unit of (ct – x)is same as that 2π/λ
92. The number of significant figures in 0.06900 is 4
93. The numbers 3.665 and 3.635 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give 3.66 and 3.64
94. Which of the following measurements is most precise?
(a) 4.00 mm (b) 4.00 cm (c) 4.00 m (d) 4.00 km
95. The mean radius of a wire is 2 mm. Which of the following measurements is most accurate?
(a) 1.9 mm (b) 2.25 mm (c) 2.3 mm (d) 1.83 mm
96. If error in measurement of radius of sphere is 1%. What will be the error in measurement of
volume? 3%
97. Dimensions [M L-1 T-1] are related to Coefficient of viscosity
98. Heat produced by a current is obtained a relation H = I2RT. If the errors in measuring these
quantities current, resistance, time are 1%, 2%, 1% respectively then total error in calculating
the energy produced is 5%
99. Length cannot be measured by debye
100. The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length
of the sides of the plate by using the formula p = \([/late\frac{\mathrm{F}}{l^{2}}x]. If the
maximum errors in the measurement of force and length are 4% and 2% respectively, then the
maximum error in the measurement of pressure is 8%
101. Which of the following cannot be verified by using dimensional analysis?

(b) y = a sin wt
102. Percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 3% and 2% respectively. The error
in the calculation of kinetic energy is 7%
103. More number of readings will reduce random error
104. If the percentage error in the measurement of mass and momentum of a body are 3% and
2%respectively, then maximum possible error in kinetic energy is 7%
105. In a vernier caliper, n divisions of vernier scale coincides with (n – 1) divisions of main scale. The
least count of the instrument is (1/n) MSD
106. The period of a simple pendulum is recorded as 2.56s, 2.42s, 2.71s and 2.80s respectively.
The average absolute error is 0.11s

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107. In a system of units, if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units
then the dimensional formula of energy is [FAT2]
108. The random error in the arithmetic mean of 50 observations is ‘a’, then the random error in the
arithmetic mean of 200 observations a would be a/4
109. Which of the following is not dimensionless?
(a) Relative permittivity (b) Refractive index (c) Relative density (d) Relative velocity
110. If V-velocity, K – kinetic energy and T – time are chosen as the fundamental units, then what is
the dimensional formula for surface tension? [K V-2 T-2]

UNIT-2 KINEMATICS

01. The radius of the earth was measured by Eratosthenes

02. The branch of mechanics which deals with the motion of objects without taking force into account
is kinematics
03. If the coordinate axes (x, y, z) are drawn in anticlockwise direction then the co-ordinate system is
known as right handed coordinate system
04. The dimension of point mass is 0
05. If an object is moving in a straight line then the motion is known as linear motion
06. An athlete running on a straight track is an example for the whirling motion of a stone attached to
a string is a linear motion
07. The whirling motion of a stone attached to a string is a circular motion
08. Spinning of the earth about its own axis is known as rotational motion
09. If an object executes a to and fro motion about a fixed point, is an example for vibratory motion
10. Vibratory motion is also known as oscillatory motion
11. The motion of satellite around the earth is an example for circular motion
12. An object falling freely under gravity close to earth is one dimensional
13. Motion of a coin on a carrom board is an example of two dimensional motion
15. A bird flying in the sky is an example of three dimensional motion
16. Example for scalar is distance
17. Which of the following is not a scalar?
(a) Volume (b) angular momentum (c) Relative density (d) time
18. Vector is having both magnitude and direction
19. “norm” of the vector represents only magnitude
20. If two vectors are having equal magnitude and same direction is known as equal vectors
21. The angle between two collinear vectors is / are 0° (or) 180°
22. The angle between parallel vectors is 0°
23. The angle between anti parallel vectors is 180°
24. Unit vector is Aˆ/A
25. A unit vector is used to specify only direction
26. The angle between any two orthogonal unit vectors is 90°
27. If n^ is a unit vector along the direction of A→, the n^ is A→/A
28. The magnitude of a vector can not be negative
29. If R = P + Q, then which of the following is true?
(a) P > Q (b) Q >P (c) P = Q (d) R > P, Q
30. A force of 3 N and 4 N are acting perpendicular to an object, the resultant force is 5 N
31. Torque is a vector
32. The resultant of A→ + B→ acts along x – axis. If A = 2i^ – 3 j^ + 2k^ then B is 3j^ – 2k^
33. The angle between (A→ + B→) and (A→ – B→) can be between 0° and 180°
34. If a vector A→ = 3i^ + 2j^ then what is 4 A 12i^ + 8j^
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35. If P = mV then the direction of P along v
36. The scalar product A→. B→ is equal to AB cos θ
37. The scalar product A→.B→is equal to A→. B→
38. The scalar product of two vectors will be maximum when θ is equal to 0°
39. The scalar product of two vectors will be minimum. When θ is equal to 180°
40. The vectors A and B to be mutually orthogonal when A→.B→ = 0
41. The magnitude of the vector is √A2
42. i^ .j^ is 0
43. If A→ & B→ are two vectors, which are acting along x, y respectively, then A→ & B→ lies along z
44. The direction of A→ x B→ is given by both (a) and (b)
45. A→ x B→ is AB sin θ
46. A→ x B→ is equal to -B→ x A→
47. The vector product of any two vectors gives a vector
48. |A→ x B→| is equal to -|B→ x A→|
49. The vector product of two vectors will have maximum magnitude when θ is equal to 90°
50. The vector product of two non-zero vectors will be minimum when O is equal to –
(a) 0° (b) 180° (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
51. The product of a vector with itself is equal to 0
52. i^ x i^ is 0
53. i^ x j^ is k^
54. j^ x i^ is –k^
55. If two vectors A→ and B→ form adjacent sides of parallelogram, then the magnitude of |A→ x B→|
will give of parallelogram area
56. If P→ – Q→ then which of the following is incorrect. –
(a) P^ = Q^ (b) |P^| = |Q^| (c) PQ^ = QA^ (d) P^ Q^ = PQ
57. The momentum of a particle is P→ = cos θ i^ + sin θ j^ . The angle between momentum and the
force acting on a body is 90°
58. A and B are two vectors, if A and B are perpendicular to each other then A→ B→ = 0
59. The angle between two vectors -3i^ + 6k^ and 2i^ + 3j^ + k^ is 90°
60. The radius vector is 2i^ + j^ + k^ while linear momentum is 2i^ + 3j^ + k^ Then the angular
momentum is -2i^ + 4k^
61. Which of the following cannot be a resultant of two vectors of magnitude 3 and 6?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 7
62. Twelve forces each of magnitude 10 N acting on a body at an angle of 30° with other forces then
their resultant is zero
63. Two forces are in ratio of 3 : 4. The maximum & minimum of their resultants are in ratio is 7 : 1
64. If | P→ + Q→ | = |P→ | + |Q→|. The angle between the vectors P→ and Q→ is 0°

65. f |P→ + Q→ = |P→ | — |P→|, then the angle between the vectors P→ and Q→ 180°

66. If |P→ x Q→| = |P→ . Q→| then angle between P→ and Q→ then angle between P and Q will be 45°

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67. If | P→ + Q→ | = |P→ | |Q→|, then angle between P→ and Q→ will be 90°

68. If A and B are the sides of triangle, then area of triangle –

69. A particle moves in a circular path of radius 2 cm. If a particle completes 3 rounds, then the
distance and displacement of the particle are Radius = 2 cm
Circumference of the circle = 2nr = 4n cm
Distance covered in 3 rounds = 127r cm = 37.7 cm
Initial and final positions are same
∴ Displacement = 0

70. If r1 and r2 are position vectors, then the displacement vector is

71. The ratio of the displacement vector to the corresponding time interval is average velocity
72. The ratio of total path length travelled by the particle in a time interval average speed
73. The product of mass and velocity of a particle is momentum
74. The area under the force, displacement curve is work done
75. The area under the force, time graph is impulse
76. The unit of momentum is kg ms-2
77. The slope of the position – time graph will give force
78. The area under velocity-time graph gives either positive (or) negative
79. The magnitude of distance is always positive
80. If two objects A and B are moving along a straight line in the same direction with the velocities vA
and vB respectively, then the relative velocity is VA – VB
81. If two objects A and B are moving along a straight line in the opposite direction with the
velocities VA and VB respectively, then relative velocity is VA + VB
82. If two objects moving with a velocities of VA and VB at an angle of 0 between them, the relative

velocity is
83. A person moving horizontally with velocity Vm−→ The relative velocity of rain with respect to the

person is
84. A person moving horizontally with velocity Vm−→ . Rain falls vertically with velocity VR−→ To save

himself from the rain, he should hold an umbrella with vertical at an angle of
85. A car starting from rest, accelerates at a constant rate x for sometime after which it decelerates at
a constant rate v to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the maximum velocity attained

by the car is given by

86. A car covers half of its journey with a speed of 10 ms-1 and the other half by 20 ms-1. The average
speed of car during the total journey is 13.33 ms-1

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87. swimmer can swim in still water at of 10 ms-1 While crossing a river his average speed is 6 ms-1. If
he crosses the river in the shortest possible time, what is the speed of flow of water? 8 ms-1
The resultant velocity of swimmer must be perpendicular to speed of water to cross the river in
a shortest time

88. A 100 m long train is traveling from North to South at a speed of 30 ms-1. A bird is flying from
South to North at a speed of 10-1. How long will the bird take to, cross the train? 2.5 s
Length of train = 100 m
Relative velocity = 30 + 10 = 40 ms-1
Time taken to cross the train (t) = distance/R.velocity = 100/40 = 2.5 s
89. The first derivative of position vector with respect to time is velocity
90. The second derivative of position vector with respect to time is acceleration
91. The slope of displacement-time graph gives velocity
92. The slope of velocity-time graph gives acceleration
93. The position vector of a particle is r⃗ = 4t2i^ + 2tj^ + 3tk^ The acceleration of a particle is having
only X – component
94. The position vector of a particle is r⃗ = 4t2i^ + 2tj^ + 3tk^. The speed of the particle at t = 5 s is –
42 ms-1
95. An object is moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration a, the velocity-time relation is
v = u + at
96. An object is moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration, the displacement-time relation is –
S = ut+1/2 at2
97. An object is moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration, the velocity-displacement reflation
is V2 = u2 + 2as
98. For free-falling body, its initial velocity is 0
99. An object falls from a height h (h<<R), the speed of the object when it reaches the ground is
√(2gh)
100. An object falls from a height h (h<< R) the time taken by an object to reaches the ground is
√(2g/h)
101. In the absence of air resistance, horizontal velocity of the projectile is a constant

102. In the horizontal projection, the range of the projectile is

103. In oblique projection, maximum height attained by the projectile is u2sin2θ/2g
104. In oblique projection time of flight of a projectile is 2ucosθ/g
105. In oblique projection horizontal range of the projectile is u2sin2θ/g
106. In oblique projection, maximum horizontal range of the projectile is u2/g
107. One radian is equal to 57.295°
108. In relation between linear and angular velocity is ω = v/r
109. Centripetal acceleration is given by −v2/r
110. In uniform circular motion Velocity changes but speed constant

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111. In non – uniform circular motion, the resultant acceleration is given by
112. In non – uniform circular motion, resultant acceleration makes an angle with radius vector is

113. A compartment of an uniformly moving train is suddenly detached from the train and stops after
covering some distance. The distance covered by the compartment and distance covered by
the train in the given time first will be half of second

114. An object is dropped from rest. Its v – t graph is –

115. When a ball hits the ground as free fall and renounces but less than its original height? Which is

represented by –

116. Which of the following graph represents the equation y = mx – C?

117. Which of the following graph represents the equation y = mx + C?

118. Which of the following graph represents the equation y = mx?

119. Which of the following graph represents the equation y = -mx + C?

120. Which of the following graph represents the equation y = kx 2?

121. X = -ky2 is represented by –

122. X = ky2 is represented by –

123. y = kx2 is represented by –

124. X °∝1/Y (or) XY = constant is represented by

125. y = e-kx is represented by –

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126. Y = 1 – e-kx is represented by –

127. x2/a2+y2/b2 = 1 is represented by –

128. Let y =f(x) is a function. Its maxima (or) minima can be obtained by dy/dx = 0
129. A particle at rest starts moving in a horizontal straight line with uniform acceleration. The ratio of
the distance covered during the fourth and the third second is 7/5

130. The distance travelled by a body, falling freely from rest in t = 1s, t = 2s and t = 3s are in the ratio
of –1 : 4 : 9

131. The displacement of the particle along a straight line at time ¡ is given by X = a + ht + ct2 where
a, b, c are constants. The acceleration of the particle is 2c

132. Two bullets are fired at an angle of θ and (90 – θ) to the horizontal with same speed. The ratio of
tan θ : 1

133. A particle moves along circular path under action of force. The work done by the force is zero
134. For a particle, revolving in a circle with speed, acceleration of the particle is along the radius
135. A gun fires two bullets with same velocity at 60° and 30° with horizontal. The bullets strike at the
same horizontal distance. The ratio of maximum height for two bullets is in ratio of 3 : 1

136. A ball is thrown vertically upward. it is a speed of lo m/s. When it has reached one half of its
maximum height. I-low high does the ball rise? (g = 10 ms-2) 10 m
137. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed Vn and returns to Y with a uniform speed Vd The

average speed for this round trip is

138. Two projectiles of same mass and with same velocity are thrown at an angle of 60° and 30° with
the horizontal then which of the following will remain same? range of projectile
139. A n object of mass 3 kg is at rest. Now a force of F→ = 6 t2i^ + 4tj^ is applied on the object, then
the velocity of object at t = 3 second is F = 6 t2i^ + 4tj^

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140. The angle for which maximum height and horizontal range are same for a projectile is 76°

141. A bullet is dropped from some height, when another bullet is fired horizontally from the same
height. They will hit the ground simultaneously

142. From this velocity – time graph, which of the following is correct?
(a) Constant acceleration (b) Variable acceleration
(c) Constant velocity (d) Variable acceleration
143. When a projectile is at its maximum height, the direction of its velocity and acceleration are
perpendicular to each other
144. At the highest point of oblique projection, which of the following is correct?
(a) velocity of the projectile is zero
(b) acceleration of the projectile is zero
(c) acceleration of the projectile is vertically downwards
(d) velocity of the projectile is vertically downwards
145. The range of the projectile depends –
(a) angle of projection (b) Velocity of projection (c) g (d) all the above
146. A constant force is acting on a particle and also acting perpendicular to the velocity of the
particle. The particle describes the motion in a plane. Then it moves in a circular path
147. If a body moving in a circular path with uniform speed, then –
(a) the acceleration is directed towards its center
(b) velocity and acceleration are perpendicular to each other
(c) speed of the body is constant but its velocity is varying
(d) all the above
148. A body is projected vertically upward with the velocity y = 3i^ + 4j^ ms-1. The maximum height
attained by the body is (g 10 ms-2).- 1.25 m

; ; ;

UNIT-3 LAWS OF MOTION

01. The concept “force causes motion” was given by Aristotle

02. Who decoupled the motion and force? Galileo
03. The inability of objects to move on its own or change its state of motion is called as inertia
04. Inertia means resistance to change its state
05. When a bus starts to move from rest, the passengers experience a sudden backward push is an
example for Inertia of rest
06. If the brake is applied in the moving bus suddenly, passengers move forward is an example for –
Inertia of motion

07. In whirling motion, if the string is cut suddenly, the stone moves tangential to circle is an –
Inertia of direction
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08. Newtons laws are applicable in Inertial frame
09. The accelerated train is an example for non-inertial frame
10. Rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to force
11. The product of mass and velocity is momentum
12. Unit of momentum kg ms-1
13. According to Newton’s third law F12 = F21

14. According to Newton’s third law

15. The law which is valid in both inertial and non-inertial frame is Newton’s third law
16. When a force is applied on a body, it can change –
(a) velocity (b) momentum (c) direction of motion (d) all the above
17. The rate of change of velocity is 1 ms-2 when a force is applied on the body of mass 75 gm the
force is 0.075 N
Force is given by F = m a = 75 gm x 1 cm s-2 = 75 x 10-3 x 1 = 75 x 10-3 = 0.075 N
18. The action and reaction forces acting on different bodies
19. Newton’s first law of motion gives the concept of Inertia
20. Inertia of a body has direct dependence on mass
21. If a car and a scooter have the same momentum, then which one is having greater speed? scooter

22. Newton’s second law gives – (d) all the above

-5
23. 1 dyne is 10 N
24. If same force is acting on two masses m1 and m2, and the accelerations of two bodies are a1 and
a2 respectively, then a1/a2=m2/m1
25. If a force F¯¯¯ = 3i^ – 4j^ N produces an acceleration of 10 ms-2 on a body, then the mass of a
body is 0.5 kg

26. A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed
of 15 ms-1. How long does the body take to stop? 6 s

; ; ;
27. Rain drops come down with zero acceleration and non zero velocity
28. If force is the cause then the effect is acceleration
29. In free body diagram, the object is represented by a point
30. When an object of mass m slides on a friction less surface inclined at an angle 0, then normal force
exerted by the surface is mg cos θ
31. The acceleration of the sliding object in an inclined plane g sin θ

32. The speed of an object sliding in an inclined plane at the bottom is

33. The acceleration of two bodies of mass m1 & m2 in contact on a horizontal surface is
34. Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) in contact with each other on frictionless, horizontal
surface. If a horizontal force F is given on m1, set into motion with acceleration a, then reaction

force on mass m1 by m2, is

35. If two masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) tied to string moving over a frictionless pulley, then

acceleration of masses
36. if two masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2)tied to string moving over a frictionless pulley, then

acceleration of masses
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37. Three massses is in contact as shown. If force F is applied to mass m1, the acceleration of three

masses is
38. Three masses in contact is as shown above. If force F is applied to mass m1 then the contact force

acting on mass m2 is
39. Three masses is contact as shown. It force F is applied to mass m1, then the contact force acting

on mass m3 is
40. Two masses connected with a string. When a force F is applied on mass m2. The acceleration

produced is
41. Two masses connected with a string. When a force F is applied on mass m2. The force acting on

m1 is
42. If a block of mass m lying on a frictionless inclined plane of length L height h and angle of

inclination θ, then the velocity at its bottom is

43. If a block of mass m lying on a frictionless inclined plane of length L, height h and angle of

inclination θ, then the time take taken to reach the bottom is

44. A rocket works on the principle of conservation of mass
45. A bomb at rest explodes. The total momentum of all its fragments is zero
46. A block of mass m1 is pulled along a horizontal friction-less surface by a rope of mass m2 If a
force F is given at its free end. The net force acting on the block is F
47. A block of mass m is pulled along a horizontal surface by a rope. The tension in the rope will be
same at all the points if the rope is mass less
48. The lines of forces act at a common point is called as concurrent forces
49. If the lines of forces act in the same plane, they can be concurrent forces
50. Lami’s theorem is applicable only when the system of forces are is equilibrium
51. Due to the action of internal forces of the system, the total linear momentum of the system is
always zero
52. The velocity with which a gun suddenly moves backward after firing is recoil velocity
53. If a very large force acts on an object for a very short duration, then the force is called as
impulsive force
54. The unit of impulse is Ns
55. The force which always opposes the relative motion between an object and the surface where it is
placed is frictional force
56. The force which opposes the initiation of motion of an object on the surface is static friction
57. When the object is at rest, the resultant of gravitational force and upward normal force is zero
58. The magnitude of static frictional force d lies between 0 ≤ f ≤ µsN
59. The unit of co-efficient of static friction is no unit
60. If the object is at rest and no external force is applied on the object, the static friction acting on
the object is no unit
61. When object begins to slide, the static friction acting on the object attains maximum
62. The static friction does not depend upon the area of contact
63. Which of the following pairs of materials has minimum amount of coefficient of static friction is –
ice and ice

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64. Kinetic friction is also called as –
(a) sliding friction (b) dynamic friction (c) both (a) and (b) (d) static friction
65. The unit of coefficient of kinetic friction is/has no unit
66. The nature of materials in mutual contact decides µs or µk
67. Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than µs
68. The static friction increases linearly
69. The kinetic friction is constant
70. Kinetic friction is independent of applied force
71. The angle between the normal force and the resultant force of normal force and maximum
frictional force is angle of friction
72. The angle friction θ is given by tan-1 µs
73. The angle of inclined plane with the horizontal such that an object placed on it begins to slide is
angle of repose
74. Comparatively, which of the following has lesser value than others?
(a) static friction (b) kinetic friction (c) Rolling friction (d) skiping friction
75. The origin of friction is electromagnetic interaction
76. Friction can be reduced by –
(a) polishing (b) lubricating (c) using ball bearings (d) all the above
77. For a particle revolving in a circular path, the acceleration of the particle is along the radius
78. A particle moves along circular path under action of a force. The work done by force is zero
79. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on a horizontal frictionless table. Which of
the following is conserved?
(a) Momentum and kinetic energy (b) kinetic energy alone
(c) Momentum alone (d) potential energy alone
80. The origin of the centripetal force can be –
(a) gravitational force (b) frictional force (c) coulomb force (d) all the above
81. Centripetal acceleration is v2/r
82. Centripetal acceleration is rω2
83. The centripetal force is –
(a) mv2/r (b) rω2 (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none
84. When a car is moving on a circular track the centripetal force is due to frictional force
85. If the road is horizontal then the normal force and gravitational force are equal and opposite

86. The velocity of a car for safe turn on leveled circular road
87. In a leveled circular road, skidding mainly depends on µs
88. The speed of a car to move on the banked road so that it will have safe turn is
89. Centrifugal force is a pseudo force
90. Origin of centrifugal force is due to inertia
91. Centripetal force acts in
(a) inertial frame (b) non inertial frame (c) both (a) and (h) (d) linear motion
92. Centrifugal force acts in non inertial frame
93. A cricket ball of mass loo g moving with a velocity of 20 ms-1 is brought to rest by a player in
0.05s the impulse of the ball is – 2 Ns

94. If a stone tied at the one end of a string of length 0.5 m is whirled in a horizontal circle with a
constant speed 6 ms-1 then the acceleration of the shone is 72 ms-2

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95. A block of mass 3 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane with angle of inclination 30° with
horizontal. If .is 0.7, then the frictional force is 17.82 N
Frictional force = µmg cos θ = 0.7 x 3 x 9.8 cos 30° = 17.82 N
96. Two masses 2 kg and 4 kg are tied at the ends of a mass less string and which is passing over a
friction-less pulley. The tension in the string is 26 N

97. A bomb of 10 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of mass 4 kg and 6 kg. if the velocity of 4 kg
mass is 6 ms-1 then the velocity of 6 kg is – 4 ms-1

98. A body is subjected under three concurrent forces and it is in equilibrium. The resultant of any
two forces is
(a) coplanar with the third force (b) is equal and opposite to third force
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
99. An impulse is applied to a moving object with the force at an angle of 20° with respect to velocity
vector. The angle between the impulse vector and the change in momentum vector is 0°
Impulse and change in momentum are in same direction. So the angle is zero.
100. A bullet of mass m and velocity v1 is fired into a large block of wood of mass M. The final

velocity of the system is

101. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The co – efficient of static friction is 0.4. The force of
friction between the block and floor is 7.8 N
The force required to move = = µR = µmg = 0.4 x 2 x 9.8 = 7.84 N
102. A truck weighing 1000 kg is moving with velocity of 50 km/h on smooth horizontal roads. A mass
of 250 kg is dropped into it. The velocity with which it moves now is 40 km/h

103. A body of mass loo g is sliding from an inclined plane of inclination 30°. if u = 1.7, then the
frictional force experienced is 1.47 N

UNIT-4 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

01. Thrust and linear momentum Work and energy

02. The rate of work done is called as power
03. Unit of work done
(a) Nm (b) joule (c) either a or b (d) none
04. Dimensional formula for work done is ML2T-2
05. When body moves on horizontal direction, amount of work done by gravitational force is zero
06. The amount of work done by centripetal force on the object moving in a circular path is zero
07. The work done by goal keeper catches ball coming towards him by applying force is negative

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08. If the angle between force and displacement is acute then the work done is positive
09. f the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, then the work done is zero
10. If the angle between force and displacement is obtuse, then the work done is negative
11. The area covered under force and displacement graph is work done
12. The capacity to do work is energy
13. The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called as kinetic energy
14. The energy possessed by the body by virtue of its position is called as potential energy
15. 1 erg is equivalent to 10-7 J
16. 1 electron volt is equivalent to 1.6 × 10-19 J
17. 1 kilowatt hour is equivalent to 3.6 × 10-6 J
18. 1 calorie is equivalent to 4.186 J
19. The amount of work done by a moving body depends on the
(a) mass of the body (b) velocity (c) both (a) and (b) (d) time
2
20. The kinetic energy of a body is given by ½ mv
21. Kinetic energy of the body is always positive
22. If the work done by the force on the body is positive then its kinetic energy increases
23. If p is the momentum of the particle then its kinetic energy is p2/2m
24. If two objects of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are moving with the same momentum then the
kinetic energy will be greater for m2
25. For a given momentum, the kinetic energy is proportional to 1m
26. Elastic potential energy possessed by a spring is ½ kx2
27.Potential energy stored in the spring depends on mass
28. Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 (k1 > k2). If they are stretched by the same force then
(u1, u2 are potential energy of the springs) is u2 > u1
29. Conservative force is
(a) electrostatic force (b) magnetic force (c) gravitational force (d) all the above
30. Non conservative force is
(a) frictional force (b) viscous force (c) air resistance (d) all the above
31. If the work done is completely recoverable, then the force is non-conservative
32. The work done by the conservative forces in a cycle is zero
33. Negative gradient of potential energy gives conservative force
34. When a particle moving in a vertical circle, the variable is/are
(a) velocity of particle (b) tension of string (c) both (a) and (b) (d) mass of particle
35. Which of the following is zero at the highest point in vertical circular motion?
(a) velocity of particle (b) tension of spring (c) potential energy (d) none
36. The body must have speed at highest point in vertical circular motion to stay in circular path

37. The body must have a minimum speed of lowermost point in vertical circular motion to complete

the circle
38. The rate of work done is power
39. The unit of power is
(a) J (b) W (c) J s-1 (d) both (b) and (c)
40. One horse power (1 hp) is 746 W
41. The dimension of power is ML2T-3
42. kWh is the practical unit of energy
43. If a force F is applied on a body and the body moves with velocity v, the power will be F.V
44. A body of mass m is thrown vertically upward with a velocity v. The height at which the kinetic

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 energy of the body is one third of its initial value is given by

45. A body of mass 5 kg is initially at rest. By applying force of 20 N at an angle of 60° with
horizontal body is moved to distance of 4 m. The kinetic energy acquired by body is 40 J
Solution: The work done is equal to its kinetic energy
∴ K.E gained = Fs cos θ = 20 × 4 cos 60° = 40 J.
46. A bullet is fired normally on an immovable wooden plank of thickness 2 m. It loses 20% of its
kinetic energy in penetrating a thickness 0.2 m of the plank. The distance penetrated by the
bullet inside the wooden plank is 1 m
Solution: The wood offers a constant retardation. If the bullet loses 20% of its kinetic energy by
penetrating 0.2m. it can penetrate further into 4 × 0.2 = 0.8 m with the remaining kinetic
energy. So the total distance penetrated by the bullet is 0.2 + 0.8 = 1 m.
47. Which of the following quantity is conserved in all collision process?
(a) kinetic energy (b) linear momentum (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none.
48. The kinetic energy is conserved in Elastic collision
49. The kinetic energy is not conserved in In elastic collision
50. In inelastic collision, which is conserved
(a) linear momentum (b) total energy (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none
51. If 2 colliding bodies stick together after collision such collisions are perfectly inelastic collision
52. When bubblegum is thrown on moving vehicle, it sticks is example - perfectly inelastic collision
53. Elastic collision is due to non conservative force
54. Inelastic collision is due to non conservative force
55. If velocity of separation is equal to velocity of approach, then collision is conservative force
56. For elastic collision, coefficient of restitution is 1
57. For inelastic collision co-efficient of restitution is 0 < e < 1
58. For perfectly inelastic collision, coefficient of restitution is 0
59. The ratio of velocities of equal masses in inelastic collision with one of masses is stationary is

60. A box is dragged across a surface by a rope which makes an angle 45° with the horizontal. The
tension in the rope is 100 N when the box is dragged 10 m. The work done is 707.1 J

61. A position dependent force F = (7 – 2x + 3x2) N acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces
it from x = 0 to x = 5 m. Work done is 135 J

62. In gravitational field, the work done in moving a body from one point into another depends on
initial and final positions
63. A particle of mass “m” moving with velocity v strikes a particle of mass “2m” at rest and sticks to it.
The speed of the combined mass is v/3

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64. A force of (10i^−3j^+6k^) N acts on a body of 5 kg and displaces it from (6i^+5j^−3k^) to
(10i^−2j^+7k) m. The work done is 121 J

65. A 9 kg mass & 4 kg mass are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their momentum is
3:2

66. If momentum of a body increases by 25% its kinetic energy will increase by 56.25%

67. A missile fired from a launcher explodes in mid air, its total kinetic energy increases
68. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a wooden block resting on a horizontal friction less surface.
Which of the following is conserved? (a) momentum alone (b) kinetic energy alone
(c) both momentum and kinetic energy (d) no quantity is conserved
69. Two balls of equal masses moving with velocities 10 m/s and -7 m/s respectively collide elastically.
Their velocities after collision will be -7 ms-1 and 10 ms-1
70. spring of negligible mass having a force constant of 10 Nm-1 is compressed by a force to a
distance of 4 cm. A block of mass 900 g is free to leave the top of the spring. If the spring is
released, the speed of the block is 13.3 × 10-2 ms-1

; ;
71. A particle falls from a height ftona fixed horizontal plate and rebounds. If e is the coefficient ” of
restitution, the total distance travelled by the particle on rebounding when it stops is

72. If the force F acting on a body as a function of x then the work done in moving a body from x = 1

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

 m to x = 3m is 4 J

73. A boy “A” of mass 50 kg climbs up a staircase in 10 s. Another boy “B” of mass 60 kg climbs up a
Same staircase in 15s. The ratio of the power developed by the boys “A” and “B” is 5/4

CHAPTER 5 MOTION OF SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND RIGID BODIES

01. The changes produced by the deforming forces in a rigid body are – negligibly small
02. When a rigid body moves all particles that constitute the body follows- different path
03. For bodies of regular shape & uniform mass distribution, center of mass is at – geometric center
04. For square and rectangular objects center of mass lies at – the point where the diagonals meet
05. Center of mass may lie (a) within body (b) outside body (c) both (a) & (b) (d) only at center
06. The dimension of point mass is – zero
07. The motion of center of mass of a system of two particles is unaffected by their internal forces –
irrespective of the actual directions of the internal forces
08. A circular plate of diameter 10 cm is kept in contact with a square plate of side 10 cm. The density
of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The center of mass of the system will be
inside the square plate
09. The center of mass of a system of particles does not depend on forces acting on the particles
10. The center of mass of a solid cone along the line from the center of the base to the vertex is at –
1/5 th of its height
11. All the particles of a body are situated at a distance of X from origin. The distance of the center of
mass from the origin is ≤ r
12. A free falling body breaks into three parts of unequal masses. The center of mass of the three parts
taken together shifts horizontally towards does not shift horizontally
13. The distance between the center of carbon and oxygen atoms in the gas molecule is 1.13 A. The
center of mass of the molecule relative to oxygen atom is 0.527 Å
Given, Inter atomic distance = 1.13 Å; Mass of carbon atom = 14; Mass of oxygen atom = 16
Let C.M. of molecule lies at a distance of X from oxygen atom-
i.e. m1r1 = m2r2
16 X = 14(1.13 – X)
30 X = 15.82
X = 0.527 Å
14. The unit of position vector of center of mass is m
15. The sum of moments of masses of all the particles in a system about the center of mass is zero
16. The motion of center of mass depends on external forces acting on it
17. Two particles P and Q move towards with each other from rest with the velocities of 10 ms-1 and
20 ms-1 under the mutual force of attraction. The velocity of center of mass is zero
18. The reduced mass of the system of two particles of masses 2 m and 4 m will be 43m
19. The motion of center of mass of system consists of many particles describes its oscillatory motion
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
20. The position of center of mass can be written in the vector form as

21. The positions of two masses m1 & m2 are x1 & x2. The position of center of mass is
22. In a two particle system, one particle lies at origin another one lies at a distance of X. Then the
position of center of mass of these particles of equal mass is X/2

23. Principle of moments is

24. Infinitesimal quantity means extremely small
25. In the absence of external forces the center of mass will be in a state of –
may be at rest or in uniform motion
26. The activity of the force to produce rotational motion in a body is called as torque
27. The moment of the external applied force about a point or axis of rotation is known as torque
28. Torque is given as r⃗ x F⃗
29. The magnitude of torque is rF sin θ
30. The direction of torque ácts Perpendicular to both r⃗ & F⃗
31. The unit of torque is Nm
32. The direction of torque is found using right hand rule
33. if the direction of torque is out of the paper then the rotation produced by the torque is clockwise
34. If the direction of the torque is inward the paper then the rotation is clockwise
35. if r⃗ and F⃗ are parallel or anti parallel, then the torque is zero
36. The maximum possible value of torque is rF

37. The relation between torque and angular acceleration is

38. Angular momentum is r⃗ x P⃗
39. The magnitude of angular momentum is given by rp sin θ
40. Angular momentum is associated with both (a) and (b)
41. Angular momentum acts perpendicular to both r⃗ and P⃗
42. Angular momentum is given by Iω
43. The rate of change of angular momentum is Torque
44. The forces acting on a body when it is at rest both gravitational as well as normal force
45. The net force acting on a body when it is at rest is zero
46. If net force acting on a body is zero, then the body is in transnational equilibrium
47. If the net torque acting on the body is zero, then the body is in rotational equilibrium
48. when the net force and net torque acts on the body is zero then the body is in –
(a) translational equilibrium (b) rotational equilibrium (c) mechanical equilibrium (d) none
49. When the net force and net torque acts on the body is zero then the body is in –
(a) static equilibrium (b) Dynamic equilibrium (c) both (a) and (b) (d) translational equilibrium
50. When two equal & opposite forces acting on body at two different points, it may give torque
51. The torque in rotational motion is analogous to in transnational motion force
52. Which of the following example does not constitute a couple?
(a) steering a car (b) turning a pen cap (c) ball rolls on the floor (d) closing the door
53. If the linear momentum and angular momentum are zero, then the object is said to be in –
(a) stable equilibrium (b) unstable equilibrium (c) neutral equilibrium (d) all the above
54. When body is disturbed, potential energy remains same, then body is in neutral equilibrium
55. The point where the entire weight of the body acts is called as center of gravity
56. The forces acting on a cyclist negotiating a circular Level road is /are –
(a) gravitational force (b) centrifugal force (c) frictional force (d) all the above
57. While negotiating a circular level road a cyclist has to bend by an angle θ from vertical to stay in

an equilibrium is

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58. Moment of inertia for point masses mr2
59. Moment of inertia for bulk object Σmiri 2
60. For rotational motion, moment of inertia is a measure of rotational inertia
61. Unit of moment of inertia kgm2
62. Dimensional formula for moment of inertia is [ML2]
63. Moment of inertia of a body is a variable quantity
64. Moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod about an axis passing through the center of mass and
perpendicular to the length is 1/12 Ml2
65. Moment of inertia ofa thin uniform rod about an axis passing through one end and perpendicular
to the length is 1/3 Ml2
66. Moment of inertia of a thin uniform rectangular sheet about an axis passing through the center of
mass and perpendicular to the plane of the sheet is ½ M(l2+ b2)
67. Moment of inertia of a thin uniform ring about an axis passing through the center of gravity and
perpendicular to the plane is MR2
68. Moment of inertia of a thin uniform ring about an axis passing through the center and lying on the
plane (along diameter) is ½ MR2
69. Moment of inertia of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through the center and
perpendicular to the plane is ½ MR2
70. Moment of inertia of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through the center lying on the
plane (along diameter is) ¼ MR2
71. Moment of inertia of a thin uniform hollow cylinder about an axis of the cylinder is MR2
72. Moment of inertia of thin uniform hollow cylinder about an axis of cylinder is M(R2/2+l2/12)
73. Moment of inertia of a uniform solid cylinder about an axis passing through the center and along
the axis of the cylinder is ½ MR2
74. Moment of inertia of a uniform solid cylinder about as axis passing perpendicular to the length
and passing through the center is M(R2/4+l2/12)
75. Moment of inertia of a thin hollow sphere about an axis passing through the center along its
diameter is 2/3 MR2
76. Moment of inertia of a thin hollow sphere about an axis passing through the edge along its
tangent is –5/3 MR2
77. Moment of inertia of a uniform solid sphere about an axis passing through the center along its
diameter is 2/5 MR2
78. Moment of inertia of a uniform solid sphere about an axis passing through the edge along its
tangent is 7/5 MR2
79. The ratio of K2/R2 of a thin uniform ring about an axis passing through the center and
perpendicular to the plane is 1
80. The ratio of K2/ R2 of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through the center and
perpendicular to the plane is 1/2
81. When no external torque act on body, net angular momentum of rotating body remains constant
82. Moment of inertia of a body is proportional to 1/ω
83. When the hands are brought closer to the body, the angular velocity of the ice dancer increases
84. When hands are stretched out from body, the moment of inertia of the ice dancer increases
85. The work done by the torque is τ dθ
86. Rotational Kinetic energy of a body is ½ Iω2
87. Rotational kinetic energy is given by L2/2I
88. If E is a rotational kinetic energy then angular momentum is √2IE
89. The product of torque acting on a body and angular velocity is power
90. The work done per unit time in rotational motion is given by τ ω
91. While rolling, the path of center of mass of an object is straight line

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

92. In pure rolling, the velocity of the point of the rolling object which comes in contact with the
surface is zero
93. In pure rolling velocity of center of mass is equal to Rω
94. In pure rolling, rotational velocity of points at its edges is equal to Rω
95. Sliding of the object occurs when Vtrans > Vrot
96. Sliding of the object occurs while VCM > Rω
97. Slipping of the object occurs when Vtrans < Vrot
98. Slipping of the object occurs when VCM < Rω
99. In sliding, the resultant velocity of a point of contact acts along forward direction
100. In slipping, the resultant velocity of a point of contact acts along backward direction
101. When a solid sphere is undergoing pure rolling, the ratio of transnational kinetic energy to
rotational kinetic – energy is 5 : 2

102. Time taken by the rolling object in inclined plane to reach its bottom is

103. The velocity of the rolling object on inclined plane at the bottom of inclined plane is
104. Moment of inertia of an annular disc about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular

to the plane of disc is

105.Moment of inertia of a cube about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular
to face is Ma2/6
106. Moment of inertia of a rectangular plane sheet about an axis passing through center of mass and
perpendicular to side b in its plane is Mb2/12
107. Rotational kinetic energy can be calculated by using L2/2I
108. The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of radius r about a certain axis is r. The distance of that
axis from the center of the sphere is √0.6r
From parallel axis theorem

I = IG + Md2; ;
109. A wheel is rotating with angular velocity 2 rad/s. It is subjected to a uniform angular acceleration
2 rad/s2 then the angular velocity after 10 s is 22 rad/s
ω = ω0 + αt Here ω0 = 2 rad/s, α = 2 rad/s2, ω = 10 s
ω = 2 + 2 x 10 = 22 rad/s
110. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia IA and IB (Ib > IA)
have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their angular momenta respectively,
then, LB > LA
111. Three identical particles lie in x, y plane. The (x, y) coordinates of their positions are (3, 2), (1, 1),
(5, 3) respectively. The (x, y) coordinates of the center of mass are (3, 2)
The X and Y coordinates of the center of mass are

;
112. A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 10 cm is rotating about its axis with a frequency of 20/π.
The rotational kinetic energy of the cylinder 12 J
Given, M = 3 kg, R = 0.1 m, v = 20 / π

113. A circular disc is rolling down in an inclined plane without slipping. The percentage of rotational
energy in its total energy is 33.33%

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114. A sphere rolls down in an inclined plane without slipping. The percentage of transnational energy
in its total energy is 71.4%

Rotational K.e. Erot

115. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 4 kg are connected by a spring of negligible mass and placed on
a frictionless horizontal surface. An impulse gives a velocity of 14 m/s to the heavier block in
the direction of the lighter block. The velocity of the center of mass is 10 m/s
According to law of conservation of linear momentum MV = (M + M) VCM

116. A mass is whirled in a circular path with constant angular velocity and its angular momentum is L.
If string is now halved keeping angular velocity the same, the angular momentum is L/4
We know that angular momentum L = Mr2
Here, m and co are constants L α r2
If r becomes r/2 angular momentum becomes ¼ th of its initial value.
117. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform ring of mass 1 kg and radius 20 cm rotating about the
axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 1 x 10-2 kg m2
Moment of inertia I = MR2 = 1 x (10 x 10-2)2 = 1 x 10-2 kg m2.
118. A solid sphere is rolling down in the inclined plane, from rest without slipping. The angle of
inclination with horizontal is 30°. The linear acceleration of the sphere is 25/7ms-2

We know that,a = ;
119. An electron is revolving in an orbit of radius 2 A with a speed of 4 x 10 5 m /s. The angular
momentum of the electron is [Me = 9 x 10-31 kg] 72 x 10-36 kg m2 s-1
Angular momentum L = mV x r = 9 x 10-31 x 4 x 105 x 2 x 10-10 = 72 x 10-36kg m2 s-1
120. A raw egg and hard boiled egg are made to spin on a table with the same angular speed about
the same axis. The ratio of the time taken by the eggs to stop is –
(a) =1 (b) < 1 (c) > 1 (d) none of these
When a raw egg spins, the fluid inside comes towards its side.
∴ “1” will increase in – turn it decreases ω. Therefore it takes lesser time than boiled egg.

UNIT-6 GRAVITATION

01. According to Kepler, planet move in Elliptical orbits around Sun with Sun at one of its foci.
02. Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of aerial velocity of a planet is consequence of the law of
conservation of angular momentum

Hint:
03. According to Kepler, the period of revolution of a planet (T) and its mean distance from the Sun (a)
are related by the equation T2 a-3 = constant

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

 Hint:
04. The period of Moon’s rotation around the Earth is nearly 29 days. If Moon’s mass were 2 fold
its present value and all other things remained unchanged the period of Moon’s rotation would
be nearly 29 days.
Hint: Time period does not depends upon the mass of satellite.
05. The period of revolution of planet A around the Sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from
the Sun is how many times greater than that of B from the Sun. 4

Hint: ;
06. The radius of orbit of a planet is two times that of Earth. The time period of planet is years 2.8

Hint:
07. A geostationary satellite orbits around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 3600 km the time
period of a satellite orbiting a few hundred kilometers above the earth’s surface (RE = 6400 km)
will be approximately be 2 hours.

Hint:
08. What does not change in the field of central force?
(a) Potential energy (b) kinetic energy (c) linear momentum (d) Angular momentum

Hint: For central force torque is zero.

09. A satellite which is geostationary in a particular orbit is taken to another orbit. Its distance from the
center of earth in new orbit is two times of the earlier orbit. The time period in second orbit is
48√2 hours.

10. If the Earth is at one-fourth of its present distance from the sun the duration of year will be:
one-eight the present year

Hint:
11. The Earth E moves in an elliptical orbit with the Sun S at one of the foci as shown in figure.
Its speed of motion will be maximum at a point A

Hint: Speed at the Earth will be maximum when its distance from the Sun is minimum because
mvr = constant
12. Rockets are launched in eastward direction to take advantage of Earth’s rotation
Hint: Because Earth rotation from west to east direction.
13. Two sphere of mass M1 and M2 are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F.
The space around the masses is now filled with liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational
force will now be F
Hint: Gravitational force does not depend upon the medium.
14. Which of the following statement about the gravitational constant is true?
(a) It is a force (b) It has same value in all system of unit
(c) It has not unit (d) It depends on the value of the masses
15. Energy required to move a body of mass ‘M’ from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is GMm/6R

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 Hint: Change in P.E. in displacing a body from r1 and r2 is given by:

16. The mass of the earth is 6 × 1024 kg and that of the Moon is 7.4 × 1022 kg. The constant of
gravitation G is 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2. The potential energy of the system is – 7.79 × 1028J. The
mean distance between the Earth and Moon is 3.80 × 108 metre.

Hint:
17. What is the intensity of gravitational field at the center of spherical shell? zero
18. A body of mass m is taken from the Earth’s surface to a height equal to the radius R of the earth. If
g is the acceleration to gravity at the surface of the Earth, then find the change in the potential
energy of the body ½ mgR

Hint:
19. A satellite is orbiting around the Earth in a circular orbit with velocity v. If m is the mass of the

satellite, its total energy is

Hint: The total energy is negative of the kinetic energy.
20. Escape velocity of a body of 1 kg. On a planet is 100 ms-1. Gravitational potential energy of the
body at the planet is – 5000 J

21. A particle falls towards earth from infinity. It’s velocity reaching the Earth would be √2gR
Hint: This should be equal to escape velocity is = √2gR
22. An artificial satellite is revolving round the Earth in a circular orbit, its velocity is half the escape
velocity. Its height from the Earth surface is 6400 km.
23. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the Earth is 11.2 km/s. If the mass of the Earth is
increase to twice its present value and the radius of the earth becomes half, the escape velocity
becomes = 22.4 kms-1

Hint: If M becomes double & R becomes half, then escape velocity becomes two
times.
24. The velocity with which a projectile must be fired so that it escapes Earth’s gravitational does
not depend on Mass of the projectile
25. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of Earth is 11 kms-1.
If the body is projected at an angle of 45° with the vertical, the escape velocity will be 11 kms-1
Hint: Escape velocity does not depends upon the angle of projection.
26. Two satellites of mass ml and m2(m1> m2) are revolving round the earth in circular orbits of r1
and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. Which of the following statement is true regarding their speeds v1
and v2 is v1 < v2

Hint:
27. As astronaut orbiting the earth in a circular orbit 120 km above the surface of Earth, gently drops a
spoon out of space-ship. The spoon will move along with space-ship
Hint: The velocity of spoon will be equal to orbital velocity when dropped out of space-ship
28. A satellite revolves around the Earth in an elliptical orbit. Its speed is greatest when it is closest
to the Earth
29. A satellite is moving around the Earth with speed v in a circular orbit of radius r. If the orbit
radius is decreased by 1% its speed will increase by 0.5%

30. Orbital velocity of an artificial satellite does not depend upon mass of satellite
31. The orbital speed of Jupiter is less then the orbital speed of Earth
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 Hint:
32. As we go grom the equator to the poles, the value of g increases
33. The value of g on the Earth surface is 980 cm/sec2. Its value at a height of 64 km from the Earth
surface is 960.40 cms2

Hint:
34. The Moon s radius is ¼ that of earth and its mass is 1/80 times that of the Earth. If g represents
the acceleration due to gravity on surface of Earth, that on surface of the Moon is g/5

Hint:
35. If the density of small planet is that of the same as that of the earth while the radius of the
planet is 0.2 times that of Earth, gravitational acceleration on surface for planet is 0.2g

Hint:
36. Assuming Earth to be a sphere of a uniform density, what is value of gravitational acceleration in
mine 100 km below the Earth surface = 9.66 ms-2

Hint:
37. The radii of two planets are respectively R1 and R2 and their densities are respectively ρ1 and ρ2
the ratio of the accelerations due to gravity at their surface is g1:g2=R1ρ1:R2ρ2

38. Acceleration due to gravity near surface of planet of radius R & density d is proportional to: dR

Hint:
39. The acceleration of a body due to the attraction of the Earth (radius R) at a distance 2R from the
surface of the Earth is g/9

Hint:
40. If density of Earth increased 4 times & its radius becomes half of then out weight will be doubled
Hint: g ∝ ρR
41. The radius of the Earth is 6400 km and g = 10 ms-2 in order that a body of 5 kg weights zero at
the equator, the angular speed of the Earth is 1/800 rad s-1

Hint:
42. Weight of a body is maximum at poles of Earth
43. The weight of an astronaut, in an artificial satellite revolving around the Earth is zero

UNIT-7 PROPERTIES OF MATTER

01. The force required to stretch a steel wire 1 cm2 in cross section to double its length is
(given Y = 2 × 1011 Nm-2) 2 × 107 N

Solution: ;
02. The fractional change in volume per unit increase in pressure is called Compressibility
03. The modulus of rigidity of a liquid is zero
04. The Young’s modulus of a wire of length L and radius r is Y. If the length is reduced to L/2 and
radius to r/2, its Young’s modulus will be Y
Solution: The Young’s modulus is a property of the material. So, it remains the same.
05. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.01% when subjected to a normal uniform pressure of 100
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
 atmospheres. The bulk modulus of the material of the ball in dynes/cm2 is 1 × 1012

Solution:
06. The value of Poisson’s ratio lies between 0 and 0.5
07. Poisson’s ratio cannot have the value 0.7
08. The bulk modulus for an incompressible fluid is ∞
09. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon material of the wire
10. Shearing stress causes change in shape
11. A certain force increases the length of a wire by 1 mm. The force required to increases its length
by 2 mm is (a) 2F Solution: ∆l ∝ F
12. Two wires of same material, having cross-sectional areas in ratio 1 : 2 & lengths in ratio 1 : 4 are
stretched by the same force. The ratio of the stresses in the wires will be 2 : 1

Solution:
13. If the tension on a wire is removed at once, then its temperature will increase
Solution: When tension is applied, distance between the atoms of the wire increases, there by
increasing potential energy of the wire. When tension is removed, potential energy decreases.
This energy is converted into heat energy. So temperature of wire increases.
14. In steel, the Young’s modulus and the strain at the breaking point are 2 × 10 11 Nm-2 and 0.15
respectively. The stress at the breaking point for steel is therefore 3 × 1010 Nm-2
Solution: Breaking stress = Breaking strain × Young’s modulus= 0.15×2×1011 = 3×1010 Nm-2 .
15. The pressure in a liquid at a given depth below the surface is the same in all directions
16. The pressure at the bottom of a liquid tank does not depend on area of the liquid surface
17. The pressure of the Earth’s atmosphere at sea level is due to the gravitational attraction of the
Earth for the atmosphere
18. The operating principle of a hydraulic press is Pascal’s Law
19. A floating body always displaces its own weight of liquid
20. The pressure in water tap at base of building is 3 × 106 dynes/cm2 & on its top it is 1.6 × 106
dynes/cm2. The height of the building is approximately 14 m

Solution:
21. Weight of body in air is 100 N. How much will it weight in water, if it displaces 400 cc of water?
(a) 90 N (b) 94 N (c) 98 N (d) None of these
Solution: Upthrust = Weight of water displaced = 0.4 × 9.8 = 3.92 N
Apparent weight = 100 – 3.92 = 96.08 N
22. A body is floating in a liquid with 15 of its volume outside the liquid. If the relative density of the

body is 0.9, that of the liquid is

23. A boat having length 3m and breadth 2m is floating on a lake. It sinks by 1 cm when a man gets
on it. The mass of the man is 60kg
Solution: Weight of man = Weight of additional water displaced
mg = 3 × 2 × 0.01 × 103 × g m = 60 kg
24. A bird weighs 2 kg and is inside an airtight cage of 1 kg. If its starts to fly, then what is the weight
of the bird and cage assembly? 3 kg
Solution: When the bird flies, the upthrust on it is equal and opposite to the down thrust on the
cage. Therefore, the weight of the assembly remains unchanged.
25. Two light balls are suspended as shown in the figure. When a stream of air passes through the
space between them, the distance between the balls will decrease

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 Solution: When the speed of the air between the balls increases, then according to Bernoulli’s
theorem, the pressure in this region decreases. Therefore, the balls will be pushed towards each
other by the air pressure in the outer region.
26. The rate of leak from a hole in a tank is more if situated near the bottom
27. When fluid passes through constricted part of pipe, its velocity increases & pressure decreases
28. Bernoulli’s principle does not explain surviving of a fish in a lake
29. An ideal liquid flows through a horizontal tube of variable diameter. The pressure is lowest where
the velocity is highest
30. Bernoulli’s equation is applicable in the case of streamlined flow of incompressible fluids
31. Bernoulli’s theorem is based on the conservation of energy
32. Bernoulli’s theorem is applicable to flow of liquids
33. The working of an atomiser depends on Bernoulli’s principle
34. ‘Dynamic lift’ is related to Bernoulli’s principle
35. A gale blows over a house. The force due to the gale on the roof is in the upward direction
36. If a stream of air is blown under one of the pans of a physical balance in equilibrium, then the
pan will go down
37. Water venturimeter works on the principle of Bernoulli’s theorem
38. Aeroplanes are made to run on runway before take-off because it
provides required life to the aeroplane
39. When the terminal velocity is reached, the acceleration of a body moving through a viscous
medium is zero
40. If a raindrop with a mass of 0.05 g falls with constant velocity, the retarding force of atmospheric
friction is (neglect density of air) 49 dynes
Solution: Since the rain drop is falling with constant velocity, the retarding upward force is
equal to its weight in magnitude, F = 0.05 × 980 = 49 dynes
41. If temperature rises, the coefficient of viscosity of a liquid decreases
42. The velocity of a rain drop attains constant value because of viscous force exerted by air
43. With increase in temperature the viscosity of a gas increases and a liquid decreases
44. Two small spheres of radii r and 2r fall through a viscous liquid with the same constant speed.
The viscous forces experienced by them are in the ratio 1 : 2

Solution:
45. Viscosity is property of liquids by virtue of which they oppose relative motion of its parts
46. Streamlined flow is more likely for liquids with low density and high viscosity
47. The dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is ML-1T-1
48. A good lubricant should have high viscosity
49. If a liquid wets a solid surface, the angle of contact is less than 90°
50. When some detergent is added to water, the surface tension decreases
51. Rain drops are spherical because of surface tension
52. At critical temperature the surface tension of a liquid is zero
53. A liquid will not wet the surface of a solid if the angle of contact is obtuse
54. The surface tension of soap solution is 25 × 10-3 Nm-1. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble
of diameter 1 cm is 20 Pa

Solution:
55. Surface tension does not depend on atmospheric pressure
56. Meniscus of mercury in a capillary is convex

57. The potential energy of a molecule on the surface of a liquid compared to that of a molecules
inside the liquid is greater
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
58. At which of the following temperatures, the value of surface tension of water is minimum?
(a) 4°C (b) 25°C (c) 50°C (d) 15°C
59. If the surface tension of water is 0.06 Nm-1 then the capillary rise in a tube of diameter 1 mm is
(angle of contact = 0°) 2.44 cm

Solution:
60. Surface tension phenomenon is result of tendency of system to keep potential energy minimum

UNIT-8 HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS

01. The coefficient of volume expansion of a solid is x times the coefficient of superficial expansion.
Then x is 1.5

;
02. A solid metal ball has a spherical cavity. If the ball is heated, the volume of the cavity will increase
03. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The hole will expand
04. The length of metal rod at 0°C is 0.5m. When it is heated, its length increases by 2.7 mm. The final
temperature of rod is (coefficient of linear expansion of metal = 90 × 106/°C) 60°C

Solution: lt = l0(1 + αt)

05. A bimetal made of copper and iron strips welded together is straight at room temperature. It is
held vertically with iron strip towards left and copper strip towards right. If this bimetal is
heated, it will bend towards left
Solution: Since αcopper > αiron, the bimetal will bend towards iron, i.e., towards left.
06. When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, its volume first decreases and then increases.
07. A block of wood is floating on water at 0°C with a certain volume V above water level. The
temperature of water is slowly raised to 20°C. How does the volume V change with the rise of
temperature? increase till 4°C and then decrease.
Solution: The density of water increases from 0° to 4°C and then decreases. Therefore, the
volume V of the block above water level will increase till 4°C and then decrease.
08. An iron tyre is to be fitted on a wooden wheel 0.1m in diameter. The diameter of the tyre is 6 mm
smaller than that of the wheel. The tyre should be heated by a temperature of (coefficient of
volume expansion of iron is 3.6 × 10-5/°C) 167°C
Solution:

09. A steel rod of length 25 cm has a cross-sectional area of 0.8 cm2. The force required to stretch this
rod by the same amount as the expansion produced by heating it through 10°C is (coefficient
of linear expansion of steel is 10 51°C and Young’s modulus of steel is 2 × 1010 N/m2) 160N
Solution: The required force is given by

10. Which of the following will make the volume of an ideal gas four times?
(a) double the absolute temperature and double the pressure.
(b) Halve the absolute temperature and double the pressure.
(c) Quarter the absolute temperature at constant pressure.
(d) Quarter the pressure at constant temperature.
11. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure so as to double its volume. The temperature
of the gas becomes 327°C

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 Solution:

12. An air bubble doubles in radius on rising from bottom of lake to its surface. If atmospheric
pressure is equal to that of column of water of height H, depth of lake is 7H
Solution: Since the radius becomes double, the volume becomes eight times. Therefore,
according to Boyle’s law, the pressure becomes one-eighth. Now, the pressure at the surface
Hρg. Therefore pressure at the bottom must be 8 Hρg. Hence the depth of the lake is 7H.
13. The mass of 1 litre of helium under a pressure of 2 atm and at a temperature of 27°C is 0.32 g

14. Pressure exerted by perfect gas is equal to two-thirds of mean kinetic energy per unit volume

15. Two vessels A and B contain the same ideal gas. The volume of B is twice that of A, the pressure in
B is twice that in A and the temperature of B is twice that of A. The ratio of the number of gas
molecules in A and B is 1 : 2

16. According to Boyle’s law, PV = C when the temperature of the gas remains constant. The value of
C depends on both temperature and quantity of the gas.
17. The pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by 1°C. The
initial temperature was 25 K

18. A temperature difference of 25°C is equivalent to a temperature difference of 45°F

19. A temperature at which both Fahrenheit & centigrade scales have same value is – 40°

Solution: Let the required temperature be t. then,

20. If the temperature of patient is 40°C, his temperature on the Fahrenheit scale will be 104°F

21. The correct value of 0°C on the Kelvin scale is 273.15 K

22. When a gas in a closed vessel was heated so as to increase its temperature by 5°C, there occurred
an increase of 1% in its pressure, the original temperature of the gas was 227°C

23. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure so as to double its volume. The temperature
of the gas will be 327°C

24. Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of ……

(a) length & mass (b) mass & time (c) length, mass & time (d) none of these
25. The equation of state corresponding to 8 g of O2 is PV = RT/4
Soln: 8g of O2 is 1/4 of mole of O2, which is 32g. Thus, required equation of state is PV = ¼ RT.
26. At a given volume and temperature, the pressure of a gas varies linearly as its mass
27. Oxygen boils at -183°C. This temperature in Fahrenheit scale is – 297.4°

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

 Solution:
28. A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in boiling water. The water temperature is
lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer registers 140°. What is the decrease in temperature
as registered by the centigrade thermometer? 40°

Solution:
29. The change in temperature of a body is 50°C. The change on the kelvin scale is 50K
30. Mercury thermometers can be used to measure temperature up to 360°C
31. For an ideal gas the inter particle interaction is zero
32. Device used to measure very high temperature is Pyrometer
33. Two metal rods A and B are having their initial lengths in the ratio 2 : 3, and coefficients of linear
expansion in the ratio 3 : 4. When they are heated through same temperature difference,the
ratio of their linear expansions is 1 : 2

34. Boyles’ law is applicable in isothermal process

35. A rod, when heated from 0°C to 50°C, expands by 1.0 mm. Another rod, twice as long as first at
0°C & of same material, is heated from 0°C to 25°C. Second rod will expand by 1.0 mm

36. A container contains hydrogen gas at pressure P and temperature T. Another identical container
contains helium gas at pressure 2P and temperature T/2. The ratio of the number of molecules
of the two gases is 1 : 4
Solution: The ratio of the number of molecules is same as the ratio of the number of moles.
Now n = PV/RT

37. Density of water is maximum at the temperature of 39.2°F

Solution: The density of water is maximum at 4°C. Let F be the corresponding temperature on
the Fahrenheit scale. Then using the equation

38. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a
volume V, is (R is the gas constant) PV = (5/32) RT
Solution: Number of moles, n = 5/32
39. A bimetallic strip consists of metals X and Y. It is mounted rigidly at the base as shown. The metal
X has a higher coefficient of expansion compared to that for metal Y. When the bimetallic strip
is placed in a cold bath?

it will bend towards the left.

Solution: In cold bath, the metal X will contract more than the metal Y. Therefore, the strip will
bend towards the left.
40. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant coefficient of volume expansion of gas is 3/T
Solution:

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

41. A metallic solid sphere is rotating about its diameter as axis of rotation. If the temperature is
increased by 200°C, the percentage increase in its moment of inertia is: (coefficient of linear
expansion of the metal = 10-5/°C) 0.4

42. The difference between volume and pressure coefficients of an ideal gas is Zero
43. Which of the following instruments is used in the measurement of temperatures above 2000°C?
(a) Gas thermometer (b) Pyrometer (c) Bolometer (d) Thermo-electric Pile
44. At 0°C, Pressure measured by barometer is 760 mm. What will be the pressure at 100°C?
(a) 760 (b) 730 (c) 780 (d) none of these

45. The temperature on new scale, corresponding to temperature of 39°C on Celsius scale? 117°W
Solution: Let t be the required temperature. Then,

46. Two balloons are filled, one with pure He gas & other with air. If pressure & temperature in both
balloons are same the number of molecules per unit volume is same in both the balloons.
Solution: Assuming ideal gas behavior, the number of moles per unit volume is n/V=P/RT Since
P and T are same in both the balloon, n/V is also same in both.
47. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is effect on kinetic
energy of molecules? no change
Solution: K.E of an ideal gas depends only on the temperature. Hence, it remains the same.
48. One mole of gas occupies a volume of 200 ml. at 100 mm pressure. What is the volume occupied
by two moles of this gas at 400 mm pressure and at same temperature? 100 ml

Solution:
⇒ Volume of 2 moles of the gas at 400 mm pressure = 2 × 50 = 100 ml
49. There is a change in length when a 33000 N tensile force is applied on a steel rod of area of cress-
section 10-3 m2. The change of temperature required to produce the same elongation, if the
steel rod is heated, is (modulus of elasticity of steel = 3 × 1011 N/m2, coefficient of linear
expansion of steel = 1.1 × 10-5/°C) 10°C

Solution:
50. In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2? P2 < P1

51. Boiling water is changing into steam. Under this condition specific heat of water is infinite
Solution: In order to change boiling water into steam, heat has to be given but there is no
increase of temperature. Therefore, under this condition the specific heat of water is infinite.
52. The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with the conservation of energy
53. The gas law PV/T = constant is true for both isothermal and adiabatic changes
54. The pressure-temperature relationship for an ideal gas undergoing adiabatic change is …..
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
 p1−γTγ = constant
55. For a certain gas the ratio of specific heats is given to be γ = 1.5. For this gas CP = 3R

Solution: ;
56. Cooking takes longest time at mount Everest (if tried)
57. A closed bottle containing water at room temperature is taken to the moon and then the lid is
opened. The water will boil
Solution: There is no atmosphere on the moon and so there is no pressure
58. A gas receives an amount of heat equal to 110 joules and performs 40 joules of work. The change
in the internal energy of the gas is 70 J
59. For a mono-atomic gas, the molar specific heat at constant pressure divided by the molar gas
constant R, is equal to 2.5
60. Heat capacity of a substance is infinite. It means …….
no change in temperature whether heat is taken in or given out

61. We consider a thermodynamic system. If ∆U represent the increase in its energy and W the work
done by the system, which of the following statements is true?
∆U = – W in an adiabatic process
Solution: According to the first law of thermodynamics ∆Q = AU + W
In an adiabatic process, ∆Q = 0. Therefore, ∆U = – W
62. The first operation involved in a carnot cycle is isothermal expansion
63. During an adiabatic process, if the pressure of an ideal gas is proportional to the cube of its
temperature, the ratio γ=CP/CV is 3/2

Solution: ;
64. In given process on an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for gas temperature will decrease.
Solution: According to the first law of thermodynamics, the internal energy decreases. Hence
the temperature will decrease.
65. In a carnot heat engine 8000J of heat is absorbed from a source at 400 K and 6500 J of heat is
rejected to the sink. The temperature of the sink is 325 K

66. 2 Kg of water of 60°C is mixed with 1 kg of water at 30°C kept in a vessel of heat capacity 220 JK-1.
The specific heat of water is 4200 J Kg-1K ‘. Then the final temperature is nearly 50°C
Solution: According to the principle of calorimetry,

67. A carnot engine absorbs heat at 127°C & rejects heat at 87°C. The efficiency of engine is 10%

Solution:
68. The first law of thermodynamics confirms the law of conservation of energy
69. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on only temperature
70. An ideal gas heat engine operators in carnot’s cycle between 227°C & 127°C. It absorbs 6 × 104J at
high temperature. The amount of heat converted into work is 1.2 × 104J

;
71. In an isochoric process ∆U = ∆Q
Solution: In an isochoric process, volume remains constant. Therefore, no work is done by or on
the system. So, ∆W = 0 Hence ∆U = ∆Q.
72. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2) R. The ratio specific heats at
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
 constant pressure to that at constant volume is 7/5

Solution:
73. If energy dQ is supplied to a gas isochorically, increase in internal energy is dU. Then dQ = dU
74. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a camot engine as the working substance. If during the adiabatic
expansion part of the cycle, the volume of the gas increases from V to 32 V, the efficiency of
the engine is 0.75

; ; ;
75. The mechanical equivalent of heat J is: a conversion factor
76. Which of the following process is reversible?
(a) transfer of heat by radiation (b) Transfer of heat by conduction
(c) Electrical heating of nichrome wire (d) Isothermal compression
77. An ideal gas heat engine operates in camot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 × 10 4 cal
of heat converted to work is 1.2 × 104 cal

;
78. Ten moles of an ideal gas at constant temperature 600 K is compressed from 100 l to 10 L. The
work done in the process is -11.4 × 104 J
Solution: The process is isothermal. The work done is,

79. A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of 50 N/m2 from a volume 4 m3. Energy of 100 J is
then added to the gas by heating. Its internal energy is increased by 400 J
Solution: ∆U = ∆Q – ∆W = ∆Q – P∆V = 100 – 50 (4 – 10) = 400 J
80. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the work done in
a closed cyclic process, then E = 0
Solution: In a cyclic process, a system starts in one state and comes back to the same state.
Therefore, the change in internal energy is zero.
81. A carnot engine takes heat from a reservoir at 627°C and rejects heat to a sink at 27°C. Its
efficiency is 2/3
82. A carnot engine operates with source at 127°C and sink at 27°C. If the source supplies 40 KJ of
heat energy, the work done by the engine is 10 KJ

Solution:
83. The ratio of the specific heat CpCv=γ in term of degrees of freedom (n) is given by: (1+2/n)

Solution:
84. The heat required to increase the temperature of 4 moles of a mono-atomic ideal gas from 273 K
to 473 K constant volume is 1200 R

Solution:
85. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the temperature inside freezer is – 20°C, the
temperature of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is 31°C

; ;

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

 UNIT-9 KINETIC THEORY OF GASES

01. Oxygen and hydrogen gases are at the same temperature the ratio of the average K.E of an
oxygen molecule and that of a hydrogen molecule is 1
Solution: P1V1 = P2V2, if T is constant.
02. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the rms speed of the molecules of a gas is
proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature.
Solution: The rms speed of the molecules of a gas is proportional to the square root of the
absolute temperature. .
03. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas is equal to two-third of mean K.E. per unit volume.
Solution: P = 2/3 K.E. (average K.E. of the gas per unit volume).
04. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 27°C to 927°C. The root mean square speed of
its molecules becomes double

Solution: ; ;
05. Two gases are enclosed in a container at constant temperature. One of the gases, which is
diatomic, has relative molecular mass eight times the other, which is monoatomic. The ratio pf
the rms speed of the molecules of the monoatomic gas to that of the molecules of the
diatomic gas is 2√2
Solution:

06. If absolute temperature of gas is increased 3 times rms velocity of molecules will be 73 times
07. At given temperature which of following gases possesses maximum rms velocity of molecules? H2

Solution:
08. Two vessels have equal volumes. One of them contains hydrogen at one atmosphere and the
other helium at two atmospheres. If both the samples are at the same temperature, the rms
velocity of the hydrogen molecules is √2 times that of the helium molecules

Solution:
09. A gas is enclosed in container which is then placed on fast moving train. Temperature of gas falls
10. The mean translational K.E. of a perfect gas molecule at absolute temperature T is
(K is Boltzmann constant) 3/2 kT
11. A jar has mixture of hydrogen and Oxygen gases in the ratio 1 : 5. The ratio of mean kinetic
energies of hydrogen and Oxygen molecules is 1 : 1
Solution: The mean kinetic energy depends only on the temperature.
12. The pressure exerted on the walls of the container by a gas is due to the fact that the gas
molecules change their momenta due to collision with the walls.
13. Pressure exerted by a gas is directly proportional to the density of the gas
14. Four molecules have speed 2 km/s, 3 km/s, 4 km/s and 5 km/s. The rms speed of these molecules

in km/s is
15. A real gas behaves as an ideal gas at low pressure and high temperature
16. The kinetic theory of gases breaks down most at high pressure and low temperature
17. Two different ideal gases are enclosed in two different vessels at the same pressure. If ρ 1 and ρ2
are their densities and v1 and v2 their rms speeds, respectively then is equal to √(ρ2/ρ1)
18. A cylinder of capacity 20 litres is filled with hydrogen gas. The total average K.E. of translatory
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
 motion of its molecules is 1.5 × 105 J. The pressure of hydrogen in cylinder is 5 × 106 Nm-2

Solution:
19. The molecular weights of oxygen and hydrogen are 32 and 2, respectively. The rms velocities of
their molecules at a given temperatures, will be in the ratio 1 : 4

Solution:
20. The average energy of a molecules of a monoatomic gas at temperature T is
(K Boltzmann constant) 3/2kT
21. The temperature at which the molecules of nitrogen will have the same rms velocity as the
molecules of oxygen at 127° C is 77°C
Solution: Let the required temperature be T. Then

22. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27°C to 927°C. The root mean square speed of its
molecules gets doubled

Solution:
23. The temperature at which the K.E of a gas molecules is double its value at 27°C is 327°C

Solution:
24. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K the root mean square
velocity of the gas molecules is v, at 480 K it becomes 2v

Solution:
25. The avg translational K.E. of O2(molar mass 32) molecules at particular temperature is 0.048 eV.
The translational K.E. of N2 (molar mass 28) molecules in eV at the same temperature is 0.048
Solution: Average translational K.E. of a gas molecule = 3/2 kT.
It is independent of molecular mass.
26. The K.E. of one mole of a gas at normal temperature & pressure is 3.4 × 103J

Solution:
27. The average K.E. of hydrogen gas molecule at STP will be (Boltzmann constant KB= 1.38×10-23 JK-1)
0.56 × 10-20 J

Solution:
28. Vrms of particles of fume of mass 5×10-17 kg executing Brownian motion in air at STP is 1.5 cms-1

Solution: ;
29. To what temperature should hydrogen at room temperature (27°C) be heated at constant pressure
so that RMS velocity of its molecules becomes double its previous value? 927°C

Solution:
30. A vessel contains oxygen at 400 K. Another similar vessel contains an equal mass of hydrogen at
300K. The ratio of the rms speeds of molecules of hydrogen and oxygen is 2√3

Solution:
31. A chamber contains a mixture of helium gas (He) and hydrogen gas (H 2). The ratio of the root-
mean-square speeds of the molecules of He and H2 is 1/√2

Solution:
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
32. On colliding with walls in closed container, ideal gas molecules transfer momentum to walls
33. The speeds of 5 molecules of a gas (in arbitrary units) are as follows: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 The root mean
square speed for these molecule is 4.24

Solution:
34. At absolute zero temperature, the K.E. of the molecules becomes zero
35. If Vrms of molecules of a gas is 1000 ms-1 average speed of the molecule is 922 ms-1

; ;
36. The gas having average molecular speed four times that of SO 2 (molecular mass 64) is
He (molecular mass 4)

Solution:

UNIT-10 OSCILLATIONS

01. The total energy of a particle vibrating in SHM is proportional to the square of its velocity
02. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum its length should be quadrupled.
03. A simple harmonic oscillator has amplitude A and time period T. Its maximum speed is 2πA/T

Solution:
04. A simple harmonic oscillator has a period of 0.01 s and an amplitude of 0.2 m. The magnitude of
the velocity in m/s at the centre of oscillation is 40π m/s
Solution: Velocity is maximum at the centre of oscillation and is given by

05. A particle is executing SHM. Then graph of acceleration as function of displacement is ……..
straight line
Solution: In SHM, F ∝ y ⇒ a ∝ y; Thus the graph is a straight line.
06. A particle is executing SHM. Then the graph of velocity as a function of displacement is ellipse

Solution:
07. The amplitude of vibrating body situated in resisting medium decreases exponentially with time
08. The frequency of a vibrating body situated in air is lower than its natural frequency

09. The equation represents the equation of motion for a damped vibration
10. The displacement equation of an oscillator is y = 5 sin (0.2 7 πt + 0.5 π) in SI units. The time period
of oscillation is 10 s
Solution: Comparing with the standard equation y = A sin (ωt + φ)

11. A loaded spring vibrates with a period T. The spring is divided into four equal parts and the same
load is suspended from one as these parts. The new time period is T/2
Solution: Let the force constant of the spring be k. Then T = 2π√(m/k)
If the spring is divided into four equal parts, then the force constant of each part will be 4k.

12. The vertical extension in a light spring by a weight of 1 kg, in equilibrium is 9.8 cm. The period of
oscillation of the spring, in seconds, will be 2π/10

Solution:
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
13. A particle executing SHM has an acceleration of 64 cm/s2 with its displacement is 4 cm. Its time
period, in seconds is π/2

Solution:
14. A body executes SHM with an amplitude A. Its energy is half kinetic and half potential when the
displacement is A/√2

Solution: ;
15. The maximum displacement of a particle executing SHM is 1 cm and the maximum acceleration is
(1.57)2 cm/s2. Its time period is 4.0s

Solution:
16. The velocity of a particle, undergoing SHM is v at the mean position. If its amplitude is doubled,
the velocity at the mean position will be 2 v

Solution:
17. A girl is swinging on a swing in the sitting position. How will the period of swing be affected if she
stands up? The period will now be shorter
Solution: The effective value of I will decrease. Therefore, the time period will be shorter.

18. The equation of SHM of a particle is where k is a positive constant. The time period
of motion is given by 2π/√k
Solution: Here k is same as ω2
19. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes half in one minute. The amplitude after 3 minutes
will be 1x time the original, where x is 23
Solution: The amplitude decreases exponentially with time and becomes half in 1 minute.
Amplitude after 3 minutes = (1/2)3 of the original value. Thus, x = 23
20. When the potential energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is one-fourth of its
maximum value during the oscillation, the displacement of the particle from the equilibrium
position in terms of its amplitude a is a/2

Solution:
21. A massless spring, having force constant k, oscillates with a frequency n when a mass m is
suspended from it. The spring is cut into two equal halves and a mass 2m is suspended from
one of the parts. The frequency of oscillation will now be
For a simple pendulum the graph between length and time period will be n

Solution:
22. For a simple pendulum the graph between the length and time period will be a Parabola

23. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion given by The velocity of the
particle when its displacement is 3 units is 16 units

Solution:
24. When a particle oscillates simple harmonically, its potential energy varies periodically. If the
frequency of oscillation of the particle is n, the frequency of potential energy variation is 2n
25. A particle, moving along the x-axis, executes simple harmonic motion when the force acting on it
is given by (A and k are positive constants.) – Akx

26. The motion of a particle is expressed by the equation a = -bx, where x is the displacement from

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

 the mean position, a is the acceleration and b is a constant. The periodic time is ………

27. The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple pendulum are ω and a, respectively. The ratio

of its kinetic and potential energies at a displacement x from the mean position is

Solution:
28. A particle is oscillating according to the equation x = 5 cos (0.5 π t) where t is in seconds. The
particle moves from the position of equilibrium to the position of maximum displacement in
time 1 s

Solution: Time taken to move from the position of equilibrium to the

position of maximum displacement is t = T/4 = 1s
29. A seconds pendulum is placed in space laboratory orbiting around Earth at height 3R from
Earth’s surface where R is radius of Earth. The time period of pendulum will be infinite

Solution:
30. A mass m is vertically suspended from a spring of negligible mass; the system oscillates with a
frequency n. What will be the frequency of the system, if a mass 4m is suspended from the
same spring? n/2

Solution:
31. Two simple pendulums of lengths 0.5m and 2.0m respectively are given small linear displacement
in one direction at the same time. They will again be in phase when the pendulum of shorter
length has completed 2 oscillations.
Solution: The time period of the shorter pendulum is half that of the longer pendulum.
Therefore, the pendulums will again be in phase ( at the mean position). When the shorter
pendulum has completed 2 oscillations.
32. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency 2 rod/sec. The velocity of
the body at 20mm displacement, when the amplitude of motion is 60mm, is 113 mm/s

Solution:
33. If the displacement of a particle executing SHM, is given by y = 0.30 sin (220t + 0.64) in metre,
then frequency & maximum velocity of the particle are (t is in seconds) 35 Hz, 66 m/s

Solution:
34. The kinetic energy of a particle, executing SHM, is 16 J when it is at its mean position. If the
amplitude of oscillations is 25 cm, and the mass of the particle is 5.12 kg, the time period of its
oscillation is π/5 s

Solution: ;
35. A particle of mass m is executing oscillations about the origin on the x-axis. Its potential energy is
V(x) = kx2 .Where k is a positive constant. If the amplitude of oscillation is a, then its time
period T is independent of a
Solution: Since V(x) = Kx2, the motion is simple harmonic. In SHM, the time period is
independent of the amplitude of oscillation.
36. The amplitude of a damped oscillation reduces to one third of its original value a0 in 20s. The
amplitude of such oscillation after a period of 40s will be a0/9
Solution: In the first 20s, the amplitude reduces to one-third of the original value, i.e., to a0/3, In
the next 20s, it will reduce to one-third of the reduced value, i.e., to a0/9.

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

37. Masses mA & mB hanging from ends of strings of lengths lA & lB are executing. Simple harmonic
motions. If their frequencies are related as fA= 2fB, then lA = lB/4 regardless of masses.

Solution:
38. Two simple harmonic motions act on a particle. These harmonic motions are x = A cos (ωt + δ);

y = A cos (ωt + α) When the resulting motion is a circle and the actual motion is
counter clockwise

Squaring and adding the two equations, We get x2 + y2 = A2. This is an equation of a circle.
Hence the resultant motion is circular. The motion is counter clockwise.
39. A metal bob is suspended from a coiled spring. When set into vertical vibrations on the earth. It
oscillates up and down with frequency f If the same experiment is carried out in a satellite
circling the Earth the frequency of vibration will be f
Solution: The frequency of oscillation of a mass spring system depends only on the mass and
the spring constant.
40. In forced oscillations of a particle, the amplitude is maximum for a frequency ω1 of the force, while
the energy is maximum for a frequency ω2 of the force. Then ω1 = ω2
41. Which one of the following statements is true for the speed v and the acceleration a of a particle
executing simple harmonic motion?
(a) When v is maximum, a is maximum (b) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the value of v
(c) When v is zero, a is zero (d) When v is maximum, a is zero
Solution:
42. The function sin2(ωt) represents a simple harmonic motion with a period π/ω

43. A particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy K0 cos2ωt. The maximum
values of the potential energy and the total energy are, respectively k0 and k0
44. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 31.4 cm/s. The frequency of its
oscillation is 1 Hz

;
45. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
simple harmonic motion is 0.5π
46. Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion?
(a) Acceleration = – k0x + k1x2 (b) Acceleration = – k(x + a)
(c) Acceleration = k(x + a) (d) Acceleration = kx
47. Which of the following functions represent SHM?

(a) I and III (b) I and II (c) only I (d) I, II and III
48. Two simple harmonic motions of angular frequencies 100 and 1000 rad/s have the same
displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum accelerations is 1 : 102
Solution: The magnitude of the maximum acceleration is given by

49. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T in a stationary lift. If the lift moves upwards
with an acceleration of 8g, the period will increase by T/3
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
 Solution: Thus, the new time period is T/3. Hence the correct option is (d).
50. A simple harmonic oscillator consist of a particle of mass m and an ideal spring with spring
constant k The particle oscillates with a time period T. The spring is cut into two equal parts. If
one part oscillates with the same particle, the time period will be T/√2

Solution:
If the spring is cut into two equal parts, the force constant of each part becomes 2k. Therefore,

51. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s.
The frequency of its oscillation is 1 Hz

Solution:

UNIT-11 WAVES

01. Mechanical Waves can be both longitudinal and transverse.

02. Sound whose frequency is 50 Hz? has a relatively short wavelength.
03. Sound travels fastest in steel
04. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves of velocity 25m/s, having crests 100 m apart. The boat
bounches up once in every 4.0s
Hint: λ = distance between crests = 100 m frequency v = 25/100=1/4s−1
Therefore, the crests reach the boat once every 4 seconds.
05. Choose the correct statement:
(a) sound waves are transverse waves
(b) sound travels fastest through vaccum.
(c) sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
(d) sound travels faster in gases than in liquids.
06. Transverse waves can propagate ……
(a) both in a gas and in a metal (b) in a gas but not in a metal
(c) not in a gas but in a metal (d) neither in a gas nor in a metal
07. The speed of the wave represented by y = A sin(ωt – kx) is ω/k
08. The equation of a wave travelling in a string can be written as y = 3 cos {π(100t – x)} where y and x
are in cm and t is in seconds. Then the value of wavelength is 2 cm
Hint: On comparing given equation with y = A cos (kx – ωt), we get

09. A wave of frequency 500 Hzhas a velocity 300 m/s. The distance between two nearest points which
are 60° out of phase, is 0.1 cm

10. The equation of a wave travelling on a string is , where x, y are in cm and t

in seconds. The velocity of the waves is 64 cm/s in + x direction to S

11. The equation of a wave is where y, x are in cm and t in seconds. The

amplitude wavelength, velocity and frequency of the wave are, respectively, …….
4 cm, 32 cm, 16 cm/s, 0.5 Hz
12. The diagram shows profile of a wave, which of following pairs of points are in phase? B, E

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

13. Ultrasonic waves are those waves which human beings cannot hear
14. A transverse wave of amplitude 0.5m, wavelength 1 m and frequency 2Hz is propogating in a
string in the negative x direction. The equation of this wave is y = 0.5 sin (2πx + 4πt)
Hint: y = A sin(kx + ωt) Here A = 0.5 m

15. With the rise of temperature, the speed of sound in a gas increases
16. Speed of sound in a gas in proportional to square root of adiabatic elasticity
17. The velocity of sound in are is not affected by change in the atmospheric pressure
18. A longitudinal wave is described by the equation y = y0 sin 2π (ft – x/λ). The maximum particle

velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if

19. If v0 & v denote sound velocity & rms velocity of the molecules in a gas, then

20. With the propagation of a longitudinal wave through a material medium, the quantities
transferred in the direction of propagation are energy and momentum
21. If the amplitude of sound is doubled and the frequency reduced to one-fourth, the intensity will
decrease by a factor of 4

22. When a source of sound is in motion towards a stationary observer, the effect observed is
increase in frequency of sound only
23. The apparent wavelength of the light from a star, moving away from the earth, is 0.01% more than
its real wave length. The speed of the star with respect to the earth is 30 km/s

24. The frequency of radar is 780 MHz. When it is reflected from an approaching aeroplane
opponent frequency is more than actual frequency by 2.6 kHz. Speed of aeroplane is 0.5 km/s

25. The temperature at which speed of sound in air becomes double its value at 27°C is 927°C

26. The equation of a transverse wave is given by y = 10 sin{π(0.01x – 2t)} where y and x are in cm and
t is in seconds. Its frequency is 1 s-1
Hint: Comparing with the standard equation y = A sin(kx – ωt),

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

27. When sound waves travel from air to water, which of following remains constant? frequency
28. The speed of sound in O2 is 332 m/s at STP. The speed of sound in H2 at STP will be 1328 m/s

;
29. If va, vh, & vm are speeds of sound in air, hydrogen & metal at same temperature, then vm>vh>va
30. Ultrasonic waves can be detected by Kundt’s tube
31. The velocity of sound in a gas depends on density and elasticity of gas
32. When sound waves travel from air to water, which of these remains constant? frequency
33. When a wave goes from one medium to another, there is a change in
(a) velocity (b) amplitude (c) wavelength (d) all the above
34. The equation of sound wave is y = 0.0015 sin (62.8x + 316t). Find wave length of above 0.1 units

35. Red shift is an illustration of Doppler effect

36. The ratio of the velocity of sound in a monatomic gas to that in a triatomic gas having same molar
mass, under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, is 1.12

37. Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upon the velocity of the source from the listener.
38. If the density of oxygen is 16 times that of hydrogen, what will be the ratio of the velocities of
sound in them? 1 : 4

39. Pitch of sound depends on frequency

40.

41. Which of the following equations represents a wave?

(a) y = A(ωt – kx) (b) y = A sin ωt (c) y = A cos kx (d) y = A sin (at – bx + c)
42. A wave travels in a medium according to the equation of displacement given by
y(x, t) = 0.03 sin{π(2t – 0.01 x)} where y and x are in metres and t in seconds. The wave length of
the wave is 200 m

43. The equation of a wave moving on string is y = 8 sin{π(0.002 x – 4t)} where x, y are in centimeter
and t in seconds. The velocity of the wave is 200 cm/s

44. If the velocity of sound in air is 340 ms-1, a person singing a note of frequency 250 cps is
producing sound waves with a wavelength of 1.36

45. As a transverse wave strikes against a fixed end its phase changes by 180°, but velocity does
not change
46. A source of sounds is travelling with a velocity of 40 km/hr towards an observer and emits sound
of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/hr, then what is the apparent
frequency heard by the observer? 2068 Hz

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

47. A vehicle with a horn of frequency n is moving with a velocity of 30m/s in a direction
perpendicular to the straight line joining the observer and the vehicle. The observer perceives
the sound to have a frequency n + n1. Then (if the sound velocity in air is 300 m/s) n1 = 0
Hint: No Doppler effect is observed if the source moves perpendicular to the line joining the
source and the observer. Therefore, the correct choice is (b).
48. The Doppler effect is applicable for ……..
(a) light waves (b) sound waves (c) space waves (d) both (a) and (b)
49. The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 m/s. If 3600 waves are passing through a point in the
medium in 2 minutes, then its wavelength is 25.3 m

50. If a sound wave travels from air to water, the quantity that remain unchanged is frequency
51. As a spherical wave propagates, The wave intensity decreases as the inverse square of the
distance from the source.
52. A source of sound and a listener are approaching each other with a speed of 40ms-1.The apparent
frequency of a note produced by the source is 400 Hz. Then its true frequency is (velocity of
sound in air = 360 ms-1) 320 Hz

53. Sound waves of wavelength greater than that of audible sound are called infrasonic waves
54. The frequency of a sound wave is/and its velocity is v. If the frequency is increased to 4 f the
velocity of the wave will be: v
Hint: The velocity is a characteristic of the medium and, therefore, it remains constant.
55. Which of the following statement is untrue? The velocity of sound in a gas …….
(a) is independent of pressure (b) increases with increase in temperature
(c) is dependent on molecular weight (d) is greater in dry air than in moist air
56. When a stone is dropped on the surface of still water, the waves produced are …….
Partly longitudinal and partly transverse.
57. The equation of a wave is y = 0.1 sin (100πt – kx) where x, y are in metres and t in seconds. If – the
velocity of the wave is 100 m/s, then the value of k is πm-1
58. A transverse wave propagating on a stretched string of linear density 3 × 10 -4 kgm-1 is represented
by the equation, y = 0.2 sin (1.5x + 60t) Where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The tension in
the string (in newtons) is: 0.48

59. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by where

x is in metres and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is 8m/s

60. Two waves represented by the following equation are travelling in the same medium:
y1 = 5 sin 2π (75t – 0.25 x) and y2 = 10 sin 2π (150 – 0.25x) The intensity ratio of the two waves
is 1 : 4

61. A point source emits sound equally in all direction is a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and
Q are at distances of 2m and 3m, respectively, from the source. The ratio of the intensities of
the waves at P and Q is 9 : 4

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

62. The waves produced by a motor boat sailing in water are longitudinal and transverse
63. Doppler effect in sound is due to relative motion of source and observer
64. The velocity of sound in air at NTP is 330m/s. What will be its value when temperature is doubled
and pressure is halved? 330/√2
Hint: There is no effect of change of pressure on the velocity of sound in air. Further, v ∝ √T
65. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength
of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air increase by a factor 10
Hint: Since the frequency remains the same, we have

66. A train moving at speed of 220 m/s towards stationary object, emits sound of frequency 1000 Hz.
Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency
of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is 5000 Hz

67. A source of sounds emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are located at same
distance from each other The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms-1 at an angle of 60°
with the source-observer line as shown in the figure. The observer is at rest. The apparent
frequency observed by the observer (velocity of sound in air 330 ms-1) is 103 Hz

68. Beats occur because of interference

69. A vibrating stretched string resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz when the length of
the string is 0.5 m. The length of the string required to vibrate resonantly with a tuning fork of
frequency 256 Hz would be 1.0 m

70. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The tube is dipped
vertically in water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is
now f
Hint: When the tube is dipped in water, it become a closed pipe of length L/2. Its fundamental

frequency is
71. With the increase in temperature, the frequency of the found from an organ pipe increase
Hint: Frequency ∝ v/L. Now v and L both increase with temperature but increase of v is much
more than the increase of L which is negligible. Thus frequency increases with temperature.
72. Two waves of the same frequency and amplitude super impose to produce a resultant disturbance
of the same amplitude. The phase difference between the waves is 2π/3
Hint: Let the amplitude of each wave be A and phase difference between them be φ. Then,

73. A sonometer wire is vibrating in second overtone. In wire there are four nodes & three antinodes
74. If a resonance tube is sounded with a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz, resonance occurs at 35 cm
and 105 cm. The velocity of sound is about 358 m/s
Hint:
75. A wave of frequency 100 Hz is sent along a string towards a fixed end when this wave travels back

SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592

 after reflection, a node is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the fixed end of the string. The
speed of the incident wave is 20 m/s
Hint: The fixed end is also a node distance between two nodes = λ/2 = 10 cm
or λ = 20 cm = 0.2 cm
Speed v = fλ = 100 × 0.2 = 20 m/s
76. A standing wave is represented by y = A sin (100t) cos (0.01x) where y and A are in millimetres, t in
seconds and x in metres. The velocity of the wave is 104 m/s

77. Two waves of the same frequency and intensity superimpose with each other in opposite phases.
Then after superposition the ……
(a) intensity increases to four times (b) intensity increase to two times
(c) frequency increases to four times (d) none of the above
Hint: Since the waves are in opposite phases, the resultant intensity will be zero. The frequency
remains the same. So, the correct choice is (d).
78. Two open organ pipes of lengths 50 cm and 50.5 cm produce 3 beats/s. Then the velocity of
sound is 303 m/s

79. If the ratio of the amplitudes of two waves is 4 : 3, then the ratio of maximum and minimum
intensities is 49 : 1
80. An air column in a pipe, which is closed at one end, will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning
fork of frequency 256 Hz, if the length of the column in centimeter is 33.2
(velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s)

Hint:
81.Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 cm and 5.5 cm, respectively each propagate in a gas with
velocity 330 m/s. The number of beats per second will be 6

Hint:
82. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given be y1 =4 sin 500 πt and
y2 = 2 sin 506 πt where t is in seconds number of beats produced per minute is 180

Hence frequency of beats = f2 – f1= {506/2} – {500/ 2}= 6/2= 3

∴ No of beats heard per minute = 3 × 60= 180
83. The ratio of intensities of two waves is 16 : 9. If they produce interference, then the ratio of
maximum and minium intensities will be 49 : 1

;
84. A closes organ pipe of length 20 cm is sounded with a tuning fork in resonance. What is the
frequency of the tuning fork? (v = 332 m/s) 415 Hz
Hint: In resonance, the frequency of the fork is equal to the frequency of the organ pipe,

85. In a resonance tube, the first resonance is obtained at 40 cm length, using a tuning fork of
frequency 450 Hz. Ignoring end correction, the velocity of sound in air is 720 m/s

86. If we study vibration of pipe open at both ends, then which of following statement is not true?
SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592
 (a) open end will be antinode
(b) odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
(c) all harmonics of the fundamental
(d) pressure change will be maximum at both ends.
Hint: Pressure change at open ends is zero.
87. The fundamental frequency of closes organ pipe of length 20 cm is equal to second overtone
of an organ pipe open at both ends. The length of organ pipe open at both ends is 120 cm

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SHANTHA KUMAR M, PGT PHYSICS, ACHYUTA ACADEMY-DGL, 9487050592