1.

The nasal cavities adjust the temperature and humidity

of respired air byblood supply in the respiratory region

a. The action of rich plexus

b. The presence of mucus on the surfaces of the conchae

c. By the presence of olfactory epithelium

d. By the presence of nasal septumn.

2. compartment of the thoracic cavity, .is located between

the two pleural sacs

a. Hilum,

b. Thoracic cage.

c. Mediastinum.

d. Pleural cavity.

3. On a normal CXR, all are TRUE, EXCEPT

a.The density of the cardiac shadow should be equal on both sides of the

spine

b.The left hilum should be higher than the Right

c. The costo-phrenic angles should be sharp & clear

d. Peripherally located intrapulmonary opacities form an obtuse angle with the

chest wall

4. All these arteries are supplying the diaphragm

superiorly and inferiods, excepe

a Pericardiophrenic artery

b. Musculophrenic anery.

c. Superior epigastric artery

d. Superior phrenic artory.

5. Functional residual capacity is:

a total volume of ar in the lung after full inspiration

b. less than expiratory reserve volume

c. total volume of air remains in the lung after full expiration

d. volume of ar in the lung during the testing state

6. One of the pulmonary function tests (PIT) below is the

best one to diagnose pulmonary fibrosis

a. Body box plethysmography

b. Spirometry

c. Pulse oximetry

d. Arterial blood gas analysis (ABG)

7. The peripheral chemoreceptors have one of the

following features

A Can be stimulated by pO2 of less than 13.3 KPa

b. it has receptors for oxygen, carbon dioxide and H+ concentration

c. It adapts for long term elevation of pCO: in the blood

d. It is more sensitive to pCO2 than central chemoreceptors

8. What is chloride shift?

a Movement of chloride ion from plasma to WBC

b. Movement of chloride ion from plasma to RBC

e Movement of chloride ion from WBC to plasma

d. Movement of chloride ion from RBC to plasma

9. The percentage saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen

changes at different partial pressures

of oxygen. The graph below shows this change in two

different concentrations of carbon

dioxide. What of the following would be the correct effect

of increasing the carbon dioxide

concentration?

a. It increases the dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin in respiring tissues.

b. It increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in respiring tissues.

c. It increases the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzyme in red blood cells

d. It increases the dissociation of haemoglobinic acid inside red blood cells.

10. About histology of respiratory tract all are true, except

a. True vocal cords are covered by the stratified squamous non- keratinized

epithelium

b. Bowman's (Olfactory) Glands are serous glands lying in the lamina propria

of the

olfactory mucosa

c. Type I pneumocytes are concerned with gas exchange and are cuboidal in

shape

d. Brush cells are found in tracheal epithelium

11. Regarding spread of lung cancers, all are true except

a. Neural involvement including recurrent laryngeal vocal cord paralysis and

phrenic nerve involvement leading to facial palsy.

b. Paraneoplastic syndrome including Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic

Hormone and

ectopic ACTH secretion.

c Obstruction of superior vena cava leading to venous congestion in head and

neck.

d. Metastasis to the liver leading to obstructive jaundice. There are abnormal

ALT, AST, and Alkaline phosphatase levels during liver metastasis

12. Localization of Pneumonia

a. Could be localized to a particular lobe's of the lungs-"aspiration pneumonia".

b Could be localized to a particular lobe's of the lungs-"broncho-pneumonia

c. Could be diffuse and patchy -"bronchopneumonia

d. Could be diffuse and patchy - "Tobar pneumonia".

13. Type of pneumonia are increasingly associated with

multidrug resistance microorgansim

a aspiration pneumonia.

b. health care associated pneumonia

c. community acquired pneumonia

d. all types of pneumonia

14. COPD, it means chronic obstructive pulmonary

diseases, all are correct except one:

a. COPD is a preventable and treatable disease.

b. We can differentiate chronic bronchitis and emphysema by spirometry.

c. Blue blotter and pink buffer patients belong to COPD.

d. We can differentiate COPD to mild, moderate, severe and very sever by

spirometry

15. A 72-year-old female with advanced finger clubbing

presents for evaluation of longstandshortness of breath.

She is a lifetime non-smoker and has had no exposures.

On clinicalexamination you noted central cyanosis. All the

following pulmonary abnormalities are

expected EXCEPT

a restrictive lung disease

b. alveolar hypoventilation

c. obstructive lung disease

d. ventilation-perfusion abnormalities with hypoxemia

16. The main clinical features of advanced idiopathic

pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), all are correct

EXCEPT

a Dry cough

b. Dyspnea (progressive)

c. Dual abnormal lung sound wheeze and crackle

d. Diffuse inspiratory crackles.

17. Followings regarded as cause of breathlessness

except:

a Pneumothorax

b. Heart failure

c. Bronchiectasis

d. Raynaud's disease

18. All the following may cause productive cough except

a Suppurative lung diseases

b Bronchiectasis

c. Pneumonia

d. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

19. Audible wheeze during chest auscultation expected in

the following respiratory diseases

except

a Bronchial asthma

b. Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

c. Emphysema

d. Pleural effusion

20.Regarding tuberculosis, which of the following

statement is true?

A Current estimates suggest that about one-third of the world's population has

latent TB

b. usually affects the lungs, although in up to half of cases other organs are

involved.

c. Brief exposure to tubercle bacilli usually causes infection.

d. The infectivity of sputum becomes minimal after 2 weeks of commencing

treatment which is enough for the whole course of treatment.

21. systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in

sepsis is characterized by followings

except

a. WBC above 12,000/ml

b. Temperature above 38C

c. Temperature below 36C

d. Respiratory rate of 20 cycle/min

22. Which clinical symptoms are consistent with the

diagnosis of malaria?

a Fever

b. Muscle aches

c. Abdominal pain

d. All the above

23. All the followings are accepted as correct for bacterial

culture except one:

a. Midstream urine in a 35-year-old female

b. Blood from a patient receiving wide-spectrum antibiotic suspected to have

bloodstream

infection.

c. A diarrheic stool sample

d. Clear cerebrospinal fluid

24. Definitive host

a. The host, in which the larval stage of the parasite lives.

b. The host, in which sexual multiplication takes place.

e. The host, in which the adult parasite lives and undergoes sexual

reproduction.

d. The host, i which the larval stage of the parasite undergoes sexual

multiplication

25. The appearance of a mat of fungal hyphae is called:

a. Mycelium

b. Septate hyphae

c. filamentous fungi
d. Germ tube

26. HIV infection

a With single receptor as CD4 can establish infection.

b. There is no intermediate DNA during RNA transcription.

c. Viral DNA intermediate will enter nucleus and integrate to human DNA by

integrase

d. Viral RNA will enter the nucleus and integrate to human

DNA by integrase

27, Common findings in liver hydatidosis include:

a diarrhea and vomiting

b. decrease appetite with hopatomegaly and abdominal pain

CA palpable mass on left side of abdomen

d. All of them

28. The most proper way to identify bacterial infection

a Do Gram stain and then culture the bacteria and observe growth properties.

b. Culture the specimen, Gram stain, observe growth properties, and Gram

stain again

c. Do both Gram stain and acid-fast stain on a properly collected specimen

d. Perform Gram stain on transport media specimen

29. HCV (Hepatitis C virus) infection

à Is a non-enveloped virus with only 8 genotypes

b. HCV surface antigen is the main way of diagnosis serologically

c. Anti-HCV antibody is used for detection of HCV virus infection or resolution

serologically

d. Vaccine is available for HCV.

30. All the following will lead to proper identification of

bacterial bloodstream infection except

a. Proper skin antisepsis prior to blood collection is a must

b. Two sets of processed blood specimens are advisable

c. For adult patients, aspiration of 5 ml. of blood from a peripheral vein

d. Aerobic and anaerobic methods must be used

31. Condition included as patients factors for infection

a Extreme of age

b. Diabetic patients

c. Malnutrition

d. All of them

32. Clinical presentation of HBV has following

characteristics except

a. In acute HBV infection symptoms persist around 2-3 months.

b. Sever liver failure in acute infection is minimal around less 0.1-1%

c. Chronic HBV when HBs hepatitis B surface antigen persist after 6 months

d. Liver cancer not seen in any chronic HBV infection

33. Neutropenic patients are more liable to get

a Respiratory tract infection by influenza virus

b. Respiratory tract infection by Aspergillus fungi

e. Respiratory tract infection by Legionella pneumophila

d. None of them

34. Which of the followings best describes human normal

flora (microbiota)?

a Microorganisms that are residents of certain human body sites

b. They include haimless, non-pathogenic bacteria

c CNS, blood, lower bronchi and alveoli, and bladder never contain any

microbiota

d. Various bacteria and fungi that are residents of certain human body sites

35. In chronic brucellosis which statement is incorrect

a Simple blood culture is very essential in diagnosis

b. Serological study like ELISA IgM IgG is fast and reliable for diagnosis and

treatment.

C. Treatment is for 2-3 weeks of combination antimicrobials

d. Osteoarticular involvement is a very common organ affected by Brucella as

big joints

36. Which order is likely to occur in normal infection

process?

a Exposure, adhesion, invasion, dissemination, multiplication

b. Exposure, invasion, adhesion, multiplication, dissemination

c. Exposure, invasion, multiplication, dissemination, adhesion

d. Exposure, adhesion, invasion, multiplication, dissemination.

37. The commonest organisms cultured from surgical site

infections:

a E.coli

b. Aspergillus fungi

c. MRSA (Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus)

d. Staphylococcus epidermidis.

38. HIV infection has following criteria except

a. There will be intermediate DNA during RNA transcription.

b. Viral DNA intermediate will enter nucleus and integrate to human DNA by

integrase.

c. Virus assemble on plasma membrane and complete the replication cycle in

24hr.

d. By single receptor as CD4 can establish infection in cells

39. Colistin antibiotic acts by:

a Disorganize the bacterial membranes and rapidly kill the

cells.

b. Interrupting cross-linkages (transpeptidation) of peptidoglycan.

c. Bind to the 50S ribosome and inhibit peptidyl transferase activity.

d. None of the above.

40. Regarding biofilm and infection, one is not correct

a. Biofilm formation is a nearly universal bacterial feature.

b. Biofilms are found on artificial surfaces.

c. Biofilms are multicellular aggregates of bacteria and yeast that congregate

on surfaces.

d. Biofilms can't protect bacteria from host defenses, antibiotics, and harsh

environmental

conditions

41. Concerning the urinary system physiology all are true

Except:

a Renal clearance is the volume of plasma that is cleared of a particular

substance in a

given time.

b. Fluid entering Bowman's capsule has the same ionic composition as blood

with higher protein content.

c. GFR is relatively constant over arterial blood pressure of 50-200 mm Hg

d. proximal convoluted tubule is the primary site for secretion of drugs, waste,

and H' ions.

42. Regarding the H+ secreted into the lumen of the

distal nephron all are true Except:

a. can combine with NH4"

b. can combine with HCO,

c. can remains as free H

d. is secreted by an H+-ATP ase pump.

43. The hypothalamus enhances release of ADH in

response to all the following stimuli except:

a. dehydration
b. severe hemorrhage

c. decreased blood osmolarity

d. pain, anxiety, or surgical stress

44. Which of the following is not true about the kidneys?

a. Are reddish brown organs

b. Move with respiration by as much as 5 cm.

c. The right is lower than the left kidney.

d. Weighs about 130 g.

45. Which of the followings is one of the anterior relations

of right kidney:

a. Pancreas.

b. Spleen.

c. Quadratus lumborum.

d. liver.

46. About urinary bladder.

a. The base lies anteriorly.

b. It is a completely pelvic organ in children.

c. The neck lies inferiorly.

d. The empty bladder is ovoid in shape.

47. regarding US of kidneys the following are true except:

a the outline of kidney may be lobulated.

b. the center of the kidney (renal sinus) is echogenic.

c. difference in size between the 2 kidneys may reach 3 cm

d renal cortex is hypoechoic.

48. These conditions cause unilateral small kidney Except

a. chronic pyelonephritis

b. chronic glomerulonephritis

e. hypoplastic kidney

d. renal artery stenosis

( I don’t know)

49. The medulla of the kidney consists of numerous cone-

shaped regions called

a. Glomeruli

b. Hepatic lobules,

c. Renal pyramids.

d. Renal papillac.

50. All these units are part of the Nephron, except

a. Renal tubules.

b. Bowman's capsule.

c. Glomerulus.

d. Renal artery.

51. Which of the following is not derived from ureteric

bud?

a. ureter
b. distal convoluted tubules

c. major and minor calyces

d. ronal pelvie

52. Urinary system development, which statement is

true?

a. develops from urogenital ridge in the lateral plate mesoderm.

b. Sever oligohy dramnios is associated with unilateral renal agenesis.

c. Urine production begins at 10th week.

d. Mesonephric ducts disappear in male embryos.

(TB la source dallet 12 nak 10) awkata abet daraja bgaretawa

53. In focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, one of the

following is incorrect:

a. Some glomeruli may appear normal on Microscopical examination,

b. Heroin addiction is a predisposing factor in the pathogenesis.

c. Selective albuminuria is common presenting clinical feature.

d. Can be complicated by developing rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.

54. Active vitamin D formation depends on all the

followings except;

a. Diet

b. PTH

c. Kidneys

d. Intestine

55. Regulators of K-secretion by principal cells.

a. Most powerful stimulator is increased K-plasma concentration.

b. Increased K-plasma concentration is an enhancer of aldosterone release.

c. Aldosterone enhances k-secretion.

d. Overflow mechanism of K-secretion occurs in dehydration situations.

56. Risk factors of UTI includes except:

a. sexual activity - increased inoculation

b. spermicide - increased binding

c. Increase estrogen level.

d. antimicrobial agents- decreased indigenous flora

57. Regarding small vessel diseases as a cause of acute

glomerulonephritis, all the followings are

true, except:

a. Hemolytic uremic syndrome may be the cause.

b. Malignant hypertension may be the cause.

c. Pre-eclampsia may be the cause.

d. ACE inhibitors are one of the causes.

58. The lower urinary tract is innervated by three sets of

peripheral nerves. Which of the

following is correct?

a. Pelvic parasympathetic nerves arise at the sacral spinal cord level and

excite the bladder

and urethra

b. Sympathetic nerves inhibit the bladder body and excite the bladder neck

and urethra

c. Pudendal (somatic) nerves excite the bladder body and the external urethral

sphincter
d. All the above are true.

59. All the following are irritative voiding symptoms,

except:

a. Hesitancy

b. Nocturia

c. Frequency

d. Urgency

60. Which is contraindicated in a patient with

hyperkalemia?

a. Acetazolamide

b. Chlorothiazide

c. Ethacrynic acid.

d. Spironolactone.

61. Pancreatic secretion could be stimulated by All

Except:

a Vagal stimulation

b. Cholecystokinin

c. Secretin

d. Gastrin

62. The gastroesophageal sphincter

a Relax with the beginning of mixing movements of the stomach.

b. Is not affected by secondary peristaltic movements of the esophagus.

c. Is thickening of the smooth muscles in the lower esophagus

d. Defects in relaxation is associated with dysphagia for liquids only.

63. Regarding the pyloric sphincter and control of gastric

emptying which one is False:

a This sphincter has tonic contraction that help in prevention of

gastroesophageal reflux.

b. Opening is inhibited by hormones like Cholecystokinin and gastrin.

c. Distention and strong peristalsis of the stomach enhances sphincter

relaxation.

d. Problems associated with rapid emptying might result in diarrhea

64. Not true regarding the intestine:

a Surgical removal of the ilium impairs the absorption of bile salts.

b. Damage to Na- K ATPase pump will damage Fructose absorption.

c. Protein digestion begins in the stomach and continues in the intestine.

d. Water absorption could be affected by deficiency of lactase enzyme

65. Regarding histology of GIT, which one is false:

a The apical surfaces of the epithelial cells of the mucosa of the small intestine

are carpeted

with microvilli, and the cells are often said to have a "brush border."

b. The Hepatic lobule has its hexagon shape, with central vein at each corner.

c. The Muscularis layer of the stomach arranged as an outer longitudinal layer,

a middlecircular layer, and an inner oblique layer

d. The submucosa of GIT contains the submucosal plexus, a subdivision of the

autonomic nervous system, called the enteric nervous system.

66. Regarding the peritoneum, which one is true:

a Rectovesical pouch: pocket formed by the reflections of the peritoneum from

the rectum

to the female bladder and is the most dependent area of the supine female

b. The infracolic compartment lies posterior to the greater omentum and is

divided into right

and left infracolic spaces by the greater omentum

c. The hepatogastric ligament together with the hepatosplenic ligament, they

form the lesser

omentumn

d. Superiorly, the epiploic foramen is bounded by the Caudate process of the

caudate lobe of the liver

67. Regarding the Storaach & Pancreas, which one is

false;

a. The gastric canal forms due to firm attachment of the gastric mucosa to the

underlying muscular layer, which does not have circular layer at this site

b. Dome shaped fundus lie superior and to the left of cardia, it is usually full of

gas

C.The cardiac orifice of the stomach does not have an anatomical sphincter

but is guarded by the physiological sphincter.

D.The pancreas crosses the posterior abdominal wall obliquely from concavity

of the duodenum to the hilum of spleen.

68. Regarding the anatomy of the liver and gallbladder,

which one is true.

a. The left extremity of the coronary ligament is known as the left triangular

ligament of the liver.

b. In the free margin of the falciform ligament, there is the ductus venosus

c. The physiological right and left lobes are approximately equal in size.

d. The content of the cystohepatic triangle (of Calot) are cystic artery, left

hepatic artery and

cystic lymph node (of Lund)

69. Gastric adenocarcinoma:

a. Most of them are signet ring cell carcinoma (diffuse type adenocarcinoma)

b. Intestinal type may be caused by chronic H. Pylori induced gastritis

c. Intestinal type always presents with diffuse thickening of wall (Linitis

plastica)

d. The chance of cure is higher compared with gastric lymphoma of MALT type

70. An elderly gentleman presented with bleeding pre

rectum. Colonoscopy shows a polyp in

sigmoid colon. The biopsy of polyp is reported as colonic

tubular adenoma with low grade

dysplasia, Which of the following is False?

A.Colonic tubulovillous adenomas are more likely than tubular adenomas to

cause concer

b. Hyperplastic polyps comprise the majority of polyps of colon

c. High grade dysplasia is more in tubulovillous adenomas than in villous

adenomas

d. Low grade dysplasia means the patient needs endoscopic follow-

up(surveillance)
71. The functional Structural subunit of the liver is:

a Central Vein

b. Liver Acinus

e Portal Triad

d. Portal Vein

72. True statement regarding gastroschiasis:

a. Viscera covered by membrane.

b. Has good prognosis

c. Herniation occurs within the umbilical ring

d. Associated with chromosomal abnormality

73. An infant has delay passage meconium and diagnosed

with most common cause of lowerintestinal obstruction in

neonate which is mega colon (Hirschsprung Disease), all

true withthis condition except

a Both myenteric and submucosal plexuses are absent

b. There is Lack of peristalsis of affected portion and proximal segment

become dilated

c. Its functional obstruction of intestine

d. Failure of neural crest cells to migrate cranially

74, About the inguinal canal all true except

a.It is about 4cm long

b Superficial inguinal ring is an oval opening in the fascia transversalın.

c. Posterior wall formed by fascia transvers

d. In the males, it allows structures to pass to and from the tests to the

abdomen

75. About the muscles of the antenor abdominal wall,

which is true?

a External oblique muscle fibers directed forward downward

bSupplied by upper mix thoracic nerve

e All are inserted to the anterior wall of rectus sheath

d. The arcuate line is at the level of umbilicus

76. The most common extra-intestinal manifestation of

ulcerative colitis

a Primary sclerosing colins

b Erythema nodosum

e. Uvertis

d. Arthropathy

not sure maby be B

77, one of the functions is not related to intestinal flora

a Transformation of bile acids into hydrophobic secondary bile acids

b. Participate in the digestion and the absorption of nutrients

c. regulation of the synthesis of carbohydrate

d regulation of the synthesis of cholesterol

78 . Abdominal plain x-ray is not indicated in the following

Except

a Abdominal trauma

b. Suspected bowel perforation

Suspected intra-abdominal collection

d Suspected intra-abdominal malignancy

79. Regarding the anatomy of the large and small bowel

which one is True

a Vasa recta are a series of anastomosing arterial arches between the arterial

branches of the jejunum and ileum.

b.Paracolic appendix means in front of or behind the terminal part of the lem

c.Sacculation (or Haustrations) of large intestine, are produced because

length of tenis in

taller than the length of circular muscle cont

d. The duodenurn is retroperitoneal except the proximal 25 cm, which is

suspended above by the lesser omentum and below by the greater othentum

80. Regarding HBV (Hepatitis B virus) All of the followings

are The EXCEPT

a. It is as RNA viru

b. It can be transmitted by parenteral or sexual rout

It can lead to chronic infection (chronic hepatitis)

d It can lead to liver cirrhosis

81. When your sudden understanding of a tough problem

leads to a solution, without your

to result to trial and error, you have most likely

experienced

a Change blindness
b. Choice blindness

c. insight

d. Confirmation bias

82.. Thought, attention, and .... ...are components of

cognition.

a. Feeling

b. Perception

c. Interest

d. None of the above

83. Which of the following statements is incorrect about

thinking?

a Thinking uses images and languages.

b. Thinking is a form of information processing

c. Thinking is the set of cognitive processing.

d. Thinking and language are unrelated.

84. The term mental retardation is replaced with

a Mental weakness

b. Intellectual disability

c. Intellectual disadvantage

d. Intellectual backwardness

85. What is correct regarding classical conditioning?

a. It is also called reflexive learning.

b. It is also called non-respondent conditioning

c. Ivan Pavlov received Golden Globe Prize in science for this discovery.

d. Pavlov discovered it by chance.

86. Regarding the latency stage of development which

one is not correct:

a. During this stage significant conflicts or impulses are assumed to arise.

b.This lasts from about 7 years to puberty,

c. The primary personality development during this time is that of the

superego.

d. This lasts from 2-5 years

87. Theory in mind is important in studying

a depression

b. drug addiction

c eating disorders

d. autism

88. Language is the fastest to develop in

a girls

b. boys

c. twins

d. large families

89. Human Diversity, all false, except,

a Social difference is most commonly used which is

similarities among people.

b. The third world countries are changing at the same pace as western
countries

c. Color was the main issue, especially in the US and black were a minority in

the 20th century.

d. Overweight and obesity are not associated with loss of social status and

opportunity

90. Types of Death, all true, except;

a Cellular.

b. Respiratory.

c. Brain

d. Intellectual

91. To reduce stress, all true except;

a Reach out

b. Religion and altruism

c. Learn to cope effectively.

d. Avoid heavy exercise.

92. Causes of ageing, all true except

a None of the following

b. Glycation.

c. Telomere shortening

d. Mutations.

93, What is the best way to facilitate non-intentional

adherence?

a. Explain the importance of the treatment to the patient.

b. Build better relationships with patients

c. Use technologies to prompt patients.

d. Elicit patient beliefs about the condition

not sure maybe b and c

94, parapsychology:

a. It has a solid scientific base

b. It has a specific type of energy.

c. It has also a specific type of receptor

d. It is considered pseudoscience

not sure maybe d and c

95. What is correct regarding classical conditioning?

a. It is also called reflexive learning

b. It is not called non-respondent conditioning

c. Ivan Pavlov received Golden Globe Prize in science for this discovery.

d. Pavlov discovered it by chance

96. defense mechanisms, all false, except,

a Defense mechanisms are strategies used to deal with weak or usual

emotions and situations

b Freud thought we had specific ways to induce anxiety.

c. Anna Freud felt these mechanisms were automatic

d. Most Freudian ideas are now discredited; defence mechanisms, however,

are still quite current