BIOLOGY 68 MCQs

01. Which structure transports sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct
A) Rete testis
B) Vas deferens
C) Efferent ducts
D) Urethra

02. A man undergoes a vasectomy. Which process is directly disrupted?

A) Testosterone production
B) Sperm maturation
C) Sperm transport

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D) Seminal fluid secretion

03. Which gland secretes alkaline fluid to neutralize vaginal acidity?

A) Seminal vesicle
B) Prostate gland
C) Bulbourethral gland
D) Epididymis

04. During ovulation, the oocyte is released from which structure?

A) Corpus luteum
B) Graafian follicle
C) Primary follicle
D) Endometrium

05. A woman has a luteal phase defect. Which hormone is likely deficient?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) FSH
D) LH

06. Which layer of the uterus is shed during menstruation?

A) Myometrium
B) Perimetrium
C) Endometrium
D) Cervix

07. How many chromosomes do spermatids have?

A) 23
B) 46
C) 92
D) 12

08. Why does oogenesis produce only one functional ovum?

A) To conserve energy
B) Polar bodies degenerate
C) To ensure genetic diversity
D) Hormonal regulation

09. A primary oocyte arrested in prophase I resumes division at:

A) Puberty
B) Fertilization
C) Menarche

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D) Ovulation

10. Which hormone triggers the LH surge?

A) Rising progesterone
B) Peak estrogen
C) Low FSH
D) Inhibin

11. In males, inhibin directly suppresses:

A) Testosterone
B) FSH
C) LH
D) GnRH

12. hCG in pregnancy mimics which hormone?

A) FSH
B) LH
C) Progesterone
D) Estrogen

13. The acrosome reaction helps sperm:

A) Swim faster
B) Penetrate the zona pellucida
C) Survive in the uterus
D) Fuse with the egg nucleus

14. Implantation occurs approximately how many days after fertilization?

A) 1–2
B) 5–7
C) 14
D) 28

15. Ectopic pregnancy is life-threatening because:

A) The embryo cannot develop
B) It causes hormonal imbalance
C) Risk of rupture and hemorrhage
D) It blocks future pregnancies

16. Azoospermia refers to

A) Low sperm motility
B) Absent sperm in semen
C) Abnormal sperm shape

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D) High sperm count

17. Endometriosis causes pain due to:

A) Uterine contractions
B) Inflammation of ectopic tissue
C) Hormonal fluctuations
D) Ovarian cysts

18. PCOS is characterized by:

A) Multiple ovarian cysts
B) High progesterone
C) Regular ovulation
D) Low androgens

19. A painless genital ulcer indicates:

A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Herpes

20. Which STD is caused by a protozoan?

A) Trichomoniasis
B) HIV
C) HPV
D) Hepatitis B

21. HIV cannot be transmitted via:

A) Breastfeeding
B) Mosquito bites
C) Unprotected sex
D) Blood transfusion

22. In IVF, embryos are transferred at the:

A) Zygote stage
B) Morula stage
C) Blastocyst stage
D) Gastrula stage

23. Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by:

A) 45, X
B) 47, XXY
C) 47, XYY

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D) 46, XY

24. Oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy by:

A) Blocking ovulation
B) Thickening cervical mucus
C) Inhibiting implantation
D) Both A and B

25. A man with low sperm count has a history of hot tub use. Which factor caused infertility?
A) Hormonal imbalance
B) Thermal damage to testes
C) Genetic mutation
D) Infection

26. A woman with amenorrhea and galactorrhea has elevated prolactin. Which gland is dysfunctional?
A) Ovary
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal

27. A newborn with ambiguous genitalia has 46, XX karyotype.

Which prenatal hormone exposure is suspected?
A) Excess estrogen
B) Excess testosterone
C) Low progesterone
D) High FSH

28. Why does meiosis in oogenesis produce unequal cytoplasmic division?

A) To discard excess DNA
B) To conserve nutrients for one ovum
C) To prevent polyspermy
D) To ensure genetic diversity
29. Sperm cannot fertilize an egg immediately after ejaculation. Why?
A) They lack motility
B) They undergo capacitation
C) Acrosome is inactive
D) DNA is not condensed

30. Which statement about the placenta is false?

A) Produces hCG
B) Facilitates gas exchange
C) Secretes progesterone

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D) Is entirely maternal tissue

31. Spermatogenesis vs. Oogenesis: Which process begins at puberty?

A) Spermatogenesis
B) Oogenesis
C) Both
D) Neither

32. Menstrual Cycle vs. Estrous Cycle:

Which involves overt bleeding?
A) Menstrual
B) Estrous
C) Both
D) Neither

33. FSH in Males vs. Females: In males, FSH acts on:

A) Leydig cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Epididymis

34. A zygote with 47 chromosomes likely results from:

A) Non-disjunction
B) Crossing over
C) Mutation
D) Fertilization by two sperm

35. Miscarriage vs. Abortion: Which is a spontaneous event?

A) Miscarriage
B) Abortion
C) Both
D) Neither

36. Fig. 20.4 (Spermatogenesis stages)

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Q: At which labeled stage in the diagram do secondary spermatocytes undergo division to form
spermatids?
A) Stage 1 (Spermatogonia)
B) Stage 3 (Primary spermatocyte)
C) Stage 5 (Secondary spermatocyte)
D) Stage 6 (Spermatids)

37. Fig. 20.5 (Male hormonal regulation)

Q: If testosterone levels rise abruptly, what immediate effect occurs on FSH secretion?
A) Increases due to positive feedback
B) Decreases due to negative feedback
C) Remains unchanged
D) Triggers LH surge

38. Image: Fig. 20.13 (IVF steps)

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Q: Which step in the diagram ensures fertilization occurs outside the female body?
A) Egg retrieval
B) Embryo culture
C) Sperm collection
D) Embryo transfer

39. Image: Fig. 20.3 (Male duct system with highlighted testis)

Q: Based on the text, testicular cancer is most prevalent in which age group?
A) 10–20 years
B) 15–34 years
C) 40–50 years
D) 60+ years

40. At which stage does the primary oocyte arrest until puberty?

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A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase II

41. Which part of the sperm contains mitochondria for energy production?
A. Acrosome
B. Head
C. Midpiece
D. Flagellum

42. Which hormone peaks to trigger ovulation?

A. FSH
B. Estrogen
C. LH
D. Progesterone

43. Which substance is not typically exchanged through the placenta?

A. Oxygen
B. Glucose

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C. Red blood cells
D. Carbon dioxide

44. Which cell type is responsible for nourishing developing sperm cells?
A. Spermatogonia
B. Sertoli cells
C. Interstitial cells
D. Spermatocytes

45. In bryophytes, the sporophyte generation is dependent on which structure?

A. Archegonia
B. Gametophyte
C. Sporangium
D. Antheridia

46. Which plant is a short-day plant?

A. Henbane
B. Snapdragon
C. Cocklebur
D. Cucumber

47. What is the primary function of seed dormancy?

A. Enhance germination speed
B. Prevent germination during unfavorable conditions

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C. Increase nutrient storage
D. Attract pollinators

48. During the proliferative phase, the endometrium thickens due to:
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) LH
D) FSH

49. A sudden drop in which hormone triggers menstruation?

A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) FSH
D) LH

50. Which follicle type is characterized by a fluid-filled antrum?

A) Primordial
B) Primary
C) Secondary
D) Graafian

51. Atresia refers to

A) Ovulation
B) Follicle degeneration
C) Sperm production
D) Implantation failure

52. The midpiece of a sperm contains:

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Acrosome
D) Flagellum

53. Capacitation of sperm occurs in:

A) Seminiferous tubules
B) Epididymis
C) Female reproductive tract
D) Vas deferens

54. The cortical reaction prevents:

A) Sperm motility
B) Polyspermy

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C) Implantation
D) Zygote division

55. The morula stage is characterized by:

A) A hollow ball of cells
B) A solid ball of cells
C) Germ layers
D) Implantation

56. A woman with dysmenorrhea has severe menstrual cramps.

What is a likely cause?
A) High progesterone
B) Endometriosis
C) Low estrogen
D) Ovarian cysts
57. Which condition is linked to delayed puberty and anosmia (lack of smell)?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Kallmann syndrome
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) PCOS

58. Which gland contributes ~60% of semen volume?

A) Prostate gland
B) Bulbourethral gland
C) Seminal vesicle
D) Epididymis

59. If implantation occurs at the labeled site "X" (fallopian tube), what complication arises?
A) Miscarriage
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Placenta previa
D) Twins

60. During which phase does estrogen peak to trigger the LH surge?
A) Menstruation
B) Proliferative
C) Secretory
D) Luteal

61. Which sequence correctly traces sperm from the testis to the urethra?
A) Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct
B) Vas deferens → Epididymis → Rete testis

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C) Ejaculatory duct → Epididymis → Vas deferens
D) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis

62. How does endometriosis most likely cause infertility?

A) Blocks fallopian tubes
B) Destroys ovarian follicles
C) Inhibits ovulation
D) Reduces cervical mucus

63. What occurs if fertilization fails and the corpus luteum degenerates?

A) Progesterone rises
B) Endometrium sheds
C) FSH production increases
D) Estrogen spikes

64. In parthenocarpy, which hormone levels are elevated in the ovary?

A) Auxins
B) Gibberellins
C) Cytokinins
D) All of these

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65. How does a zygote differ from an ovum?
A) A zygote consists of more than one cell
B) A zygote has a diploid number of chromosomes
C) A zygote is smaller
D) A zygote is much larger

66. Which statement is incorrect?

A) Climacteric is a burst of respiratory activity in fruit ripening
B) Ovulation is the release of an egg from the ovary
C) Fertilization occurs in the uterus
D) Menstruation is the shedding of the uterine lining

67. The structure that provides nourishment to the developing embryo is the:
A) Amnion
B) Chorion
C) Placenta
D) Yolk sac

68. In humans, the gestation period is approximately:

A) 180 days
B) 240 days
C) 280 days
D) 300 days

CHEMISTRY 54 MCQs
69. The hybridization of the oxygen atom in ethanol is:
A) sp^3
B) sp^2
C) sp
D) sp^3d

70. Which alcohol has the lowest boiling point?

A) Methanol
B) Ethanol
C) Propan-1-ol
D) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol

71. Ethanol is soluble in water due to:

A) Covalent bonding
B) Hydrogen bonding
C) Ionic interactions
D) Dipole-induced dipole forces

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72. Which alcohol cannot undergo dehydration to form an alkene?
A) Ethanol
B) Propan-2-ol
C) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
D) Butan-1-ol

73. Ethanol reacts with PCl₅ to yield:

A) Chloroethane
B) Ethene
C) Diethyl ether
D) Acetaldehyde

74. Lucas reagent (ZnCl₂ + HCl) reacts fastest with:

A) Methanol
B) Ethanol
C) Propan-2-ol
D) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol

75. Oxidation of propan-2-ol with KMnO₄ produces:

A) Propanal
B) Propanoic acid
C) Acetone
D) CO₂

76. Which reagent converts ethanol to ethanal?

A) KMnO₄ (acidic)
B) PCC (pyridinium chlorochromate)
C) LiAlH₄
D) NaBH₄

77. Phenol is more acidic than ethanol because:

A) Phenol has a larger molecular size
B) Phenoxide ion is resonance-stabilized
C) Ethanol has stronger H-bonding
D) Phenol lacks an aromatic ring

78. Nitration of phenol with dilute HNO₃ produces:

A) o-Nitrophenol
B) p-Nitrophenol
C) Both A and B
D) m-Nitrophenol

79. Phenol reacts with Br₂ in CS₂ to form:

A) 2,4,6-Tribromophenol
B) o-Bromophenol
C) p-Bromophenol
D) A mixture of o- and p-bromophenol

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80. Which test confirms the presence of phenol?
A) Lucas test
B) FeCl₃ test
C) Ester test
D) Sodium bicarbonate test

81. Williamson synthesis involves:

A) Dehydration of alcohols
B) Alkoxide + Alkyl halide
C) Oxidation of aldehydes
D) Reduction of ketones

82. Diethyl ether’s boiling point is lower than ethanol’s because:

A) Ethers lack hydrogen bonding
B) Ethanol has a higher molecular weight
C) Ethers are less polar
D) Ethanol is branched

83. Ethers form oxonium salts with:

A) NaOH
B) HCl
C) KMnO₄
D) NaHCO₃

84. Which is a symmetrical ether?

A) Ethyl methyl ether
B) Diethyl ether
C) Anisole
D) Phenetole

85. Arrange by acidity: Water, Ethanol, Phenol, Acetic acid.

A) Acetic acid > Phenol > Water > Ethanol
B) Phenol > Acetic acid > Water > Ethanol
C) Acetic acid > Water > Phenol > Ethanol
D) Acetic acid > Phenol > Water > Ethanol

86. Dehydration of ethanol with H₂SO₄ at 140°C produces:

A) Ethene
B) Diethyl ether
C) Ethyl sulfate
D) Acetic acid

87. Which reaction does NOT yield phenol?

A) Hydrolysis of diazonium salt
B) Dow’s process
C) Oxidation of cumene
D) Reduction of nitrobenzene

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88. Ethylene glycol is used as antifreeze because:
A) It lowers water’s freezing point
B) It forms hydrogen bonds with water
C) It is non-toxic
D) All of the above

89. The major product of isopropyl alcohol oxidation is:

A) Acetone
B) Propanoic acid
C) Propanal
D) CO₂

90. Phenol sulfonation at 100°C yields

A) o-Phenol sulfonic acid
B) p-Phenol sulfonic acid
C) m-Phenol sulfonic acid
D) Sulfobenzene

91. Ethylene glycol cleavage with HIO₄ produces:

A) Formaldehyde
B) Acetaldehyde
C) Glyoxal
D) Oxalic acid

92. Which alcohol dehydrates most readily?

A) Methanol
B) Ethanol
C) Propan-2-ol
D) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol

93. Phenol reacts with Na to produce:

A) Sodium phenoxide + H₂
B) Sodium benzoate + H₂
C) Benzene + NaOH
D) No reaction

94. Which alcohol undergoes iodoform reaction?

A) Ethanol
B) Propan-2-ol
C) Methanol
D) Butan-1-ol

95. The product of glycerol oxidation with HNO₃ is:

A) Glyceraldehyde
B) Glyceric acid
C) Mesoxalic acid
D) Tartaric acid

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96. Resorcinol is a:
A) Monohydric phenol
B) Dihydric phenol
C) Trihydric phenol
D) Polyhydric phenol

97. Picric acid is synthesized by nitration of phenol using:

A) Dilute HNO₃
B) Concentrated HNO₃
C) HNO₃ + H₂SO₄
D) HNO₃ + HCl

98. Crown ethers are used to:

A) Stabilize Grignard reagents
B) Solubilize metal ions in organic solvents
C) Act as anaesthetics
D) Reduce alcohols

99. Autoxidation of diethyl ether produces:

A) Ethanol
B) Peroxides
C) Acetic acid
D) CO₂

100. The reaction of phenol with CHCl₃/NaOH is called:

A) Kolbe’s reaction
B) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
C) Friedel-Crafts reaction
D) Gattermann reaction

101. In the SN2 mechanism of Williamson synthesis, the nucleophile is:

A) Alkyl halide
B) Alkoxide ion
C) Water
D) Proton

102. Which substituent increases phenol’s acidity the most?

A) -NO₂ (meta)
B) -CH₃ (para)
C) -OCH₃ (para)
D) -NH₂ (ortho)

103. Acidity order: o-Cresol, m-Cresol, p-Cresol, Phenol.

A) Phenol > o-Cresol > m-Cresol > p-Cresol
B) Phenol > m-Cresol > o-Cresol > p-Cresol
C) Phenol > p-Cresol > m-Cresol > o-Cresol
D) Phenol > m-Cresol > p-Cresol > o-Cresol

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104. Bakelite is synthesized from:
A) Phenol + Formaldehyde
B) Ethanol + Acetic acid
C) Glycerol + HNO₃
D) Benzene + Cl₂

105. Ethyl mercaptan is added to LPG to:

A) Enhance combustion
B) Detect leaks
C) Prevent corrosion
D) Reduce viscosity

106. Which alcohol is chiral?

A) Ethanol
B) Propan-2-ol
C) Butan-2-ol
D) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol

107. Glycerol has:

A) 1 chiral center
B) 2 chiral centers
C) 3 chiral centers
D) No chiral centers

108. Methanol poisoning causes blindness due to:

A) Formic acid accumulation
B) CO₂ formation
C) Ethanol competition
D) Retinal oxidation

109. Phenol disposal requires:

A) Neutralization with NaOH
B) Incineration
C) Landfill burial
D) Dilution with water

110. Zeisel’s method detects:

A) Methoxy groups
B) Hydroxyl groups
C) Nitro groups
D) Amino groups

111. Which factor restricts Williamson synthesis to primary alkyl halides?

A) Steric hindrance in SN2
B) Lack of alkoxide availability
C) High boiling points
D) Oxidative side reactions

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112. The product of phenol with CHCl₃ and NaOH is:
A) Salicylic acid
B) o-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
C) p-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
D) Picric acid

113. Phenol decolorizes bromine water due to:

A) Substitution
B) Addition
C) Oxidation
D) Electrophilic substitution

114. At 100°C, phenol sulfonation yields:

A) o-Phenol sulfonic acid
B) p-Phenol sulfonic acid
C) m-Phenol sulfonic acid
D) Sulfobenzene

115. Which alcohol gives a positive iodoform test?

A) Ethanol
B) Propan-1-ol
C) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
D) Methanol

116. Which alcohol is optically active?

A) Butan-1-ol
B) Butan-2-ol
C) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
D) Ethanol

117. Safe disposal of phenol involves treatment with:

A) NaOH
B) HCl
C) NaCl
D) H₂O

118. Phenolphthalein is synthesized from:

A) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride
B) Phenol + HNO₃
C) Phenol + CHCl₃
D) Phenol + H₂SO₄

119. Nitration of glycerol produces:

A) Nitroglycerin
B) Glyceric acid
C) Acrolein
D) Formaldehyde

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120. Ethers stabilize Grignard reagents by:
A) Forming complexes
B) Donating electrons
C) Acting as bases
D) Preventing oxidation

121. Ether peroxides are detected using

A) Starch-iodide paper
B) Litmus paper
C) FeCl₃ solution
D) Benedict’s reagent

122. Novolac is synthesized from:

A) Phenol + Formaldehyde (acidic)
B) Phenol + HNO₃
C) Ethanol + Acetic acid
D) Glycerol + H₂SO₄

PHYSICS 54 MCQs
123. Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency?
A) Radio waves
B) Microwaves
C) X-rays
D) Infrared waves

124. What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength?

A) Ampere
B) Ohm
C) Tesla
D) Coulomb

125. What type of current flows in household electrical circuits?

A) DC current
B) AC current
C) Both DC and AC currents
D) None of the above

126. Which of the following is used to measure electric current

A) Voltmeter
B) Ammeter
C) Ohmmeter
D) Galvanometer

127. The direction of conventional current is the opposite of the direction of:
A) Protons
B) Electrons
C) Neutrons
D) Photons

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128. The magnetic field lines around a straight current-carrying wire are:
A) Parallel to the wire
B) Perpendicular to the wire
C) Concentric circles centered on the wire
D) Randomly distributed

129. An electromagnet is created by wrapping a coil of wire around a:

A) Non-magnetic material
B) Permanent magnet
C) Ferromagnetic core
D) Superconductor

130. What is the process of generating an electromotive force (EMF) by changing the magnetic field
through a circuit?
A) Electromagnetic induction
B) Electromagnetic radiation
C) Electromagnetic interference
D) Electromagnetic resonance

131. Which law describes the relationship between the current flowing through a conductor, the
voltage across it, and its resistance?
A) Ohm’s law
B) Newton’s law
C) Faraday’s law
D) Coulomb’s law

132. What happens to the resistance of a conductor as its temperature increases?

A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains constant
D) Depends on the material

133. Which of the following factors is the induced charge in an electromagnetic induction independent
of
A) Time
B) Resistance of the coil
C) Change of flux
D) None of the above

134. Which of the following states that an emf is induced whenever there is a change in the magnetic
field linked with electric circuits?
A) Lenz’s Law
B) Ohm’s Law
C) Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction
D) None of the above

135. Which of the following gives the polarity of the induced emf?
A) Biot-Savart Law

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B) Lenz’s Law
C) Ampere’s circuital Law
D) Fleming’s right-hand Rule

136. Electrical Inertia is the measure of:

A) Self Inductance
B) Mutual Inductance
C) Impedance
D) None of the above

137. Which of the following laws is the consequence of the Law of conservation of energy?
A) Lenz’s Law
B) Ohm’s Law
C) Archimedes Law
D) All of the above

138. Which of the following apparatus construction uses electromagnetic induction?

A) Voltmeter
B) Galvanometer
C) Generator
D) Electric Motor

139. Which of the following factors is the self inductance associated with a coil independent of?
A) Induced voltage
B) Current
C) Time
D) Coil resistance

140. Which of the following rules is used to identify the direction of the current induced in a wire
moving in a magnetic field?
A) Ampere’s Rule
B) Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule
C) Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule
D) None of the above

141. Which of the following statements is true?

A) A metal plate can be heated by passing either a direct current or an alternating current through the
plate.
B) A metal plate can be heated by placing it in a time-invariant magnetic field.
C) A metal plate can be heated by placing it in a time-variant magnetic field
D) Both (A) and (C)

142. The induced emf is equal to the coefficient of self-inductance is equal to unity, when the rate of
change of current is unity.
A) True
B) False

143. Magnetic field inside a long straight current-carrying solenoid is:

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A) Non-uniform
B) Zero
C) Uniform
D) Radial

144. Unit of magnetic flux is

A) Weber
B) Tesla
C) Ampere
D) Henry

145. Mutual inductance depends on:

A) Current
B) Magnetic field
C) Geometry and number of turns of coils
D) Voltage

146. The phenomenon of self-induction is analogous to:

A) Newton’s first law
B) Ohm’s law
C) Hooke’s law
D) Coulomb’s law

147. Induced current opposes the change that causes it. This is explained by:
A) Faraday’s law
B) Fleming’s rule
C) Lenz’s law
D) Ampere’s law

148. In an AC generator, the direction of induced current reverses every:

A) Full rotation
B) Half rotation
C) One second
D) 90 degrees of rotation

149. In a transformer, if the number of turns in the secondary coil is less than the primary, it is called:
A) Step-up transformer
B) Step-down transformer
C) Isolated transformer
D) Variable transformer

150. The core of a transformer is laminated to:

A) Increase current
B) Reduce eddy currents
C) Make it lighter
D) Increase resistance

151. A changing magnetic field can induce:

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A) Only current
B) Only voltage
C) Both voltage and current
D) Resistance

152. Right-hand rule is used to find direction of:

A) Magnetic field
B) Force on a moving charge
C) Induced current in a generator
D) Electron spin

153. Which component stores energy in a magnetic field?

A) Capacitor
B) Battery
C) Inductor
D) Resistor

154. The magnetic field produced by a straight wire depends on:

A) Distance from wire
B) Current in the wire
C) Both A and B
D) Only resistance

155. Transformer only works with:

A) DC
B) AC
C) Solar power
D) Batteries

156. SI unit of inductance is:

A) Tesla
B) Henry
C) Weber
D) Ampere

157. The opposition offered by an inductor to change in current is called:

A) Impedance
B) Reactance
C) Inductive reactance
D) Resistance

158. Which rule helps determine the direction of magnetic field around a current-carrying wire?
A) Fleming’s rule
B) Right-hand thumb rule
C) Maxwell’s rule
D) Lenz’s rule

159. Electromagnetic waves are produced by:

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A) Static charges
B) Accelerated charges
C) Stationary magnets
D) Steady electric field

160. The magnetic field at the center of a circular coil is:

A) Zero
B) Uniform
C) Maximum
D) Depends on radius

161. Eddy currents are induced when:

A) Magnetic field is static
B) Magnetic flux is constant
C) A conductor moves through a changing magnetic field
D) There is no conductor

162. The function of a commutator in a DC generator is to:

A) Smoothen current
B) Reverse current direction
C) Maintain unidirectional current
D) Decrease voltage

163. In electromagnetic induction, induced emf depends on:

A) Shape of coil only
B) Change in magnetic flux
C) Length of conductor only
D) Resistance of wire

164. Which device converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?

A) Motor
B) Transformer
C) Generator
D) Inductor

165. Direction of induced current in a moving conductor in a magnetic field is given by:
A) Lenz’s Law
B) Fleming’s Right-hand Rule
C) Ampere’s Rule
D) Maxwell’s Law

166. A device that increases voltage is known as:

A) Step-down transformer
B) Step-up transformer
C) Generator
D) Rectifier

167. Which type of current is produced by an AC generator?

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A) Alternating
B) Direct
C) Pulsating DC
D) None

168. The magnetic effect of electric current was discovered by:

A) Faraday
B) Oersted
C) Ampere
D) Maxwell

169. Which law states that magnetic field around a conductor is proportional to the current through
it?
A) Faraday’s Law
B) Ohm’s Law
C) Ampere’s Law
D) Gauss’s Law

170. The energy stored in an inductor is given by:

A) ½LI²
B) LI²
C) L²I
D) ½IR

171. Which of the following is not affected by magnetic fields?

A) Moving electrons
B) Stationary electrons
C) Protons
D) Current-carrying wire

172. What is the purpose of soft iron core in a transformer?

A) Reduce heat loss
B) Increase weight
C) Concentrate magnetic flux
D) Reduce voltage

173. In which situation will no emf be induced?

A) Moving coil in constant magnetic field
B) Rotating magnet near coil
C) Increasing magnetic field through a loop
D) Coil stationary in changing field

174. Lenz’s law is a direct consequence of:

A) Conservation of momentum
B) Newton’s third law
C) Conservation of energy
D) Law of Inertia

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175. If the number of turns in a coil is doubled, the induced emf becomes:
A) Half
B) Same
C) Double
D) Four times

176. Which part of the generator ensures unidirectional current in a DC generator?

A) Rotor
B) Armature
C) Commutator
D) Stator

ENGLISH 18 MCQs
177. Identify the correct sentence:
A) Each of the students must submit their assignment.
B) Each of the students must submit his or her assignment.
C) Each of the students must submit our assignment.
D) Each of the students must submit their assignments.

178. Choose the correct pronoun:

Neither Ali nor Ahmed brought ___ books.
A) his
B) their
C) our
D) them

179. The dog hurt ___ while playing.

A) him
B) himself
C) itself
D) themselves

180. Choose the correct option:

Everyone in the team played ___ best.
A) their
B) his
C) her
D) his or her

181. Identify the error: It is me who is responsible.

A) It
B) is
C) me
D) responsible

182. Which pronoun correctly completes the sentence?

You and ___ must complete the project today.
A) I

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B) me
C) myself
D) mine

183. Which sentence uses a relative pronoun correctly?

A) She is the girl which won the award.
B) She is the girl who won the award.
C) She is the girl whom won the award.
D) She is the girl whose won the award.

184 . Choose the correct reflexive pronoun:

They enjoyed ___ at the picnic.
A) themselves
B) theirselves
C) themself
D) them

185. That book is not yours; it is ___.

A) mine
B) my
C) me
D) I

186. Which of the following is a demonstrative pronoun?

A) He
B) They
C) This
D) Me

187. Neither of the boys brought ___ book.

A) their
B) his
C) our
D) them

188. Each candidate must bring ___ admit card.

A) their
B) his
C) his or her
D) one’s

189. My friend and ___ are going to study together.

A) me
B) myself
C) I
D) mine

190. The students who forgot ___ IDs were not allowed in.

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A) his
B) their
C) her
D) its

191. It was ___ who called the ambulance.

A) me
B) I
C) myself
D) mine

192. The principal himself congratulated the students.

What type of pronoun is “himself”?
A) Demonstrative
B) Relative
C) Reflexive
D) Emphatic

193. Which sentence is correct

A) Me and Ali went to class.
B) Myself and Ali went to class.
C) Ali and I went to class.
D) I and Ali went to class.

194. Choose the correct option:

The team has lost ___ motivation.
A) its
B) their
C) it’s
D) his

LOGICAL REASONING 06 MCQs

195. What comes next in the series?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A) 36
B) 42
C) 50
D) 60

196. Which word does not belong?

A) Apple
B) Banana
C) Orange
D) Tomato

197. Complete the analogy:

Book : Reading :: Fork : ?
A) Cooking

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B) Drawing
C) Eating
D) Writing
198. All dogs are animals.
Some animals are cats. Therefore:
A) All dogs are cats
B) Some cats are dogs
C) No cat is a dog
D) No definite conclusion

199. If John is taller than Ali, and Ali is taller than Saad, who is the shortest?
A) John
B) Ali
C) Saad
D) Can’t say

200. A is older than B. B is older than C. C is older than D.

Who is the second oldest?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

BIOLOGY MCQs KEY

("01", "B", "Vas deferens transports sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct."),
("02", "C", "Vasectomy cuts the vas deferens, blocking sperm transport."),
("03", "B", "Prostate gland secretes alkaline fluid to neutralize vaginal acidity."),
("04", "B", "The Graafian follicle releases the oocyte during ovulation."),
("05", "B", "Progesterone maintains the luteal phase."),
("06", "C", "The endometrium is shed during menstruation."),
("07", "A", "Spermatids are haploid with 23 chromosomes."),
("08", "B", "Polar bodies degenerate, producing one functional ovum."),
("09", "D", "Primary oocyte resumes meiosis at ovulation."),
("10", "B", "Peak estrogen triggers the LH surge."),
("11", "B", "Inhibin suppresses FSH secretion."),
("12", "B", "hCG mimics LH to maintain corpus luteum."),
("13", "B", "Acrosome reaction allows penetration of zona pellucida."),
("14", "B", "Implantation occurs about 5–7 days post-fertilization."),
("15", "C", "Ectopic pregnancy can rupture and cause hemorrhage."),
("16", "B", "Azoospermia = absence of sperm in semen."),
("17", "B", "Endometriosis causes inflammation in ectopic tissue."),
("18", "A", "PCOS shows multiple ovarian cysts."),
("19", "B", "Painless ulcer = primary syphilis."),
("20", "A", "Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan."),
("21", "B", "HIV is not transmitted by mosquito bites."),
("22", "C", "Embryos are transferred at the blastocyst stage."),

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 ("23", "B", "Klinefelter syndrome = 47, XXY."),
("24", "D", "Oral contraceptives block ovulation and thicken mucus."),
("25", "B", "Heat exposure damages spermatogenesis."),
("26", "B", "Prolactin is secreted by the pituitary gland."),
("27", "B", "Ambiguous genitalia in XX suggests excess testosterone."),
("28", "B", "One ovum conserves nutrients; polar bodies degenerate."),
("29", "B", "Sperm need capacitation in female tract to fertilize."),
("30", "D", "Placenta is fetal and maternal in origin."),
("31", "A", "Spermatogenesis begins at puberty."),
("32", "A", "Menstrual cycle includes bleeding; estrous does not."),
("33", "B", "FSH acts on Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis."),
("34", "A", "47 chromosomes → nondisjunction."),
("35", "A", "Miscarriage is spontaneous; abortion is induced."),
("36", "C", "Secondary spermatocytes divide to form spermatids."),
("37", "B", "High testosterone inhibits FSH via negative feedback."),
("38", "B", "Fertilization occurs in embryo culture step (IVF)."),
("39", "B", "Testicular cancer is common in 15–34 age group."),
("40", "A", "Primary oocyte arrests in prophase I."),
("41", "C", "Midpiece contains mitochondria for motility."),
("42", "C", "LH surge triggers ovulation."),
("43", "C", "Red blood cells do not cross the placenta."),
("44", "B", "Sertoli cells nourish sperm."),
("45", "B", "Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in bryophytes."),
("46", "C", "Cocklebur is a short-day plant."),
("47", "B", "Dormancy prevents sprouting in bad conditions."),
("48", "B", "Estrogen thickens endometrium in proliferative phase."),
("49", "B", "Drop in progesterone triggers menstruation."),
("50", "D", "Graafian follicle has a large antrum."),
("51", "B", "Atresia is degeneration of follicles."),
("52", "B", "Midpiece of sperm has mitochondria."),
("53", "C", "Capacitation occurs in female reproductive tract."),
("54", "B", "Cortical reaction prevents polyspermy."),
("55", "B", "Morula = solid ball of cells."),
("56", "B", "Dysmenorrhea is often due to endometriosis."),
("57", "B", "Kallmann syndrome causes delayed puberty & anosmia."),
("58", "C", "Seminal vesicles produce ~60% of semen."),
("59", "B", "Implantation in tube → ectopic pregnancy."),
("60", "B", "Estrogen peaks during proliferative phase."),
("61", "A", "Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct."),
("62", "A", "Endometriosis may block fallopian tubes."),
("63", "B", "If no fertilization → corpus luteum degenerates → endometrium sheds."),
("64", "D", "All these hormones promote parthenocarpy."),
("65", "B", "Zygote = diploid; ovum = haploid."),
("66", "C", "Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube, not uterus."),
("67", "C", "Placenta provides nutrition to embryo."),
("68", "C", "Human gestation is about 280 days.")

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 CHEMISTRY MCQs KEY
("69", "A", "The oxygen in ethanol has two lone pairs and two sigma bonds → sp³ hybridized."),
("70", "D", "2-Methylpropan-2-ol is highly branched, lowering its boiling point."),
("71", "B", "Ethanol forms hydrogen bonds with water, increasing solubility."),
("72", "C", "2-Methylpropan-2-ol forms a stable tertiary carbocation and readily dehydrates."),
("73", "A", "PCl₅ converts -OH in ethanol to Cl, forming chloroethane."),
("74", "D", "Lucas test is fastest with tertiary alcohols like 2-Methylpropan-2-ol."),
("75", "C", "Propan-2-ol oxidizes to acetone (a ketone)."),
("76", "B", "PCC oxidizes primary alcohols like ethanol to aldehydes."),
("77", "B", "Phenol is more acidic due to resonance stabilization of phenoxide ion."),
("78", "C", "Dilute HNO₃ gives ortho and para nitrophenols."),
("79", "A", "Br₂ in CS₂ with phenol gives 2,4,6-tribromophenol."),
("80", "B", "Phenol gives a violet color with FeCl₃."),
("81", "B", "Williamson synthesis involves alkoxide + alkyl halide to make ethers."),
("82", "A", "Ethers cannot form H-bonds with themselves, lowering boiling point."),
("83", "B", "Ethers react with strong acids like HCl to form oxonium salts."),
("84", "B", "Diethyl ether is symmetrical (two ethyl groups)."),
("85", "D", "Acidity order: Acetic acid > Phenol > Water > Ethanol."),
("86", "B", "At 140°C, ethanol forms diethyl ether (lower temp dehydration)."),
("87", "D", "Reduction of nitrobenzene does not yield phenol."),
("88", "A", "Ethylene glycol lowers water's freezing point, acting as antifreeze."),
("89", "A", "Isopropyl alcohol (a secondary alcohol) oxidizes to acetone."),
("90", "B", "At 100°C, phenol sulfonation mainly gives p-phenol sulfonic acid."),
("91", "C", "HIO₄ cleaves ethylene glycol to glyoxal."),
("92", "D", "2-Methylpropan-2-ol readily dehydrates due to stable tertiary carbocation."),
("93", "A", "Phenol + Na → sodium phenoxide + H₂ gas."),
("94", "B", "Propan-2-ol has the -COCH₃ group needed for the iodoform test."),
("95", "C", "Oxidation of glycerol with HNO₃ produces mesoxalic acid."),
("96", "B", "Resorcinol has two -OH groups on benzene = dihydric phenol."),
("97", "C", "Picric acid is made by nitrating phenol with conc. HNO₃ + H₂SO₄."),
("98", "B", "Crown ethers solubilize metal ions in organic solvents."),
("99", "B", "Diethyl ether autooxidizes to form peroxides."),
("100", "B", "Phenol + CHCl₃/NaOH → salicylaldehyde (Reimer-Tiemann reaction)."),
("101", "B", "Alkoxide ion is the nucleophile in SN2 of Williamson synthesis."),
("102", "A", "NO₂ (meta) is an electron-withdrawing group, increasing acidity."),
("103", "D", "Acidity: Phenol > m-Cresol > p-Cresol > o-Cresol."),
("104", "A", "Bakelite = phenol + formaldehyde polymer."),
("105", "B", "Ethyl mercaptan gives LPG a smell to detect leaks."),
("106", "C", "Butan-2-ol has a chiral center (four different groups)."),
("107", "D", "Glycerol has no chiral centers (symmetrical structure)."),
("108", "A", "Methanol oxidizes to formic acid, damaging optic nerve."),
("109", "B", "Phenol is hazardous and should be incinerated."),
("110", "A", "Zeisel’s method detects methoxy groups."),
("111", "A", "SN2 requires unhindered alkyl halides; tertiary halides are too bulky."),
("112", "B", "CHCl₃ + phenol → o-hydroxybenzaldehyde (Reimer-Tiemann)."),
("113", "D", "Phenol reacts with Br₂ via electrophilic substitution, decolorizing Br₂."),
("114", "B", "Sulfonation of phenol at 100°C → para-product dominates."),
("115", "A", "Ethanol gives positive iodoform test due to CH₃CH(OH)- group."),

33 | P a g e
 ("116", "B", "Butan-2-ol is optically active (chiral center)."),
("117", "A", "Phenol can be neutralized using NaOH for disposal."),
("118", "A", "Phenolphthalein = phenol + phthalic anhydride."),
("119", "A", "Nitration of glycerol produces explosive nitroglycerin."),
("120", "A", "Ethers stabilize Grignard reagents by forming complexes."),
("121", "A", "Starch-iodide paper detects peroxides in ethers."),
("122", "A", "Novolac is made from phenol + formaldehyde under acidic conditions.")

PHYSICS MCQs KEY

("123", "A", "Radio waves have the lowest frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum."),
("124", "C", "Tesla is the SI unit of magnetic field strength."),
("125", "B", "Household circuits use Alternating Current (AC)."),
("126", "B", "Ammeter measures electric current."),
("127", "B", "Conventional current is opposite to the flow of electrons."),
("128", "C", "Magnetic field around a straight wire forms concentric circles."),
("129", "C", "Electromagnets are made using coils around ferromagnetic cores."),
("130", "A", "Changing magnetic field in a circuit induces EMF — electromagnetic induction."),
("131", "A", "Ohm’s law: V = IR — relates voltage, current, and resistance."),
("132", "A", "Resistance increases with temperature for conductors."),
("133", "B", "Induced charge does not depend on the resistance of the coil."),
("134", "C", "Faraday’s law describes induced EMF due to changing magnetic flux."),
("135", "B", "Lenz’s law gives direction (polarity) of induced EMF."),
("136", "A", "Electrical inertia refers to self-inductance."),
("137", "A", "Lenz’s law reflects conservation of energy."),
("138", "C", "Generators operate based on electromagnetic induction."),
("139", "D", "Self-inductance is independent of coil resistance."),
("140", "C", "Fleming’s right-hand rule shows direction of induced current."),
("141", "C", "Time-varying magnetic fields heat metal plates (eddy currents)."),
("142", "A", "True — if both self-inductance and current rate = 1, then EMF = 1."),
("143", "C", "Magnetic field inside a long solenoid is uniform."),
("144", "A", "Weber is the SI unit of magnetic flux."),
("145", "C", "Mutual inductance depends on geometry and number of turns."),
("146", "A", "Self-induction is like inertia (Newton’s first law)."),
("147", "C", "Lenz’s law states that induced current opposes the change."),
("148", "B", "Current reverses every half rotation in an AC generator."),
("149", "B", "Fewer turns in secondary coil → step-down transformer."),
("150", "B", "Laminations reduce eddy currents in transformer cores."),
("151", "C", "Changing magnetic fields can induce both current and voltage."),
("152", "C", "Right-hand rule finds direction of induced current."),
("153", "C", "Inductors store energy in magnetic fields."),
("154", "C", "Magnetic field depends on current and distance from wire."),
("155", "B", "Transformers work only with AC."),
("156", "B", "Henry is the SI unit of inductance."),
("157", "C", "Opposition to AC current in inductor is inductive reactance."),
("158", "B", "Right-hand thumb rule gives direction of magnetic field."),
("159", "B", "Accelerated charges produce electromagnetic waves."),
("160", "C", "Field is maximum at the center of circular coil."),
("161", "C", "Eddy currents arise from changing magnetic flux through conductors."),

34 | P a g e
 ("162", "C", "Commutator maintains unidirectional current in DC generator."),
("163", "B", "Induced EMF depends on change in magnetic flux."),
("164", "C", "Generators convert mechanical to electrical energy."),
("165", "B", "Fleming’s right-hand rule gives direction of induced current."),
("166", "B", "Step-up transformers increase voltage."),
("167", "A", "AC generators produce alternating current."),
("168", "B", "Oersted discovered the magnetic effect of current."),
("169", "C", "Ampere’s law: Magnetic field ∝ current."),
("170", "A", "Energy stored = ½LI²."),
("171", "B", "Stationary electrons are not affected by magnetic fields."),
("172", "C", "Soft iron concentrates magnetic flux in transformers."),
("173", "A", "No EMF induced if magnetic field and coil are constant."),
("174", "C", "Lenz’s law is based on energy conservation."),
("175", "C", "Doubling turns doubles the induced EMF."),
("176", "C", "Commutator ensures unidirectional current in DC generator.")

ENGLISH MCQs KEY

("177", "B", "“Each” is singular, requiring the singular pronoun “his or her.”"),
("178", "A", "With 'neither/nor', use the singular pronoun 'his'."),
("179", "C", "Reflexive pronoun for a dog (neuter) is 'itself'."),
("180", "D", "‘Everyone’ is singular and needs 'his or her' for clarity."),
("181", "C", "Use the subject pronoun 'I' after linking verbs: 'It is I'."),
("182", "A", "'You and I' is the correct subject form."),
("183", "B", "'Who' is the correct relative pronoun for the subject."),
("184", "A", "'They' takes the reflexive pronoun 'themselves'."),
("185", "A", "Possessive pronoun 'mine' completes the sentence."),
("186", "C", "'This' is a demonstrative pronoun."),
("187", "B", "‘Neither’ is singular → use 'his'."),
("188", "C", "‘Each’ is singular → use 'his or her'."),
("189", "C", "'My friend and I' is the proper subject usage."),
("190", "B", "'Students' is plural → use 'their'."),
("191", "B", "'It was I' → use subject pronoun after linking verb."),
("192", "D", "'Himself' used for emphasis, not reflection → emphatic."),
("193", "C", "'Ali and I' is the correct subject pronoun usage."),
("194", "A", "'Team' is a singular collective noun → use 'its'.")

LOGICAL REASONING MCQs KEY

("195", "B", " Pattern: Increase by +4, +6, +8, +10, +12. Next number = 30 + 12 = 42.")
("196", "D", " Tomato is botanically a fruit but commonly used as a vegetable, unlike the others
which are fruits.")
("197", "C", " A book is used for reading; a fork is used for eating. ")
("198", "D", " There is no direct information connecting dogs and cats, so no conclusion can be
drawn. ")
("199", "C", " Saad is shorter than Ali and John.")
("200", "B", " Order of age: A > B > C > D, so B is second oldest.")

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