__ KNOWLEDGE PARK

VELAMMAL ___
Velammal Bodhi Campus
FORTNIGHT TEST PRACTICE PAPER

CLASS: XII – NEET

FT No (Test Date): 02 (14-07-2025)
PERPARED BY: VBC- PUDUCHERRY

MAX.MARKS:720 DURATION: 3HOURS

PHYSICS

1. Calculate number of photons passing through haring of unit area in unit time If light of
intensity 100 Wm–2 and of wavelength 400 nm is falling normally on the ring.
(1)4.03×1015
(2)2.02× 1020
(3)4.03×1010
(4)2.02× 1010
2. The work function of a metal is 1.6 × 10–19 J. When the metal surface is illuminated by the light
of wavelength 6400 Å, then the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photo-electrons will be
(Planck's constant h = 6.4 × 10–34 Js)

(1) 141019J

(2) 2.81019J

(3) 1.41019J

(4) 1.41019Ev
3. A photon of energy 3.4eV is inciden to name tal having work function2eV.Themaximum
K.E. of photo-electrons is equal to
(1) 1.4 eV
(2) 1.7 eV
(3) 5.4 eV
(4) 6.8 eV
4. Light of wavelength 4000Å is incident on a sodium surface for which the threshold wave
length of photo – electrons is 5420 Å. The work function of sodium is
(1) 4.58eV
(2) 2.29eV
(3) 1.14eV
(4) 0.57eV
5. An electron of mass m when accelerated through a potential difference V has de-Broglie
wavelength . The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton of mass M accelerated
through the same potential difference will be
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6.

7.

8.
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15.
1.
16.

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20. __ ___

212121
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31.
 __ ___

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35.

36.

37. .

38.

39.

40. The energyofaphotonisequalto3kiloeV.Calculateitslinearmomentum?

(1) 1.6×10–24kgm-s–1
(2) 5.2×10–20kgm-s–1
(3) 7.6×10–22kgm-s–1
(4) 1.6×10–16kgm-s–1
 __ ___
41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

CHEMISTRY

46.

47. Which of the following compounds will not undergo HVZ (Hell-volhord zelinsky)
reaction?
1) Acetic acid 2) Propanoic acid 3) Formic acid 4) Butyric acid

48. Acetaldehyde and ethyl alcohol react in presence of dry HCl gas. The product
obtained is
1) CH3CH 2CH 2OH 2) CH3CH  OH  CH3
3) CH3CH  OH  C2 H5 4) CH3CH  OC2 H5 2
49. Identify X in the sequence.
X 
1) CH 3 MgCl
2) H O / H 
C5 H12O 
Cu
573 k
 C5 H10
2

CH 3  C  CH 2CH 3
1) 2) CH 3CH 2CH 2CHO
O
3)  CH3 2 CHCHO 4) CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2OH
50. Benzaldehyde & acetone can be__distinguished by ___
1) 2,4-DNP test 2) Fehling test 3) Iodoform test 4) All of these
51. Grignard reagent do not give carbonyl compounds with
1) CO2 2) RCOCl 3) RCN 4) RCOOR

52. The structure of compound when acetaldehyde is react with

NH2  CO  NH  NH2 is
1) CH 3CH  N  CO  NH  NH 2 2) CH3  CH  N  CONH 2
3) CH3CH  N  CO  NH  N  CH  CH 3 8 4) CH 3  CH  N  NH  CO  NH 2
53. The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide  PhMgBr  with the following
compounds
CH 3  CHO, CH 3COCH 3 and PhCOPh
(I ) ( II ) ( III )
1) I > III > II 2) I > II > III 3) III > II > I 4) II > I > III

54.

55. The increasing order of pKa of the following carboxylic acids is___
1) CF3COOH  NO2CH 2COOH  HCOOH  C6 H5COOH
2) CF3COOH  HCOOH  NO2CH 2COOH  C6 H5COOH
3) HCOOH  NO2CH 2COOH  C6 H5COOH  CF3COOH
4) O2 NCH 2COOH  HCOOH  CF3COOH  C6 H5COOH
56. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) HCHO and CH 3CHO from each other in reaction with I 2 and NaOH.
2) C6 H 5CHO and CH 3CHO can be distinguished by Fehiling test.
3) CH 3CHO and CH 3COCH 3 can be distinguished by Fehiling test.
4) HCOOH and CH 3CHO can be distinguished by Tollens test.
57. The melting point of CH 3CH 2COOH and CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2COOH are 251K and 237K
respectively, then melting point of CH 3CH 2CH 2COOH is ____
1) 245 K 2) 267 K 3) 225 K 4) 100 K
O

58. CH 3  CH  C  H 
Cocn. NaOH
 Major product 
CH 3
What will be the major product(s) of above reaction
CH 3  CH  COONa CH 3  CH  CH 2  OH
1) 2)
CH 3 CH 3
OH O
3) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH  C  H 4) Both 1 & 2

CH 3
59. How many of the following will give NaHCO3 test?

CH3 SO3 H , , CH 3CH 2OH , CH 3COOH , , CH 3OH

1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
O H
60. CH 3CHO  HCHO   A , A is _________
 __ ___

61. Final product (B) obtained in the following sequence of reaction is

CH 2  CH  CH 2  CN 
(i) DIBAL-H
(ii) H2O
A 
(i) NH2 NH 2
(ii) KOH/
B
1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 2) CH2 = CH – CH3
3) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH3 4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

62. O
CH2 – Et
Et

Which of the following reagent would work best for the above conversion?
Cl Cl

1) Zn-Hg/HCl 2) H2, Ni 3) N 2 H 4 / OH 4) NH3

63.
Identify the compound D in the above mentioned series of reactions.
Br
O O
O O ||
|| ||
1) C  Br 2) || 3) Br C  OH 4) C  OH
Br
C  Br

64. Assertion (A) : Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones
and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass..
Reason (R) : It is due to formation of more extensive intermolecular H – bonding in
carboxylic acids.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect.
65. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(i) Nitrogen atom in amines is sp3 – hybridized.
(ii) The geometry of amines is pyramidal
(iii) The angle C-N-C or C-N-H is slightly more than 109.5o.
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) *2) (i) and (ii) 3) (i) and (iii) 4) (ii) and (iii)
66. Which of the following reaction does not yield amine?
1) R  X  NH 3   2) R  CN  H 2 / Ni


3) R  CN 
H 2O / H
 4) R  CONH 2 
LiAlH 4

67. In the given set of reactions

1) CH3NH2 2) CH3CH2NH2 3) CH3CH2NHCH3 4) (CH3)2NH

68. The number of constitutionally isomeric primary amines of molecular formula C4H11N
is
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five
69. Assertion (A) : Only a small amount of HCl is required in the reduction of nitro
 compound with iron scrap and HCl __ in the presence___
of steam.
Reason (R) : FeCl2 formed get hydrolysed to release HCl during the rection.
1) Both A & R are correct but R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect but R is correct

70. Oxygen and sulphur both are the members of the same group in periodic table but H 2O is
liquid while H2S is gas because
(1) Molecular weight of water is more.
(2) Electronegativity of sulphur is more.
(3) H2S is weak acid.
(4) Water molecules are having weak hydrogen bonds between them.
71.Which of the following hydrides has the lowest boiling point?
(1) H2O
(2) H2S
(3) H2Se
(4) H2Te
72. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the given daniell cell [Eext=1.1V]?
1) In this cell copper acts as cathode and zinc is acting as anode
2) Electrons flow from Zn rod to Cu rod hence current flows from Cu to Zn [Eext<1.1V]
3) Zn is deposited at cathode and Cu is deposited at anode
4) Redox reaction occurring in this cell is Zn s   Cuaq2  
 Znaq2   Cu s 
73.Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) SF4 – gas (2) SeF4 – liquid
(3) TeF4 – solid (4) SF6 – solid
74.Which of the following is the correct code for statements below?
(i) Due to small size oxygen has less negative electron gain enthalpy than sulphur.
(ii) Oxygen shows only –2 oxidation state whereas S, Se and Te shows +4 O.S in their compounds with oxygen
and +6 with fluorine.
(iii) All hydrides of oxygen family possess reducing property which increases from H2S to H2Te.
(iv) Among hexahalides of group 16 hexafluorides are the onlys table halides.
(v) Dimeric monohalides of group 16 undergo disproportionation.
(1) TFTTT (2) FTTFF
(3) FTFTF (4) TFTFT
75.Assertion (A): Bond angle of H2S is smaller than H2O.
Reason (R): Electro negativity of the central atom increases, bond angle decreases.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
76.Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Arsenic and antimony are metalloids.
(ii) Phosphorus, arsenic and antimony are found mainly as sulphide minerals.
(iii) Covalent redii increases equally from N to Bi.
(iv) Elements of group 15 have extra stability and higher ionisation energy due to exactly half filled ns2np3
electronic configuration.
(v) In group 15 elements only nitrogen is gas whereas all others are solids.
(1) (i), (iv) and (v)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
77.Read the following statements regarding chemical reactivity of group 15 elements.
(i) Only compound of Bi with +5 oxidation state is BiF5.
(ii) Intermediate oxidation states for both nitrogen and phosphorus disproportionate in both acid and alkali.
(iii) Nitrogen due to absence of d-orbitals in its valence shell cannot form d-p bond as the heavier elements
thus
R3P = O exists but R3N = O does not exists.
 __
(iv) BiH3 is the strongest reducing agent amongst ___
the hydrides of nitrogen family.
(v) P2O3 is more acidic than P2O5.
Which of the following is the correct code for the statements above?
(1) FTFFT (2) FFTTF
(3) TFTTF (4) TFTFT
78.Assertion (A): Dinitrogen is inert at room temperature.
Reason (R): Dinitrogen directly combines with lithium to form ionic nitrides.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

79.Assertion (A): N2 is less reactive than P4.

Reason (R): Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than phosphorus.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
80.For cell representation Cu s  / Cuaq2  // Agaq  / Ag s  , which of the following is correct?
(i) Cu is reducing agent.
(ii) Cu is cathode.
(iii) Ag is anode.
(iv) Overall cell reaction is Cu s   2 Agaq  
 Cuaq2   2 Ag s  .
1) i, ii 2) i, iv 3) i, ii, iii, iv 4) ii, iii, iv
81. The value of electrode potential 10 M  H / H 2 1 atm  / Pt at 298K would be
4 

1) -0.236V 2) +0.404V 3) +0.236V 4) -0.476V

82. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000 C to furnish aluminium metal
o
[At.
3 
mass = 27 amu; 1 Faraday = 96500 C]. The cathode reaction is Al  3e   Al . To
prepare 5.12kg of aluminium metal by this method, we require electricity of
1) 5.49 101 C 2) 5.49 104 C 3) 1.83 105 C 4) 5.49 107 C
83. Incorrect limiting molar conductance of the following ion S cm 2 mol1  at 298K
1) H   78 2) Ca 2  119 3) SO42  160 4) OH   199.1
84. Without loosing its concentration : ZnCl2 solution cannot be kept in contact with
1) Au 2) Al 3) Pb 4) Ag
85. In a cell, the following reaction take place
Fe2  Fe3  e ; EFe
o
3
/ Fe2
 0.77V
2 I  
 I 2  2e  ; EIo / I   0.54V
2

The standard electrode potential for the spontaneous reaction in the cell is x  102 V
at 298K. The value of x is
1) -23 2) -2 3) 23 4) 20
86. According to Kohlrausch law, the limiting value of molar conductivity of an electrolyte
A2B is
1
1) A  B2 2)  Ao  B2 3) 2A  B 4) 2A  B2
2
87. Assertion : Cu ions get reduced more easily than H  ions.
2

Reason : Standard electrode potential of copper is -0.34V.

1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false
4) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
88. Specific conductance of a 0.1N KCl solution of 23o C is 0.012 ohm 1cm 1 . Resistance of
cell containing the solution at same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell
constant is
1) 0.0616cm1 2) 0.66cm 1 3) 6.60cm 1 4) 660cm 1
89. Which device converts chemical energy of a spontaneous redox reaction into electrical
energy?
 1) Galvanic cell 2) Daniell cell__ ___cell 4) Both 1 and 2
3) Electrolytic
90. Standard electrode potential of few half cell reactions are given below :
MnO4  8H   5e 
 Mn 2  4 H 2O;o  1.51V
Cr2O72  14 H   6e 
 2Cr 3  7 H 2O;o  1.33V
Fe3  e 
 Fe 2 ;o  0.77V
Cl2  2e  2Cl  ;o  1.36V
Based on the above information match the column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
A) 
1 mol of MnO4 to Mn 2
(i) 579000C
B) 1 mol of Cr2O72 to 2Cr 3 (ii) 193000C
C) 1 mol of Fe 3 to Fe2 (iii) 482500C
D) 1 mol of Cl2 to 2Cl  (iv) 96500C
1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii 4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

BOTANY

91. Readthefollowing statementsandselectthecorrectoption.

A. DNAandRNAaretwotypesofnucleicacidsfoundinlivingsystems.
B. DNAactsasgeneticmaterialinmostoftheorganisms.
C. RNA though it also acts as a genetic material in some viruses, mostly functionsas
a messenger.
D. RNAhasadditionalrolesasadapter,Structuralandasacatalyticmolecule.
1) AllthestatementsA,B,C, Dareincorrect
2) A,BandCstatementsarecorrectandDincorrect
3) A,BandDstatementsalonearecorrect
4) AllthestatementsA,B,C, Darecorrect
92. StatementI:AnitrogenousbaseislinkedtotheOHof1'Cpentosesugarthrough N-glycosidic
linkage to form a nucleoside.
StatementII:Twonucleotidesarelinkedthrough to 31→51
form a dinucleotide.
1) BothStatementIandStatementⅡareincorrect
2) StatementIincorrect,StatementIIiscorrect
3) StatementIiscorrect,StatementⅡisincorrect
4) BothStatementIandStatementIIareCorrect
93. Nucleotides are formed by
1) purine, Sugar and phosphate 2)purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
3)pyrimidine/purine, sugar and phosphate 4)Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
94. Assertion: Adenine and thymine base pair is more stable than guanine and cytosine
base pairs.
Reason: Adenine and thymine base pair has three hydrogen bonds whereas guanine
andcytosine base pair has two hydrogen bonds.
1) Both‘A’and‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of‘ A’
2) Both‘A’and‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3) Both‘A’and‘R ’are false 4)‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
95. In Griffith experiment, what would be the effect of following conditions on mice?
Form of pneumococcus injected Effect on mice
i. Live 'R' strain A
ii. Live S strain B
iii. Heat killed s strain C
IV. Heat killed s strain + live R strains D
Choose the correct option for effect to mice.
1) A-Survived, B-died, c-died, D-Survived
2) A-Survived, B-died, c-survived, D-died
3) A-died, B-survived, c-Survived, D-died
4) A-died, B-Survived, c-Died, D-died
 __ ___
96. Match the following columns.
Column-I(Scientists) Column-II(Discoveries)
A) F.Meischer 1) DNA double helix
B) Griffith 2) Nuclein
C) Hershey and chase 3) Transforming principle
D) Watson and crick 4) DNA is the genetic material
E) Wilkins and Franklin 5) X-ray diffraction studies

97. Assertion: DNA is a better genetic material Compared to RNA.

Reason:DNA is structurally more stable and chemically less reactive than RNA, as
evidenced by the presence of a reactive 2'OH group in RNA nucleotides.
1) Both‘A’and‘R’are true and‘R’ is a the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both‘A’and‘R’are true and‘R’is not the correct explanation of‘A’
3) ‘A’is true and‘R’is false
4) ‘A’is false and‘R’is true
98. J.Watson and F.crick proposed the double helix model of DNA. Choose the incorrect
statement with respect to their model of DNA.
1) I twas based on x-ray diffraction of DNA produced by M.wilkins and R.Franklin
2) One of the hallmarks of their proposition was base pairing between the two strands
of polynucleotide chains
3) The two polynucleotide chains are parallel to each other
4) The two strands are coiled around each other to form a double helix
99. Choose the incorrect pair.
1) Basic aminoacid residues in histones-Lysine and arginine
2) Unit of 8molecules in histones-histones octamer
3) Negatively charged DNA wrapped around positive histone octamer–Nucleosome
4) Thread like colourless bodies-chromatin in nucleus
100. Read the following statements and choose the correct one.
1) Densely packed and darkly stained region of chromatin are called euchromatin
2) The chromatin fibres are coiled and condensed at telophose stage of celldivision to
form chromosomes
3) Loosely packed and lightly stained region of chromatin are called
heterochromatin
4) Euchromatin is transcriptionally active chromatin,whereas heterochromatin is
inactive
101. Select the incorrect statements out of the following.
I. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, walter Sutton and Maclyn McCarty(1933-54), the
genetic material was thought to be a lipid.
II. They(Avery, MacLeod and McCarty)purified biochemicals from heatkilled's' cells
and discovered that only DNA caused the transformation of bacteria in their
experiment.
III. proteases and RNAses also effect transformation as they were also called as
transforming elements.
IV. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material Came from the experiment
of Alfred Hershey and Martha chase(1952).
V. Hershey and chase worked with bacteriophages.
1)I,IIandIV 2)IandIII 3)II,IVandV 4)I,II,IVandV
102. In a DNA Strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
1) Glycosidic bonds 2)phosphodiester bonds
3) peptide bonds 4)Hydrogen bonds
103. In an experiment involving bacteriophages,the following steps were followed.
I. Bacteria growing on medium containing radioactive Sulphur35 S were injected
with T2 bacteriophage.
II. The virus particles were then separated from the bacteria, washed and usedto infect
fresh bacteria grown in media with non-radio actives ulphur.
 __ ___
III. After a few minutes,the tube was vigorously agitated to detach viruses from the
bacterial cells.
IV. Centrifugation was carried out so as to separate the bacteria and viruses as two
fractions in the tube.
V. Presence of35 S was checked for in the tube by checking for radioactive in each
fraction. Some interpretation given below.
A. Swill be detected in both the pellet as well as supernatant.
35

B. 35
Swill be detected in the supernatant tviral fraction.
C. 35
Swill be detected in the viral proteins present in the pellet.
D. 35Swill be detected in the bacteria due to the insertion of viral
genome.Choose the correct code from the following :
A B C D A B C D
1) 2)
3) 4)
104. Select the correct salient features of the double helix structure of DNA.and mark the
correct option.
I. It is made of two polynucleotide chains.
II. One chain has the polarity 51→31,the other has 31→51.
III. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds forming base pairs.
IV. The two chains are coiled in a right handed.
V. The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix.This in addition to
N-bonds confers stability of the helical structure.
1) I,II,IIIandV 2)I,II,IIIandIV 3)I,II,III,IV andV 4)II,III,IVandV
105. Statement–I:Francis crick proposed the central dogmain molecularbiology,which states
that the genetic information flows from DNARNAProteins.
Statement–II:Insomevirusestheflowof information isinreversedirection.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are true
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are false
3) Statement-I is true,but Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false,but Statement- II is true
106. What is indicated by 'b’ in the figure?

a) Promoter b) Terminator
c)Structural gene d) Template strand

Adenine Thymine Guanina Cytosine

107. Theoretically, how many nucleosomes are present in a mammalian cell?

1)3.3 107 2) 6 109 3) 3.3 109 4) 4.6 106

108. Assertion: Previous discoveries by Gregor Mendel, walter sutton, Thomas Hunt
Morgan and numerous other scientists had narrowed the Search to the chromosomes
located in the nucleus of most cells.
Reason :But the question of what molecule was actually the genetic material, had
not been answered.
1) Both‘A’and‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a the correct explanation of‘A’
2) Both‘A’and‘R’ are true and‘R’ is not thecorrect explanationof‘A’
3) ‘A’is true and‘R’is false
4) ‘A’ is false and‘R’ is true

109. Select the incorrect statements out of the following.

VI. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, walter Sutton and Maclyn McCarty(1933-54),
 __ ___
the genetic material was thought to be a lipid.
VII. They(Avery, MacLeod and McCarty)purified biochemicals from heatkilled's' cells
and discovered that only DNA caused the transformation of bacteria in their
experiment.
VIII.proteases and RNAses also effect transformation as they were also called as
transforming elements.
IX. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material Came from the experiment
of Alfred Hershey and Martha chase(1952).
X. Hershey and chase worked with bacteriophages.
1)I,IIandIV 2)IandIII 3)II,IVandV 4)I,II,IVandV
110. In a DNA Strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
1) Glycosidic bonds 2)phosphodiester bonds
3) peptide bonds 4)Hydrogen bonds
111. In an experiment involving bacteriophages,the following steps were followed.
VI.Bacteria growing on medium containing radioactive Sulphur35 S were injected
with T2 bacteriophage.
VII. The virus particles were then separated from the bacteria, washed and usedto
infect fresh bacteria grown in media with non-radioactive sulphur.
VIII. After a few minutes,the tube was vigorously agitated to detach viruses from the
bacterial cells.
IX. Centrifugation was carried out so as to separate the bacteria and viruses as two
fractions in the tube.
X. Presence of35 S was checked for in the tube by checking for radioactive in each
fraction. Some interpretation given below.
A. Swill be detected in both the pellet as well as supernatant.
35

B. 35
Swill be detected in the supernatant viralfraction.
C. 35
Swill be detected in the viral proteins present in the pellet.
D. 35Swill be detected in the bacteria due to the insertion of viral genome.
Choose the correct code from the following :
A B C D A B C D
1) 2)
3) 4)
112. Select the correct salient features of the double helix structure of DNA.and mark the
correct option.
VI. It is made of two polynucleotide chains.
VII. One chain has the 51→31,the other has 31→51.
polarity
VIII. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds forming base pairs.
IX. The two chains are coiled in a right handed.
X. The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix.This in addition to
N-bonds confers stability of the helical structure.
1) I,II,IIIandV 2)I,II,IIIandIV 3)I,II,III,IV andV 4)II,III,IVandV
113. Statement–I:Francis crick proposed the central dogmain molecularbiology,which states
that the genetic information flows from DNARNAProteins.
Statement–II:Insomevirusestheflowofinformation.isinreversedirection.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are true
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are false
3) Statement-I is true,but Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false,but Statement- II is true
114. Theoretically, how many nucleosomes are present in a mammalian cell?
1)3.3 107 2) 6 109 3) 3.3 109 4) 4.6 106

115. Assertion: Previous discoveries by Gregor Mendel, walter sutton, Thomas Hunt
Morgan and numerous other scientists had narrowed the Search to the chromosomes
located in the nucleus of most cells.
 __ ___
Reason :But the question of what molecule was actually the genetic material, had
not been answered.
1) Both‘A’and‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a the correct explanation of‘A’
2) Both‘A’and‘R’ are true and‘R’ is not thecorrect explanationof‘A’
3) ‘A’is true and‘R’is false
4) ‘A’ is false and‘R’ is true
116. Assertion:RNA can directly code for the Synthesis of proteins ,hence can easily
express the characters.
Reason:The protein synthesis in gmachinery.has evolved around RNA.
1) Both‘A’and‘R’are true and‘R’ is a the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’and‘R’are true and‘R’is not the correct explanation of‘A’
3) ‘A’Istrueand‘R’isfalse
4) ‘A’is false and‘R’is true
117. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in
eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accomodated?
1) Super coilingin nucleosomes 2)Reverse transcription
3)Through elimination of repetitive DNA 4)Deleting non-essential genes
118. The geneticmaterialinф 174 bacteriophagehas 5386 nucleotides.It is
1) Single Stranded DNA 2) Single Stranded RNA
3)Double Stranded DNA 4)Double Stranded RNA
119. Spraying gibberellins on sugarcane crop increases
1) Length of the node in stems and yield as much as 20 tonnes per acre.
2) Rooting in stem cuttings and yield as much as 20 tonnes per hectare.
3) Length of the stem and yield as much as 20 tonnes per acre.
4) Sugar in the stem by increasing carbohydrates due to increase in the nodes of the
stem.
120. How many of the following statements are correct regarding plant hormone ethylene?
Induces seed dormancy in peanut.
A. Induces seed dormacy in peanut.
B. Causes bolting in rosette plants.
C. Involved in ripening of climacteric fruit.
D. Cause internode and petiole elongation in deep water rice plants.
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4)Five
121. Choose the odd one out with respect to the function of gibberellins.
1) Hastens maturity period in juvenile conifers.
2) Increase in length of grape stalk.
3) Internodal elongation just before flowering in rosette plants.
4) Apical hook formation in dicot seedling.
122. Select the pair of hormones which are synergistic to flowering in pineapples?
1) Auxins and Etheylene 2)Auxins and cytokinins
3) Gibberellins and cytokines 4) Ethylene and abscissicacid
123. One of the most widely used PGR in agriculture
1) Promotes abscission in leaves and flowers
2) Initiates germination in leaves and flowers.
3) Increases therate of respiration in fruits
4) All the above.

124. Read the given statements and select the option the correctly identifies the
incorrect ones.
I. Cytokinin is primarily concerned with cell division.
II. C2H4 breaks seed dormancy and bud dormancy.
III. ABA stimulates the opening of stomata
IV. Ethylene initiates germination in peanut seeds,sprouting of potato tubers.
V. ABA is synergistic to GA.
1) I,IIandIV 2)IIIandII 3)IIIandV 4)IVandV
125. Which of the following is not a function of gibberellins?
1) Delay sensecence 2)Increase length of grapestalks
3) Promoting seed dormancy 4)Inducing bolting
126. I Speedening up the malting process in brewing industry.
II. Promotes bolting
 __ ___
III. Improving shape in apple
IV. Promotes rosette habit in cabbage
How many of these are the physiological roles of gibberellins?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4)Four

127. Fruitscanbeleftontreeslongersoastoextendtheshelflifebecause
1) Ethylene promot essenescence and abscission.
2) Gibberellic acid delays senescence.
3) Cytokinins promotes nutrient mobilisation.
4) Auxins helps to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages.

128. Rosette habit of cabbage can bechangedbytheapplicationof

1)ABA 2)IAA 3)GA 4)Ethephon

129. What is indicated by ‘a’ in the figure?

O
H

(a)5’phosphate (b)3’phosphate
(c)Riboscsugar (d)Nitrogen base

130. The Hershey—Chase experiments show which of the following

steps chronologically?
a)Blending, InfectionCentrifugation
(b)Centrifugation.Infection.Blendin*_
{c)Infection,Centrifugation,Blending
(dIInfection,Blending.Centrifugalion

131. Abacteriophagei2•174has
(a) 5863 fibasepairs (b) 3583 nucleotides
(c)5386 nucleotides (d)5836 basepairs
132. Friedrich Miescber
a)Identified DNA as a basic substance and named it ‘Nucleotide’ in 1896.
b) Identified DNA as an acidic substance and named it Nuclein’ in1896.
c)Identified DNA as an acidic substance and named it Nuclein’ in 1869.
D)None of the above

133 I,D.Watson and F,II.Crick utilized X-ray diffraction data produced by

a)RosaIind Wilkinsand Maurice Franklin
b) MauriceWilkins and Rosalind Franklin
c) Sutton and Boven d) Noneof these
134. Double helix model of DNA has a pitch of
(a)0.34rim (b)3.4rim
(c)34d (d)Both(b) and(c)
135. Typicallyanucleosomeconsistsof‘howmanyb2sepairs?
(a) 190 (b)200
(c) 300 (d)3IO

ZOOLOGY
136. Match list-I withlist-II :
List-I List-II
 __ ___
(A) Datura (I) Erythroxylum coca
(B) Smack (II) Cannabis sativa
(C) Crack (III) Hallucinogenic properties
(D) Hashish (IV) Papaver somniferum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

137). Match list-I withlist-II:

List-I List-II
(A) Pneumonia (I) Fungus
(B) Malaria (II) Nematode
(C) Ringworm (III) Protozoa
(D) Elephantiasis (IV) Bacteria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A- III, B-I, C-IV, D- II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

138) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Bone marrow is the secondary lymphoid organ where all blood cells including
lymphocytes are produced.
Statement-II:- Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the
development and maturation of B-Lymphocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

139) Read the following statements and choose the correct set of statements:
(a) Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence.
(b) Innate immunity consist of two types of barriers.
(c) Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents entry of the micro-organisms.
(d) The body is not able to defend itself from most of these foreign agents.
.
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only

140). Which of the following is related to typhoid.

(1) Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for
this disease
(2) As a result of the infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems
in respiration.
(3) The symptoms of this disease include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(4) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.

141). Those who take drugs intravenously (direct injection into the vein using a needle and syringe),
are much more likely to acquire serious infections like?
(1) Cirrhosis (2) Typhoid (3) AIDS and Hepatitis B (4) Pernicious anaemia

142) Why is it that the organs cannot be taken from just anybody? What is it that the doctors
check mainly?
(1) Tissue matching (2) Blood pressure (BP)
(3) Blood group matching (4) 1 and 3 both

143). When readymade antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign antigens
it is called:-
(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity
(3) Innate immunity (4) 1 and 3 both

144) Assertion: Proto-oncogenes are have been identified in normal cells.

Reason: Under normal conditions they could lead to the oncogenic transformation of the cell.
(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
 __ ___
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

145). Fill in the blanks.

(i) Cocaine is obtained from plant ___A___
(ii) Excessive use/dosage of cocaine causes___B___.
(iii) Cocaine is generally taken by ____C____.
(A) (B) (C)
(1) Atropabelladona Hallucination Injection
(2) Erythroxylum coca Hallucination Snorting
(3) Cannabis sativa Depression Snorting
(4) Erythroxylum coca Pain relief Inhalation

146). How many of the following drugs have hallucinogenic effects?

(a) Excessive use of drug obtained from Erythoxylum coca.
(b) By heroine
(c) Drug obtained from Papaver sominiferum
(d) Drug obtained from Atropa belladonna and Datura
(1) a, b and c (2) c and d
(3) a and d (4) b and c

147). How many statements are correct regarding pneumonia?

(a) It spreads by droplet or aerosol inhaling and use of glass or utensils of infected person.
(b) Infects alveoli of the lungs.
(c) Fever with chills, cough and headache.
(d) In normal cases lips and nails turns grey to bluish in colour.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

148). Statement-I: Heroin commonly called smack is chemically diacetylmorphine which is a

brown, odorless, sweet crystalline compound.
Statement-II: Heroin is a depressant and slow down body functions.
(1) Both statements are correct (2) Statement-II correct only
(3) Statement-I correct only (4) Both statement are incorrect

149). Match List -I with List -II

List-I List-II
A Heroin I Effect on cardiovascular function
B Ganja II Acetylation of morphine
C Cocaine III Pain Killer
D Morphine IV Producing sense of euphoria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A → I, B → II, C → III, D → IV (2) A → IV, B → III, C → II, D → I
(3) A → II, B → I, C → IV, D → III (4) A → III, B → IV, C → I, D → II

150). Which of the following fungi is responsible for ringworm:-

(1) Microsporum (2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton (4) All

151). Which of the following is not the withdrawal symptoms:

(1) Anxiety (2) Euphoria
(3) Nausea and sweating (4) Shakiness

152). Use of which drugs reduce the symptoms of allergy?

(1) Anti-histamine (2) Adrenaline
(3) Steroids (4) All of the above

153) Smoking is associated with increased incidence of which type of cancer?

(1) Lung (2) Urinary bladder
(3) Throat (4) All of the above

154). Disease are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases.
In the list given below identify the infections disease-
(I) cancer (II) Influenza (III) Allergy (IV) small pox
 __ ___
(1) II and IV (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) I and II

155) Consider the following (A to C) symptoms of a disease

(A) Constipation (B) Abdominal pain and cramps
(C) Stools with excess mucous and blood clots.
Above mention symptoms are indication of -
(1) Amoebic dysentery (2) Malaria
(3) Pneumonia (4) Filariasis

156). A piece of suspected tissue is cut into thin sections, is stained and examined under microscope
by a pathologist. This technique is known as:-
(1) Biopsy (2) Computed tomography
(3) Magnetic resonance imaging (4) Radiography

157). Which of the following drugs which are normally used as medicines to help patients
cope with mental illness like depression and insomnia are often abused?
(1) Barbiturates (2) Amphetamines
(3) Benzodiazepines (4) All of the above

158) Antitoxin, vaccine and colostrum are examples of which type of immunity respectively?
(1) Artificial active, artificial passive & natural active
(2) Artificial passive, artificial active & natural passive
(3) Artificial passive, natural active & natural passive
(4) Natural passive, natural active & artificial passive

159). Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite which infects

(1) Stomach (2) Small intestine
(3) Large intestine (4) Liver

160). Match the columns with regards to vectors and diseases:

Column-I Column-II
p. Female Culex i. Dengue
q. Female Anopheles ii. Filariasis
r. Female Aedes iii. Malaria
(1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii (2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i
(3) p-ii, q-i, r-iii (4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii

161). Find out the correct statement about tobacco addiction and its effects.
(1) It increases carbon monoxide content in the blood as well as increases the concentration
of haem bound oxygen
(2) Its prolonged abuse can lead to cancer of lungs and urinary bladder and gastric ulcers
(3) Tobacco does not contain any alkaloids
(4) It can be chewed or smoked but not snuffed

162).Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else.
Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species?
(1) Endemic (2) Vulnerable (3) Threatened (4) Keystone

163). How manyhotspots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?
(1) 17 (2) 25 (3) 34 (4) 43

164). Which of the following represents maximum number of species among globalbiodiversity?
(1) Algae (2) Lichens (3) Fungi (4) Mosses and ferns

165). If log A = 4, Z =0.3 and log C =0.8, find the value of log ‘S’?
(1) 3.76 (2) 100 (3) 4.24 (4) 2

166). Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven
to extinction?
(1) Drought and floods (2) Economic exploitation
(3) Alien species invasion (4) Habitat loss and fragmentation

167). Decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to introduction of Clariasgariepinus
in Indian rivers can be categorised as
 __ ___
(1) Coextinction (2) Habitat fragmentation
(3) Overexploitation (4) Alien species invasion

168). In many cultures, all the trees and wildlife within were venerated and given total protection called
is allowed is known as
(1) Sacred groves (2) Biosphere reserves
(3) National parks (4) Sanctuaries

169). Which one of the following is related to ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?
(1) Wildlife safari parks (2) Biodiversity hotspots
(3) Amazon rainforest (4) Himalayan region

170). The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called
(1) For conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its benefits
(2) To assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species
(3) For immediate steps to discontinue the use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
(4) To reduce CO2 emissions and global warming
171). All of the following are included in ex-situ conservation except
(1) Botanical gardens (2) Sacred groves (3) Wild life safari parks (4) Seed banks

172). Assertion (A):The species-area relationships are analysed among very large areas like the
entire continents, the value of Z, i.e. slope of line lies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2
Reason (R): Larger is the explored area more is the steepness of slope of line.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false (4) A is false, but R is true

173). Select the correct statement (s).

I. Indiahasmorethan50,000geneticallydifferent strains ofrice.
II. Indiahas1000varietiesofmango.
III. Atecosystemlevel,India,withitsdeserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and
alpine meadows,etc.,hasa greaterdiversitythana Scandinavian country
likeNorway.
IV. Thetropicalrainforestinitiallycovered14%of the landsurfaceofearth,butnow
Theycoveronly6%of thelandarea.
(1) I and II (2) I, II and III (3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV

174).Read the following statements.

I.Speciesdiversityincreasesaswemoveawayfromthe equatortowardsthepoles.
II.Stellar’sseacowandpassengerpigeongotextinctdue tooverexploitationbyman.
III.LantanaandEichhorniaareinvasiveweedinIndia.
IV.Thehistoricconventiononbiologicaldiversitywas heldin1992.
Choose the option containing correct statements.
(1) I and II (2) I, II and IV (3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV

175). Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
(1)Lantana (2)Cynodon (3)Parthenium (4)Eichhornia

176). Which of the following statements is true?

(1) The IUCN Red list (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species
(including 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87 plants) in last 500 years
(2) There are more than 20,000 species of ants, 3,00,000 species of beetles, 28, 000 species
of fishes and nearly 20,000 species of orchids
(3) More than 70% of all the species recorded are animals, while plants comprise no
more than 22% of the total
(4) All of the above

177). The numbers of national parks, biosphere reserves and wildlife sanctuaries of India,
respectively are
(1) 90, 14, 448 (2) 158, 62, 10 (3) 58, 412, 10 (4) 96, 412, 10

178). Communities with more species tend to be more stable than those with less species.
This was confirmed by
(1) Alexander von Humboldt (2) David Tilman
 __ ___
(3) Paul Ehrlich (4) Edward Wilson

179). Arrange the following places in increasing order of bio diversities of species of birds and
select the right option.
(1) Colombia→New York→Greenland→India
(2)Greenland→New York→India→Colombia
(3)New York→India→Colombia→Greenland
(4) India→Colombia→Greenland→New York

Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key 180). As
1 2 11 3 21 3 31 3 41 4 estimated
2 by Robert
3 12 1 22 2 32 2 42 4
May, what
3 1 13 3 23 2 33 1 43 4 is the total
4 2 14 1 24 1 34 2 44 4 number of
5 4 15 1 25 3 35 1 45 4 species
6 4 16 1 26 3 36 1
present on
earth?
7 2 17 2 27 1 37 2 (1)
8 2 18 4 28 4 38 4 3 million
9 2 19 1 29 2 39 1 (2)
10 3 20 4 30 3 40 2 5 million

(3) 7 million (4) 9 million

Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
91 4 101 2 111 4 121 4 131 3
92 4 102 2 112 2 122 1 132 3
93 4 103 4 113 1 123 4 133 2
94 3 104 3 114 1 124 3 134 4
95 3 105 1 115 2 125 3 135 2
96 3 106 2 116 1 126 3
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
97 1 107 1 117 1 127 4
46 2 56 4 66 3 76 1 86 4
98 3 108 2 118 1 128 3
47 3 57 2 67 2 77 3 87 3
99 4 109 4 119 3 129 1
48 4 58 4 68 3 78 2 88 2
100 4 110 2 120 2 130 4
49 1 59 1 69 1 79 3 89 4
50 3 60 1 70 4 80 2 90 3
Q.No
51 Key1 Q.No61 Key 3 Q.No 71 Key 2Q.No 81Key Q.No
1 Key
136 4 146 3 156 1 166 4 176 4
52 4 62 1 72 3 82 4
137 2 147 3 157 4 167 4 177 1
53
138 22 14863 2 4 158 73 2 4 168 83 1 1178 2
54
139 13 14964 3 1 159 74 3 1 169 84 1 2179 2
55
140 41 15065 4 2 160 75 2 3 170 85 1 3180 3
141 3 151 2 161 2 171 2
142 4 152 4 162 1 172 4
143 2 153 4 163 3 173 4
144 1 154 1 164 3 174 4
145 2 155 1 165 4 175 2