Law Enfrocement

Adminstration

Ariel C. Manlusoc
Forensic Specialist
Registered Criminologist
BSE (21 Units), M.A. Crim.,Ph. D., Llb.
1. The Greek word which means “government
of a city” or “civil organization and state”, which
is claimed as the origin of the word police refers
to:
 A. Politia C. Policia
 B. Politeia D. Polis
Polis = a Greek word which means “city-state”
or a system of organized civil enforcement to
preserve life, liberty, property, food sources,
community health and the enforcement of laws.
Policer =, from Old French policie, civil organization,
from Late Latin politia, from Latin, the State, from
Greek politeia, from polites, citizen, from polis, city;)
2. The following belongs to the three broad goals
of the police organization, EXCEPT: “PEM”
A. To protect life and property
B. To ensure public safety
C. To arrest suspected criminals
D. To maintain peace and order
E. None of them
3. This term refers to police in action or the
cooperative human effort to achieve the purposes of
the Criminal Justice System
A. Police organization C. Police administration

B. Police operation D. Police supervision

Police Organization- a group of trained personnel in
the field of public safety administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives that promotes the
maintenance of peace and order, protection of life and
property, enforcement of the laws and the prevention of
crimes.
4. The one regarded as the “Father of Modern
Policing System” for contributing his brilliant
concepts in policing which are still being used
today and paying the way for the creation of one of
the most efficient police organization in the word
was:
 A. Henry Fielding C. John Fielding
 B. Sir Robert Peel D. Allan Pinkerton
5. What is the name of the acclaimed first formally
organized modern police force in the world?
 A. Interpol C. Scotland Yard
 B. New York Police District D. Texas
rangers

6. The first commissioner of the acclaimed first formally
organized modern police force in the world was:
 A. Oliver Cromwell C. Eugene Vidocq
 B. Charles Rowan D. Robert Peel
7. The following are the law enforcement principles
enunciated by the Father of Modern Policing stem,
EXCEPT:
A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the police
B. The police must have full respect of the citizenry
C. The police are the public and the public are the police
D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by final
judgment
E. None of them
8. The law issued by Henry I, son of William
the conqueror, which empowered the police and
the citizens to conduct arrest refers to:
A. Magna CartaC. Statute of Winchester
a collection of regulations aimed at keeping the peace.
B. Leges Henrici D. Statute of 1295
(curfew)
9. The law that created the first insular
constabulary in the Philippines was:
A. Act No. 255 C. Act No. 175
B. Act No. 183 D. Act No. 3815
10. This law originally created the Police
Commission that later on became the National
Police Commission
 A. RA No. 6040 C. RA No. 6975
 B. RA No. 4864 D. PD No. 765

11. The integrated national police was created
by virtue of:
 A. RA. 6040 C. PD No. 765
 B. PD No. 968 D. RA No. 4864


12. He was the first Filipino Chief of the Philippine
Constabulary, to whom the national headquarters
 of the PNP was named:
 A. Antonio Torres C. Rafael Crame
 B. Henry Allen D. Emilio Aguinaldo
Henry Allen =the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
13. The first Filipino Chief of the Manila Police
Department was:
 A. George Curry C. Henry Allen
 B. Marcus Ellis Jones D. Antonio Torres
14. The agency created to administer and control the
PNP was the:
 A. DILG C. NAPOLCOM
 B. Mayor’s Office D. PPSC
15. This law created the PNP as one of the tri-bureaus of
public safety under the DILG, along with the BFP and
BJMP
 A. RA No. 8551 C. RA No. 7659
 B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 6040
 16. The law that empowered the police commission to
conduct entrance and promotional examination for
police members refers to:
 A. RA No. 4864 C. RA No. 6040
 B. RA No. 8551 D. PD No. 765
17. The law that reformed and reorganized the PNP and
upgraded the qualification of PNP members refers to:
 A. RA No. 4864 C. RA No. 6040
 B. RA No. 8551 D. PD No. 765
18. The parcel of the 1987 Philippine Constitution
which provides that the PNP shall by nature,
national in scope and civilian in character refers to:
 A. Art. 16, Sec.16 C. Art. 16, Sec.6
 B. Art. 6, Sec.16 D. Art. 6, Sec.6
19. The primary institution for the training and
education of all personnel of the PNP, BFP and
BJMP is the:
 A. Philippine National Police Academy
 B. National Police College
 C. Philippine Military Academy
D. Philippine Public Safety College
E. Philippine Law Enforcement College
20. The first Director General of the PNP was:
 A. Rafael Crame C. Cesar Nazareno
 B. Henry Allen D. Raul Imperial
21. The concept of police service which states that
the yardstick of police efficiency is the absence of
crime refers to
 A. Old C. Continental
 B. Modern D. Home rule
22. The theory of police service which states that
police officers are servants of the people or the
community refers to:
 A. Old C. Home rule
 B. Modern D. Continental
23. The largest organic unit within a large
department is termed as:
 A. Bureau C. Section
 B. Division D. Unit
 Department–bureau – division-section-unit
24. The PNP is a _____________ under the DILG
 A. Bureau C. Section
 B. Division D. Unit
25. The term referring to personnel of the police
department who has taken oath of office and
possesses the power to arrest refers to:
 A. Oath officer C. Sworn officer
26. The period of time elapsed since the oath of
office was administered is termed
 A. Tour of duty C. Term of office
 B. On duty D. Length of service

27. One having supervisory responsibilities

over officers to the lower rank, whether
temporary or permanent is called
A. Commanding officer C. Superior officer
B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
28. The consequence of an act which temporarily
deprives a police officer from the performance
of his duty refers to:
 A. Separation C. Leave of absence
 B. Suspension D. Off duty

29. The organization structure of the PNP is

 A. Functional C. Line and staff
 B. Line D. Matrix
30. The principle of police organization which
depicts the unbroken flow of command from
the top to the bottom of the organizational
hierarchy refers to:
A. Chain of command C. Unity of command
B. Span of control D. All of them

31. The principle which states that there should
only be one man who is in command of entire
organization refers to:
A. Chain of command C. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Unity of objectives
32. This principle refers to the ability of one
man to direct and supervise his subordinates. It
states that there is a limit with regard to the
number of subordinates that a superior can
effectively supervise. Thus, the rest of the
supervisory power is delegated to his
immediate subordinates, for them to conduct
the supervision of organizational members at
the lower level
A. Delegation of authority
B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command
D. Span of control
33. The PNP Chief is the only person in
command of the entire PNP organization. As
such, even the President of the Philippines
cannot just give command to the PNP, if such
command will not pass through the PNP
Chief, for him to disseminate it further to the
other members of the organization.
 This principle of police organization refers
to:
A. Chain of command C. Unity of
command
B. Span of control D. Scalar chain
34. The division of work according to type,
place, time and specialization refers to:
A. Unity of command C. Scalar principle
B. Span of control D. Functional
principle

35. The rank equivalent of a Senior Police
Officer 3 in the AFP is:
 A. Unity sergeant C. Sergeant
 B. Master sergeant D. Technical
sergeant

36. The equivalent designation of the PNP
Chief in the AFP is:
A. Defense Secretary C. Chief of staff
B. DILG Secretary D. Commander in chief

37. How many deputy director general ranks

are there in the PNP?
 A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4

38. The PNP Chief has how many deputies?

 A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1
39. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed by a
police officer with the rank of Chief
 Superintendent and a designation as:
A. Deputy director general C. Lieutenant general
 B. Deputy director D. Inspector general

40. The fourth man in command of the PNP
organization is the:
 A. Assistant deputy director general for
administration
 B. Deputy director general for operation
 C. Inspector general
 D. Chief of the directorial staff
41. The equivalent rank of a director in the AFP is:
 A. Lieutenant general C. Brigadier general
 B. Major general D. Colonel

42. The highest non-commissioned rank in the PNP
is:
 A. Director general C. SPO4
 B. Inspector D. PO1

43. The lowest rank of a police commissioned officer
is:
 A. PO1 C. SPO4
 B. Inspector D. SPO1
44. The rank of the PNP Chief is:
A. Director General C. Chief
Superintendent
B. Commissioner General D. Inspector
General

45. The appropriate training required for

permanent appointment as PO1 is:
 A. Junior leadership course
 B. Police basic course
C. Officer’s candidate course
D. Officer’s advance course
46. The degree conferred to a PNPA graduate is:
 A. Bachelor of science in public safety
 B. Bachelor of science in police science
 C. Bachelor of science in police
administration
 D. Bachelor of science in national security
administration

47. The rank of a PNPA cadet is
 A. Between SPO4 and Inspector
 B. SPO1
C. Higher than SPO4 but lower than Inspector
48. To discourage coddling of erring PNP members by
their superiors, the PNP shall observe the doctrine of:
A. Chain of command C. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Command
responsibility
 49. The principle of police service which states that
the responsibility of action cannot be greater than
 that implied by the authority delegated nor should
it be less refers to:
 A. Principle of parity and responsibility
 B. Authority level principle
C. Principle of absoluteness of responsibility
D. Principle of delegation by result expected
50. The principle which states that some members
of the police organization are tasked for the direct
accomplishment of the police objectives while the
others are assigned to support them refers to:
A. Function principle
B. Principle of unity of objectives
C. Line and staff principle
D. Principle of balance

51. The prescribed police-to-population ratio in the
PNP is:
 A. 1:1000 C. 1:750
 B. 1:500 D. 1:100
52. The second man in command of PNP is the:
A. Chief of the Directorial Staff
B. Inspector General
C. Deputy Director General For Administration
D. Deputy Director General for Operation

53. The PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of
1998 took effect on:
 A. January 1, 1999 C. February 25, 1998
 B. March 6, 1998 D. May 6, 1998
54. If the AFP is under the DND, the PNP is under the:
 A. DILG C. Office of the President
 B. DOJ D. LGU

55. From assumption of office, the term of office of the
members of the PLEB under RA 8551 shall be
 for a period of:
 A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 6 years

56. This refers to any complaint initiated by a private
individual against any member of the PNP
A. Citizen’s complaint C. Breach of internal discipline
 B. Information D. Minor offense
57. If the offense is punishable for a period of
not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days,
the citizen’s complaint shall be filed at the:
A. Office of the Chief of police C. PLEB
 B. Mayor’s Office D. Any of them

58. Preventive suspension can be imposed upon
erring PNP member if the penalty attached to
the offense in which he is charged is at least:
 A. Six years C. 1 year
 B. Six months D. Six years and one day
59. The disciplinary action imposed by the PNP
Chief to erring PNP member shall be appealed to
the NAB
A. Within 15 days
B. Within 5 days
C. Within 30 days
D. Within 10 days from receipt of the copy of the
decision

60. The number of PLEB assigned for every five
hundred city or municipal police personnel and for
 every municipality or legislative district in a city is:
 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
61. The composition of the members of the PLEB
are the following except:
A. Any member of the sangguniang
panglunsod/bayan chosen by his respective
sanggunian
B. Any barangay captain of the city of municipality
concerned chosen by the Association of Barangay
Captains
C. Three other members who are removable only
for cause chosen by the Local Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community known for their probity and integrity
D. None of them
62. The following are minor offenses, except:
 A. Simple misconduct or negligence

 B. Insubordination
 C. Frequent absences or tardiness
D. Gambling and habitual drunkenned
E. None of them
63. The NAPOLCOM is attached to the DILG
for policy and:
A. Instruction C. Program coordination
B. Cooperation D. Supervision

64. The ex-officio chairperson of the
NAPOLCOM is the:
 A. Chief PNP D. DILG Secretary
 B. NBI Director E. President
 C. AFP Chief

65. The NAPOLCOM is composed of how
many regular commissioners?
 A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
66. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or modify
personnel disciplinary actions involving demotion
or dismissal from the service imposed upon
members of the PNP by the Chief PNP through the:
 A. President D. Congress
 B. NAB E. PLEB
 C. RAB

67. The four regular and full time commissioners of
the NAPOLCOM shall be appointed by the
President, without re-appointment, for a term of:
 A. 5 years C. 3 years
 B. 4 years D. 6 years
68. The minimum educational qualification
for appointment in the PNP under the PNP
reform and reorganization act is:
A. Baccalaureate degree C. College level
B. 72 collegiate unitsD. Master’s degree

69. The minimum height requirement for
male applicants in the PNP under regular
recruitment is:
 A. 1.62 m C. 1.57 m
 B. 1.60 m D. 1.56 m
70. An applicant in the PNP must not be more than or
less than how many kilograms from the
 standard weight corresponding to his height, age
and sex?
 A. 6 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15
71. An applicant under the PNP regular recruitment
must not be less than 21 years old nor more than:
A. 29 y/o B. 35 y/o C. 30 y/o D. 25 y/o
72. The requirements for initial appointment in the
PNP shall be waived in what order?
A. Age, height, education, weight
B. Height, age, education, weight
C. Age, height, weight, education
D. Any order
 73. The certification of membership to cultural minority
group for PNP applicants who want to avail of the waiver for
height requirement shall come from the:
 A. Congress
 B. NAPOLCOM
 C. Office of the Mayor of the town to which the
applicant belongs
 D. Office of the Muslim Affairs or other appropriate
government agency
 74. Waiver of educational requirement may be granted to an
applicant who has finished at least 72
 collegiate units leading to a bachelor’s degree, provided
that he shall be given at least how many
 years to obtain the required educational qualification?
 A. 5 C. 6
 B. 4 D. 3
75. The nature of PNP appointment under the
waiver program is:
 A. Permanent C. Temporary
 B. Probationary D. Special

76. A chief of city police station must be a
holder of master’s degree or:
 A. Has earned 72 units in Bachelor of
laws C. Has earned 12 units of master’s degree
 B. A graduate of Bachelor of Laws
D. Has earned 24 units of master’s
degree
77. The maximum tenure of office of the PNP Chief is:
 A. 5 years C. 6 years
 B. 4 years D. 9 years

78. The PNP Deputy Chiefs and the Chief of the
Directorial Staff have a tenure of office of:
 A. 5 years C. 6 years
 B. 4 years D. 9 years

79. The compulsory retirement age for PNP members
is:
 A. 50 years old C. 56 years old
 B. 60 years old D. 55 years old
80. In times of war or national emergency declared
by the congress, the term of office of the PNP
 Chief may be extended by the:
 A. Congress C. President
 B. NAPOLCOM D. DILG
Secretary

81. A PNP member shall be retired or separated
from the service if he has been relieved for just
cause after due notice and hearing and has not
given assignment within how many years after such
relief?
 A. 1 C. 3

82. A PNP member who was demoted in position or
rank and not assigned to a position commensurate to
such grade despite the existence of vacancy shall be
retired or separated within how many months after
such demotion?
 A. 18 months C. 2 years
 B. 10 years D. 1 year

83. Any PNP member who has not been promoted
despite the existence of vacancy for a continuous
period of how many years shall be retired or
separated?
 A. 5 C. 8
 B. 2 D. 10
84. Promotion by virtue of position shall be
granted after
 A. 6 months C. 2 years
 B. 1 year D. 18 months

85. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can
get the lump sum of his retirement benefits
for the period
 of first
 A. 10 years C. 5 years
 B. 6 years D. 2 years
 86. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical
disability in the performance of his duty and unable to
further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
pension equivalent to:
 A. His or her last salary
 B. 80 percent of his or her last salary
C. 50 percent of his or her last salary
D. 90 percent of his or her last salary

87. The uniformed PNP members have an equivalent
salary grade as that of:
A. A college professor C. A public school teacher
B. A PDEA personnel D. All of them
88. The PNP IAS is headed by an Inspector
General with the rank of:
 A. Director C. Senior Superintendent
B. Chief Superintendent D. Chief
Inspector

89. Occupational specialty pay shall be granted
to the members of the PNP IAS which shall not
exceed how many percent of their basic pay?
 A. 90 C. 50
 B. 80 D. 25
90. Appeals on the decision made by the PNP IAS
shall be:
 A. Within 10 days
 B. Within 5 days
 C. Within 15 days
 D. Within 10 working days upon the receipt of
the copy thereof

91. Complaints against personnel of the PNP IAS
shall be brought to the NAPOLCOM or to the office
 of the:
 A. Ombudsman C. PNP Chief
 B. DILG Secretary D. Inspector General
92. Where the offense is punishable by withholding of
privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension
or forfeiture of salary for a period of not exceeding 15
days, the citizen’s complaint shall be brought to the
office of the:
 A. Mayor C. IAS
 B. PLEB D. Chief of Police

93. Breach of internal discipline committed by any
member of the PNP shall be brought to the office of
 the Chief of Police or equivalent supervisor if the
penalty imposed covers the period of:
A. Not exceeding 15 days C. Not exceeding 60 days
B. Not exceeding 30 days D. Dismissal
94. The PNP Chief shall have the power to
impose penalty for breach of internal discipline
committed by any member of the PNP if the
penalty imposed for the offense shall not exceed
 A. 60 days C. 120 days
 B. 90 days D. 180 days

95. Any existence of forum shopping shall be
reported by the complainant within how many
days after his discovery of such?
 A. 20 C. 10
 B. 15 D. 5
96. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately
from the service after due notice and summary
hearings if it was proven that he went on AWOL for a
continuous period of:
 A. 30 days or more C. 15 days or more
 B. 20 days or more D. 60 days or more

97. At least how many RAB should be designated for
every administrative region in the country?
 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

98. The percentage of PNP annual quota that is allotted
for women is:
 A. 50% B. 15% C. 10% D. 20%
99. The Provincial Governor shall have the
power to choose the PNP Provincial Director
from the list of how many eligible candidates
recommended by the PNP Regional Director?
 A. 2 C. 5
 B. 3 D. 4

100. The city or municipal mayor shall
develop an integrated community public
safety plan pursuant to:
 A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903
 B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551
1.
POLICE PLANNING
1. The organized schedule or sequence of methodical
activities intended to attain a goal or objective
 refers to:
 A. Plan C. Planning
B. Operational plan D. Operational planning
2. The process of determining the problems of the
organization and coming up with the proposed
solution generally refers to:
A. Planning C. Operational planning
B. Police planning D. Police operational planning
3. The following statements are true, except:
A. Planning is the conceptual idea of doing
something to attain a goal or objective
B. Planning is the use of rational design for
departmental undertakings
C. Planning is the process of deciding in advance
what has to be done and how it is to be done
D. None of them
E. All of them
4. Creativity in planning includes the following, except:
 A. Imitation D. Idea linking
 B. Inductive reasoning E. None of them
 C. Deductive reasoning
5. The creativity in planning that moves from
specific to general is:
 A. Imitation D. Idea linking
 B. Inductive reasoning E. All of them
 C. Deductive reasoning

6. The systematic and orderly determination of
facts and events as basis for policy formulation
and decision affecting law enforcement
management refers to:
A. Planning C. Operational planning
B. Police planning D. Police operational
planning
7. It is the process of formulating coordinated
sequence of methodical activities in law
enforcement and allocation of resources to line
units in order to attain a mandated purpose
A. Planning C. Operational planning
B. Police planning D. Police operational
planning
8. The use of rational design or pattern for all
departmental undertaking refers to:
A. Planning C. Operational planning
B. Police planning D. Police operational
planning
9. The set of procedures intended to meet
varying degree of emergency while at the same
time, providing continuing police coverage
refers to:
A. Specific emergency plan C. Radical plan
B. General emergency plan D. Strategic plan

10. The type of plan designed to meet specific
unusual needs refers to:
A. Synoptic plan C. Strategic plan
B. Specific emergency plan D. Radical plan
11. This refers to the general statement of
intention typically with time horizon. It is an
achievable end state that can be measured and
observed
 A. Objective C. Vision
 B. Goal D. Mission

12. The specific commitment to achieve a
measurable result within a specific period of time
refers to:
 A. Goal C. Strategy
 B. Objective D. Tactic

13. This refers to a sequence of activities to reach a
point or attain what is desired
 A. Strategy C. Procedure
 B. Tactic D. Mission
14. The broad design, method or plan to attain a stated
goal or objective refers to:
 A. Strategy C. Procedure
 B. Tactic D. Policy
15. The rule of action for the rank and file to show
them how they are expected to obtain the desired
 effect refers to:
 A. Policy C. Guideline
 B. Procedure D. Plan

16. The different means by which goals and
objectives can be attained refers to:
 A. Strategies C. Plans
 B. Alternatives D. Procedure

17. This is a statement of how the
organization will look like in the future. It is a
picture of what the PNP organization wants
to be:
 A. Police vision C. Goal
 B. Police mission D. Objective

18. The functions performed by the PNP, BFP
and BJMP generally refers to:
A. Public safety services
B. Law enforcement services
C. Pease and order maintenance services
D. Crime prevention services
E. All of them
19. The end result of the functions performed by
the PNP, BFP and BJMP is generally termed as:
A. Public safety D. Crime prevention
B. Law enforcement E. All of them
C. Peace and order
20. The body of principles officially accepted as
the best way of performing the functions of the
PNP, BFP and BJMP is known as:
A. Public safety doctrine C. Public safety
principle
B. Public safety policy D. Any of them

21. The coverage of public safety functions are
the following, except:
A. Law enforcement D. Fire protection
B. Crime prevention E. None of them
C. Maintenance of peace and order
22. The authoritative statement of principles prescribing the
proper acquisition, use and employment of PNP human
and material resources to achieve planned objectives,
which is largely based on knowledge, gained through
time-honored police experiences, studies, analysis and
tests refers to:
 A. PNP vision C. PNP doctrine
 B. PNP mission D. PNP Rules of Engagement
23. The basic principle in planning, organization and
management of the PNP in support of the overall pursuit
of the PNP vision, mission and strategic action plan of the
attainment of the national objectives pertains to:
 A. PNP doctrine C. PNP operational doctrine
B. PNP Fundamental doctrine D. PNP functional doctrine
24. The principle and rules governing the planning,
organization, direction and employment of the PNP
forces in the accomplishment of basic security mission in
the maintenance of peace and order, crime prevention
and suppression, internal security and public safety
operation refers to:
A. PNP doctrine C. PNP operational doctrine
B. PNP fundamental doctrine D. PNP functional
doctrine
25. This provides the guidance for specialized activities of
the PNP in the broad field of interest such as personnel,
intelligence, operations, logistics and planning
A. PNP doctrine C. PNP operational doctrine
B. PNP fundamental doctrine D. PNP functional doctrine
26. The doctrine formulated jointly by two or more
bureaus in order to effect a certain operation
concerning public safety and peace and order refers
to
A. Complementary doctrine C. Ethical doctrine
B. Supplementary doctrine D. Functional
doctrine

27. The doctrine that essentially involves the
participation of the other bureaus such as the BJMP,
BFP, PPSC, NBI and other law enforcement
agencies refers to:
A. Complementary doctrine C. Ethical doctrine
B. Supplementary doctrine D. Operational doctrine
28. This defines the fundamental principles
governing the rules of conduct, attitude and
behavior of the PNP members
A. Complementary doctrine C. Operational
doctrine
B. Supplementary doctrine D. Ethical doctrine

29. The statement which clearly specifies if what
business the PNP organization is in refers to:
A. Police vision C. Police objectives
B. Police mission D. All of them

30. The statement: “The PNP shall enforce the law,
prevent and control crimes, maintain peace and
order and ensure public safety and internal security
with the active support of the community” is the:
 A. PNP mission C. PNP goal
 B. PNP vision D. PNP objective

31. This refers to the concepts and ideas governing
the organization of the PNP in all levels and
foundation of relationship that exists between each
members from superior to subordinates
 A. Principles C. Visions
 B. Missions D. Goals
32. Unity of command, span of control, delegation
of authority and chain of command are generally
referred to as:
A. Hierarchy of principle C. Scalar principle
B. Hierarchy of authority D. Hierarchy of
protocols

34. Strictly speaking, scalar principle could simply
be interpreted as:
A. Unity of command C. Delegation of
authority
B. Span of control D. Chain of command

35. The following are the three broad goals of the
police organization, except:
A. To insure public safety
B. To protect lives and properties
C. To maintain peace and order
D. To arrest suspected criminals
36. The type of police function that includes
patrol, investigation, traffic and juvenile and
vice control pertains to:
A. Line function C. Administrative function
B. Auxiliary function D. Staff function
37. This refers to the primary or operational
function of the police department that actually
performs the organizational objectives
 A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
 B. Staff function D. Service function

38. The guideline in planning which answers
the question what to do refers to:
 A. Mission C. Strategy
 B. Philosophy D. Reason
39. The following are true about quality planning, except:
A. It improves analysis of the problem
B. It provides better information for decision making
C. It helps to clarify goals, objectives and priorities
D. It results in more effective allocation of resources
E. None of them
40. The characteristics of an effective plan are the
following, except:
A. It must be sufficiently general
B. The benefits derived from the plan must offset the
effort in planning and implementing the plan
C. It should be flexible
D. None of them
E. All of them
41. The characteristics of a good police plan are the
following, except:
 A. Simple D. Objective
 B. Flexible E. None of them
 C. Realistic
42. A good police operational plan is characterized by
the following, except:
A. It includes the advises of every organic personnel
involved in planning
B. It incorporates the ideas or opinions of the staff
officer
C. It contains the conclusion of the crime analyst
D. It reflects the experience of the line officer
E. None of them
43. The following are reasons for strategic
planning, except:
A. Strategic focus D. Congruence
B. Strategic response to change E. None of them
C. Strategic framework
44. The type of plan according to coverage that
emanates from national headquarters and
covers national scope of implementation refers
to:
A. Local plan C. Regional plan
B. National plan D. Strategic plan

45. A plan for the accomplishment of the police vision
is timely regarded as:
 A. Strategic plan C. Regional plan
 B. Local plan D. National plan

46. According to coverage, operational plan is an
example of:
 A. Local plan C. National plan
 B. Regional plan D. All of them

47. Plan with a scope of less than one year is classified
as:
 A. Strategic plan C. Short range plan
B. Medium range plan D. Any of them
48. The approach in planning which involves
taking the system apart and using each part to
analyze the whole system refers to:
A. Analytical approach C. Synoptic approach
B. Synthetically approach D. Strategic approach
49. The approach in planning which considers
all the organizational processes together to try
to understand how they relate to each other and
the environment in which the system functions
is known as:
A. Analytical approach C. Synoptic approach
B. Synthetically approach D. Strategic approach
50. This refers to the planning responsibility of the
senate, congress and other law making bodies
A. Broad external policy planning
B. Internal policy planning
C. Incremental planning
D. Legislative planning
51. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief
and other high ranking PNP officials is known as:
A. Broad external policy planning
B. Internal policy planning
C. Incremental planning
D. Radical planning
52. The problem oriented approach in planning is
also known as:
A. Synoptic planning C. Incremental planning
B. Radical Planning D. Transactive planning

53. This approach in planning is based on the

idea that problems are easier to solve when they
are taken one at a time and broken down into
gradual adjustment over time
A. Incremental planning C. Synoptic planning
B. Transactive planning D. Radical planning
54. This approach in planning is carried out through
face-to-face interaction with the people who are to be
affected by the plan. This includes field surveys and
interpersonal dialogues:
A. Incremental planning C. Transactive planning
B. Synoptic planningD. Advocacy planning

55. This approach in planning involves informing the
people in advance of the intentions of the planner in
order to weigh between the positive and the negative
aspects of the implementation of the plan
A. Incremental planning C. Transactive planning
B. Synoptic planningD. Advocacy planning
56. This approach in planning involves the
collective actions to achieve concrete results in
the immediate future and a critical large scale
social processes to determine the evolution of
social problems
A. Radical planning C. Advocacy planning
B. Strategic planningD. Incremental planning

57. The general type of plan that is developed as a
result of crisis refers to:
A. Proactive plan C. Visionary plan
B. Reactive plan D. Strategic plan
58. The type of plan that is developed in
anticipation of a future problem refers to:
A. Broad external policy plan C. Radical plan
B. Proactive plan D. Problem oriented plan
59. This plan contains the essential statements
that identify the role of the police in the
community and the future conditions in which
the department can aspire
A. Reactive plan C. Missionary plan
B. Strategic plan D. Visionary plan
60. The plan which is intended to meet the long
range overall goals of the police organization
refers to
A. Visionary plan C. Strategic plan
B. Missionary plan D. Proactive plan

61. The type of plan designed to meet specific

tasks required to implement strategic plans
refer to:
A. Strategic plan C. Operational plan
B. Proactive plan D. Visionary plan
62. This type of plan provides framework for responding to
organizational problems and different types of incidents
such as civil disturbances, hostage situation and crime in
progress
A. Long range plan C. Functional plan
B. Standing plan D. Strategic plan
63. This type of plan involves the framework for the
operation of the major units in the organization such as
patrol and investigation. It also includes the design of the
structure, how different functions and units are to relate
and coordinate activities, and how resources are to be
allocated
A. Functional plan
B. Standing plan
C. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
64. The type of plan that compares past and present
accomplishments to assess performance and to determine
the proper measures to be undertaken to improve
performance refers to:
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan
C. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
D. Strategic plan

65. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as

drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the
objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan C. Time specific plan
B. Problem oriented plan D. Time bound operational plan
66. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP
members on routine and field operations and some
special operations
A. Strategic plan
B. Operational plan
C. Policy or procedural plan
D. Operational efficiency and productivity plan

67. The procedure which is intended to be used in
situations of all kinds and outlined as guide in
operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids,
arrest and investigation refers to:
A. Field procedure C. Tactical procedure
B. Headquarters procedure D. All of them
68. The procedure which refers to the duties of a jailer,
dispatcher, matron and other personnel concerned
which may be reflected in the duty manual refers to:
A. Field procedure C. Tactical procedure
B. Headquarters procedure D. Special operation
procedure

69. The procedure for the operation of specialized units
such as searching and preservation of physical
evidences at the crime scene by the members of the
SOCO team is known as:
A. Field procedure C. Tactical procedure
B. Headquarters procedure D. Special operation
procedure
70. The plan for coping with specific situations at
known location such as a plan for dealing with an
attack against the PNP headquarters refers to:
A. Time specific planC. Technical plan
B. Operational plan D. Tactical plan

71. This plan is designed for the activities of special
divisions like patrol, investigation, traffic, fire and
juvenile control, and is intended to accomplish the
primary police functions
A. Time specific plan
B. Special operation procedure
C. Operational plan
D. Policy or procedural plan
72. The sub-type of operational plan which is
intended to meet current needs refers to:
A. Time specific plan
B. Regular operating program
C. Procedural plan
D. Field procedure

73. This type of plan is intended to motivate,
promote and maintain an active public concern
and cooperation in the field of traffic control,
crime and juvenile delinquency prevention
A. Management planC. Extra-office plan
74. The type of plan intended for the administration
of personnel and material, and in the procurement
and disbursement of money refers to:
A. Tactical plan C. Management plan
B. Technical plan D. Extra-office plan

75. The appropriation for future money needs for
personnel, equipment and capital investment, also
known as management of fiscal matters is known as:
A. Budget planning/Budgeting
B. Accounting
C. Purchasing procedure
D. All of them
76. The type of plan according to time which
determines quantity and quality of efforts and
accomplishments refers to:
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan
C. Short range plan
D. Operational efficiency and productivity plan

77. The characteristics of a good police operational plan
are the following, except:
A. It reflects the experience of the line officers
B. It incorporates the findings of the police statisticians
C. It contains the conclusions of the crime analysis
D. It is based primarily on theoretical concepts

78. The first step in planning is:
A. Clarifying the problem
B. Frame of reference
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Analyzing the facts
79. The following are the factors affecting
planning, except:
A. Condition C. Resources available
B. Time D. None of them
80. Soliciting the acceptance of the personnel
concerned is a step in planning known as:
A. Frame of reference
B. Arranging for the execution of the plan
C. Selling the plan
D. Selecting the most appropriate alternative
81. The part of police operational plan that
refers to the specific operational activity to be
performed refers to:
A. Mission C. Coordinating instruction
B. Task allocation D. Command
82. The highest security classification of a plan is:
 A. Secret C. Confidential
 B. Top secret D. Restricted

83. When the distribution of a plan is classified as “A”,
it is a need to know for:
A. All units C. Very selected units
B. Selected units D. Few only

84. The PNP SOP against partisan armed groups and
loose firearms refers to:
A. OPLAN Jericho C. OPLAN paglalansag
B. OPLAN banat D. OPLAN nena
85. The police function that involves patrol, investigation,
traffic and vice and juvenile control refers to:
A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
B. Staff function D. Administrative
function

86. The coverage of an annual plan is:
A. One year C. Five years
B. Two years D. Ten years

87. Which of the following is not a test for a good police

operational plan?
A. Feasibility C. Profitability
B. Suitability D. Adaptability
88. Strategic analysis of plan involves the following
concerns, except:
 A. Suitability D. Cost-effectiveness analysis
 B. Feasibility E. None of them
 C. Acceptability

89. The evaluation of each course of action in
accordance with general policies, rules and laws
refers to the determination of a plan’s
 A. Suitability D. Cost effectiveness
 B. Feasibility E. Must-wants
 C. Acceptability
.
90. The appraisal of the effects of a number of
factors weighted separately and together refers
to the determination of a plan’s
A. Suitability D. Cost effectiveness
B. Feasibility E. Must-wants
C. Acceptability

91. The instance whereby the community favors
the implementation of the plan refers to its:
A. Suitability D. Cost-effectiveness
 B. Feasibility E. Must-wants
 C. Acceptability
92. The determination of the ration between the benefits
and the expenses in planning refers to:
A. Suitability study D. Cost-effectiveness analysis
B. Feasibility study E. Must wants analysis
C. Acceptability study

93. The method of selecting the preferred course of action
through subjective and objective analysis of the plan
pertains to:
A. Suitability study
B. Feasibility study
C. Acceptability study
D. Cost-effectiveness analysis
94. A type plan according to time with a coverage of more or
less five years is:
A. Long range plan C. Short range plan
B. Medium range plan D. National plan

95. The capability of a plan to cope up with a situation
describes its:
A. Feasibility C. Adaptability
 B. Suitability D. Solvability

96. A plan which is appropriate to a given situation or
condition is considered
A. Feasible C. Adaptable
B. Suitable D. Solvable
.
97. The total number of crimes committed in a
certain place within a certain period of time,
as an essential basis in preparing a crime
prevention plan refers to:
A. Crime volume C. Crime density
B. Crime rate D. Crime demography

98. The generic term for the end result of the
performance of police, fire and jail functions
is known as:
A. Public safety C. Public safety services
B. Vision D. Public safety doctrine
99. The PNP anti-criminality master plan refers
to:
A. OPLAN Sandigan C. OPLAN Sangyaman
B. OPLAN Sandugo D. OPLAN Sang-banat

100. The SOP prescribing the basic
procedures to be observed by all PNP units
refers to:
A. SOP No. 1 C. SOP No. 3
B. SOP No. 2 D. SOP No. 4

1.
Police Personnel and Records Management
1. The act of preparing, organizing and directing the
efforts of the members of the police force for the
attainment of the police objectives refers to:
A. Management C. Police personnel management
B. Police management D. Personnel management
2. This management theory entails that good salary
and incentives must be given to workers to ensure
their hard work, innovative action and good will.
This management theory was introduced by
Frederick Taylor:
A. Scientific management C. Theory X and Y
B. Bureaucratic model D. Administrative theor
3. Theories X and Y were introduced by:
A. Frederick Taylor C. Douglas McGregor
B. Henry Fayol D. Max Weber

4. The one regarded as the Father of Scientific

management was:
A. Frederick Taylor C. Douglas McGregor
B. Henry Fayol D. Max Weber

5. The process of recruiting applicants in the police
organization is known as:
A. Procurement C. Maintenance
B. Selection D. Development
6. The art of retaining personnel with good
performance in the police organization refers
to:
A. Procurement C. Maintenance
B. Staffing D. Development
7. The process of recruiting and selecting the
types of employees to contribute towards
achieving the organizational goals refers to:
A. Procurement C. Maintenance
B. Development D. Staffing


8. The continuing program which gives the employee the
opportunity to enhance skills and find satisfaction
refers to:
A. Training C. Development
B. Staffing D. Procurement

9. The process of upgrading the knowledge and skill of
an employee refers to:
A. Training C. Development
B. Organizing D. Procurement
10. The management function of working out
in broad outline the things to be done and the
methods of doing them refers to:
 A. Planning C. Staffing
 B. Organizing D. Directing

11. The establishment of a formal structure of
authority through which works and division
are arranged, defined and coordinated
pertains to:
A. Planning C. Organizing
B. Staffing D. Coordinating
12. This is also known as fiscal planning:
A. Budgeting C. Allocating
B. Accounting D. All of them

13. This term means to utilize the elements or units of the PNP
for purposes of protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
ensurance of public safety and other synonymous functions:
A. Employ B. Deploy C. Assign D. Recruit

14. Supply management and real property management is a

responsibility of the:
A. Directorate for logistics
B. Directorate for comptrollership
C. Directorate for planning
D. Directorate for research
15. The PNP budget division is under the:
 A. Directorate for logistics
 B. Directorate for comptrollership
C. Directorate for planning
D. Directorate for research

16. The city or municipal mayor has the authority
to choose the city or municipal chief of police
from the list of how many eligible candidates?
 A. 2 C. 4
 B. 3 D. 5

17. The power of city and municipal mayors to direct,
superintend, oversee and inspect PNP members in
their respective jurisdiction is termed as:
A. Administrative supervision and control
B. Operational supervision and control
C. Supervision and control
D. Police personnel management

18. The orderly organized physical movement of

PNP elements in their respective place of
assignment refers to:
A. Employment C. Assignment
B. Deployment D. Coordination
19. The mobile strike force or augmentation unit in the
PNP during special operations such as civil disturbance
control or anti-insurgency operations is the:
A. Special Action Force C. Regional Mobile Group
B. SWAT D. All of them

20. The process by which a police officer who is recruited

into the service receives formal instruction on the job
and performs actual job functions with periodic
appraisal on his performance and progress refers to:
A. Basic recruit training C. Leadership training
B. Field training D. Development training
21. The appropriate in-service training for PO1, PO2
and PO3 is:
A. Police basic course
B. Junior leadership course
C. Senior leadership course
D. Officer candidate course

22. The appropriate in-service training for SPO1 and

SPO2 is:
A. Police basic course
B. Junior leadership course
C. Senior leadership course
23. The appropriate in-service training for SPO3 and
SPO4 is:
A. Junior leadership course
B. Senior leadership course
C. Officer candidate course
D. Officer advance course

24. The appropriate training for a SPO4 who wants

to be promoted to inspector is:
A. Junior leadership course
B. Senior leadership course
C. Officer advance course
D. Officer orientation course
25. MNSA or other allied master’s degree is a
requirement for appointment as:
A. Chief inspector
B. Superintendent
C. Senior superintendent
D. Chief superintendent to director general

26. The process of measuring the performance of

PNP members refers to:
A. Appraisal C. Assessment
B. Promotion D. Appointment
27. The purposes of performance evaluation are the
following, except:
 A. It serves as a guide for promotion, salary
increase or disciplinary action
 B. It increase efficiency
 C. It assimilates supervision
 D. It informs the police officer of the quality of
his improvement
 E. None of them

28. The rating system in the PNP is based on the

standards set by the:
 A. DILG C. Congress
 B. NAPOLCOM D. PNP Chief
29. The process of increasing the rank and
responsibility of police members refers to:
 A. Placement C. Promotion
 B. Staffing D. Development

30. Promotion in the PNP shall be based on the
following, except:
A. SeniorityC. Availability of vacant position
B. Merit D. Backer

31. The least consideration for promotion is:
A. SeniorityC. Availability of vacant position
B. Merit D. Backer
32. All appointees under the PNP lateral entry
program unless otherwise severed by competent
authority shall serve the PNP for a minimum of
how many years following their appointment?
 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

33. The types of promotion in the PNP are the
following, except:
A. Regular promotion
B. Special promotion
C. Promotion by virtue of position
D. None of them
34. Promotion by virtue of position is granted
after:
A. 6 months C. 2 years
B. 1 year D. 3 years

35. Attrition in the PNP shall be in the following
manner, except:
A. Attrition by attainment of maximum tenure
B. Attrition by relief
C. Attrition by demotion in position or rank
D. Attrition by non promotion
E. Attrition by inefficiency for 5 years of service
36. The power of designating a police officer on a
duty or function is vested on the following officer
in their respective levels, except:
A. The PNP Chief C. The Chief of Police
B. The Regional Director D. None of them

37. The members of the PNP draw their salary
from:
A. The national government
B. The local government unit in the place where
they are assigned
C. The pork barrel of the senators
D. Any of them
38. The salary grade of PNP member is equal to that of a:
A. College professor C. Members of the PDEA
B. Public school teacher D. All of them

39. Monthly retirement pay in the PNP shall be how
many percent of the base pay?
A. 50B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

40. Division of labor, authority, unity of command and
discipline are characteristics of:
A. Scientific management
B. Bureaucratic model
C. Administrative principle
D. Behavioral theory
41. This is otherwise known as traditional or classical
system of management which entails control by
superior and obedience by subordinates:
A. Scientific management
B. Bureaucratic model
C. Administrative principle
D. Behavioral theory
42. The word bureaucracy was coined by Max Weber
from the French word “bureau” which means office
of the Greek word “cracy” or “kratos” which
means:
A. Management C. Power
B. Discipline D. Law
43. The group of management theories which
emphasize the importance of interaction and
cooperation among employees in enhancing
productivity refers to:
A. Scientific management C. Administrative
principle
B. System theory D. Behavioral theory

44. This refers to the ultimate purpose in which
the organization exist which is achievable in
along span of time:
A. Goal C. Plan
B. Objective D. Strategy
45. This function is considered as the backbone
of the police organization. This includes patrol,
criminal investigation, traffic and juvenile
delinquency and vice control:
A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
B. Staff function D. Administrative function

46. This police function includes planning,
research, legal advice, budgeting and educational
services. It is designed to support the operational
activities of the police organization:
A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
B. Staff function D. Administrative function
47. The following are included under the line
function, except:
A. Patrol C. Criminal investigation
B. Planning D. Traffic management

48. The organizational structure of the PNP is:
A. Line C. Matrix
B. Line and staff D. Committee type

49. The assignment of a particular worker to a
particular task which fits most his ability known as:
A. Staffing C. Specialization
B. Deployment D. Employment
50. This represents the formal relationship among
supervisors and subordinates in any given
organization. This can be visualized as a ladder,
with each rank representing a higher or lower level
of authority, and is depicted in a pyramidal
structure.
A. Ranking C. Hierarchy of authority
B. Authority level principle D. Scalar principle

51. The maximum number of subordinates at a
given position that a superior can effectively
supervise refers to his:
A. Authority C. Delegation of authority
B. Span of control D. Authority level principle
52. The conferring of an amount of power to command
and control the behavior of employees in lower
positions by a supervisor to his immediate
subordinate is known as:
A. Authority C. Assignment
B. Delegation of authority D. All of them
53. This is otherwise known as the “backbone” of any
organization structure. This entails that employees
should only have one superior or boss in order to
ascertain that all of them are following one command
and aimed at attaining the same objectives and not to
be confused if whom will they going to follow:
A. Chain of command C. Unity of command
B. Span of control D. Unity of objectives
54. In the PNP performance evaluation standard,
rating is distributed as:
A. 50% administrative and 50% operational
B. Larger operational
C. Larger administrative
D. Purely operational
55. This is done to increase efficiency and
assimilate supervision among PNP members:
A. Salary increase C. Disciplinary action
B. Promotion D. Performance evaluation
56. The following are the considerations for
promotion in the PNP, except:
A. Merit C. Availability of vacant position
B. Seniority D. None of them
57. The required time-in-grade for promotion from
PO1 to PO2 is:
A. 1 year C. 3 years
B. 2 years D. It depends
58. The PNP performance evaluation is conducted:
A. Once a year C. Quarterly
B. Twice a year D. Every 2 years
59. The PNP performance evaluation result from
January to June shall be submitted on the first week
of July, then the PNP performance evaluation result
from July to December shall be submitted on:
A. Last week of December of the same year
B. Third week of December of the same year
C. First week of January of the succeeding year
D. Same schedule as the first evaluation

60. In no instance shall a candidate be considered for

promotion unless be obtained a performance
rating of at least:
A. Outstanding C. Satisfactory
61. A PNP member who obtained 92% in the
performance evaluation has an equivalent
rating of:
A. Outstanding D. Fair
B. Very satisfactory E. Poor
C. Satisfactory

62. This is considered as the best method of

filing majority of records for its capability to
save space:
A. Horizontal filing C. Box filing
B. Vertical filing D. Spindle filing
63. The actual placement of documents and
records in a storage container refers to:
A. Filing C. Indexing
B. Classifying D. Coding

64. This refers to the time interval when a record

was created unit its final disposition.
A. Life span C. Birth-through-death period
B. Record cycle D. All of them
65. This contains the findings of a action taken by
the investigation officer based on inquiries
made and by obtaining the available facts of the
case:
A. Complaint sheet C. Arrest and booking
report
B. Investigation report D. Administrative
record
66. This is considered as the heart of any police
record. It is used as basis for analysis of offenses
and the methods by which they are committed:
A. Identification record C. Case record
B. Administrative record D. Miscellaneous record
67. A progress report shall be submitted within
how many days after the submission of the initial
report?
A. 15 B. 10 C. 5 D. 3
68. A copy of notice for wanted person shall be
given to the following, except:
A. The PNP director general
B. The PNP regional director
C. The National Bureau of Investigation
D. The secretary of national defense
69. The notice for wanted person shall be
accomplished in how many copies?
70. The original copy of the notice for wanted
person shall be:
A. Given to the PNP director general
B. Given to the National Bureau of Investigation
C. Placed in the person’s wanted file of the
police station
D. Given to the PNP regional director

71. One copy of the notice for wanted person shall

be displayed at the:
A. Premises of the police station C.Rouge’s gallery
B. City hall D. Public places
72. The process of screening out undesirable
candidates in the PNP and appointing the most
qualified refers to:
A. Staffing C. Appointment
B. Selection D. Recruitment
73. The following are the compositions of the
screening committee for PNP regional
applicants, except:
A. The PNP regional director
B. The regional chief of the personnel division
C. NAPOLCOM representative
D. Member of the media
74. The examination conducted to exclude PNP
applicants who are emotionally and mentally unstable,
psychotic and suffering from mental disorders is:
A. Medical examination
B. Psychological examination
C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
D. Mental aptitude test
75. PO1 to SPO4 shall be appointed by the regional
director for regional personnel and by the PNP Chief for
national head quarters’ personnel and attested by the:
A. Commission of Appointment
B. Civil Service Commission
C. National Police Commission
D. Professional Regulation Commission
76. Police inspector to superintendent shall be
attested by the CSC as recommended by their
immediate superior and appointed by the:
A. Commission on appointment C. PNP Chief
B. NAPOLCOM D. DILG Secretary

77. Senior Superintended to PNP Director General

shall be appointed by the President upon the
commendation of the PNP Chief and
endorsement by the Chairman of the CSC and
the confirmation of the:
A. President C. Commission on Appointment
B. Civil Service Commission D. NAPOLCOM
78. The PNP Director General shall be appointed by
the President, subject to the confirmation of the
commission on appointment, from among the most
senior PNP officers down to the rank of:
A. Deputy Director General
B. Director
C. Chief Superintendent
D. Senior Superintendent

79. The award given to a PNP who distinguished
himself but dies before the granting of the award is:
A. Police medal of valor C. Police service medal
B. Police medal of merit D. Posthumous award
80. The responsibility for making PNP operational plans is
vested on the:
A. Directorate for personnel and records management
B. Directorate for human resource and doctrine
development
C. Directorate for research and development
D. Directorate for plans

81. The responsibility for training of PNP members is vested

on the:
A. Directorate for personnel and records management
B. Directorate for human resource and doctrine
development
C. Directorate for research and development
D. Directorate for plans
82. The responsibility for PNP benefits and pension
administration is vested on the:
A. Directorate for personnel and records management
B. Directorate for human resource and doctrine
development
C. Directorate for logistics
D. Directorate for comptrollership
83. The concise record containing vital information,
necessary for the arrest of a crime suspect is called:
A. Modus operandi file
B. Investigation report
C. Intelligence summary
D. Arrest shoot and booking report
84. The first step in police applicant selection is:
A. Preliminary interview
B. Physical examination
C. Medical examination
D. Physical agility test
85. The test conducted to determine if the PNP
applicant possesses the required strength,
speed and coordination necessary for police
work is:
A. Medical examination C. Physical agility
test
B. Physical examination D. Both b and c
86. The prime purpose of conducting background
investigation for PNP applicant is:
A. To determine if he has the obligation to support
a child or family
B. To determine from his relatives his mental sanity
C. To determine his reputation from various sources
D. All of them

87. The following are agility tests for PNP applicants,
except:
A. Push up D. Squat jump
B. Pull up E. None of them
C. Sit up
88. The chairman of the Regional Screening
Committee for PNP applicants is the:
A. Regional Chief of the Personnel Division
B. PNP Regional Director
C. NAPOLCOM Regional Director
D. Representative from the peace and order
council
89. Appointment under the PNP waiver program is:
A. Temporary C. Permanent
B. Probationary D. Casual


90. The nature of appointment of a PNP applicant
who passed the regular screening procedures is:
A. Temporary C. Probationary
B. Permanent D. Casual
91. Appointment upon finishing the required PNP
field training program is:
A. Temporary C. Probationary
B. Permanent D. Casual
92. The required time in grade for promotion
from PO1 to PO2 is:
A. 1 year C. 3 years
B. 2 years D. 4 years
93. Officer with the rank of Senior
Superintendent to Deputy Director General
have a time in grade of:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years
94. The required time in grade for promotion
from SPO4 to Inspector is:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years
95. Complaint against members of the PNP IAS
shall be brought to the office of the:
A. Inspector General C. DILG Secretary
B. PNP Chief D. Any of them
96. Who among the following applicants under
the waiver program is the priority for
appointment?
A. A how is over aged
B. B who is under height
C. C who is more than 5kgs. Heavier than his
standard weight
D. D who just earned 72 collegiate units
97. The document containing the thing to be
done and the methods of doing them refers to:
A. Plan C. Tactic
B. Strategy D. Technique
98. The PNP Chief is the only person allowed to
give command to the entire police organization
in adherence to the principle of:
A. Chain of command C. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Delegation of authority
99. The examination conducted to exclude PNP
applicants with mental disorders is:
A. Psychological examination
B. Medical examination
C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
D. Oral interview
100. This is conducted to determine the
motivation of PNP applicants:
A. Panel interview
B. Psychological examination
C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
D. Medical examination

PATROL OPERATION WITH POLICE
COMMUNICATION

1. The word patrol was derived from what French

word, which means “to walk through puddles” or “to
walk through mud in a military camp”?
A. Patrolle C. Patroller
B. Patrouiller D. Patrouilier
2. The ancient system of apprehending criminals
whereby a complainant goes to the middle of the
community and shout to call all male residents to
assemble and arrest the suspect refers to:
A. Frankpledge C. Tun policing
B. Hue and cry D. Tythingmen
3. The Statute of Winchester introduced the
system known as:
A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew
B. Watch and ward D. Justice of the peace

4. The term introduced by the French that

became the forerunner of the word “peace
officer” was:
A. Sergent de ville C. Sergent de arm
B. Officer de la Paix D. Police
5. Which of the following is not true about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police
department that can be eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police
department
6. The police function in which patrol belong is:
A. Line function C. Administrative function
B. Staff function D. Auxiliary function

7. The term that is used to describe the group of
men organized by Henry Fielding and named
by his brother John Fielding that became the
first organized foot patrol refers to:
A. Praetorian guards C. Bow Street
Runners
B. Scotland yard D. Royal Guards
8. The title given to Sir Robert Peel was:
A. Father of Criminal Investigation
B. Father of Modern Policing System C.
Father of Modern Criminology
D. Father of Patrol
9. The famous name of the acclaimed first
formally organized modern police force in the
world was:
A. Interpol C. Scotland Yard
B. New York Police District D. Texas rangers

10. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines

was initiated on:
A. March 10, 1917 C. August 7, 1901
B. July 31, 1901 D. September 7, 1901
11. The first automobile patrol in the Philippines
was initiated on:
A. May 17, 1954 C. August 7, 1901
B. May 7, 1954 D. May 14, 1957

12. The first chief of the mobile patrol bureau of

manila police department when mobile patrol
was initiated for the first time was:
A. Arsenio Lacson C. Basilio Cael
B. Isaias Alma Jose D. Rafael Crame
13. In police matters, this simply refers to the wise
use of one’s judgment, personal experiences
and common sense to decide a particular
situation
A. Police discretion C. Police judgment
B. Police decision D. Common sense
14. The only division of the police department
that cannot be eliminated, thus it is known as
the principal unit or the backbone of the police
organization refers to:
A. Investigation C. Patrol
B. Traffic D. Auxiliary
15. This refers to the suppression of the desire of
people to commit crime
A. Crime prevention C. Crime intervention
B. Crime suppression D. Crime deterrence

16. The elimination of the opportunity of people

to commit crime as a result of patrol refers to:
A. Crime prevention C. Crime intervention
B. Crime suppression D. Crime deterrence
.
17. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Routine patrol and observation
B. Inspection services
C. Responding to emergency calls
D. Arrest of suspected criminals
E. Preparation of investigation reports

18. The regular day to day patrol activity refers to:

A. Routine patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Proactive patrol D. Called for services
.
19. Arrest in flagrante delicto is an example of:
A. Crime prevention C. Crime intervention
B. Crime suppression D. Crime deterrence

20. The principle of patrol force organization

which states that patrol officers should be
under the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Chain of command
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility
21. The maximum number of subordinates that a
superior officer on patrol could effectively supervise
is known as:
A. Spam of control C. Unity of command
B. Chain of command D. Command responsibility
22. The principle which states that some members of
the police organization are assigned to perform
patrol and other field functions while the others are
assigned to support them refers to:
A. Principle of unity objectives
B. Unity of command
C. Line and staff principle
D. Specialization
23. The percentage of police officers assigned in patrol is:
A. 20% B. 25% C. 40% D. 50%
24. Based on Section 27 of RA No. 6975, the prescribed
manning level or police to population ration in the
PNP is:
A. 1:1000 B. 1:750 C. 1:500 D. 1:800
25. The theory in patrol which states that police officers
should conduct overt police operations in order to
discourage people from committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low profile theory
C. Low police visibility theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory
26. The theory in police patrol which states that police
officers should conduct clandestine police operation
in order to increase criminal apprehension refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low profile theory
C. High police visibility theory
D. Minimum deterrence theory
27. The patrol strategy which employs police officers
in their police uniform and marked police vehicles
refers to:
A. High visibility patrol C. Decoy patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Blending patrol
.
28. The patrol strategy which employs patrol
officers in their civilian attire and unmarked
police vehicles refers to:
A. High visibility patrol C. Decoy patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Blending patrol

29. The patrol strategy which employs bait or

distracter to in order to catch criminals in
known as:
A. High visibility patrol C. Blending patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Decoy patrol
30. The structured patrol strategy in response
to an identified crime problem refers to:
A. Split force patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Directed deterrent patrol D. Proactive patrol

31. This patrol strategy is focused more on called

for services
A. Reactive patrol C. Directed deterrent
patrol
B. Proactive patrol D. Blending patrol

32. The patrol strategy which is best on populous
areas such as markets, malls, and ports is:
A. Blending patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Spit force patrol D. All of them

33. The crime prevention strategy which

addresses the underlying causes of crime refers
to:
A. Problem-oriented policing C. Team
policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
34. The patrol strategy which brings the police and
the people together in a cooperative manner in
 order to prevent crime refers to:
 A. Problem oriented policing C.
Team policing
 B. Reactive patrol
D. Proactive patrol

35. The University of Wisconsin-Madison professor

who introduced problem oriented policing was:
A. Sir Robert peel C. Rudyard Kippling
B. Herman Goldstein D. Henry Fielding
36. Team policing began in:
A. Stockholm Sweden C. Aberdeen Scotland
B. Sicily Italy D. Paris France
37. The most expensive patrol method when it
comes to human resources is:
A. Foot patrol C. Marine patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Aircraft patrol
38. The patrol method which gives the greatest
opportunity to develop sources of information
is:
A. Foot patrol C. Marine patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Aircraft patrol
39. The patrol method that is characterized by
speed and mobility and considered as least
expensive as it utilizes lesser number of men
and covers a wider area in a short period of
time, while offering protection to patrol
officers, refers to:
A. Foot patrol C. Motorcycle patrol
B. Automobile patrolD. Marine patrol
40. The patrol method used in high crime areas,
business and shopping centers, and places
where there are multiple family dwellings is:
A. Foot patrol C. Canine patrol
B. Automobile patrolD. Helicopter patrol
41. The patrol method used to monitor the
general situation viewing from above is:
A. Horse patrol C. Helicopter patrol
B. Canine patrol D. Automobile patrol
42. The factors to be considered in determining
the number of patrol officers to be deployed in
an area are the following, except:
A. Size of the area
B. Topography
C. Crime rate
D. Possible problems to be encountered
E. Neither of them
43. The patrol method that is most practically
applicable to a dwelling-studded area is:
A. Foot patrol D. Marine patrol
B. Automobile patrolE. All of them
C. Aircraft patrol

44. The patrol method that has the combined

characteristics of mobility and stealth refers to:
A. Foot patrol C. Motorcycle patrol
B. Bicycle patrol D. Automobile patrol
45. One of the oldest method of patrol next to
walking is:
A. Foot patrol C. Horse patrol
B. Helicopter patrol D. Bicycle patrol
46. The patrol method that is most applicable in
wooded areas and grassy fields is:
A. Foot patrol C. Horse patrol
B. Canine patrol D. Bicycle patrol
47. They were the first civilization who utilized
dogs in patrolling
A. Greeks C. Egyptians
B. Romans D. Chinese
48. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many
times more sensitive than human’s sense of
smell?
A. One thousand times C. One hundred times
B. Ten thousand times D. Ten million times
49. The highest scoring dog for police work is:
A. German Shepherd C. Chihuahua
B. Bloodhound D. Askal
50. The method of patrol that is utilized in anti-
smuggling activities along river banks and water
ports is:
A. Aircraft patrol C. Horse patrol
51. The other term for dog patrol is:
A. Canine patrol C. K-9 patrol
B. Mounted patrol D. Both A and C
52. The fixed point or location to which a patrol
officer is assigned for duty refers to:
A. Post C. Route
B. Beat D. Sector
53. The area assigned for patrol purposes whether
on foot or motorized refers to:
A. Post C. Route
B. Beat D. Sector
54. An area containing two or more beats, routes
or posts refers to:
A. District C. Sector
B. Intersection D. Section
55. A section or territorial division of a large city,
each comprised of designated districts refers to:
A. Area C. Sector
B. Route D. Beat
56. The length of street that is designated for
patrol purposes refers to:
A. Post C. Route
B. Beat D. Sector
 57. The geographical subdivision of a large city or
province designated for patrol purposes, usually
with its own police station refers to:
A. Area C. District
B. Sector D. Territory
58. The patrol force that was originally founded
by Stephen F. Austin in response to
colonization and revolution is now referred to
as the:
A. Shire reeve C. Scotland yard
B. Texas rangers D. Conquistadores

59. This term refers to the patrol experimental
program using helicopter that was conducted in
Lakewood California
A. Dark knight C. Sky knight
B. Sky night D. Sky blue
60. The following are the advantages of foot
patrol, except:
A. It develops greater contact with the public
B. It promotes easier detection of crime
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It involves larger number of personnel
61. Going right while patrolling upon reaching
every intersection until reaching the point of
origin is following what pattern?
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag
B. Counter clockwiseD. Crisscross

62. While patrolling, starting at one corner of the

patrol area and working your way diagonally
across it to the opposite corner is following a:
A. Zigzag pattern C. Clockwise pattern
B. Circular pattern D. Cloverleaf pattern
63. The advisable cruising speed in automobile
patrol ranges from:
A. 20-25 mph C. 26-30 mph
B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph

64. A highway intersection designed to route

traffic without interference, by means of system
of curving ramps form one level to another in
the form of a four leaf clover refers to:
A. Sector D. Rotunda
B. Cloverleaf intersection E. Flyover
C. Cloverform intersection
65. Doubled firepower and physical protection is
an advantage of:
A. Foot patrol
B. Two-man automobile patrol
C. Helicopter patrol
D. Motorcycle patrol
66. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime
incident faster but undetected, then the best
patrol method that he should employ is:
A. Foot patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Motorcycle patrol D. Bicycle patrol

67. “The police are the public and the public are
the police” is a policing concept introduced by:
A. Sir Robert peel C. Henry Fielding
B. Benjamin Mendelsohn D. Jonathan Wild

68. The patrol method that requires the greatest

number of patrol officers is:
A. Foot patrol C. Aircraft patrol
B. Automobile patrolD. Marine patrol
69. Greater opportunity to develop sources of
information is an advantage of:
A. Foot patrol C. Canine patrol
B. Automobile patrolD. Aircraft patrol
70. Horse patrol is also known as:
A. Canine patrol C. K-9 patrol
B. Mounted patrol D. All of them
71. Which of the following types of patrol can
cover a widest view of an area
A. Foot patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Horse patrol D. K-9 patrol
72. The patrol method which is applicable in
patrolling long stenches of highway or areas
that are inaccessible through other patrol
methods is:
A. Marine patrol C. Horse patrol
B. Aircraft patrol D. Foot patrol

73. Among the following is the patrol method

with the least stealth
A. Helicopter patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Bicycle patrol D. Horse patrol
74. Among the following is the patrol method
with the greatest stealth
A. Helicopter patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Bicycle patrol D. Motorcycle patrol

75. This acronym stands for the system of

attaching a miniature camera to a search dog
A. WOLVES C. DOGS
B. CATS D. CANINES
76. The following are the breeds of dog best
suited for police work, except:
A. German shepherds D. Askals
B. Doberman pinschers E. Bouviers
C. Alaskan malamutes

77. The large dog with drooping ears and sagging
jowls and keenest smell among all dogs,
formerly used for tracking purposes is known
as:
A. German shepherdC. Bloodhounds
B. Doberman pinscher D. Alaskan malamute
78. The landmark experiment on preventive
patrol, being the first study that demonstrated
the effects of different policing styles was
conducted in 1972 in:
A. New York city C. London
B. Los Angeles D. Kansas city

79. The phase of problem oriented policing that

is focused on the problem’s cause, scope and
effect refers to:
A. Scanning C. Response
B. Analysis D. Assessment
80. The application of crime analysis to determine
and address the underlying causes of crime is a
good example of:
A. Preventive patrol D. Proactive patrol
B. Team policing E. Community oriented
policing
C. Problem oriented policing

81. Using uniformed police officers and marked
police vehicles characterizes
A. High visibility patrol C. Decoy patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Reactive patrol
82. The employment of barangay tanods is an
example of:
A. Team policing C. Decoy patrol
B. Problem oriented policing D. Reactive
patrol

83. Which of the following does not belong with
the others?
A. Omnipresence D. Conspicuous
B. High visibility E. Clandestine
C. High profile
.
84. The percentage of police officers assigned to
perform patrol and other field functions is:
A. 50 B. 85 C. 40 D. 60

85. The minimum manning level of the PNP
under extreme condition is:
A. 1:500 B. 1:800 C. 1:750 D. 1:1000

86. Fatigue is an example of what patrol hazard?
A. Psychological hazard C. Mental hazard
B. Physical hazard D. All of them
.
87. The computer that allows officers on patrol cars
to access files from headquarters and other law
enforcement agencies or dispatchers in highly
industrialized countries like US is known as:
A. Vehicle mounted TV C. WOLVES
B. HELP D. Mobile Data Terminal

88. Which of the following term is attributed to the
ancient Egyptians who discovered the usefulness of
 dogs in patrol?
A. Ephori C. Centurion
B. Vigiles D. Medjay
89. The first chief of the Mobile Patrol Bureau of
the Manila Police Department was:
A. Arsenio Lacson C. Rafael Crame
B. Isaias Alma Jose D. George Curry

90. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act
of a person that enables another to victimize
him:
A. Instrumentality C. Opportunity
B. Motive D. Carelessness
91. The total system used to accomplish the police
visibility program of the PNP is:
A. Team policing
B. Problem oriented policing
C. Integrated patrol system
D. Preventive patrol system

92. Real time current situation is shown in the:
A. Modus operandi file C. Spot map
B. Intelligence summary D. Rouge gallery
93. The police officers in Police Community Precincts
render 24 hours duty with a prescribed division of:
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B. 3 shifts D. Every other day schedule
94. The ideal daily on duty hours for a patrol officer
is:
A. 8 C. 12
B. 6 D. 24
95. The Community Oriented Policing System in the
Philippines is primarily patterned from the police
system of what country?
A. England C. France
B. USA D. Japan
96. The patrol pattern which offers the easiest way
to observe the movement of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise C. Crisscross
B. Counter clockwiseD. Straight
97. The reversal patrol pattern which is usually
done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that
nothing happened in the area of responsibility
of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise patternC. Zigzag pattern
B. Counter clockwise pattern D. Crisscross pattern
98. The following terms are synonymous with
each other, except:
A. Decoy C. Distracter
B. Bait D. Warner
99. The first organized foot patrol for policing
purposes was formed in:
A. New York City C. Rome
B. London D. Greece
100. In police communication, 10-0 means
A. Caution C. Change location
B. Positive D. Unable to copy
1.
1.
Industrial Security
Management

Dr. Ariel C. Manlusoc

Review Director
What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green
olor?
A. sodium vapor lamp (emits yellow light)
B. incandescent lamp
C. mercury vapor lamp
D. quartz lamp (emits a very bright white light)
2. Licenses of private security guards are processed and issued
by the________.
A. Philippine National Bank
B. National Police Commission
C. Philippine National Police
D. Securities and Exchange Commission
3. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on a vertical
perimeter fence is commonly called as:
A. tower guard (house like structure above perimeter)
B. guard control (provided in the main perimeter entrance)

C. top guard (with 3 to 4 strands of barbed wire)

D. perimeter barrier (1st line of defense, a medium of structure
design to indicates the physical limits of an installation or area
4. License to operate a private security agency shall have a
validity period of_____.
A. 1 yr C. 2 yrs
B. 3 yrs D. 4 yrs
5. What is an act governing the organization and management of
private security agency, company
guard force and government security forces?
A. RA 7438 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487

6. A type of protective alarm system located outside the
installation and the alarm signal is relayed to
remote panel.
A. local alarm system (sensor activities circuit which in
turn activities a horn or siren or even flashing light
located in the immediate vicinity).
B. dial alarm system (set to detail a predetermined
number/numbers when the alarm is activated)
C. central alarm system
D. proprietary alarm system (works similar with the
central alarm except that it is operated and located in the
facility).
Auxiliary system = an installation-owned system which is a
direct extension of the local enforcement agency and/or fire
department by special arrangements.
7. What type of security lighting is focused to the
intruder while the guard remains in the comparative
darkness? (the lighting is toward the approach of an
entrance to an installation)
A. controlled lighting (the lighting focused to the
pile of items, rather then the background. The wealth of
lighted strip can be controlled and adjusted to suit the
security needs.)
B. emergency lighting (A stand-by lighting which
can be utilized in case of electrical failure, either due to
local or commercial power failure)
C. fresnel light
D. glare- projection
Types of Protective lighting
1. Stationary (either glare projection or controlled
lighting).
2. Standby lighting = this is similar to continuous
lighting but it turn on manually or by special device
or other automatic means.
3. Movable lighting = this consist of stationary or
portable, manually operated search light. It is
usually supplementary to other types of security
lighting and can be made continuous or as needed.
4. Emergency lighting = this may duplicate existing
system only that it operates when there is failure of
electricity either due to local equipment or
commercial power failure.
Types of Light Lamp
1. Incandescent = common light bulb in which light is
produced by resistance of a filament (tungsten) to
electric current.
2. Gaseous Discharge lamps = economical commercial
lights which took about 2 to 5 minutes before to light
which can be of certain disadvantage in industrial
security.
Mercury vapor lamp
Sodium vapor lamp
3. Quarts lamp = emits a very bright white light and
snap on almost like the incandescent lamp. It used a
high wattage and best use for perimeter and
troublesome area.
Types of lighting equipment
. Flood lamp = projects light in a concentrated beam.
Best used in boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise
known as reflectorized or spotlight.
2. Search light = highly focused incandescent lamps
used in pinpointing potential trouble spot or people or
item.
3. Fresnel light = Wide beam unit, primarily to extend
the illumination in long horizontal strips to protect
the approaches to the perimeter. It projects a narrow,
horizontal beam which is approximately 180 degrees in
the horizontal and 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical
plane.
4. Street lights = produced diffused light rather than
8. An industrial complex must established its first line of physical
defense. It must have__________.
A. the building itself C. communication barriers
B. perimeter barriers D. window barriers
9. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers placed
between the potential intruder and the object, person and matter
being protected?
A. communication security C. document security
B. physical security D. personal security
Three Aspects of Security
. Physical Security
. Document Security = Protection of documents, classified
papers or vital records from lost, unauthorized access, damage,
compromise or theft through proper storage and procedures.
. Personnel Security = the sum total of procedures followed to
determine the work suitable of particular applicant or the
retention or transfer of particular employee.
Other types of Security
. Industrial Security = a form of physical security
involving industrial plants and business enterprises. It
covers security or safeguards of personnel, procedure,
properties and operation.
2. Bank Security = is the protection of cash and assets in a
storage or transit.
3. Hotel Security = is a protection resulting from
application of various measures to safeguard hotel
guest, their personal effects, hotel properties and other
amenities.
4. V.I.P. Security = involves the protection of top-ranking
officials of the government, visiting persons of
illustrious standing and foreign or diplomatic
dignitaries.
5. Operational Security = involves the protection of
processes, formulas, patents, and industrial and
manufacturing activities from espionage, infiltration,
loss, damage, compromise or photo copying.
6. Communication Security =involves measures to
ensure protection of information from unauthorized
person through communication which includes:
transmission, cryptographic, and physical security.
7. Air Cargo Security
8. School Security
9. Supermarket Security
0. Personnel Security.
10. What type of bank alarm is usually place in the teller’s top
cash drawer and connected to the alarm system, the alarm is
usually activated by removing the currency in the device?
A. foot rail C. bill traps
B. foot button D. double squeeze
Protection Alarm in Banks
. Foot Rail = placed on floor in such way that tellers can
activate it using the front of his/her foot to engage the
activation bar.
. Bill trap
. Knee or Thigh button = installed inside the deck or teller
station so they can be activated by knee or thigh pressure.
4. Foot button =like the foot rail permits activation in relatively
safety while both hands of the teller remain clear to the view
of the robber.
. Double squeeze button = require pressure on both sides of
1. What is the final line of physical defense?
A. protective barrier C. protective cabinets
B. windows and doors D. protective locks

PHYSICAL SECURITY
. (Protective) barrier = any structure or physical device
capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal
access or intrusion to an installation.
a. Perimeter Barrier = the first line of defense which
defines the physical limits of the installation. (Wire
Fences, Building walls and Bodies of water)
b. Perimeter barrier openings = Gates and Doors,
sidewalk elevator and Utilities Openings.
2. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and
business enterprises where personnel, processes, properties and
operations are safeguarded?
A. personal security C. document security
B. industrial security D. bank security
3. What is the barrier established to protect the surrounding of
an installation?
A. human C. energy
B. animal D. structure
TYPES of Physical Barrier:
. Natural (Geographic features)
2. Structural ( Fence, walls, grilles, doors, road blocks etc.)
3. Human (Security guards and employees)
4. Animal (Dogs and Geese)
5. Energy ( Electronic device/hardware)
 4. A fence constructed in such a way to provide visual
access on the exterior perimeter area.
A. full view fence C. solid fence
B. masonry walls D. half
way
Wire Fence (solid or full-view) can either be barbed wire
(semi-permanent), Chain links (permanent structure)
and concertina (least permanent).
Barb wire = twisted double strand, 12 gauge wire, with 4
point barb spaced an equal distant part, at least 7 feet
high excluding the top guard, firmly attached to a post
not more than 6 feet apart and distance between
strands will not exceed 6 inches and at least one wire
will be interface vertical and midway between the
Concertina =commercially manufactured wire coil
of high-strength-steel barbed wire clipped together
at intervals to form a cylinder. Opened concertina
wire is 5 feet long and 3 feet in high.
Chain Links = 7 foot material excluding the top
guard, 9 gauge or heavier and mesh opening are not be
larger than 2inches per aide.
Bard Tape = composed of barb wire, bard tape
dispenser and concertina. It is faabricated from a steel
strip with minimum breaking system of 500 pounds,
over-all width of ¾ inch and 7/16 inch barb spaced ½
inch intervals along each side.
7. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance
is determined through a process called
______________.
A. security training C. security education
B. security promotionD. security investigation
Security Education = a program given to employees of an
installation pertaining to measures and safeguards to be
taken to protect the interest of the installation.
Security Investigation = an inquiry on the character,
reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an
individual in order to determine a person’s suitability for
appointment or access to classified matter.
Security training = design to teach specific method of
performing task or responding to a given situation.
5. Which of the following should NOT be issued to private
security guards under normal condition?
A. cal .45 pistol C. all of these
B. cal .38 revolver D. 9mm pistol
6. Which of the following words below is NOT related to the
others?
A. reinstate C. fortify
B. augment D. reinforce

High power gun used in military and those with caliber more
than .38 caliber, except magnum .22 and .357.
8. The minimum age requirement for security manager or
operator of a security agency is:
A. 40 yrs old C. 25 yrs old
B. 30 yrs old D. 35 yrs old
9. The importance of the firm or installation with reference
to the national economy security
A. relative vulnerability C. relative necessity
B. relative criticality D. relative security

Relative vulnerability = susceptability of the plant or

establishment to damage, loss or distruption of operation
due to various hazards.
20. Protection of classified documents/matters
concerning their preparation, classification,
reproduction, handling, transmission, disposal and
destruction.
A. document security C. physical security
B. operational security D.organizational security
21. New employees should be briefed on security rules
and regulations of the organization and the
importance of observing them. This process is
called________.
A. Security promotion C. Security reminders
B. Security orientation D. Security investigation
22. How is one classified if he steals primarily
because of irresistible urge due to unexpected
opportunity and little chance of detection?
A. systematic pilferer C. ordinary pilferer
B. casual pilferer D. unusual pilferer
23. Before a security expert can recommend, what type of
security will be need by an industrial establishment, there
is a need for him to undertake a:
A. Security training C. Security check
B. Security survey D. Security education
24. An authenticated list of personnel given to security
allowing entry to compound or installation or parts thereof
is called:
A. duress code C. pass system
B. access list D. ID system
25. Security education program to be effective must have the
support and sanction of the:
A. security agency C. top management
B. board of trustees D. management of the firm
26. A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and
deficiency in all aspects of security, with the corresponding
recommendation is:
A. security inspection C. security education
B. security seminar D. security survey
27. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security
and its relevance to their work is:
A. security inspection C. security education
B. security seminar D. security survey
28. It refers to an act or condition which results in a
situation which is a breach of the protection of system and
the subsequent losses or compromise of defense
information, company secrets or damage to personnel,
property or facilities is:
A. defense facility C. anti-pilferer
29. What is the basic load of ammunition of security
guard?
A. 25 C. 30
B. 50 D. 15
30. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances
of license for private security personnel?
A. PNP SUSIA C. PNP FED
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
31. What is the last phase of security education program?
A. initial interview C. refresher conference
B. debriefing D. security promotion
nitial Interview, Training conference, Refresher conference,
Security Reminders, Security promotion, Special interview
and Debriefing.
32. What type of pass system allows any person to gain
access to specific areas provided they possess valid
authorization which they keep in possession until
terminated?
A. Pass exchange system C. single pass
B. multiple pass D. none of these

33. What type of controlled area requires highest

degree of security?
 A. limited C. restricted
 B. any of these D. exclusive
34. What is the minimum number of security guards
required on the company guard force in order to secure a
regular license to operate?
A. one hundred C. three hundred
B. thirty D. two hundred
35. What is the most common type of human hazard?
A. sabotage C. pilferage
B. shoplifting D. espionage
36. These are hazards caused by natural phenomena,
EXCEPT:
A. lightning C.
earthquake
B. conflagration D. vandalism
37. What type of investigation involves all aspect and details
about the circumstances of a person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
38. What is the process of conducting physical examination
to determine compliance with establishment security
policies and procedures as a result of security survey?
A. security education C. security survey
39. A type of protective alarm system located outside the
installation and the alarm signal is relayed to remote panel.
A. local alarm system C. central alarm system
B. dial alarm system D. proprietary alarm system
40. What is the FIRST phase of security education
program?
A. initial interview C. refresher conference
B. debriefing D. security promotion
 41. What is the security force maintained and operated by
any private company/ corporation for its own security
requirements?
 A. GSU C. CSF
 B. PSA D. none of these
42. An authenticated list of personnel given to security
allowing entry to compound or installation or parts thereof
is called:
A. duress code C. pass system
B. access list D. ID system
43. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security
and its relevance to their work is:
A. security inspection C. security education
B. security seminar D. security survey
44. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green
color?
A. sodium vapor lamp C. mercury vapor
lamp
B. incandescent lamp D. quartz lamp
45. Security consultant must have atleast_______.
A. initial capital investment
B. experiences in operation and management of
security business
C. graduate of investigation course offered by PNP or NBI
D. license to operate an agency
46. When are security guards deputized by the PNP Chief or
local mayor to have police authority within their assigned
area of responsibility?
A. when there is an employees strike
B. when the company is in retrenchment
C. during times of emergency
D. when there is a crime committed inside the
establishment
47. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of
security?
A. limited C. restricted
B. any of these D. exclusive
48. Private security agency has to be registered with the
_________.
A. Securities & Exchange Commission C. PADPAO
B. National Police Commission D. Social Security System
49. A private security agency maybe allowed to procure high
powered firearms if they operates in areas where there is an
upsurge of lawlessness and criminality. How many percent of
high powered firearm is allowed to be possessed by a private
security agency?
A. ten percent C. one hundred percent
B. thirty percent D. fifty percent
50. He exercises the power to revoke, for cause, licenses
issued to security guards.
A. Secretary, DILG C. Chief, PNP
B. Chairman, NAPOLCOM D. Usec. for Peace & Order
51. What is the required capital investment for
organization of private security agency?
A. Php 500,000.00 C. Php 1,000,000.00
B. Php 100,000.00 D. Php 50,000.00
52. What light operates during power interruption?
A. stationary C. emergency
B. movable D. none of these
53. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
green color?
A. sodium vapor lamp C. mercury vapor
lamp
 B. incandescent lamp D. quartz lamp
54. In this system of alarm detection, the circuits are led to
the nearest police or fire station.
A. local alarm C. proprietary alarm
B. auxiliary alarm D. central alarm
55. What is a portable and detachable lock having a pivoted
hasp which passes through a staple ring and is then made
secured?
 A. lock C. padlock
 B. ward lock D. pin tumbler
56. What is called as devices and contrivance installed
inside and outside a facility to compliment and provide
additional security measures and operates to advertise
entry into sensitive and protected area?
 A. protective lock C. protective cabinet
 B. protective barrier D. protective lock
57. Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the
interruption of the light beam is known as:
A. metallic foil C. electric eye device
B. audio alarm D. microwave alarm
58. In bank security, time delay lock system is usually
utilized in____.
 A. steel cabinet C. Safe
 B. vault D. File room
59. What is the final line of physical defense?
A. Protective barrier C. Protective
cabinets
B. Windows and doors D. Protective locks
60. What lock requires manipulation of parts according to
a predetermined combination code of numbers?
A. Card- operated lock C. Combination lock
B. Electromagnetic lock D. None of these
61. Lighting equipment primary used to extend the
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier.
A. Fresnel light C. Glare projection
B. Street light D. Controlled lighting
62. In installing protective lighting, what are the areas
which needs illumination?
A. Parking area C. Sensitive area
B. Vehicular gate D. All of these
63. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and
windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. All of these
64. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas
where insects predominate?
A. Mercury vapor lamp C. Sodium vapor lamp
B. Quartz lamp D. Any of these

65. Lighting equipment primary used to extend the
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier.
A. Fresnel light C. Glare projection
B. Street light D. Controlled lighting
66. In installing protective lighting, what are the areas
which needs illumination?
A. Parking area C. Sensitive area
B. Vehicular gate D. All of these
67. A type of protective alarm system located outside the
installation and the alarm signal is relayed to remote panel.
A. Local alarm system C. Central alarm system
B. Dial alarm system D. Proprietary alarm system
68. These lighting equipment produce diffused light
rather than directional beam and widely used in
parking areas.
A. Fresnel light C. Floodlight
B. Search light D. Street light
69. What type of lamp emits bright white light?
A. Sodium vapor lamp C. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Incandescent lamp D. Quartz lamp

70. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between
the potential intruder and the object/ matter to be
protected. As a criminologist, this is simply a denial
of_____________.
A. Criminal instinct
B. Opportunity to commit an offense
C. Opportunity and access to the object of protection
D. Access to the object of protection
71. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder
while the guard remains in the comparative darkness?
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection
72. What type of bank alarm is usually place in the teller’s top
cash drawer and connected to the alarm system, the alarm is
usually activated by removing the currency in the device?
A. Foot rail C. Bill traps
B. Foot button D. Double squeeze
73. A fence constructed in such a way to provide visual access
on the exterior perimeter area.
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
B. Masonry walls D. Half way
74. The first line of physical defense of an industrial complex
viewing it from the outside is__________.
A. The building itself C. Perimeter barrier
B. All of these D. Door, locks, windows

75. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the
use of electronic hardware, human guards and even animals.
In England, an owner to protect his compound used this and
they are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain.
This man is using_____.
 A. Tamed tigers C. Bulldog
 B. Goat D. Geese
76. What is an act governing the organization and
management of private security agency, company guard force
and government security forces?
 A. RA 7438 C. RA 4587
 C. RA 5478 D. RA 5487
77. It is a man- made structure or physical device which is
capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal access to
an installation.
78. What is known as the exterior and interior parallel area
near the perimeter barrier of an industrial complex to afford
better observation and patrol movement?
 A. Patrol lane zone C. Clear zone
 B. Protective zone D. Restricted area
79. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers
placed between the potential intruder and the object, person
and matter being protected?
A. Communication security C. Document security
B. Physical security D. Personal security
80. What type of security deals with the industrial plants
and business enterprises where personnel, processes,
properties and operations are safeguarded?
A. Personal security C. Document security
B. Industrial security D. Bank security
81. Protective lighting, perimeter barriers and ________
system are known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Relieving C. Reporting
 B. Accounting D. Guarding
82. What is the standard height requirement for a barbed
wire fence excluding the top guard?
A. Seven feet C. Four feet
B. Six feet D. Five feet
83. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or
concertina. Chain link are for ______.
A. Solid structure C. Permanent structure
B. Least permanent D. Semi- permanent
84. What is the process of conducting physical
examination to determine compliance with establishment
security policies and procedures as a result of security
survey?
 A. Security inspection C. Security education
 B. Personnel security D. Security preparation
85. A special key capable of opening series of locks is
known as ________.
A. Change key C. Peterman
B. Master key D. Key control
86. How is one classified if he steals with preconceived
plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for
economic gain?
 A. Systematic pilferer C. Ordinary pilferer
 B. Casual pilferer D. Unusual pilferer
87. Security survey is a critical on site examination and
analysis of an industrial facility, business, public or private
institution done to ascertain the current security status and
identify deficiencies. What is the first sequence of action in
conducting security survey?
 A. Determine the level of protection needed
 B. Make appropriate recommendations
 C. Ascertain the current security status
 D. Examine and analyze the site and the
organization
88. What is the last phase of security education program?
A. Initial interview C. Refresher
conference
B. Debriefing D. Security promotion
9. It is the importance of the firm or installation in relation
to national security.
A. Relative necessity C. Relative
vulnerability
B. Relative security D. Relative criticality
0. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on a
vertical perimeter fence is commonly called as:
A. Tower guard C. Top guard
B. Guard control D. Barrier
. Security guards must be taught _________ because they
are the first contact of the public during on/ off hours.
A. Marksmanship C. Management
B. Security D. Public relation
92. What type identification system involves badge or
pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas
issued to an employees who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization is charge or until he
terminates?
 A. Pass exchange system C. Single pass system
 B. Gate pass system D. Multiple pass system
93. These are hazards which arise from natural
phenomena such as earthquake, eruption of volcano
and floods.
 A. Man made hazard C. Human hazard
 B. Situational hazard D. Natural hazard
94. It includes all the security measures designed to
prevent unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful
loyalty to the government, from gaining access to classified
matter or to any security facility, and to prevent
appointment or retention as employees of such individuals.
 A. Personnel security C. Document security
 B. Industrial security D. VIP security
95. What is called as more comprehensive investigation
than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough and
complete investigation of all or some of the circumstances
or aspects of a person’s life is conducted?
A. Personnel security investigation
B. Background investigation
C. Criminal investigation
D. Private investigation
96. Under physical security, what should be placed
between the prospective intruder and target installation?
A. Hazard C. Net
 B. Risk D. Barrier
97. The minimum age requirement for security manager or
operator of a security agency is:
A. 40 yrs old C. 25 yrs old
B. 30 yrs old D. 35 yrs old
98. Security consultant must have at least how many years
of experience in operation and management of security
business?
A. 5 C. 10
B. 15 D. 20
99. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
green color?
A. Sodium vapor lampC. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Incandescent lamp D. Quartz lamp

100. Security consultant must have atleast_______.

A. Initial capital investment
B. Experiences in operation and management of
security business
C. Graduate of investigation course offered by
PNP or NBI
D. License to operate an agency
1.