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You are on page 1/ 8

1.

Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of


this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark
at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will
not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate
copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates tttt|ttt + |-t |-t+ rt
D-88-13 1 P.T.O.
. . . + . |... ... . ... .. .-. |.|.
: . .-... -. .... .- |.+.|. .-. -
.|.. ..--. -.. .. .-..|.+. ..+. | ....| .-.
... |-.. ..+. .-..|.+. .... ... .+| |.-.|.|..
... + |. |. ..... |..+| ... ..+. .-. +.| - .
(i) .-..|.+. .... + |. .+ +. .. . ..| +...
+| .|. +. +. . ..| - .. |... |+.|. +|
.|.+. .|+. . +
(ii) +t t t t |-t+ rtt-t-tt tr-tt|-t+t + t ttt
tr-tt +t -ttt +t t tr t+ + -t |+ t t
r +t tt t t |-t+t |t-t-t t /t r-t +-t rt tt + ttt t
tt rt tt -tt|t-t -t -t rt ttt |+-tt -tt t+t +t
t | t t t |-t+t -tt+t -t + ttt -tt -t-tt -t
-ttt+ -t+ -tt-t t + -tt -trt tr-tt|-t+t -t -t
-t+ |-t tt+t ttt |-t-t |+t tttt -t+ tt+ -t
tt tt+t t r-tt |-t+t ttt-t -tt ttt tt t -t rt tt+t
|t|t -t-tt |+tt ttt tt
(iii) . ... + .. OMR ..+ +| +-. ... . .-..|.+.
. |+. +
4. ..+ .-. + |. .. -. |.+. (A), (B), (C) ... (D) |.
.. - ..+. .-| -. + .-. +. .. . -.+ +... +.. -
... |+ .|. |.... ... -
+trt .
..|+,c, .-| -. -
.-.. + -. +t-t tr-t tt I + -+ |+t tt OMR tt+ t rt
|+. +. - .| .. OMR ..+ . |. .. .-. + ....
|+.| . ... . -. |.-..|+. + . - . .. .+. -...+.
.- | - . ..
|. .. |. -.. +. .....+ .
+.. +.-. (Rough Work) . .|.+. + |.-. . . +
s .| .. OMR ..+ . |... ... + .... ... ..-.. ..
.-.. +.. .-. .. +. -.| .. |.-. |... ..+| .-... -.
.+. |+. +. - ... -.: -.... +. . ... +. - . .. +.
. .|.. .... +. .... +. - . .. |+ |+. |+. ..
-. +. |-. ... .. .+ ..- | . . ... .. . |.. + |..
... ..|.. |+. .. .+. -
..+. .|.. .-... -.. . .-..|.+. . -.. OMR ..+
|.|.+ -.-.. +. ..... ..-.+ - . .|.. .-..|. + ..
. .. ... .|.. -... . ..- . .+ ... -...|+ ..
.|.. .-..|. . OMR ..+ +| .|+ .|. .. ... . ..
.+. -
.a +t-t -tt-t/+t-t tt-t tt t-t +t rt -t-tt-t +
.. |+-tt -tt t+t +t -ttt+ (+-t+-t, tt -ttt t-t t|+ +t
tttt t|tt r
.: t-tt -tt + |-t +t -t+tt-t+ + -tri r
[Maximum Marks : 100 Time : 1
1
/
4
hours]
PAPER-II
ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Signature and Name of Invigilator
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
Roll No.
(In words)
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.________________________________
8 8
(In figures as per admission card)
D 1 3
Paper-II 2 D-88-13





1. The current i
1
in the following
network is given by

(A) i
1
= 40.96 mA
(B) i
1
= 4.096 mA
(C) i
1
=+4.096 mA
(D) i
1
=+40.96 mA

2. The velocity of propagation in a
rectangular metallic waveguide is
given by the relation
(A)
p
=

m
a
2

n
b
2

(B)
p
=

m
a
2

n
b
2

(C)
p
=

2
+

m
a
2
+

n
b
2

(D)
p
=

m
a
2

n
b
2


3. The radiative and non-radiative life
times of the minority carriers in the
active region of a double hetero-
junction LED are 60 ns and 100 ns
respectively. The internal quantum
efficiency is given by :
(A) 60% (B) 62.5%
(C) 37.5% (D) 82.5%





4. In a p type silicon sample, the hole
concentration is 2.25 10
15
/cm
3
.
If the intrinsic carrier concentration
is 1.5 10
10
/cm
3
, the electron
concentration is given by
(A) zero
(B) 10
10
/cm
3

(C) 10
5
/cm
3
(D) 1.5 10
25
/cm
3

5. A signal m(f) = 5 sin (2 100t)
frequency modulates a carrier. The
resulting FM signal is
{10 cos (2 10
5
t) +15 sin (2 100 t)}.
The approximate bandwidth of FM
signal is
(A) 0.1 kHz (B) 1 kHz
(C) 3.2 kHz (D) 4 kHz
6. What is the Octal equivalent of the
binary number 11111001 ?
(A) 761 (B) 762
(C) 371 (D) 372
7. The block diagram given below :

is equivalent to

(A)


(B)


(C)


(D)

ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
Paper II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
D-88-13 3 Paper-II
8. The gauge factor of a resistance wire
strain gauge is a measure of
(A) Sensitivity of the gauge
(B) Resolution
(C) Dynamic range of displacement
measurement capability
(D) Variable inductance

9. In an LVDT, the two secondary wind map
are connected in differential to obtain
(A) higher output voltage
(B) an output voltage which is
phase sensitive, i.e., the o/p
voltage has a phase which can
lead up to a conclusion whether
the displacement of the core
took place from right to left or
from left to right.
(C) in order to establish a null or
the reference point for the
replacement of the core.
(D) both (B) and (C)

10. Microprocessor is also known as
CPU. What is CPU ?
(A) Control Processing Unit
(B) Central Processing Unit
(C) Central Progressing Unit
(D) Control Progressing Unit

11. If i is a variable, i
++
denotes
(A) i is incremented twice
(B) i is incremented once
(C) i is replaced with i +2
(D) i is multiplied by 2

12. For a SMF, following characteristic
are given by
1. 0 v <2.405
2. v >>2.405
3. Core radius is less than 10 m
4. Attenuation is of the order of 1 dB/km
Which of the following statement is
true ?
(A) 1 and 4 is correct.
(B) 2 and 3 is correct.
(C) 1 and 3 is correct.
(D) 3 and 4 is correct.
13. In a directional coupler, the power is
applied at port 1 and output is taken
from the port 2. For this following
statements are given :
1. Coupling coefficient is given
by C =10 log
10

P
1
P
4

.

2. Coupling coefficient is
C =10 log
10

P
4
P
1

.

3. Directivity is given by
D =10 log
10

P
4
P
3

.

4. Directivity is given by
D =10 log
P
2
P
1
.
Which of the following statement is
true ?

(A) 1 and 3 is correct.
(B) 2 and 3 is correct.
(C) 2 and 4 is correct.
(D) 1 and 4 is correct.

14. An AM demodulator can be
implemented with
1. A linear multiplier followed by
low pass filter.
2. A linear multiplier followed by
high-pass filter.
3. A diode followed by low pass
filter.
4. A linear multiplier followed by
band-stop filter.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 4 only

15. NAND Gate can also be represented by
1. AND invert Gate
2. OR Invert Gate
3. Bubbled OR
4. Bubbled AND
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 & 2
(C) 2 & 4 (D) 1 & 3
Paper-II 4 D-88-13
16. In 8085 processor,
1. AD
0
AD
7
are treated as input
as well as output signals.
2. HLDA is a output signal.
3. HOLD is a output signal.
4. SOD is a output signal.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are output signals.
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are output signals.
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are output signals.
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are output signals
17. A variable type char indicates the
range and the no. of bytes.
1. 1 byte 2. 2 bytes
3. 127 to +128 4. 128 to +127
(A) 1 & 3 (B) 2 & 3
(C) 1 & 4 (D) 2 & 4
18. The hygrometer is an instrument
used to measure
1. rainfall 2. altitude
3. relative humidity 4. temperature
Which of the following is true ?
(A) 1 and 2 is true.
(B) 1 and 4 is true.
(C) 3 is true.
(D) 3 and 4 is true
19. Hall effect can be used to measure
1. conductivity of the charge carrier.
2. mobility of the charge carrier.
3. the number of valence electrons
per atom.
4. band gap of the material.
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 are true (B) 2 and 3 are true
(C) 3 and 4 are true (D) 1 and 4 are true
20. In a J FET, the amplification factor ,
transconductance g
m
, and the
dynamic drain resistance (r
d
) are
related as
(A) =
g
m
r
d
(B) =
r
d
g
m

(C) =r
d
g
m
(D) =g
m
r
d
2


21. Consider the following materials
used for fabrication of Photonic Ics.
1. Ga P 2. In As
3. Ga As 4. Si
The correct sequence of the
ascending order in terms of band gap
energies is
(A) 1, 4, 2 and 3 (B) 4, 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3, 1 and 4 (D) 2, 4, 3 and 1
22. Consider the following :
1. Quantization 2. Sampling
3. Encoding 4. Low-pass filter
The correct sequence for converting a low-
pass analog signal to Digital signal is
(A) 4, 3, 1, 2 (B) 4, 1, 2, 3
(C) 4, 2, 1, 3 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1
23. Consider the following circuit configurations :
1. Common emitter
2. Common base
3. Emitter follower
4. Emitter follower using Darlington pair
The correct sequence in increasing
order of the input resistances of these
configurations is
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3 (B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
24. 8085 microprocessor has a flag
register. The following flags are
there, keep them in the ascending
order starting from LSB to MSB.
1. Parity flag 2. Zero flag
3. Carry flag 4. Sign flag
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 4, 1 and 3
(C) 3, 2, 1 and 4 (D) 3, 1, 2 and 4
25. The following logic families have
their propagation delay. Arrange
them from lowest propagation delay
to highest propagation delay.
1. TTL (Standard) 2. ECL
3. Low power CMOS 4. DTL
(A) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (B) 2, 4, 1 and 3
(C) 4, 2, 3 and 1 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using codes given below :
List I List II
(a) Indirect band gap (i) Ga As
(b) Direct band gap (ii) Cavity
(c) Laser diode (iii) Spontaneous
emission
(d) LED (iv) Si
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
27. List I List II
(a) Poissons equation
(i)
2
V =O
(b) Laplace equation (ii) H.dl =I
(c) Amperes Law
(iii) E =

/o
(d) Divergence of the
field
(iv)
2
V =

/
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
D-88-13 5 Paper-II
28. List I List II
(a) Frequency
Modulation
(i) Balanced
Modulator
(b) Double sideband
suppressed
carrier
(ii) Companding
(c) PCM (iii) Pre-emphasis
and De-
emphasis
(d) AM (iv) Envelope
Detection
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

29. List I List II
(a) Non-Weighted
Code
(i) 8421
(b) Error-Detecting
Code
(ii) Gray
Code
(c) Weighted Code (iii) Hamming
Code
(d) Error-Correcting (iv) Parity
Check
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

30. List I
(Transducers)
List II
(Measured
Quantity)
(a) Capacitive
transducer
(i) Temperature
(b) Thermocouple (ii) Power
(c) Bourdon gauge (iii) Displacement
(d) Solar cell (iv) Pressure
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
31. List I List II
(a) Voltage
regulated IC
(i) Figure of merit
(b) Bistable
multivibrator
(ii) CMRR
(c) OPAMP (iii) Capture range and
locking range
(d) Phase
Locked Loop
(iv) flip-flop
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
32. List I List II
(a) ASK (i) Uses two frequencies,
mark and space.
(b) FSK (ii) Baud rate is same as
bit rate.
(c) BPSK (iii) On-off keying
(d) QPSK (iv) Baud rate is half of
bit rate
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
33. List I List II
(a) if statement (i) case
(b) do statement (ii) return
(c) switch statement (iii) while
(d) main statement (iv) else
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
34. List I List II
(Amplifier
type)
(Circuit/property)
(a) RC
coupling
(i) Higher voltage
gain and impedence
matching.
(b) Inductive
coupling
(ii) Ability to amplify
dc and low
frequency signal.
(c) Trans-
former
coupling
(iii) Minimum possible
non-linear
distortion
(d) Direct
coupling
(iv) Low collector
supply voltages
can be used.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Paper-II 6 D-88-13
35. List I List II
(a) assembler (i) executes program
line by line.
(b) compiler (ii) creates machine
code.
(c) interpreter (iii) finds faults during
execution.
(d) debugger (iv) creates object
file.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Directions : Q. Nos. 36 to 45 : The
following items consist of two
statements, one labelled the
Assertion (A) and other labelled
the Reason (R). You are to
examine these two statements
carefully and decide if the
Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether
the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion. Select your answers to
these items using the codes given
below and mark your answer
accordingly.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

36. Assertion (A) : A reflex klystron
makes use of a single cavity.
Reason (R) : The single cavity
performs the functions of
buncher as well as catcher cavity.

37. Assertion (A) : LP
01
is basically
HE
11
mode.
Reason (R) : Linearly polarised
modes are strongly guided
modes, in which TE and TM
modes do not have identical
propagation constants.
38. Assertion (A) : Combinational
circuits have no memory,
timing or feed back loop.
Reason (R) : The output of combinational
circuit depends on their input and
previous output state.
39. Assertion (A) : Digital base band
modulation is also referred to
as TDM.
Reason (R) : Pulse analog
modulation is first step in
converting analog signal to
Digital Signal.
40. Assertion (A) : Under certain
conditions, one gets peak
response at high frequency in
transformer coupled amplifiers.
Reason (R) : High frequency model
of transformer coupled
amplifiers is a resonant circuit.
41. Assertion (A) : At high
temperatures, the avalanche
breakdown voltage of zener
diode remains constant.
Reason (R) : At high temperatures,
mean free paths of electrons
and holes are shorter, therefore
a larger field is required to
cause ionization.
42. Assertion (A) : Piezoelectric
transducers are not suitable for
ultra-low frequency vibration
measurement.
Reason (R) : Piezoelectric materials
have a high dielectric constant.
43. Assertion (A) : The contents of Random
Access memory is a volatile in
nature. As soon as the power is
removed to the IC, the contents are
erased from the memory.
Reason (R) : The contents of Read-
only Memory is a non-volatile
in nature.
44. Assertion (A) : Logarithms are used to
change a multiplication or
division problem into a simpler
addition and subtraction problem.
Reason (R) : The Laplace transform
enables the circuit analyst to
convert the set of integro
differential equations describing
a circuit to the complex
frequency domain.
D-88-13 7 Paper-II
45. Assertion (A) : char str[] =paper
str acts as a constant pointer
to a string.
Reason (R) : *P =Paper
P acts as a pointer to a
constant string.

Read the passage and answer the Question
Nos. 46 to 50 that follows based on your
understanding of passage.

Power devices with pnpn layers such
as SCR, SCS and GTO belong to thyrister
series. However UJ T is also a member of
this group. The silicon controlled rectifier
(SCR) is three terminal pnpn
semiconductor switching device, which is
probably most important circuit element
after the diode and the transistor. An SCR
can be used as a controlled switch to
perform various functions such as
rectification inversion and regulation of
power flow. It is unidirectional power
switch and being extensively used in
switching ac and dc. It has capability to
control power as high as 10 MW. The
frequency range of its application has also
been extended up to 50 kHz. SCR is a
rectifier with control action. The third
element called gate enables the controlled
rectification gate is used to turn SCR ON
but not turn it OFF. SCR is made of Si
because it has to handle high power and
high temperature.
There are many advantages of SCR
as a switch i.e. the switching speed is very
high up to 10
9
operation per second and it
permits control over a large current (30-
100 A) in the load by means of a small gate
current of few mA. SCR has two states turn
ON and turn OFF state. There are two ways
to turn ON (i) keep the gate open and made
the supply voltage equal to the breakover
voltage (ii) operate SCR with supply
voltage less than breakover voltage. The
general methods used for turning the SCR
OFF are (i) anode current interruption and
(ii) force commutation. It is not advisable
to turn the SCR ON with zero gate signal.
Some of the applications of SCR are
motor controls, relay controls, inverters,
preventive circuits, regulated power supply
and phase control. Another pnpn device
have characteristic similar to that of SCR is
SCS (Silicon Controlled Switch).
A device that can control ac power to
the load during the positive and negative
cycle of input is called triac. It is
basically a diac with a gate terminal for
bilateral turn ON. Gate Turn OFF (GTO)
switch is one more pnpn device which can
be turned ON or OFF with cathode gate.
Some application of GTO are counters,
pulse generators and multivibrators.
Light activated SCR (SASCR) is
turned ON by the light falling on the gate.
It is used as a relay, optical light controller,
phase controller and motor control device.
46. If the applied voltage is increased
further when an SCR is forward
biased, then
(A) It becomes more forward
biased.
(B) It becomes more reverse
biased.
(C) It will come to ON state.
(D) It will come to OFF state.
47. The
d
i
d
t
if an SCR in an ac voltage
controller is high if the load is
(A) A pure inductance
(B) An induction motor
(C) A pure resistance
(D) A combination of resistance
and inductance.
48. Triac can be considered as
(A) Two SCRs connected in
antiparallel with common gate.
(B) Two SCRs connected in
parallel with common gate.
(C) Two Resisters connected in
anti parallel.
(D) Two GTOs connected in parallel
with common cathode gate.
49. Forced commutation is employed
when anode voltage is
(A) AC (B) DC
(C) Pulsating (D) Triangular
50. Diac is
(A) Two terminal bidirectional switch.
(B) Two terminal Unilateral switch.
(C) Three terminal bidirectional switch.
(D) Three terminal unilateral switch.
Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 8 D-88-13

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