communications field?

a) ITU-T
Computer Networks Basics b) IEEE
c) FCC
1) The IETF standards documents are called d) ISOC
a) RFC Answer: c
b) RCF
c) ID 8) Which of this is not a network edge
d) None of the mentioned device?
Answer: a a) PC
Explanation: Request For Comments. b) Smartphones
c) Servers
2) In the layer hierarchy as the data packet d) Switch
moves from the upper to the lower layers, Answer: d
headers are Explanation: Network egde devices refer to
a) Added host systems, which can host applications
b) Removed like web browser.
c) Rearranged
d) Modified 9) A set of rules that governs data
Answer: a communication
Explanation: Every layer adds its own a) Protocols
header to the packet from previous layer. b) Standards
c) RFCs
3) The structure or format of data is called d) None of the mentioned
a) Syntax Answer: a
b) Semantics
c) Struct 10) Three or more devices share a link in
d) None of the mentioned ________ connection
Answer: a a) Unipoint
Explanation: Semantics defines how a b) Multipoint
particular pattern to be interpreted, and what c) Point to point
action is to be taken based on that d) None of the mentioned
interpretation. Answer: b

4) Communication between a computer and 1. When collection of various computers

a keyboard involves ______________ seems a single coherent system to its client,
transmission then it is called
a) Automatic a) computer network
b) Half-duplex b) distributed system
c) Full-duplex c) both (a) and (b)
d) Simplex d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: Data flows in single direction.
2. Two devices are in network if
5) The first Network a) a process in one device is able to
a) CNNET exchange information with a process in
b) NSFNET another device
c) ASAPNET b) a process is running on both devices
d) ARPANET c) PIDs of the processes running of different
Answer: d devices are same
d) none of the mentioned
6) The _______ is the physical path over Answer: a
which a message travels
a) Path 3. Which one of the following computer
b) Medium network is built on the top of another
c) Protocol network?
d) Route a) prior network
Answer: b b) chief network
Explanation: Message travel from sender to c) prime network
reciever via a medium using a protocol. d) overlay network
Answer: d
7) Which organization has authority over
interstate and international commerce in the

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
4. In computer network nodes are a) A high-speed downstream channel
a) the computer that originates the data b) A medium-speed downstream channel
b) the computer that routes the data c) A low-speed downstream channel
c) the computer that terminates the data d) None of the mentioned
d) all of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: The third part is ordinary two
way telephone channel.
5. Communication channel is shared by all
the machines on the network in 2) In DSL telco provides these services
a) broadcast network a) Wired phone access
b) unicast network b) ISP
c) multicast network c) All of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The same company which
6. Bluetooth is an example of provides phone connection is also its ISP in
a) personal area network DSL.
b) local area network
c) virtual private network 3) The function of DSLAM is
d) none of the mentioned a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
Answer: a b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
7. A __________ is a device that forwards d) None of the mentioned
packets between networks by processing the Answer: a
routing information included in the packet. Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco‘s
a) bridge Central Office does this function.
b) firewall
c) router 4) The following term is not associted with
d) all of the mentioned DSL
Answer: c a) DSLAM
b) CO
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one c) Splitter
protocol per layer, is called d) CMTS
a) protocol architecture Answer: d
b) protocol stack Explanation: Cable modem termination
c) protocol suit system is used in cable internet access.
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b 5) HFC contains
a) Fibre cable
9. Network congestion occurs b) Coaxial cable
a) in case of traffic overloading c) Both of the mentioned
b) when a system terminates d) None of the mentioned
c) when connection between two nodes Answer: c
terminates
d) none of the mentioned 6) Choose the statement which is not
Answer: a applicable for cable internet access
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
10. Which one of the following extends a b) It includes HFCs
private network across public networks? c) Cable modem connects home PC to
a) local area network Ethernet port
b) virtual private network d) Analog signal is converted to digital
c) enterprise private network signal in DSLAM
d) storage area network Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: In cable access analog signal is
converted to digital signal by CMTS.
Access Networks
7) Among the optical-distribution
This set of Computer Networks Multiple architectures that is essentially switched
Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) ehternet is
focuses on ―Access Networks‖. a) AON
b) PON
1) Which of this is not a constituent of c) NON
residential telephone line? d) None of the mentioned

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:a c) Ethernet
Explanation: Active optical networks are d) None of the mentioned
essentially switched ehternets. Answer: a

8) StarBand provides 4. Transport layer is implemented in

a) FTTH internet access a) End system
b) Cable access b) NIC
c) Telephone access c) Ethernet
d) Satellite access d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: a

9) Home Access is provided by 5. The functionalities of presentation layer

a) DSL includes
b) FTTP a) Data compression
c) Cable b) Data encryption
d) All of the mentioned c) Data description
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
10) ONT is connected to splitter using
a) High speed fibre cable 6. Delimiting and synchronization of data
b) HFC exchange is provided by
c) Optical cable a) Application layer
d) None of the mentioned b) Session layer
Answer: c c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
11) These factors affect transmission rate in Answer: b
DSL
a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line 7. In OSI model, when data is sent from
b) Degree of electrical interfernece device A to device B, the 5th layer to
c) Shadow fading recieve data at B is
d) Both a and b a) Application layer
Answer: d b) Transport layer
Explanation: Because DSL is made of c) Link layer
twisted wire copper pair. d) Session layer
Answer: d
Reference Models
8. In Internet protocol stack, when data is
1. The number of layers in Internet protocol sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer
stack to receive data at B is
a) 5 a) Application layer
b) 7 b) Transport layer
c) 6 c) Link layer
d) None of the mentioned d) Session layer
Answer: a Answer: a

2. The number of layers in ISO OSI 9. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves
reference model from the lower to the upper layers, headers
a) 5 are _______
b) 7 a) Added
c) 6 b) Removed
d) None of the mentioned c) Rearranged
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
3. This layer in an addition to OSI model
a) Application layer 1. OSI stands for
b) Presentation layer a) open system interconnection
c) Session layer b) operating system interface
d) Both b and c c) optical service implementation
Answer: d d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
4. Application layer is implemented in
a) End system 2. The OSI model has _______ layers.
b) NIC a) 4

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) 5 d) none of the mentioned
c) 6 Answer: a
d) 7
Answer: d 10. Transmission data rate is decided by
a) network layer
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer b) physical layer
but OSI model have this layer. c) data link layer
a) session layer d) transport layer
b) presentation layer Answer: b
c) application layer
d) both (a) and (b) OSI Model
Answer: d
Data Link Layer
4. Which layer links the network support
layers and user support layers This set of Computer Networks Multiple
a) session layer Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
b) data link layer focuses on ―Data Link Layer‖.
c) transport layer
d) network layer 1. The data link layer takes the packets from
_________ and encapsulates them into
Answer: c frames for transmission.
Explanation: Physical, data link and network a) network layer
layers are network support layers and b) physical layer
session, presentation and application layers c) transport layer
are user support layers. d) application layer
Answer: a
5. Which address is used in an internet
employing the TCP/IP protocols? 2. Which one of the following task is not
a) physical address and logical address done by data link layer?
b) port address a) framing
c) specific address b) error control
d) all of the mentioned c) flow control
Answer: d d) channel coding
Answer: d
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the
OSI model. 3. Which sublayer of the data link layer
a) prior to performs data link functions that depend
b) after upon the type of medium?
c) simultaneous to a) logical link control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned b) media access control sublayer
Answer: a c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
7. Which layer is responsible for process to Answer: b
process delivery?
a) network layer 4. Header of a frame generally contains
b) transport layer a) synchronization bytes
c) session layer b) addresses
d) data link layer c) frame identifier
Answer: b d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
8. Which address identifies a process on a
host? 5. Automatic repeat request error
a) physical address management mechanism is provided by
b) logical address a) logical link control sublayer
c) port address b) media access control sublayer
d) specific address c) network interface control sublayer
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
9. Which layer provides the services to user?
a) application layer 6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has
b) session layer been changed during the transmission, the
c) presentation layer error is called
a) random error

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) burst error c) both (a) and (b)
c) inverted error d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer: b
4. In virtual circuit network each packet
7. CRC stands for contains
a) cyclic redundancy check a) full source and destination address
b) code repeat check b) a short VC number
c) code redundancy check c) both (a) and (b)
d) cyclic repeat check d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: b

8. Which one of the following is a data link 5. Which one of the following routing
protocol? algorithm can be used for network layer
a) ethernet design?
b) point to point protocol a) shortest path algorithm
c) hdlc b) distance vector routing
d) all of the mentioned c) link state routing
Answer: d d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
9. Which one of the following is the
multiple access protocol for channel access 6. Multidestination routing
control? a) is same as broadcast routing
a) CSMA/CD b) contains the list of all destinations
b) CSMA/CA c) data is not sent by packets
c) Both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer: c
7. A subset of a network that includes all the
10. The technique of temporarily delaying routers but contains no loops is called
outgoing outgoing acknowledgements so a) spanning tree
that they can be hooked onto the next b) spider structure
outgoing data frame is called c) spider tree
a) piggybacking d) none of the mentioned
b) cyclic redundancy check Answer: a
c) fletcher‘s checksum
d) none of the mentioned 8. Which one of the following algorithm is
Answer: a not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
Network Layer b) admission control
c) load shedding
This set of Computer Networks Multiple d) none of the mentioned
Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) Answer: d
focuses on ―Network Layer‖.
9. The network layer protocol of internet is
1. The network layer concerns with a) ethernet
a) bits b) internet protocol
b) frames c) hypertext transfer protocol
c) packets d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer: b
Answer: c
10. ICMP is primarily used for
2. Which one of the following is not a a) error and diagnostic functions
function of network layer? b) addressing
a) routing c) forwarding
b) inter-networking d) none of the mentioned
c) congestion control Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d Transport Layer

3. The 4 byte IP address consists of This set of Computer Networks Multiple

a) network address Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
b) host address focuses on ―Transport Layer‖.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
1. Transport layer aggregates data from b) pipe
different applications into a single stream c) node
before passing it to d) none of the mentioned
a) network layer Answer: a
b) data link layer
c) application layer 9. Transport layer protocols deals with
d) physical layer a) application to application communication
Answer: a b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
2. Which one of the following is a transport d) none of the mentioned
layer protocol used in internet? Answer: b
a) TCP
b) UDP 10. Which one of the following is a transport
c) Both (a) and (b) layer protocol?
d) None of the mentioned a) stream control transmission protocol
Answer: c b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
3. User datagram protocol is called d) dynamic host configuration protocol
connectionless because Answer: a
a) all UDP packets are treated independently
by transport layer Physical Layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related
packets This set of Computer Networks Multiple
c) both (a) and (b) Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
d) none of the mentioned focuses on ―Physical Layer‖.
Answer: a
1. The physical layer concerns with
4. Transmission control protocol is a) bit-by-bit delivery
a) connection oriented protocol p) process to process delivery
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a c) application to application delivery
connection d) none of the mentioned
c) recievs data from application as a single Answer: a
stream
d) all of the mentioned 2. Which transmission media has the highest
Answer: d transmission speed in a network?
a) coaxial cable
5. An endpoint of an inter-process b) twisted pair cable
communication flow across a computer c) optical fiber
network is called d) electrical cable
a) socket Answer: c
b) pipe
c) port 3. Bits can be send over guided and
d) none of the mentioned unguided media as analog signal by
Answer: a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
6. Socket-style API for windows is called c) frequency modulation
a) wsock d) phase modulation
b) winsock Answer: a
c) wins
d) none of the mentioned 4. The portion of physical layer that
Answer: b interfaces with the media access control
sublayer is called
7. Which one of the following is a version of a) physical signalling sublayer
UDP with congestion control? b) physical data sublayer
a) datagram congestion control protocol c) physical address sublayer
b) stream control transmission protocol d) none of the mentioned
c) structured stream transport Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a 5. physical layer provides
a) mechanical specifications of electrical
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport connectors and cables
service access point. b) electrical specification of transmission
a) port line signal level

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) specification for IR over optical fiber c) Ring
d) all of the mentioned d) Bus
Answer: d Answer: a

6. In asynchronous serial communication the 3. This topology requires multipoint

physical layer provides connection
a) start and stop signalling a) Star
b) flow control b) Mesh
c) both (a) and (b) c) Ring
d) none of the mentioned d) Bus
Answer: c Answer: d

7. The physical layer is responsible for 4. Data communication system spanning

a) line coding states, countries, or the whole world is
b) channel coding a) LAN
c) modulation b) WAN
d) all of the mentioned c) MAN
Answer: d d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
8. The physical layer translates logical Explanation: Wide area network(WAN)
communication requests from the ______ covers the whole of the world network.
into hardware specific operations.
a) data link layer 5. Data communication system within a
b) network layer building or campus is
c) trasnport layer a) LAN
d) application layer b) WAN
Answer: a c) MAN
d) None of the mentioned
9. A single channel is shared by multiple Answer: a
signals by
a) analog modulation 6. Expand WAN
b) digital modulation a) World area network
c) multiplexing b) Wide area network
d) none of the mentioned c) Web area network
Answer: c d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
10. Wireless transmission can be done via
a) radio waves 7. In TDM, slots are further divided into
b) microwaves a) Seconds
c) infrared b) Frames
d) all of the mentioned c) Packets
Answer: d d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Security & Physical Layer
8. Multiplexing technique that shifts each
Topology signal to a different carrier frequency
a) FDM
This set of Computer Networks Multiple b) TDM
Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) c) Either a or b
focuses on ―Topology‖. d) Both a and b
Answer: a
1. Physical or logical arrangement of Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency
network is division multiplexing.
a) Topology
b) Routing Multiplexing
c) Networking
d) None of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple
Answer: a Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on ―Multiplexing‖.
2. In this topology there is a central
controller or hub 1. The sharing of a medium and its link by
a) Star two or more devices is called _________
b) Mesh a) Fully duplexing

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) Multiplexing b) Lesser than
c) Both a and b c) Equal to
d) None of the mentioned d) Equal to or greater than
Answer: b Answer: a

2. Multiplexing is used in _______ 9. In TDM, slots are further divided into

a) Packet switching a) Seconds
b) Circuit switching b) Frames
c) Data switching c) Packets
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: b

3. Which multiplexing technique transmits 10. Multiplexing technique that shifts each
digital signals ? signal to a different carrier frequency
a) FDM a) FDM
b) TDM b) TDM
c) WDM c) Either a or b
d) None of the mentioned d) Both a and b
Answer: b
Explanation: FDM and WDM are used in Answer: a
analog signals. Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency
division multiplexing.
4. If there are n signal sources of same data
rate than TDM link has _______ slots Delays and Loss
a) n
b) n/2 This set of Computer Networks Multiple
c) n*2 Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
d) 2n focuses on ―Delays and Loss‖.
Answer: a
Explanation: Each slot is dedicated to one of 1. Which of the following delay is faced by
the source. the packet in travelling from one end system
to another ?
5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, a) Propagation delay
and each slot has 8 bits,the transmission rate b) Queuing delay
of circuit this TDM is c) Transmission delay
a) 32kbps d) All of the mentioned
b) 500bps Answer: d
c) 500kbps
d) None of the mentioned 2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length
Answer: a of the packet is 32bits, the transmission
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate delay is(in milliseconds)
* number os bits in a slot. a) 3.2
b) 32
6. The state when dedicated signals are idle c) 0.32
are called d) None of the mentioned
a) Death period Answer: a
b) Poison period Explanation: Transmission rate = length /
c) Silent period transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2milli
d) None of the mentioned seconds.
Answer: c
3. The time required to examine the packet‘s
7. Multiplexing can provide header and determine where to direct the
a) Efficiency packet is part of
b) Privacy a) Processing delay
c) Anti jamming b) Queuing delay
d) Both a and b c) Transmission delay
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the
multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum 4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L =
of the transmission rates of the signal number of bits in the packet a = average rate
sources. R = transmission rate
a) Greater than a) La/R

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) LR/a Answer: c
c) R/La Explanation: Propagation delay is the time it
d) None of the mentioned takes a bit to propagate from one router to
Answer: a the next.

5. In the transfer of file between server and Network Attacks

client, if the transmission rates along the
path is 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. This set of Computer Networks Multiple
The throughput is usually Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
a) 20Mbps focuses on ―Network Attacks‖.
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps 1. The attackers a network of compromised
d) 50Mbps devices known as
Answer: b a) Internet
Explanation: The throughput is generally the b) Botnet
transmission rate of bottleneck link. c) Telnet
d) D-net
6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end = Answer: b
N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non
congested network. The number of routers 2. Which of the following is a form of DoS
between source and destination is attack ?
a) N/2 a) Vulnerability attack
b) N b) Bandwidth flooding
c) N-1 c) Connection flooding
d) 2N d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: c
3. The DoS attack is which the attacker
7. The total nodal delay is given by establishes a large number of half-open or
a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop fully open TCP connections at the target
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue host
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop a) Vulnerability attack
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop b) Bandwidth flooding
Answer: c c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being Answer: c
transmitted and there was no earlier
transmission, which of the following delays 4. The DoS attack is which the attacker
could be zero sends deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Propogation delay a) Vulnerability attack
b) Queuing delay b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Transmission delay c) Connection flooding
d) Processing delay d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: b

9. Transmission delay does not depend on 5. Packet sniffers involve

a) Packet length a) Active receiver
b) Distance between the routers b) Passive receiver
c) Transmission rate c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: They donot inject packets into
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet the channel.
length / transmission rate
6. Sniffers can be deployed in
10. Propagation delay depends on a) Wired environment
a) Packet length b) WiFi
b) Transmission rate c) Ethernet LAN
c) Distance between the routers d) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d

7. Firewalls are often configured to block

a) UDP traffic

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) TCP traffic 6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly
c) Both of the mentioned classifed into _____ groups.
d) None of the mentioned a) 2
Answer: a b) 3
c) 4
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being d) 1
transmitted and there was no earlier Answer: b
transmission, which of the following delays Explanation: The three types are those that
could be zero operate over very short distance, those that
a) Propogation delay operate in local areas, those that operate in
b) Queuing delay the wide area.
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay 7. Radio channels are attractive medium
Answer: b because
a) Can penetrate walls
Physical Media b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
c) Can carry signals for long distance
This set of Computer Networks Multiple d) All of the mentioned
Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) Answer: d
focuses on ―Physical Media‖.

1. Which of this is not a guided media ? 8. Geostationary satellites

a) Fiber optical cable a) Are placed at a fixed point above the
b) Coaxial cable earth
c) Wireless LAN b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
d) Copper wire c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
Answer: c d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided Answer: a
media. Explanation: They are placed in orbit at
36,000km above Earth‘s surface.
2. UTP is commonly used in
a) DSL Packet Switching & Circuit Switching
b) FTTP
c) HTTP This set of Computer Networks Multiple
d) None of the mentioned Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
Answer: a focuses on ―Packet Switching & Circuit
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) Switching‖.
is commonly used in home access.
1. A local telephone network is an example
3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ of a _______ network
concentric copper conductors. a) Packet switched
a) 1 b) Circuit switched
b) 2 c) Both of the mentioned
c) 3 d) None of the mentioned
d) 4 Answer: a
Answer: b
2. Most packet switches use this principle
4. Fiber optics posses following properties a) Stop and wait
a) Immune electromagnetic interference b) Store and forward
b) Very less signal attenuation c) Both of the mentioned
c) Very hard to tap d) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: The packet switch will not
transmit the first bit to outbound link until it
5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC- recieves the entire packet.
n, generally the link speed equals(in Mbps),
a) n*39.8 3. If there are N routers from source to
b) n*51.8 destination, total end to end delay in sending
c) 2n*51.8 packet P(L->number of bits in the packet R-
d) None of the mentioned > transmission rate)
Answer: b a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) L/R 2. The packet of information at the
Answer: b application layer is called
a) Packet
b) Message
4. Method(s) to move data through a c) Segment
network of links and switches d) Frame
a) Packet switching Answer: b
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching 3. This is one of the architecture paradigm
d) Both a and b a) Peer to peer
Answer: d b) Client-server
c) HTTP
5. The resources needed for communication d) Both a and b
between end systems are reserved for the Answer: d
duration of session between end systems in Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
________
a) Packet switching 4. Application developer has permission to
b) Circuit switching decide the following on transport layer side
c) Line switching a) Transport layer protocol
d) Frequency switching b) Maximum buffer size
Answer: b c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
6. As the resouces are reserved between two
communicating end systems in circuit
switching, this is achieved Answer: c
a) authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate 5. Application layer offers _______ service
c) reliability a) End to end
d) store and forward b) Process to process
Answer: b c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
7. In _________ resources are allocated on Answer: a
demand.
a) packet switching 6. E-mail is
b) circuit switching a) Loss-tolerant application
c) line switching b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
d) frequency switching c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: In packet switching there is no Explanation: Because it can work with
reservation. available throughput.

8. Which of the following is an application 7. Pick the odd one out

layer service ? a) File transfer
a) Network virtual terminal b) File download
b) File transfer, access, and management c) E-mail
c) Mail service d) Interactive games
d) All of the mentioned Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-
tolerant other applications are not.
Application Layer
8. Which of the following is an application
This set of Computer Networks Multiple layer service ?
Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) a) Network virtual terminal
focuses on ―Application Layer – 1‖. b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
1. This is not a application layer protocol d) All of the mentioned
a) HTTP Answer: d
b) SMTP
c) FTP 9. To deliver a message to the correct
d) TCP application program running on a host, the
Answer: d _______ address must be consulted
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol a) IP

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) MAC 5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is
c) Port called
d) None of the mentioned a) base 64 encoding
Answer: c b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
10. This is a time-sensitive service d) base 8 encoding
a) File transfer Answer: a
b) File download
c) E-mail 6. Which one of the following is an internet
d) Internet telephony standard protocol for managing devices on
Answer: d IP network?
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss- a) dynamic host configuration protocol
tolerant other applications are not. b) simple newtwork management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
11. Transport services available to d) media gateway protocol
applications in one or another form Answer: b
a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing 7. Which one of the following is not an
c) Security application layer protocol?
d) All of the mentioned a) media gateway protocol
Answer: d b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
12. Electronic mail uses this Application d) session initiation protocol
layer protocol Answer: c
a) SMTP
b) HTTP 8. Which protocol is a signalling
c) FTP communication protocol used for controlling
d) SIP multimedia communication sessions?
Answer: a a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
1. The ____________ translates internet c) session maintenance protocol
domain and host names to IP address. d) none of the mentioned
a) domain name system Answer: a
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol 9. Which one of the following is not correct?
d) internet relay chat a) application layer protocols are used by
Answer: a both source and destination devices during a
communication session
2. Which one of the following allows a user b) application layer protocols implemented
at one site to establish a connection to on the source and destination host must
another site and then pass keystrokes from match
local host to remote host? c) both (a) and (b)
a) HTTP d) none of the mentioned
b) FTP Answer: c
c) Telnet
d) None of the mentioned 10. When displaying a web page, the
Answer: c application layer uses the
a) HTTP protocol
3. Application layer protocol defines b) FTP protocol
a) types of messages exchanged c) SMTP protocol
b) message format, syntax and semantics d) None of the mentioned
c) rules for when and how processes send Answer: a
and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned HTTP
Answer: d
This set of Computer Networks Multiple
4. Which one of the following protocol Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
delivers/stores mail to reciever server? focuses on ―HTTP‖.
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol 1. The number of objects in a Web page
c) internet mail access protocol which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML
d) hypertext transfer protocol text is ________
Answer: a a) 4

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) 1 field of request line in the HTTP request
c) 5 message.
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c 8. The __________ method when used in
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML the method field, leaves entity body empty.
file. a) POST
b) GET
2. The default connection type used by c) Both of the mentioned
HTTP is _________ d) None of the mentioned
a) Persistent Answer: b
b) Non-persistent
c) Either of the mentioned 9. The HTTP response message leaves out
d) None of the mentioned the requested object when ____________
Answer: a method is used
a) GET
3. The time taken by a packet to travel from b) POST
client to server and then back to the client is c) HEAD
called __________ d) PUT
a) STT Answer: c
b) RTT
c) PTT 10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status
d) None of the mentioned codes
Answer: b a) 200 OK
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time. b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
4. The HTTP request message is sent in d) 304 Not Found
_________ part of three-way handshake. Answer: d
a) First Explanation: 404 Not Found.
b) Second
c) Third 11. Which of the following is not correct ?
d) None of the mentioned a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
Answer: c b) Web cache can act both like server and
client
5. In the process of fetching a web page c) Web cache might reduce the response
from a server the HTTP request/response time
takes __________ RTTs. d) Web cache contains copies of recently
a) 2 requested objects
b) 1 Answer: a
c) 4
d) 3 12. The conditional GET mechanism
Answer: b a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be
requested
6. The first line of HTTP request message is b) Limits the number of response from a
called _____________ server
a) Request line c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
b) Header line d) None of the mentioned
c) Status line Answer: c
d) Entity line
Answer: a 13. Which of the following is present in both
Explanation: The line followed by request an HTTP request line and a status line?
line are called header lines and status line is a) HTTP version number
the initial part of response message. b) URL
c) Method
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are d) None of the mentioned
specified in ____________ of HTTP Answer: a
message
a) Request line HTTP & FTP
b) Header line
c) Status line This set of Computer Networks Multiple
d) Entity body Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
Answer: a focuses on ―HTTP & FTP‖.
Explanation: It is specified in the method

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP c) both (a) and (b)
connection between client and server in d) none of the mentioned
a) persistent HTTP Answer: b
b) nonpersistent HTTP
c) both (a) and (b) 9. The file transfer protocol is built on
d) none of the mentioned a) data centric architecture
Answer: a b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
2. HTTP is ________ protocol. d) none of the mentioned
a) application layer Answer: c
b) transport layer
c) network layer 10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can
d) none of the mentioned be done in
Answer: a a) stream mode
b) block mode
3. In the network HTTP resources are c) compressed mode
located by d) all of the mentioned
a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier Answer: d
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a FTP

4. HTTP client requests by establishing a This set of Computer Networks Multiple

__________ connection to a particular port Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
on the server. focuses on ―FTP‖.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol 1. Expansion of FTP is
c) broader gateway protocol a) Fine Transfer Protocol
d) none of the mentioned b) File Transfer Protocol
Answer: b c) First Transfer Protocol
d) None of the mentioned
5. In HTTP pipelining Answer: b
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a
single TCP connection without waiting for 2. FTP is built on _____ architecture
the corresponding responses a) Client-server
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent b) P2P
on a single TCP connection c) Both of the mentioned
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a d) None of the mentioned
queue on a single TCP connection Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a 3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP
connections to transfer a file
6. FTP server listens for connection on port a) 1
number b) 2
a) 20 c) 3
b) 21 d) 4
c) 22 Answer: b
d) 23 Explanation: Control connection and data
Answer: b connection.

7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server 4. Identify the incorrect statement

using ____ as the transport protocol. a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
a) transmission control protocol b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
b) user datagram protocol c) FTP sends its control information in-band
c) datagram congestion control protocol d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data
d) stream control transmission protocol connection
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band as it has
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates separate control connection.
both the control and data connections.
a) active mode 5. If 5 files are transfered from server A to
b) passive mode client B in the same session. The number of

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
TCP connection between A and B is a) Binary
a) 5 b) Signal
b) 10 c) ASCII
c) 2 d) None of the mentioned
d) 6 Answer: c
Answer: d
Explanation: 1 control connection and other 3. Expansion of SMTP is
5 for five file transfers. a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
6. FTP server c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
a) Mantains state d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
b) Is stateless Answer: a
c) Has single TCP connection for a file
transfer 4. In SMTP, the command to write recievers
d) None of the mentioned mail adress is written with this command
Answer: a a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
7. The commands, from client to server, and c) MAIL TO
replies, from server to client, are sent across d) None of the mentioned
the control connection in ________ bit Answer: b
ASCII format
a) 8 5. The underlying Transport layer protocol
b) 7 used by SMTP is
c) 3 a) TCP
d) 5 b) UDP
Answer: b c) Either a or b
d) None of the mentioned
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is Answer: a
wrongly matched
a) 331 – Username OK, password required 6. Choose the statement which is wrong
b) 425 – Can‘t open data connection incase of SMTP
c) 452 – Error writing file a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII
d) 452 – Can‘t open data connection format
Answer: d b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to
9. Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all another mail server
the is left to TCP d) None of the mentioned
a) Stream mode Answer: b
b) Block mode Explanation: The sending mail server pushes
c) Compressed mode the mail to receiving mail server hence it is
d) None of the mentioned push protocol.
Answer: a
7. Internet mail places each object in
10. The password is sent to the server using a) Separate messages for each object
________ command b) One message
a) PASSWD c) Varies with number of objects
b) PASS d) None of the mentioned
c) PASSWORD Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b 8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is
a) 25
SMTP b) 35
c) 50
1. When the mail server sends mail to other d) 15
mail servers it becomes ____________ Answer: a
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client 9. A session may include
c) Peer a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
d) None of the mentioned b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
Answer: b c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be
2. If you have to send multimedia data over determined
SMTP it has to be encoded into Answer: a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
10. Example of user agents for e-mail 6. An email client needs to know the
a) Microsoft Outlook _________ of its initial SMTP server.
b) Apple Mail a) IP address
c) None of the above b) MAC address
d) All of the mentioned c) Url
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
11. When the sender and the receiver of an
email are on different systems, we need only 7. A SMTP session may include
_________ a) zero SMTP transaction
a) One MTA b) one SMTP transaction
b) Two UAs c) more than one SMTP transaction
c) Two UAs and one pair of MTAs d) all of the mentioned
d) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs Answer:d
Answer: d
8. SMTP defines
12. User agent does not support this a) message transport
a) Composing messages b) message encryption
b) Reading messages c) message content
c) Replying messages d) none of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned Answer:a
Answer: d
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP
1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) server configured in such a way that anyone
utilizes _________ as the transport layer on the internet can send e-mail through it?
protocol for electronic mail transfer. a) open mail relay
a) TCP b) wide mail reception
b) UDP c) open mail reception
c) DCCP d) none of the mentioned
d) SCTP Answer:a
Answer:a
10. SMTP is used to deliver messages to
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are a) user‘s terminal
known as b) user‘s mailbox
a) SMTPS c) both (a) and (b)
b) SSMTP d) none of the mentioned
c) SNMP Answer:c
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a DNS

3. SMTP uses the TCP port This set of Computer Networks Multiple
a) 22 Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
b) 23 focuses on ―DNS‖.
c) 24
d) 25 1. The entire hostname has a maximum of
Answer:d a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
4. Which one of the following protocol is c) 63 characters
used to receive mail messages? d) 31 characters
a) smtp Answer:a
b) post office protocol
c) internet message access protocol 2. A DNS client is called
d) all of the mentioned a) DNS updater
Answer:d b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)? d) none of the mentioned
a) protocol for SMTP security Answer:b
b) an SMTP extension
c) protocol for web pages 3. Servers handle requests for other domains
d) none of the mentioned a) directly
Answer:b b) by contacting remote DNS server
c) it is not possible

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) none of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple
Answer:b Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on ―SSH‖.
4. DNS database contains
a) name server records 1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is
b) hostname-to-address records used for
c) hostname aliases a) secure data communication
d) all of the mentioned b) remote command-line login
Answer:d c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
5. If a server has no clue about where to find Answer:d
the address for a hostname then
a) server asks to the root server 2. SSH can be used in only
b) server asks to its adjcent server a) unix-like operating systems
c) request is not processed b) windows
d) none of the mentioned c) both (a) and (b)
Answer:a d) none of the mentioned
Answer:c
6. Which one of the following allows client
to update their DNS entry as their IP address 3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate
change? the remote computer.
a) dynamic DNS a) public-key cryptography
b) mail transfer agent b) private-key cryptography
c) authoritative name server c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a Answer:a

7. Wildcard domain names start with label 4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for
a) @ contacting SSH servers?
b) * a) port 21
c) & b) port 22
d) # c) port 23
Answer:b d) port 24
Answer:b
8. The right to use a domain name is
delegated by domain name registers which 5. Which one of the following protocol can
are accredited by be used for login to a shell on a remote host
a) internet architecture board except SSH?
b) internet society a) telnet
c) internet research task force b) rlogin
d) internet corporation for assigned names c) both (a) and (b)
and numbers d) none of the mentioned
Answer:d Answer:c
Explanation: SSH is more secured then
9. The domain name system is maintained telnet and rlogin.
by
a) distributed database system 6. Which one of the following is a file
b) a single server transfer protocol using SSH?
c) a single computer a) SCP
d) none of the mentioned b) SFTP
Answer:a c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
10. Which one of the following is not true? Answer:d
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a
single IP address 7. SSH-2 does not contain
b) a single hostname may correspond to a) transport layer
many IP addresses b) user authentication layer
c) a single hostname may correspond to a c) physical layer
single IP address d) connection layer
d) none of the mentioned Answer:c
Answer:c
8. Which one of the following feature was
SSH present in SSH protocol, version 1?

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) password changing b) 67
b) periodic replacement of session keys c) 68
c) support for public-key certificates d) 69
d) none of the mentioned Answer: b
Answer:d
6. The DHCP server can provide the
9. SCP protocol is evolved from _______ of the IP addresses.
__________ over SSH. a) dynamic allocation
a) RCP protocol b) automatic allocation
b) DHCP protocol c) static allocation
c) MGCP protocol d) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
Answer:a
7. DHCP client and servers on the same
10. Which one of the following subnet communicate via
authentication method is used by SSH? a) UDP broadcast
a) public-key b) UDP unicast
b) host based c) TCP broadcast
c) password d) TCP unicast
d) all of the mentioned Answer: a
Answer:d
8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent
DHCP the IP conflict the client may use
a) internet relay chat
This set of Computer Networks Multiple b) broader gateway protocol
Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) c) address resolution protocol
focuses on ―DHCP‖. d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration
protocol) provides __________ to the client. 9. What is DHCP snooping?
a) IP address a) techniques applied to ensure the security
b) MAC address of an existing DHCP infrastructure
c) Url b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
d) None of the mentioned c) algorithm for DHCP
Answer: a d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
2. DHCP is used for
a) IPv6 10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a
b) IPv4 LAN switch, then clients having specific
c) Both (a) and (b) ______ can access the network.
d) None of the mentioned a) MAC address
Answer: c b) IP address
c) Both (a) and (b)
3. The DHCP server d) None of the mentioned
a) maintains a database of available IP Answer: c
addresses
b) maintains the information about client IPSecurity
configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a This set of Computer Networks Multiple
request from a client Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
d) all of the mentioned focuses on ―IPSecurity‖.
Answer: d
1. IPsec is designed to provide the security
4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is at the
a) for a limited period a) Transport layer
b) for unlimited period b) Network layer
c) not time dependent c) Application layer
d) none of the mentioned d) Session layer
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Network layer is used for
5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for transferring the data from transport layer to
sending data to the server. another layers.
a) 66

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the d) None of the mentioned
a) Entire IP packet Answer: b
b) IP header Explanation: PGP is at email security.
c) IP payload
d) None of the mentioned 9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher
Answer: a called
Explanation: It is nothing but adding control a) International data encryption algorithm
bits to the packets. b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
3. A ___________ is an extension of an d) None of the mentioned
enterprise‘s private intranet across a public Answer: a
Network such as the Internet across a public Explanation: PGP encrypts data by using a
Network such as the Internet, creating a block cipher called international data
secure private connection. encryption algorithm.
a) VNP
b) VPN 10. When a DNS server accepts and uses
c) VSN incorrect information from a host that has no
d) VSPN authority giving that information, then it is
Answer: b called
Explanation: VIRTUAL PACKET a) DNS lookup
NETWORK. b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
4. Which component is included in IP d) None of the mentioned
security? Answer: c
a) Authentication Header (AH) Explanation: DNS spoofing is the
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) phenomenon for the above mentioned
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE) transaction.
d) All of the above
Answer: d Virtual Private Networks
Explanation: AH, ESP, IKE.
This set of Computer Networks Interview
5. WPA2 is used for security in Questions and Answers focuses on ―Virtual
a) Ethernet Private Networks‖.
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi 1. A ___________ is an extension of an
d) None of the mentioned enterprise‘s private intranet across a public
Answer: c Network such as the Internet across a public
Explanation: WPA2 is best with Wi-Fi Network such as the Internet, creating a
connection. secure private connection.
a) VNP
6. An attempt to make a computer resource b) VPN
unavailable to its intended users is called c) VSN
a) Denial-of-service attack d) VSPN
b) Virus attack Answer: b
c) Worms attack Explanation: VIRTUAL PACKET
d) Botnet process NETWORK.
Answer: a
Explanation: Denial of service attack. 2. When were VPNs introduced into the
commercial world?
7. Extensible authentication protocol is a) Early 80‘s
authentication framework frequently used in b) Late 80‘s
a) Wired personal area network c) Early 90‘s
b) Wireless networks d) Late 90‘s
c) Wired local area network Answer: d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: LATE 90‘S.
Answer:b
Explanation:Most data transfer is with 3. What protocol is NOT used in the
wireless networks. operation of a VPN?
a) PPTP
8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in b) IPsec
a) Browser security c) YMUM
b) Email security d) L2TP
c) FTP security

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer: c 10. Which layer of the OSI reference model
Explanation: YNUM. does PPTP work at?
a) Layer 1
4. Which of the following statements is b) Layer 2
NOT true concerning VPNs? c) Layer 3
a) Financially rewarding compared to leased d) Layer 4
lines Answer: b
b) Allows remote workers to access Explanation: Presentation layer.
corporate data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over 11. Which layer of the OSI reference model
public networks does IPsec work at?
d) Is the backbone of the Internet a) Layer 1
Answer: d b) Layer 2
Explanation: virtual packet network is not a c) Layer 3
backbone of the internet. d) Layer 4
Answer: c
5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________ Explanation: Session layer.
a) Invisible from public networks
b) Logically separated from other traffic SMI
c) Accessible from unauthorized public
networks 1. Storage management comprises of
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec a) SAN Management
Answer: c b) Data protection
Explanation: Because it is secured with the c) Disk operation
IP address. d) All of the above
Answer: d
6. VPNs are financially speaking Explanation: SAN, Data protection and Disk
__________ operation are the main things of storage
a) Always more expensive than leased lines management.
b) Always cheaper than leased lines
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines 2. Identify the storage devices
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines a) Switch
Answer: c b) RAID Arrays
Explanation: It is very cheap. c) Tape drives
d) All of the above
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be Answer: d
transmitted over a L2TP VPN? Explanation: switch, RAID arrays and tape
a) IP drives are main storage devices.
b) IPX
c) Neither A or B 3. Which protocols are used for Storage
d) Both A and B management?
Answer: d a) SNMP
Explanation: Data roming layer. b) LDAP
c) POP3
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is d) MIB
defined in which of the following standards? Answer: a
a) IPsec Explanation: Simple Network Management
b) PPTP Protocol is for storage management.
c) PPP
d) L2TP 4. Identify the difficulties the SAN
Answer: a administrator incur while dealing with
Explanation: It is the security type of the diverse vendors
IPsec. a) Proprietary management interfaces.
b) Multiple applications to manage storage
9. L2F was developed by which company? in the data center.
a) Microsoft c) No single view.
b) Cisco d) All of the above
c) Blizzard Entertainment Answer: d
d) IETF Explanation: Proprietary management
Answer: b interfaces, multiple applications
Explanation: Cisco is the second best management and no single view are main
company to design and make the computer difficulties.
networks.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
5. How do Storage administrators ensure b) CIM-XML/HTTP
secure access to storage devices: c) CORBA
a) By using Zoning d) .NET
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage Answer: b
device Explanation: CIM-XML/HTTP is a SMI-S
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in standard.
use
d) By keeping devices when used SNMP
Answer: a
Explanation: By using Zoning, Storage 1. An application-level protocol in which a
administrators ensure secure access to few manager stations control a set of agents
storage devices. is called
a) HTML
6. Effective Storage management includes b) TCP
a) Securities c) SNMP
b) Backups d) SNMP/IP
c) Reporting Answer: c
d) All of the above Explanation: An application-level protocol
Answer: d in which a few manager stations control a
Explanation: In storage management all set of agents is called SNMP.
necessities like security, backups and
reporting facilities are included. 2. Full duplex mode increases capacity of
each domain from
7. Identify the tasks involved in Storage a) 10 to 20 mbps
Capacity management b) 20 to 30 mbps
a) Identifying storage systems are c) 30 to 40 mbps
approaching full capacity. d) 40 to 50 mbps
b) Monitoring trends for each resource Answer: a
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total Explanation: 10 to 20 mbps capacity
available increased on each domain in full duplex
d) All of the above mode.
Answer: d
Explanation: Identifying, Monitoring and 3. Configuration management can be
Tracking are main tasks involved in SCM. divided into two subsystems those are
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s) b) Management and configuration
a) Standardization drives software c) Documentation and dialing up
interoperability and interchange ability. d) Both a and c
b) Breaks the old-style dependence on Answer: a
proprietary methods, trade secrets, and Explanation: Reconfiguration and
single providers. documentation are two subsystems of
c) Builds a strong foundation on which configuration management.
others can quickly build and innovate.
d) All of the above 4. To use Simple Network Management
Answer: d System (SNMP), we need
Explanation: Driver software, old style a) Servers
dependence and strong foundation. b) IP
c) Protocols
9. Task of Distributed Management Task d) Rules
Force is to Answer: d
a) To promote interoperability among the Explanation: To use Simple Network
management solution providers. Management System (SNMP), we need
b Acts as an interface between the various rules.
budding technologies and provide solution
to manage various environments 5. Main difference between SNMPv3 and
c) Only (a) SNMPv2 is the
d) Both (a) and (b) a) Management
Answer: d b) Integration
Explanation: Promote interoperability and c) Classification
interface between various buildings. d) Enhanced security
Answer: d
10. SMI-S Standard uses Explanation: Enhanced security is the main
a) Java RMI difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
6. In Network Management System, a term 2. In ―character at a time‖ mode
that responsible for controlling access to a) Character processing is done on the local
network based on predefined policy is called system under the control of the remote
a) Fault Management system
b) Secured Management b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the
c) Active Management remote host for processing
d) Security Management c) All text is echoed locally, only completed
Answer: d lines are sent to the remote host
Explanation: A term that responsible for d) None of the mentioned
controlling access to network based on
predefined policy is called security 3. _______ allows you to connect and login
management. to a remote computer
a) Telnet
7. BER stands for b) FTP
a) Basic Encoding Rules c) HTTP
b) Basic Encoding Resolver Answer: a
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router 4. The correct syntax to be written in the
Answer: a web browser to Telnet to
Explanation: Basic encoding rules. www.sanfoundry.com is
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
8. Control of users‘ access to network b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
resources through charges are main c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
responsibilities of d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
a) Reactive Fault Management Answer: c
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management 5. Telnet is a
d) Security Management a) Television on net
Answer: c b) Network of Telephones
Explanation: Control of users‘ access to c) Remote Login
network resources through charges are main d) Teleshopping site
responsibilities of accounting management.
6. Which one of the following is not correct?
9. SNMP is a framework for managing a) telnet is a general purpose client-server
devices in an internet using the program
a) TCP/IP protocol b) telnet lets user access an application on a
b) UDP remote computer
c) SMTP c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) None d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: SNMP is a framework for
managing devices in an internet using the 7. Which operating mode of telnet is full
TCP/IP protocol. duplex?
a) default mode
10. Structure of Management Information b) server mode
(SMI), is guideline of c) line mode
a) HTTP Answer: c
b) SNMP
c) URL 8. If we want that a character be interpreted
d) MIB by the client instead of server
Answer: b a) escape character has to be used
Explanation: SMI is guidelines of SNMP. b) control functions has to be disabled
c) it is not possible
Telnet Answer: a

1. The protocol used by Telnet application is 1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a

a) Telnet connection to
b) FTP a) TCP port number 21
c) HTTP b) TCP port number 22
d) None of the mentioned c) TCP port number 23
Answer: a d) TCP port number 24
Answer: c

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
2. Which one of the following is not true?
a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal
(NVT) standard
b) client programs interact with NVT
c) server translates NVT operations
Answer: d

3. All telnet operations are sent as

a) 4 bytes
b) 8 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 32 bytes
Answer: b

4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for

a) windows
b) linux
c) mac
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a

5. The decimal code of interpret as

command (IAC) character is
a) 252
b) 253
c) 254
d) 255
Answer: d

6. In character mode operation of telnet

implementation
a) each character typed is sent by the client
to the server
b) each character typed is discarded by the
server
c) both (a) an (b)
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a

7. In telnet, the client echoes the character

on the screen but does not send it until a
whole line is completed in Database
a) default mode Relational Database and Database Schema
c) character mode
c) server mode
1.A relational database consists of a
d) none of the mentioned
collection of
Answer: a
a) Tables
b) Fields
8. Which one of the following is not correct? c) Records
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server d) Keys Answer: a
program Explanation: Fields are the column of the
b) telnet lets user access an application on a relation or tables. Records are each row in
remote computer relation. Keys are the constraints in a
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer relation.
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
2. A ________ in a table represents a
relationship among a set of values.
a) Column
b) Key
Prepared by Waheed Murad MS Web c) Row
Semantics University of Peshawar d) Entry Answer: c
Explanation: Column has only one set of
values. Keys are constraints and row is one

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
whole set of attributes. Entry is just a piece b) Tuple of common
of data. c) Tuple of distinct
d) Attributes of distinct Answer: c
3. The term _______ is used to refer to a Explanation: Here the relations are
row. connected by the common attributes
a) Attribute
b) Tuple 9. A domain is atomic if elements of the
c) Field domain are considered to be ____________
d) Instance | Answer: b units.
Explanation: Tuple is one entry of the a) Different
relation with several attributes which are b) Indivisible
fields. c) Constant
d) Divisible Answer: b
4. The term attribute refers to a
___________ of a table. 10. The tuples of the relations can be of
a) Record ________ order.
b) Column a) Any
c) Tuple b) Same
d) Key Answer: b c) Sorted
Explanation: Attribute is a specific domain d) Constant Answer: a
in the relation which has entries of all tuples. Explanation: The values only count .The
order of the tuples does not matter.
5. For each attribute of a relation, there is a
set of permitted values, called the ________ Keys
of that attribute.
a) Domain 1.Which one of the following is a set of one
b) Relation or more attributes taken collectively to
c) Set uniquely identify a record?
d) Schema Answer: a a) Candidate key
Explanation: The values of the attribute b) Sub key
should be present in the domain. Domain is c) Super key
a set of values permitted. d) Foreign key
Answer: c
6. Database __________ , which is the Explanation: Super key is the superset of all
logical design of the database, and the the keys in a relation.
database _______,which is a snapshot of the
data in the database at a given instant in 2. Consider attributes ID, CITY and NAME.
time. Which one of this can be considered as a
a) Instance, Schema super key?
b) Relation, Schema a) NAME
c) Relation, Domain b) ID
d) Schema, Instance Answer: d c) CITY
Explanation: Instance is a instance of time d) CITY , ID
and schema is a representation. Answer: b
Explanation: Here the id is the only attribute
7. Course (course_id,sec_id,semester) which can be taken as a key. Other attributes
Here the course_id,sec_id and semester are are not uniquely identified.
__________ and course is a _________ .
a) Relations, Attribute 3.The subset of super key is a candidate key
b) Attributes, Relation under what condition?
c) Tuple, Relation a) No proper subset is a super key
d) Tuple, Attributes Answer: b b) All subsets are super keys
Explanation: The relation course has a set of c) Subset is a super key
attributes course_id, sec_id, semester. d) Each subset is a super key
Answer: a
8. Department (dept name, building, budget) Explanation: The subset of a set cannot be
and Employee (employee_id , name, dept the same set. Candidate key is a set from a
name,salary) super key which cannot be the whole of the
Here the dept_name attribute appears in both super set
the relations .Here using common attributes
in relation schema is one way of relating 4.A _____ is a property of the entire
___________ relations. relation, rather than of the individual tuples
a) Attributes of common in which each tuple is unique.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Rows 10.A _________ integrity constraint
b) Key requires that the values appearing in
c) Attribute specified attributes of any tuple in the
d) Fields referencing relation also appear in specified
Answer: b attributes of at least one tuple in the
Explanation: Key is the constraint which referenced relation.
specifies uniqueness. a) Referential
b) Referencing
c) Specific
5.Which one of the following attribute can d) Primary
be taken as a primary key? Answer: a
a) Name Explanation: A relation, say r1, may include
b) Street among its attributes the primary key of
c) Id another relation, say r2. This attribute is
d) Department called a foreign key from r1, referencing r2.
Answer: c The relation r1 is also called the referencing
Explanation: The attributes name, street and relation of the foreign key dependency, and
department can repeat for some tuples. But r2 is called the referenced relation of the
the id attribute has to be unique .So it forms foreign key.
a primary key.
Authorizations
6.Which one of the following cannot be 1. The database administrator who
taken as a primary key? authorizes all the new users, modifies
a) Id database and takes grants privilege is
b) Register number a) Super user
c) Dept_id b) Administrator
d) Street c) Operator of operating system
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Street is the only attribute Answer: d
which can occur more than once. Explanation: The authorizations provided by
the administrator to the user is privilege.
7.An attribute in a relation is a foreign key if
the _______ key from one relation is used as 2. Which of the following is a basic form of
an attribute in that relation. grant statement ?
a) Candidate a) Grant ‗privilege list‘
b) Primary on ‗relation name or view name‘
c) Super to ‗user/role list‘;
d) Sub b) Grant ‗privilege list‘
Answer: b on ‗user/role list‘
Explanation: The primary key has to be to ‗relation name or view name‘;
referred in the other relation to form a c) Grant ‗privilege list‘
foreign key in that relation. to ‗user/role list‘
d) Grant ‗privilege list‘
on ‗relation name or view name‘
on ‗user/role list‘;
8.The relation with the attribute which is the Answer: a
primary key is referenced in another Explanation: The privilege list allows the
relation. The relation which has the attribute granting of several privileges in one
as primary key is called command.
a) Referential relation 3. Which of the following is used to provide
b) Referencing relation privilege to only a particular attribute?
c) Referenced relation a) Grant select on employee to Amit
d) Referred relation b) Grant update(budget) on department to
Answer: b Raj
c) Grant update(budget,salary,Rate) on
9.The ______ is the one in which the department to Raj
primary key of one relation is used as a d) Grant delete to Amit
normal attribute in another relation. Answer: b
a) Referential relation
b) Referencing relation 4. Which of the following statement is used
c) Referenced relation to remove the privilege from the user Amir?
d) Referred relation a) Remove update on department from Amir
Answer: c b) Revoke update on employee from Amir

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Delete select on department from Raj the authorization graph down to the node
d) Grant update on employee from Amir representing the user.
Answer: b
9. Which of the following is used to avoid
5. Which of the following is used to provide cascading of authorizations from the user?
delete authorization to instructor? a) Granted by current role
a) Create role instructor ; b) Revoke select on department from Amit,
grant delete to instructor; Satoshi restrict;
b) Create role instructor; c) Revoke grant option for select on
grant select on takes department from Amit;
to instructor; d) Revoke select on department from Amit,
c) Create role instructor; Satoshi cascade;
grant delete on takes Answer: b
to instructor; Explanation: The revoke statement may
d) All of the mentioned specify restrict in order to prevent cascading
Answer: c revocation. The keyword cascade can be
Explanation: The role is first created and the used instead of restrict to indicate that
authorization is given on relation takes to revocation should cascade.
the role.
10. The granting and revoking of roles by
6. Which of the following is true regarding the user may cause some confusions when
views? that user role is revoked .To overcome the
a) The user who creates a view cannot be above situation
given update authorization on a view a) The privilege must be granted only by
without having update authorization on the roles
relations used to define the view. b) The privilege is granted by roles and
b) The user who creates a view cannot be users
given update authorization on a view c) The user role cannot be removed once
without having update authorization on the given
relations used to define the view. d) By restricting the user access to the roles
c) If a user creates a view on which no Answer: a
authorization can be granted, the system will Explanation: The current role associated
allow the view creation request. with a session can be set by executing set
d) A user who creates a view receives all role role name. The specified role must have
privileges on that view. been granted to the user, else the set role
Answer: c statement fails.
Explanation: A user who creates a view does
not necessarily receive all privileges on that Relational Query Operations and
view. Relational Operators
1. Using which language can a user request
7. If we wish to grant a privilege and to information from a database?
allow the recipient to pass the privilege on to a) Query
other users, we append the __________ b) Relational
clause to the appropriate grant command. c) Structural
a) With grant d) Compiler
b) Grant user Answer: a
c) Grant pass privilege Explanation: Query language is a method
d) With grant option through which the database entries can be
Answer: d accessed.
8. In authorization graph if DBA provides 2. Student(ID, name, dept name, tot_cred)
authorization to u1 which inturn gives to u2 In this query which attribute form the
which of the following is correct? primary key?
a) If DBA revokes authorization from u1 a) Name
then u2 authorization is also revoked. b) Dept
b) If u1 revokes authorization from u2 then c) Tot_cred
u2 authorization is revoked. d) ID
c) Both a and b Answer: d
d) If u2 revokes authorization then u1 Explanation: The attributes name ,dept and
authorization is revoked. tot_cred can have same values unlike ID .
Answer: c
Explanation: A user has an authorization if 3. Which one of the following is a
and only if there is a path from the root of procedural language?
a) Domain relational calculus
b) Tuple relational calculus

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Relational algebra difference is the one where query which is
d) Query language not a part of second query .
Answer: c
Explanation: Domain and Tuple relational 9. A ________ is a pictorial depiction of the
calculus are non-procedural language. Query schema of a database that shows the
language is a method through which the relations in the database, their attributes, and
database entries can be accessed. primary keys and foreign keys.
a) Schema diagram
4. The_____ operation allows the combining b) Relational algebra
of two relations by merging pairs of tuples, c) Database diagram
one from each relation, into a single tuple. d) Schema flow
a) Select Answer: a
b) Join
c) Union 10. The _________ provides a set of
d) Intersection operations that take one or more relations as
Answer: b input and return a relation as an output.
Explanation: Join finds the common tuple in a) Schematic representation
the relations and combines it. b) Relational algebra
c) Scheme diagram
5. The result which operation contains all d) Relation flow
pairs of tuples from the two relations, Answer: b
regardless of whether their attribute values
match. SQL Queries
a) Join 1.
b) Cartesian product Name
c) Intersection
d) Set difference Annie
Answer: b Bob
Explanation: Cartesian product is the
multiplication of all the values in the Callie
attributes. Derek
6. The _______operation performs a set Which of these query will display the table
union of two ―similarly structured‖ tables given above ?
a) Union a) Select employee from name
b) Join b) Select name
c) Product c) Select name from employee
d) Intersect d) Select employee
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Union just combines all the Explanation: The field to be displayed is
values of relations of same attributes. included in select and the table is included in
the from clause.
7. The most commonly used operation in 2. Select ________ dept_name
relational algebra for projecting a set of from instructor;
tuple from a relation is Here which of the following displays the
a) Join unique values of the column ?
b) Projection a) All
c) Select b) From
d) Union c) Distinct
Answer: c d) Name
Explanation: Select is used to view the Answer: c
tuples of the relation with or without some Explanation: Distinct keyword selects only
constraints. the entries that are unique.
8. The _______ operator takes the results of
two queries and returns only rows that 3. The ______ clause allows us to select
appear in both result sets. only those rows in the result relation of the
a) Union ____ clause that satisfy a specified
b) Intersect predicate.
c) Difference a) Where, from
d) Projection b) From, select
Answer: b c) Select, from
Explanation: The union operator gives the d) From, where
result which is the union of two queries and Answer: a
Explanation: Where selects the rows on a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
particular condition. From gives the relation This is Employee table.
which involves the operation. Select * from employee where
employee_id>1009;
4. Select ID, name, dept name, salary * 1.1 Which of the following employee_id will be
where instructor; displayed?
The query given below will not give an a) 1009, 1001, 1018
error. Which one of the following has to be b) 1009, 1018
replaced to get the desired output? c) 1001
a) Salary*1.1 d) 1018
b) ID Answer: d
c) From Explanation: Greater than symbol does not
d) Instructor include the given value unlike >=.
Answer: c 9. Which of the following statements
Explanation: Where selects the rows on a contains an error?
particular condition. From gives the relation A) Select * from emp where empid = 10003;
which involves the operation. Since B) Select empid from emp where empid =
Instructor is a relation it has to have from 10006;
clause. C) Select empid from emp;
D) Select empid where empid = 1009 and
5. The ________ clause is used to list the lastname = ‗GELLER‘;
attributes desired in the result of a query. Answer: d
a) Where Explanation: This query do not have from
b) Select clause which specifies the relation from
c) From which the values has to be selected .
d) Distinct
Answer: b 10. Insert into employee _____
(1002,Joey,2000);
6. Select name, course_id In the given query which of the keyword has
from instructor, teaches to be inserted ?
where instructor_ID= teaches_ID; a) Table
This Query can be replaced by which one of b) Values
the following ? c) Relation
a) Select name,course_id from d) Field
teaches,instructor where Answer: b
instructor_id=course_id; Explanation: Value keyword has to be used
b) Select name, course_id from instructor to insert the values into the table.
natural join teaches;
c) Select name ,course_id from instructor;
d) Select course_id from instructor join Basic SQL Operations
teaches; 1. Select name ____ instructor name, course
Answer: b id
Explanation: Join clause joins two tables by from instructor, teaches
matching the common column . where instructor.ID= teaches.ID;
Which keyword must be used here to
7. Select * from employee where rename the field name ?
salary>10000 and dept_id=101; a) From
Which of the following fields are displayed b) Rename
as output? c) As
a) Salary, dept_id d) Join
b) Employee Answer: c
c) Salary Explanation: As keyword is used to rename.
d) All the field of employee relation
2. Select * from employee where
Answer: d
dept_name=‖Comp Sci‖;
Explanation: Here * is used to select all the
In the SQL given above there is an error .
fields of the relation .
Identify the error .
a) Dept_name
8.
b) Employee
Employee_id Name Salary c) ―Comp Sci‖
1001 Annie 6000 d) From
Answer: c
1009 Ross 4500 Explanation: For any string operations
1018 Zeith 7000 single quoted(‗) must be used to enclose.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
3. Select emp_name d) Select name
from department from instructor
where dept_name like ‘ _____ Computer where salary between 100000 and 90000;
Science‘; Answer: a
Which one of the following has to be added Explanation: SQL includes a between
into the blank to select the dept_name which comparison operator to simplify where
has Computer Science as its ending string ? clauses that specify that a value be less than
a) % or equal to some value and greater than or
b) _ equal to some other value.
c) ||
d) $ 8. Select instructor.*
Answer: a from instructor, teaches
Explanation: The % character matches any where instructor.ID= teaches.ID;
substring. This query does which of the following
operation?
4. ‘_ _ _ ‘ matches any string of ______ a) All attributes of instructor and teaches are
three characters. ‘_ _ _ %‘ matches any selected
string of at ______ three characters. b) All attributes of instructor are selected on
a) Atleast, Exactly the given condition
b) Exactly, Atleast c) All attributes of teaches are selected on
c) Atleast, All given condition
d) All , Exactly d) Only the some attributes from instructed
Answer: b and teaches are selected
Answer: b
5. Select name Explanation: The asterisk symbol ― * ‖ can
from instructor be used in the select clause to denote ―all
where dept name = ‘Physics‘ attributes.‖
order by name;
By default, the order by clause lists items in 9. In SQL the spaces at the end of the string
______ order. are removed by _______ function .
a) Descending a) Upper
b) Any b) String
c) Same c) Trim
d) Ascending Answer: d d) Lower
Explanation: Specification of descending Answer: c
order is essential but it not for ascending. Explanation: The syntax of trim is Trim(s);
where s-string .
6. Select *
from instructor 10. _____ operator is used for appending
order by salary ____, name ___; two strings.
To display the salary from greater to smaller a) &
and name in ascending order which of the b) %
following options should be used ? c) ||
a) Ascending, Descending d) _
b) Asc, Desc Answer: c
c) Desc, Asc Explanation: || is the concatenation operator.
d) Descending, Ascending
Answer: c Modification of Database
1. A Delete command operates on ______
7. Select name relation.
from instructor a) One
where salary <= 100000 and salary >= b) Two
90000; c) Several
This query can be replaced by which of the d) Null
following ? Answer: a
a) Select name Explanation: Delete can delete from only
from instructor one table at a time.
where salary between 90000 and 100000;
b) Select name 2. Delete from r where P;
from employee The above command
where salary <= 90000 and salary>=100000; a) Deletes a particular tuple from the
c) Select name relation
from employee b) Deletes the relation
where salary between 90000 and 100000; c) Clears all entries from the relation
d) All of the mentioned

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer: a Explanation: Set is used to update the
Explanation: Here P gives the condition for particular value.
deleting specific rows.
7. _________ are useful in SQL update
3. Which one of the following deletes all the statements, where they can be used in the set
entries but keeps the structure of the relation clause.
. a) Multiple queries
a) Delete from r where P; b) Sub queries
b) Delete from instructor where dept name= c) Update
‘Finance‘; d) Scalar subqueries
c) Delete from instructor where salary Answer: d
between 13000 and 15000;
d) Delete from instructor;
Answer: d 8. The problem of ordering the update in
Explanation: Absence of condition deletes multiple update is avoided using
all rows. a) Set
b) Where
4. Which of the following is used to insert a c) Case
tuple from another relation . d) When
a) Insert into course (course id, title, dept Answer: c
name, credits) Explanation: The case statements can add
values (‘CS-437‘, ‘Database Systems‘, the order of updating tuples.
‘Comp. Sci.‘, 4);
b) Insert into instructor 9. Which of the following is the correct
select ID, name, dept name, 18000 format for case statements .
from student a) Case
where dept name = ‘Music‘ and tot cred > when pred1 … result1
144; when pred2 … result2
c) Insert into course values (‘CS-437‘, ...
‘Database Systems‘, ‘Comp. Sci.‘, 4); when predn … resultn
d) Not possible else result0
Answer: b end
Explanation: Using select statement in insert b) Case
will include rows which are the result of the when pred1 then result1
selection. when pred2 then result2
...
5. Which of the following deletes all tuples when predn then resultn
in the instructor relation for those instructors else result0
associated with a department located in the end
Watson building which is in department c) Case
relation. when pred1 then result1
a) Delete from instructor when pred2 then result2
where dept_name in ‗Watson‘; ...
b) Delete from department when predn then resultn
where building=‘Watson‘; else result0
c) Delete from instructor d) All of the mentioned
where dept_name in (select dept name Answer: b
from department 10. Which of the following relation updates
where building = ‘Watson‘); all instructors with salary over $100,000
d) Both a and c receive a 3 percent raise, whereas all others
Answer: c receive a 5 percent raise.
Explanation: The query must include a) Update instructor
building=watson condition to filter the set salary = salary * 1.03
tuples. where salary > 100000;
update instructor
6. Update instructor set salary = salary * 1.05
_____ salary= salary * 1.05; where salary <= 100000;
Fill in with correct keyword to update the
instructor relation. b) Update instructor set salary = salary *
a) Where 1.05 where salary < (select avg (salary) from
b) Set instructor);
c) In
d) Select c) Update instructor set salary = case when
Answer: b salary <= 100000 then salary * 1.05 else
salary * 1.03 end

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) Both a and c 6. SQL view is said to be updatable (that is,
inserts, updates or deletes can be applied on
Answer: d Explanation: The order of the two the view) if which of the following
update statements is important. If we conditions are satisfied by the query
changed the order of the two statements, an defining the view?
instructor with a salary just under $100,000 a) The from clause has only one database
would receive an over 8 percent raise. SQL relation.
provides a case construct that we can use to b) The query does not have a group by or
perform both the updates with a single having clause.
update statement, avoiding the problem with c) The select clause contains only attribute
the order of updates. [/expand] names of the relation, and does not have any
expressions, aggregates, or distinct
Views
specification.
1. Which of the following creates a virtual
d) All of the mentioned
relation for storing the query?
Answer: d
a) Function
Explanation: All of the conditions must be
b) View
satisfied to update the view in sql.
c) Procedure
d) None of the mentioned 7. Which of the following is used at the end
Answer: b of the view to reject the tuples which do not
Explanation: Any such relation that is not satisfy the condition in where clause ?
part of the logical model, but is made visible a) With
to a b) Check
user as a virtual relation, is called a view. c) With check
d) All of the mentioned
2. Which of the following is the syntax for
Answer: c
views where v is view name?
Explanation: Views can be defined with a
a) Create view v as ―query name‖;
with check option clause at the end of the
b) Create ―query expression‖ as view;
view definition; then, if a tuple inserted into
c) Create view v as ―query expression‖;
the view does not satisfy the view‘s where
d) Create view ―query expression‖;
clause condition, the insertion is rejected by
Answer: c
the database system.
Explanation: is any legal query expression.
The view name is 8. Consider the two relations instructor and
represented by v. department
3. Select course_id
from physics_fall_2009 ID Name Dept_name Salary
where building= ‘Watson‘;
Here the tuples are selected from the view. 1001 Ted Finance 10000
Which one denotes the view.
a) Course_id 1002 Bob Music 20000
b) Watson
c) Building
d) physics_fall_2009 1003 Ron Physics 50000
Answer: c
Explanation: View names may appear in a Department:
query any place where a relation name may
appear. Dept_name Building Budget

4. Materialised views make sure that Biology Watson 40000

a) View definition is kept stable
b) View definition is kept up-to-date
c) View definition is verified for error Chemistry Painter 30000
d) View is deleted after specified time
Answer: b Music Taylor 50000

5. Updating the value of the view Which of the following is used to create
a) Will affect the relation from which it is view for these relations together?
defined a) Create view instructor_info as
b) Will not change the view definition select ID, name, building
c) Will not affect the relation from which it from instructor, department
is defined where instructor.dept name=
d) Cannot determine department.dept name;
Answer: a b) Create view instructor_info

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
select ID, name, building 3. Create table Employee(Emp_id numeric
from instructor, department; not null, Name varchar(20) , dept_name
c) Create view instructor_info as varchar(20), Salary numeric
select ID, name, building unique(Emp_id,Name));
from instructor; insert into Employee values(1002, Ross,
d) Create view instructor_info as CSE, 10000)
select ID, name, building insert into Employee
from department; values(1006,Ted,Finance, );
Answer: a insert into Employee
values(1002,Rita,Sales,20000);
9. For the view Create view instructor_info What will be the result of the query?
as a) All statements executed
select ID, name, building b) Error in create statement
from instructor, department c) Error in insert into Employee
where instructor.dept name= values(1006,Ted,Finance, );
department.dept name; d) Error in insert into Employee
If we insert tuple into the view as insert into values(1008,Ross,Sales,20000);
instructor info values (‘69987‘, ‘White‘, Answer: d
‘Taylor‘); Explanation: The not null specification
What will be the values of the other prohibits the insertion of a null value for the
attributes in instructor and department attribute.
relations? The unique specification says that no two
a) Default value tuples in the relation can be equal on all the
b) Null listed attributes.
c) Error statement
d) 0 4. Create table Manager(ID numeric,Name
Answer: b varchar(20),budget numeric,Details
Explanation: The values take null if there is varchar(30));
no constraint in the attribute else it is a Inorder to ensure that the value of budget is
Erroneous statement. non-negative which of the following should
be used?
10. Create view faculty as a) Check(budget>0)
Select ID, name, dept name b) Check(budget<0)
from instructor; c) Alter(budget>0)
Find the error in this query . d) Alter(budget<0)
a) Instructor Answer: a
b) Select Explanation: A common use of the check
c) View …as clause is to ensure that attribute values
d) None of the mentioned satisfy specified conditions, in effect
creating a powerful type system.
Answer: d
Explanation: Syntax is – create view v as ; 5. Foreign key is the one in which the
________ of one relation is referenced in
Integrity Constraints
another relation.
1. To include integrity constraint in an
a) Foreign key
existing relation use :
b) Primary key
a) Create table
c) References
b) Modify table
d) Check constraint
c) Alter table
Answer: b
d) Drop table
Explanation: The foreign-key declaration
Answer: c
specifies that for each course tuple, the
Explanation: SYNTAX – alter table table-
department name specified in the tuple must
name add constraint, where constraint can
exist in the department relation.
be any constraint on the relation.
6. Create table course
2. Which of the following is not an integrity
(...
constraint?
foreign key (dept name) references
a) Not null
department
b) Positive
. . . );
c) Unique
Which of the following is used to delete the
d) Check ‗predicate‘
entries in the referenced table when the tuple
Answer: b
is deleted in course table?
Explanation: Positive is a value and not a
a) Delete
constraint.
b) Delete cascade

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Set null Explanation: yyyy/mm/dd is the default
d) All of the mentioned format in sql .
Answer: b
Explanation: The delete ―cascades‖ to the 2. An ________ on an attribute of a relation
course relation, deletes the tuple that refers is a data structure that allows the database
to the department that was deleted. system to find those tuples in the relation
that have a specified value for that attribute
7. Domain constraints, functional efficiently, without scanning through all the
dependency and referential integrity are tuples of the relation.
special forms of _________. a) Index
a) Foreign key b) Reference
b) Primary key c) Assertion
c) Assertion d) Timestamp
d) Referential constraint Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Index is the reference to the
Explanation: An assertion is a predicate tuples in a relation.
expressing a condition we wish the database
to always satisfy. 3. Create index studentID_index on
student(ID);
8. Which of the following is the right syntax Here which one denotes the relation for
for assertion? which index is created ?
a) Create assertion ‗assertion-name‘ check a) StudentID_index
‗predicate‘; b) ID
b) Create assertion check ‗predicate‘ c) StudentID
‗assertion-name‘; d) Student
c) Create assertions ‗predicates‘; Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: The statement creates an index
Answer: a named studentID index on the attribute ID
of the relation student.
9. Data integrity constraints are used to:
a) Control who is allowed access to the data 4. Which of the following is used to store
b) Ensure that duplicate records are not movie and image files?
entered into the table a) Clob
c) Improve the quality of data entered for a b) Blob
specific property (i.e., table column) c) Binary
d) Prevent users from changing the values d) Image
stored in the table Answer:b
Answer: c Explanation:SQL therefore provides large-
object data types for character data (clob)
and binary data (blob). The letters ―lob‖ in
10. Which of the following can be addressed these data types stand for ―Large OBject.‖
by enforcing a referential integrity
constraint? 5. The user defined data type can be created
a) All phone numbers must include the area using
code a) Create datatype
b) Certain fields are required (such as the b) Create data
email address, or phone number) before the c) Create definetype
record is accepted d) Create type
c) Information on the customer must be Answer: d
known before anything can be sold to that Explanation: The create type clause can be
customer used to define new types. Syntax : create
d) When entering an order quantity, the user type Dollars as numeric(12,2) final; .
must input a number and not some text (i.e.,
12 rather than ‗a dozen‘) 6. Values of one type can be converted to
Answer: c another domain using which of the
Explanation: The information can be following?
referred and obtained. a) Cast
b) Drop type
SQL Data Types and Schemas c) Alter type
1. Dates must be specified in the format d) Convert
a) mm/dd/yy Answer: a
b) yyyy/mm/dd Explanation: Example of cast :cast
c) dd/mm/yy (department.budget to numeric(12,2)). SQL
d) yy/dd/mm provides drop type and alter type clauses to
Answer: b

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
drop or modify types that have been created and other operations which are used on
earlier. relations.
7. Create domain YearlySalary numeric(8,2) 2. Which of the following is a fundamental
constraint salary value test __________; operation in relational algebra?
In order to ensure that an instructor‘s salary a) Set intersection
domain allows only values greater than a b) Natural join
specified value use: c) Assignment
a) Value>=30000.00 d) None of the mentioned
b) Not null; Answer: d
c) Check(value >= 29000.00); Explanation: The fundamental operations
d) Check(value) are select, project, union, set difference,
Answer: c Cartesian product, and rename.
Explanation: Check(value ‗condition‘) is the
syntax. 3. Which of the following is used to denote
the selection operation in relational algebra?
8. Which of the following closely resembles a) Pi (Greek)
Create view ? b) Sigma (Greek)
a) Create table . . .like c) Lambda (Greek)
b) Create table . . . as d) Omega (Greek)
c) With data Answer: b
d) Create view as Explanation: The select operation selects
Answer: b tuples that satisfy a given predicate.
Explanation: The ‗create table . . . as‘
statement closely resembles the create view 4. For select operation the ________ appear
statement and both are defined by using in the subscript and the ___________
queries .The main difference is that the argument appears in the parenthesis after the
contents of the table are set when the table is sigma.
created, whereas the contents of a view a) Predicates, relation
always reflect the current query result. b) Relation, Predicates
c) Operation, Predicates
9. In contemporary databases the top level of d) Relation, Operation
the hierarchy consists of ______, each of Answer: a
which can contain _____.
a) Catalogs, schemas 5. The ___________ operation, denoted by
b) Schemas, catalogs −, allows us to find tuples that are in one
c) Environment, schemas relation but are not in another.
d) Schemas, Environment a) Union
Answer: a b) Set-difference
c) Difference
10. Which of the following statements d) Intersection
creates a new table temp instructor that has Answer: b
the same schema as instructor. Explanation: The expression r − s produces
a) create table temp_instructor; a relation containing those tuples in r but not
b) Create table temp_instructor like in s.
instructor;
c) Create Table as temp_instructor; 6. Which is a unary operation:
d) Create table like temp_instructor; a) Selection operation
Answer: b b) Primitive operation
c) Projection operation
Relational Algebra d) Generalized selection
This set of Database Questions & Answers Answer: d
focuses on ―Relational Algebra‖ Explanation: Generalization Selection takes
only one argument for operation.
1. Relational Algebra is a __________ query
language that takes two relation as input and 7. Which is a join condition contains an
produces another relation as output of the equality operator:
query. a) Equijoins
a) Relational b) Cartesian
b) Structural c) Natural
c) Procedural d) Left Answer: a
d) Fundamental
Answer: c
Explanation: This language has fundamental 8. In precedence of set operators the
expression is evaluated from

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Left to left 4. The function that an entity plays in a
b) Left to right relationship is called that entity‘s
c) Right to left _____________.
d) From user specification a) Participation
Answer: b b) Position
Explanation: The expression is evaluated c) Role
from left to right according to the d) Instance
precedence. Answer: c
Explanation: A relationship is an association
9. Which of the following is not outer join? among several entities.
a) Left outer join
b) Right outer join 5. The attribute name could be structured as
c) Full outer join a attribute consisting of first name, middle
d) All of the mentioned initial, and last name . This type of attribute
Answer: d is called
Explanation: The FULL OUTER JOIN a) Simple attribute
keyword combines the result of both LEFT b) Composite attribute
and RIGHT joins. c) Multivalued attribute
d) Derived attribute
10. The assignment operator is denoted by Answer: b
a) -> Explanation: Composite attributes can be
b) <- divided into subparts (that is, other
attributes).
c) =
6. The attribute AGE is calculated from
d) ==
DATE_OF_BIRTH . The attribute AGE is
Answer: b a) Single valued
b) Multi valued
Explanation: the result of the expression to c) Composite
the right of the ← is assigned to the relation d) Derived
variable on the left of the ←.[/expand]
The Entity-Relationship Model Answer: d
1. An ________ is a set of entities of the Explanation: The value for this type of
same type that share the same properties, or attribute can be derived from the values of
attributes . other related attributes or entities.
a) Entity set
b) Attribute set 7. Not applicable condition can be
c) Relation set represented in relation entry as
d) Entity model a) NA
Answer: a b) 0
Explanation: An entity is a ―thing‖ or c) NULL
―object‖ in the real world that is d) Blank Space
distinguishable from all other objects. Answer: c
Explanation: NULL always represents that
2. Entity is a the value is not present
a) Object of relation
b) Present working model 8. Which of the following can be a
c) Thing in real world multivalued attribute?
d) Model of relation a) Phone_number
Answer: c b) Name
Explanation: For example, each person in a c) Date_of_birth
university is an entity. d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
3. The descriptive property possessed by Explanation: Name and Date_of_birth
each entity set is _________ . cannot hold more than 1 value.
a) Entity
b) Attribute 9. Which of the following is a single valued
c) Relation attribute
d) Model a) Register_number
Answer: b b) Address
Explanation: Possible attributes of the c) SUBJECT_TAKEN
instructor entity set are ID, name, dept d) Reference
name, and salary. Answer: a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
10. In a relation between the entities the type predefined options that can be assigned to a
and condition of the relation should be property are examples of:
specified. That is called as______attribute a) Attributes
a) Descriptive b) Data integrity constraints
b) Derived c) Method constraints
c) Recursive d) Referential integrity constraints
d) Relative Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Only particular value satisfying
Explanation: Consider the entity sets student the constraints are entered in column .
and section, which participate in a
relationship set takes. We may wish to store 6. Which of the following can be addressed
a descriptive attribute grade with the by enforcing a referential integrity
relationship to record the grade that a constraint?
student got in the class. a) All phone numbers must include the area
code
Constraints b) Certain fields are required (such as the
1. _____________, express the number of email address, or phone number) before the
entities to which another entity can be record is accepted
associated via a relationship set. c) Information on the customer must be
a) Mapping Cardinality known before anything can be sold to that
b) Relational Cardinality customer
c) Participation Constraints d) Then entering an order quantity, the user
d) None of the mentioned must input a number and not some text (i.e.,
Answer: a 12 rather than ‗a dozen‘)
Explanation: Mapping cardinality is also Answer: c
called as cardinality ratio.
7. ______ is a special type of integrity
2. An entity in A is associated with at most constraint that relates two relations &
one entity in B, and an entity in B is maintains consistency across the relations.
associated with at most one entity in A. This a) Entity Integrity Constraints
is called as b) Referential Integrity Constraints
a) One-to-many c) Domain Integrity Constraints
b) One-to-one d) Domain Constraints
c) Many-to-many Answer: b
d) Many-to-one
Answer: b 8. Which one of the following uniquely
Explanation: Here one entity in one set is identifies the elements in the relation?
related to one one entity in other set. a) Secondary Key
b) Primary key
3. An entity in A is associated with at most c) Foreign key
one entity in B. An entity in B, however, can d) Composite key
be associated with any number (zero or Answer: b
more) of entities in A.
a) One-to-many 9. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table
b) One-to-one referenced by a _________ constraint.
c) Many-to-many a) Local Key
d) Many-to-one b) Primary Key
Answer: d c) Composite Key
Explanation: Here more than one entity in d) Foreign Key
one set is related to one entity in other set. Answer: d
Explanation: Foreign key is used when
4. Data integrity constraints are used to: primary key of one relation is used in
a) Control who is allowed access to the data another relation.
b) Ensure that duplicate records are not
entered into the table 10. ____________ is preferred method for
c) Improve the quality of data entered for a enforcing data integrity
specific property a) Constraints
d) Prevent users from changing the values b) Stored Procedure
stored in the table c) Triggers
Answer: c d) Cursors
Explanation: The data entered will be in a Answer: a
particular cell (i.e., table column) . Explanation: Constraints are specified to
restrict entries in the relation.
5. Establishing limits on allowable property
values, and specifying a set of acceptable,

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Entity-Relationship Diagrams a) Strong entity set
1. Which of the following gives a logical b) Variant set
structure of the database graphically? c) Weak entity set
a) Entity-relationship diagram d) Variable set
b) Entity diagram Answer: c
c) Database diagram Explanation: An entity set that has a primary
d) Architectural representation key is termed a strong entity set.
Answer: a
Explanation: E-R diagrams are simple and 7. For a weak entity set to be meaningful, it
clear—qualities that may well account in must be associated with another entity set,
large part for the widespread use of the E-R called the
model. a) Identifying set
b) Owner set
2. The entity relationship set is represented c) Neighbour set
in E-R diagram as d) Strong entity set
a) Double diamonds Answer: a
b) Undivided rectangles Explanation: Every weak entity must be
c) Dashed lines associated with an identifying entity; that is,
d) Diamond the weak entity set is said to be existence
Answer: d dependent on the identifying entity set. The
Explanation: Dashed lines link attributes of identifying entity set is said to own the weak
a relationship set to the relationship set. entity set that it identifies. It is also called as
owner entity set.
3. The Rectangles divided into two parts
represents 8. Weak entity set is represented as
a) Entity set a) Underline
b) Relationship set b) Double line
c) Attributes of a relationship set c) Double diamond
d) Primary key d) Double rectangle
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The first part of the rectangle , Explanation: An entity set that has a primary
contains the name of the entity set. The key is termed a strong entity set.
second part contains the names of all the
attributes of the entity set. 9. If you were collecting and storing
information about your music collection, an
4. Consider a directed line(->) from the album would be considered a(n) _____.
relationship set advisor to both entity sets a) Relation
instructor and student. This indicates b) Entity
_________ cardinality c) Instance
a) One to many d) Attribute
b) One to one Answer: b
c) Many to many Explanation: An entity set is a logical
d) Many to one container for instances of an entity type and
instances of any type derived from that
entity type.
Answer: b
Explanation: This indicates that an instructor 10. What term is used to refer to a specific
may advise at most one student, and a record in your music database; for instance;
student may have at most one advisor. information stored about a specific album?
a) Relation
5. We indicate roles in E-R diagrams by b) Instance
labeling the lines that connect ___________ c) Table
to __________. c) Column
a) Diamond , diamond Answer: b
b) Rectangle, diamond Explanation: The environment of database is
c) Rectangle, rectangle said to be instance. A database instance or
d) Diamond, rectangle an ‗instance‘ is made up of the background
Answer: d processes needed by the database.
Explanation: Diamond represents a
relationship set and rectangle represents an Querying database part-1 DDL
entity set. SQL data definition for part of the university
database.
6. An entity set that does not have sufficient
attributes to form a primary key is termed a Create table department
__________ . (dept_name varchar (20),

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
building varchar (15), c) Numeric (12,2)
budget number, d) Numeric
primary key (dept_name)); Answer:c
Explanation: Department is the only relation
Create table course which forms the main part of the university
(course_id varchar (7), database.
title varchar (50),
dept_name varchar (20), 3. In the course relation the title field should
credits numeric (2,0), throw an error in case of any missing title .
primary key (course_id), The command to be added in title is
foreign key (dept_name) __________ a) Unique
department); b) Not null
c) 0
Create table instructor d) Null
(ID varchar (5), Answer: b
name varchar (20) not null, Explanation: By specifying not null the
dept_name varchar (20), value cannot be left blank .
salary numeric (8,2),
foreign key (dept_name) _______ 4. In the above DDL command the foreign
department); key entries are got by using the keyword
a) References
Create table section b) Key reference
(course_id varchar (8), c) Relating
sec_id varchar (8), d) None of the above
semester varchar (6), Answer: a
year numeric (4,0), Explanation: References (table_name) give
building varchar (15), the prior table name for the entry.
room_number varchar (7),
time_slot id varchar (4), 5. Identify the error in the section relation
primary key (course_id, sec_id, semester, a) No error
year), b) Year numeric (4,0)
foreign key (_______) ______ course); c) Building varchar (15)
d) Sec_id varchar (8)
Create table teaches Answer: a
(ID varchar (5), Explanation: The building and the sec_id
course_id varchar (8), have varchar values and year is of numeric
sec_id varchar (8), type. So no such errors are found in the
semester varchar (6), relation.
year numeric (4,0),
primary key (ID, course_id, sec_id, 6. The following entry is given in to the
semester, year), instructor relation .
foreign key (course_id, sec_id, semester, (100202,Drake,Biology,30000)
year) references section, Identify the output of the query given
foreign key (ID) _______ instructor); a) Row(s) inserted
b) Error in ID of insert
Answer questions based on the above c) Error in Name of insert
commands d) Error in Salary of the insert
Answer: b
1. Which is the main relation which is used
Explanation: The varchar(5) value cannot
in the university database which is
hold the entry 100202.
referenced by all other relation of the
university. 7. Which of the following can be used as a
a) Teaches primary key entry of the instructor relation.
b) Course a) DEPT_NAME
c) Department b) NAME
d) Section c) ID
Answer: c d) All of the above
Explanation: Department is the only relation Answer: c
which forms the main part of the university Explanation: The value ID can only be
database . primary key unlike dept_name which is used
as a foreign key.
2. The department relation has the an entry
budget whose type has to be replaced by 8. In the section relation which of the
a) Varchar (20) following is used as a foreign key ?
b) Varchar2 (20) a) Course_id

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) Course_id,sec_id Answer the questions based on the above
c) Room_number relations
d) Course_id,sec_id,room_number
Answer: a 1. Which of the following command is used
Explanation: Course_id is the only field to display the departments of the instructor
which is present in the course relation. relation ?
a) Select * from instructor where
9. In order to include an attribute Name to Dept_name = Finance;
the teaches relation which of the following b) Select * from instructor ;
command is used ? c) Select dept_name from instructor;
a) Alter table teaches include Name; d) Select dept_name for instructor where
b) Alter table teaches add Name; Name=Jackson;
c) Alter table teaches add Name varchar;
d) Alter table teaches add Name Answer: c
varchar(20); Explanation: Only one field is necessary for
Answer: d the query and where clause is not needed for
Explanation: The form of the alter table the selection.
command is
alter table r add AD; 2. How can we select the elements which
where r is the name of an existing relation, have common Dept_name in both the
A is the name of the attribute to be added, relation ?
and D is the type of the added attribute. a) Select * from instructor i , course c where
i.Dept_name=c.Dept_name;
10. To replace the relation section with some
b) Select Dept name from instructor ,Course
other relation the initial step to be carried
;
out is
c) Select * from instructor i , course c ;
a) Delete section;
d) Select Dept_name from instructor where
b) Drop section;
Dept_name = NULL;
c) Delete from section;
Answer: a
d) Replace section new_table ;
Explanation: Here only the common
Answer: b
elements are displayed .
Explanation: Droping the table drops all the
references to that table
3. Select distinct Dept_name from instructor
Querying database part-2 DML ;
This set of Database Questions & Answers How many row(s) are displayed ?
focuses on ―Querying database part-1 DML‖ a) 4
b) 3
The instructor relation c) 5
d) Error
ID Name Dept_name Salary
Answer: a
10101 Hayley Comp.Sci. 65000 Explanation: Distinct keyword eliminates
the common Dept_name .
12121 Jackson Finance 90000
15151 Nathan Music 87000 4. Suppose the Authority want to include a
new instructor for the title Neuroscience
22222 April Biology 73000 what command should be inserted ?
a) Insert into instructor
34345 Crick Comp.Sci. 100000
values(12111,Emma,NeuroScience,200000);
The course relation b) Insert into course
Course_id Title Dept_name Credits values(12111,Introduction,NeuroScience,2);
c) Insert into instructor
CS-101 Robotics Comp.Sci. 5 values(12111,Emma,Biology,200000);
BIO-244 Genetics Biology 4 Insert into course values(BIO-
112,Introduction to Neuro
Physical Science,NeuroScience,2);
PHY-333 Physics 3
Principles d) Insert into course
values(12111,Emma,NeuroScience,200000);
Music
Answer: c
MUS-562 Video Music 2
Explanation: The values have to be inserted
Production
into both the relations to be intact .
Investment
FIN-101 Finance 3 5. If a person all the people in Music
Banking
department gets fired which of the following

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
has to be performed on the instructor 10. Which function is used to identify the
relation ? title with Least scope ?
a) Delete Dept_name=Music in instructor; a) Min(Credits)
b) Delete from instructor where b) Max(Credits)
Dept_name=Music; c) Min(title)
c) Remove Dept_name= Music d) Min(Salary)
d) All of the mentioned Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Max is used to find the highest
Explanation: Delete element and Min is used to find the lowest
from table_name where condition . element .

6. Select distinct T.name

from instructor as T, instructor as S Atomic Domains
where T.salary > S.salary and S.dept name = This set of Database Questions & Answers
‘Comp.Sci.‘; focuses on ―Atomic Domains‖
What will be displayed as the value of name
1. A domain is ______ if elements of the
for the above query ?
domain are considered to be indivisible
a) Hayley
units.
b) Jackson
a) Atomic
c) Hayley and Crick
b) Subatomic
d) Crick
c) Substructure
Answer: d
d) Subset
Explanation: Only the greatest salary in
Answer: a
Comp.Sci dept is selected for the query .
Explanation: A set of names is an example
of a non-atomic value.
7. select Name from instructor
where salary > some (select salary from 2. Identify the composite attributes
instructor where dept_name = ‗Comp.Sci.‘); a) Salary
How many rows are selected ? b) Credits
a) 3 c) Section_id
b) 4 d) None of the mentioned
c) 2 Answer: d
d) 1 Explanation: Composite attributes, such as
Answer: d an attribute address with component
Explanation: This displays the names of Attributes Street, city, state, and zip have
instructors with salary greater than that of non-atomic domains.
some (at least one) instructor in the Biology
department . 3. Consider the relation given below and ind
the maximum normal form applicable to
8. How will you select the Names whose them
first letter is A ? 1. R(A, B) with productions { A –> B }
a) Select Name from instructor 2. R(A, B) with productions { B –> A }
where Name like ‘A%; 3 R(A, B) with productions {A —> B, B –>
b) Select Name A}
from course where Name like ‘A%; 4 R(A, B, C) with productions {A –>B, B –
c) Select Dept_name from instructor > A, AB –> C }
where Name like ‘A%; a) 1, 2 and 3 are in 3NF and 4 is in BCNF
d) Select Name from instructor b) 1 and 2 are in BCNF and 3 and 4 are in
where Dept_name like ‘A%; 3NF
Answer:a c) All are in 3NF
Explanation:% is used to indicate that some d) All are in BCNF
characters may appear . Answer: d
Explanation: One of the more desirable
9. Which function is used to find the count normal forms that we can obtain is Boyce–
of distinct departments? Codd normal form (BCNF). It eliminates all
a) Dist redundancy that can be discovered based on
b) Distinct functional dependencies.
c) Count
d) Count,Dist 4. Which one is based on multi-valued
Answer: a dependency:
Explanation: count (distinct ID) is the a) First
correct usage . b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer: d 10. A dependency exist between two
Explanation: One of the more desirable columns when
normal forms that we can obtain is Boyce– a) Together they constitute a composite key
Codd normal form (BCNF). It eliminates all for the table
redundancy that can be discovered based on b) Knowing the value in one column
functional dependencies. determines the value stored in another
column
5. If a relation is in BCNF, then it is also in c) The table is in 3NF
a) 1 NF d) Together they constitute a foreign key
b) 2 NF Answer: a
c) 3 NF Explanation: Given a set F of functional
d) All of the mentioned dependencies on a schema, we can prove
Answer: d that certain other functional dependencies
Explanation: Third normal form (3NF) also hold on the schema.
relaxes this constraint slightly by allowing
certain nontrivial functional dependencies Normal Forms
whose left side is not a super key. 1. In the __________ normal form, a
composite attribute is converted to
6. If every non-key attribute is functionally individual attributes.
dependent primary key, then the relation A) First
will be in B) Second
a) First normal form C) Third
b) Second normal form D) Fourth
c) Third form Answer:a
d) Fourth normal form Explanation: The first normal form is used
Answer: b to eliminate the duplicate information.
Explanation: Third normal form (3NF)
relaxes this constraint slightly by allowing 2. A table on the many side of a one to many
certain nontrivial functional dependencies or many to many relationship must:
whose left side is not a super key. a) Be in Second Normal Form (2NF)
b) Be in Third Normal Form (3NF)
7. If an attribute of a composite key is c) Have a single attribute key
dependent on an attribute of the other d) Have a composite key
composite key, a normalization called _____ Answer:d
is needed. Explanation: The relation in second normal
a) DKNF form is also in first normal form and no
b) BCNF partial dependencies on any column in
c) Fourth primary key.
d) Third
Answer: b 3. Tables in second normal form (2NF):
Explanation: BCNF eliminates all a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies
redundancy that can be discovered based on b) Eliminate the possibility of a insertion
functional dependencies. anomalies
c) Have a composite key
8. The term for information that describes d) Have all non key fields depend on the
what type of data is available in a database whole primary key
is: Answer:a
a) Data dictionary Explanation: The relation in second normal
b) data repository form is also in first normal form and no
c) Index data partial dependencies on any column in
d) Metadata primary key.
Answer: d
Explanation: Meta data is generally data 4. Which-one of the following statements
about a data. about normal forms is FALSE?
a) BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
9. A data type that creates unique numbers b) Lossless, dependency -preserving
for key columns in Microsoft Access is: decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
a) Auto number c) Loss less, dependency – preserving
b) Boolean decomposition into BCNF is always
c) Sequential key possible
d) Sequential number d) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF
Answer: a Answer:c
Explanation: This can be taken as a primary Explanation: We say that the decomposition
key . is a lossless decomposition if there is no loss

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
of information by replacing r (R) with two there is just one pincode. In normalization
relation schemas r1(R1) andr2(R2). terms, empdt1 is a relation in
a) 1 NF only
5. Functional Dependencies are the types of b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
constraints that are based on______ c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
a) Key d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and
b) Key revisited 1NF
c) Superset key Answer:b
d) None of these Explanation: The relation in second normal
Answer:a form is also in first normal form and no
Explanation: Key is the basic element partial dependencies on any column in
needed for the constraints. primary key.
6. Which is a bottom-up approach to Functional-Dependency Theory
database design that design by examining 1. We can use the following three rules to
the relationship between attributes: find logically implied functional
a) Functional dependency dependencies. This collection of rules is
b) Database modeling called
c) Normalization a) Axioms
d) Decomposition b) Armstrong‘s axioms
Answer:c c) Armstrong
Explanation: Normalisation is the process of d) Closure
removing redundancy and unwanted data. Answer:b
Explanation:By applying these rules
7. Which forms simplifies and ensures that
repeatedly, we can find all of F+, given F.
there is minimal data aggregates and
repetitive groups: 2. Which of the following is not a
a) 1NF Armstrong‘s Axiom ?
b) 2NF a) Reflexivity rule
c) 3NF b) Transitivity rule
d) All of the mentioned c) Pseudotransitivity rule
Answer:c d) Augmentation rule
Explanation: The first normal form is used Answer:c
to eliminate the duplicate information. Explanation:It is possible to use
Armstrong‘s axioms to prove that
8. Which forms has a relation that possesses
Pseudotransitivity rule is sound.
data about an individual entity:
a) 2NF 3. The relation
b) 3NF employee(ID,name,street,Credit,street,city,s
c) 4NF alary) is decomposed into
d) 5NF employee1 (ID, name)
Answer:c employee2 (name, street, city, salary)
Explanation: A Table is in 4NF if and only This type of decomposition is called
if, for every one of its non-trivial a) Lossless decomposition
multivalued dependencies X b) Lossless-join decomposition
\twoheadrightarrow Y, X is a superkey— c) Both a and b
that is, X is either a candidate key or a d) None of the mentioned
superset thereof. Answer:d
Explanation:Lossy-join decomposition is the
9. Which forms are based on the concept of
decomposition used here .
functional dependency:
a) 1NF 4. Inst_dept (ID, name, salary, dept name,
b) 2NF building, budget) is decomposed into
c) 3NF instructor (ID, name, dept name, salary)
d) 4NF department (dept name, building, budget)
Answer:c This comes under
Explanation: The table is in 3NF if every a) Lossy-join decomposition
non-prime attribute of R is non-transitively b) Lossy decomposition
dependent (i.e. directly dependent) on every c) Lossless-join decomposition
superkey of R. d) Both a and b
Answer:d
10. Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city,
Explanation:Lossy-join decomposition is the
state,pincode).
decomposition used here .
For any pincode, there is only one city and
state. Also, for given street, city and state,

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
5. There are two functional dependencies Answer:a
with the same set of attributes on the left Explanation:The SQL NATURAL JOIN is a
side of the arrow: type of EQUI JOIN and is structured in such
A->BC a way that, columns with same name of
A->B associate tables will appear once only.
This can be combined as
a) A->BC 9. Suppose now that R(A,B) and S(A,B) are
b) A->B two relations with r and s tuples,
c) B->C respectively (again, not necessarily distinct).
d) None of the mentioned If m is the number of (not necessarily
Answer:a distinct) tuples in the result of the SQL
Explanation:This can be computed as the query:
canonical cover .
R intersect S;
6. Consider a relation R(A,B,C,D,E) with
Then which of the following is the most
the following functional dependencies:
restrictive, correct condition on the value of
ABC -> DE and
m?
D -> AB
The number of superkeys of R is: (a) m = min(r,s)
a) 2 (b) 0 <= m <= r + s (c) min(r,s) <= m <=
b) 7 max(r,s) (d) 0 <= m <= min(r,s) [expand
c) 10 title=""] Answer:d Explanation:The value of
d) 12 m must lie between the min value of r and s
Answer:c and 0. [/expand]
Explanation:A superkey is a combination of
columns that uniquely identifies any row 10. Suppose relation R(A,B,C,D,E) has the
within a relational database management following functional dependencies: A -> B
system (RDBMS) table. B -> C
BC -> A
7. Suppose we wish to find the ID‘s of the A -> D
employees that are managed by people who E -> A
are managed by the employee with ID 123. D -> E
Here are two possible queries: Which of the following is not a key?
I.SELECT ee.empID a) A
FROM Emps ee, Emps ff b) E
WHERE ee.mgrID = ff.empID AND c) B,C
ff.mgrID = 123; d) D
II.SELECT empID Answer:c
FROM Emps Explanation:Here the keys are not formed by
WHERE mgrID IN B and C.
(SELECT empID FROM Emps WHERE
mgrID = 123); Algorithms for Decomposition
Which, if any, of the two queries above will 1. A relation is in ____________ if an
correctly (in SQL2) get the desired set of attribute of a composite key is dependent on
employee ID‘s? an attribute of other composite key.
a) Both I and II a) 2NF
b) I only b) 3NF
c) II only c) BCNF
d) Neither I nor I d) 1NF
Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation:The query can be satisfied by Explanation:A relation is in 3 NF if an
any of the two options. attribute of a composite key is dependent on
an attribute of other composite key. (If an
8. Suppose relation R(A,B) currently has attribute of a composite key is dependent on
tuples {(1,2), (1,3), (3,4)} and relation an attribute of other composite key then the
S(B,C) currently has {(2,5), (4,6), (7,8)}. relation is not in BCNF, hence it has to be
Then the number of tuples in the result of decomposed.).
the SQL query: 2. What are the desirable properties of a
Select * decomposition
From R Natural Outer Join S; is: a) Partition constraint
a) 2 b) Dependency preservation
b) 4 c) Redundancy
c) 6 d) Security
d) None of the mentioned Answer:b

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: Lossless join and dependency Explanation: Primary key contains both
preserving are the two goals of the unique and not null constraints .
decomposition.
7. Which normal form is considered
3. R (A,B,C,D) is a relation. Which of the adequate for normal relational database
following does not have a lossless join design?
dependency preserving BCNF a) 2NF
decomposition. b) 5NF
a) A->B, B->CD c) 4NF
b) A->B, B->C, C->D d) 3NF
c) AB->C, C->AD Answer:d
d) A->BCD Explanation: A relational database table is
Answer:d often described as ―normalized‖ if it is in the
Explanation: This relation gives a relation Third Normal Form because most of the
without any loss in the values. 3NF tables are free of insertion, update, and
Class (course id, title, dept name, credits, deletion anomalies .
sec id, semester, year, building, room 8. Relation R with an associated set of
number, capacity, time slot id) functional dependencies, F, is decomposed
The set of functional dependencies that we into BCNF. The redundancy (arising out of
require to hold on class are: functional dependencies) in the resulting set
course id->title, dept name, credits of relations is
building, room number->capacity a) Zero
course id, sec id, semester, year->building, b) More than zero but less than that of an
room number, time slot id equivalent 3NF decomposition
A candidate key for this schema is {course c) Proportional to the size of F+
id, sec id, semester, year} d) Indeterminate
Answer:b
4. Consider the above conditions. Which of Explanation:Redundancy in BCNF is low
the following relation holds ? when compared to 3NF. For more details on
a) Course id-> title, dept name, credits BCNF .
b) Title-> dept name, credits
c) Dept name-> credits 9. A table has fields F1, F2, F3, F4, and F5,
d) Cannot be determined with the following functional dependencies:
Answer:a F1->F3
Explanation: Here course id is not a F2->F4
superkey. Thus, class is not in BCNF. (F1,F2)->F5
in terms of normalization, this table is in
5. The algorithm that takes a set of a) 1NF
dependencies and adds one schema at a b) 2NF
time, instead of decomposing the initial c) 3NF
schema repeatedly is d) None of the mentioned
a) BCNF algorithm Answer:a
b) 2NF algorithm Explanation:Since the primary key is not
c) 3NF synthesis algorithm given we have to derive the primary key of
d) 1NF algorithm the table. Using the closure set of attributes
Answer:c we get the primary key as (F1,F2). From
Explanation: The result is not uniquely functional dependencies, ―F1->F3, F2->F4‖,
defined, since a set of functional we can see that there is partial functional
dependencies can have more than one dependency therefore it is not in 1NF. Hence
canonical cover, and, further, in some cases, the table is in 1NF.
the result of the algorithm depends on the
order in which it considers the dependencies 10. Let R(A,B,C,D,E,P,G) be a relational
in Fc . schema in which the following FDs are
known to hold:
6. The functional dependency can be tested AB->CD
easily on the materialized view, using the DE->P
constraints ____________. C->E
a) Primary key P->C
b) Null B->G
c) Unique The relation schema R is
d) Both b and c a) in BCNF
Answer:d b) in 3NF, but not in BCNF
c) in 2NF, but not in 3NF

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) not in 2NF Answer:c
Answer:d Explanation: A Table is in 4NF if and only
Explanation:From the closure set of if, for every one of its non-trivial
attributes we can see that the key for the multivalued dependencies X
relation is AB. The FD B->G is a partial \twoheadrightarrow Y, X is a superkey—
dependency, hence it is not in 2NF. that is, X is either a candidate key or a
superset thereof.

Multivalued Dependencies 6. If a multivalued dependency holds and is

1. The normal form which satisfies not implied by the corresponding functional
multivalued dependencies and which is in dependency, it usually arises from one of the
BCNF is following sources.
a) 4 NF a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) 3 NF b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
c) 2 NF c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) All of the mentioned d) Both a and b
Answer: a Answer:d
Explanation: Fourth normal form is more Explanation: For a many-to-many
restrictive than BCNF. relationship set each related entity set has its
own schema and there is an additional
2. Which of the following is a tuple- schema for the relationship set. For a
generating dependencies ? multivalued attribute, a separate schema is
a) Functional dependency created consisting of that attribute and the
b) Equality-generating dependencies primary key of the entity set.
c) Multivalued dependencies
d) Non-functional dependency 7. Which of the following has each related
Answer: c entity set has its own schema and there is an
Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do additional schema for the relationship set?
not rule out the existence of certain tuples. a) A many-to-many relationship set
Instead, they require that other tuples of a b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
certain form be present in the relation. c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) Both a and b
3. The main task carried out in the Answer: a
__________ is to remove repeating Explanation: If a multivalued dependency
attributes to separate tables. holds and is not implied by the
a) First Normal Form corresponding functional dependency, it
b) Second Normal Form usually arises from this source.
c) Third Normal Form
d) Fourth Normal Form 8. In which of the following , a separate
Answer: a schema is created consisting of that attribute
Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do and the primary key of the entity set.
not rule out the existence of certain tuples. a) A many-to-many relationship set
Instead, they require that other tuples of a b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
certain form be present in the relation. c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) Both a and b
4. Which of the normal form is based on Answer: b
multivalued dependencies ? Explanation: If a multivalued dependency
a) First holds and is not implied by the
b) Second corresponding functional dependency, it
c) Third usually arises from this source.
d) Fourth
Answer:d 9. Fifth Normal form is concerned with
Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do a) Functional dependency
not rule out the existence of certain tuples. b) Multivalued dependency
Instead, they require that other tuples of a c) Join dependency
certain form be present in the relation. d) Domain-key
Answer: c
5. Which forms has a relation that possesses Explanation: If a multivalued dependency
data about an individual entity? holds and is not implied by the
a) 2NF corresponding functional dependency, it
b) 3NF usually arises from this source.
c) 4NF
d) 5NF

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
10. In 2NF Explanation:If a multivalued dependency
a) No functional dependencies (FDs) exist. holds and is not implied by the
b) No multivalued dependencies (MVDs) corresponding functional dependency, it
exist. usually arises from this source.
c) No partial FDs exist.
d) No partial MVDs exist. 4. Suppose the user finds the usage of room
Answer: c number and phone number in a relational
Explanation: If a multivalued dependency schema there is confusion. This is reduced
holds and is not implied by the by
corresponding functional dependency, it a) Unique-role assumption
usually arises from this source. b) Unique-key assignment
c) Role intergral assignment
d) None of the mentioned
Database Design Process Answer:a
1. _____________ can help us detect poor Explanation:A desirable feature of a
E-R design. database design is the unique-role
a) Database Design Process assumption, which means that each attribute
b) E-R Design Process name has a unique meaning in the database.
c) Relational scheme
d) Functional dependencies 5. What is the best way to represent the
Answer:d attributes in a large database?
Explanation:For eg.,Suppose an instructor a) Relational-and
entity set had attributes dept name and dept b) Concatenation
address, and there is a functional c) Dot representation
dependency dept name -> dept address. d) All of the above
Answer:b
2. If a multivalued dependency holds and is Explanation: Example inst sec and student
not implied by the corresponding functional sec.
dependency, it usually arises from one of the
following sources. 6. Designers use which of the following to
a) A many-to-many relationship set tune performance of systems to support
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set time-critical operations?
c) A one-to-many relationship set a) Denormalization
d) Both a and b b) Redundant optimization
Answer:d c) Optimization
Explanation:For a many-to-many d) Realization
relationship set each related entity set has its Answer:a
own schema and there is an additional Explanation:The process of taking a
schema for the relationship set. For a normalized schema and making it
multivalued attribute, a separate schema is nonnormalized is called denormalization.
created consisting of that attribute and the
7. In the schema (dept name, size) we have
primary key of the entity set.
relations total inst 2007, total inst 2008 .
3. Which of the following has each related Which dependency have lead to this relation
entity set has its own schema and there is an ?
additional schema for the relationship set. a) Dept name, year->size
a) A many-to-many relationship set b) Year->size
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set c) Dept name->size
c) A one-to-many relationship set d) Size->year
d) Both a and b Answer:a
Answer:a Explanation:The process of taking a
Explanation:If a multivalued dependency normalized schema and making it
holds and is not implied by the nonnormalized is called denormalization.
corresponding functional dependency, it
8. Relation dept year(dept name, total inst
usually arises from this source. 2007, total inst 2008, total inst 2009) .Here
4. In which of the following , a separate the only functional dependencies are from
schema is created consisting of that attribute dept name to the other attributes .This
and the primary key of the entity set. relation is in
a) A many-to-many relationship set a) Fourth NF
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set b) BCNF
c) A one-to-many relationship set c) Third NF
d) Both a and b d) Second NF
Answer:b Answer:b

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation:BCNF has only one normal a common file structure via NFS, but not all
form. disks are mounted on all other systems.
9. Thus a _______ of course data gives the 4. What are the correct features of a
values of all attributes, such as title and distributed database?
department, of all courses at a particular a) Is always connected to the internet
point in time. b) Always requires more than three
a) Instance machines
b) Snapshot c) Users see the data in one global schema.
c) Both a and b d) Have to specify the physical location of
d) All of the mentioned the data when an update is done
Answer:b Answer: c
Explanation:We use the term snapshot of Explanation: Users see the data in one
data to mean the value of the data at a global schema.
particular point in time.
5. Each tablespace in an Oracle database
10. Representations such as the in the dept consists of one or more files called
year relation, with one column for each a) Files
value of an attribute, are called _______; b) name space
they are widely used in spreadsheets and c) datafiles
reports and in data analysis tools. d) PFILE
a) Cross-tabs Answer: c
b) Snapshot Explanation:A data file is a computer file
c) Both a and b which stores data to use by a computer
d) All of the mentioned application or system.
Answer:a
Explanation:SQL includes features to 6. The management information system
convert data from a normal relational (MIS) structure with one main computer
representation to a crosstab. system is called a
a) Hierarchical MIS structure
File Organisations b) Distributed MIS structure
1. Which level of RAID refers to disk c) Centralized MIS structure
mirroring with block striping? d) Decentralized MIS structure
a) RAID level 1 Answer: c
b) RAID level 2 Explanation:Structure of MIS may be
c) RAID level 0 understood by looking at the physical
d) RAID level 3 components of the information system in an
Answer: a organization.
Explanation: RAID (redundant array of
independent disks) is a way of storing the 7. A top-to-bottom relationship among the
same data in different places (thus, items in a database is established by a
redundantly) on multiple hard disks. a) Hierarchical schema
b) Network schema
2. A unit of storage that can store one or c) Relational schema
more records in a hash file organization is d) All of the mentioned
denoted as Answer: a
a) Buckets Explanation:A hierarchical database model
b) Disk pages is a data model in which the data is
c) Blocks organized into a tree-like structure. The
d) Nodes structure allows representing information
Answer: a using parent/child relationships.
Explanation: A unit of storage that can store
one or more records in a hash file 8. Choose the RDBMS which supports full
organization is denoted as buckets. fledged client server application
development
3. The file organization which allows us to a) dBase V
read records that would satisfy the join b) Oracle 7.1
condition by using one block read is c) FoxPro 2.1
a) Heap file organization d) Ingress
b) Sequential file organization Answer: b
c) Clustering file organization Explanation: RDBMS is Relational
d) Hash file organization DataBase Management System.
Answer: c
Explanation: All systems in the cluster share 9. One approach to standardization storing
of data?

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) MIS location where the actual data underlying
b) Structured programming database objects can be kept.
c) CODASYL specification
d) None of the mentioned 5. A tablespace is further broken down into
Answer: c ________
Explanation: CODASYL is an acronym for a) Tablespace
―Conference on Data Systems Languages‖. b) Segments
c) Extents
10. The highest level in the hierarchy of data d) Blocks
organization is called Answer: b
a) Data bank Explanation: Segment names are used in
b) Data base create table and create index commands to
c) Data file place tables or indexes on specific database
d) Data record devices.
Answer: b
Explanation: Database is a collection of all 6. __________ is a contiguous group of
tables which contains the data in form of blocks allocated for use as part of a table,
fields. index, and so forth.
a) Tablespace
Data-Dictionary Storage b) Segment
1. A relational database system needs to c) Extent
maintain data about the relations, such as the d) Block
schema of the relations. This is called Answer: c
a) Metadata Explanation: An extent is a set of contiguous
b) Catalog blocks allocated in a database.
c) Log
d) Dictionary 7. ________ is the smallest unit of allocation
Answer: a in an Oracle database.
Explanation: Each side of a platter of a disk a) Database
has a read–write head that moves across the b) Instance
platter to access different tracks. c) Tablespace
d) Database Block
2. Relational schemas and other metadata Answer: d
about relations are stored in a structure Explanation: Data block is a form of
called the ____________ . database space allocation.
a) Metadata
b) Catalog 8. An Oracle __________ is a set of tables
c) Log and views that are used as a read-only
d) Data Dictionary reference about the database.
Answer: d a) Database dictionary
Explanation: Data dictionary is also called b) Dictionary table
as system catalog. c) Data dictionary
d) Dictionary
3. ___________ is the collection of memory Answer: c
structures and Oracle background processes Explanation: Data dictionary is also called
that operates against an Oracle database. as system catalog.
a) Database
b) Instance 9. A data dictionary is created when a
c) Tablespace __________ created.
d) Segment a) Instance
Answer: b b) Segment
Explanation: Instance is a snapshot of c) Database
database at any point of time. d) Dictionary
Answer: c
4. A ________ is a logical grouping of Explanation: Data dictionary is also called
database objects, usually to facilitate as system catalog.
security, performance, or the availability of
database objects such as tables and indexes. 10. An Oracle object type has two parts the
a) Tablespace _________ and__________
b) Segments a) Instance and body
c) Extents b) Segment and blocks
d) Blocks c) Specification and body
Answer: a d) Body and segment
Explanation: A tablespace is a storage Answer: c
Explanation: Segment names are used in

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
create table and create index commands to a) Equijoins
place tables or indexes on specific database b) Cartesian
devices. An extent is a set of contiguous c) Both
blocks allocated in a database. d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Join Operations Explanation: A Cartesian coordinate system
1. A_____ is a query that retrieves rows is a coordinate system that specifies each
from more than one table or view: point uniquely in a plane by a pair of
a) Start numerical coordinates.
b) End
c) Join 7. Which is a join condition contains an
d) All of the mentioned equality operator:
Answer: c a) Equijoins
Explanation: An SQL join clause combines b) Cartesian
records from two or more tables in a c) Both and b
database. It creates a set that can be saved as d) None of the mentioned
a table or used as it is. A JOIN is a means Answer: a
for combining fields from two tables by Explanation: An equi-join is a specific type
using values common to each. of comparator-based join, that uses only
equality comparisons in the join-predicate.
2. A condition is referred to as _____:
a) Join in SQL 8. Which join refers to join records from the
b) Join condition right table that have no matching key in the
c) Both left table are include in the result set:
d) None of the mentioned a) Left outer join
Answer: b b) Right outer join
Explanation: An SQL join clause combines c) Full outer join
records from two or more tables in a d) Half outer join
database. It creates a set that can be saved as Answer: b
a table or used as it is. A JOIN is a means Explanation: A right outer join will return
for combining fields from two tables by all the rows that an inner join returns plus
using values common to each. one row for each of the other rows in the
second table that did not have a match in the
3. Which oracle is the join condition is first table. It is the same as a left outer join
specified using the WHERE clause: with the tables specified in the opposite
a) Oracle 9i order.
b) Oracle 8i
c) Pre-oracle 9i 9. Which operation are allowed in a join
d) Pre-oracle 8i view:
Answer: c a) UPDATE
Explanation: Oracle 9i is a version of the b) INSERT
Oracle Database. The i stands for ―Internet‖ c) DELETE
to indicate that 9i is ―Internet ready‖. d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
4. How many join types in join condition: Explanation: The DELETE statement is
a) 2 used to delete rows in a table. The UPDATE
b) 3 statement is used to update existing records
c) 4 in a table. The INSERT INTO statement is
d) 5 used to insert new records in a table.
Answer: d
Explanation: INNER JOIN, LEFT JOIN, 10. Which view that contains more than one
RIGHT JOIN, FULL JOIN, EQUIJOIN. table in the top-level FROM clause of the
SELECT statement:
5. Which are the join types in join condition: a) Join view
a) Cross join b) Datable join view
b) Natural join c) Updatable join view
c) Join with USING clause d) All of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: The DELETE statement is
Explanation: INNER JOIN, LEFT JOIN, used to delete rows in a table. The UPDATE
RIGHT JOIN, FULL JOIN, EQUIJOIN are statement is used to update existing records
the types of joins. in a table. The INSERT INTO statement is
used to insert new records in a table.
6. Which product is returned in a join query
have no join condition:

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Recovery overhead that transactions need to make
This set of Database Questions & Answers local copies of all updated data items;
focuses on ―Recovery‖ further, if a transaction reads a data item that
it has updated, it must read the value from
1. The log is a sequence of ___________, its local copy.
recording all the update activities in the
database. 6. If database modifications occur while the
a) Log records transaction is still active, the transaction is
b) Records said to use the ___________technique.
c) Entries a) Deferred-modification
d) Redo b) Late-modification
Answer: a c) Immediate-modification
Explanation: The most widely used structure d) Undo
for recording database modifications is the Answer: c
log. Explanation: We say a transaction modifies
the database if it performs an update on a
2. In the ___________ scheme, a transaction disk buffer, or on the disk itself; updates to
that wants to update the database first the private part of main memory do not
creates a complete copy of the database. count as database modifications.
a) Shadow copy
b) Shadow Paging 7. ____________ using a log record sets the
c) Update log records data item specified in the log record to the
d) All of the mentioned old value.
Answer: a a) Deferred-modification
Explanation: If at any point the transaction b) Late-modification
has to be aborted, the system merely deletes c) Immediate-modification
the new copy. The old copy of the database d) Undo
has not been affected. Answer: d
Explanation: Undo brings the previous
3. The ____________ scheme uses a page contents.
table containing pointers to all pages; the
page table itself and all updated pages are 8. In the __________ phase, the system
copied to a new location. replays updates of all transactions by
a) Shadow copy scanning the log forward from the last
b) Shadow Paging checkpoint.
c) Update log records a) Repeating
d) All of the mentioned b) Redo
Answer: b c) Replay
Explanation: Any page which is not updated d) Undo
by a transaction is not copied, but instead Answer: b
the new page table just stores a pointer to Explanation: Undo brings the previous
the original page. contents.
4. The current copy of the database is 9. The actions which are played in the order
identified by a pointer, called while recording it is called ______________
_____________, which is stored on disk. history.
a) Db-pointer a) Repeating
b) Update log b) Redo
c) Update log records c) Replay
d) All of the mentioned d) Undo
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Any page which is not updated Explanation: Undo brings the previous
by a transaction is not copied, but instead contents.
the new page table just stores a pointer to
the original page. 10. A special redo-only log record is written
to the log, where V1 is the value being
5. If a transaction does not modify the restored to data item Xj during the rollback.
database until it has committed, it is said to These log records are sometimes called
use the ___________ technique. a) Log records
a) Deferred-modification b) Records
b) Late-modification c) Compensation log records
c) Immediate-modification d) Compensation redo records
d) Undo Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Such records do not need undo
Explanation: Deferred modification has the

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
information, since we never need to undo input relations (regardless of whether or not
such an undo operation. they have the same values on common
attributes)
d) Return rows of the input relation that
RDBMS: satisfy the predicate
Answer: a
Introduction to the Relational Model Explanation: ⋈ Outputs specified attributes
1. Choose the correct statement regarding from all rows of the input relation. Remove
superkeys duplicate tuples from the output. The
a) A superkey is an attribute or a group of operation is called the join operation.
multiple attributes that can uniquely identify
a tuple 5. What does the ―x‖ operator do in
b) A superkey is a tuple or a set of multiple relational algebra?
tuples that can uniquely identify an attribute a) Output specified attributes from all rows
c) Every superkey is a candidate key of the input relation. Remove duplicate
d) A superkey is an attribute or a set of tuples from the output
attributes that distinguish the relation from b) Output pairs of rows from the two input
other relations relations that have the same value on all
Answer: a attributes that have the same name
Explanation: A superkey is an attribute or a c) Output all pairs of rows from the two
set of multiple attributes that can uniquely input relations (regardless of whether or not
identify a tuple. It is used to differentiate they have the same values on common
between tuples. attributes)
d) Returns the rows of the input relation that
2. What is an Instance of a Database? satisfy the predicate
a) The logical design of the database system Answer: c
b) The entire set of attributes of the Explanation: The ―x‖ operator outputs all
Database put together in a single relation pairs of rows from the two input relations
c) The state of the database system at any (regardless of whether or not they have the
given point of time same values on common attributes). This
d) The initial values inserted into the operation is called as the Cartesian product
Database immediately after its creation operation and is similar to the Cartesian
Answer: c product of sets.
Explanation: The state of the database
system at any given point of time is called as 6. An attribute is a __________ in a relation.
an Instance of the database. a) Row
b) Column
3. What is a foreign key? c) Value
a) A foreign key is a primary key of a d) Tuple
relation which is an attribute in another Answer: b
relation Explanation: An attribute is a column in a
b) A foreign key is a superkey of a relation relation. A tuple is a row in a relation.
which is an attribute in more than one other
relations 7. What is the method of specifying a
c) A foreign key is an attribute of a relation primary key in a schema description?
that is a primary key of another relation a) By writing it in bold letters
d) A foreign key is the primary key of a b) By underlining it using a dashed line
relation that does not occur anywhere else in c) By writing it in capital letters
the schema d) By underlining it using a bold line
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: A foreign key is an attribute of Explanation: We can specify a primary key
a relation that is initially a primary key of in schema description by underlining the
another relation. A foreign key usage respective attribute with a bold line.
preserves referential integrity.
8. Statement 1: A tuple is a row in a relation
4. What action does ⋈ operator perform in Statement 2: Existence of multiple foreign
relational algebra keys in a same relation is possible
a) Output specified attributes from all rows a) Both the statements are true
of the input relation and remove duplicate b) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
tuples from the output false
b) Outputs pairs of rows from the two input c) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is
relations that have the same value on all correct
attributes that have the same name d) Both the statements are false
c) Output all pairs of rows from the two Answer: a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: A tuple is a row is a relation. c) No two tuples have even a single same
There can exist multiple foreign keys in the value in a relation
same relation because there can exist d) None of the mentioned
multiple attributes in the relation that are Answer: a
primary keys in two or more other relations. Explanation: Unique role assumption means
that the attribute names must have unique
9. Choose the option that correctly explains meaning in the database. This prevents us
in words, the function of the following from using the same attribute to mean
relational algebra expression different things in different schemas.
σyear≥2009 (book ⋈ borrow)
a) Selects all tuples from the Cartesian 3. The process of making a normalized
product of book and borrow schema unnormalized is called as
b) Selects all the tuples from the natural join _________
of book and borrow wherever the year is a) Unnormalization
lesser than 2009 b) Denormalization
c) Selects all the tuples from the natural join c) Renormalization
of book and student wherever the year is d) Annormalization
greater than or equal to 2009 Answer: b
d) Selects all tuples from the Cartesian Explanation: The process of making a
product of book and borrow wherever the normalized schema unnormalized is called
year is greater than or equal to 2009 as denormalization. Designers use it to tune
Answer: b performance of systems to support time-
Explanation: The condition under the select critical operations.
statement represents the condition that must
be satisfied by the tuples and the symbol ⋈ 4. State true or false: Crosstabs are not
represents natural join between the two desirable in a database design
relations on either side of the operator. a) True
b) False
10. State true or false: If a relation consists Answer: a
of a foreign key, then it is called a Explanation: Crosstabs may be useful for the
referenced relation of the foreign key users but they are not desirable in a database
dependency. system because the queries would get more
a) True complicated due to the addition of cross
b) False tabs.
5. The data that have a time interval
Answer: b associated with them during which they are
Explanation: If a relation has a foreign key, valid are called as ________
then it is called a referencing relation of the a) Timed data
foreign key dependency. b) Temporal data
c) Model data
Normal Forms d) Clocked data
1. Which of the following is not a process of Answer: b
generating a good relational schema? Explanation: The data that have a time
a) Converting ER diagrams to relational interval associated with them during which
schema they are valid are called as Temporal data.
b) Decomposing the relational schema while We use the term snapshot to mean the value
satisfying functional dependencies of the data at a particular point in time.
c) Joining multiple relations together to form
a single relation containing all the attributes 6. The value of the data at a particular time
d) A design of relations which is then tested is called as?
and modified to satisfy given normal forms a) Instance
Answer: c b) Picture
Explanation: Joining multiple relations c) Snapshot
together to form a single relation containing d) None of the mentioned
all the attributes is not a method for the Answer: c
development of good relational schema Explanation: The value of the data at a
because it might violate the normal forms if particular time is called as a snapshot. This
it is combined. is used in temporal data.

2. What is unique role assumption? 7. Functional dependencies that have a time

a) The attribute name has a unique meaning associated with them during which they are
in the database valid are called as________
b) The attributes are all unique a) Timed functional dependencies
b) Clocked functional dependencies

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Temporal functional dependencies c) notnull
d) Modeled functional dependencies d) include
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Functional dependencies that Explanation: The ―all‖ keyword is used
have a time associated with them during beside the select clause to explicitly specify
which they are valid are called as temporal that duplicates are not removed.
functional dependencies. All snapshots of
the relation should satisfy the functional 3. Which of the following logical
dependency for it to be a temporal connectives is not included in SQL?
functional dependency. a) and
b) or
8. State true or false: Overlapping time c) nor
intervals cannot be prevented d) not
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: ―nor‖ is not a logical
Answer: b connective included in the SQL. The and, or
Explanation: IF a system supports a native and not are logical connectives that are
valid time type, then the system can detect included in SQL.
and prevent overlapping time intervals.
4. The where clause is a predicate involving
9. Which of the following is the time of attributes of the relation in the ______
temporal data that record when a fact was clause.
recorded in a database? a) select
a) Transaction time b) from
b) Valid time c) with
c) Enter time d) none of the mentioned
d) Exit time Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The ―from‖ clause contains the
Explanation: The transaction time is the time attribute names on which the ―which‖ clause
of temporal data that records when a fact can be used on.
was recorded in a database.
5. select distinct dept_name
10. To specify the foreign keys in relations from institute;
referencing temporal data we need to specify
_______ What does the above query do?
a) The time interval a) It gives all the tuples having a distinct
b) The Boolean value for the working dept_name
c) The integer corresponding to the relation b) It gives the dept_name attribute values of
number all tuples without repetition
d) None of the mentioned c) It gives all the dept_name attribute of all
Answer: a the tuples
Explanation: To specify the foreign keys in d) It gives all the tuples having a null value
relations referencing temporal data we need under the dept_name attribute
to specify the time interval. The time Answer: b
interval specification thus preserves Explanation: The distinct keyword is used to
referential integrity in the relation. explicitly force the elimination of duplicate
tuples. Thus, the above query excludes
Basic Operations duplicates.
1. Which of the following syntax of the
basic query is correct? 6. What does the following query do?
a) select from select name, ID, branch
b) select from from student, department
c) select from where student.branch = department.branch;
d) select from a) It gives all values of name, ID, branch
Answer: b from both the relations only if all those
Explanation: The select clause is used to attributes are present in both
select a specific attribute from a given b) It gives all values of name, ID, branch
relation. So, the syntactically correct from their respective relations
statement is ―select from . c) It gives the values of name, ID, branch
from their respective relations where the
2. Which of the following keywords is used values in the branch attribute are same
beside the select clause to explicitly specify d) It gives the values of name, ID, branch
that duplicates are not removed? from their respective relations where all the
a) all values are matching with each other
b) not unique Answer: c

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: student.branch = 11. Observe the following query and choose
department.branch verifies whether both the the correct option.
values of the attributes are same in both the select name, ID
relations and returns the value. from student natural join department natural
join section
7. The ________ clause is used to list the a) The query is syntactically wrong because
attributes desired in the result of a query there is no where clause
a) select b) The query is syntactically wrong because
b) from there are more than one attributes in the
c) where select clause
d) create c) The query is syntactically wrong because
Answer: a more than one relations are included in the
Explanation: The select clause is used to list natural join operation
the attributes desired in the result of a query. d) The query is correct
Answer: d
8. If we specify multiple relations in the
Explanation: The query is syntactically
from clause and do not specify any
correct because, where clause is not
conditions in the where clause, what will the
necessary in a query, more than one
result be?
attributes can be specified in the select
a) The natural join of both the relations
clause and more than one relations may be
b) The left outer join of both the relations
operated on, using the natural join operator.
c) A syntactical error
d) The Cartesian product of both the 12. Which keyword is used to rename a
relations relation in a query?
Answer: d a) rename
Explanation: If we specify multiple relations b) as
in the from clause and do not specify any c) is
conditions in the where clause, the default d) to
definition given by the from clause is the Answer: b
Cartesian product of the relations listed in Explanation: The ―as‖ keyword is used to
the clause. So it returns all the possible rename a relation in a query. This is used for
combinations of the tuples of the two convenience as long relation names can
relations. reduce readability.
9. State true or false: Multiple conditions in 13. While operating with strings, what does
the where clause are separated by a ―,‖ ―_ _ _%‖ match with?
a) True a) A string of three letters
b) False b) A string of at least three letters
Answer: b c) A string of three words
Explanation: Multiple conditions in the d) A string of at least three words
where clause are separated by the ―and‖ Answer: a
keyword. Explanation: The string in the question
matches with a string having at least three
10. What does the natural join operation do?
letters. The first three blank spaces indicate
a) It considers only those pairs of tuples that
three letters whereas the percentage
have the same value on those attributes that
indicates indefinite spaces after that.
appear in the schemas of both relations
b) It considers only those pairs of tuples that Integrity Constraints
have the same value on at least one of the 1. Which of the following is not an integrity
attributes that appear in the schemas of both constraint?
the relations a) not null
c) It considers only those pairs of tuples that b) unique
do not have the same value on those c) identical
attributes that appear in the schemas of both d) check
relations Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Identical is not an allowed
Answer: a integrity constraint in SQL. Not null
Explanation: The natural join operation prevents null values and unique only allows
considers only those pairs of tuples that have unique values to be entered. Check checks
the same value on those attributes that for a given condition.
appear in the schemas of both the relations.
The natural join operation operates on 2 2. What is the function of the not null
relations and gives a relation as the result. constraint?
a) It prevents illegal data from being entered

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
into the database c) Superset dependencies
b) It ensures that data is entered into the d) Primary dependencies
database Answer: b
c) It ensures that the data entered is unique Explanation: Referential integrity
d) None of the mentioned constraints are also called as subset
Answer: b dependencies. It is called so because the set
Explanation: The not null constraint ensures of foreign key values in r1 of r2 must be a
that data is entered into the database. It subset of the set of primary key values in r2.
displays an error message whenever a data
field mentioned is left empty. 7. ________ is a predicate that we expect
the database to always satisfy
3. What is the function of the unique a) Assertion
constraint? b) Reason
a) It ensures that no two values under an c) Mandate
attribute are identical d) Verify
b) It ensures that all the attributes are Answer: a
perfectly unique in their data type Explanation: An assertion is a predicate that
c) It ensures that all the relations in the we expect the database to always satisfy.
database have a unique set of attributes Domain constraints and referential integrity
d) It does not have any function in SQL constraints are special forms of assertions.
Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of the unique 8. State true or false: Oracle does not
clause is to ensure that no two values under support complex check conditions
the same attribute are identical. Primary a) True
keys are unique by default. b) False
Answer: a
4. What is the functions of on delete Explanation: Most of the widely used
cascade? database management systems including
a) It is used to delete a tuple in a table oracle currently do not support complex
b) It is used to specify the precise attribute check conditions.
that needs to be deleted in a single relation.
c) It is used to preserve referential integrity 9. What statement is used to define a new
in a relation assertion in SQL?
d) It is used to execute sub-queries in the a) create check ;
from clause. b) create assertion where ;
Answer: c c) create where ;
Explanation: It is used to preserve referential d) create assertion check ;
integrity in the relation. When an attribute of Answer: d
a relation is the foreign key in another Explanation: We use ―create
relation, deleting it causes referential assertion check ;‖ statement to create a new
integrity problems. The on delete cascade assertion in a relation.
solves this problem by forcing us to delete
Entity Relationship Model
the foreign key first.
1. The _________ of the entity set is an
5. What does the following condition do? actual collection of entities belonging to that
check( name in( ‗Ryan‘, ‗Cristiano‘, ‗Leo‘)) entity set.
a) The condition checks whether the name a) Extension
attribute includes the three mentioned names b) Intention
b) The condition allows the name attribute c) Description
to possess only the three mentioned names d) Availability
c) The condition checks whether the given Answer: a
names are sub-strings in at least one of the Explanation: The extension of the entity set
values is an actual collection of entities belonging
d) None of the mentioned to that entity set.
Answer: b
2. A ___________ is an association among
Explanation: The check clause allows the
several entities.
attribute to take only those values that are
a) Relationship
explicitly specified by the user inside the
b) Association
parentheses after the in key word.
c) Set
6. Referential integrity constraints are also d) Combination
called as _________ Answer: a
a) Functional dependencies Explanation: A relationship is an association
b) Subset dependencies among several entities. A relationship
specifies how two entities are related.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
3. The attributes of a relationship are called b) False
as _________ attributes Answer: a
a) Relational Explanation: A primary key is an attribute or
b) Conjunctive a set of attributes that can uniquely identify
c) Descriptive a tuple in a relation. So, this means that
d) None of the mentioned multiple attributes can be combined to
Answer: c uniquely identify a tuple in a relation.
Explanation: A relationship may also have
attributes. These attributes are called as 9. Which of the following is a good database
descriptive attributes. management practice?
a) Adding redundant attributes
4. What are composite attributes? b) Removing redundant attributes
a) They are those attributes which cannot be c) Not specifying primary keys
further divided into other attributes d) None of the mentioned
b) They are those attributes which can Answer: b
further be divided into other attributes Explanation: Removing redundant attributes
c) They are those attributes which are from a relation makes data extraction more
essentially the primary keys of the relation efficient and faster. Thus, it is a good
d) None of the mentioned database management technique.
Answer: b
Explanation: Composite attributes are the Entity Relationship Diagrams
ones which can be further divided into other 1. Which of the following symbols represent
attributes whereas simple attributes cannot entity sets in an ER diagram?
be divided into other attributes. a) Divided rectangles
b) Diamonds
5. Let E be an entity set in a relationship set c) Lines
R. If every entity in E participates in at least d) Undivided rectangles
one relationships in R, Then the Answer: a
participation of E in R is __________ Explanation: Rectangles divided into two
a) Partial parts represent entity sets in an ER diagram.
b) Total The upper rectangle contains the name of
c) Complete the entity sets. And the lower rectangle
d) Incomplete contains the attributes.
Answer: Total
Explanation: Let E be an entity set in a 2. Which of the following symbols represent
relationship set R. If every entity in E relationship sets in an ER diagram
participates in at least one relation in R, a) Divided rectangles
Then the participation of E in R is total. b) Diamonds
c) Lines
6. Let E be an entity set in a relationship set d) Undivided rectangles
R. If only some entities in E participate in Answer: b
relationships in R, Then the participation of Explanation: Diamonds represent
E in R is __________ relationship sets in an ER diagram.
a) Partial Relationship sets define how two entity sets
b) Total are related in a database.
c) Complete
d) Incomplete 3. What do double diamonds represent in an
Answer: Partial ER diagram
Explanation: Let E be an entity set in a a) They link entity sets to relationship sets
relationship set R. If only some entities in E b) Total participation of an entity in a
participate in relationships in R, Then the relationship set
participation of E in R is partial. c) Relationship sets linked to weak entity
sets
7. State true or false: We cannot specify d) None of the mentioned
keys in the Entity-Relationship model Answer: c
a) True Explanation: The double diamonds represent
b) False the relationship sets linked to weak entity
Answer: b sets. Weak entity sets are the sets that do not
Explanation: Keys can be specified in the have a primary key.
entity-relationship model to uniquely
identify the entity in the entity set. 4. What does a directed line ( → ) from a
relationship set to two entity sets mean?
8. State true or false: Multiple attributes a) One-one
combined together can be primary keys b) Many-one
a) True c) Many-many

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) One-many 10. State true or false: A weak entity can
Answer: a participate in all the relationships.
Explanation: A directed line ( → ) from a a) True
relationship set to two entity sets means that b) False
there is a one-one cardinality between two Answer: b
entity sets. Explanation: It cannot participate in all the
relationships. A weak entity set can only
5. How are roles specified in an ER diagram participate in relationships other than the
a) By labelling the rectangles identifying relationship.
b) By labelling the diamonds
c) Roles cannot be specified in an ER Reduction to Relational Schema
diagram 1. For schemas derived from strong entity
d) By labelling the lines sets, the _______ of the entity set serves as
Answer: E-R diagrams can include role the primary key of the resulting schema
indicators. Roles can be specified in an ER a) First attribute
diagram by labelling the lines. b) Primary key
c) Foreign key
6. How is the discriminator of a weak entity d) None of the mentioned
set specified? Answer: b
a) Using a solid line Explanation: For schemas derived from
b) Circling it strong entity sets, the primary key of the
c) Using a dashed line entity set serves as the primary key of the
d) Drawing a square around it resulting schema. This is because the
Answer: c primary keys are to be preserved as they are
Explanation: A discriminator of a weak unique.
entity set can be specified by underlining it
with a dashed line. 2. State true or false: Derived attributes
cannot be directly represented in the
7. An entity set that has a primary key is relational data model
called as ___________ a) True
a) Strong entity set b) False
b) Weak entity set Answer: a
c) Complete entity set Explanation: Derived attributes cannot be
d) None of the mentioned directly represented in the relational data
Answer: a model. Instead, they are represented as
Explanation: An entity set that has a primary methods.
key is called as a strong entity set. An entity
set that does not have a primary key is called 3. The primary key of the representation of a
a weak entity set. weak entity set consists of the primary key
of the strong entity set and the _______
8. The relationship associating the weak a) Discriminator of the weak entity set
entity sets with the identifying entity set is b) Foreign key
called as ________ c) Primary key of all the other entity sets
a) Identifying relationship d) All the attributes of the weak entity set
b) Connecting relationship Answer: a
c) Completing relationship Explanation: The primary key of the
d) Unique relationship representation of a weak entity set consists
Answer: a of the primary key of the strong entity set
Explanation: The relationship associating and the discriminator of the weak entity set.
the weak entity sets with the identifying
entity set is called as an Identifying 4. For a binary many to many relationship,
relationship. An identifying set is a many to the ________ of the participating entity sets
one from the weak entity set to the becomes the prime attribute
identifying entity set. a) Intersection of primary keys
b) Primary key of either one
9. State true or false: Every weak entity set c) Union of primary keys
must be associated with an identifying entity d) Primary key on the many side
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: For a binary many to many
Answer: a relationship, the union of the primary keys
Explanation: Every weak entity set must be of the participating entity sets becomes the
associated with an identifying entity. The prime attribute.
weak entity is then said to be existence
dependent on the identifying entity set. 5. For a binary one to one relationship, the
________ of the participating entity sets

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
becomes the prime attribute Answer: c
a) Intersection of primary keys Explanation: We can create foreign key
b) Primary key of either one constraints on relational schema derived
c) Union of primary keys from ER diagram and also it is possible to
d) Primary key on the many side derive relational schema from ER diagrams.
Answer: b
Explanation: For a binary one to one 10. Which of the following can affect the
relationship, the primary key of either one of placement of the relationship attributes?
the participating entity sets becomes the a) Alphabetical order
prime attribute. b) The data in the attribute
c) Cardinality ratio
6. For a binary many to many relationship, d) None of the mentioned
the ________ of the participating entity sets Answer: c
becomes the prime attribute Explanation: The cardinality ratio of a
a) Intersection of primary keys relationship can affect the placement of
b) Primary key of either one relationship attributes. The placement of the
c) Union of primary keys relationship attributes are not dependent on
d) Primary key on the many side the alphabetical order or the data in the
Answer: d attribute.
Explanation: For a binary many to many
relationship, the primary key on the many Recovery and Atomicity
side of the participating entity sets becomes 1. The most widely used structure for
the prime attribute. recording database modification is called as
_______
7. For a n-ary relationship set without a) Log
arrows, the ________ of the participating b) List
entity sets becomes the prime attribute c) Queue
a) Intersection of primary keys d) Stack
b) Primary key of either one Answer: a
c) Union of primary keys Explanation: The most widely used structure
d) Primary key on the many side for recording database modification is called
Answer: c as a log. The log is a sequence of log records
Explanation: For a binary many to many recording all the update activities in the
relationship, the union of the primary keys database.
of the participating entity sets becomes the
prime attribute. 2. An update log record describes a
________ database write
8. State true or false: The schema for the a) Single
relationship set linking a weak entity set to b) Double
its corresponding strong entity set is c) Triple
redundant. d) Quadruple
a) True Answer: a
b) False Explanation: An update log record describes
Answer: a a single database write. It has four fields in it
Explanation: The schema for the which are, transaction identifier, data-item
relationship set linking a weak entity set to identifier, old value, new value.
its corresponding strong entity set is
redundant and it need not be present in the 3. Which of the following fields does the
relational database design derived from an update log record have?
ER diagram. a) Transaction identifier
b) Data-item identifier
9. Statement 1: We can create foreign key c) Old value
constraints on relational schema derived d) All of the mentioned
from ER diagram Answer: d
Statement 2: Relational schema cannot be Explanation: An update log record describes
derived from an ER diagram a single database write. It has four fields in
a) Both the statements are true it. The update log record has a transaction
b) Both the statements are false identifier, data-item identifier, old value,
c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is new value.
false
d) Statement 2 is true and statement 1 is 4. The unique identifier of the transaction
false that performed the write operation is called
as _______
a) Transaction identifier
b) Data-item identifier

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Old value d) Recovery
d) New value Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: A fuzzy checkpoint is a
Explanation: The unique identifier of the checkpoint where transactions are allowed
transaction that performed the write to perform updates even while buffer blocks
operation is called as transaction identifier. are being written out.
This is a field in the update log record.
10. If the database modifications occur
5. The value of the data item prior to the while the transaction is still active, the
write is called as _________ transaction is said to use the __________
a) Transaction identifier modification technique
b) Data-item identifier a) Deferred
c) Old value b) Immediate
d) New value c) More than one of the mentioned
Answer: c d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The value of the data item Answer: b
prior to the write is called as old value. This Explanation: If the database modifications
is stored in the update log record. occur while the transaction is still active, the
transaction is said to use the immediate
6. If a transaction does not modify the modification technique. Deferred
database until it has committed it is said to modification has overhead whereas
use a _______ modification technique immediate modification doesn‘t have any
a) Deferred overhead.
b) Immediate
c) More than one of the mentioned Web Fundamentals
d) None of the mentioned 1. Which of the following is a valid uniform
Answer: a resource locator ?
Explanation: If a transaction does not a) http://www.acm.org/sigmod
modify the database until it has committed it b) www.google.com
is said to use a deferred modification c) www.ann.in
technique. Deferred modification has the d) http:/www.acm.org/sigmod/
overhead that transactions need to make Answer:a
local copies of all updated data items. Explanation:A uniform resource locator
(URL) is a globally unique name for each
7. We say that a transaction has been document that can be accessed on the Web.
________ when its commit log record has
been output to stable storage. 2.
a) Locked http://www.google.com/search?q=silberscha
b) Completed tz
c) Committed In the above URL which one is the argument
d) Released which is used for processing of the URL?
Answer: c a) google
Explanation: We say that a transaction has b) google.com
been committed when its commit log record c) search
has been output to stable storage. At that d) q=silberschatz
point, all the earlier records have already Answer: d
been output to stable storage. Explanation: Argument is always placed
after ? symbol.
8. State true or false: Using checkpoints
reduces overhead 3. HTTP defines two ways in which values
a) True entered by a user at the browser can be sent
b) False to the Web server. The _____ method
Answer: a encodes the values as part of the URL.
Explanation: Using checkpoints reduces a) Post
overhead because the search process is time b) Get
consuming and searching for transactions c) Read
does not take place if we use checkpoints. d) Argument
Answer: b
9. A __________ checkpoint is a checkpoint Explanation: For example, if the Google
where transactions are allowed to perform search page used a form with an input
updates even while buffer blocks are being parameter
written out. named q with the get method, and the user
a) Temporary typed in the string ―silberschatz‖ and
b) Fuzzy submitted the form, the browser would
c) Permanent

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
request the following URL from the Web b) .htm
server: c) .doc
http://www.google.com/search?q=silberscha d) Both a &b
tz. Answer: d
Explanation:.doc is used only for the word
4. A __________ is a program running on document format.
the server machine, which accepts requests
from a Web browser and sends back results 10. How many levels of headings are in
in the form of HTML documents. html:
a) HTML a) 2
b) HTTP b) 7
c) Web Server c) 6
d) Web browser d) 4
Answer:c Answer: c
Explanation: The browser and Web server Explanation: The heading levels are
communicate via HTTP. Web servers h1,h2,h3,h4,h5,h6.
provide powerful features, beyond the
simple transfer of documents. Querying database part 3
1. _______________ joins are SQL server
5. The application program typically default
communicates with a database server, a) Outer
through ___________, or other protocols, in b) Inner
order to get or store data. c) Equi
a) JDBC d) None of the Mentioned
b) ODBC Answer: b
c) All of the mentioned Explanation: Inner query joins only the rows
d) None of the mentioned that are matching.
Answer: c
Explanation: The common gateway interface 2. The ________________ is essentially
(CGI) standard defines how the Web server used to search for patterns in target string.
communicates with application programs. a) Like Predicate
b) Null Predicate
6. This extra information is usually c) In Predicate
maintained in the form of a _________ at d) Out Predicate
the client. Answer: a
a) Cookie Explanation: Like matches the pattern with
b) History the query.
c) Remainder
d) None of the mentioned 3. Which of the following is/are the
Answer: a Database server functions?
Explanation: A cookie is simply a small i) Data management ii) Transaction
piece of text containing identifying management
information and with an associated name. iii) Compile queries iv) Query optimization

7. Which of the following is not true about a) i, ii, and iv only

HTML ? b) i, ii and iii only
a) <meta>…</meta> c) ii, iii and iv only
b) <meta…./> d) All i, ii, iii, and iv
c) <metadata>…</metadata> Answer: a
d) <metadata name=‖‖ /> Explanation:All these are functions of
Answer: b database.
Explanation: Meta data is the data about
4. To delete a database ___________
data which is included in the meta data tag.
command is used
8. Html code contains: a) Delete database database_name
a) Tags b) Delete database_name
b) Attributes c) drop database database_name
c) Elements d) drop database_name
d) All of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer:d Explanation: This will delete the database
Explanation:<> are tags,size is a attribute. with its structure.

9. Html document must always be saved 5. ____________ is a combination of two or

with: more attributes used as a primary key
a) .html a) Composite Key

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) Alternate Key Querying Database – 4
c) Candidate Key 1. Which is essential a business problem not
d) Foreign Key a data problem:
Answer: a a) Data
Explanation: Primary keys together form the b) Database
composite key. c) Database design
d) All of the mentioned
6. Which of the following is not the function Answer: c
of client? Explanation: SQL-99 is the most recent
a) Compile queries version of standard SQL prescribed by the
b) Query optimization ANSI.
c) Receive queries
d) Result formatting and presentation 2. Which is primarily the result of a
Answer: b thorough understanding of information
Explanation: Query optimization is used to about an enterprise:
improve the quality. a) Data
b) Database
7. ____________ is a special type of stored c) Database design
procedure that is automatically invoked d) Data modeling
whenever the data in the table is modified. Answer: d
a) Procedure Explanation: Data modelling designs the
b) Trigger data in a secured manner.
c) Curser
d) None of the Mentioned 3. McFadden has defined normalization in
Answer: b his which book___________:
Explanation: Triggers are used to initiate an a) Database modern management
action to take place. b) Management database of modern
c) Modern database management
8. ______________ requires that data d) Database management
should be made available to only authorized
users. Answer: c
a) Data integrity Explanation: SQL-99 is the most recent
b) Privacy version of standard SQL prescribed by the
c) Security ANSI.
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer: c 4. The database design prevents some data
Explanation: Some algorithms may be used from being represented due to _______
for the security. a) Deletion anomalies
b) Insertion anomalies
9. Some of the utilities of DBMS are c) Update anomaly
_____________ d) None of the mentioned
i) Loading ii) Backup iii) File organization
iv) Process Organization Answer: b
a) i, ii, and iv only Explanation: Insertion anomaly is due to
b) i, ii and iii only confusion in data deletion or insertion.
c) ii, iii and iv only
5. How many types of insertion anomalies:
d) All i, ii, iii, and iv
a) 1
Answer: b
b) 2
Explanation: Processing is not the a utility in
c) 3
dbms.
d) 4
10. ____________ allows individual row Answer: b
operation to be performed on a given result Explanation: Insertion anomaly is due to
set or on the generated by a selected by a confusion in data deletion or insertion.
selected statement.
6. Who developed the normalization
a) Procedure
process:
b) Trigger
a) E.F. codd
c) Curser
b) F.F. codd
d) None of the Mentioned
c) E.E. codd
Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Triggers are used to initiate a
Answer: a
action to take place
Explanation: Normalization helps in
improving the quality of the data.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
7. E.F.Codd developed the normalization d) Recovery
process in the which early: Answer: c
a) 1969 Explanation: Backup is required to take all
b) 1970 the data.
c) 1971
d) 1972 3. Which is duplication of computer
Answer: b operations and routine backups to combat
Explanation: Normalization helps in any unforeseen problems:
improving the quality of the data. a) Concurrency
b) Deadlock
8. Which is a bottom-up approach to c) Backup
database design that design by examining d) Recovery
the relationship between attributes: Answer: d
a) Functional dependency Explanation: Recovery means to take the
b) Database modeling backup data while there is a crash.
c) Normalization
d) Decomposition 4. Optimization that is basically related to
Answer: c the rewriter module is termed
Explanation: Normalization helps in as__________:
improving the quality of the data. a) Semantic query optimization
b) Global query optimization
9. Which is the process of breaking a c) All of the Mentioned
relation into multiple relations: d) None of the Mentioned
a) Functional dependency Answer: a
b) Database modeling Explanation: SQL-99 is the most recent
c) Normalization version of standard SQL prescribed by the
d) Decomposition ANSI.
5. Optimization basically related to the
Answer: d Rewrite module is termed as_______
Explanation: SQL-99 is the most recent a) Semantic query optimization
version of standard SQL prescribed by the b) Global query optimization
ANSI. c) All of the Mentioned
d) None of the Mentioned
10. Which formal method that locates and Answer: a
analyses relation schemas on the basis of Explanation: SQL-99 is the most recent
their primary, candidate keys, and the FD‘s version of standard SQL prescribed by the
that are present among the attributes of these ANSI.
schemas:
a) Functional dependency 6. Database security helps organizations to
b) Database modeling protect data from_____
c) Normalization a) Internal users
d) Decomposition b) External users
Answer: c c) Non-external users
Explanation: Normalization helps in d) Non internal users
improving the quality of the data. Answer: b
Explanation: External users are the people
Querying database part 5 who do not involve in the processing of the
1. Which is refers to a stalemate situation database.
due to which no further progress is possible
as computer await response of each other: 7. Copying files to secondary or specific
a) Concurrency devices is known as______
b) Deadlock a) Retrieve
c) Backup b) Backup
d) Recovery c) Recovery
Answer: b d) Deadlock
Explanation: Deadlock will stop further Answer: b
processing. Explanation: Backup is required to take all
the data.
2. Which is a duplicate copy of a file
program that is stored on a different storage 8. How many types of recovery control
media than the original location: techniques:
a) Concurrency a) 2
b) Deadlock b) 3
c) Backup c) 4

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Recovery means to take the
backup data while there is a crash.
9. Which are types of recovery control
techniques:
a) Deferred update
b) Immediate update
c) All of the Mentioned
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Recovery means to take the
backup data while there is a crash.
10. Which server can joins the indexes when
only multiple indexes combined can cover
the query:
a) SQL
b) DBMS
c) RDBMS
d) All of these
Answer: a
Explanation: Indexing reduces the difficulty
in searching the data.

Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web

Semantics) University of Peshawar

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Computer Organization Questions and b) Processor bus
Answers – Basic Operational Concept c) Memory bus
d) Rambus
1. The decoded instruction is stored in Answer:b
______ . Explanation: The processor BUS is used to
a) IR connect the various parts in order to provide
b) PC a direct connection to the CPU.
c) Registers
d) MDR 8. ______ is used to choose between
Answer:a incrementing the PC or performing ALU
Explanation: The instruction after obtained operations .
from the PC, is decoded and operands are a) Conditional codes
fetched and stored in the IR. b) Multiplexer
c) Control unit
2. The instruction -> Add LOCA,R0 does, d) None of these
a) Adds the value of LOCA to R0 and stores Answer:b
in the temp register Explanation: The multiplexer circuit is used
b) Adds the value of R0 to the address of to choose between the two as it can give
LOCA different results based on the input.
c) Adds the values of both LOCA and R0
and stores it in R0 9. The registers,ALU and the
d) Adds the value of LOCA with a value in interconnection between them are
accumulator and stores it in R0 collectively called as _____ .
Answer:c a) Process route
b) Information trail
3. Which registers can interact with the c) information path
secondary storage ? d) data path
a) MAR
b) PC 10. _______ is used to store data in registers
c) IR .
d) R0 a) D flip flop
Answer:a b) JK flip flop
Explanation: MAR can interact with c) RS flip flop
secondary storage in order to fetch data from d) none of these
it. Answer:a

4. During the execution of a program which

Performance of a System
gets initialized first ?
a) MDR 1. During the execution of the instructions, a
b) IR copy of the instructions is placed in the
c) PC ______ .
d) MAR a) Register
Answer:c b) RAM
Explanation: For the execution of a process c) System heap
first the instruction is placed in the PC. d) Cache
5. Which of the register/s of the processor Answer:d
is/are connected to Memory Bus ? 2. Two processors A and B have clock
a) PC frequencies of 700 Mhz and 900 Mhz
b) MAR respectively. Suppose A can execute an
c) IR instruction with an average of 3 steps and B
d) Both a and b can execute with an average of 5 steps. For
Answer:b the execution of the same instruction which
Explanation: MAR is connected to the processor is faster ?
memory BUS in order to access the memory a) A
6. ISP stands for, b) B
a) Instruction Set Processor C) Both take the same time
b) Information Standard Processing d) Insuffient information
c) Interchange Standard Protocol Answer:a
d) Interrupt Service Procedure Explanation: The performance of a system
Answer:a can be found out using the Basic
performance formula.
7. The internal Components of the processor
are connected by _______ . 3. A processor performing fetch or decoding
a) Processor intra-connectivity circuitry of different instruction during the execution

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
of another instruction is called ______ . c) System Performance Evaluation
a) Super-scaling Corporation.
b) Pipe-lining d) Standard Processing Enhancement
c) Parallel Computation Corporation.
d) None of these Answer:c
Answer:b Explanation: SPEC is a corporation started
Explanation: Pipe-lining is the process of to standardize the evaluation method of a
improving the performance of the system by systems performance.
processing different instructions at the same
9. As of 2000, the reference system to find
time, with only one instruction performing
the performance of a system is _____ .
one specific operation.
a) Ultra SPARC 10
4. For a given FINITE number of b) SUN SPARC
instructions to be executed, which c) SUN II
architecture of the processor provides for a d) None of these
faster execution ? Answer:a
a) ISA Explanation: In SPEC system of measuring
b) ANSA a systems performance , a system is used as
c) Super-scalar a reference against which other systems are
d) All of the above compared and performance is determined.
Answer:c
10. When Performing a looping operation,
Explanation: In super-scalar architecture, the
the instruction gets stored in the ______ .
instructions are set in groups and they‘re
a) Registers
decoded and executed together reducing the
b) Cache
amount of time required to process them.
c) System Heap
5. The clock rate of the processor can be d) System stack
improved by, Answer:b
a) Improving the IC technology of the logic Explanation: When a looping or branching
circuits operation is carried out the offset value is
b) Reducing the amount of processing done stored in the cache along with the data.
in one step
11. The average number of steps taken to
c) By using overclocking method
execute the set of instructions can be made
d) All of the above
to be less than one by following _______ .
Answer:d
a) ISA
Explanation: The clock rate(frequency of the
b) Pipe-lining
processor) is the hardware dependent
c) Super-scaling
quantity it is fixed for a given processor.
d) Sequential
6. An optimizing Compiler does, Answer:c
a) Better compilation of the given piece of Explanation: The number of steps required
code. to execute a given set of instructions is
b) Takes advantage of the type of processor sufficiently reduced by using super-scaling.
and reduces its process time. In this method a set of instructions are
c) Does better memory managament. grouped together and are processed.
d) Both a and c
12. If a processor clock is rated as 1250
Answer:b
million cycles per second, then its clock
Explanation: An optimizing compiler is a
period is ________ .
compiler designed for the specific purpose
a) 1.9 * 10 ^ -10 sec
of increasing the operation speed of the
b) 1.6 * 10 ^ -9 sec
processor by reducing the time taken to
c) 1.25 * 10 ^ -10 sec
compile the program instructions.
d) 8 * 10 ^ -10 sec
7. The ultimate goal of a compiler is to, Answer:d
a) Reduce the clock cycles for a
13. If the instruction, Add R1,R2,R3 is
programming task.
executed in a system which is pipe-lined,
b) Reduce the size of the object code.
then the value of S is (Where S is term of
c) Be versatile.
the Basic performance equation)
d) Be able to detect even the smallest of
a) 3
errors.
b) ~2
Answer:a
C) ~1
8. SPEC stands for, d) 6
a) Standard Performance Evaluation Code. Answer:c
b) System Processing Enhancing Code.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: S is the number of steps 4. IBM developed a bus standard for their
required to execute the instructions. line of computers ‗PC AT‘ called _____ .
a) IB bus
14. CISC stands for,
b) M-bus
a) Complete Instruction Sequential
c) ISA
Compilation
d) None of these
b) Computer Integrated Sequential Compiler
Answer:c
c) Complex Instruction Set Computer
d) Complex Instruction Sequential 5. The bus used to connect the monitor to
Compilation the CPU is ______ .
Answer:c a) PCI bus
Explanation: CISC is a type of system b) SCSI bus
architecture where complex instructions are c) Memory bus
grouped together and executed to improve d) Rambus
the system performance.
15. As of 2000, the reference system to find Answer:b
the SPEC rating are built with _____ Explanation: SCSI BUS is usually used to
Processor . connect the video devices to the processor.
a) Intel Atom SParc 300Mhz 6. ANSI stands for,
b) Ultra SPARC -IIi 300MHZ a) American National Standards Institute
c) Amd Neutrino series b) American National Standard Interface
d) ASUS A series 450 Mhz c) American Network Standard Interfacing
Answer:b d) American Network Security Interrupt
Answer:a
BUS Structure 7. _____ register Connected to the Processor
bus is a single-way transfer capable .
1. The main virtue for using single Bus a) PC
structure is , b) IR
a) Fast data transfers c) Temp
b) Cost effective connectivity and speed d) Z
c) Cost effective connectivity and ease of
attaching peripheral devices Answer:d
d) None of these Explanation: The Z register is a special
register which can interact with the
Answer:c processor BUS only.
Explanation: By using single BUS structure 8. In multiple Bus organisation, the registers
we can minimize the amount hardware are collectively placed and referred as
(wire) required and thereby reducing the ______ .
cost. a) Set registers
2. ______ are used to over come the b) Register file
difference in data transfer speeds of various c) Register Block
devices . d) Map registers
a) Speed enhancing circuitory Answer:b
b) Bridge circuits
c) Multiple Buses 9. The main advantage of multiple bus
d) Buffer registers organisation over single bus is,
Answer:d a) Reduction in the number of cycles for
Explanation: By using Buffer registers, the execution
processor sends the data to the I/O device at b) Increase in size of the registers
the processor speed and the data gets stored c) Better Connectivity
in the buffer.After that the data gets sent to d) None of these
or from the buffer to the devices at the Answer:a
device speed.
10. The ISA standard Buses are used to
3. To extend the connectivity of the connect,
processor bus we use ______ . a) RAM and processor
a) PCI bus b) GPU and processor
b) SCSI bus c) Harddisk and Processor
c) Controllers d) CD/DVD drives and Processor
d) Multiple bus Answer:c
Answer:a
Explanation: PCI BUS is used to connect
other peripheral devices which require a
direct connection with the processor.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Addressing Modes 7. When we use auto increment or auto
decrement, which of the following is/are
1. The instruction, Add #45,R1 does, true
a) Adds the value of 45 to the address of R1 1) In both, the address is used to retrieve the
and stores 45 in that address operand and then the address gets altered.
b) Adds 45 to the value of R1 and stores it in 2) In auto increment the operand is retrieved
R1 first and then the address altered.
c) Finds the memory location 45 and adds 3) Both of them can be used on general
that content to that of R1 purpose registers as well as memory
d) None of the above locations.
Answer:b
Explanation: The instruction is using a) 1,2,3
immediate addressing mode hence the value b) 2
is stored in the location 45 is added. c) 1,3
d) 2,3
2. In case of, Zero-address instruction
method the operands are stored in _____ . Answer:d
a) Registers Explanation: In case of, auto increment the
b) Accumulators increment is done afterwards and in auto
c) Push down stack decrement the decrement is done first.
d) Cache 8. The addressing mode, where you directly
Answer:c specify the operand value is _______ .
Explanation: In this case the operands are a) Immediate
implicitly loaded onto the ALU. b) Direct
c) Definite
3. Add #45, when this instruction is d) Relative
executed the following happen/s, Answer:a
a) The processor raises an error and requests
for one more operand
b) The value stored in memory location 45 is 9. The effective address of the following
retrieved and one more operand is requested instruction is , MUL 5(R1,R2)
c) The value 45 gets added to the value on a) 5+R1+R2
the stack and is pushed onto the stack b) 5+(R1*R2)
d) None of these c) 5+[R1]+[R2] d) 5*([R1]+[R2])
Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation: The addressing mode used is
base with offset and index.
4. The addressing mode which makes use of
in-direction pointers is ______ . 10. _____ addressing mode is most suitable
a) Indirect addressing mode to change the normal sequence of execution
b) Index addressing mode of instructions .
c) Relative addressing mode a) Relative
d) Offset addressing mode b) Indirect
Answer:a c) Index with Offset
Explanation: In this addressing mode, the d) Immediate
value of the register serves as another Answer:a
memory location and hence we use pointers Explanation: The relative addressing mode
to get the data. is used for this since it directly updates the
PC
5. In the following indexed addressing mode
instruction, MOV 5(R1),LOC the effective
Numbers and Arithmetic Operations
address is ______ .
a) EA = 5+R1 1. Which method/s of representation of
b) EA = R1 numbers occupies large amount of memory
c) EA = [R1] d) EA = 5+[R1] than others ?
6. The addressing mode/s, which uses the a) Sign-magnitude
PC instead of a general purpose register is b) 1‘s compliment
______ . c) 2‘s compliment
a) Indexed with offset d) Both a and b
b) Relative Answer:a
c) direct Explanation: It takes more memory as one
d) both a and c bit used up to store the sign.
Answer:b 2. Which representation is most efficient to
Explanation: In this the contents of the PC perform arithmetic operations on the
are directly incremented.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
numbers ? if there is a overflow or carry or zero result
a) Sign-magnitude occurrence.
b) 1‘s compliment
8. The register used to store the flags is
c) 2‘S compliment
called as ______ .
d) None of the above
a) Flag register
Answer:c
b) Status register
Explanation: The two‘s compliment form is
c) Test register
more suitable to perform arithmetic
d) Log register
operations as there is no need to involve the
Answer:b
sign of the number into consideration.
Explanation: The status register stores the
3. Which method of representation has two condition codes of the system.
representations for ‗0‘ ?
9. The Flag ‗V‘ is set to 1 indicates that,
a) Sign-magnitude
a) The operation is valid
b) 1‘s compliment
b) The operation is validated
c) 2‘s compliment
c) The operation as resulted in an overflow
d) None of the above
d) Both a and c
Answer:a
Answer:c
Explanation: One is positive and one for
Explanation: This is used to check the
negative.
overflow occurrence in the operation.
4. When we perform subtraction on -7 and 1
10. In some pipelined systems, a different
the answer in 2‘s compliment form is _____
instruction is used to add to numbers which
.
can affect the flags upon execution. That
a) 1010
instruction is _______ .
b) 1110
a) AddSetCC
c) 0110
b) AddCC
d) 1000
c) Add++
Answer:d
d) SumSetCC
Explanation: First the 2‘s compliment is
Answer:a
found and that is added to the number and
Explanation: By using this instruction the
the overflow is ignored.
condition flags wont be affected at all.
5. When we perform subtraction on -7 and -
11. The most efficient method followed by
5 the answer in 2‘s compliment form is
computers to multiply two unsigned
_____ .
numbers is _______ .
a) 11110
a) Booth algorithm
b) 1110
b) Bit pair recording of multipliers
c) 1010
c) Restoring algorithm
d) 0010
d) Non restoring algorithm
Answer:b
Answer:b
Explanation: First the 2‘s compliment is
found and that is added to the number and 12. For the addition of large integers most of
the overflow is ignored. the systems make use of ______ .
a) Fast adders
6. When we subtract -3 from 2 , the answer
b) Full adders
in 2‘s compliment form is _______ .
c) Carry look-ahead adders
a) 0001
d) None of the above
b) 1101
Answer:c
c) 0101
Explanation: In this method the carries for
d) 1001
each step are generated first.
Answer:c
Explanation: First the 2‘s compliment is 13. In a normal n-bit adder , to find out if an
found and that is added to the number and overflow as occured we make use of _____ .
the overflow is ignored. a) And gate
b) Nand gate
7. The processor keeps track of the results of
c) Nor gate
its operations using a flags called _____ .
d) Xor gate
a) Conditional code flags
Answer:d
b) Test output flags
c) Type flags
d) None of the above 14. In the implementation of a Multiplier
Answer:a circuit in the system we make use of
Explanation: These flags are used to indicate _______ .
a) Counter

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) Flip flop b) Big Endian
c) Shift register c) Medium Endian
d) Push down stack d) None of the above
Answer:c Answer:a
Explanation: The shift registers are used to Explanation: The method of address
store the multiplied answer. allocation to data to be stored is called as
memory assignment.
15. When 1101 is used to divide 100010010
the remainder is ______ . 6. When using the Big Endian assignment to
a) 101 store a number, the sign bit of the number is
b) 11 stored in _____ .
c) 0 a) The higher order byte of the word
d) 1 b) The lower order byte of the word
Answer:d c) Can‘t say
d) None of the above
Memory Locations and Addresses Answer:a

This set of Computer Organization and 7. To get the physical address from the
Architecture MCQ focuses on ―Memory logical address generated by CPU we use
locations and Addresses‖. ____ .
1. The smallest entity of memory is called as a) MAR
_______ . b) MMU
a) Cell c) Overlays
b) Block d) TLB
c) Instance
d) Unit
Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: Each data is made up of a Explanation: Memory Management Unit, is
number units. used to add the offset to the logical address
generated by the CPU to get the physical
2. The collection of the above mentioned address.
entities where data is stored is called as 8. _____ method is used to map logical
______ . addresses of variable length onto physical
a) Block memory.
B) Set a) Paging
c) Word b) Overlays
d) Byte c) Segmentation
Answer:c d) Paging with segmentation
Explanation: Each readable part of data is
called as blocks.
9. During transfer of data between the
3. An 24 bit address generates an address processor and memory we use ______ .
space of ______ locations . a) Cache
a) 1024 b) TLB
b) 4096 C) Buffers
c) 2 ^ 48 d) Registers
d) 16,777,216 Answer:d
Answer:d
Explanation: The number of addressable 10. Physical memory is divided into sets of
locations in the system is called as address finite size called as ______ .
space. a) Frames
b) Pages
4. If a system is 64 bit machine , then the c) Blocks
length of each word will be ____ . d) Vectors
a) 4 bytes Answer:a
b) 8 bytes Explanation: Non
c) 16 bytes
d) 12 bytes
Answer:b Memory Operations and Management
Explanation: A 64 bit system means, that at
1. Add #%01011101,R1 , when this
a time 64 bit instruction can be executed.
instruction is executed then,
5. The type of memory assignment used in a) The binary addition between the operands
Intel processors is _____ . takes place
a) Little Endian b) The Numerical value represented by the

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
binary value is added to the value of R1 7. Complete the following analogy :-
c) The addition doesn‘t take place , whereas Registers are to RAM‘s as Cache‘s are to
this is similar to a MOV instruction _____ .
d) None of the above a) System stacks
Answer:a b) Overlays
Explanation: This performs operations in c) Page Table
binary mode directly. d) TLB
Answer:d
2. If we want to perform memory or
arithmetic operations on data in Hexa- 8. The BOOT sector files of the system are
decimal mode then we use ___ symbol stored in _____ .
before the operand . a) Harddisk
a) ~ b) ROM
b) ! c) RAM
c) $ d) Fast solid state chips in the motherboard
d) *
Answer:c
Answer:b
3. When generating physical addresses from Explanation: The files which are required
logical address the offset is stored in _____ . for the starting up of a system are stored on
a) Translation look-aside buffer the ROM.
b) Relocation register 9. The transfer of large chunks of data with
c) Page table the involvement of the processor is done by
d) Shift register _______ .
Answer:b a) DMA controller
Explanation: In the MMU the relocation b) Arbitrator
register stores the offset address. c) User system programs
d) None of the above
4. The technique used to store programs
Answer:a
larger than the memory is ______ .
Explanation: This mode of transfer involves
a) Overlays
the transfer of a large block of data from the
b) Extension registers
memory.
c) Buffers
d) Both b and c 10. Which of the following technique/s used
Answer:a to effectively utilize main memory ?
Explanation: In this, only a part of the a) Address binding
program getting executed is stored on the b) Dynamic linking
memory and later swapped in for the other c) Dynamic loading
part. d) Both b and c
Answer:c
5. The unit which acts as an intermediate
Explanation: In this method only when the
agent between memory and backing store to
routine is required is loaded and hence saves
reduce process time is _____ .
memory.
a) TLB‘s
b) Registers
c) Page tables Instructions and Instruction Sequencing
d) Cache
Answer:d 1. RTN stands for,
Explanation: The cache‘s help in data a) Register Transfer Notation
transfers by storing most recently used b) Register Transmission Notation
memory pages. c) Regular Transmission Notation
d) Regular Transfer Notation
6. The Load instruction does the following Answer:a
operation/s, Explanation: This is the way of writing the
a) Loads the contents of a disc onto a assembly language code with the help of
memory location register notations.
b) Loads the contents of a location onto the
accumulators 2. The instruction, Add Loc,R1 in RTN is
c) Load the contents of the PCB onto the _______ .
register a) AddSetCC Loc+R1
d) Both a and c b) R1=Loc+R1
Answer:b c) Not possible to write in RTN
Explanation: The load instruction is d) R1<-[Loc]+[R1] [expand title=""]
basically used to load the contents of a Answer:d [/expand]
memory location onto a register.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
3. Can you perform addition on three c) TestCondn
operands simultaneously in ALN using Add d) None of the above
instruction ? Answer:b
a) Yes Explanation: Branch instruction is used to
b) Not possible using Add, we‘ve to use check the test condition and to perform the
AddSetCC memory jump with help of offset.
c) Not permitted
9. When using Branching, the usual
d) None of the above
sequencing of the PC is altered. A new
Answer:c
instruction is loaded which is called as
Explanation: You cannot perform addition
______ .
on three operands simultaneously because
a) Branch target
the third operand is where the result is
b) Loop target
stored.
c) Forward target
4. The instruction, Add R1,R2,R3 in RTN is d) Jump instruction
_______ . Answer:a
a) R3=R1+R2+R3
b) R3<-[R1]+[R2]+[R3] c) R3=[R1]+[R2]
10. The condition flag Z is set to 1 to
d) R3<-[R1]+[R2] [expand title=""]
indicate,
Answer:d Explanation: In RTN the first
a) The operation has resulted in an error
operand is the destination and the second
b) The operation requires an interrupt call
operand is the source. [/expand]
c) The result is zero
5. In a system, which has 32 registers the d) There is no empty register available
register id is ____ long . Answer:c
a) 16 bits Explanation: This condition flag is used to
b) 8 bits check if the arithmetic operation yields a
c) 5 bits zero output.
d) 6 bits
Answer:c Assembly Language
Explanation: The ID is the name tag given to
each of the registers and used to identify 1. ____ converts the programs written in
them. assembly language into machine instructions
6. The two phases of executing an .
instruction are, a) Machine compiler
a) Instruction decoding and storage b) Interpreter
b) Instruction fetch and instruction c) Assembler
execution d) Converter
c) Instruction execution and storage Answer:c
d) Instruction fetch and Instruction Explanation: The assembler is a software
processing used to convert the programs into machine
Answer:b instructions.
Explanation: First, the instructions are 2. The instructions like MOV or ADD are
fetched and decoded and then they‘re called as ______ .
executed and stored. a) OP-Code
7. The Instruction fetch phase ends with, b) Operators
a) Placing the data from the address in MAR c) Commands
into MDR d) None of the above
b) Placing the address of the data into MAR Answer:a
c) Completing the execution of the data and Explanation: This OP – codes tell the system
placing its storage address into MAR what operation to perform on the operands.
d) Decoding the data in MDR and placing it 3. The alternate way of writing the
in IR instruction, ADD #5,R1 is ______ .
Answer:d a) ADD [5],[R1];
Explanation: The fetch ends with the b) ADDI 5,R1;
instruction getting decoded and being placed c) ADDIME 5,[R1];
in the IR and the PC getting incremented. d) There is no other way
8. While using the iterative construct Answer:b
(Branching) in execution, ____ instruction is Explanation: The ADDI instruction, means
used to check the condition . the addition is in immediate addressing
a) TestAndSet mode.
b) Branch

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
4. Instructions which wont appear in the d) Terminate
object program are called as _____ . Answer:b
a) Redundant instructions Explanation: This instruction directive is
b) Exceptions used to terminate the program execution.
c) Comments
10. The last statement of the source program
d) Assembler Directives
should be _______ .
Answer:d
a) Stop
Explanation: The directives help the
b) Return
program in getting compiled and hence wont
c) OP
be there in the object code.
d) End
5. The assembler directive EQU, when used
in the instruction : Sum EQU 200 does,
Answer:d
a) Finds the first occurrence of Sum and
Explanation: This enables the processor to
assigns value 200 to it
load some other process.
b) Replaces every occurrence of Sum with
11. When dealing with the branching code
200
the assembler,
c) Re-assigns the address of Sum by adding
a) Replaces the target with its address
200 to its original address
b) Does not replace until the test condition is
d) Assigns 200 bytes of memory starting the
satisfied
location of Sum
c) Finds the Branch offset and replaces the
Answer:b
Branch target with it
Explanation: This basically is used to
d) Replaces the target with the value
replace the variable with a constant value.
specified by the DATAWORD directive
6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is, Answer:c
a) To indicate the starting position in Explanation: When the assembler comes
memory, where the program block is to be across the branch code, it immediately finds
stored the branch offset and replaces it with it.
b) To indicate the starting of the
12. The assembler stores all the names and
computation code
their corresponding values in ______ .
c) To indicate the purpose of the code
a) Special purpose Register
d) To list the locations of all the registers
b) Symbol Table
used
c) Value map Set
Answer:a
d) None of the above
Explanation: This does the function similar
Answer:b
to the main statement.
Explanation: The table where the assembler
7. The directive used to perform stores the variable names along with their
initialization before the execution of the corresponding memory locations and values.
code is ______ .
13. The assembler stores the object code in
a) Reserve
______ .
b) Store
a) Main memory
c) Dataword
b) Cache
d) EQU
c) RAM
Answer:c
d) Magnetic disk
Answer:d
8. _____ directive is used to specify and Explanation: After compiling the object
assign the memory required for the block of code, the assembler stores it in the magnetic
code . disk and waits for further execution.
a) Allocate
14. The utility program used to bring the
b) Assign
object code into memory for execution is
c) Set
______.
d) Reserve
a) Loader
Answer:d
b) Fetcher
Explanation: This instruction is used to
c) Extractor
allocate a block of memory and to store the
d) Linker
object code of the program there.
Answer:a
9. _____ directive specifies the end of Explanation: The program which is used to
execution of a program . load the program into memory.
a) End
15. To overcome the problems of the
b) Return
assembler in dealing with branching code
c) Stop
we use _____ .

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Interpreter a) MAR
b) Debugger b) MDR
c) Op-Assembler c) Buffers
d) Two-pass assembler d) Stack-pointers
Answer:d
Explanation: This creates entries into the
Answer:d
symbol table first and then creates the object
Explanation: The pointers are used to point
code.
to the location on the stack where the
address is stored.
Subroutines and Nesting 7. When, parameters are being passed on to
the subroutines they are stored in ________ .
1. The return address of the Sub-routine is a) Registers
pointed to by _______ . b) Memory locations
a) IR c) Processor stacks
b) PC d) All of the above
c) MAR Answer:d
d) Special memory registers Explanation: In case of, parameter passing
Answer:b the data can be stored on any of the storage
Explanation: The return address from the space.
sub routine is pointed to by the PC.
8. The most efficient way of handling
2. The location to return to, from the parameter passing is by using ______ .
subroutine is stored in _______ . a) General purpose registers
a) TLB b) Stacks
b) PC c) Memory locations
c) MAR d) None of the above
d) Link registers Answer:a
Answer:d Explanation: By using general purpose
Explanation: The registers store the return registers for the parameter passing we make
address of the routine and is pointed to by the process more efficient.
the PC.
9. The most Flexible way of logging the
3. Subroutine nesting means, return addresses of the sub routines is by
a) Having multiple subroutines in a program using _______ .
b) Using a linking nest statement to put a) Registers
many sub routines under the same name b) Stacks
c) Having one routine call the other c) Memory locations
d) None of the above d) None of the above
Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation: The stacks are used as Logs for
4. The order in which the return addresses return addresses of the sub routines.
are generated and used is ____ . 10. The wrong statement/s regarding
a) LIFO interrupts and subroutines among the
b) FIFO following is/are ______ .
c) Random i) The sub-routine and interrupts have a
d) Highest priority return statement
Answer:a ii) Both of them alter the content of the PC
Explanation: That is the routine called first iii) Both are software oriented
is returned first. iv) Both can be initiated by the user
5. In case of nested subroutines the return a) i,ii and iv
addresses are stored in __________ . b) ii and iii
a) System heap c) iv
b) Special memory buffers d) iii and iv
c) Processor stack Answer:d
d) Registers
Answer:c Parameter Passing and Stack Frame
Explanation: In this case, there will be more 1. The private work space dedicated to a
number of return addresses it is stored on the subroutine is called as ________ .
processor stack. a) System heap
6. The appropriate return addresses is b) Reserve
obtained by the help of ____ in case of c) Stack frame
nested routines . d) Allocation

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:c b) The saved contents of the calling sub
Explanation: This work space is where the routine
intermediate values of the sub routines is c) The return addresses of the called sub
stored. routine
d) None of the above
2. If, the sub routine exceeds the private
Answer:a
space allocated to it then the values are
pushed onto _________ . 8. The stack frame for each sub routine is
a) Stack present in ______ .
b) System heap a) Main memory
c) Reserve Space b) System Heap
d) Stack frame c) Processor Stack
Answer:a d) None of the above
Explanation: If the allocated work space is
Answer:c
exceeded then the data is pushed onto the
Explanation: The memory for the work
system stack.
space is allocated from the processor stack.
3. ______ pointer is used to point to 9. The data structure suitable for scheduling
parameters passed or local parameters of the processes is _______ .
sub routine . a) List
a) Stack pointer b) Heap
b) Frame pointer c) Queue
c) Parameter register d) Stack
d) Log register Answer:c
Answer:b Explanation: The Queue data structure is
Explanation: This pointer is used to track the generally used for scheduling as it is two
current position of the stack being used. directional.
4. The reserved memory or private space of 10. The sub-routine service procedure, is
the sub routine, gets deallocated when, similar to that of the interrupt service routine
a) The stop instruction is executed by the in ________ .
routine a) Method of context switch
b) The pointer reaches the end of the space b) Returning
c) When the routine‘s return statement is c) Process execution
executed d) Both a and c
d) Both a and c Answer:d
Answer:c Explanation: The Sub routine service
Explanation: The work space allocated to a procedure is same as the interrupt service
sub routine gets de allocated when the routine in all aspects, except the fact that
routine is completed. interrupt might not be related to the process
being executed
5. The private space gets allocated to each
sub routine when,
a) The first statement of the routine is Accessing I/O Devices
executed
b) When the context switch takes place This set of Computer Organisation and
c) When the routine gets called Architecture MCQ focuses on ―Accessing
d) When the Allocate instruction is executed I/O Devices‖.
Answer:c
1. In memory-mapped I/O…
Explanation: When the call statement is
a) The I/O devices and the memory share the
executed, simultaneously the space also gets
same address space
allocated.
b) The I/O devices have a seperate address
6. _____ the most suitable data structure space
used to store the return addresses in case of c) The memory and I/O devices have an
nested sub routines . associated address space
a) Heap d) A part of the memory is specifically set
b) Stack aside for the I/O operation
c) Queue Answer:a
d) List Explanation: Its the different modes of
Answer:b accessing the i/o devices.
7. In case of nested sub routines the stack 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect
top is always, the I/O devices is
a) The saved contents of the called sub a) Star BUS structure
routine b) Multiple BUS structure

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Single BUS structure Explanation: In this method the processor
d) Node to Node BUS structure constantly checks the status flags , and when
it finds that the flag is set it performs the
appropriate operation.
Answer:c
Explanation: BUS is a collection of 8. The method of synchronising the
address,control and data lines used to processor with the I/O device in which the
connect the various devices of the computer. device sends a signal when it is ready is
a) Exceptions
3. In intel‘s IA-32 architecture there is a b) Signal handling
seperate 16 bit address space for the I/O c) Interrupts
devices..?? d) DMA
a) False Answer:c
b) True Explanation: This is a method of accessing
Answer:b the I/O devices which gives the complete
Explanation: This type of accessing is called power to the devices, enabling them to
as I/O mapped devices. intimate the processor when they‘re ready
4. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to for transfer.
memory mapped is 9. The method which offers higher speeds of
a) The former offers faster transfer of data I/O transfers is
b) The devices connected using I/O mapping a) Interrupts
have a bigger buffer space b) Memory mapping
c) The devices have to deal with fewer c) Program-controlled I/O
address lines d) DMA
d) No advantage as such Answer:d
Answer:c Explanation: In DMA the I/O devices are
Explanation: Since the I/O mapped devices directly allowed to interact with the memory
have a seperate address space the address with out the intervention of the processor
lines are limited by amount of the space and the transfres take place in the form of
allocated. blocks increasing the speed of operaion.
5. The system is notified of a read or write 10. The process where in the processor
operation by constantly checks the status flags is called as
a) Appending an extra bit of the address a) Polling
b) Enabling the read or write bits of the b) Inspection
devices c) Reviewing
c) Raising an appropriate interrupt signal d) Echoing
d) sending a special signal along the BUS Answer:a
Answer:d
Explanation: It is necessary for the processor
to send a signal intimating the request as Interrupts
either read or write.
This set of Computer Organisation and
6. To overcome the lag in the operating Architecture MCQ focuses on ―Interrupts‖.
speeds of the I/O device and the processor
we use 1. The interrupt-request line is a part of the
a) BUffer spaces a) Data line
b) Status flags b) Control line
c) Interrupt signals c) Address line
d) Exceptions d) None
Answer:b Answer:b
Explanattion: The processor operating is Explanation: The Interrupt-request line is a
much faster than that of the I/O devices , so control line along which the device is
by using the status flags the processor need allowed to send the interrupt signal.
not wait till the I/O operation is done. It can 2. The return address from the interrupt-
continue with its work until the status flag is service routine is stored on the
set. a) System heap
7. The method of accessing the I/O devices b) Processor register
by repeatedly checking the status flags is c) Processor stack
a) Program-controlled I/O d) Memory
b) Memory-mapped I/O Answer:c
c) I/O mapped Explanation: The Processor after servicing
d) None the interrupts as to load the address of the
Answer:a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
previous process and this address is stored in c) ii,iii
the stack. d) ii,iv
Answer:a
3. The signal sent to the device from the
processor to the device after recieving an 9. The resistor which is attached to the
interrupt is service line is called _____
a) Interrupt-acknowledge a) Push-down resistor
b) Return signal b) Pull-up resistor
c) Service signal c) Break down resistor
d) Permission signal d) Line resistor
Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: The Processor upon recieving Explanation: This resistor is used to pull up
the interrupt should let the device know that the voltage of the interrupt service line.
its request is received.
10. An interrupt that can be temporarily
4. When the process is returned after an ignored is
interrupt service ______ should be loaded a) Vectored interrupt
again b) Non-maskable interrupt
i) Register contents c) Maskable interrupt
ii) Condition codes d) High priority interrupt
iii) Stack contents Answer:c
iv) Return addresses Explanation: The maskable interrupts are
a) i,iv usually low priority interrupts which can be
b) ii,iii and iv ignored if an higher priority process is being
c) iii,iv executed.
d) i,ii
11. The 8085 microprocessor respond to the
Answer:d
presence of an interrupt
5. The time between the recieval of an a) As soon as the trap pin becomes ‗LOW‘
interrupt and its service is ______ b) By checking the trap pin for ‗high‘ status
a) Interrupt delay at the end of each instruction fetch
b) Interrupt latency c) By checking the trap pin for ‗high‘ status
c) Cycle time at the end of execution of each instruction
d) Switching time d) By checking the trap pin for ‗high‘ status
Answer:b at regular intervals
Explanation: The delay in servicing of an Answer:c
interrupt happens due to the time taken for Explanation: The 8085 microprocessor are
contect switch to take place. designed to complete the execution of the
current instruction and then to service the
6. Interrupts form an important part of
interrupts.
_____ systems
a) Batch processing 12. CPU as two modes privileged and non-
b) Multitasking privileged. In order to change the mode from
c) Real-time processing privileged to non-privileged
d) Multi-user a) A hardware interrupt is needed
Answer:c b) A software interrupt is needed
Explanation: This forms an imporatant part c) Either a or b
of the Real time system since if a process d) A non-privileged instruction (which does
arrives with greater priority then it raises an not generate an interrupt)is needed
interrupt and the other process is stopped Answer:b
and the interrupt will be serviced. Explanation: A software interrupt by some
program which needs some cPU service, at
7. A single Interrupt line can be used to
that time the two modes can be
service n different devices
interchanged.
a) True
b) False 13. Which interrupt is unmaskable…??
Answer:a a) RST 5.5
b) RST 7.5
8. ______ type circuits are generally used
c) TRAP
for interrupt service lines
d) Both a and b
i) open-collector
Answer:c
ii) open-drain
Explanation: The trap is a non-maskable
iii) XOR
interrupt as it deals with the on going
iv) XNOR
process in the processor. THe trap is
a) i,ii
initiated by the process being executed due
b) ii

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
to lack of data required for its d) 4-8 bits
completion.Hence trap is unmaskable. Answer:d
14. From amongst the following given 20. The starting address sent by the device
scenarios determine the right one to justify in vectored interrupt is called as
interrupt mode of data transfer a) Location id
i) Bulk transfer of several kilo-byte b) Interrupt vector
ii) Moderately large data transfer of more c) Service location
than 1kb d) Service id
iii) Short events like mouse action Answer:b
iv) Keyboard inputs
21. The processor indicates to the devices
a) i and ii
that it is ready to recieve interrupts
b) ii
a) By enabling the interrupt request line
c) i,ii and iv
b) By enabling the IRQ bits
d) iv
c) By activating the interrupt acknowledge
Answer:d
line
15. How can the processor ignore other d) Either a or b
interrupts when it is servicing one Answer:c
a) By turning off the interrupt request line Explanation: When the processor activates
b) By disabling the devices from sending the the acknowledge line the devices send their
interrupts interrupts to the processor.
c) BY using edge-triggered request lines
22. We describe a protocol of input device
d) All of the above
communication below:
Answer:d
i) Each device has a distinct address.
16. When dealing with multiple device ii) The BUS controller scans each device in
interrupts , which mechanism is easy to sequence of increasing address value to
implement determine if the entity wishes to
a) Polling method communicate
b) Vectored interrupts iii) The device ready to communicate leaves
c) Interrupt nesting its data in the I/O register
d) None of the above iv) The data is picked up and the controller
Answer:a moves to the step a
Explanation: In this method the processor Identify the form of communication best
checks the IRQ bits of all the devices, which describes the I/O mode amongst the
ever is enabled first that device is serviced. following:
a) Programmed mode of data transfer
17. The interrupt servicing mechanism in
b) DMA
which the reqesting device identifies itself to
c) Interrupt mode
the processor to be serviced is
d) Polling
a) Polling
Answer:d
b) Vectored interrupts
Explanation: In polling the processor checks
c) Interrupt nesting
each of the device if they wish to perform
d) Simultaneous requesting
data transfer and if they do it performs the
Answer:b
particular operation.
23. Which one of the following is true with
18. In vectored interrupts, how does the
regard to a CPU having a single interrupt
device indentify itself to the processor..??
request line and single interrupt grant
a) By sending its device id
line…??
b) By sending the machine code for the
i) Neither vectored nor multiple interrupting
interrupt service routine
devices is possible.
c) By sending the starting address of the
ii) Vectored interrupts is not possible but
service routine
multiple interrupting devices is possible.
d) Either a or c
iii) Vectored interrupts is possible and
Answer:c
multiple interrupting devices is not possible.
Explanation: By sending the starting address
iv) Both vectored and multiple interrupting
of the routine the device ids the routine
devices is possible.
required and thereby identifying itself.
a) iii
19. The code sent by the device in vectored b) i,iv
interrupt is _____ long c) ii,iii
a) upto 16 bits d) iii,iv
b) upto 32 bits Answer:a
c) upto 24 bits

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
24. Which table handle stores the addresses 30. Interrupts initiated by an instruction is
of the interrupt handling sub-routines called as
a) Interrupt-vector table a) Internal
b) Vector table b) External
c) Symbol link table c) Hardware
d) None of these d) Software
Answer:a Answer:b
25. _________ method is used to establish
priority by serially connecting all devices Exceptions
that request an interrupt.
a) Vectored-interrupting 1. If during the execution of an instruction
b) Daisy chain an exception is raised then
c) Priority a) The instruction is executed and the
d) Polling exception is handled
Answer:b b) The instruction is halted and the
Explanation: In Daisy chain mechanism, all exception is handled
the devices are connected using a single c) The processor completes the execution
request line and they‘re serviced based on and saves the data and then handle the
the interrupting device‘s priority. exception
d) None of the above
26. In daisy chaining device 0 will pass the Answer:b
signal only if it has.. Explanation: Since the interrupt was raised
a) Interrupt request during the exevution of the instruction, the
b) No interrupt request instruction cannot be executed and the
c) Both a and b exception is servied immediately.
d) None of the above
Answer:b 2. _____ is/are types of exceptions.
Explanation: In daisy chaining since there is a) Trap
only one request line and only one b) interrupt
acknowledge line, the acknowledge signal c) System calls
passes from device to device until the one d) All of the above
with the interrupt is found. Answer:d

27. ______ interrupt method uses register 3. The program used to find out errors is
whose bits are set seperatedly by interrupt called
signal for each device: a) Debugger
a) Parallel priority interrupt b) Compiler
b) Serial priority interrupt c) Assembler
c) Daisy chaining d) Scanner
d) None of the above Answer:a
Answer:a Explanation: Debugger is a program used to
detect and correct errors in the program.
28. ____ register is used for the purpose of
controlling the status of each interrupt 4. The two facilities provided by the
request in parallel priority interrupt debugger is
a) Mass a) Trace points
b) Mark b) Break points
c) Make c) Compile
d) Mask d) Both a and b
Answer:d Answer:d
Explanation: The debugger provides us with
29. The anded output of the bits of the the two facilities to improve the checking of
interrupt register and the mask register are errors.
set as input of:
a) Priority decoder 5. In trace mode of operation,
b) Priority encoder a) The program is interrupted after each
c) Process id encoder detection
d) Multiplexer b) The program will not be stopped and the
Answer:b errors are sorted out after the complete
Explanation: In a parallel priority system, program is scanned
the priority of the device is obtained by c) There is no effect on the program, i.e the
anding the contents of the interrupt register program is executed without rectification of
and the mask register. errors
d) The program is alted only at specific
points

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:a the execution of a new process
Explanation: In trace mode the program is d) The system switches mode and runs the
checked line by line and if errors are debugger
detected then exceptions are raised right Answer:a
away.
6. In Breakpoint mode of operation, Direct Memory Access
a) The program is interrupted after each
detection 1. The DMA differs from the interrupt mode
b) The program will not be stopped and the by
errors are sorted out after the complete a) The involvement of the processor for the
program is scanned operation
c) There is no effect on the program, i.e the b) The method accessing the I/O devices
program is executed without rectification of c) The amount of data transfer possible
errors d) Both a and c
d) The program is alted only at specific
points Answer:d
Answer:d Explanation: DMA is an approcah of
Explanation: The Breakpoint mode of performing data transfers in bulk between
operation allows the program to be alted at memory and the external device without the
only specific locations. intervention of the processor.
7. The different modes of operation of a
2. The DMA transfers are performed by a
computer is
control circuit called as
a) User and System mode
a) Device interface
b) User and Supervisor mode
b) DMA controller
c) Supervisor and Trace mode
c) Data controller
d) Supervisor,User and Trace mode
d) Overlooker
Answer:b
Answer:b
Explanation: The user programs are in the
Explanation: The Controller performs the
user mode and the system crucial programs
functions that would normally be carried out
are in the supervisor mode.
by the processor.
8. The instructions which can be run only
3. In DMA transfers, the required signals
supervisor mode are
and addresses are given by the
a) Non-privileged instructions
a) Processor
b) System instructions
b) Device drivers
c) Privileged instructions
c) DMA controllers
d) Exception instructions
d) The program itself
Answer:c
Answer:c Explanation: The DMA controller acts like a
Explanation: These instructions are those processor for DMA transfers and overlooks
which can are crucial for the systems the entire process.
performance and hence cannot be adultered
4. After the complition of the DMA transfer
by user programs, so is run only in
the processor is notified by
supervisor mode.
a) Acknowledge signal
9. A privilege exception is raised, b) Interrupt signal
a) When a process tries to change the mode c) WMFC signal
of the system d) None of the above
b) When a process tries to change the piority Answer:b
level of the other processes Explanation: The controller raises an
c) When a process tries to access the interrupt signal to notify the processor that
memory allocated to other user the transfer was complete.
d) All of the above 5. The DMA controller has _______
Answer:d registers
10. How is a privilege exception dealt a) 4
with…?? b) 2
a) The program is alted and the system c) 3
switches into supervisor mode and restarts d) 1
the program execution Answer:c
b) The Program is stopped and removed Explanation: The Controller uses the
from the queue registers to store the starting address,word
c) The system switches the mode and starts count and the status of the operation.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
6. When the R/W bit of the status register of c) Multiple BUS structure
the DMA controller is set to 1, d) None of the above
a) Read operation is performed Answer:b
b) Write operation is performed Explanation: The BUS arbitrator is used
Answer:a overcome the contention over the BUS
possession.
7. The controller is connected to the ____ 13. The registers of the controller are
a) Processor BUS ______
b) System BUS a) 64 bits
c) External BUS b) 24 bits
d) None of the above c) 32 bits
Answer:b d) 16 bits
Explanation: The controller is directly Answer:c
connected to the system BUS to provide
14. When process requests for a DMA
faster transfer of data.
transfer ,
8. Can a single DMA controller perform a) Then the process is temporarily
operations on two different disks suspended
simulteneously…?? b) The process continues execution
a) True c) Another process gets executed
b) False d) Both a and c
Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation: The DMA controller can Explanation: The process requesting the
perform operations on two different disks if transfer is paused and the operation is
the appropriate details are known. performed , meanwhile another process is
run on the processor.
9. The techinique whereby the DMA
controller steals the access cycles of the 15. The DMA transfer is initiated by _____
processor to operate is called a) Processor
a) Fast conning b) The process being executed
b) Memory Con c) I/O devices
c) Cycle stealing d) OS
d) Memory stealing Answer:c
Answer:c Explanation: The transfer can only be
Explanation: The controller takes over the initiated by instruction of a program being
processor‘s access cycles and performs executed.
memory operations.
10. The technique where the controller is Bus Arbitration
given complete access to main memory is
a) Cycle stealing 1. To resolve the clash over the access of the
b) Memory stealing system BUS we use ______
c) Memory Con a) Multiple BUS
d) Burst mode b) BUS arbitrator
Answer:d c) Priority access
Explanation: The controller is given full d) None of the above
control of the memory access cycles and can Answer:b
transfer blocks at a faster rate. Explanation: The BUS arbitrator is used to
allow a device to access the BUS based on
11. The controller uses _____ to help with certain parameters.
the transfers when handling network
interfaces. 2. The device which is allowed to initiate
a) Input Buffer storage data transfers on the BUS at any time is
b) Signal echancers called _____
c) Bridge circuits a) BUS master
d) All of the above b) Processor
Answer:a c) BUS arbitrator
Explanation: The controller stores the data d) Controller
to transfered in the buffer and then transfers Answer:a
it. Explanation: The device which is currently
accessing the BUS is called as the BUS
12. To overcome the conflict over the master.
possession of the BUS we use ______
a) Optimizers 3. ______ BUS arbitration appproach uses
b) BUS arbitrators the involvement of the processor

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Centralised arbitration b) Processor
b) Distributed arbitration c) Controller
c) Random arbitration d) None of the above
d) All of the above Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation: After the device completes the
Explanation: In this approach the processor operation it releases the BUS and the
takes into account the various parameters processor takes over it.
and assigns the BUS to that device.
11. The BUS busy line is used
4. The circuit used for the request line is a a) To indicate the processor is busy
_________ b) To indicate that the BUS master is busy
a) Open-collector c) To indiacate the BUS is already allocated
b) EX-OR circuit d) None of the above
c) Open-drain Answer:c
d) Nand circuit
12. Distributed arbitration makes use of
Answer:c
______
5. The Centralised BUS arbitration is similar a) BUS master
to ______ interrupt circuit b) Processor
a) Priority c) Arbitrator
b) Parallel d) 4-bit ID
c) Single
Answer:d
d) Daisy chain
Explanation: The device uses a 4bit ID
Answer:d
number and based on this the BUS is
6. When the processor recieves the request allocated.
from a device, it responds by sending _____
a) Acknowledge signal 13. In Distributed arbitration, the device
b) BUS grant signal requesting the BUS ______
c) Response signal a) Asserts the Start arbitration signal
d) None of the above b) Sends an interrupt signal
Answer:b c) Sends an acknowledge signal
Explanation: The Grant signal is passed d) None of the above
from one device till the other until the Answer:a
device that has requested is found. 14. How is a device selected in Distributed
7. In Centralised Arbitration ______ is/are is arbitration…??
the BUS master a) By NANDing the signals passed on all the
a) Processor 4 lines
b) DMA controller b) By ANDing the signals passed on all the
c) Device 4 lines
d) Both a and b c) By ORing the signals passed on all the 4
Answer:d lines
Explanation: The BUS master is the one that d) None of the above
decides which will get the BUS. Answer:c
Explanation: The OR output of all the 4
8. Once the BUS is granted to a device, lines is obtained and the device with the
a) It activates the BUS busy line larger value is assigned the BUS.
b) Performs the required operation
c) Raises an interrupt 15. If two devices A and B contesting for the
d) All of the above BUS have ID‘s 5 and 6 respectively, which
Answer:a device gets the BUS based on the
Explanation: The BUS busy activated Distributed arbitration
indicates that the BUS is already allocated to a) Device A
a device and is being used. b) Device B
c) Insufficient information
9. The BUS busy line is made of ________ Answer:b
a) Open-drain circuit Explanation: The device Id‘s of both the
b) Open-collector circuit devices are passed on the lines and since the
c) EX-Or circuit value of B is greater after the Or operation it
d) Nor circuit gets the BUS.
Answer:b
10. After the device completes its operation
_____ assumes the control of the BUS
a) Another device

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Synchronous BUS reach the BUS from the device or the circuit
accounts for this delay.
1. The primary function of the BUS is
a) To connect the various devices to the cpu 7. The time for which the data is to be on the
b) To provide a path for communication BUS is affected by
between the processor and other devices a) Propagation delay of the circuit
c) To facilitate data transfer between various b) Setup time of the device
devices c) Memory access time
d) All of the above d) Both a and b
Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation: The BUS is used to allow the Explanation: The time for which the data is
passage of commands and data between cpu held is larger than the time taken for
and devices. propogation delay and setup time.

2. The classification of BUSes into 8. The Master strobes the slave at the end of
synchronous and asynchronous is based on each clock cycle in Synchronous BUS.
a) The devices connected to them a) True
b) The type of data transfer b) False
c) The Timing of data transfers Answer:a
d) None of the above 9. Which is fed into the BUS first by the
Answer:c initiator..??
Explanation: The BUS are classified into a) Data
different types for convenience of use and b) Address
depending on the device. c) Commands or controls
3. The device which starts data transfer is d) Both b and c
called Answer:d
a) Master
b) Transactor 10. _____________ signal is used as an
c) Distributor acknowledgement signal by the slave in
d) Initiator Multiple cycle transfers.
Answer:d a) Ack signal
Explanation: The device which starts the b) Slave ready signal
data transfer is called as initiator. c) Master ready signal
4. The device which interacts with the d) Slave recieval signal
initiator is Answer:b
a) Slave Explanation: The slave once it recieves the
b) Master commands and address from the master
c) Responder strobes the ready line indicating to the
d) Friend master that the commands are received.
Answer:a
Explanation: The device which recieves the Asynchronous BUS
commands from the initiator for data
transfer. 1. The master indicates that the address is
loaded onto the BUS,by activating _____
5. In synchronous BUS, the devices get the signal.
timing signals from a) MSYN
a) Timing generator in the device b) SSYN
b) A common clock line c) WMFC
c) Timing signals are not used at all d) INTR
d) None of the above Answer:a
Answer:b Explanation: The signal activated by the
Explanation: The devices recieve their master in the asynchronous mode of
timing signals from the clock line of the transmission is used to intimate the slave the
BUS. required data is on the BUS.
6. The delays caused in the switching of the 2. The devices with variable speeds are
timing signals is due to usually connected using asynchronous BUS.
a) Memory access time a) True
b) WMFC b) False
c) Propogation delay Answer:a
d) Processor delay Explanation: The devices with variable
Answer:c speeds are connected using asynchronous
Explanation: The time taken for the signal to

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
BUS, as the devices share a master-slave b) False.
relationship. Answer:a
Explanation: This mode of transmission is
3. The MSYN signal is initiated
suitable for multiple device situation as it
a) Soon after the address and commands are
supports variable speed transfer.
loaded.
b) Soon after the decoding of the address. 10. The asynhronous BUS mode of
c) After the slave gets the commands. transmission allows for a faster mode of data
d) None of the above. transfer.
Answer:b a) True
Explanation: This signal is activated by the b) False
master to tell the slave that the required Answer:b
commands are on the BUS.
4. In IBM‘s S360/370 systems _____ lines Interface Circuits
are used to select the I/O devices.
a) SCAN in and out 1. ______ serves as a intermediary between
b) Connect the device and the BUSes.
c) Search a) Interface circuits
d) Peripheral b) Device drivers
Answer:a c) Buffers
Explanation: The signal is used to scan and d) None of the above
connect to input or output devices. Answer:a
Explanation: The interface circuits act as an
5. The meter in and out lines are used for hardware interface between the device and
a) Monitoring the usage of devices. the software side.
b) Monitoring the amount data transfered.
c) Measure the CPU usage. 2. The side of the interface circuits, that has
d) None of the above. the data path and the control signals to
Answer:a transfer data between interface and device is
Explanation: The line is used to monitor the _____.
devices usage for a process. a) BUS side
b) Port side
6. MRDC stands for c) Hardwell side
a) Memory Read Enable. d) Software side
b) Memory Ready Command. Answer:b
c) Memory Re-direct Command. Explanation: This side connects the device
d) None of the above. to the motherboard.
Answer:b
Explanation: The command is used to 3. The interface circuits
initiate a read from memory operation. a) Helps in installing of the software driver
for the device.
7. The BUS that allows I/O,memory and b) Houses the buffer that helps in data
Processor to coexist is _______. transfer.
a) Artibuted BUS c) Helps in decoding of the address on the
b) Processor BUS address BUs.
c) Backplane BUS d) Both b and c.
d) External BUS Answer:c
Answer:c Explanation: Once the address is put on the
8. The transmission on the asynchronous BUS the interface circuit decodes the
BUS is also called as _____. address and uses the buffer space to transfer
a) Switch mode transmission data.
b) Variabel transfer 4. The conversion from parallel to serial data
c) Bulk transfer transmission and vice versa takes place
d) Hand-Shake transmission inside the interface circuits.
Answer:d a) True
Explanation: The asynchronous transmission b) False
is termed as Hand-Shake transfer because Answer:a
the master intimates the slave after each step Explanation: By doing this the interface
of the transfer. circuits provides a better interconnection
9. Asynchronous mode of transmission is between devices.
suitable for systems with multiple peripheral 5. The parallel mode of communication is
devices. not suitable for long devices because of
a) True. ______.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Timing skew b) Router
b) Memory access delay c) Connector
c) Latency d) Gateway
d) None of the above Answer:a
Answer:a Explanation: The bridge circuit is basically
used to extend the processor BUS to connect
6. The Interface circuits generates the
devices.
appropriate timing signals required by the
BUS control scheme. 2. ________ is an extension of the processor
a) True BUS.
b) False a) SCSI BUS
Answer:a b) USB
Explanation: The interface circuits generates c) PCI BUS
the required clock signal for the d) None of the above
synchronous mode of transfer. Answer:c
Explanation: The PCI BUS is used as an
7. The status flags required for data transfer
extension of the processor BUS and devices
is present in _____.
connected to it, is like connected to the
a) Device
Processor itself.
b) Device driver
c) Interface circuit 3. ISA stands for
d) None of the above a) International American Standard.
Answer:c b) Industry Standard Architecture.
Explanation: The circuit holds the flags c) International Standard Architecture.
which are required for data transfers. d) None of the above.
Answer:b
8.User programmable terminals that
Explanation: The ISA is a architectural
combine VDT hardware with built-in
standard developed by IBM for its PC‘s.
microprocessor is _____.
a) KIPs 4. ANSI stands for
b) Pc a) American National Standards Institute.
c) Mainframe b) Architectural National Standards
d) Intelligent terminals Institute.
Answer:d c) Asian National Standards Institute.
d) None of the above.
9. Which most popular input device is used
Answer:a
today for interactive processing and for the
Explanation: The ANSI is one of the
one line entry of data for batch processing?
standard architecture used by companies in
a) Mouse
designing the systems.
b) Magnetic disk
c) Visual display terminal 5. The video devices are connected to
d) Card punch ______ BUS.
Answer:a a) PCI
Explanation: In batch processing systems b) USB
the processes are grouped into batches and c) HDMI
they‘re executed in batches. d) SCSI
Answer:d
10. The use of spooler programs or _______
Explanation: The SCSI BUS is used to
Hardware allows PC operators to do the
connect the video devices to processor by
processing work at the same time a printing
providing a parallel BUS.
operation is in progress.
a) Registers 6. SCSI stands for
b) Memory a) Signal Computer System Interface.
c) Buffer b) Small Computer System Interface.
d) CPU c) Small Coding System Interface.
Answer:c d) Signal Coding System Interface.
Explanation: When the processor is busy Answer:b
with the process the data to be printed is Explanation: The SCSI BUS is used to
stored in the buffer. connect disks and video controllers.
7. ISO stands for
Standard I/O Interfaces a) International Standards Organisation.
b) International Software Organisation.
1. ______ is used as an intermediate to c) Industrial Standards organisation.
extend the processor BUS. d) Industrial Software Organisation.
a) Bridge Answer:a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: The ISO is yet another d) Isochronous port
architectural standard, used to design Answer:c
systems. Explanation: The parallel port transfers
around 8 to 16 bits of data simultaneously
8. The system developed by IBM with ISA
over the lines, hence increasing transfer
architecture is ______.
rates.
a) SPARC
b) SUN-SPARC 4. The output of the encoder circuit is/are
c) PC-AT ______.
d) None of the above a) ASCII code
Answer:c b) ASCII code and the valid signal
c) Encoded signal
9. IDE disk is connected to the PCI BUS
d) None of the above
using ______ interface.
Answer:b
a) ISA
Explanation: The encoder outputs the ASCII
b) ISO
value along with the valid signal which
c) ANSI
indicates that a key was pressed.
d) IEEE
Answer:a 5. The disadvantage of using parallel mode
of communication is ______.
10. IDE stands for
a) It is costly
a) Intergrated Device Electronics.
b) Leads to erroneous data transfer
b) International Device Encoding.
c) Security of data
c) Industrial Decoder Electronics.
d) All of the above
d) International Decoder Encoder.
Answer:a
Answer:a
Explanation: The parallel mode of data
Explanation: The IDE interface is used to
transfer is costly as it involves data being
connect the harddisk to the processor in
sent over parallel lines.
most of the Pentium processors.
6. In a 32 bit processor, the A0 bit of the
Parallel Port address line is connected to _____ of the
parallel port interface.
1. The _____ circuit enables the generation a) Valid bit
of the ASCII code when the key is pressed. b) Idle bit
a) Generator c) Interrupt enable bit
b) Debouncing d) Status or data register
c) Encoder Answer:d
d) Logger 7. The Status flag circuit is implemented
Answer:c using _____.
Explanation: The signal generated upon the a) RS flip flop
pressing of a button is encoded by the b) D flip flop
encoder circuit into the corresponding c) JK flip flop
ASCII value. d) Xor circuit
2. To overcome multiple signals being Answer:b
generated upon a single press of the button, Explanation: The circuit is implemented
we make use of ______ . using the edge triggered D flip flop, that is
a) Generator circuit triggered on the rising edge of the valid
b) Debouncing circuit signal.
c) Multiplexer 8. In the output interface of the parallel port,
d) XOR circuit along with the valid signal ______ is also
Answer:b sent.
Explanation: When the button is pressed,the a) Data
contact surfaces bounce and hence it might b) Idle signal
lead to generation of multiple signals.In c) Interrupt
order to overcome this we use Debouncing d) Acknowledge signal
circuits. Answer:b
3. The best mode of conncetion between Explanation: The idle signal is used to check
devices which need to send or recieve large if the device is idle and ready to receive
amounts of data over a short distance is data.
_____ . 9. DDR stands for,
a) BUS a) Data Direction Register
b) Serial port b) Data Decoding Register
c) Parallel port c) Data Decoding Rate

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) None of the above clock signals for input and output
Answer:a c) The drivers are modified
Explanation: This register is used to control d) All of the above
the flow of data from the DATAOUT Answer:b
register. Explanation: The ports are made more
flexible by enabling the input or output of
10. In a general 8-bit parallel interface, the
different clock signals for different devices.
INTR line is connected to _______.
a) Status and Control unit 6. UART stands for
b) DDR a) Universal Asynchronous Relay
c) Register select Transmission.
d) None of the above b) Universal Accumulator Register Transfer.
Answer:a c) Universal Asynchronous Receiver
Transmitter.
Serial Port d) None of the above.
Answer:c
1. The mode of transmission of data, where Explanation: The UART is a standard
one bit is sent for each clock cycle is developed for designing serial ports.
______. 7. The key feature of UART is
a) Asynchronous a) Its architectural design.
b) Parallel b) Its simple implementation.
c) Serial c) Its general purpose usage.
d) Isochronous d) Its enhancement of connecting low speed
Answer:d devices.
Explanation: In isochronous mode of Answer:d
transmission, each bit of the data is sent per
each cycle.
8. The data transfer in UART is done in
2. The transformation between the Parallel ______.
and serial ports is done with the help of a) Asynchronous start stop format
______. b) Synchrnous start stop format
a) Flip flops c) Isochronous format
b) Logic circuits d) EBDIC format
c) Shift registers Answer:a
d) None of the above Explanation: This basically means that the
Answer:c data transfer is done in asynchronous mode.
Explanation: The Shift registers are used to
output the data in a desired format based on 9. The standard used in serial ports to
the need. facilitate communication is _____.
a) RS-246
3. The serial port is used to connect b) RS-LNK
basically _____ and processor. c) RS-232-C
a) I/O devices d) Both a and b
b) Speakers Answer:c
c) Printer Explanation: This is a standard which acts as
d) Monitor a protocol for message communication
Answer:a involving serial ports.
Explanation: The serial port is used to
connect keyboard and other devices which 10. In serial port interface, the INTR line is
input or output one bit at a time. connected to _____.
a) Status register
4. The double buffer is used for b) Shift register
a) Enabling receival of multiple bits of c) Chip select
input. d) None of the above
b) Combining the input and output Answer:a
operations.
c) Extending the buffer capacity.
d) None of these. PCI BUS-1
Answer:a
1. The PCI follows a set of standards
primarily used in _____ PC‘s.
5. ______ to increase the flexibility of the a) Intel
serial ports. b) Motorola
a) The wires used for ports is changed c) IBM
b) The ports are made to allow different d) SUN

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:c 8. When transfering data over the PCI BUS,
Explanation: The PCI BUS has a closer the master as to hold the address till the
resemblance to IBM architecture. completion of transfer to the slave.
a) True
2. The ______ is the BUS used in Macintosh
b) False
PC‘s.
Answer:b
a) NuBUS
Explanation: The address is stored by the
b) EISA
slave in a buffer and hence it is not required
c) PCI
by the master to hold it.
d) None of the above
Answer:a 9. The master is also called as _____ in PCI
Explanation: The NuBUS is an extension of terminology.
the processor BUS in Macintosh PC‘s. a) Initiator
b) Commander
3. The key feature of the PCI BUS is
c) Chief
a) Low cost connectivity.
d) Starter
b) Plug and Play capability.
Answer:a
c) Expansion of Bandwidth.
Explanation: The Master is also called as
d) Both a and c.
initiator in PCI terminology as it is the one
Answer:b
that initiates a data transfer.
Explanation: The PCI BUS was the first to
introduce plug and play interface for I/O 10. Signals whose names end in ____ are
devices. asserted in the low voltage state.
a) $
4. PCI stands for
b) #
a) Peripheral Component Interconnect.
c) *
b) Peripheral Computer Internet.
d) !
c) Processor Computer Interconnect.
Answer:b
d) Processor Cable Interconnect.
Answer:a
Explanation: The PCI BUS is used as an SCSI BUS-1
extension for the processor BUS.
1. The key features of the SCSI BUS is
5. The PCI BUS supports _____ address a) The cost effective connective media.
space/s. b) The ability overlap data transfer requests.
a) I/O c) The highly effecient data transmission.
b) Memory d) None of the above.
c) Configuration Answer:b
d) All of the above Explanation: The SCSI BUS can overlap
Answer:d various data transfer requests by the devices.
Explantion: The PCI BUS is mainly built to
provide a wide range of connectivity for 2. In a data transfer operatioon involving
devices. SCSI BUS, the control is with ______.
a) Initiator
6. ______ address space gives the PCI its b) Target
plug and play capability. c) SCSI controller
a) Configuration d) Target Controller
b) I/O
c) Memory
d) All of the above Answer:d
Answer:a Explanation: The initiator involves in
Explanation: The coniguration address space arbitration process and after winning the
is used to store the details of the connected BUS it‘ll handover the control to the target
device. controller.

7. _____ provides a seperate physical 3. In SCSI transfers the processor is not

connection to the memory. aware of the data being transfered.
a) PCI BUS a) True
b) PCI interface b) False
c) PCI bridge Answer:a
d) Switch circuit Explanation: The processor or the controller
Answer:c is unaware of the data being transfered.
Explanation: The PCI bridge is circuit that
4. The DB(P) line means,
acts as a bridge between the BUS and the
a) That the data line is carrying the device
memory.
information.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) That the data line is carrying the parity USB 1
information.
c) That the data line is partly closed. This set of Computer Organisation and
d) That the data line is temporarily occupied. Architecture MCQ focuses on ―USB‖.
Answer:b
1. The transfer rate, when the USB is
5. The BSY signal signifies operating in low-speed of operation is
a) The BUs is busy. _____.
b) The controller is busy. a) 5 Mb/s
c) The Initiator is busy. b) 12 Mb/s
d) The Target is Busy. c) 2.5 Mb/s
Answer:a d) 1.5 Mb/s
Explanation: This signal is generally Answer:d
initiated when the BUS is currently occupied Explanation: The USB has two rates of
in an operation. operation the low-speed and the full-speed
6. The SEL signal signifies one.
a) The initiator is selected. 2. THe high speed mode of operation of the
b) The device for BUS control is selected. USB was introduced by _____.
c) That the target is being selected. a) ISA
d) None of the above. b) USB 3.0
Answer:b c) USB 2.0
Explanation: This signal is usually asserted d) ANSI
during the selection or reselection process. Answer:c
7. ________ signal is asserted when the Explanation: The high-speed mode of
initiator wishes to send a message to the operation was introduced with USB
target. 2.0,which enabled the USB to operatte at
a) MSG 480 Mb/s.
b) APP 3. The sampling process in speaker output is
c) SMS a ________ process.
d) ATN a) Asynchronous
Answer:d b) Synchronous
Explanation: The ATN signal is short for c) Isochronous
attention, which is used to initimate the d) None of the above
target that the initiator sent a message to it. Answer:c
8. The MSG signal is used Explanation: The isochronous process
a) To send a message to the target. means each bit of data is seperated by a time
b) To recieve a message from the mailbox. interval.
c) To tell that the information being sent is a 4. The USB device follows _______
message. structure.
d) None of the above. a) List
Answer:c b) Huffmann
9. _____ is used to reset all the device c) Hash
controls to their startup state. d) Tree
a) SRT Answer:d
b) RST Explanation: The USB has a tree structure
c) ATN with the root hub at the centre.
d) None of the above 5. The I/O devices form the _____ of the
tree structure.
Answer:b a) Leaves
b) Subordinate roots
c) Left sub trees
10. The SCSI BUS uses ______ arbitration. d) Right sub trees
a) Distributed Answer:a
b) Centralised Explanation: The I/o devices form the leaves
c) Daisy chain of the structure.
d) Hybrid 6. USB is a parallel mode of transmission of
Answer:a data and this enables for the fast speeds of
Explanation: The SCSI uses distributed data transfers.
arbitration to select the device to give the a) True
BUS control. b) False
Answer:b

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: The USB does a serial mode of d) None of the above
data transfer. Answer:a
7. In USB the devices can communicate 14. A USB pipe is a ______ channel.
with each other. a) Simplex
a) True b) Half-Duplex
b) False c) Full-Duplex
Answer:b d) Both a and c
Explanation: It allows only the host to Answer:c
communicate with the devices and not Explanation: This means that the pipe is bi-
between themselves. directional in sending messages or
information.
8. The device can send a message to the host
by taking part in _____ for the 15. The type/s of packets sent by the USB
communication path. is/are _______.
a) Arbitration a) Data
b) Polling b) Address
c) Prioritising c) Control
d) None of the above d) Both a and c
Answer:b Answer:d
Explanation: This means that the usb gets
9. When the USB is connected to a system,
both data and control signlas required for the
its root hub is connected to the ________.
transfer operation.
a) PCI BUS
b) SCSI BUS
c) Processor BUS Static Memories
d) IDE
Answer:c 1. The duration between the read and the
Explanation: The USB‘s root is connected to mfc signal is ______.
the processor directly using the BUS. a) Access time
b) Latency
10. The devices connected to USB is c) Delay
assigned an ____ adrress. d) Cycle time
a) 9 bit Answer:a
b) 16 bit Explanation: The time between the issue of
c) 4 bit read signal and the completion of it is called
d) 7 bit memory access time.
Answer:d
Explanation: To make it easier for 2. The minimum time delay between two
recognition the devices are given 7 bit successive memory read operations is
addresses. ______.
a) Cycle time
11. The USB address space can be shared by b) Latency
the user‘s memory space. c) Delay
a) True d) None of the above
b) False Answer:a
Answer:b Explanation: The Time taken by the cpu to
Explanation: The USB memory space is not end one read operation and to start one more
under any address sapces and cannot be is cycle time.
accessed.
3. MFC is used to
12. The initial address of a device just a) Issue a read signal.
connected to the HUB is ____ . b) Signal to the device that the memory read
a) AHFG890 operation is complete.
b) 0000000 c) Signal the processor the memory
c) FFFFFFF operation is complete.
d) 0101010 d) Assign a device to perform the read
Answer:b operation.
Explanation: By standard the usual address Answer:c
of a new device is zero. Explanation: The MFC stands for memory
13. Locations in the device to or from which Function Complete.
data transfers can take place is called ____. 4. __________ is the bootleneck, when it
a) End points comes computer performance.
b) Hosts a) Memory access time
c) Source b) Memory cycle time

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Delay 11. A memory organisation that can hold
d) Latency upto 1024 bits and has a minimum of 10
Answer:b address lines can be organised into _____.
Explanation: The processor can execute a) 128 X 8
instructions faster than they‘re fetched, b) 256 X 4
hence cycle time is the bottleneck for c) 512 X 2
performance. d) 1024 X 1
Answer:d
5. The logical addresses generated by the
Explanation: All the others require less than
cpu are mapped onto physical memory by
10 address bits.
____.
a) Relocation register 12. Circuits that can hold their state as long
b) TLB as power is applied is _______.
c) MMU a) Dynamic memory
d) None of the above b) Static memory
Answer:c c) Register
Explanation: The MMU stands for memory d) Cache
management unit, which is used to map Answer:b
logical address onto phsical address.
6. VLSI stands for 13. The number of external connections
a) Very Large Scale Integration. required in 16 X 8 memory organisation is
b) Very Large Stand-alone Integration. _____.
c) Volatile Layer System Interface. a) 14
d) None of the above. b) 19
Answer:a c) 15
d) 12
7. The cells in a row are connected to a
Answer:a
common line called ______.
Explanation: In the 14, 8-data lines,4-
a) Work line
address lines and 2 are sense/write and CS
b) Word line
signals.
c) Length line
d) Principle diagonal 14. The advantage of CMOS SRAM over
Answer:b the transistor one‘s is
Explanation: This means that the cell a) Low cost.
contents together form one word of b) High efficiency.
instruction or data. c) High durability.
d) Low power consumption.
8. The cells in each column are connected to
Answer:d
______.
Explanation: This is because the cell
a) Word line
consumes power only when it is being
b) Data line
accessed.
c) Read line
d) Sense/ Write line 15. In a 4M-bit chip organisation has a total
Answer:d of 19 external connections.then it has
Explanation: The cells in each column are _______ address if 8 data lines are there.
connected to the sense/write circuit using a) 10
two bit lines and which is inturn connected b) 8
to the data lines. c) 9
d) 12
9. The word line is driven by the _____.
Answer:c
a) Chip select
Explanation: To have 8 data lines and 19
b) Address decoder
external connections it has to have 9 address
c) Data line
lines(i.e 512 x 8 organisation)
d) Control line
Answer:b
Asynchronous DRAM
10. A 16 X 8 organisation of memory cells,
can store upto _____. 1. The Reason for the disregarding of the
a) 256 bits SRAM‘s is
b) 1024 bits a) Low Efficiency.
c) 512 bits b) High power consumption.
d) 128 bits c) High Cost.
Answer:d d) All of the above.
Explanation: It can store upto 128 bits as Answer:c
each cell can hold one bit of data. Explanation: The reason for the high cost of

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
the SRAM is because of the usage of more 8. To get the row address of the required
number of transistors. data ______ is enabled.
a) CAS
2. The disadvantage of DRAM over SRAM
b) RAS
is/are
c) CS
a) Lower data storage capacities.
d) Sense/write
b) Higher heat descipation.
Answer:b
c) The cells are not static.
Explanation: This makes the contents of the
d) All of the above.
row required refreshed.
Answer:c
Explanation: This means that the cells wont 9. In order to read multiple bytes of a row at
hold their state indefinetly. the same time, we make use of ______.
a) Latch
3.The reason for the cells to lose their state
b) Shift register
over time is
c) Cache
a) The lower voltage levels.
d) Memory extension
b) Usage of capacitors to store the charge.
Answer:a
c) Use of Shift registers.
Explanation: The latch makes it easy to
d) None of the above.
ready multiple bytes of data of the same row
Answer:b
simulteneously by just giving the
Explanation: Since capacitors are used the
consecutive column address.
charge descipates over time.
10. The block transfer capability of the
4. The capacitors lose the charge over time
DRAM is called ________.
due to
a) Burst mdoe
a) The leakage resistance of the capacitor.
b) Block mode
b) The small current in the transistor after
c) Fast page mode
being turned off.
d) Fast frame mode
c) The defect of the capacitor.
Answer:c
d) Both a and b.
Answer:d
Explanation: The capacitor loses charge due Synchronous DRAM
to the backward current of the transistro and
due to the small resistance. 1. The difference between DRAM‘s and
SDRAM‘s is/are
5. _________ circuit is used to restore the a) The DRAM‘s make use of the master
capacitor value. slave relationship in data transfer.
a) Sense amplify b) The SDRAM‘s make use of clock.
b) Signal amplifier c) The SDRAM‘s are more power efficient.
c) Delta modulator d) Both a and b
d) None of the above Answer:d
Answer:a Explanation: The SDRAM‘s make use of
Explanation: The sense amplifier detects if clock signals to synchronise their operation.
the value is above or below the threshlod
and then restores it. 2. The difference in address and data
connection between DRAM‘s and
6. To reduce the number of external SDRAM‘s is
connections reqiured, we make use of a) The usage of more number of pins in
______. SDRAM‘s.
a) De-multiplexer b) The requirement of more address lines in
b) Multiplexer SDRAM‘s.
c) Encoder c) The usage of buffer in SDRAM‘s.
d) Decoder d) None of the above.
Answer:b
Explanation: We multiplex the various 3. A _______ is used to restore the contents
address lines onto fewer pins. of the cells.
a) Sense amplifier
7. The processor must take into account the b) Refresh counter
delay in accessing the memory location, c) Restorer
such memories are called ______. d) None of the above
a) Delay integrated Answer:b
b) Asynchronous memories Explanation: The Counter helps to restore
c) Synchronous memories the charge on the capacitor.
d) Isochronous memories
Answer:b 4. The mode register is used to
a) Select the row or column data transfer

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
mode. Large Memories
b) Select the mode of operation.
c) Select mode of storing the data. 1. The chip can be disabled or cut off from
d) All of the above. external connection using ______.
Answer:b a) Chip select
Explanation: The mode register is used to b) LOCK
choose between burst mode or bit mode of c) ACPT
operation. d) RESET
Answer:a
5. In a SDRAM each row is refreshed every Explanation: The chip gets enabled if the CS
64ms. is set otherwise the chip gets disabled.
a) True
b) False 2. To organise large memory chips we make
Answer:a use of ______.
a) Integrated chips
6. The time taken to transfer a word of data b) Upgraded hardware
to or from the memory is called as ______. c) Memory modules
a) Access time d) None of the above
b) Cycle time Answer:c
c) Memory latency Explanation: The cell blocks are arranged
d) None of the above and put in a memory module.
Answer:c
Explanation: The performance of the 3. The less space consideration as lead to the
memory is measured by means of latency. development of ________ (for large
memories).
7. In SDRAM‘s buffers are used to store a) SIMM‘s
data that is read or written. b) DIMS‘s
a) True c) SSRAM‘s
b) False d) Both a and b
Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation: In SDRAm‘s all the bytes of Explanation: The SIMM (single inline
data to be read or written are stored in the memory module) or DIMM (dual inline
buffer until the operation is complete. memory module) occupy less space while
8. The SDRAM performs operation on the providing greater memory space.
_______. 4. The SRAM‘s are basically used as
a) Rising edge of the clock ______.
b) Falling edge of the clock a) Registers
c) Middle state of the clock b) Caches
d) Transition state of the clock c) TLB
Answer:a d) Buffer
Explanation: The SDRAM‘s are edge- Answer:b
triggered. Explanation: The SRAM‘s are used as
9. DDR SDRAM‘s perform fster data caches as their opeartion speed is very high.
transfer by 5. The higher order bits of the address are
a) Integrating the hardware. used to _____.
b) Transfering on both edges. a) Specify the row address
c) Improving the clock speeds. b) Specify the column address
d) Increasing the bandwidth. c) Input the CS
Answer:b d) None of the above
Explanation: By transfering data on both the
edges the bandwidth is effectively doubled. 6. The address lines multiplexing is done
using ______.
10. To improve the data retrieval rate a) MMU
a) The memory is divided into two banks. b) Memory controller unit
b) The hardware is changed. c) Page table
c) The clock frequency is increased. d) Overlay geberator
d) None of the above. Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation: This unit multiplexes the
Explanation: The division of memory into various address lines to lesser pins on the
two banks makes it easy to access two chip.
different words at each edge of the clock.
7. The controller multiplexes the addresses
after getting the _____ signal.
a) INTR

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) ACK 3. The increase in operation speed is done
c) RESET by
d) Request a) Reducing the reference voltage.
Answer:d b) Increasing the clk frequency.
Explanation: The controller gets the request c) Using enhanced hardware.
from the device needing the memory read or d) None of the above.
write operation and then it multiplexes the Answer:a
address. Explanation: The reference voltage is
reduced from the Vsupply about 2v.
8. The RAS and CAS signals are provided
by the ______. 4. The data is transfered over the RAMBUS
a) Mode register as
b) CS a) Packets
c) Memory controller b) Blocks
d) None of the above c) Swing voltages
Answer:c d) Bits
Explanation: The multiplexed signal of the Answer:c
controller is split into RAS and CAS. Explanation: By using voltage swings to
transfer data, transfer rate along with
9. Consider a memory organised into 8K
efficiency is improved.
rows, and that it takes 4 cycles to complete a
read opeartion. Then the refresh overhead of 5. The type of signaling used in RAMBUS
the chip is ______. is ______.
a) 0.0021 a) CLK signalling
b) 0.0038 b) Differential signalling
c) 0.0064 c) Integral signalling
d) 0.0128 d) None of the above
Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation: The refresh overhead is Explanation: The differential signaling
calculated by taking into account the total basically means using voltage swings to
time for refreshing and the interval of each transmit data.
refresh.
6. The special communication used in
10. When DRAM‘s are used to build a RAMBUS are _________.
complex large memory,then the controller a) RAMBUS channel
only provides the refresh counter. b) D-link
a) True c) Dial-up
b) False d) None of the above
Answer:a Answer:a
Explanation: The special communication
RamBus Memory link is used to provide the necessary deign
and required hardware for the transmission.
1. RamBUS is better than the other memory 7. The original design of the RAMBUS
chips in terms of required for ________ data lines.
a) Efficiency. a) 4
b) Speed of operation. b) 6
c) Wider bandwidth. c) 8
d) All of the above. d) 9
Answer:b Answer:d
Explanation: The RAMBUS is much Explanation: Out of the 9 data lines, 8 were
advanced mode of memory storage. used for data transmission and the one left
2. The key feature of the RAMBUS tech is was used for parity checking.
________. 8. The RAMBUS requires specially
a) Greater memory utilisation designed memory chips similar to _____.
b) Effeciency a) SRAM
c) Speed of transfer b) SDRAM
d) None of the above c) DRAM
d) DDRRAM
Answer:c Answer:c
Explanation: The RAMBUS was developed Explanation: The special memory chip
basically to lessen the data transfer time. should be able to transmit data on both the
edges and is called as RDRAM‘s.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
9. A RAMBUS which has 18 data lines is Answer:c
called as _______. Explanation: The ROM chips are used to
a) Extended RAMBUS store boot files required for the system start
b) Direct RAMBUS up.
c) Multiple RAMBUS
6. The contents of the EPROM are earsed by
d) Indirect RAMBUS
a) Overcharging the chip.
Answer:b
b) Exposing the chip to UV rays.
Explanation: The direct RAMBUS is used to
c) Exposing the chip to IR rays.
transmit 2 bytes of data at a time.
d) Discharging the Chip.
10. The RDRAM chips assembled into Answer:b
larger memory modules called ______. Explanation: To erase the contents of the
a) RRIM EPROM the chip is exposed to the UV rays,
b) DIMM which disipate the charge on the transistor.
c) SIMM
7. The disadvantage of the EPROM chip is
d) All of the above
a) The high cost factor.
Answer:a
b) The low efficiency.
c) The low speed of operation.
Read-Only Memory d) The need to remove the chip physically to
reprogram it.
1. If the transistor gate is closed, then the Answer:d
ROM stores a value of 1.
a) True 8. EEPROM stands for Electrically Erasable
b) False Programmable Read Only Memory.
Answer:b a) True
Explanation: If the gate of the transistor is b) False
closed then, the value of zero is stored in the Answer:a
ROM. Explanation: The disadvantages of the
EPROM led to the development of the
2. PROM stands for EEPROM.
a) Programmable Read Only Memory.
b) Pre-fed Read Only Memory. 9. The disadvantage of the EEPROM is/are
c) Pre-required Read Only Memory. a) The requirement of different voltages to
d) Programmed Read Only Memory. read,write and store information.
Answer:a b) The Latency inread operation.
Explanation: It allows the user to program c) The inefficient memory mapping schemes
the ROM. used.
d) All of the above.
3. The PROM is more effective than ROM Answer:a
chips in regard to _______. 10. The memory devices which are similar
a) Cost to EEPROM but differ in the cost
b) Memory management effectiveness is ______.
c) Speed of operation a) Memory sticks
d) Both a and c b) Blue-ray devices
Answer:d c) Flash memory
Explanation: The PROM is cheaper than d) CMOS
ROM as they can be programmed manually. Answer:c
4. The difference between the EPROM and Explanation: The flash memory functions
ROM circuitory is _____. similar to the EEPROM but is much
a) The usage of MOSFET‘s over transistors. cheaper.
b) The usage of JFET‘s over transistors. 11. The only difference between the
c) The usage of an extra transistor. EEPROM and flash memory is that the latter
d) None of the above. doesn‘t allow bulk data to be written.
Answer:c a) True
Explanation: The EPROM uses an extra b) False
transistor where the ground connection is Answer:a
there in the ROM chip. Explanation: This is not permitted as the
5. The ROM chips are mainly used to store previous contents of the cells will be over
_______. written.
a) System files 12. The flash memories find application in
b) Root directories ______.
c) Boot files a) Super computers
d) Driver files b) Mainframe systems

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Distributed systems a) True
d) Portable devices b) False
Answer:d Answer:a
Explanation: The flash memories low power Explanation: To improve the speed we use
requirement enables them to be used in a flash drives at the cost of memory space.
wide range of hand held devices.
4. The fastest data access is provided using
13. The memory module obtained by _______.
placing a number of flash chips for higher a) Caches
memory storage called as _______. b) DRAM‘s
a) FIMM c) SRAM‘s
b) SIMM d) Registers
c) Flash card Answer:d
d) RIMM Explanation: The fastest data access is
Answer:c provided using registers as these memory
locations are situated inside the processor.
14. The flash memory modules designed to
replace the functioning of an harddisk is 5. The memory which is used to store the
______. copy of data or instructions stored in larger
a) RIMM memories, inside the CPU is called
b) Flash drives _______.
c) FIMM a) Level 1 cache
d) DIMM b) Level 2 cache
Answer:b c) Registers
Explanation: The flash drives have been d) TLB
developed to provide faster operation but Answer:a
with lesser space. Explanation: These memory devices are
generally used to map onto the data stored in
15. The reason for the fast operating speeds
the larger memories.
of the flash drives is
a) The absence of any movable parts. 6. The larger memory placed between the
b) The itegarated electronic hardware. primary cache and the memory is called
c) The improved bandwidth connection. ______.
d) All of the above. a) Level 1 cache
Answer:a b) Level 2 cache
Explanation: Since the flash drives have no c) EEPROM
movable parts their access and seeks times d) TLB
are reasonably reduced. Answer:b
Explanation: This is basically used to
Heirarchy Of Memory provide effective memory mapping.
7. The next level of memory hierarchy after
1. The standard SRAM chips are costly as the L2 cache is _______.
a) They use highly advanced micro- a) Secondary storage
electronic devices. b) TLB
b) They house 6 transistor per chip. c) Main memory
c) They require specially designed PCB‘s. d) Register
d) None of the above. Answer:d
Answer:b
Explanation: As they require a large number 8. The last on the hierarchy scale of memory
of transistors, their cost per bit increases. devices is ______.
a) Main memory
2. The drawback of building a large memory b) Secondary memory
with DRAM is c) TLB
a) The large cost factor. d) Flash drives
b) The inefficient memory organisation. Answer:b
c) The Slow speed of operation. Explanation: The secondary memory is the
d) All of the above. slowest memory device.
Answer:c
Explanation: The DRAM‘s were used for 9. In the memory hierarchy, as the speed of
large memory modules for a long time until operation increases the memory size also
a substitute was found. increases.
a) True
3. To overcome the slow operating speeds of b) False
the secondary memory we make use of Answer:b
faster flash drives. Explanation: As the speed of operation

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
increases the cost increases and the size Explanation: The spatial aspect of locality of
decreases. reference tells that the nearby instruction is
more likely to be executed in future.
10. If we use the flash drives instead of the
harddisks, then the secondary storage can go 5. The correspondence between the main
above primary memory in the hierarchy. memory blocks and those in the cache is
a) True given by _________.
b) False a) Hash function
Answer:b b) Mapping function
Explanation: The flash drives will increase c) Locale function
the speed of transfer but still it wont be d) Assign function
faster than primary memory. Answer:b
Explanation: The mapping function is used
Caches to map the contents of the memory to the
cache.
1. The reason for the implementation of the 6. The algorithm to remove and place new
cache memory is contents into the cache is called _______.
a) To increase the internal memory of the a) Replacement algorithm
system b) Renewal algorithm
b) The difference in speeds of operation of c) Updation
the processor and memory d) None of the above
c) To reduce the memory access and cycle Answer:a
time Explanation: As the cache gets full, older
d) All of the above contents of the cache are swapped out with
Answer:b newer contents. This decision is taken by the
Explanation: This difference in the speeds of algorithm.
operation of the system caused it to be
inefficient. 7. The write-through procedure is used
a) To write onto the memory directly
2. The effectiveness of the cache memory is b) To write and read from memory
based on the property of ________. simultaneously
a) Locality of reference c) To write directly on the memory and the
b) Memory localisation cache simultaneously
c) Memory size d) None of the above
d) None of the above Answer:c
Explanation: When write operation is issued
Answer:a then the corresponding operation is
Explanation: This means that the cache performed.
depends on the location in the memory that 8. The bit used to signify that the cache
is referenced often. location is updated is ________.
a) Dirty bit
3. The temporal aspect of the locality of
b) Update bit
reference means
c) Reference bit
a) That the recently executed instruction
d) Flag bit
wont be executed soon
Answer:a
b) That the recently executed instruction is
Explanation: When the cache location is
temporarily not referenced
updated in order to signal to the processor
c) That the recently executed instruction will
this bit is used.
be executed soon again
d) None of the above 9. The copy-back protocol is used
Answer:c a) To copy the contents of the memory onto
the cache
4. The spatial aspect of the locality of
b) To update the contents of the memory
reference means
from the cache
a) That the recently executed instruction is
c) To remove the contents of the cache and
executed again next
push it on to the memory
b) That the recently executed wont be
d) None of the above
executed again
Answer:b
c) That the instruction executed will be
Explanation: This is another way of
executed at a later time
performing the write operation,wherein the
d) That the instruction in close proximity of
cache is updated first and then the memory.
the instruction executed will be executed in
future 10. The approach where the memory
Answer:d contents are transfered directly to the

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
processor from the memory is called 6. While using the direct mapping technique,
______. in a 16 bit system the higher order 5 bits is
a) Read-later used for ________.
b) Read-through a) Tag
c) Early-start b) Block
d) None of the above c) Word
Answer:c d) Id
Answer:a
Mapping Functions Explanation: The tag is used to identify the
block mapped onto one particular cache
1. The memory blocks are mapped on to the block.
cache with the help of ______. 7. In direct mapping the presence of the
a) Hash functions block in memory is checked with the help of
b) Vectors block field.
c) Mapping functions a) True
d) None of the above b) False
Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation: The mapping functions are Explanation: The tag field is usd to check
used to map the memory blocks on to their the presence of a mem block.
corresponding cache block.
8. In associative mapping, in a 16 bit system
2. During a write operation if the required the tag field has ______ bits.
block is not present in the cache then a) 12
______ occurs. b) 8
a) Write latency c) 9
b) Write hit d) 10
c) Write delay
d) Write miss 9. The associative mapping is costlier than
direct mapping.
a) True
Answer:d b) False
Explanation: This indicates that the Answer:a
operation has missed and it brings the Explanation: In associative mapping all the
required block into cache. tags have to be searched to find the block.
3. In ________ protocol the information is 10. The technique of searching for a block
directly written into main memory. by going through all the tags is ______.
a) Write through a) Linear search
b) Write back b) Binary search
c) Write first c) Associative search
d) None of the above d) None of the above
Answer:c
4. The only draw back of using the early 11. The set associative map technique is a
start protocol is _______. combination of the direct and associative
a) Time delay technique.
b) Complexity of circuit a) True
c) Latency b) False
d) High miss rate
Answer:b 12. In set-associative technique, the blocks
Explanation: In this protocol, the required are grouped into ______ sets.
block is read and directly sent to the a) 4
processor. b) 8
c) 12
5. The method of mapping the consecutive d) 6
memory blocks to consecutive cache blocks Answer:d
is called ______. Explanation: The set-associative technique
a) Set associative groups the blocks into different sets.
b) Associative
c) Direct 13. A control bit called ____ has to be
d) Indirect provided to each blocj in set-associative.
Answer:c a) Idol bit
Explanation: This method is most simple to b) Valid bit
implement as it involves direct mapping of c) Reference bit
memory blocks. d) All of the above

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:b Explanation: The hit rate is a important
Explanation: The valid bit is used to indicate factor in performance measurement.
that the block holds valid information.
5. The number failed attempts to access
14. The bit used to indicate whether the memory, stated in the form of fraction is
block was recently used or not is _______. called as _________.
a) Idol bit a) Hit rate
b) Control bit b) Miss rate
c) Refernece bit c) Failure rate
d) Dirty bit d) Delay rate
Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation: The dirty bit is used to show Explanation: The miss rate is key factor in
that the block was recently modified and for deciding the type of replacement algorithm.
replacement algorithm.
6. In associative mapping during LRU, the
15. Data which is not up-to date is called as counter of the new block is set to ‗0‘ and all
_______. the others are incremented by one,when
a) Spoilt data _____ occurs.
b) Stale data a) Delay
c) Dirty data b) Miss
d) None of the above c) Hit
d) Delayed hit
Answer:b
Answer:b
Explanation: Miss usually occurs when the
Cache Miss and Hit
memory block requiered is not present in the
1. The main memory is structured into cache.
modules each with its own address register 7. In LRU, the refrenced blocks counter is
called ______. set to‘0′ and that of the previous blocks are
a) ABR incremented by one and others remain same,
b) TLB in case of ______.
c) PC a) Hit
d) IR b) Miss
Answer:a c) Delay
Explanation: ABR stands for Address Buffer d) None of the above
Register. Answer:a
2. When consecutive memory locations are Explanation: If the referenced block is
accessed only one module is accessed at a present in the memory it is called as hit.
time. 8. If hit rates are well below 0.9, then
a) True they‘re called as speedy computers.
b) False a) True
Answer:a b) False
Explanation: In modular approach to Answer:b
memory structuring only one module can be Explanation: It has to be above 0.9 for
accessed at a time. speedy computers.
3. In memory interleaving, the lower order 9. The extra time needed to bring the data
bits of the address is used to into memory in case of a miss is called as
a) Get the data _____.
b) Get the address of the module a) Delay
c) Get the address of the data within the b) Propagation time
module c) Miss penalty
d) None of the above d) None of the above
Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation: To implement parallelism in
data access we use interleaving.
10. The miss penalty can be reduced by
4. The number successful accesses to improving the mechanisms for data transfer
memory stated as a fraction is called as between the different levels of hierarchy.
_____. a) True
a) Hit rate b) False
b) Miss rate Answer:a
c) Success rate Explanation: The extra time needed to bring
d) Access rate the data into memory in case of a miss is
Answer:a called as miss penalty.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Single BUS Organisation c) Data path
d) None of the above
1. The CPU is also called as ________. Answer:c
a) Processor hub 8. The input and output of the registers are
b) ISP governed by __________.
c) Controller a) Transistors
d) All of the above b) Diodes
Answer:b c) Gates
Explanation: ISP stands for Instruction Set d) Switches
Processor. Answer:d
2. A common strategy for performance is 9. When two or more clock cycles are used
making various functional units operate to complete data transfer it is called as
parallely. ________.
a) True a) Single phase clocking
b) False b) Multi-phase clocking
Answer:a c) Edge triggered clocking
Explanation: By parallely accessing data we d) None of the above
can have a pipelined processor. Answer:b
Explanation: This is basically used in
3. The PC gets incremented
systems without edge-triggered flip flops.
a) After the instruction decoding
b) After the IR instruction gets executed 10. ________ signal is used to show
c) After the fetch cycle complete of memory operation.
d) None of the above a) MFC
Answer:c b) WMFC
Explanation: The PC always points to the c) CFC
next instruction to be executed. d) None of the above
Answer:a
4. Which register in the processor is single
Explanation: MFC stands for Memory
directional ?
Function Complete.
a) MAR
b) MDR 1. Is the below code segment correct, for the
c) PC addition of two numbers ?
d) Temp R1in, Yin
Answer:a R2out, Select Y, ADD , Zin
Explanation: The MAR is single directional Zout, R3in
as it just takes the address from the a) True
processor bus and passes it to the external b) False
bus. Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> This is the gate
5. The transparent register/s is/are
transfer notation, which indicates the usage
__________.
of switches to control the flow of data.
a) Y
b) Z 2. The completion of the memroy operation
c) Temp is indicated using ______ signal.
d) All of the above a) MFC
Answer:d b) WMFC
Explanation: These registers are usually c) CFC
used to store temporary values. d) None of the above
Answer:a
6. Which register is connected to the MUX ?
Explanation: <numeric> MFC stands for
a) Y
Memory Function Complete.
b) Z
c) R0 3. _________ signal enables the processor to
d) Temp wait for the memory operation to complete.
Answer:a a) MFC
Explanation: The MUX can either read the b) TLB
operand from the Y register or increment the c) WMFC
PC. d) ALB
Answer:c
7. The registers,ALU and the
Explanation: <numeric> This signal stands
interconnecting path together are called as
for Wait For Memory Function Complete.
______.
a) Control path 4. The small extremly fast, RAM‘s all called
b) Flow path as ________.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Cache d) None of these
b) Heaps Answer:c
c) Accumulators
d) Stacks Multiple BUS Organistaion
Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> Cache‘s are 1. The general purpose registers are
extremly essential in single BUS combined into a block called as ______.
organisation to achieve fast operation. a) Register bank
5. The main virtue for using single Bus b) Register Case
structure is c) Register file
a) Fast data transfers d) None of the above
b) Cost effective connectivity and speed
c) Cost effective connectivity and ease of Answer:c
attaching peripheral devices Explanation: <numeric> To make the access
d) None of these of the registers easier, we classify them into
Answer:c register files.
6. To extend the connectivity of the
2. In ______ technology, the
processor bus we use ______.
implementation of the register file is by
a) PCI bus
using an array of memory locations.
b) SCSI bus
a) VLSI
c) Controllers
b) ANSI
d) Multiple bus
c) ISA
d) ASCI
Answer:a
Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> The PCI BUS
Explanation: <numeric> By doing so the
basically is used to connect ot memory
access of the registers can be made faster.
devices.
3. In a three BUS architecture, how many
7. The bus used to connect the monitor to
input and output ports are there ?
the CPU is
a) 2 output and 2 input
a) PCI bus
b) 1 output and 2 input
b) SCSI bus
c) 2 output and 1 input
c) Memory bus
d) 1 output and 1 input
d) Rambus
Answer:c
Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> That is enabling
Explanation: <numeric> The SCSI (Small
reading from two locations and writting into
Component System Interconnect) is used to
one.
connect to display devices.
4. For a 3 BUS architecture, is the below
8. The ISA standard Buses are used to
code correct for adding three numbers ?
connect,
PCout, R = B, MARin , READ, Inc PC
a) RAM and processor
WMFC
b) GPU and processor
MDRout, R = B, IRin
c) Harddisk and Processor
R4outa, R5outb, Select A, ADD, R6in, End
d) CD/DVD drives and Processor
a) True
Answer:c
b) False
9. ANSI stands for,
a) American National Standards Institute
Answer:a
b) American National Standard Interface
Explanation: <numeric> We have assumed
c) American Network Standard Interfacing
the names of the three BUSes has A, B and
d) American Network Security Interrupt
C.

Answer:a 5. The main advantage of multiple bus

Explanation: <numeric> It is one of the organisation over single bus is,
standards of developing a BUS. a) Reduction in the number of cycles for
execution
10. IBM developed a bus standard for their b) Increase in size of the registers
line of computers ‗PC AT‘ called c) Better Connectivity
a) IB bus d) None of these
b) M-bus Answer:a
c) ISA

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
6. CISC stands for, b) Contents of IR
a) Complete Instruction Sequential c) Contents of condition flags
Compilation d) All of the above
b) Computer Integrated Sequential Compiler Answer:d
c) Complex Instruction Set Computer Explanation: <numeric> Based on the
d) Complex Instruction Sequential information above the type of control signal
Compilation is decided.
Answer:c
3. What does the hardwired control
Explanation: <numeric> The CISC
generator consist of ?
machines are well adept at handling multiple
a) Decoder/encoder
BUS organisation.
b) Condition codes
7. If the instruction Add R1,R2,R3 is c) Control step counter
executed in a system which is pipelined, d) All of the above
then the value of S is (Where S is term of Answer:d
the Basic performance equation) Explanation: <numeric> The CU uses the
a) 3 above blocks and IR to produce the
b) ~2 necessary signal.
C) ~1
4. What does the end instruction do ?
d) 6
a) It ends the generation of a signal
Answer:c
b) It ends the complete generation process
Explanation: <numeric> The value will be
c) It starts a new instruction fetch cycle and
much lower in case of multiple BUS
resets the counter
organisation.
d) It is used to shift the control to the
8. In multiple BUS organisation processor
__________ is used to select any of the Answer:c
BUSes for input into ALU. Explanation: <numeric> It is basically used
a) MUX to start the generation of a new signal.
b) DE-MUX
5. The Zin signal to the processor is
c) En-CDS
generated using, Zin = T1+T6 ADD + T4
d) None of the above
.BR…
Answer:a
a) True
Explanation: <numeric> The MUX can be
b) False
used to either select the BUS or to increment
Answer:a
the PC.
Explanation: <numeric> The signal is
9. There exists a seperate block consisting of generated using the logic of the formula
various units to decode an instruction. above.
a) True
6. What does the RUN signal do ?
b) False
a) It causes the termination of a signal
10. There exists a seperate block to b) It causes a particular signal to perform its
increment the PC in multiple BUS operation
organisation. c) It causes a particular signal to end
a) True d) It increments the step counter by one
b) False Answer:d
Answer:a Explanation: <numeric> The RUN signal
increments the step counter by one for each
This set of Computer Organisation and
clock cycle.
Architecture MCQ focuses on ―Hardwired
Control‖. 7. The name hardwired came because the
1. ________ are the different type/s of sequence of operations carried out are
generating control signals. determined by the wiring.
a) Micro-programmed a) True
b) Hardwired b) False
c) Micro-instruction Answer:a
d) Both a and b Explanation: <numeric> In other words
Answer:d hardwired is another name for Hardware
Explanation: <numeric> The above are used Control signal generator.
to generate control signals in different types
8. The benefit of using this approach is
of system architectures.
a) It is cost effective
2. The type of control signal are generated b) It is highly efficient
based on, c) It is very reliable
a) contents of the step counter

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) It increases the speed of operation 5. The special memory used to store the
Answer:d micro routines of a computer is ________.
a) Control table
9. The disadvantage/s of the hardwired
b) Control store
approach is
c) Control mart
a) It is less flexible
d) Control shop
b) It cannot be used for complex instructions
Answer:b
c) It is costly
Explanation: <numeric> The control store is
d) Both a and b
used as a reference to get the required
Answer:d
control routine.
Explanation: <numeric> The more complex
the instruction set less applicable is 6. To read the control words sequentially
hardwired approach. _________ is used.
a) PC
10. The End signal is generated using, End =
b) IR
T7.ADD + T5.BR + (T5.N+ T4.-N).BRN…
c) UPC
a) True
d) None of the above
b) False
Answer:c
Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> The UPC stands for
Micro program counter.
Microprogrammed Control
7. Every time a new instruction is loaded
1. In micro-programmed approach, the into IR the output of ________ is loaded
signals are generated by ______. into UPC.
a) Machine instructions a) Starting address generator
b) System programs b) Loader
c) Utility tools c) Linker
d) None of the above d) Clock
Answer:a Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> The machine Explanation: <numeric> The starting
instructions generate the signals. address generator is used to load the address
of the next micro instruction.
2. A word whose individual bits represent a
control signal is ______. 8. The case/s where micro-programmed
a) Command word cannot perform well
b) Control word a) When it requires to check the condition
c) Co-ordination word codes
d) Generation word b) When it has to choose between the two
Answer:b alternatives
Explanation: <numeric> The control word is c) When it is triggered by an interrupt
used to get the different types of control d) Both a and b
signals required. Answer:d

3. A sequence of control words 9. The signals are grouped such that

corresponding to a control sequence is called mutually exclusive signals are put together.
_______. a) True
a) Micro routine b) False
b) Micro function Answer:a
c) Micro procedure Explanation: <numeric> This is done to
d) None of the above improve the efficiency of the controller.
Answer:a 10. Highly encoded schemes that use
Explanation: <numeric> The micro routines compact codes to specify a small number of
are used to perform a particular task. functions in each micro instruction is
4. Individual control words of the micro ________.
routine are called as ______. a) Horizontal organisation
a) Micro task b) Vertical organisation
b) Micro operation c) Diagonal organisation
c) Micro instruction d) None of the above
d) Micro command Answer:b
Answer:c
Explanation: <numeric> The each Replacement Algorithms
instruction which put together performs the
task. 1. The directly mapped cache no
replacement algorithm is required.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) True b) MRU
b) False c) OFM
Answer:a d) None of the above
Explanation: The position of each block is Answer:b
pre-determined in the direct mapped cache, Explanation: In MRU it is assumed that the
hence not need for replacement. page accessed now is less likely to be
accessed again.
2. The surroundings of the recently accessed
block is called as ______. 8. The LRU can be improved by providing a
a) Neighbourhood little randomness in the access.
b) Neighbour a) True
c) Locality of reference b) False
d) None of the above Answer:a
Answer:c
Explanation: The locality of reference is a
9. In LRU, the referenced blocks counter is
key factor in many of the replacement
set to‘0′ and that of the previous blocks are
algorithms.
incremented by one and others remain same,
3. In set associative and associative mapping in case of ______.
there exists less flexibility. a) Hit
a) True b) Miss
b) False c) Delay
Answer:b d) None of the above
Explanation: The above two methods of Answer:a
mapping the descision of which block to be Explanation: If the referenced block is
removed rests with the cache controller. present in the memory it is called as hit.
4. THe algorithm which replaces the block 10. The counter that keeps track of how
which has not been referenced for awhile is many times a block is most likely used is
called _____. _______.
a) LRU a) Count
b) ORF b) Reference counter
c) Direct c) Use counter
d) Both a and b d) Probable counter
Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently
Used first. Performance Of Caches
5. In associative mapping during LRU, the
counter of the new block is set to ‗0‘ and all 1.The key factor/s in commercial success of
the others are incremented by one, when a computer is/are ________.
_____ occurs. a) Performance
a) Delay b) Cost
b) Miss c) Speed
c) Hit d) Both a and b
d) Delayed hit Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation: The performance and cost of
Explanation: Miss usually occurs when the the computer system is key decider in the
memory block requiered is not present in the commercial success of the system.
cache. 2. The main objective of the computer
6. The LRU provides very bad performance system is
when it comes to, a) To provide optimal power operation.
a) Blocks being accessed is sequential. b) To provide best performance at low cost.
b) When the blocks are ramdomised. c) To provide speedy operation at low power
c) When the consecutive blocks accessed are consumption.
in the extremes. d) All of the above.
d) None of the above. Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation: An optimal system provides
Explanation: The LRU in case of the best performance at low costs.
sequential blocks as to waste its one cycle 3. A common measure of performance is
just incrementing the counters. a) Price/performance ratio.
7. The algorithm which removes the recently b) Performance/price ratio.
used page first is ________. c) Operation/price ratio.
a) LRU d) None of the above.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:a the Basic performance equation)
Explanation: If this measure is less than one a) 3
then the system is optimal. b) ~2
C) ~1
4. The performance depends on
d) 6
a) The speed of execution only.
Answer:c
b) The speed of fetch and execution.
Explanation: Pipelining is a process of
c) The speed of fetch only
fetching an instruction during the execution
d) The hardware of the system only.
of other instruction
Answer:b
Explanation: The performance of a system is
decided by how quick an instruction is Virtual Memory
brought into the system and executed.
1. The physical memory is not as large as
5. The main purpose of having memory the address space spanned by the processor.
hierarchy is to a) True
a) Reduce access time. b) False
b) Provide large capacity. Answer:a
c) Reduce propagation time. Explanation: <numeric> This is one of the
d) Both a and b. main reasons for the usage of virtual
Answer:d memories.
Explanation: By using the memory
Hierarchy, we can increase the performance 2. The program is divided into operable
of the system. parts called as _________.
a) Frames
6. The memory transfers between two b) Segments
variable speed devices is always done at the c) Pages
speed of the faster device. d) Sheets
a) True Answer:b
b) False Explanation: <numeric> The program is
Answer:a divided into parts called as segments for
7. An effective to introduce parallelism in ease of execution.
memory access is by _______. 3. The techniques which move the program
a) Memory interleaving blocks to or from the physical memory is
b) TLB called as ______.
c) Pages a) Paging
d) Frames b) Virtual memory organisation
Answer:a c) Overlays
Explanation: Interleaving divides the d) Framing
memory into modules. Answer:b
8. The performance of the system is greatly Explanation: <numeric> By using this
influenced by increasing the level 1 cache. technique the program execution is
a) True accomplished with usage of less space.
b) False 4. The binary address issued to data or
Answer:a instructions are called as ______.
Explanation: This is so because the L1 cache a) Physical address
is onboard the processor. b) Location
9. Two processors A and B have clock c) Relocatable address
frequencies of 700 Mhz and 900 Mhz d) Logical address
respectively. Suppose A can execute an Answer:d
instruction with an average Explanation: <numeric> The logical address
of 3 steps and B can execute with an average is the random address generated by the
of 5 steps.For the execution of the same processor.
instruction which processor is faster 5. __________is used to implement virtual
a) A memory organisation.
b) B a) Page table
C) Both take the same time b) Frame table
d) Insufficient information c) MMU
Answer:a d) None of the above
10.If the instruction Add R1, R2, R3 is Answer:c
executed in a system which is pipelined, Explanation: <numeric> The MMU stands
then the value of S is (Where S is term of for Memory Management Unit.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
6. ______ translates logical address into a) Applying a suitable electric pulse.
physical address. b) Applying a suitable magnetic field.
a) MMU c) Applying a suitable nuclear field.
b) Translator d) By using optic waves.
c) Compiler
d) Linker
Answer:a
Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> The digital data is
Explanation: <numeric> The MMU
sorted on the magnetized discs by
translates the logical address into physical
magnetizing the areas.
address by adding an offset.
7. The main aim of virtual memory 3. For the synchronization of the read head,
organisation is we make use of a _______.
a) To provide effective memory access. a) Framing bit
b) To provide better memory transfer. b) Synchronization bit
c) To improve the execution of the program. c) Clock
d) All of the above. d) Dirty bit
Answer:d Answer:c
Explanation: <numeric> The clock makes it
8. The DMA doesn‘t make use of the MMU easy to distinguish between different values
for bulk data transfers. red by head.
a) True
b) False 4. On of the most widely used schemes of
Answer:b encoding used is _________.
Explanation: <numeric> The DMA stands a) NRZ-polar
for Direct Memory Access,in which a block b) RZ-polar
of data gets directly transferred from the c) Manchester
memory. d) Block encoding
Answer:c
9. The virtual memory basically stores the Explanation: <numeric> The Manchester
next segment of data to be executed on the encoding used is also called as phase
_________. encoding and it is used to encode both clock
a) Secondary storage and data.
b) Disks
c) RAM 5. The drawback of Manchester encoding is
d) ROM _________.
Answer:a a) The cost of the encoding scheme
b) The speed of encoding the data
10. The asscociatively mapped virtual c) The Latency offered
memory makes use of _______. d) The low bit storage density provided
a) TLB Answer:d
b) Page table Explanation: <numeric> The space required
c) Frame table to represent each bit must be large enough to
d) None of the above accommodate two changes in magnetization.
Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> TLB stands for 6. The read/write heads must be near to disk
Translation Look-aside Buffer. surfaces for better storage.
a) True
b) False
Secondary Storage Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> By maintaining the
1. The main reason for the discontinuation heads near to the surface greater bit densities
of semi conductor based storage devices for can be achieved.
providing large storage space is,
a) Lack of sufficient resources. 7. _____ pushes the heads away from the
b) High cost per bit value. surface as they rotate at their standard rates.
c) Lack of speed of operation. a) Magnetic tension
d) None of the above. b) Electric force
Answer:b c) Air pressure
Explanation: <numeric> In case of semi d) None of the above
conductor based memory technology, we get Answer:c
speed but the increase in the integration of Explanation: <numeric> Due to the speed of
various devices the cost is high. rotation of the discs air pressure develops in
the hard disk.
2. The digital information is stored on the
hard disk by ____________.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
8. The air pressure can be countered by 4. The read and write operations usually
putting ______ in the head-disc surface start at ______ of the sector.
arrangement. a) Center
a) Air filter b) Middle
b) Spring mechanism c) From the last used point
c) coolant d) Boundaries
d) None of the above Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation: <numeric> The heads read and
Explanation: <numeric> The spring write data from the ends to the center.
mechanism pushes the head along the
5. To distinguish between two sectors we
surface to reduce the air pressure effect.
make use of ________.
9. The method of placing the heads and the a) Inter sector gap
discs in an air tight environment is called as b) Splitting bit
______. c) Numbering bit
a) RAID Arrays d) None of the above
b) ATP tech Answer:a
c) Winchester technology Explanation: <numeric> This means that we
d) Fleming reduction leave a little gap between each sectors to
Answer:c differentiate between them.
Explanation: <numeric> The Disks and the
6. The _____ process divides the disk into
heads operate faster due to the absence of
sectors and tracks.
the dust particles.
a) Creation
10. A hard disk with 20 surfaces will have b) Initiation
_____ heads. c) Formatting
a) 10 d) Modification
b) 5 Answer:c
c) 1 Explanation: <numeric> The formatting
d) 20 process deletes the data present and does the
Answer:d creation of sectors and tracks.
Explanation: <numeric> Each surface will
7. The access time is composed of
have its own head to perform read/write
__________.
operation.
a) Seek time
1. The disk system consists of which of the b) Rotational delay
following: c) Latency
i. Disk d) Both a and b
ii. Disk drive
iii. Disk controller
Answer:d
a) i and ii
Explanation: <numeric> The seek time
b) i ,ii and iii
refers to the time required to move the head
c) ii and iii
to the required disk.
d) i
Answer:b ‗8. The disk drive is connected to the system
2. The set of corresponding tracks on all by using the _____.
surfaces of a stack of disks form a ______. a) PCI bus
a) Cluster b) SCSI bus
b) Cylinder c) HDMI
c) Group d) ISA
d) Set Answer:b
Answer:b
9. _______ is used to deal with the
Explanation: <numeric> The data is stored
difference in the transfer rates between the
in the these sections called as cylinders.
drive and the bus.
3. The data can be accessed from the disk a) Data repeaters
using _________. b) Enhancers
a) Surface number c) Data buffers
b) Sector number d) None of the above
c) Track number
Answer:c
d) All of the above
Explanation: <numeric> The buffers are
Answer:d
added to store the data from the fast device
and to send it to the slower device at its rate.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
10. _______ is used to detect and correct the 6. The usual implementation of the carry
errors that may occur during data transfers. circuit involves _________.
a) ECC a) And and or gates
b) CRC b) XOR
c) Checksum c) NAND
d) None of the above d) XNOR
Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> ECC stands for Explanation: <numeric> In case of full and
Error Correcting Code. half adders this method is used.
7. A _______ gate is used to detect the
Fast Adders occurrence of an overflow.
a) NAND
1. The logic operations are simpler to b) XOR
implement using logic circuits. c) XNOR
a) True d) AND
b) False Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation: <numeric> The overflow is
Explanation: <numeric> The logic operation detected by cn^cn-1 (‗^‘ indicates XOR
include AND, OR, XOR etc. operation).
2. The logic operations are implemented 8. In a normal adder circuit the delay
using _______ circuits. obtained in generation of the output is
a) Bridge _______.
b) Logical a) 2n + 2
c) Combinatorial b) 2n
d) Gate c) n + 2
Answer:c d) None of the above
Explanation: <numeric> The combinatorial Answer:a
circuits means, using the basic universal Explanation: <numeric> The 2n delay cause
gates. of the carry generation and the 2 delay cause
3. The carry generation function: ci + 1 = of the XOR operation.
yici + xici + xiyi, is implemented in 9. The final addition sum of the numbers,
____________. 0110 & 0110 is
a) Half adders a) 1101
b) Full adders b) 1111
c) Ripple adders c) 1001
d) Fast adders d) 1010
Answer:b Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> In this the carry for 10. The delay reduced to in the carry look
the next step is generated in the previous ahead adder is _______.
steps operation. a) 5
4. The carry in the ripple adders,(which is b) 8
true) c) 10
a) Are generated at the beginning only. d) 2n
b) Must travel through the configuration. Answer:a
c) Is generated at the end of each operation.
d) None of the above Multiplication
Answer:b
1. The product of 1101 & 1011 is
Explanation: <numeric> The carry must
a) 10001111
pass through the configuration of the circuit
b) 10101010
till it reaches the particular step.
c) 11110000
5. In full adders the sum circuit is d) 11001100
implemented using ________. Answer:a
a) And & or gates Explanation: <numeric> The above
b) NAND gate operation is performed using binary
c) XOR multiplication.
d) XNOR 2. We make use of ______ circuits to
Answer:c implement multiplication.
Explanation: <numeric> sum = a ^ b ^ c (‗^‘ a) Flip flops
indicates XOR operation). b) Combinatorial
c) Fast adders

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) None of the above c) -2-10
Answer:c d) None of the above
Explanation: <numeric> The fast adders are Answer:a
used to add the multiplied numbers.
10. CSA stands for
3. The multiplier is stored in ______. a) Computer Speed Addition
a) PC Register b) Carry Save Addition
b) Shift register c) Computer Service Architecture
c) Cache d) None of the above
d) None of the above Answer:a
Answer:b Explanation: <numeric> The CSA is used to
Explanation: <numeric> The value is stored speed up the addition of multiplicands.
in a shift register, so that each bit can be
accessed separately. Representation of Floating Number
4. The ______ is used to co-ordinate the
operation of the multiplier. 1. The decimal numbers represented in the
a) Controller computer are called as floating point
b) Coordinator numbers, as the decimal point floats through
c) Control sequencer the number.
d) None of the above a) True
Answer:c b) False
Explanation: <numeric> This performs the Answer:a
required sequencing of the various parts of Explanation: <numeric> By doing this the
the circuit. computer is capable of accommodating the
large float numbers also.
5. The multiplicand and the control signals
are passed through to the n-bit adder via 2. The numbers written to the power of 10 in
_____. the representation of decimal numbers are
a) MUX called as _____.
b) DEMUX a) Height factors
c) Encoder b) Size factors
d) Decoder c) Scale factors
Answer:a d) None of the above
Answer:c
6. The product of -13 & 11 is Explanation: <numeric> These are called as
a) 1100110011 scale factors cause they‘re responsible in
b) 1101110001 determining the degree of specification of a
c) 1010101010 number.
d) 1111111000
Answer:b 3. If the decimal point is placed to the right
of the first significant digit, then the number
7. The method used to reduce the maximum is called as ________.
number of summands by half is _______. a) Orthogonal
a) Fast multiplication b) Normalized
b) Bit-pair recording c) Determinate
c) Quick multiplication d) None of the above
d) None of the above Answer:b
Answer: b
Explanation: It reduces the number of 4. ________ constitute the representation of
summands by concatenating them. the floating number.
a) Sign
8. The bits 1 & 1 are recorded as _______ in b) Significant digits
bit-pair recording. c) Scale factor
a) -1 d) All of the above
b) 0 Answer:d
c) +1 Explanation: <numeric> The following
d) both a and b factors are responsible for the representation
Answer:d of the number.
Explanation: <numeric> Its ‗-1‘ when the
previous bit is 0 and ‗0‘ when the previous 5. The sign followed by the string of digits is
bit is 1. called as ______.
a) Significant
9. The multiplier -6(11010) is recorded as, b) Determinant
a) 0-1-2 c) Mantissa
b) 0-1+1-10 d) Exponent

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:c which are designed to remove redundant
Explanation: <numeric> The mantissa also parts of the code are called as optimizing
consists of the decimal point. compilers.
6. In IEEE 32-bit representations, the 2. The pipelining process is also called as
mantissa of the fraction is said to occupy ______.
______ bits. a) Superscalar operation
a) 24 b) Assembly line operation
b) 23 c) Von neumann cycle
c) 20 d) None of the mentioned
d) 16
Answer:b
Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> The mantissa is
Explanation: <numeric> It is called so
made to occupy 23 bits, with 8 bit exponent.
because it performs its operation at assembly
7. The normalized representation of level.
0.0010110 * 2 ^ 9 is
a) 0 10001000 0010110 3. The fetch and execution cycles are
b) 0 10000101 0110 interleaved with the help of ________.
c) 0 10101010 1110 a) Modification in processor architecture
d) 0 11110100 11100 b) Clock
Answer:b c) Special unit
Explanation: <numeric> Normalized d) Control unit
representation is done by shifting the Answer:b
decimal point. Explanation: <numeric> The time cycle of
the clock is adjusted to perform the
8. The 32 bit representation of the decimal interleaving.
number is called as ____.
a) Double-precision 4. Each stage in pipelining should be
b) Single-precision completed within ____ cycle.
c) Extended format a) 1
d) None of the above b) 2
Answer:b c) 3
d) 4
9. In 32 bit representation the scale factor as Answer:a
a range of ________. Explanation: <numeric> The stages in the
a) -128 to 127 pipelining should get completed within one
b) -256 to 255 cycle to increase the speed of performance.
c) 0 to 255
d) None of the above 5.In pipelining the task which requires the
Answer:a least time is performed first.
Explanation: <numeric> Since the exponent a) True
field has only 8 bits to store the value. b) False
Answer:b
10. In double precision format the size of the Explanation: <numeric> This is done to
mantissa is ______. avoid starvation of the longer task.
a) 32 bit
b) 52 bit 6. If a unit completes its task before the
c) 64 bit allotted time period, then
d) 72 bit a) It‘ll perform some other task in the
Answer:b remaining time
Explanation: <numeric> The double b) Its time gets reallocated to different task
precision format is also called as 64 bit c) It‘ll remain idle for the remaining time
representation d) None of the mentioned
Answer:c
Pipe-lining 7. To increase the speed of memory access
in pipelining, we make use of _______.
1. ______ have been developed specifically a) Special memory locations
for pipelined systems. b) Special purpose registers
a) Utility softwares c) Cache
b) Speed up utilities d) Buffers
c) Optimizing compilers Answer:c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: <numeric> By using the cache
Answer:c we can reduce the speed of memory access
Explanation: <numeric> The compilers by a factor of 10.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
8. The periods of time when the unit is idle completly, then the processor is said to have
is called as _____. ______.
a) Stalls a) Exception handling
b) Bubbles b) Imprecise exceptions
c) Hazards c) Error correction
d) Both a and b d) None of the above
Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> The stalls are a Explanation: <numeric> The processor since
type of hazards that affect a pipelined as executed the following instructions even
system. though an exception was raised, hence the
exception is treated as imprecise.
9. The contention for the usage of a
hardware device is called as ______. 5. In super-scalar mode, all the similar
a) Structural hazard instructions are grouped and executed
b) Stalk together.
c) Deadlock a) True
d) None of the mentioned b) False
Answer:a Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> The instructions are
10. The situation where in the data of
grouped meaning that the instructions fetch
operands are not available is called ______.
and decode and other cycles are overlapped.
a) Data hazard
b) Stock 6. In super-scalar processors, ________
c) Deadlock mode of execution is used.
d) Structural hazard a) In-order
Answer:a b) Post order
Explanation: <numeric> Data hazards are c) Out of order
generally caused when the data is not ready d) None of the mentioned
on the destination side Answer:c
Explanation: <numeric> It follows out of
Superscalar Processors order execution to speed up the execution of
instructions.
1. The throughput of a super scalar ‗7. Since it uses the out of order mode of
processor is execution, the results are stored in ______.
a) less than 1 a) Buffers
b) 1 b) Special memory locations
c) More than 1 c) Temporary registers
d) Not Known d) TLB
Answer:c Answer:c
Explanation: <numeric> The throughput of a Explanation: <numeric> The results are
processor is measured by using the number stored in temporary locations and are
of instructions executed per second. arranged afterwards.
2. When the processor executes multiple 8. The step where in the results stored in the
instructions at a time it is said to use temporary register is transfered into the
_______. permanent register is called as ______.
a) single issue a) Final step
b) Multiplicity b) Committment step
c) Visualization c) Last step
d) Multiple issue d) Inception step
Answer:d Answer:b
3. The ______ plays a very vital role in case 9. A special unit used govern the out of
of super scalar processors. order execution of the instructions is called
a) Compilers as ______.
b) Motherboard a) Commitment unit
c) Memory b) Temporal unit
d) Peripherals c) Monitor
Answer:a d) supervisory unit
Explanation: <numeric> The compilers are Answer:a
programmed to arrange the instructions to Explanation: <numeric> This unit monitors
get more throughput. the the execution of the instructions and
4. If an exception is raised and the makes sure that the final result is in order.
succeeding instructions are executed

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
10. The commitment unit uses a queue 6. Both the CISC and RISC architectures
called ______. have been developed to reduce the ______.
a) Record buffer a) Cost
b) Commitment buffer b) Time delay
c) Storage buffer c) Semantic gap
d) None of the above d) All of the above
Answer:a Answer:c
Explanation: <numeric> The semantic gap is
CISC And RISC Processors the gap between the high level language and
the low level language.
1. The CISC stands for 7. Out of the following which is not a CISC
a) Computer Instruction Set Compliment machine.
b) Complete Instruction Set Compliment a) IBM 370/168
c) Computer Indexed Set Components b) VAX 11/780
d) Complex Instruction set computer c) Intel 80486
Answer:d d) Motorola A567
Explanation: <numeric> CISC is an Answer:d
computer architecture where in the
processor performs more complex 8. Pipe-lining is a unique feature of
operations in one step. _______.
a) RISC
2. The computer architecture aimed at b) CISC
reducing the time of execution of c) ISA
instructions is ________. d) IANA
a) CISC Answer:a
b) RISC Explanation: <numeric> The RISC machine
c) ISA architecture was the first to implement pipe-
d) ANNA lining.
Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> The RISC stands 9. In CISC architecture most of the complex
for Reduced Instruction Set Computer. instructions are stored in _____.
a) Register
3. The Sun micro systems processors usually b) Diodes
follow _____ architecture. c) CMOS
a) CISC d) Transistors
b) ISA Answer:d
c) ULTRA SPARC Explanation: <numeric> In CISC
d) RISC architecture more emphasis is given on the
Answer:d instruction set and the instructions take over
Explanation: <numeric> The Risc machine a cycle to complete.
aims at reducing the instruction set of the
computer. 10. Which of the architecture is power
efficient?
4. The RISC processor has a more a) CISC
complicated design than CISC. b) RISC
a) True c) ISA
b) False d) IANA
Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> The RISC Explanation: <numeric> Hence the RISC
processor design is more simpler than CISC architecture is followed in the design of
and it consists of fewer transistors. mobile devices.
5. The iconic feature of the RISC machine
among the following are VLIW Architecture (I-64)
a) Reduced number of addressing modes
b) Increased memory size 1. VLIW stands for
c) Having a branch delay slot a) Very Long Instruction Word
d) All of the above b) Very Long Instruction Width
c) Very Large Instruction Word
d) Very Long Instruction Width
Answer:c
Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> A branch delay slot
Explanation: <numeric> It is the architecture
is an instruction space immediately
designed to perform multiple operations in
following a jump or branch.
parallel.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
2. The important feature of the VLIW is Explanation: <numeric> The MIMD stands
_______. for Multiple Instructions Multiple Data.
a) ILP
8. The following instruction is allowed in
b) Cost effectiveness
VLIW:
c) Performance
f12 = f0 * f4, f8 = f8 + f12, f0 = dm(i0, m3),
d) None of the mentioned
f4 = pm(i8, m9);
Answer:a
a) True
Explanation: <numeric> ILP stands for
b) False
Instruction Level Parallelism.
Answer:a
3. The main difference between the VLIW Explanation: <numeric> The above
and the other approaches to improve mentioned instruction is a complex 48 bit
performance is instruction used to perform operations on
a) Cost effectiveness. floating numbers.
b) Increase in performance
9. To compute the direction of the branch
c) Lack of complex hardware design
the VLIW uses _____.
d) All of the above
a) Seekers
Answer:c
b) Heuristics
Explanation: <numeric> The Pipe-lining and
c) Direction counter
super-scalar architectures involved the usage
d) Compass
of complex hardware circuits for the
Answer:b
implementation.
10. EPIC stands for
4. In VLIW the decision for the order of
a) Explicitly Parallel Instruction Computing
execution of the instructions depends on the
b) External Peripheral Integrating
program itself.
Component
a) True
c) External Parallel Instruction Computing
b) False
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> In other words the
order of execution of instructions has
nothing to do with the physical hardware Clusters
implementation of the system.
1. The set of loosely connected computers
5. The parallel execution of operations in are called as _____.
VLIW is done according to the schedule a) LAN
determined by _____. b) WAN
a) Task scheduler c) Workstation
b) Interpreter d) Cluster
c) Compiler Answer:d
d) Encoder Explanation: <numeric> In a computer
Answer:c cluster all the participating computers work
Explanation: <numeric> The compiler first together on a particular task.
checks the code for inter dependencies and
then determines the schedule for its 2. The each computer in a cluster is
execution. connected using _____.
a) UTP
6. The VLIW processors are much simpler b) Rj-45
as they don not require of _____. c) STP
a) Computational register d) Coaxial cable
b) Complex logic circuits Answer:b
c) SSD slots Explanation: <numeric> The computers are
d) Scheduling hardware connected to each other using a LAN
Answer:d connector cable.
Explanation: <numeric> As the compiler
only decides the schedule of execution the 3. The computer cluster architecture
scheduler is not required here. emerged as a result of ____.
a) ISA
7. The VLIW architecture follows _____ b) Workstation
approach to achieve parallelism. c) Super computers
a) MISD d) Distributed systems
b) SISD Answer:d
c) SIMD Explanation: <numeric> A distributed
d) MIMD system is a computer system spread out over
Answer:d a geographic area.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
4. The software which governs the group of d) None of the above
computers is _____. Answer:a
a) Driver Rd45
b) Interfacor UI Hazards Of Processor Architecture
c) Clustering middleware
d) Distributor 1. Any condition that causes a processor to
Answer:c stall is called as _____.
Explanation: <numeric> The software helps a) Hazard
to project a single system image to the user. b) Page fault
5. The simplest form of a cluster is ______ c) System error
approach. d) None of the above
a) Beowolf Answer:a
b) Sequioa Explanation: <numeric> An hazard causes a
c) Stone delay in the execution process of the
d) None of the above processor.
Answer:a 2. The periods of time when the unit is idle
6. The cluster formation in which the work is called as _____.
is divided equally among the systems is a) Stalls
______. b) Bubbles
a) Load-configuration c) Hazards
b) Load-Division d) Both a and b
c) Light head Answer:d
d) Both a and b Explanation: <numeric> The stalls are a
Answer:a type of hazards that affect a pipe-lined
Explanation: <numeric> This approach the system.
work gets divided among the systems 3. The contention for the usage of a
equally. hardware device is called as ______.
7. In the client server model of the cluster a) Structural hazard
_____ approach is used. b) Stalk
a) Load configuration c) Deadlock
b) FIFO d) None of the above
c) Bankers algorithm Answer:a
d) Round robin Explanation: <numeric> The processor
Answer:d contends for the usage of the hardware and
Explanation: <numeric> By using this might enter into a deadlock state.
approach the performance of the cluster can 4. The situation where in the data of
be enhanced. operands are not available is called ______.
8.The beowolf structure follows the _____ a) Data hazard
approach of relationship between the b) Stock
systems. c) Deadlock
a) Master-slave d) Structural hazard
b) Asynchronous Answer:a
c) Synchronous Explanation: <numeric> Data hazards are
d) Isochronous generally caused when the data is not ready
on the destination side.

Answer:a 5. The stalling of the processor due to the

9. The most common modes of unavailability of the instructions is called as
communication in clusters is/are ______. ____.
a) Message queues a) Control hazard
b) Message passing interface b) structural hazard
c) PVm c) Input hazard
d) Both b and c d) None of the above
Answer:d Answer:a
Explanation: <numeric> The control hazard
10. The method followed in case of node also called as instruction hazard is usually
failure, wherein the node gets disabled is caused by a cache miss.
_____.
a) STONITH 6. The time lost due to branch instruction is
b) Fibre channel often referred to as _____.
c) Fencing a) Latency
b) Delay

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Branch penalty memory side the memory is divided into
d) None of the above pages.
Answer:c
2. The memory allocated to each page are
Explanation: <numeric> This time also
contiguous.
retards the performance speed of the
a) True
processor.
b) False
7. The pipeline bubbling is a method used to Answer:a
prevent data hazard and structural hazards. Explanation: <numeric> Each page might be
a) True allocated memory deferentially but memory
b) False for one page will be continuous.
8. _____ method is used in centralized 3. The pages size shouldn‘t be too small, as
systems to perform out of order execution. this would lead to
a) Scorecard a) Transfer errors
b) Score boarding b) Increase in operation time
c) Optimizing c) Increase in access time
d) Redundancy d) Decrease in performance
Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation: <numeric> In a scoreboard, the Explanation: <numeric> The access time of
data dependencies of every instruction are the magnetic disk is much longer than the
logged. Instructions are released only when access time of the memory.
the scoreboard determines that there are no
4. The cache bridges the speed gap between
conflicts with previously issued and
______ and _____.
incomplete instructions.
a) RAM and ROM
9. The algorithm followed in most of the b) RAM and Secondary memory
systems to perform out of order execution is c) Processor and RAM
______. d) None of the above
a) Tomasulo algorithm Answer:c
b) Score carding Explanation: <numeric> The Cache is a
c) Reader-writer algorithm hardware implementation to reduce the
d) None of the above access time for processor operations.
Answer:a
5. The virtual memory bridges the size and
Explanation: <numeric> The Tomasulo
speed gap between ______ and _____.
algorithm is a hardware algorithm developed
a) RAM and ROM
in 1967 by Robert Tomasulo from IBM. It
b) RAM and Secondary memory
allows sequential instructions that would
c) Processor and RAM
normally be stalled due to certain
d) None of the above
dependencies to execute non-sequentially
Answer:b
(out-of-order execution).
Explanation: <numeric> The virtual
10. The problem where process concurrency memory basically works as an extension of
becomes an issue is called as ______. the RAM.
a) Philosophers problem
6. The higher order bits of the virtual
b) Bakery problem
address generated by the processor forms the
c) Bankers problem
_______.
d) Reader-writer problem
a) Table number
Answer:d
b) Frame number
c) List number
Address Translation d) Page number
Answer:d
This set of Computer Organisation and Explanation: <numeric> The higher order
Architecture MCQ focuses on ―Address bits indicate the page number which points
Translation‖. to one particular entry in the page table.
1. For converting virtual address into 7. The page length shouldn‘t be too long
physical address, the programs are divided because
into _____. a) It reduces the program efficiency
a) Pages b) It increases the access time
b) Frames c) It leads to wastage of memory
c) Segments d) None of the above
d) Blocks Answer:c
Answer:a Explanation: <numeric> If the size is more
Explanation: <numeric> On the physical

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
than the required size then the extra space a) Processor
gets wasted. b) TLB
c) MMU
8. The lower order bits of the virtual address
d) Cache
forms the _____.
Answer:c
a) Page number
Explanation: <numeric> The page table
b) Frame number
information is used for every read and
c) Block number
access operation.
d) Offset
Answer:d 5. If the page table is large then it is stored
Explanation: <numeric> This gives the in ______.
offset within the page table. a) Processor
b) Main memory
9. The area in the main memory that can
c) Disk
hold one page is called as ______.
d) Secondary storage
a) Page entry
Answer:b
b) Page frame
Explanation: <numeric> By storing the table
c) Frame
on the RAM the required operation‘s speed
d) Block
is increased.
Answer:b
6. When the page table is placed in the main
10. The starting address of the page table is
memory, the ____ is used to store the
stored in ______.
recently accessed pages.
a) TLB
a) MMU
b) R0
b) TLB
c) Page table base register
c) R0
d) None of the above
d) Table
Answer:c
Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> The register is used
Explanation: <numeric> The TLB is used to
to hold the address which is used to access
store the page numbers of the recently
the table.
accessed pages.
1. The bits used to indicate the status of the
7. The TLB is incorporated as part of the
page in the memory is called ______.
_________.
a) Control bits
a) Processor
b) Status bits
b) MMU
c) Progress bit
c) Disk
d) None of the above
d) RAM
Answer:a
Answer:b
Explanation: <numeric> This bits are used
to store the status information of the 8. Whenever a request to the page that is not
program. present in the main memory is accessed,
______ is triggered.
2. The _______ bit is used to indicate the
a) Interrupt
validity of the page.
b) Request
a) Valid bit
c) Page fault
b) Invalid bit
d) None of the above
c) Correct bit
Answer:c
d) None of the above
Explanation: <numeric> When a page fault
Answer:a
is triggered, the os brings the required page
Explanation: <numeric> The os first
into memory.
validates the page and then only moves from
the page table. 9. The general purpose registers are
combined into a block called as ______.
3. The bit used to store whether the page as
a) Register bank
been modified or not is called as _______.
b) Register Case
a) Dirty bit
c) Register file
b) Modify bit
d) None of the above
c) Relocation bit
Answer:c
d) None of the above
Explanation: <numeric> To make the access
Answer:a
of the registers easier, we classify them into
Explanation: <numeric> This bit is set after
register files.
the page in the table gets modified.
10. What does the RUN signal do ?
4. The page table should be ideally situated
a) It causes the termination of a signal
within ______.
b) It causes a particular signal to perform its

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
operation a) Stored in the lower order bits of the
c) It causes a particular signal to end register
d) It increments the step counter by one b) Stored in the higher order bits of the
Answer:d register
Explanation: <numeric> The RUN signal c) Stored in any of the bits at random
increments the step counter by one for each d) None of the above
clock cycle. Answer:a
Explanation: The data always gets stored
Motorola 680X0 Processor architecture from the lower order to the higher order bits,
except in the case of Little Endian
1. _____ register is designated to point to architecture.
the 68000 processor stack . 7. The status register of the 68000 has ____
a) A7 register condition codes .
b) B2 register a) 7
c) There is no such designation b) 4
d) Any general purpose register is selected c) 5
at random d) 8
Answer:a Answer:c
Explanation: The processor stack is the Explanation: The register which is used to
place used to store the on going and up basically store the condition flags is called
coming process information as status register.
2. The word length in the 68000 computer is 8. The 68000 uses _____ address
_______ . assignment .
a) 32 bit a) Big Endian
b) 64 bit b) Little Endian
c) 16 bit c) X-Little Endian
d) 8 bit d) X-Big Endian
Answer:a
Answer:c Explanation: The way the data gets stored in
Explanation: The length of an instruction memory is called as address assignment.
that can be read or accessed at a time is 9. The addresses generated by the 68000 is
referred to as word length. _____ bit .
a) 32
3. Is 68000 computer Byte addressable ?
b) 16
a) True
c) 24
b) False
d) 42
Answer:a
Answer:c
Explanation: The ability of a system to
Explanation: The size of the address is
access the entire data of a process by reading
directly related to the address space of the
consecutive bytes is called as Byte
system.
addressability
10. Instructions which can handle any type
4. The register in 68000 can contain up to
of addressing mode are said to be _____ .
_____ bits .
a) Omniscious
a) 24
b) Orthogonal
b) 32
c) Versatile
c) 16
d) None of the above
d) 64
Answer:b
Answer:b
Explanation: These instructions do not
5. The 68000 has a max of how many data require the mentioning of any one type of
registers ? addressing mode.
a) 16
1. The instructions in 68000 can deal with
b) 20
operands of three different sizes .
c) 10
a) True
d) 8
b) False
Answer:d
Answer:a
Explanation: The data registers are solely
Explanation: The operands are of different
used for the purpose of storing data items of
sizes because of the difference in the values.
the process.
2. As the instructions can deal with variable
6. When an operand is stored in a register it
size operands we use _____ to resolve this .
is,
a) Delimiter

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) Size indicator mnemonic Answer:a
c) Special assemblers Explanation: In this method, both the I/O
d) None of the above device and the memory share a common
Answer:b address space.
Explanation: To indicate the size of the
9. _____ instruction is used to set up a frame
operand we use a separate variable
pointer for the sub routines in 68000 .
mnemonic to indicate it.
a) CREATE
3. The starting address is denoted using b) LINK
_____ directive . c) UNLK
a) EQU d) FRAME
b) ORIGIN Answer:b
c) ORG Explanation: This pointer is used to monitor
d) PLACE the stack.
Answer:c
10. The LINK instruction is always followed
Explanation: The starting address is the
by ______ instruction .
location where the program is
a) MOV
stored./expand]
b) UNLK
4. The constant can be declared using ____ c) ORG
directive . d) MOVEM
a) DATAWORD Answer:d
b) PLACE
C) CONS ARM architecture
d) DC
Answer:d This set of Computer Organization and
Explanation: To declare Global constants we Architecture MCQ focuses on ―ARM
use this directive. architecture‖.
5. To allocate a block of memory we use
1. ARM stands for _____________ .
____ directive .
a) Advanced Rate Machines
a) RESERVE
b) Advanced RISC Machines
b) DS
c) Artificial Running Machines
c) DATAWORD
d) Aviary Running Machines
d) PLACE
Answer:b
Answer:b
Explanation: ARM is a type of system
6. The Branch instruction in 68000 provides architecture.
how many types of offsets ?
2. The main importance of ARM micro-
a) 3
processors is providing operation with,
b) 1
a) Low cost and low power consumption
c) 0
b) Higher degree of multi-tasking
d) 2
c) Lower error or glitches
Answer:d
d) Efficient memory management
Explanation: The Branch instruction
Answer:a
basically just adds a constant value to the
Explanation: The Stand alone feature of the
address present in the PC, to change the
ARM processors is that they‘re
instruction to be executed.
economically viable.
7. The purpose of using DBcc as branch
3. ARM processors where basically
instruction is,
designed for _______ .
a) It provides two conditions to be satisfied
a) Main frame systems
for branch to occur
b) Distributed systems
b) It provides a counter to check the number
c) Mobile systems
of times the branch as taken place
d) Super computers
c) It is used to check condition along with
Answer:c
the branch condition
Explanation: These ARM processors are
d) Both a and b
designed for handheld devices.
Answer:d
4. The ARM processors doesn‘t support
8. The 68000 uses _____ method to access
Byte address ability ?
I/O devices buffers .
a) True
a) Memory mapped
b) False
b) I/O mapped
Answer:b
c) Buffer mapped
d) None of the above

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: The ability to store data in the 11. The banked registers are used for,
form of consecutive bytes. a) Switching between supervisor and
interrupt mode
5. The address space in ARM is ______ .
b) Extended storing
a) 2^24
c) Same as other general purpose registers
b) 2^64
d) Both a and c
c) 2^16
Answer:a
d) 2^32
Explanation: When switching from one
Answer:d
mode to another, instead of storing the
6. The address system supported by ARM register contents somewhere else it‘ll be
systems is/are ______ . kept in the duplicate registers and the new
a) Little Endian values are stored in the actual registers.
b) Big Endian
12. Each instruction in ARM machines is
c) X-Little Endian
encoded into ____ Word .
d) Both a and b
a) 2 byte
Answer:d
b) 3 byte
Explanation: The way in which, the data
c) 4 byte
gets stored in the system or the way of
d) 8 byte
address allocation is called as address
system. 13. All instructions in ARM are
conditionally executed .
7. Memory can be accessed in ARM systems
a) True
by _____ instructions .
b) False
i) Store
Answer:a
ii) MOVE
iii) Load 14. The addressing mode where the EA of
iv) arithmetic the operand is the contents of Rn is ______ .
v) logical a) Pre-indexed mode
a) i,ii,iii b) Pre-indexed with write back mode
b) i,ii c) Post-indexed mode
c) i,iv,v d) None of the above
d) iii,iv,v Answer:c
Answer:b
15. The effective address of the instruction
8. RISC stands for _________ . written in Post-indexed mode,
a) Restricted Instruction Sequencing MOVE[Rn]+Rm is _______ .
Computer a) EA = [Rn] b) EA = [Rn + Rm] c) EA =
b) Restricted Instruction Sequential [Rn] + Rm
Compiler d) EA = [Rm] + Rn
c) Reduced Instruction Set Computer Answer:a
d) Reduced Induction Set Computer Explanation: Effective address is the address
Answer:c that the computer acquires from the current
Explanation: This is a system architecture, instruction being executed.
in which the performance of the system is
1. ____ symbol is used to signify write back
improved by reducing the size of the
mode .
instruction set.
a) #
9. In ARM, PC is implemented using ____ . b) ^
a) Caches c) &
b) Heaps d) !
c) General purpose register Answer:d
d) Stack
2. The instructions which are used to load or
Answer:c
store multiple operands are called as _____ .
Explanation: PC is the place where the next
a) Banked instructions
instruction about to be executed is stored.
b) Lump transfer instructions
10. The additional duplicate register used in c) Block transfer instructions
ARM machines are called as _______ . d) DMA instructions
a) Copied-registers Answer:c
b) Banked registers Explanation: These instructions are
c) EXtra registers generally used to perform memory transfer
d) Extential registers operations.
Answer:b
3. The Instruction, LDM
Explanation: The duplicate registers are
R10!,{R0,R1,R6,R7} ______ .
used in situations of context switching.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Loads the contents of R10 into R1,R0,R6 9. The condition to check whether the
and R7 branch should happen or not is given by,
b) Creates a copy of the contents of R10 in a) The lower order 8 bits of the instruction
the other registers except the above b) The higher order 4 bits of the instruction
mentioned ones c) The lower order 4 bits of the instruction
c) Loads the contents of the registers d) The higher order 8 bits of the instruction
R1,R0,R6 and R7 to R10 Answer:b
d) Writes the contents of R10 into the above
10. Which of the two instructions sets the
mentioned registers and clears R10
condition flag upon execution ?
Answer:a
i) ADDS R0,R1,R2
Explanation: The LDM instruction is used to
ii) ADD R0,R1,R2
load data into multiple locations.
a) i
4. The instruction, MLA R0,R1,R2,R3 b) ii
performs _________ . c) Both i and ii
a) R0<-[R1]+[R2]+[R3] b) R3<- d) Insufficient data
[R0]+[R1]+[R2] c) R0<-[R1]*[R2]+[R3] d) Answer:a
R3<-[R0]*[R1]+[R2] [expand title=""] Explanation: This instruction sets the
Answer:c Explanation: The MLA instruction condition flag with out considering whether
is used perform addition and multiplication an carry or overflow as happened or not.
together.[/expand]
11. ____ directive is used indicate the
5. The ability to shift or rotate in the same beginning of the program instruction or data
instruction along with other operation is .
performed with the help of _________ . a) EQU
a) Switching circuit b) START
b) Barrel switcher circuit c) AREA
c) Integrated Switching circuit d) SPACE
d) Multiplexer circuit Answer:c
Answer:b
12. _____ directive specifies the start of the
Explanation: These switching circuits are
execution .
used to basically switch fast and to perform
a) START
better.
b) ENTRY
6. _____ instruction is used to get the 1‘s c) MAIN
compliment of the operand . d) ORIGIN
a) COMP Answer:b
b) BIC Explanation: This directive indicates the
c) ~CMP beginning of the executable part of the
d) MVN program.
Answer:d
13. _____ directives are used to initialize
Explanation: The compliment of all the bits
operands .
of a data is its 1‘s compliment.
a) INT
7. The offset used in the conditional b) DATAWORD
branching is ____ bit . c) RESERVE
a) 24 d) DCD
b) 32 Answer:d
c) 16 Explanation: These directives are used to
d) 8 initialize the operands to a user defined
Answer:a value or a default value.
Explanation: The offset is used to get the
14. _____ directive is used to name the
new branching address of the process.
register used for execution of an instruction .
8. The BEQ instructions is used, a) ASSIGN
a) To check the equality condition between b) RN
the operands and then branch c) NAME
b) To check if the Operand is greater than d) DECLARE
the condition value and then branch Answer:b
c) To check if the flag Z is set to 1 and then Explanation: This instruction is used to list
causes branch the registers used for execution.
d) None of the above
15. THe pseudo instruction used to load
Answer:c
address into the register is ______ .
Explanation: This instruction is basically
a) LOAD
used to check the branch enable bit.
b) ADR

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) ASSIGN 7. The PC is incorporated with the help of
d) PSLOAD general purpose registers .
a) True
b) False
Intel IA-32 Pentium Architecture Answer:b
Explanation: Registers are not used to
1. The address space of the IA-32 is ____ . incorporate PC as in other architectures , but
a) 2^16 a separate space is allocated to it.
b) 2^32 8. IOPL stands for,
c) 2^64 a) Input/Output Privilege level
d) 2^8 b) Input Output Process Link
Answer:b c) Internal Output Process Link
Explanation: The number of addressable d) Internal Offset Privilege Level
locations in the memory is called as address Answer:a
space. Explanation: This indicates the security
2. The addressing method used in IA-32 is between the transfers between the I/O
______ . devices and memory.
a) Little Endian 9. In IA-32 architecture along with the
b) Big Endian general flags, the other conditional flags
c) X-Little Endian provided are _____ .
d) Both a and b a) IOPL
Answer:a b) IF
Explanation: The method of addressing the c) TF
data in the system. d) All of the above
3. The floating point numbers are stored in Answer:d
general purpose register in IA-32 . Explanation: These flags are basically used
a) True check the system for exceptions.
b) False 10. The register used to serve as PC is called
Answer:b as _______ .
Explanation: The floating registers are not a) Indirection register
stored in general purpose registers as they b) Instruction pointer
have a real part and a decimal part. c) R-32
4. The The Floating point registers of IA-32 d) None of the above
can operate on operands up to _____ . Answer:b
a) 128 bit Explanation: The PC is used to store the
b) 256 bit next instruction that is going to be executed.
c) 80 bit 11. The IA-32 processor can switch between
d) 64 bit 16 bit operation and 32 bit operation with
Answer:d the help of instruction prefix bit .
Explanation: The size of the floating a) True
numbers that can be stored in the floating b) False
register. Answer:a
5. The size of the floating registers can be Explanation: This switching enables a wide
extended upto _____ . range of operations to be performed.
a) 128 bit 12. The Bit extension of the register is
b) 256 bit denoted with the help of ____ symbol .
c) 80 bit a) $
d) 64 bit b) `
Answer:c c) E
6. The IA-32 architecture associates d) ~
different parts of memory called ____ with
different usages . Answer:c
a) Frames Explanation: This is used to extend the size
b) Pages of the register.
c) Tables
d) Segments 13. The instruction, ADD R1,R2,R3 is
Answer:d decoded as _______ .
Explanation: The memory is divided into a) R1<-[R1]+[R2]+[R3] b) R3<-[R1]+[R2]
parts called as segments. c) R3<-[R1]+[R2]+[R3] d) R1<-[R2]+[R3]
[expand title=""] Answer:d [/expand]

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
14. The instruction JG loop , does 5. The instruction used to cause
a) jumps to the memory location loop if the unconditional jump is _____ .
result of the most recent arithmetic op is a) UJG
even b) JG
b) jumps to the memory location loop if the c) JMP
result of the most recent arithmetic op is d) GOTO
greater than 0 Answer:c
c) jumps to the memory location loop if the Explanation: This statement causes a jump
test condition is satisfied with the value of from one instruction to another without the
loop condition.
d) Both a and b
6. ____ instruction is used to check the bit of
Answer:b
the condition flags .
Explanation: This instruction is used to
a) TEST
cause a branch based the outcome of the
b) TB
arithmetic operation.
c) CHECK
15. The LEA mnemonic is used to, d) BT
a) Load the effective address of an Answer:d
instruction Explanation: This is used to check the
b) Load the values of operands onto a condition flags for exceptions.
accumulator
7. REPINS instruction is used to,
c) declare the values as global constants
a) Transfer a block of data serially from
d) Store the outcome of the operation at a
Input device to the processor
memory location
b) Transfer a block of data parallely from
Answer:a
Input device to the processor
Explanation: The effective address is the
c) Transfer a block of data serially from
address of the memory location required for
Input device to the ouput device
the execution of the instruction.
d) Transfer a block of data parallely from
1. The instructions of IA-32 machines are of Input device to the output device
length up to ______ . Answer:b
a) 4 bytes
8. Which of the following statements
b) 8 bytes
regarding Stacks is/are True .
c) 16 bytes
i) THe stack always grows towards higher
d) 12 bytes
addresses
Answer:d
ii) The stack always grows towards lower
Explanation: The size of instruction that can
addresses
be executed at once.
iii) The stack has a fixed size
2. The bit present in the op code, indicating iv) THe width of the stack is 32 bits
which of the operands is the source is called a) i and iii
as ________ . b) i and iv
a) SRC bit c) ii and iv
b) Indirection bit d) iii and iv
c) Direction bit Answer:c
d) FRM bit Explanation: The stack is data structure
Answer:c which is fixed at one end and grows at the
other.
3. The ____ directive is used to allocate 4
byte of memory . 9. The instruction used to multiply operands
a) DD yielding a double integer outcome is _____ .
b) ALLOC a) MUL
c) RESERVE b) IMUL
d) SPACE c) DMUL
Answer:a d) EMUL
Answer:b
4. .data directive is used,
Explanation: This instruction is used to carry
a) To indicate the ending of the data section
out multiplication on large integral values.
b) To indicate the beginning of the data
section 10. SIMD stands for,
c) To declare all the source operands a) Single Instruction Multiple Data
d) To Initialize the operands b) Simple Instruction Multiple Decoding
Answer:b c) Sequential Instruction Multiple Decoding
Explanation: This is used to indicate the d) System Information Mutable Data
starting of the section of data. Answer:a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: This is the instruction used to a) SRC bit
perform operation on multiple types of data. b) Indirection bit
c) Direction bit
11. The IA-32 system follows _____ design
d) FRM bit
.
Answer:c
a) RISC
b) CISC 3. The ____ directive is used to allocate 4
c) SIMD byte of memory .
d) None of the above a) DD
Answer:b b) ALLOC
Explanation: This system architecture is c) RESERVE
used to reduce the steps involved in d) SPACE
execution by performing complex operations Answer:a
in one step.
4. .data directive is used,
12. Which architecture is suitable for a wide a) To indicate the ending of the data section
range of data types ? b) To indicate the beginning of the data
a) ARM section
b) 68000 c) To declare all the source operands
c) IA-32 d) To Initialize the operands
d) ASUS firebird Answer:b
Answer:c Explanation: This is used to indicate the
starting of the section of data.
13. In case of multimedia extension
instructions the pixels are encoded into a 5. The instruction used to cause
data item of _____ . unconditional jump is _____ .
a) 16 bit a) UJG
b) 32 bit b) JG
c) 24 bit c) JMP
d) 8 bit d) GOTO
Answer:d Answer:c
Explanation: This statement causes a jump
14. The MMX (Multimedia Extension)
from one instruction to another without the
operands are stored in ______ .
condition.
a) General purpose registers
b) Banked registers 6. ____ instruction is used to check the bit of
c) Float point registers the condition flags .
d) Graphic registers a) TEST
Answer:c b) TB
Explanation: These operands are used for c) CHECK
graphic related operations. d) BT
Answer:d
15. The division operation in IA-32 is a
Explanation: This is used to check the
single operand instruction so it is assumed
condition flags for exceptions.
that,
a) The divisor is stored in the EAX register 7. REPINS instruction is used to,
b) The dividend is stored in the EAC register a) Transfer a block of data serially from
c) The divisor is stored in the accumulator Input device to the processor
d) The dividend is stored in the accumulator b) Transfer a block of data parallely from
Answer:a Input device to the processor
Explanation: In case of, division the divisor c) Transfer a block of data serially from
is pre-loaded onto the ALU. Input device to the ouput device
d) Transfer a block of data parallely from
1. The instructions of IA-32 machines are of
Input device to the output device
length up to ______ .
Answer:b
a) 4 bytes
b) 8 bytes 8. Which of the following statements
c) 16 bytes regarding Stacks is/are True .
d) 12 bytes i) THe stack always grows towards higher
Answer:d addresses
Explanation: The size of instruction that can ii) The stack always grows towards lower
be executed at once. addresses
iii) The stack has a fixed size
2. The bit present in the op code, indicating
iv) THe width of the stack is 32 bits
which of the operands is the source is called
a) i and iii
as ________ .
b) i and iv

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) ii and iv b) The dividend is stored in the EAC register
d) iii and iv c) The divisor is stored in the accumulator
Answer:c d) The dividend is stored in the accumulator
Explanation: The stack is data structure Answer:a
which is fixed at one end and grows at the Explanation: In case of, division the divisor
other. is pre-loaded onto the ALU.
9. The instruction used to multiply operands
yielding a double integer outcome is _____ .
a) MUL
b) IMUL Waheed Murad (Room 112, Allama Iqbal
c) DMUL Hostel 9, University of Peshawar Dated
d) EMUL 18/08/2017)

10. SIMD stands for,

a) Single Instruction Multiple Data
b) Simple Instruction Multiple Decoding
c) Sequential Instruction Multiple Decoding
d) System Information Mutable Data
Answer:a
Explanation: This is the instruction used to
perform operation on multiple types of data.
11. The IA-32 system follows _____ design
.
a) RISC
b) CISC
c) SIMD
d) None of the above
Answer:b
Explanation: This system architecture is
used to reduce the steps involved in
execution by performing complex operations
in one step.
12. Which architecture is suitable for a wide
range of data types ?
a) ARM
b) 68000
c) IA-32
d) ASUS firebird
Answer:c
13. In case of multimedia extension
instructions the pixels are encoded into a
data item of _____ .
a) 16 bit
b) 32 bit
c) 24 bit
d) 8 bit
Answer:d
14. The MMX (Multimedia Extension)
operands are stored in ______ .
a) General purpose registers
b) Banked registers
c) Float point registers
d) Graphic registers
Answer:c
Explanation: These operands are used for
graphic related operations.
15. The division operation in IA-32 is a
single operand instruction so it is assumed
that,
a) The divisor is stored in the EAX register

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
 entire computer session
Answer:c

4. Which one of the following error will be

handle by the operating system?
a) power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
d) all of the mentioned
Answer:d

5. The main function of the command

interpreter is
a) to get and execute the next user-specified
command
b) to provide the interface between the API
and application program
c) to handle the files in operating system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a

6. By operating system, the resource

management can be done via
a) time division multiplexing
b) space division multiplexing
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
Operating System Questions and Answers
These topics are chosen from “Operating 7. If a process fails, most operating system
System Concepts” by Galvin, Gagne and write the error information to a
Siberschatz. a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
OS Basics d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a
1.What is operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages 8. Which facility dynamically adds probes to
hardware resources a running system, both in user processes and
b) system service provider to the application in the kernel?
programs a) DTrace
c) link to interface the hardware and b) DLocate
application programs c) DMapp
d) all of the mentioned d) DAdd
Answer:d Answer:a

2. To access the services of operating 9. Which one of the following is not a real
system, the interface is provided by the time operating system?
a) system calls a) VxWorks
b) API b) Windows CE
c) library c) RTLinux
d) assembly instructions d) Palm OS
Answer:a Answer:d

3. Which one of the following is not true? 10. The OS X has

a) kernel is the program that constitutes the a) monolithic kernel
central core of the operating system b) hybrid kernel
b) kernel is the first part of operating system c) microkernel
to load into memory during booting d) monolithic kernel with modules
c) kernel is made of various modules which Answer:b
can not be loaded in running operating
system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Processes b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
1. The systems which allows only one d) none of the mentioned
process execution at a time, are called Answer:a
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems 8. A process stack does not contain
c) unitasking systems a) function parameters
d) none of the mentioned b) local variables
c) return addresses
Answer:a d) PID of child process
Explanation:Those systems which allows Answer:d
more than one process execution at a time,
are called multiprogramming systems. 9. Which system call returns the process
Uniprocessing means only one processor. identifier of a terminated child?
a) wait
2. In operating system, each process has its b) exit
own c) fork
a) address space and global variables d) get
b) open files Answer:a
c) pending alarms, signals and signal
handlers 10. The address of the next instruction to be
d) all of the mentioned executed by the current process is provided
Answer:d by the
a) CPU registers
3. In Unix, Which system call creates the b) program counter
new process? c) process stack
a) fork d) pipe
b) create Answer:b
c) new
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a Process Control Block

4. A process can be terminated due to 1) A Process Control Block(PCB) does not

a) normal exit contain which of the following :
b) fatal error a) Code
c) killed by another process b) Stack
d) all of the mentioned c) Heap
Answer:d d) Data
e) Program Counter
5. What is the ready state of a process? f) Process State
a) when process is scheduled to run after g) I/O status information
some execution h) bootstrap program
b) when process is unable to run until some Answer: h
task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU 2) The number of processes completed per
d) none of the mentioned unit time is known as __________.
Answer:a a) Output
Explanation:When process is unable to run b) Throughput
until some task has been completed, the c) Efficiency
process is in blocked state and if process is d) Capacity
using the CPU, it is in running state. Answer: b

6. What is interprocess communication? 3) The state of a process is defined by :

a) communication within the process a) the final activity of the process
b) communication between two process b) the activity just executed by the process
c) communication between two threads of c) the activity to next be executed by the
same process process
d) none of the mentioned d) the current activity of the process
Answer:b Answer: d

7. A set of processes is deadlock if 4) Which of the following is not the state of

a) each process is blocked and will remain a process ?
so forever a) New

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) Old d) It is placed in the Job queue
c) Waiting Answer: a
d) Running
e) Ready 3) When a process terminates : (Choose
f) Terminated Two)
Answer: b a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
5) The Process Control Block is : c) Its process control block is de-allocated
a) Process type variable d) Its process control block is never de-
b) Data Structure allocated
c) a secondary storage section Answer: a and c
d) a Block in memory
Answer: b 4) What is a long-term scheduler ?
a) It selects which process has to be brought
6) The entry of all the PCBs of the current into the ready queue
processes is in : b) It selects which process has to be
a) Process Register executed next and allocates CPU
b) Program Counter c) It selects which process to remove from
c) Process Table memory by swapping
d) Process Unit d) None of these
Answer: c Answer: a

7) The degree of multi-programming is : 5) If all processes I/O bound, the ready

a) the number of processes executed per unit queue will almost always be ______, and the
time Short term Scheduler will have a ______ to
b) the number of processes in the ready do.
queue a) full,little
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue b) full,lot
d) the number of processes in memory c) empty,little
Answer: d d) empty,lot

8) A single thread of control allows the 6) What is a medium-term scheduler ?

process to perform : a) It selects which process has to be brought
a) only one task at a time into the ready queue
b) multiple tasks at a time b) It selects which process has to be
c) All of these executed next and allocates CPU
Answer: a c) It selects which process to remove from
memory by swapping
9) The objective of multi-programming is to d) None of these
: (choose two)
a) Have some process running at all times 7) What is a short-term scheduler ?
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a a) It selects which process has to be brought
queue ready to run into the ready queue
c) To minimize CPU utilization b) It selects which process has to be
d) To maximize CPU utilization executed next and allocates CPU
Answer: a and d c) It selects which process to remove from
memory by swapping
d) None of these
Process Scheduling Queues Answer: b

1) Which of the following do not belong to 8) The primary distinction between the short
queues for processes ? term scheduler and the long term scheduler
a) Job Queue is :
b) PCB queue a) The length of their queues
c) Device Queue b) The type of processes they schedule
d) Ready Queue c) The frequency of their execution
Answer: b d) None of these
Answr: c
2) When the process issues an I/O request :
a) It is placed in an I/O queue 9) The only state transition that is initiated
b) It is placed in a waiting queue by the user process itself is :
c) It is placed in the ready queue a) block
b) wakeup

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) dispatch order in which the access takes place, is
d) None of these called a(n) ____.
Answer: a a) Shared Memory Segments
b) Entry Section
10) In a time-sharing operating system, c) Race condition
when the time slot given to a process is d) Process Synchronization
completed, the process goes from the Answer: c
running state to the :
a) Blocked state 16) Which of the following state transitions
b) Ready state is not possible ?
c) Suspended state a) blocked to running
d) Terminated state b) ready to running
Answer: b c) blocked to ready
d) running to blocked
11) In a multi-programming environment : Answer: a
a) the processor executes more than one
process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than Process Synchronization
one person
c) more than one process resides in the 1. Which process can be affected by other
memory processes executing in the system?
d) a single user can execute many programs a) cooperating process
at the same time b) child process
Answer: c c) parent process
d) init process
12) Suppose that a process is in ―Blocked‖ Answer:a
state waiting for some I/O service. When the
service is completed, it goes to the : 2. When several processes access the same
a) Running state data concurrently and the outcome of the
b) Ready state execution depends on the particular order in
c) Suspended state which the access takes place, is called
d) Terminated state a) dynamic condition
Answer: b b) race condition
c) essential condition
13) The context of a process in the PCB of a d) critical condition
process does not contain : Answer:b
a) the value of the CPU registers
b) the process state 3. If a process is executing in its critical
c) memory-management information section, then no other processes can be
d) context switch time executing in their critical section. This
Answer: d condition is called
a) mutual exclusion
14) Which of the following need not b) critical exclusion
necessarily be saved on a context switch c) synchronous exclusion
between processes ? (GATE CS 2000) d) asynchronous exclusion
a) General purpose registers Answer:a
b) Translation look-aside buffer
c) Program counter
d) All of these 4. Which one of the following is a
Answer: b synchronization tool?
a) thread
14) Which of the following does not b) pipe
interrupt a running process ? (GATE CS c) semaphore
2001) d) socket
a) A device Answer:c
b) Timer
c) Scheduler process 5. A semaphore is a shared integer variable
d) Power failure a) that can not drop below zero
Answer: c b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one
15) Several processes access and manipulate d) that can not be more than one
the same data concurrently and the outcome Answer:a
of the execution depends on the particular

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the processes terminate.
a) mutex locks a) wait
b) binary semaphores b) fork
c) both (a) and (b) c) exit
d) none of the mentioned d) exec
Answer:c Answer: a
Explanation:Binary Semaphores are known
as mutex locks.
3) Cascading termination refers to
7. When high priority task is indirectly termination of all child processes before the
preempted by medium priority task parent terminates ______.
effectively inverting the relative priority of a) Normally
the two tasks, the scenario is called b) Abnormally
a) priority inversion c) Normally or abnormally
b) priority removal d) None of these
c) priority exchange Answer: a
d) priority modification
Answer:a 4) With ……………. only one process can
execute at a time; meanwhile all other
8. Process synchronization can be done on process are waiting for the processor. With
a) hardware level ………….. more than one process can be
b) software level running simultaneously each on a different
c) both (a) and (b) processor.
d) none of the mentioned a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
Answer:c b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
9. A monitor is a module that encapsulates d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
a) shared data structures Answer: d
b) procedures that operate on shared data
structure 5) In UNIX, each process is identified by its
c) synchronization between concurrent :
procedure invocation a) Process Control Block
d) all of the mentioned b) Device Queue
Answer:d c) Process Identifier
d) None of these
10. To enable a process to wait within the Answer: c
monitor,
a) a condition variable must be declared as 6) In UNIX, the return value for the fork
condition system call is _____ for the child process
b) condition variables must be used as and _____ for the parent process.
boolean objects a) A Negative integer, Zero
c) semaphore must be used b) Zero, A Negative integer
d) all of the mentioned c) Zero, A nonzero integer
Answer:a d) A nonzero integer, Zero
Answer: c

Process Creation 7) The child process can : (choose two)

a) be a duplicate of the parent process
1) Restricting the child process to a subset of b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
the parent‘s resources prevents any process c) have another program loaded into it
from : d) never have another program loaded into it
a) overloading the system by using a lot of Answer: a and c
secondary storage
b) under-loading the system by very less 8) The child process completes
CPU utilization execution,but the parent keeps executing,
c) overloading the system by creating a lot then the child process is known as :
of sub-processes a) Orphan
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple b) Zombie
resources c) Body
Answer: c d) Dead
Answer: b
2) A parent process calling _____ system
call will be suspended until children

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Inter Process Communication 7) In indirect communication between
processes P and Q :
1) Inter process communication : a) there is another process R to handle and
a) allows processes to communicate and pass on the messages between P and Q
synchronize their actions when using the b) there is another machine between the two
same address space. processes to help communication
b) allows processes to communicate and c) there is a mailbox to help communication
synchronize their actions without using the between P and Q
same address space. d) None of these
c) allows the processes to only synchronize Answer: c
their actions without communication.
d) None of these 8) In the non blocking send :
Answer: b a) the sending process keeps sending until
the message is received
2) Message passing system allows processes b) the sending process sends the message
to : and resumes operation
a) communicate with one another without c) the sending process keeps sending until it
resorting to shared data. receives a message
b) communicate with one another by d) None of these
resorting to shared data. Answer: b
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the 9) In the Zero capacity queue : (choose two)
message a) the queue has zero capacity
Answer: a b) the sender blocks until the receiver
receives the message
3) An IPC facility provides atleast two c) the sender keeps sending and the
operations : (choose two) messages dont wait in the queue
a) write message d) the queue can store atleast one message
b) delete message Answer: a and b
c) send message
d) receive message 10) The Zero Capacity queue :
Answer: c and d a) is referred to as a message system with
buffering
4) Messages sent by a process : b) is referred to as a message system with no
a) have to be of a fixed size buffering
b) have to be a variable size c) is referred to as a link
c) can be fixed or variable sized d) None of these
d) None of these Answer: b
Answer: c
11) Bounded capacity and Unbounded
5) The link between two processes P and Q capacity queues are referred to as :
to send and receive messages is called : a) Programmed buffering
a) communication link b) Automatic buffering
b) message-passing link c) User defined buffering
c) synchronization link d) No buffering
d) All of these Answer: b
Answer: a

6) Which of the following are TRUE for Remote Procedure Calls

direct communication :(choose two)
a) A communication link can be associated 1) Remote Procedure Calls are used :
with N number of process(N = max. number a) for communication between two
of processes supported by system) processes remotely different from each other
b) A communication link can be associated on the same system
with exactly two processes b) for communication between two
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair processes on the same system
of processes(N = max. number of processes c) for communication between two
supported by system) processes on separate systems
d) Exactly one link exists between each pair d) None of these
of processes Answer: c
Answer: b and d
2) To differentiate the many network
services a system supports ______ are used.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Variables d) Remote Machine Invocation
b) Sockets Answer: c
c) Ports
d) Service names
Answer: c Process Structures

3) RPC provides a(an) _____ on the client 1) The initial program that is run when the
side, a separate one for each remote computer is powered up is called :
procedure. a) boot program
a) stub b) bootloader
b) identifier c) initializer
c) name d) bootstrap program
d) process identifier Answer: d
Answer: a
2) How does the software trigger an
interrupt ?
4) The stub : a) Sending signals to CPU through bus
a) transmits the message to the server where b) Executing a special operation called
the server side stub receives the message system call
and invokes procedure on the server side c) Executing a special program called
b) packs the parameters into a form system program
transmittable over the network d) Executing a special program calle
c) locates the port on the server interrupt trigger program
d) All of these Answer: b
Answer: d
3) What is a trap/exception ?
5) To resolve the problem of data a) hardware generated interrupt caused by an
representation on different systems RPCs error
define ______________. b) software generated interrupt caused by an
a) machine dependent representation of data error
b) machine representation of data c) user generated interrupt caused by an
c) machine-independent representation of error
data d) None of these
d) None of these Answer: b
Answer: c
4) What is an ISR ?
6) The full form of RMI : a) Information Service Request
a) Remote Memory Installation b) Interrupt Service Request
b) Remote Memory Invocation c) Interrupt Service Routine
c) Remote Method Installation d) Information Service Routine
d) Remote Method Invocation Answer: c
Answer: d
5) An interrupt vector
7) The remote method invocation : a) is an address that is indexed to an
a) allows a process to invoke memory on a interrupt handler
remote object b) is a unique device number that is indexed
b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a by an address
remote object c) is a unique identity given to an interrupt
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a d) None of these
remote object Answer: a
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a
remote object 6) DMA is used for : (choose two)
Answer: b a) High speed devices(disks and
communications network)
8) A process that is based on IPC b) Low speed devices
mechanism which executes on different c) Saving CPU cycles
systems and can communicate with other d) Utilizing CPU cycles
processes using message based Answer: a and c
communication, is called ________.
a) Local Procedure Call 7) In a memory mapped input/output :
b) Inter Process Communication a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control
c) Remote Procedure Call bit constantly, looping to see if device is
ready

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data d) All of these
register and sets a bit in control register to Answer: d
show that a byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the
device is ready for the next byte CPU Scheduling
d) the CPU runs a user written code and
does accordingly 1. Which module gives control of the CPU
Answer: b to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?
8) In a programmed input/output(PIO) : a) dispatcher
a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control b) interrupt
bit constantly, looping to see if device is c) scheduler
ready d) none of the mentioned
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data Answer:a
register and sets a bit in control register to
show that a byte is available 2. The processes that are residing in main
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the memory and are ready and waiting to
device is ready for the next byte execute are kept on a list called
d) the CPU runs a user written code and a) job queue
does accordingly b) ready queue
Answer: a c) execution queue d) process queue

9) In an interrupt driven input/output :

a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control 3. The interval from the time of submission
bit constantly, looping to see if device is of a process to the time of completion is
ready termed as
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data a) waiting time
register and sets a bit in control register to b) turnaround time
show that a byte is available c) response time
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the d) throughput
device is ready for the next byte Answer:b
d) the CPU runs a user written code and
does accordingly 4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the
Answer: c CPU first to the process that requests the
CPU first?
10) In the layered approach of Operating a) first-come, first-served scheduling
Systems : (choose two) b) shortest job scheduling
a) Bottom Layer(0) is the User interface c) priority scheduling
b) Highest Layer(N) is the User interface d) none of the mentioned
c) Bottom Layer(0) is the hardware Answer:a
d) Highest Layer(N) is the hardware
Answer: b and c 5. In priority scheduling algorithm
a) CPU is allocated to the process with
11) How does the Hardware trigger an highest priority
interrupt ? b) CPU is allocated to the process with
a) Sending signals to CPU through system lowest priority
bus c) equal priority processes can not be
b) Executing a special program called scheduled
interrupt program d) none of the mentioned
c) Executing a special program called Answer:a
system program
d) Executing a special operation called 6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a
system call process arrives at the ready queue, its
Answer: a priority is compared with the priority of
a) all process
12) Which operation is performed by an b) currently running process
interrupt handler ? c) parent process
a) Saving the current state of the system d) init process
b) Loading the interrupt handling code and Answer:b
executing it
c) Once done handling, bringing back the 7. Time quantum is defined in
system to the original state it was before the a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
interrupt occurred b) round robin scheduling algorithm

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) priority scheduling algorithm c) many very short CPU bursts
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm d) a few very short I/O bursts
Answer:b Answer: c

8. Process are classified into different 5) A process is selected from the ______
groups in queue by the ________ scheduler, to be
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm executed.
b) round robin scheduling algorithm a) blocked, short term
c) priority scheduling algorithm b) wait, long term
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm c) ready, short term
Answer:d d) ready, long term
Answer: c
9. In multilevel feedback scheduling
algorithm 6) In the following cases non – preemptive
a) a process can move to a different scheduling occurs : (Choose two)
classified ready queue a) When a process switches from the
b) classification of ready queue is permanent running state to the ready state
c) processes are not classified into groups b) When a process goes from the running
d) none of the mentioned state to the waiting state
Answer:a c) When a process switches from the waiting
state to the ready state
10. Which one of the following can not be d) When a process terminates
scheduled by the kernel? Answer: b and d
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread
c) process 7) The switching of the CPU from one
d) none of the mentioned process or thread to another is called :
Answer:b a) process switch
Explanation:User level threads are managed b) task switch
by thread library and the kernel in unaware c) context switch
of them. d) All of these
Answer: d

CPU Scheduling Benefits 8) Dispatch latency is :

a) the speed of dispatching a process from
1) CPU scheduling is the basis of running to the ready state
____________. b) the time of dispatching a process from
a) multiprocessor systems running to ready state and keeping the CPU
b) multiprogramming operating systems idle
c) larger memory sized systems c) the time to stop one process and start
d) None of these running another one
Answer: b d) None of these
Answer: c
2) With multiprogramming, ______ is used
productively. 9) Scheduling is done so as to :
a) time a) increase CPU utilization
b) space b) decrease CPU utilization
c) money c) keep the CPU more idle
d) All of these d) None of these
Answer: a Answer: a

3) The two steps of a process execution are :

(choose two)
a) I/O Burst 10) Scheduling is done so as to :
b) CPU Burst a) increase the throughput
c) Memory Burst b) decrease the throughput
d) OS Burst c) increase the duration of a specific amount
Answer: a and b of work
d) None of these Answer: a
4) An I/O bound program will typically have
: 11) Turnaround time is :
a) a few very short CPU bursts a) the total waiting time for a process to
b) many very short I/O bursts finish execution

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) the total time spent in the ready queue into First come First served scheduling
c) the total time spent in the running queue algorithm
d) the total time from the completion till the c) using extremely small time slices
submission of a process increases performance
Answer: d d) using very small time slices converts it
into Shortest Job First algorithm
12) Scheduling is done so as to : Answer: a
a) increase the turnaround time Explanation: All the processes will be able
b) decrease the turnaround time to get completed.
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling 3) The portion of the process scheduler in an
and turnaround time operating system that dispatches processes is
Answer: b concerned with :
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
13) Waiting time is : b) assigning ready processes to waiting
a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queue
queues c) assigning running processes to blocked
b) the total time spent in the ready queue queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue d) All of these
d) the total time from the completion till the Answer: a
submission of a process
Answer: b 4) Complex scheduling algorithms :
a) are very appropriate for very large
14) Scheduling is done so as to : computers
a) increase the waiting time b) use minimal resources
b) keep the waiting time the same c) use many resources
c) decrease the waiting time d) All of these
d) None of these Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Large computers are
overloaded with greater number of
14) Response time is : processes.
a) the total time taken from the submission
time till the completion time 5) The FIFO algorithm :
b) the total time taken from the submission a) first executes the job that came in last in
time till the first response is produced the queue
c) the total time taken from submission time b) first executes the job that came in first in
till the response is output the queue
d) None of these c) first executes the job that needs minimal
Answer: b processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum
15) Scheduling is done so as to : processor needs
a) increase the response time Answer: b
b) keep the response time the same
c) decrease the response time 6) The strategy of making processes that are
d) None of these logically runnable to be temporarily
Answer: c suspended is called :
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
CPU Scheduling Algorithms-1 c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
1) Round robin scheduling falls under the Answer: b
category of :
a) Non preemptive scheduling 7) Scheduling is :
b) Preemptive scheduling a) allowing a job to use the processor
c) None of these b) making proper use of processor
Answer: b c) Both a and b
d) None of these
2) With round robin scheduling algorithm in Answer: c
a time shared system,
a) using very large time slices converts it 8) There are 10 different processes running
into First come First served scheduling on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting
algorithm for an input event in the input queue. Busy
b) using very small time slices converts it processes are scheduled with the Round-

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Robin timesharing method. Which out of the CPU Scheduling Algorithms-2
following quantum times is the best value
for small response times, if the processes 1) The most optimal scheduling algorithm is
have a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms ? :
a) tQ = 15ms a) FCFS – First come First served
b) tQ = 40ms b) SJF – Shortest Job First
c) tQ = 45ms c) RR – Round Robin
d) tQ = 50ms d) None of these
Answer: a Answer: b

9) Orders are processed in the sequence they 2) The real difficulty with SJF in short term
arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs. scheduling is :
a) earliest due date a) it is too good an algorithm
b) slack time remaining b) knowing the length of the next CPU
c) first come, first served request
d) critical ratio c) it is too complex to understand
Answer: c d) None of these
Answer: b
10) Which of the following algorithms tends
to minimize the process flow time ? 3) The FCFS algorithm is particularly
a) First come First served troublesome for ____________.
b) Shortest Job First a) time sharing systems
c) Earliest Deadline First b) multiprogramming systems
d) Longest Job First c) multiprocessor systems
11) Under multiprogramming, turnaround d) Operating systems
time for short jobs is usually ________ and Explanation: In a time sharing system, each
that for long jobs is slightly ___________. user needs to get a share of the CPU at
a) Lengthened; Shortened regular intervals.
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened 4) Consider the following set of processes,
d) Shortened; Unchanged the length of the CPU burst time given in
Answer: b milliseconds :
Process Burst time
12) Which of the following statements are P1 6
true ? (GATE 2010) P2 8
I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling P3 7
may cause starvation P4 3
II. Preemptive scheduling may cause
starvation i) Assuming the above process being
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm
terms of response time :
a) I only a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms.
b) I and III only b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms.
c) II and III only c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms.
d) I, II and III d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms.
Answer: d
Explanation: ii) Assuming the above process being
I) Shortest remaining time first scheduling is scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm
a preemptive version of shortest job :
scheduling. It may cause starvation as a) The waiting time for process P2 is 3ms.
shorter processes may keep coming and a b) The waiting time for process P2 is 0ms.
long CPU burst process never gets CPU. c) The waiting time for process P2 is
II) Preemption may cause starvation. If 16ms.
priority based scheduling with preemption is d) The waiting time for process P2 is 9ms.
used, then a low priority process may never
get CPU. iii) Assuming the above process being
III) Round Robin Scheduling improves scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm
response time as all processes get CPU after :
a specified time. a) The waiting time for process P4 is 3ms.
b) The waiting time for process P4 is 0ms.
c) The waiting time for process P4 is 16ms.
d) The waiting time for process P4 is 9ms.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
iv) Assuming the above process being a) i only
scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm b) i and iii only
: c) ii and iii only
a) The waiting time for process P3 is 3ms. d) i, ii and iii
b) The waiting time for process P3 is 0ms. Answer: d
c) The waiting time for process P3 is 16ms.
d) The waiting time for process P3 is 9ms 11) Which of the following scheduling
algorithms gives minimum average waiting
5) Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling time ?
is sometimes called : a) FCFS
a) Fast SJF scheduling b) SJF
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First c) Round – robin
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response d) Priority
Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining
Time Next The Critical Section (CS) Problem and
Answer: d Solutions

6) An SJF algorithm is simply a priority 1) Concurrent access to shared data may

algorithm where the priority is : result in :
a) the predicted next CPU burst a) data consistency
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU b) data insecurity
burst c) data inconsistency
c) the current CPU burst d) None of these
d) anything the user wants
Answer: a 2) A situation where several processes
Explanation: The larger the CPU burst, the access and manipulate the same data
lower the priority. concurrently and the outcome of the
execution depends on the particular order in
7) One of the disadvantages of the priority which access takes place is called :
scheduling algorithm is that : a) data consistency
a) it schedules in a very complex manner b) race condition
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time c) aging
c) it can lead to some low priority process d) starvation
waiting indefinitely for the CPU Answer: b
d) None of these
3) The segment of code in which the process
8) ‗Aging‘ is : may change common variables, update
a) keeping track of cache contents tables, write into files is known as :
b) keeping track of what pages are currently a) program
residing in memory b) critical section
c) keeping track of how many times a given c) non – critical section
page is referenced d) synchronizing
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure Answer: b
termination in a finite time
4) The following three conditions must be
9) A solution to the problem of indefinite satisfied to solve the critical section problem
blockage of low – priority processes is : : (choose three)
a) Starvation a) Aging
b) Wait queue b) Mutual Exclusion
c) Ready queue c) Deadlock
d) Aging d) Progress
Answer: d e) Bounded Waiting
Answer: b,d and e
10) Which of the following statements are
true ? (GATE 2010) 5) Mutual exclusion implies that :
i) Shortest remaining time first scheduling a) if a process is executing in its critical
may cause starvation section, then no other process must be
ii) Preemptive scheduling may cause executing in their critical sections
starvation b) if a process is executing in its critical
iii) Round robin is better than FCFS in terns section, then other processes must be
of response time executing in their critical sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
section, then all the resources of the system c) integer variable
must be blocked until it finishes execution d) None of these
d) None of these Answer: c
Answer: a
4) The two atomic operations permissible on
6) Bounded waiting implies that there exists semaphores are : (choose two)
a bound on the number of times a process is a) wait
allowed to enter its critical section : b) stop
a) after a process has made a request to enter c) hold
its critical section and before the request is d) signal
granted Answer: a and d
b) when another process is in its critical
section 5) Spinlocks are :
c) before a process has made a request to a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical
enter its critical section sections of programs
d) None of these b) locks that avoid time wastage in context
Answer: a switches
c) locks that work better on multiprocessor
7) A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are systems
required to be shared between processes to d) All of these
solve the critical section problem. Answer: d
a) one
b) two 6) The main disadvantage of spinlocks is
c) three that :
d) four a) they are not sufficient for many process
Answer: b b) they require busy waiting
c) they are unreliable sometimes
8) In the bakery algorithm to solve the d) they are too complex for programmers
critical section problem : Answer: b
a) each process is put into a queue and
picked up in an ordered manner 7) The wait operation of the semaphore
b) each process receives a number (may or basically works on the basic _______
may not be unique) and the one with the system call.
lowest number is served next a) stop()
c) each process gets a unique number and b) block()
the one with the highest number is served c) hold()
next d) wait()
d) each process gets a unique number and Answer: b
the one with the lowest number is served
next 8) The signal operation of the semaphore
Answer: b basically works on the basic _______
system call.
a) continue()
Semaphores b) wakeup()
c) getup()
1) An un-interruptible unit is known as : d) start()
a) single Answer: b
b) atomic
c) static 9) If the semaphore value is negative :
d) None of these a) its magnitude is the number of processes
Answer: b waiting on that semaphore
b) it is invalid
2) The TestAndSet instruction is executed : c) no operation can be further performed on
a) after a particular process it until the signal operation is performed on
b) periodically it
c) atomically d) None of these
d) None of these Answer: a
Answer: c
10) The code that changes the value of the
3) Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the semaphore is :
critical section problem. a) remainder section code
a) hardware for a system b) non – critical section code
b) special program for a system

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) critical section code while(true)
d) None of these Answer: c {
w1 = true;
11) The following program consists of 3 while(w2 == true);
concurrent processes and 3 binary Critical section
semaphores. The semaphores are initialized w1 = false;
as S0 = 1, S1 = 0, S2 = 0. }
Process P0 Remainder Section
while(true)
{ Process P2 :
wait(S0); while(true)
print ‗0‘; {
release(S1); w2 = true;
release(S2); while(w1 == true);
} Critical section
w2 = false;
Process P1 }
wait(S1); Remainder Section
release(S0);
Here, w1 and w2 are shared variables, which
Process P2 are initialized to false. Which one of the
wait(S2); following statements is TRUE about the
release(S0); above construct?
a) It does not ensure mutual exclusion
How many times will P0 print ‗0‘ ? b) It does not ensure bounded waiting
a) At least twice c) It requires that processes enter the critical
b) Exactly twice section in strict alternation
c) Exactly thrice d) It does not prevent deadlocks, but ensures
d) Exactly once mutual exclusion
Answer: a Answer: d

12) Each process Pi, i = 0,1,2,3,……,9 is 1) What will happen if a non-recursive

coded as follows : mutex is locked more than once ?
repeat a) Starvation
P(mutex) b) Deadlock
{Critical Section} c) Aging
V(mutex) d) Signaling
forever Answer: b
The code for P10 is identical except that it Explanation: If a thread which had already
uses V(mutex) instead of P(mutex). What is locked a mutex, tries to lock the mutex
the largest number of processes that can be again, it will enter into the waiting list of
inside the critical section at any moment (the that mutex, which results in deadlock. It is
mutex being initialized to 1)? because no other thread can unlock the
a) 1 mutex.
b) 2
c) 3 2) A semaphore :
d) None of these a) is a binary mutex
Answer: c b) must be accessed from only one process
Explanation: Any one of the 9 processes can c) can be accessed from multiple processes
get into critical section after executing d) None of these
P(mutex) which decrements the mutex value Answer: c
to 0. At this time P10 can enter critical
section by incrementing the value to 1. Now
any of the 9 processes can enter the critical 3) The two kinds of semaphores are :
section by again decrementing the mutex (choose two)
value to 0. None of the remaining processes a) mutex
can get into their critical sections. b) binary
c) counting
13) Two processes, P1 and P2, need to d) decimal
access a critical section of code. Consider Answer: b and c
the following synchronization construct used
by the processes :
Process P1 :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
4) A mutex : B1 A1 A2 B2: X = 6
a) is a binary mutex B1 B2 A1 A2: X = 12
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes ii) Suppose the programs are modified as
d) None of these follows to use a shared binary semaphore T :
Answer: b Process A
int Y;
5) At a particular time of computation the A1: Y = X*2;
value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 A2: X = Y;
P operations and 15 V operations were signal(T);
completed on this semaphore.The resulting
value of the semaphore is : (GATE 1987) Process B
a) 42 int Z;
b) 2 B1: wait(T);
c) 7 B2: Z = X+1;
d) 12 X = Z;
Answer: b
Explanation: P represents Wait and V T is set to 0 before either process begins
represents Signal. P operation will decrease execution and, as before, X is set to 5.
the value by 1 everytime and V operation Now, how many different values of X are
will increase the value by 1 everytime. possible after both processes finish
executing ?
6) A binary semaphore is a semaphore with a) one
integer values : (choose two) b) two
a) 1 c) three
b) -1 d) four
c) 0 Explanation:The semaphore T ensures that
d) 0.5 all the statements from A finish execution
Answer: a and c before B begins. So now there is only one
way in which statements from A and B can
7) The following pair of processes share a be interleaved:
common variable X : A1 A2 B1 B2: X = 11.
Process A
int Y; 8) Semaphores are mostly used to
A1: Y = X*2; implement :
A2: X = Y; a) System calls
b) IPC mechanisms
Process B c) System protection
int Z; d) None of these
B1: Z = X+1; Answer: b
B2: X = Z;
9) Spinlocks are intended to provide
X is set to 5 before either process begins __________ only.
execution. As usual, statements within a a) Mutual Exclusion
process are executed sequentially, but b) Bounded Waiting
statements in process A may execute in any c) Aging
order with respect to statements in process d) Progress
B. Answer: b
i) How many different values of X are
possible after both processes finish
executing ? Classic Synchronization Problems
a) two
b) three 1) The bounded buffer problem is also
c) four known as :
d) eight a) Readers – Writers problem
Answer: c b) Dining – Philosophers problem
Explanation: Here are the possible ways in c) Producer – Consumer problem
which statements from A and B can be d) None of these
interleaved. Answer: c
A1 A2 B1 B2: X = 11
A1 B1 A2 B2: X = 6 2) In the bounded buffer problem, there are
A1 B1 B2 A2: X = 10 the empty and full semaphores that :
B1 A1 B2 A2: X = 10 a) count the number of empty and full

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
buffers Answer: c
b) count the number of empty and full
memory spaces
c) count the number of empty and full ii) Suppose a process executes in the
queues following manner (replacing signal with
d) None of these wait) :
Answer: a a) a deadlock will occur
b) processes will starve to enter critical
3) In the bounded buffer problem : section
a) there is only one buffer c) several processes maybe executing in
b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than their critical section
one but finite) d) All of these
c) there are infinite buffers Answer: a
d) the buffer size is bounded
Answer: b 8) Consider the methods used by processes
P1 and P2 for accessing their critical
4) To ensure difficulties do not arise in the sections whenever needed, as given below.
readers – writers problem, _______ are The initial values of shared boolean
given exclusive access to the shared object. variables S1 and S2 are randomly assigned.
a) readers (GATE 2010)
b) writers
c) None of these Method used by P1 :
Answer: b while(S1==S2);
Critical section
5) The dining – philosophers problem will S1 = S2;
occur in case of :
a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks Method used by P2 :
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks while(S1!=S2);
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks Critical section
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks S2 = not(S1);
Answer: a
Which of the following statements describes
6) A deadlock free solution to the dining properties achieved ?
philosophers problem : a) Mutual exclusion but not progress
a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of b) Progress but not mutual exclusion
starvation c) Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
b) does not necessarily eliminate the d) Both mutual exclusion and progress
possibility of starvation Answer: d
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of
problem further
d) None of these Monitors
Answer: b
1) A monitor is a type of :
7) All processes share a semaphore variable a) semaphore
mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must b) low level synchronization construct
execute wait(mutex) before entering the c) high level synchronization construct
critical section and signal(mutex) afterward. d) None of these
Answer: c
i) Suppose a process executes in the
following manner : 2) A monitor is characterized by :
signal(mutex); a) a set of programmer defined operators
….. b) an identifier
critical section c) the number of variables in it
….. d) All of these
wait(mutex); Answer: a

In this situation : 3) A procedure defined within a ________

a) a deadlock will occur can access only those variables declared
b) processes will starve to enter critical locally within the _______ and its formal
section parameters.
c) several processes maybe executing in a) process, semaphore
their critical section b) process, monitor
d) All of these c) semaphore, semaphore

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) monitor, monitor it was just before the transaction started
Answer: d executing. This restoration is known as
________ of transaction.
4) The monitor construct ensures that : a) safety
a) only one process can be active at a time b) protection
within the monitor c) roll – back
b) n number of processes can be active at a d) revert – back
time within the monitor (n being greater Answer: c
than 1)
c) the queue has only one process in it at a 4) Write ahead logging is a way :
time a) to ensure atomicity
d) All of these b) to keep data consistent
Answer: a c) that records data on stable storage
d) All of these
5) The operations that can be invoked on a Answer: d
condition variable are : (choose two)
a) wait 5) In the write ahead logging a _____ is
b) hold maintained.
c) signal a) a memory
d) continue b) a system
Answer: a and c c) a disk
d) a log record
6) The process invoking the wait operation Answer: d
is :
a) suspended until another process invokes 6) An actual update is not allowed to a data
the signal operation item :
b) waiting for another process to complete a) before the corresponding log record is
before it can itself call the signal operation written out to stable storage
c) stopped until the next process in the b) after the corresponding log record is
queue finishes execution written out to stable storage
d) None of these c) until the whole log record has been
Answer: a checked for inconsistencies
d) All of these
7) If no process is suspended, the signal Answer: a
operation :
a) puts the system into a deadlock state 7) The undo and redo operations must be
b) suspends some default process‘ execution _________ to guarantee correct behaviour,
c) nothing happens even if a failure occurs during recovery
d) the output is unpredictable process.
Answer: c a) idempotent
b) easy
c) protected
Atomic Transactions d) All of these
Answer: a
1) A collection of instructions that performs Explanation: Idempotent – Multiple
a single logical function is called : executions of an operation have the same
a) transaction result as does one execution.
b) operation
c) function 8) The system periodically performs
d) All of these checkpoints that consists of the following
Answer: a operation(s) :
a) Putting all the log records currently in
2) A terminated transaction that has main memory onto stable storage
completed its execution successfully is b) putting all modified data residing in main
____________, otherwise it is __________. memory onto stable storage
a) committed, destroyed c) putting a log record onto stable storage
b) aborted, destroyed d) All of these
c) committed, aborted Answer: d
d) None of these
Answer: c 9) Consider a transaction T1 that committed
prior to checkpoint. The record appears in
3) The state of the data accessed by an the log before the record. Any modifications
aborted transaction must be restored to what made by T1 must have been written to the

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
stable storage either with the checkpoint or 15) Which of the following concurrency
prior to it. Thus at recovery time : ( choose control protocols ensure both conflict
all that apply ) serializability and freedom from deadlock ?
a) There is a need to perform an undo I) 2-phase locking
operation on T1 II) Time-stamp ordering
b) There is a need to perform a redo
operation on T1 a) I only
c) There is no need to perform an undo b) II only
operation on T1 c) Both I and II
d) There is no need to perform a redo d) Neither I nor II
operation on T1 Answer: b
Answer: c and d

10) Serializable schedules are ones where : Deadlock Prevention

a) concurrent execution of transactions is
equivalent to the transactions executed 1) The number of resources requested by a
serially process :
b) the transactions can be carried out one a) must always be less than the total number
after the other of resources available in the system
c) a valid result occurs after execution b) must always be equal to the total number
transactions of resources available in the system
d) None of these c) must not exceed the total number of
Answer: a resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources
11) A locking protocol is one that : available in the system
a) governs how locks are acquired Answer: c
b) governs how locks are released
c) governs how locks are acquired and
released 2) The request and release of resources are
d) None of these ___________.
Answer: c a) command line statements
b) interrupts
12) The two phase locking protocol consists c) system calls
of : (choose two) d) special programs
a) growing phase Answer: c
b) shrinking phase
c) creation phase 3) Multithreaded programs are :
d) destruction phase a) lesser prone to deadlocks
Answer: a and b b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
13) The growing phase is a phase in which : d) None of these
a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does Answer: b
not release any Explanation: Multiple threads can compete
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and for shared resources.
releases a few or all of them
c) A transaction may release locks, but does 4) For a deadlock to arise, which of the
not obtain any new locks following conditions must hold
d) A transaction may release locks, and does simultaneously ? ( choose all that apply )
obtain new locks a) Mutual exclusion
Answer: a b) Starvation
c) Hold and wait
14) The shrinking phase is a phase in which d) No preemption
: e) Circular wait
a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does Answer: a, c, d and e
not release any
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and 5) For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the
releases a few or all of them system :
c) A transaction may release locks, but does a) at least one resource must be held in a non
not obtain any new locks sharable mode
d) A transaction may release locks, and does b) the processor must be a uniprocessor
obtain new locks rather than a multiprocessor
Answer: c c) there must be at least one resource in a
sharable mode

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) All of these some resources and use them. Before it can
Answer: a can request any additional resources,
Explanation: If another process requests that however it must release all the resources that
resource (non – shareable resource), the it is currently allocated.
requesting process must be delayed until the
resource has been released. 11) The disadvantage of a process being
allocated all its resources before beginning
6) For a Hold and wait condition to prevail : its execution is :
a) A process must be not be holding a a) Low CPU utilization
resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and b) Low resource utilization
then request to acquire it c) Very high resource utilization
b) A process must be holding at least one d) None of these
resource and waiting to acquire additional Answer: b
resources that are being held by other
processes 12) To ensure no preemption, if a process is
c) A process must hold at least one resource holding some resources and requests another
and not be waiting to acquire additional resource that cannot be immediately
resources allocated to it :
d) None of these a) then the process waits for the resources be
Answer: b allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until
7) Deadlock prevention is a set of methods : the resource is allocated to it
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary c) the process resumes execution without the
conditions cannot hold resource being allocated to it
b) to ensure that all of the necessary d) then all resources currently being held are
conditions do not hold preempted
c) to decide if the requested resources for a Answer: d
process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock 13) One way to ensure that the circular wait
Answer: a condition never holds is to :
a) impose a total ordering of all resource
8) For non sharable resources like a printer, types and to determine whether one precedes
mutual exclusion : another in the ordering
a) must exist b) to never let a process acquire resources
b) must not exist that are held by other processes
c) may exist c) to let a process wait for only one resource
d) None of these at a time
Answer: a d) All of these
Explanation: A printer cannot be Answer: a
simultaneously shared by several processes.

9) For sharable resources, mutual exclusion : Deadlock

a) is required
b) is not required 1. What is the reusable resource?
c) None of these a) that can be used by one process at a time
Answer: b and is not depleted by that use
Explanation: They do not require mutually b) that can be used by more than one process
exclusive access, and hence cannot be at a time
involved in a deadlock. c) that can be shared between various
threads
10) To ensure that the hold and wait d) none of the mentioned
condition never occurs in the system, it must Answer:a
be ensured that :
a) whenever a resource is requested by a 2. Which of the following condition is
process, it is not holding any other resources required for deadlock to be possible?
b) each process must request and be a) mutual exclusion
allocated all its resources before it begins its b) a process may hold allocated resources
execution while awaiting assignment of other
c) a process can request resources only when resources
it has none c) no resource can be forcibly removed from
d) All of these a process holding it
Answer: d d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: c – A process may request Answer:d

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
3. A system is in the safe state if 10. To avoid deadlock
a) the system can allocate resources to each a) there must be a fixed number of resources
process in some order and still avoid a to allocate
deadlock b) resource allocation must be done only
b) there exist a safe sequence once
c) both (a) and (b) c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) none of the mentioned d) inversion technique can be used
Answer:c Answer:a

4. The circular wait condition can be

prevented by Deadlock Avoidance
a) defining a linear ordering of resource
types 1) Each request requires that the system
b) using thread consider the __________, _____________,
c) using pipes ____________ to decide whether the current
d) all of the mentioned request can be satisfied or must wait to
Answer:a avoid a future possible deadlock. (choose
three)
5. Which one of the following is the a) resources currently available
deadlock avoidance algorithm? b) processes that have previously been in the
a) banker‘s algorithm system
b) round-robin algorithm c) resources currently allocated to each
c) elevator algorithm process
d) karn‘s algorithm d) future requests and releases of each
Answer:a process
Answer: a, c and d
6. What is the drawback of banker‘s
algorithm? 2) Given a priori information about the
a) in advance processes rarely know that ________ number of resources of each type
how much resource they will need that maybe requested for each process, it is
b) the number of processes changes as time possible to construct an algorithm that
progresses ensures that the system will never enter a
c) resource once available can disappear deadlock state.
d) all of the mentioned a) minimum
Answer:d b) average
c) maximum
7. For effective operating system, when to d) approximate
check for deadlock? Answer: c
a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals 3) A deadlock avoidance algorithm
c) both (a) and (b) dynamically examines the __________, to
d) none of the mentioned ensure that a circular wait condition can
Answer:c never exist.
a) resource allocation state
8. A problem encountered in multitasking b) system storage state
when a process is perpetually denied c) operating system
necessary resources is called d) resources
a) deadlock Explanation: Resource allocation states are
b) starvation used to maintain the availability of the
c) inversion already and current available resources.
d) aging
Answer:b 4) A state is safe, if :
a) the system does not crash due to deadlock
9. Which one of the following is a visual ( occurrence
mathematical ) way to determine the b) the system can allocate resources to each
deadlock occurrence? process in some order and still avoid a
a) resource allocation graph deadlock
b) starvation graph c) the state keeps the system protected and
c) inversion graph safe
d) none of the mentioned d) All of these
Answer:a Answer: b

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
5) A system is in a safe state only if there graph algorithm.
exists a : a) less efficient
a) safe allocation b) more efficient
b) safe resource c) None of these
c) safe sequence Answer: a
d) All of these
Answer: c 11) The data structures available in the
Banker‘s algorithm are : (choose all that
6) All unsafe states are : apply)
a) deadlocks a) Available
b) not deadlocks b) Need
c) fatal c) Allocation
d) None of these d) Maximum
Answer: b e) Minimum
f) All of these
7) A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and Answer: a,b,c,d
3 processes : P0, P1, and P2. Process P0
requires 10 tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2 12) The content of the matrix Need is :
requires 9 tape drives. a) Allocation – Available
b) Max – Available
Process c) Max – Allocation
P0 d) Allocation – Max
P1 Answer: c
P2
13) A system with 5 processes P0 through
Maximum needs (process-wise : P0 through P4 and three resource types A, B, C has A
P2 top to bottom) with 10 instances, B with 5 instances, and C
10 with 7 instances. At time t0, the following
4 snapshot has been taken :
9
Process
Currently allocated (process-wise) P0
5 P1
2 P2
2 P3
P4
Which of the following sequence is a safe
sequence ? Allocation (process-wise : P0 through P4 top
a) P0, P1, P2 to bottom)
b) P1, P2, P0 ABC
c) P2, P0, P1 010
d) P1, P0, P2 200
Answer: d 302
211
8) If no cycle exists in the resource 002
allocation graph :
a) then the system will not be in a safe state Max (process-wise : P0 through P4 top to
b) then the system will be in a safe state bottom)
c) either a or b ABC
d) None of these 753
Answer: b 322
902
9) The resource allocation graph is not 222
applicable to a resource allocation system : 433
a) with multiple instances of each resource
type Available
b) with a single instance of each resource ABC
type 332
c) Both a and b The sequence leads the system to :
Answer: a a) an unsafe state
b) a safe state
10) The Banker‘s algorithm is c) a protected state
_____________ than the resource allocation

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) a deadlock deadlocked
Answer: b b) the set of processes in the deadlock queue
c) the specific process that caused the
deadlock
Deadlock Detection d) All of these
Answer: a and c
1) The wait-for graph is a deadlock
detection algorithm that is applicable when : 8) A computer system has 6 tape drives,
a) all resources have a single instance with ‗n‘ processes competing for them. Each
b) all resources have multiple instances process may need 3 tape drives. The
c) both a and b maximum value of ‗n‘ for which the system
Answer: a is guaranteed to be deadlock free is :
a) 2
2) An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait b) 3
for graph indicates that : c) 4
a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource d) 1
that Pi needs Answer: a
b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource
that Pj needs 9) A system has 3 processes sharing 4
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system resources. If each process needs a maximum
d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system of 2 units then, deadlock :
Answer: a a) can never occur
b) may occur
3) If the wait for graph contains a cycle : c) has to occur
a) then a deadlock does not exist d) None of these
b) then a deadlock exists Answer: a
c) then the system is in a safe state
d) either b or c 10) ‗m‘ processes share ‗n‘ resources of the
Answer: b same type. The maximum need of each
process doesn‘t exceed ‗n‘ and the sum of
4) If deadlocks occur frequently, the all their maximum needs is always less than
detection algorithm must be invoked m+n. In this setup, deadlock :
________. a) can never occur
a) rarely b) may occur
b) frequently c) has to occur
c) None of these d) None of these
Answer: b Answer: a

5) The disadvantage of invoking the

detection algorithm for every request is : Deadlock Recovery
a) overhead of the detection algorithm due
to consumption of memory 1) A deadlock can be broken by : (choose all
b) excessive time consumed in the request to that apply)
be allocated memory a) abort one or more processes to break the
c) considerable overhead in computation circular wait
time b) abort all the process in the system
d) All of these c) preempt all resources from all processes
Answer: c d) to preempt some resources from one or
more of the deadlocked processes
6) A deadlock eventually cripples system Answer: a and d
throughput and will cause the CPU
utilization to ______. 2) The two ways of aborting processes and
a) increase eliminating deadlocks are : (choose all that
b) drop apply)
c) stay still a) Abort all deadlocked processes
d) None of these b) Abort all processes
Answer: b c) Abort one process at a time until the
deadlock cycle is eliminated
7) Every time a request for allocation cannot d) All of these
be granted immediately, the detection Answer: a and c
algorithm is invoked. This will help identify
: (choose all that apply) 3) Those processes should be aborted on
a) the set of processes that have been occurrence of a deadlock, the termination of

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
which : in the cost factor
a) is more time consuming b) the number of resources must be included
b) incurs minimum cost in resource preemption
c) safety is not hampered c) resource preemption be done instead
d) All of these d) All of these
Answer: b Answer: a

4) The process to be aborted is chosen on

the basis of the following factors : (choose Memory Management – Swapping
all that apply) Processes – 1
a) priority of the process
b) process is interactive or batch 1) Address Binding is :
c) how long the process has computed a) going to an address in memory
d) how much more long before its b) locating an address with the help of
completion another address
e) how many more resources the process c) binding two addresses together to form a
needs before its completion new address in a different memory space
f) how many and what type of resources the d) a mapping from one address space to
process has used another
g) how many resources are available in the Answer: d
system
h) All of these 2) Binding of instructions and data to
memory addresses can be done at :
Answer: a, b, c, d, e, f a) Compile time
5) Cost factors of process termination b) Load time
include : (choose all that apply) c) Execution time
a) number of resources the deadlock process d) All of these
is holding Answer: d
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock
c) amount of time a deadlocked process has 3) If the process can be moved during its
thus far consumed during its execution execution from one memory segment to
d) All of the above another, then binding must be :
Answer: a and c a) delayed until run time
b) preponed to compile time
6) If we preempt a resource from a process, c) preponed to load time
the process cannot continue with its normal d) None of these
execution and it must be : Answer: a
a) aborted
b) rolled back 4) Dynamic loading is :
c) terminated a) loading multiple routines dynamically
d) queued b) loading a routine only when it is called
Answer: b c) loading multiple routines randomly
d) None of these
7) To _______ to a safe state, the system Answer: b
needs to keep more information about the
states of processes. 5) The advantage of dynamic loading is that
a) abort the process :
b) roll back the process a) a used routine is used multiple times
c) queue the process b) an unused routine is never loaded
d) None of these c) CPU utilization increases
Answer: b d) All of these
Answer: b
8) If the resources are always preempted
from the same process, __________ can 6) The idea of overlays is to : (choose all
occur. that apply)
a) deadlock a) enable multiple processes execute at once
b) system crash b) enable a process to be larger than the
c) aging amount of memory allocated to it
d) starvation c) keep in memory only those instructions
Answer: d and data that are needed at any given time
d) All of these
9) The solution to starvation is : Answer: b and c
a) the number of rollbacks must be included

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
7) The ___________ must design and address space is smaller than the logical
program the overlay structure. address space
a) programmer Answer: c
b) system architect
c) system designer
d) None of these Memory Management – Swapping
Answer: a Processes – 2

8) The ___________ swaps processes in and 1) The address generated by the CPU is
out of the memory. referred to as :
a) memory manager a) physical address
b) CPU b) logical address
c) CPU manager c) Neither a nor b
d) user
Answer: a 2) The address loaded into the memory
address register of the memory is referred to
9) If a higher priority process arrives and as :
wants service, the memory manager can a) physical address
swap out the lower priority process to b) logical address
execute the higher priority process. When c) Neither a nor b
the higher priority process finishes, the Answer: a
lower priority process is swapped back in
and continues execution. This variant of 3) The run time mapping from virtual to
swapping is sometimes called : physical addresses is done by a hardware
a) priority swapping device called the :
b) pull out, push in a) Virtual to physical mapper
c) roll out, roll in b) memory management unit
d) None of these c) memory mapping unit
Answer: c d) None of these
Answer: b
10) If binding is done at assembly or load
time, then the process _____ be moved to 4) The base register is also known as the :
different locations after being swapped out a) basic register
and in again. b) regular register
a) can c) relocation register
b) must d) delocation register
c) can never Answer: c
d) may
Answer: c 5) The size of a process is limited to the size
of :
11) In a system that does not support a) physical memory
swapping, b) external storage
a) the compiler normally binds symbolic c) secondary storage
addresses (variables) to relocatable d) None of these
addresses Answer: a
b) the compiler normally binds symbolic
addresses to physical addresses 6) If execution time binding is being used,
c) the loader binds relocatable addresses to then a process ______ be swapped to a
physical addresses different memory space.
d) binding of symbolic addresses to physical a) has to be
addresses normally takes place during b) can never
execution c) must
Answer: a, c d) may
Answer: d
12) Which of the following is TRUE ?
a) Overlays are used to increase the size of 7) Swapping requires a __________.
physical memory a) motherboard
b) Overlays are used to increase the logical b) keyboard
address space c) monitor
c) When overlays are used, the size of a d) backing store
process is not limited to the size of the Answer: d
physical memory
d) Overlays are used whenever the physical

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
8) The backing store is generally a : (choose Answer:a
all that apply)
a) fast disk
b) disk large enough to accommodate copies 2. A memory buffer used to accommodate a
of all memory images for all users speed differential is called
c) disk to provide direct access to the a) stack pointer
memory images b) cache
d) All of these c) accumulator
Answer: d d) disk buffer
Answer:b
9) The ________ consists of all processes
whose memory images are in the backing 3. Which one of the following is the address
store or in memory and are ready to run. generated by CPU?
a) wait queue a) physical address
b) ready queue b) absolute address
c) CPU c) logical address
d) secondary storage d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer:c

10) The _________ time in a swap out of a 4. Run time mapping from virtual to
running process and swap in of a new physical address is done by
process into the memory is very high. a) memory management unit
a) context – switch b) CPU
b) waiting c) PCI
c) execution d) none of the mentioned
d) All of these Answer:a
Answer: a
5. Memory management technique in which
11) The major part of swap time is _______ system stores and retrieves data from
time. secondary storage for use in main memory is
a) waiting called
b) transfer a) fragmentation
c) execution b) paging
d) None of these c) mapping
Answer: b d) none of the mentioned
Answer:b
12) Swapping _______ be done when a
process has pending I/O, or has to execute
I/O operations only into operating system 6. The address of a page table in memory is
buffers. pointed by
a) must a) stack pointer
b) can b) page table base register
c) must never c) page register
d) maybe d) program counter
Answer: c Answer:b

13) Swap space is allocated :

a) as a chunk of disk 7. Program always deals with
b) separate from a file system a) logical address
c) into a file system b) absolute address
d) All of these c) physical address
Answer: a and b d) relative address
Answer:a

Memory Management
8. The page table contains
1. CPU fetches the instruction from memory a) base address of each page in physical
according to the value of memory
a) program counter b) page offset
b) status register c) page size
c) instruction register d) none of the mentioned
d) program status word Answer:a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
9. What is compaction? 6) The operating system and the other
a) a technique for overcoming internal processes are protected from being modified
fragmentation by an already running process because :
b) a paging technique a) they are in different memory spaces
c) a technique for overcoming external b) they are in different logical addresses
fragmentation c) they have a protection algorithm
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error d) every address generated by the CPU is
Answer:c being checked against the relocation and
limit registers
10. Operating System maintains the page Answer: d
table for
a) each process 7) Transient operating system code is code
b) each thread that :
c) each instruction a) is not easily accessible
d) each address b) comes and goes as needed
Answer:a c) stays in the memory always
d) never enters the memory space
Answer: b
Memory Management – Memory
Allocation – 1 8) Using transient code, _______ the size of
the operating system during program
1) The main memory accommodates : execution.
a) operating system a) increases
b) CPU b) decreases
c) user processes c) changes
d) All of these d) maintains
Answer: a and c Answer: c

2) The operating system is : 9) When memory is divided into several

a) in the low memory fixed sized partitions, each partition may
b) in the high memory contain ________.
c) either a or b (depending on the location of a) exactly one process
interrupt vector) b) atleast one process
d) None of these c) multiple processes at once
Answer: c d) None of these
Answer: a

3) In contiguous memory allocation : 10) In fixed sized partition, the degree of

a) each process is contained in a single multiprogramming is bounded by
contiguous section of memory ___________.
b) all processes are contained in a single a) the number of partitions
contiguous section of memory b) the CPU utilization
c) the memory space is contiguous c) the memory size
d) None of these d) All of these
Answer: a Answer: a

4) The relocation register helps in : 11) The first fit, best fit and worst fit are
a) providing more address space to strategies to select a ______.
processes a) process from a queue to put in memory
b) a different address space to processes b) processor to run the next process
c) to protect the address spaces of processes c) free hole from a set of available holes
d) None of these d) All of these
Answer: c Answer: c

5) With relocation and limit registers, each

logical address must be _______ the limit Memory Management – Memory
register. Allocation – 2
a) less than
b) equal to 1) In internal fragmentation, memory is
c) greater than internal to a partition and :
d) None of these a) is being used
Answer: a b) is not being used
c) is always used

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) None of these d) no matter which algorithm is used, it will
Answer: b always occur
Answer: d
2) A solution to the problem of external
fragmentation is : 9) Sometimes the overhead of keeping track
a) compaction of a hole might be :
b) larger memory space a) larger than the memory
c) smaller memory space b) larger than the hole itself
d) None of these c) very small
Answer: a d) All of these
Answer: b
3) Another solution to the problem of
external fragmentation problem is to : 10) When the memory allocated to a process
a) permit the logical address space of a is slightly larger than the process, then :
process to be noncontiguous a) internal fragmentation occurs
b) permit smaller processes to be allocated b) external fragmentation occurs
memory at last c) both a and b
c) permit larger processes to be allocated d) neither a nor b
memory at last Answer: a
d) All of these
Answer: a
Memory Management – Paging – 1
4) If relocation is static and is done at
assembly or load time, compaction 1) Physical memory is broken into fixed-
_________. sized blocks called ________.
a) cannot be done a) frames
b) must be done b) pages
c) must not be done c) backing store
d) can be done d) None of these
Answer: a Answer: a

5) The disadvantage of moving all process 2) Logical memory is broken into blocks of
to one end of memory and all holes to the the same size called _________.
other direction, producing one large hole of a) frames
available memory is : b) pages
a) the cost incurred c) backing store
b) the memory used d) None of these
c) the CPU used Answer: b
d) All of these
3) Every address generated by the CPU is
6) __________ is generally faster than divided into two parts : (choose two)
_________ and _________. a) frame bit
a) first fit, best fit, worst fit b) page number
b) best fit, first fit, worst fit c) page offset
c) worst fit, best fit, first fit d) frame offset
d) None of these Answer: b and c
Answer: a
4) The __________ is used as an index into
7) External fragmentation exists when : the page table.
a) enough total memory exists to satisfy a a) frame bit
request but it is not contiguous b) page number
b) the total memory is insufficient to satisfy c) page offset
a request d) frame offset
c) a request cannot be satisfied even when Answer: b
the total memory is free
d) None of these 5) The _____ table contains the base address
Answer: a of each page in physical memory.
a) process
8) External fragmentation will not occur b) memory
when : c) page
a) first fit is used d) frame
b) best fit is used Answer: c
c) worst fit is used

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
6) The size of a page is typically : a) page table base register
a) varied b) page table base pointer
b) power of 2 c) page table register pointer
c) power of 4 d) page table base
d) None of these Answer: a
Answer: b
14) For every process there is a
7) If the size of logical address space is 2 to __________.
the power of m, and a page size is 2 to the a) page table
power of n addressing units, then the high b) copy of page table
order _____ bits of a logical address c) pointer to page table
designate the page number, and the ____ d) All of these
low order bits designate the page offset. Answer: a
a) m, n
b) n, m 15) Time taken in memory access through
c) m – n, m PTBR is :
d) m – n, n a) extended by a factor of 3
Answer: d b) extended by a factor of 2
c) slowed by a factor of 3
8) With paging there is no ________ d) slowed by a factor of 2
fragmentation. Answer: d
a) internal
b) external
c) either type of Memory Management – Paging – 2
d) None of these
Answer: b 1) Each entry in a Translation look-aside
buffer (TLB) consists of :
9) The operating system maintains a ______ a) key
table that keeps track of how many frames b) value
have been allocated, how many are there, c) bit value
and how many are available. d) constant
a) page Answer: a and b
b) mapping
c) frame
d) memory 2) If a page number is not found in the TLB,
Answer: c then it is known as a :
a) TLB miss
10) Paging increases the ______ time. b) buffer miss
a) waiting c) TLB hit
b) execution d) TLB hit
c) context – switch Answer: a
d) All of these
Answer: c 3) An ______ uniquely identifies processes
and is used to provide address space
11) Smaller page tables are implemented as protection for that process.
a set of _______. a) address space locator
a) queues b) address space identifier
b) stacks c) address process identifier
c) counters d) None of these
d) registers Answer: b
Answer: d
4) The percentage of times a page number is
12) The page table registers should be built found in the TLB is known as :
with _______. a) miss ratio
a) very low speed logic b) hit ratio
b) very high speed logic c) miss percent
c) a large memory space d) None of these
d) None of these Answer: b
Answer: b
5) Memory protection in a paged
13) For larger page tables, they are kept in environment is accomplished by :
main memory and a __________ points to a) protection algorithm with each page
the page table. b) restricted access rights to users

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) restriction on page visibility Memory Management – Segmentation
d) protection bit with each page
Answer: d 1) In segmentation, each address is specified
by :
6) When the valid – invalid bit is set to a) a segment number
valid, it means that the associated page : b) an offset
a) is in the TLB c) a value
b) has data in it d) a key
c) is in the process‘s logical address space Answer: a and b
d) is the system‘s physical address space
Answer: c 2) In paging the user provides only
________, which is partitioned by the
7) Illegal addresses are trapped using the hardware into ________ and ______.
_____ bit. a) one address, page number, offset
a) error b) one offset, page number, address
b) protection c) page number, offset, address
c) valid – invalid d) None of these
d) access Answer: a
Answer: c
3) Each entry in a segment table has a :
8) When there is a large logical address a) segment base
space, the best way of paging would be : b) segment peak
a) not to page c) segment limit
b) a two level paging algorithm d) segment value
c) to page the page table itself Answer: a and c
d) All of these
Answer: b and c 4) The segment base contains the :
a) starting logical address of the process
9) In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is b) starting physical address of the segment
0.35. The required to access a page in in memory
secondary memory is equal to 100 ns. The c) segment length
time required to access a page in primary d) None of these
memory is 10 ns. The average time required
to access a page is : 5) The segment limit contains the :
a) 3.0 ns a) starting logical address of the process
b) 68.0 ns b) starting physical address of the segment
c) 68.5 ns in memory
d) 78.5 ns c) segment length
Answer: c d) None of these
Answer: c
10) To obtain better memory utilization,
dynamic loading is used. With dynamic 6) The offset ‗d‘ of the logical address must
loading, a routine is not loaded until it is be :
called. For implementing dynamic loading, a) greater than segment limit
a) special support from hardware is required b) between 0 and segment limit
b) special support from operating system is c) between 0 and the segment number
essential d) greater than the segment number
c) special support from both hardware and Answer: b
operating system is essential
d) user programs can implement dynamic 7) If the offset is legal :
loading without any special support from a) it is used as a physical memory address
hardware or operating system itself
Answer: d b) it is subtracted from the segment base to
produce the physical memory address
11) In paged memory systems, if the page c) it is added to the segment base to produce
size is increased, then the internal the physical memory address
fragmentation generally : d) None of these
a) becomes less Answer: a
b) becomes more
c) remains constant
d) None of these 8) When the entries in the segment tables of
Answer: b two different processes point to the same
physical location :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) the segments are invalid d) bus
b) the processes get blocked Answer : d
c) segments are shared
d) All of these 2) A ____ a set of wires and a rigidly
Answer: c defined protocol that specifies a set of
messages that can be sent on the wires.
9) The protection bit is 0/1 based on : a) port
(choose all that apply) b) node
a) write only c) bus
b) read only d) None of these
c) read – write Answer : c
d) None of these
Answer: b and c 3) When device A has a cable that plugs into
device B, and device B has a cable that
10) If there are 32 segments, each of size plugs into device C and device C plugs into
1Kb, then the logical address should have : a port on the computer, this arrangement is
a) 13 bits called a _________.
b) 14 bits a) port
c) 15 bits b) daisy chain
d) 16 bits c) bus
Answer: a d) cable
Explanation: To specify a particular Answer : b
segment, 5 bits are required. To select a
particular byte after selecting a page, 10 4) The _________ present a uniform device-
more bits are required. Hence 15 bits are access interface to the I/O subsystem, much
required. as system calls provide a standard interface
between the application and the operating
11) Consider a computer with 8 Mbytes of system.
main memory and a 128 K cache. The cache a) devices
block size is 4 K. It uses a direct mapping b) buses
scheme for cache management. How many c) device drivers
different main memory blocks can map onto d) I/O systems
a given physical cache block ? Answer : c
a) 2048
b) 256 5) A ________ is a collection of electronics
c) 64 that can operate a port, a bus, or a device.
d) 8 a) controller
Answer: c b) driver
c) host
12) A multilevel page table is preferred in d) bus
comparison to a single level page table for Answer : a
translating virtual address to physical
address because : 6) An I/O port typically consists of four
a) it reduces the memory access time to read registers status, control, ________ and
or write a memory location ________ registers.
b) it helps to reduce the size of page table a) system in, system out
needed to implement the virtual address b) data in, data out
space of a process c) flow in, flow out
c) it is required by the translation look aside d) input, output
buffer Answer : b
d) it helps to reduce the number of page
faults in page replacement algorithms 7) The ______ register is read by the host to
Answer: b get input.
a) flow in
I/O System – Application I/O Interface – b) flow out
1 c) data in
d) data out
1) If one or more devices use a common set Answer : c
of wires to communicate with the computer
system, the connection is called ______. 8) The ______ register is written by the host
a) CPU to send output.
b) Monitor a) status
c) wirefull b) control

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) data in 2) The __________ is used by device
d) data out controllers to request service.
Answer : d a) nonmaskable interrupt
b) blocked interrupt
9) The hardware mechanism that allows a c) maskable interrupt
device to notify the CPU is called _______. d) None of these
a) polling Answer : c
b) interrupt
c) driver 3) The interrupt vector contains :
d) controlling a) the interrupts
Answer : b b) the memory addresses of specialized
interrupt handlers
10) The CPU hardware has a wire called c) the identifiers of interrupts
__________ that the CPU senses after d) the device addresses
executing every instruction. Answer : b
a) interrupt request line
b) interrupt bus 4) Division by zero, accessing a protected or
c) interrupt receive line non existent memory address, or attempting
d) interrupt sense line to execute a privileged instruction from user
Answer : a mode are all categorized as ________.
a) errors
11) The _________ determines the cause of b) exceptions
the interrupt, performs the necessary c) interrupt handlers
processing and executes a return from the d) All of these
interrupt instruction to return the CPU to the Answer : b
execution state prior to the interrupt.
a) interrupt request line 5) For large data transfers, _________ is
b) device driver used.
c) interrupt handler a) DMA
d) All of these b) programmed I/O
Answer : c c) controller register
d) None of these
12) In general the two interrupt request lines Answer : a
are :
a) nonmaskable interrupt 6) A character stream device transfers :
b) blocked interrupt a) bytes one by one
c) maskable interrupt b) block of bytes as a unit
d) None of these c) with unpredictable response times
Answer : a and c d) None of these
Answer : a
13) The _________ are reserved for events
such as unrecoverable memory errors. 7) A block device transfers :
a) nonmaskable interrupts a) bytes one by one
b) blocked interrupts b) block of bytes as a unit
c) maskable interrupts c) with unpredictable response times
d) None of these d) None of these
Answer : a Answer : b

8) A dedicated device is : (choose all that

I/O System – Application I/O Interface – apply)
2 a) opposite to a sharable device
b) same as a sharable device
1) The ________ can be turned off by the c) can be used concurrently by several
CPU before the execution of critical processes
instruction sequences that must not be d) cannot be used concurrently by several
interrupted. processes
a) nonmaskable interrupt Answer : a and d
b) blocked interrupt
c) maskable interrupt 9) A keyboard is an example of a device that
d) None of these is accessed through a __________ interface.
Answer : c a) block stream
b) set of blocks
c) character stream

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) None of these a) CPU
Answer : c b) OS
c) kernel
10) In polling : d) shell
a) busy – wait cycles wait for I/O from Answer : c
device
b) interrupt handler receives interrupts 6) The kernel data structures include :
c) interrupt-request line is triggered by I/O a) process table
device b) open file table
d) All of these c) close file table
Answer : a d) All of these
Answer : b
11) A non blocking system call
_________________. 7) Windows NT uses a __________
a) halts the execution of the application for implementation for I/O
an extended time a) message – passing
b) does not halt the execution of the b) draft – passing
application c) secondary memory
c) does not block the interrupts d) cache
d) None of these Answer : a
Answer : b
8) A ________ is a full duplex connection
12) An asynchronous call : between a device driver and a user level
a) returns immediately, without waiting for process.
the I/O to complete a) bus
b) does not return immediately and waits for b) I/O operation
the I/O to complete c) stream
c) consumes a lot of time d) flow
d) is too slow Answer : c
Answer : a
9) I/O is a _________ in system
performance.
I/O System – Kernel I/O Subsystems a) major factor
b) minor factor
1) Buffering is done to : c) does not matter
a) cope with device speed mismatch d) None of these
b) cope with device transfer size mismatch Answer : a
c) maintain copy semantics
d) All of these 10) If the number of cycles spent busy –
Answer : d waiting is not excessive, then :
a) interrupt driven I/O is more efficient than
2) Caching is ________ spooling. programmed I/O
a) same as b) programmed I/O is more efficient than
b) not the same as interrupt driven I/O
c) None of these c) Both programmed and interrupt driven
Answer : b I/O are equally efficient
d) None of these
3) Caching : (choose all that apply) Answer : b
a) holds a copy of the data
b) is fast memory
c) holds the only copy of the data Real Time OS
d) holds output for a device
Answer : a and b 1. In real time operating system
a) all processes have the same priority
4) Spooling : (choose all that apply) b) a task must be serviced by its deadline
a) holds a copy of the data period
b) is fast memory c) process scheduling can be done only once
c) holds the only copy of the data d) kernel is not required
d) holds output for a device Answer:b
Answer : c and d
2. Hard real time operating system has ___
5) The ________ keeps state information jitter than a soft real time operating system.
about the use of I/O components. a) less

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) more c) windows CE
c) equal d) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a 10. VxWorks is centered around
Explanation:Jitter is the undesired deviation a) wind microkernel
from the true periodicity. b) linux kernel
c) unix kernel
3. For real time operating systems, interrupt d) none of the mentioned
latency should be Answer:a
a) minimal
b) maximum
c) zero Real Time System – Implementing RT
d) dependent on the scheduling Operating Systems – 1
Answer:a
Explanation:Interrupt latency is the time 1) The disadvantage of real addressing mode
duration between the generation of interrupt is :
and execution of its service. a) there is a lot of cost involved
b) time consumption overhead
4. In rate monotonic scheduling c) absence of memory protection between
a) shorter duration job has higher processes
priority d) restricted access to memory locations by
b) longer duration job has higher priority processes
c) priority does not depend on the duration Answer : c
of the job
d) none of the mentioned
2) Preemptive, priority based scheduling
5. In which scheduling certain amount of guarantees :
CPU time is allocated to each process? a) hard real time functionality
a) earliest deadline first scheduling b) soft real time functionality
b) proportional share scheduling c) protection of memory
c) equal share scheduling d) None of these
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:b 3) Real time systems must have :
a) preemptive kernels
6. The problem of priority inversion can be b) non preemptive kernels
solved by c) a or b
a) priority inheritance protocol d) neither a nor b
b) priority inversion protocol Answer : a
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned 4) Event latency is :
Answer:a a) the amount of time an event takes to
occur from when the system started
7. Time duration required for scheduling b) the amount of time from the event
dispatcher to stop one process and start occurance till the system stops
another is known as c) the amount of time from event occurance
a) process latency till the event crashes
b) dispatch latency d) the amount of time that elapses from
c) execution latency when an event occurs to when it is serviced.
d) interrupt latency Answer : d
Answer:b
5) Interrupt latency refers to the period of
8. Time required to synchronous switch time :
from the context of one thread to the context a) from the occurance of an event to the
of another thread is called arrival of an interrupt
a) threads fly-back time b) from the occurance of an event to the
b) jitter servicing of an interrupt
c) context switch time c) from arrival of an interrupt to the start of
d) none of the mentioned the interrupt service routine
d) None of these
9. Which one of the following is a real time Answer : c
operating system?
a) RTLinux 6) Real time systems need to __________
b) VxWorks the interrupt latency.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) minimize occurance till the system stops
b) maximize c) the amount of time from event occurance
c) not bother about till the event crashes
d) None of these d) the amount of time that elapses from
when an event occurs to when it is serviced.
7) The amount of time required for the Answer : d
scheduling dispatcher to stop one process
and start another is known as 5) Interrupt latency refers to the period of
______________. time :
a) event latency a) from the occurance of an event to the
b) interrupt latency arrival of an interrupt
c) dispatch latency b) from the occurance of an event to the
d) context switch servicing of an interrupt
c) from arrival of an interrupt to the start of
8) The most effective technique to keep the interrupt service routine
dispatch latency low is to : d) None of these
a) provide non preemptive kernels Answer : c
b) provide preemptive kernels
c) make it user programmed 6) Real time systems need to __________
d) run less number of processes at a time the interrupt latency.
Answer : b a) minimize
b) maximize
9) Priority inversion is solved by use of c) not bother about
_____________. d) None of these
a) priority inheritance protocol Answer : a
b) two phase lock protocol
c) time protocol 7) The amount of time required for the
d) All of these scheduling dispatcher to stop one process
Answer : a and start another is known as
______________.
a) event latency
Real Time System – Implementing RT b) interrupt latency
Operating Systems – 1 c) dispatch latency
d) context switch
1) The disadvantage of real addressing mode Answer : c
is :
a) there is a lot of cost involved 8) The most effective technique to keep
b) time consumption overhead dispatch latency low is to :
c) absence of memory protection between a) provide non preemptive kernels
processes b) provide preemptive kernels
d) restricted access to memory locations by c) make it user programmed
processes d) run less number of processes at a time
Answer : c Answer : b

2) Preemptive, priority based scheduling 9) Priority inversion is solved by use of

guarantees : _____________.
a) hard real time functionality a) priority inheritance protocol
b) soft real time functionality b) two phase lock protocol
c) protection of memory c) time protocol
d) None of these d) All of these
Answer : b Answer : a

3) Real time systems must have :

a) preemptive kernels
b) non preemptive kernels
c) a or b
d) neither a nor b Real Time CPU Scheduling – 1
Answer : a
1) Earliest deadline first algorithm assigns
4) Event latency is : priorities according to :
a) the amount of time an event takes to a) periods
occur from when the system started b) deadlines
b) the amount of time from the event c) burst times

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) None of these c) 50
Answer : b d) None of these
Answer : b
2) A process P1 has a period of 50 and a
CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 iii) C will have ______ percent of the total
and a CPU burst of 35. The total CPU processor time.
utilization is : a) 20
a) 0.90 b) 15
b) 0.74 c) 50
c) 0.94 d) None of these
d) 0.80 Answer : a
Answer : c
iv) If a new process D requested 30 shares,
3) In the above question, the priorities of P1 the admission controller would :
and P2 : a) allocate 30 shares to it
a) remain the same throughout b) deny entry to D in the system
b) keep varying from time to time c) None of these
c) None of these Answer : b
Answer : b
1) To schedule the processes, they are
4) In Question number 2, can the two considered _________.
processes be scheduled using the EDF a) infinitely long
algorithm without missing their respective b) periodic
deadlines ? c) heavy weight
a) Yes d) light weight
b) No Answer : b
c) Maybe
Answer : a 2) If the period of a process is ‗p‘, then the
rate of the task is :
5) Using EDF algorithm practically, it is a) p^2
impossible to achieve 100 percent utilization b) 2*p
due to : (choose all that apply) c) 1/p
a) the cost of context switching d) p
b) interrupt handling Answer : c
c) power consumption
d) All of these 3) The scheduler admits a process using :
Answer : a and b a) two phase locking protocol
b) admission control algorithm
6) T shares of time are allocated among all c) busy wait polling
processes out of N shares in __________ d) None of these
scheduling algorithm. Answer : c
a) rate monotonic
b) proportional share 4) The ____________ scheduling algorithm
c) earliest deadline first schedules periodic tasks using a static
d) None of these priority policy with preemption.
Answer : b a) earliest deadline first
b) rate monotonic
7) If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be c) first cum first served
divided among three processes, A, B and C. d) priority
A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 Answer : b
shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
i) A will have ______ percent of the total 5) Rate monotonic scheduling assumes that
processor time. the :
a) 20 a) processing time of a periodic process is
b) 15 same for each CPU burst
c) 50 b) processing time of a periodic process is
d) None of these different for each CPU burst
Answer : c c) periods of all processes is the same
d) None of these
ii) B will have ______ percent of the total Answer : a
processor time.
a) 20 6) In rate monotonic scheduling, a process
b) 15 with a shorter period is assigned :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) a higher priority d) none of the mentioned
b) a lower priority Answer:a
c) None of these
Answer : a 3. Which one of the following is the
7) There are two processes P1 and P2, characteristic of a multimedia system?
whose periods are 50 and 100 respectively. a) high storage
P1 is assigned higher priority than P2. The b) high data rates
processing times are t1 = 20 for P1 and t2 = c) both (a) and (b)
35 for P2. Is it possible to schedule these d) none of the mentioned
tasks so that each meets its deadline using Answer:c
Rate monotonic scheduling ? 4. The delay that occur during the playback
a) Yes of a stream is called
b) No a) stream delay
c) maybe b) playback delay
d) None of these c) jitter
Answer : a d) event delay

5. Which algorithm can be optimized to

8) If a set of processes cannot be scheduled meet the timing deadlines and rate
by rate monotonic scheduling algorithm, requirements of continuous media?
then : a) Earliest-Deadline-First scheduling
a) they can be scheduled by EDF algorithm b) SCAN-EDF scheduling
b) they cannot be scheduled by EDF c) both (a) and (b)
algorithm d) none of the mentioned
c) they cannot be scheduled by any other Answer:c
algorithm
d) None of these 6. Real time streaming protocol is used
Answer : c a) to control streaming media servers
b) for establishing and controlling media
9) A process P1 has a period of 50 and a sessions between endpoints
CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 c) to provide real time control of playback of
and a CPU burst of 35. The total CPU media files from the server
utilization is : d) all of the mentioned
a) 0.90 Answer:d
b) 0.74 7. In teardown state of real time streaming
c) 0.94 protocol
d) 0.80 a) the server resources for client
Answer : c b) server delivers the stream to client
c) server suspends delivery of stream
10) Can the processes in the previous d) server breaks down the connection
question be scheduled without missing the Answer:d
deadlines ?
a) Yes 8. CineBlitz multimedia server supports
b) No a) real time clients
c) maybe b) non-real time clients
Answer : b c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:c
Multimedia Systems
9. Multimedia system require hard real time
1. A multimedia file scheduling
a) is same as any other regular file a) to ensure critical tasks will be serviced
b) must be accessed at specific rate within timing deadlines
c) stored on remote server can not be b) to deliver the media file to the client
delivered to its client c) to minimize the delay
d) none of the mentioned d) for security
Answer:b Answer:a

2. In which type of streaming multimedia 10. Which one of the following resource is
file is delivered to the client, but not shared? not necessarily required on a file server?
a) real-time streaming a) secondary storage
b) progressive download b) processor
c) compression c) network

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) monitor d) virtual time streaming
Answer:d Answer : a and c

8) A media file containing audio or video is

Multimedia System – Compression – 1 downloaded and stored on the client‘s local
file sytem in :
1) The major difference between a a) progressive download
multimedia file and a regular file is : b) regular download
a) the size c) real time streaming
b) the attributes d) virtual time streaming
c) the ownership Answer : a
d) the rate at which the file must be accessed Explanation: As the file is being
Answer : d downloaded, the client is able to play back
Explanation: Multimedia files must be the media file without having to wait for the
accessed at a specific rate whereas accessing file to be downloaded in its entirety.
regular files requires no special timings.
9) Progressive download is most useful for :
2) Video is represented as a series of images a) short video clips
formally known as : b) long video clips
a) pics c) extremely long and high quality videos
b) shots d) None of these
c) frames Answer : a
d) snaps
10) The media file is streamed to the client
3) The faster the frames are displayed, : but is only played and not stored by the
a) the rougher the video appears client in :
b) the smoother the video appears a) progressive download
c) it gets blurry b) regular download
d) None of these c) real time streaming
d) virtual time streaming
4) The characteristic of the eye to retain the
image for a short time after it has been
presented is known as : 11) Real time streaming is most useful for :
a) persistence of vision a) short video clips
b) learning power b) long video clips
c) memory mapped input c) extremely short and low quality videos
d) None of these d) None of these
Answer : a Answer : b

5) Local playback is when : 1) The full form of MPEG is :

a) the multi media data are delivered a) Motion Pictures Engineering Group
from a local file system b) Motion Picture Engineers Group
b) a computer next to you is playing c) Motion Picture Experts Group
something d) None of these
c) a multimedia file is being played on a Answer : c
system in the local network
d) None of these 2) MPEG compression :
a) stores the compression values of each
frame
6) Multimedia files stored on a remote b) stores the differences between successive
server are delivered to a client across the frames
network using a technique known as : c) stores multiple frames‘ values together
a) download d) None of these
b) streaming Answer : b
c) flowing
d) leaking 3) The three levels in QoS are : (choose
three)
7) The two types of streaming techniques a) Best effort service
are : b) Soft QoS
a) progressive download c) Worst effort service
b) regular download d) Hard QoS
c) real time streaming Answer : a, b and d

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
4) The level that treats different types of b) memory location
traffics in different ways, giving certain c) resource manager
traffic streams higher priority than other d) All of these
streams and with best efforts, but no Answer : c
guarantees are made :
a) Best effort service 1) The ability to move around within a
b) Soft QoS media stream is known as :
c) Worst effort service a) buffering
d) Hard QoS b) random access
Answer : b c) access
d) sequential access
5) The quality of service requirements are Answer : b
guaranteed in :
a) Best effort service 2) The two types of real time streaming are :
b) Soft QoS a) live streaming
c) Worst effort service b) dead streaming
d) Hard QoS c) static streaming
Answer : d d) on demand streaming
Answer : a and d
6) The factors that define QoS are : (choose
all that apply) 3) Random access is not allowed in :
a) Throughput a) live streaming
b) Jitter b) dead streaming
c) Delay c) static streaming
d) Media d) on demand streaming
e) Reliability Answer : a
f) Burst times
g) All of these 4) The streaming that takes place as the
Answer : a, b, c and e event is occurring is :
a) live streaming
7) Delay and Jitter : b) dead streaming
a) mean the same thing c) static streaming
b) are two completely different things d) on demand streaming
c) None of these
Answer : b 5) For a computer to deliver continuous
media it must guarantee the specific rate and
8) Delay is : timing requirements, also known as :
a) the time from when a request is first a) deadline
submitted to when the desired result is b) Quality of service
produced c) period
b) the delay that occurs during playback of d) burst time
the stream
c) how the errors are handled during 6) For QOS to be implemented properly :
transmission and processing of continuous a) file systems must be efficient to meet the
media rate requirements of continuous media
d) None of these b) network protocols must support
Answer : a bandwidth requirements while minimizing
delay and jitter
9) Admission control is : c) Both a and b
a) the delay that occurs during playback of d) None of these
the stream Answer : c
b) the practice of admitting a request for
service only if the server has sufficient 7) Once a file is compressed : (choose all
resources to satisfy the request. that apply)
c) how the errors are handled during a) it has a better quality
transmission and processing of continuous b) it takes up less space for storage
media c) it can be delivered to the client more
d) None of these quickly
Answer : b d) None of these
Answer : b and c
10) An admission control scheme assigns a
__________ to each type of resource. 8) Compression ratio is the ratio of :
a) processor a) the original file size to the size of the

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
compressed file a) EDS
b) the number of pixels in a frame of the b) SDF
original size to those in a frame of the c) SCAN-EDF
compressed file d) None of these
c) compressed file size to the original file Answer : c
size
d) None of these 6) If several requests have different
Answer : a deadlines that are relaticely close together,
then using the SCAN – EDF algorithm :
9) Lossy and lossless are classifications of : a) the SCAN ordering will service the
a) multimedia storage systems requests in that batch
b) files b) the EDF ordering will service the requests
c) compression algorithms in that batch
d) All of these c) the FCFS ordering will service the
Answer : c requests in that batch
d) None of these
10) Lossy techniques provide ___________ Answer : a
when compared to lossless techniques.
a) lower compression ratios 7) Multimedia systems require _________
b) much higher compression ratios scheduling to ensure critical tasks will be
c) similar compression ratios serviced within timing deadlines.
d) None of these a) soft real time
Answer : b b) hard real time
c) normal
d) None of these
CPU and Disk Scheduling Answer : b

1) A scheduling algorithm can use either 8) The EDF scheduler uses ________ to
___________ priority or ________ priority. order requests according to their deadlines.
a) static, still a) stack
b) static, dynamic b) disks
c) live, dead c) queue
d) None of these d) None of these
Answer : b Answer : c

2) The priority of a process will 9) In SCAN – EDF, requests with the same
______________ if the scheduler assigns it deadlines are ordered according to :
a static priority. a) SCAN policy
a) change b) EDF policy
b) remain unchanged c) FCFS policy
c) depends on the operating system d) FIFO policy
d) None of these Answer : a
Answer : b

3) As disks have relatively low transfer rates Security – User Authentication

and relatively high latency rates, disk
schedulers must reduce latency times to : 1) Which of the following are forms of
a) ensure high bandwidth malicious attack ?
b) ensure low bandwidth a) Theft of information
c) make sure data is transferred b) Modification of data
d) reduce data transfer speeds c) Wiping of information
Answer : a d) All of the mentioned

4) Servicing requests strictly according to 2) What are common security threats ?

deadline using EDF may result in : a) File Shredding
a) lower seek times b) File sharing and permission
b) lower bandwidth c) File corrupting
c) higher seek time d) File integrity
d) higher bandwidth Answer: b
Answer : c Explanation: Sharing and associated
permissions are usual exploits which can
5) The hybrid algorithm that combines EDF compromised the system.
with SCAN algorithm is known as :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
3) From the following, which is not a Explanation: One time password is safe
common file permission ? since it is generated per access and thus
a) Write cannot be brute forced or deduced.
b) Execute
c) Stop 9) What does Light Directory Access
d) Read Protocol (LDAP) doesn‘t store ?
Answer: c a) Users
b) Address
4) Which of the following is a good practice c) Passwords
? d) Security Keys
a) Give full permission for remote Answer: b
transferring
b) Grant read only permission 10) What is characteristic of RADIUS
c) Grant limited permission to specified system ?
account a) It is essential for centralized encryption
d) Give both read and write permission but and authentication
not execute. b) It works on Network layer to deny access
Answer: c to unauthorized people
Explanation: limited access is a key method c) It provides centralized authentication
to circumvent unauthorized access and mechanism via network devices
exploits. d) It‘s a strong File access system.
Answer: c
5) What is not a good practice for user
administration ? 11) Which happens first authorization or
a) Isolating a system after a compromise authentication ?
b) Perform random auditing procedures a) Authorization
c) Granting privileges on a per host basis b) Authentication
d) Using telnet and FTP for remote access. c) Both are same
Answer: d d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Telnet and FTP are not Answer: a
encrypted and can be compromised.
12) What is characteristics of Authorization
6) Which of the following is least secure ?
method of authentication ? a) RADIUS and RSA
a) Key card b) 3 way handshaking with syn and fin.
b) fingerprint c) Multilayered protection for securing
c) retina pattern resources
d) Password d) Deals with privileges and rights
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Passwords can be be
compromised more easily than to replicate a 13) What forces the user to change password
physical thing like key card, fingerprint or at first logon ?
retina. a) Default behavior of OS
b) Part of AES encryption practice
7) Which of the following is a strong c) Devices being accessed forces the user
password ? d) Account administrator
a) 19thAugust88 Answer: d
b) Delhi88 Explanation: Its administrator‘s job to
c) P@assw0rd ensure that password of the user remains
d) !augustdelhi private and is known only to user. But while
Answer: c making a new user account he assigns a
Explanation: It has a combination of random general password to give it to user.
Alphabet both capital and small along with Thus even administrator cannot access a
number and special character. Thus always particular users account.
use complex password with combination of
all these. 14) What is not a best practice for password
policy ?
8) Why is one time password safe ? a) Deciding maximum age of password
a) It is easy to generated b) Restriction on password reuse and history
b) It cannot be shared c) Password encryption
c) It is different for every access d) Having change password every 2 years.
d) It is a complex enctypted password Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: Old passwords are more

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
vulnerable to being misplaced or terminal
compromised. Passwords should be changed Answer: b
periodically to enhance security.
7) Which mechanism is used by worm
process ?
Security – Program and System Threats a) Trap door
b) Fake process
1) What is breach of integrity ? c) Spawn Process
a) This type of violation involves d) VAX process
unauthorized reading of data Answer: c
b) This violation involves unauthorized
modification of data. 8) Which of the following is not a
c) This violation involves unauthorized characteristic of virus ?
destruction of data a) Virus destroy and modify user data
d) This violation involves unauthorized use b) Virus is a standalone program
of resources c) Virus is a code embedded in a legitimate
2) What is breach of confidentiality ? program
a) This type of violation involves d) Virus cannot be detected.
unauthorized reading of data Answer: d
b) This violation involves unauthorized Explanation: Virus can be detected by
modification of data. having a antivirus program.
c) This violation involves unauthorized
destruction of data 9) What is known as masquerading ?
d) This violation involves unauthorized use a) When one participant in communication
of resources pretends to be someone else.
Answer: a b) When attacker modifies data in
communication
3) What is theft of service ? c) When attack is of fraudulent repeat of a
a) This type of violation involves valid data
unauthorized reading of data d) When attack gains access to remote
b) This violation involves unauthorized systems.
modification of data. Answer: a
c) This violation involves unauthorized
destruction of data 10) Who unleashed famous worm attack in
d) This violation involves unauthorized use 1988 which effected UNIX systems and
of resources caused losses in millions ?
Answer: d a) Robert Morris
b) Bob Milano
4) What is breach of availability ? c) Mark zuckerberg
a) This type of violation involves d) Bill Gates
unauthorized reading of data Answer: a
b) This violation involves unauthorized
modification of data. 11) What is port scanning ?
c) This violation involves unauthorized a) It is a software used to scan system for
destruction of data attack
d) This violation involves unauthorized use b) It is a software application designed to
of resources probe a server or host for open ports
Answer: c c) It is software used to scan system for
introducing attacks by brute force
5) What is Trojan horse ? d) None of the mentioned
a) It is a useful way to encrypt password Answer: b
b) It is a user which steals valuable
information 12) Which is not a port scan type ?
c) It is a rogue program which tricks users a) TCP scanning
d) It‘s a brute force attack algorithm. b) SYN scanning
Answer: c c) UDP scanning
d) SYSTEM Scanning
6) What is trap door ? Answer: d
a) IT is trap door in WarGames
b) It is a hole in software left by designer. 13) Which is not a valid port scan type ?
c) It is a Trojan horse a) ACK scanning
d) It is a virus which traps and locks user b) Window scanning
c) IGMP scan

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) FIN scanning 3) What is best practice in firewall domain
Answer: c environment ?
a) Create two domain trusted and untrusted
14) What are zombie systems ? domain
a) Are specific system which are designed to b) Create strong policy in firewall to support
attack by manufacturer different types of users
b) They are network of known hacking c) Create one Demiliatarized zone
group d) Create two DMZ zones with one
c) These systems are previously untrusted domain
compromised, independent systems Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: All live servers or workstations
Answer: c are kept in a separate zone than inside and
outside to enhance protection.
15) What is known as DOS attack ?
a) It is attack to block traffic of network 4) Which direction access cannot happen
b) It is attack to harm contents stored in using DMZ zone by default ?
HDD by worm spawn processes a) Company computer to DMZ
c) It is an attempt to make a machine or b) Internet to DMZ
network resource unavailable. c) Internet to company computer
d) None of the mentioned d) Company computer to internet
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: Connection from internet are
16) With regard to DOS attack what is not never allowed to directly access internal PCs
true from below options ? but is routed through DMZ zone to prevent
a) We can stop DOS attack completely attacks.
b) By upgrading OS vulnerability we can
stop DOS attack to some extent 5) What are two features of a tripwire file
c) DOS attack has to be stopped at network system ?
level a) It is a tool to monitor file systems
d) Such attack can last for hours b) It is used to alert system administrator to
these modification
c) It is used to automatically take corrective
Security – Securing Systems and Facilities action
d) It is used to secure UNIX system
1) What is not a important part of security Answer: a & b
protection ?
a) Large amount of RAM to support 6) How do viruses avoid basic pattern
antivirus matchof antivirus ?
b) Strong passwords a) They are encrypted
c) Audit log periodically b) They act with special permissions
d) Scan for unauthorized programs in system c) They modify themselves
directories d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: RAM has no effect on security
of a system. System‘s protection remains 7) How does an antivirus of today identify
unchanged in increasing or decreasing viruses ? Choose two
amount of RAM. a) Previously known patterns
b) It can detect unknown patterns
2) What is used to protect network from c) It can take high priority to increase
outside internet access ? scanning speed
a) A trusted antivirus d) It looks at behavior of a running program
b) 24 hours scanning for virus Answer: a & d
c) Firewall to separate trusted and untrusted
network 8) What is known as sandbox ?
d) Deny users access to websites which can a) It is a program which can be molded to do
potentially cause security leak. desired task.
Answer: c b) It is program that is controlled or
Explanation: Firewall create a protective emulated section of OS
barrier to secure internal network. A c) It is a special mode of antivirus
antivirus can only detect harmful viruses but d) None of the mentioned
cannot stop illegal access by remote Answer: b
attacker.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
9) What is are two safe computing practices a) These are very slow at detection
? b) It generates many false alarms
a) Not to open software from unknown c) It doesnt detect novel attacks
vendors d) None of these
b) Open and execute programs in admin Answer: b
level/root
c) Open and execute programs in presence 7) What are characteristics of signature
of antivirus based IDS ? (Choose two)
d) Keeping a close watch on employees. a) Most are based on simple pattern
Answer: a & d matching algorithms.
Explanation: Disgruntled employees have in b) It is programmed to interpret a certain
past infected the master copies of software series of packets
programs to do economic harm to the c) It models the normal usage of network as
company. a noise characterization
d) Anything distinct from the noise is
assumed to be intrusion activity
Security – Intrusion Detection Answer: a & b

1) What are the different ways to intrude ? 8) What are drawbacks of signature based
(Choose 3) IDS ? (Choose two)
a) Buffer overflows a) They are able to detect novel attacks
b) Unexpected combinations and unhandled b) They suffer from false alarms
input c) They have to be programmed again for
c) Race conditions every new pattern to be detected
d) Backdoor d) They are unable to detect novel attacks
Answer: a,b & c Answer: b,c and d

2) What are major components of intrusion 9) What are characteristics of Host based
detection system ? (Choose 3) IDS ? (Choose 3)
a) Analysic Engine a) The host operating system logs in the
b) Event provider audit information
c) Zone system b) Logs includes logins,file opens and
d) Alert Database program executions
Answer: a,b & d c) Logs are analysed to detect tails of
intrusion
3) What are the different ways to classify an d) Logs are archived daily
IDS ? (Choose 3) Answer: a,b & c
a) anomaly detection
b) signature based misuse 10) What are drawbacks of the host based
c) stack based IDS ? (Choose two)
d) zone based a) Unselective logging of messages may
Answer: a,b & c increase the audit burdens
b) Selective logging runs the rish of missed
4) What are the different ways to classify an attacks
IDS ? (Choose 2) c) They are very fast to detect
a) Zone based d) They have to be programmed for new
b) Host based patterns
c) Network based Answer: a & b
d) Level based
Answer: b & c 11) What are strengths of the host based IDS
? (Choose three)
5) What are characteristics of anomaly based a) Attack verification
IDS ? b) System specific acitvity
a) It models the normal usage of network as c) No addition hardware required
a noise characterization d) They are very fast
b) It doesnt detect novel attacks Answer: a,b & c
c) Anything distinct from the noise is
assumed to be intrusion activity 12) What are characteristics of stack based
d) It detects based on signature. IDS ?
Answer: a & c a) They are integrated closely with the
TCP/IP stack and watch packets
6) What is major drawback of anomaly b) The host operating system logs in the
detection IDS ? audit information

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) It is programmed to interpret a certain 4) What is not an encryption standard ?
series of packets a) AES
d) It models the normal usage of network as b) TES
a noise characterization c) Triple DES
Answer: a d) DES
Answer: b
13) What are characteristics of Network
based IDS ? (Choose two) 5) Which of following is not a stream
a) They look for attack signatures in cipher?
network traffic a) two fish
b) Filter decides which traffic will be b) RC5
discarded or passed c) RC4
c) It is programmed to interpret a certain d) TBONE
series of packet Answer: d
d) It models the normal usage of network as
a noise characterization 6) What is a Hash Function ?
Answer: a & b a) It creates a small flexible block of data
b) It creates a small,fixed block of data
14) What are strengths of Network based c) It creates a encrypted block of data
IDS ? (Choose three) d) none of the mentioned
a) Cost of ownership reduced Answer: b
b) Malicious intent detection
c) Real time detection and response 7) MD5 produces __ bits hash data ?
d) No addition hardware required a) 128
Answer: a,b & c b) 150
c) 160
d) 112
Security – Cryptography Answer: a

1) What is preferred way of encryption ? 8) SHA-1 produces __ bit of hash ?

a) pre shared secret key a) 128
b) Using key distribution center (KDC) b) 160
c) public key-encryption c) 150
d) symmetric key d) 112
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Preshared key can be
compromised and either party can be 9) Which two of the following are
suspected. Likewise KDC or symmetric key authentication algorithms ?
can have breach which are undesirable. a) MAC
Public and private key encryption is a b) AES
known industry standard. c) DES
d) Digital-signature
2) What is not a role of encryption ? Answer: a & c
a) It is used to protect data from
unauthorized access during transmission 10) What is role of Key Distribution Center
b) It is used to ensure user authentication ?
c) It is used to ensure data integrity a) It is used to distribute keys to everyone in
d) It is used to ensure data corruption world
doesn‘t happens b) It intended to reduce the risks inherent in
Answer: d exchanging keys
Explanation: Encryption doesn‘t have error c) a and b both
correction or detection facility thus cannot d) none of the mentioned
be used to safeguard from data corruption. Answer: b

3) What is cipher-block chaining ?

a) Data is logically ‗ANDed‘ with previous Secondary Storage
block
b) Data is logically ‗ORed‘ with previous 1. Which one of the following is not a
block secondary storage?
c) Data is logically ‗XORed‘ with previous a) magnetic disks
block b) magnetic tapes
d) none of the mentioned c) RAM
Answer: c

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) none of the mentioned b) specified pair of physical block is
Answer:c examined
c) first pair of physical block is examined
2. Which private network uses storage d) none of the mentioned
protocol rather than networking protocol? Answer:a
a) storage area network
b) local area network 10. The replacement of a bad block
c) wide area network generally is not totally automatic because
d) none of the mentioned a) data in bad block can not be replaced
Answer:a b) data in bad block is usually lost
c) bad block does not contain any data
3. The time for the disk arm to move the d) none of the mentioned
heads to the cylinder containing the desired Answer:b
sector is called
a) disk time
b) seek time Questions & Answers – Linux
c) arm time
d) sector time 1. Linux uses a time-sharing algorithm
Answer:b a) to pair preemptive scheduling between
multiple processes
4. Which algorithm of disk scheduling b) for tasks where absolute priorities are
selects the request with the least seek time more important than fairness
from the current head positions? c) both (a) and (b)
a) SSTF scheduling d) none of the mentioned
b) FCFS scheduling Answer:a
c) SCAN scheduling
d) LOOK scheduling 2. First linux kernel which supports the SMP
Answer:a hardware was
a) linux 0.1
5. Operating system is responsible for b) linux 1.0
a) disk initialization c) linux 1.2
b) booting from disk d) linux 2.0
c) bad-block recovery Answer:d
d) all of the mentioned
Answer:d 3. Which one of the following linux file
system does not support journaling feature?
6. A swap space can reside in a) ext2
a) separate disk partition b) ext3
b) RAM c) ext4
c) cache d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer:a
Answer:a
4. Which binary format is supported by
7. RAID level 1 refers to linux?
a) disk arrays with striping a) a.out
b) disk mirroring b) ELF
c) both (a) and (b) c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation:A variety of disk-organization
techniques is called ―redundant arrays of 5. Which one of the following bootloader is
independent disks (RAID)‖. not used by linux?
a) GRUB
8. When we write something on the disk, b) LILO
which one of the following can not happen? c) NTLDR
a) successful completion d) none of the mentioned
b) partial failure Answer:c
c) total failure
d) none of the mentioned 6. The first process launched by the linux
Answer:d kernel is
a) init process
9. During recovery from a failure b) zombie process
a) each pair of physical block is examined c) batch process

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) boot process 4. The time required to create a new thread
Answer:a in an existing process is
a) greater than the time required to create a
7. Which desktop environment is not used in new process
any linux distribution? c) less than the time required to create a new
a) gnome process
b) KDE c) equal to the time required to create a new
c) unity process
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer:d Answer:b

8. Standard set of functions through which 5. When the event for which a thread is
interacts with kernel is defined by blocked occurs,
a) system libraries a) thread moves to the ready queue
b) kernel code b) thread remains blocked
c) compilers c) thread completes
d) utility programs d) a new thread is provided
Answer:a
9. Linux is
a) single user, single tasking 6. The jacketing technique is used to
b) single user, multitasking a) convert a blocking system call into
c) multiuser, single tasking nonblocking system call
d) multiuser, multitasking b) create a new thread
Answer:d c) communicate between threads
d) terminate a thread
10. Which one of the following is not a linux Answer:a
distribution?
a) debian 7. Termination of the process terminates
b) gentoo a) first thread of the process
c) open SUSE b) first two threads of the process
d) multics c) all threads within the process
Answer:d d) no thread within the process
Answer:c

Threads 8. Which one of the following is not a valid

state of a thread?
1. Which one of the following is not shared a) running
by threads? b) parsing
a) program counter c) ready
b) stack d) blocked
c) both (a) and (b) Answer:b
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:c 9. The register context and stacks of a thread
are deallocated when the thread
2. A process can be a) terminates
a) single threaded b) blocks
b) multithreaded c) unblocks
c) both (a) and (b) d) spawns
d) none of the mentioned Answer:a
Answer:c
10. Thread synchronization is required
3. If one thread opens a file with read because
privileges then a) all threads of a process share the same
a) other threads in the another process can address space
also read from that file b) all threads of a process share the same
b) other threads in the same process can also global variables
read from that file c) all threads of a process can share the same
c) any other thread can not read from that files
file d) all of the mentioned
d) all of the mentioned Answer:d
Answer:b

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
User and Kernel Threads b) increases concurrency
c) doesnt affect the concurrency
1) A thread is also called : d) can increase or decrease the concurrency
a) Light Weight Process(LWP) Answer: b
b) Heavy Weight Process(HWP)
c) Process 8) The kernel is _______ of user threads.
d) None of these a) a part of
Answer: a b) the creator of
c) unaware of
2) A thread shares its resources(like data d) aware of
section, code section, open files, signals) Answer: c
with :
a) other process similar to the one that the 9) If the kernel is single threaded, then any
thread belongs to user level thread performing a blocking
b) other threads that belong to similar system call will :
processes a) cause the entire process to run along with
c) other threads that belong to the same the other threads
process b) cause the thread to block with the other
d) All of these threads running
Answer: c c) cause the entire process to block even if
the other threads are available to run
3) A heavy weight process : d) None of these
a) has multiple threads of execution Answer: c
b) has a single thread of execution
c) can have multiple or a single thread for 10) Because the kernel thread management
execution is done by the Operating System itself :
d) None of these a) kernel threads are faster to create than
Answer: b user threads
b) kernel threads are slower to create than
4) A process having multiple threads of user threads
control implies : c) kernel threads are easier to manage as
a) it can do more than one task at a time well as create then user threads
b) it can do only one task at a time, but d) None of these
much faster Answer: b
c) it has to use only one thread per process
d) None of these 11) If a kernel thread performs a blocking
Answer: a system call, ____________________.
a) the kernel can schedule another thread in
5) Multithreading an interactive program the application for execution.
will increase responsiveness to the user by : b) the kernel cannot schedule another thread
a) continuing to run even if a part of it is in the same application for execution.
blocked c) the kernel must schedule another thread
b) waiting for one part to finish before the of a different application for execution.
other begins d) the kernel must schedule another thread
c) asking the user to decide the order of of the same application on a different
multithreading processor.
d) None of these Answer: a
Answer: a
12) Which of the following is FALSE ?
6) Resource sharing helps : (GATE 2007)
a) share the memory and resources of the a) Context switch time is longer for kernel
process to which the threads belong. level threads than for user level threads
b) an application have several different b) User level threads do not need any
threads of activity all within the same hardware support
address space c) Related kernel level threads can be
c) reduce the address space that a process scheduled on different processors in a
could potentially use multiprocessor system
d) All of these d) Blocking one kernel level thread blocks
Answer: d all other related threads
Answer: d
7) Multithreading on a multi – CPU machine
:
a) decreases concurrency

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Multi Threading Models crash the system
d) creating a user thread requires creating
1) The model in which one kernel thread is the corresponding kernel thread
mapped to many user-level threads is called Answer: d
:
a) Many to One model 8) When is the Many to One model at an
b) One to Many model advantage ?
c) Many to Many model a) When the program does not need multi-
d) One to One model threading
b) When the program has to be multi-
2) The model in which one user-level thread threaded
is mapped to many kernel level threads is c) When there is a single processor
called : d) None of these
a) Many to One model Answer: a
b) One to Many model
c) Many to Many model 9) In the Many to Many model true
d) One to One model concurrency cannot be gained because :
Answer: b a) the kernel can schedule only one thread at
a time
3) In the Many to One model, if a thread b) there are too many threads to handle
makes a blocking system call : c) it is hard to map threads with each other
a) the entire process will be blocked d) None of these
b) a part of the process will stay blocked, Answer: a
with the rest running
c) the entire process will run 10) In the Many to Many model when a
d) None of these thread performs a blocking system call :
Answer: a a) other threads are strictly prohibited from
running
4) In the Many to One model, multiple b) other threads are allowed to run
threads are unable to run in parallel on c) other threads only from other processes
multiprocessors because : are allowed to run The fork and exec System
a) only one thread can access the kernel at a Calls
time
b) many user threads have access to just one 1) Which of the following system calls does
kernel thread not return control to the calling point, on
c) there is only one kernel thread termination ?
d) None of these a) fork
Answer: a b) exec
c) ioctl
5) The One to One model allows : d) longjmp
a) increased concurrency Answer: b
b) decreased concurrency
c) increased or decreased concurrency 2) The following program:
d) concurrency equivalent to other models main()
Answer: a {
if(fork()>0)
6) In the One to One model when a thread sleep(100);
makes a blocking system call : }
a) other threads are strictly prohibited from results in the creation of:
running a) an orphan process
b) other threads are allowed to run b) a zombie process
c) other threads only from other processes c) a process that executes forever
are allowed to run d) None of these
d) None of these Answer: b
Answer: b
3) Which of the following system calls
7) Which of the following is the drawback transforms executable binary file into a
of the One to One Model ? process ?
a) increased concurrency provided by this a) fork
model b) exec
b) decreased concurrency provided by this c) ioctl
model d) longjmp
c) creating so many threads at once can

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer: b based on fork, due to no exec command,
Explanation: None duplication will be done.

4) The following C program :

main() Thread Cancellation
{
fork();fork();printf(―yes‖); 1) Thread cancellation is :
} a) the task of destroying the thread once its
prints yes: work is done
a) only once b) the task of removing a thread once its
b) twice work is done
c) four times c) the task of terminating a thread before it
d) eight times has completed
Answer: c d) None of these
Answer: c
5) Which of the following calls never
returns an error ? 2) When a web page is loading, and the user
a) getpid presses a button on the browser to stop
b) fork loading the page :
c) ioctl a) the thread loading the page continues with
d) open the loading
Answer: a b) the thread loading the page does not stop,
but continues with another task
c) the thread loading the page is paused
6) A fork system call will fail if : d) the thread loading the page is cancelled
a) the previously executed statement is also
a fork call. 3) When one thread immediately terminates
b) the limit on the maximum number of the target thread, it is called :
processes in the system would be executed. a) Asynchronous cancellation
c) the limit on the maximum number of b) Systematic cancellation
processes that can be under execution by a c) Sudden Termination
single user would be executed. d) Deferred cancellation
d) All of these (Answer: b and c)
4) When the target thread periodically
7) If a thread invokes the exec system call, checks if it should terminate and terminates
a) only the exec executes as a separate itself in an orderly manner, it is called :
process. a) Asynchronous cancellation
b) the program specified in the parameter to b) Systematic cancellation
exec will replace the entire process. c) Sudden Termination
c) the exec is ignored as it is invoked by a d) Deferred cancellation
thread.
d) None of these 5) Cancelling a thread asynchronously :
Answer: b a) frees all the resources properly
b) may not free each resource
8) If exec is called immediately after c) spoils the process execution
forking, d) None of these
a) the program specified in the parameter to Answer: b
exec will replace the entire process.
b) all the threads will be duplicated 6) Cancellation point is the point where :
c) all the threads will not be duplicated a) the thread can be cancelled – safely or
d) None of these otherwise doesnt matter
Answer: a and c b) the thread can be cancelled safely
c) the whole process can be cancelled safely
9) If a process does not call exec after d) None of these
forking, Answer: b
a) the program specified in the parameter to
exec will replace the entire process. 7) If multiple threads are concurrently
b) all the threads should be duplicated searching through a database and one thread
c) all the threads should not be duplicated returns the result then the remaining threads
d) None of these must be :
Answer: b a) continued
Explanation: The new process is purely b) cancelled
c) protected

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) None of these 8) In UNIX, the set of masked signals can be
Answer: b set or cleared using the ________ function.
a) sigmask
b) sigmaskproc
Signal Handling c) sigprocmask
d) sigproc
1) Signals that occur at the same time, are Answer: c
presented to the process :
a) one at a time, in a particular order 9) The usefulness of signals as a general
b) one at a time, in no particular order inter process communication mechanism is
c) all at a time limited because :
d) None of these a) they do not work between processes
Answer: b b) they are user generated
c) they cannot carry information directly
2) Which of the following is not TRUE : d) None of these
a) Processes may send each other signals Answer: c
b) Kernel may send signals internally
c) a field is updated in the signal table when 10) The usual effect of abnormal termination
the signal is sent of a program is :
d) each signal is maintained by a single bit a) core dump file generation
Answer: c b) system crash
Explanation: A field is updated in the c) program switch
process table when the signal is sent. d) signal destruction
Answer: a
3) Signals of a given type :
a) are queued 11) In UNIX, the abort() function sends the
b) are all sent as one ________ signal to the calling process,
c) cannot be queued causing abnormal termination.
d) None of these a) SIGTERM
Explanation: The signal handler will be b) SIGSTOP
invoked only once. c) SIGABORT
d) SIGABRT
4) The three ways in which a process Answer: d
responds to a signal are : (choose three)
a) ignoring the signal 12) In most cases, if a process is sent a
b) handling the signal signal while it is executing a system call :
c) performing some default action a) the system call will continue execution
d) asking the user to handle the signal and the signal will be ignored completely
b) the system call is interrupted by the
5) Signals are identified by : signal, and the signal handler comes in
a) signal identifiers c) the signal has no effect until the system
b) signal handlers call completes
c) signal actions d) None of these
d) None of these Answer: c

13) A process can never be sure that a signal

6) When a process blocks the receipt of it has sent ___________________.
certain signals : (choose two) a) has which identifier
a) The signals are delivered b) has not been lost
b) The signals are not delivered c) has been sent
c) The signals are not received until they d) All of these
are unblocked Answer: b
d) The signals are received by the process
once they are delivered 14) In UNIX, the _____ system call is used
7) The _______ maintains pending and to send a signal.
blocked bit vectors in context of each a) sig
process. b) send
a) CPU c) kill
b) Memory d) sigsend
c) Process Answer: c
d) Kernel
Answer: d

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Thread Pools d) None of these
Answer: c
1) Thread pools are useful when :
a) when we need to limit the number of 7) Thread pools limit the number of threads
threads running in the application at the that exist at any one point, hence :
same time a) not letting the system resources like CPU
b) when we need to limit the number of time and memory exhaust
threads running in the application as a whole b) helping a limited number of processes at a
c) when we need to arrange the ordering of time
threads c) not serving all requests and ignoring
d) None of these many
Answer: a d) None of these Answer: a

2) Instead of starting a new thread for every 8) The number of the threads in the pool can
task to execute concurrently, the task can be be decided on factors such as :
passed to a ___________. a) number of CPUs in the system
a) process b) amount of physical memory
b) thread pool c) expected number of concurrent client
c) thread queue requests
d) None of these d) All of these
Answer: b Answer: d

3) Each connection arriving at multi

threaded servers via network is generally : Virtual Memory
a) is directly put into the blocking queue
b) is wrapped as a task and passed on to a 1. Because of virtual memory, the memory
thread pool can be shared among
c) is kept in a normal queue and then sent to a) processes
the blocking queue from where it is b) threads
dequeued c) instructions
d) None of these d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer:a

4) The idea behind thread pools is : 2. _____ is the concept in which a process is
a) a number of threads are created at process copied into main memory from the
startup and placed in a pool where they sit secondary memory according to the
and wait for work requirement.
b) when a process begins, a pool of threads a) Paging
is chosen from the many existing and each b) Demand paging
thread is allotted equal amount of work c) Segmentation
c) all threads in a pool distribute the task d) Swapping
equally among themselves Answer:b
d) None of these
Answer: a 3. The pager concerns with the
a) individual page of a process
5) If the thread pool contains no available b) entire process
thread : c) entire thread
a) the server runs a new process d) first page of a process
b) the server goes to another thread pool Answer:a
c) the server demands for a new pool
creation 4. Swap space exists in
d) the server waits until one becomes free a) primary memory
Answer: d b) secondary memory
c) CPU
d) none of the mentioned
6) Thread pools help in : Answer:b
a) servicing multiple requests using one
thread 5. When a program tries to access a page
b) servicing a single request using multiple that is mapped in address space but not
threads from the pool loaded in physical memory, then
c) faster servicing of requests with an a) segmentation fault occurs
existing thread rather than waiting to create b) fatal error occurs
a new thread c) page fault occurs

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) no error occurs a) physical memory
Answer:c b) logical memory
c) None of these
6. Effective access time is directly Answer: a
proportional to
a) page-fault rate 3) Error handler codes, to handle unusual
b) hit ratio errors are :
c) memory access time a) almost never executed
d) none of the mentioned b) executed very often
Answer:a c) executed periodically
d) None of these
7. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, Answer: a
when a page must be replaced
a) oldest page is chosen 4) The ability to execute a program that is
b) newest page is chosen only partially in memory has benefits like :
c) random page is chosen (choose all that apply)
d) none of the mentioned a) the amount of physical memory cannot
Answer:a put a constraint on the program
b) programs for an extremely large virtual
8. Which algorithm chooses the page that space can be created
has not been used for the longest period of c) CPU utilization decreases
time whenever the page required to be d) Throughput increases
replaced? e) response time is not affected
a) first in first out algorithm f) turnaround time increases
b) additional reference bit algorithm g) less I/O will be needed to load or swap
c) least recently used algorithm each user program in memory
d) counting based page replacement h) All of these
algorithm
Answer:c Answer: a, b, d, e, g

9. A process is thrashing if 5) In virtual memory. the programmer

a) it is spending more time paging than __________ of overlays.
executing a) has to take care
b) it is spending less time paging than b) does not have to take care
executing c) None of these
c) page fault occurs Answer: b
d) swapping can not take place
Answer:a 6) Virtual memory is normally implemented
by ________.
10. Working set model for page replacement a) demand paging
is based on the assumption of b) buses
a) modularity c) virtualization
b) locality d) All of these
c) globalization Answer: a
d) random access
Answer:b 7) Segment replacement algorithms are
more complex than page replacement
algorithms because :
Virtual Memory – Demand Paging a) Segments are better than pages
b) Pages are better than segments
1) Virtual memory allows : c) Segments have variable sizes
a) execution of a process that may not be d) Segments have fixed sizes
completely in memory Answer: c
b) a program to be larger than the physical
memory 8) A swapper manipulates ___________,
c) a program to be larger than the secondary whereas the pager is concerned with
storage individual _______ of a process.
d) execution of a process without being in a) the entire process, parts
physical memory b) all the pages of a process, segments
Answer: a and b c) the entire process, pages
d) None of these
2) The instruction being executed, must be Answer: c
in :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
9) Using a pager : b) is likely to be one of the pages used in
a) increases the swap time the last few page references
b) decreases the swap time c) will always be one of the pages existing
c) decreases the amount of physical memory in memory
needed d) will always lead to page faults
d) increases the amount of physical memory
needed
Answer: b and c Virtual Memory – Page Replacement
Algorithms

10) The valid – invalid bit, in this case, 1) Which of the following page replacement
when valid indicates : algorithms suffers from Belady‘s Anomaly ?
a) the page is legal a) Optimal replacement
b) the page is illegal b) LRU
c) the page is in memory c) FIFO
d) the page is not in memory d) Both optimal replacement and FIFO
Answer: a and c Answer: c

11) A page fault occurs when : 2) A process refers to 5 pages, A, B, C, D, E

a) a page gives inconsistent data in the order : A, B, C, D, A, B, E, A, B, C,
b) a page cannot be accesses due to its D, E. If the page replacement algorithm is
absence from memory FIFO, the number of page transfers with an
c) a page is invisible empty internal store of 3 frames is :
d) All of these a) 8
Answer: b b) 10
c) 9
12) When a page fault occurs, the state of d) 7
the interrupted process is : Answer: c
a) disrupted
b) invalid 3) In question 2, if the number of page
c) saved frames is increased to 4, then the number of
d) None of these page transfers :
Answer: c a) decreases
b) increases
13) When a process begins execution with c) remains the same
no pages in memory : d) None of these
a) process execution becomes impossible Answer: b
b) a page fault occurs for every page brought
into memory 4) A memory page containing a heavily used
c) process causes system crash variable that was initialized very early and is
d) None of these in constant use is removed, then the page
Answer: b replacement algorithm used is :
a) LRU
14) If the memory access time is denoted by b) LFU
‗ma‘ and ‗p‘ is the probability of a page c) FIFO
fault (0 <= p <= 1). Then the effective d) None of these
access time for a demand paged memory is : Answer: c

a) p x ma + (1-p) x page fault time 5) A virtual memory system uses First In

b) ma + page fault time First Out (FIFO) page replacement policy
c) (1-p) x ma + p x page fault time and allocates a fixed number of frames to a
d) None of these process. Consider the following statements :
P : Increasing the number of page frames
15) When the page fault rate is low : a) the allocated to a process sometimes increases
turnaround time increases the page fault rate
b) the effective access time increases Q : Some programs do not exhibit locality of
c) the effective access time decreases reference
d) a and b Which of the following is TRUE?
a) Both P and Q are true, and Q is the reason
16) Locality of reference implies that the for P
page reference being made by a process : b) Both P and Q are true, but Q is not the
a) will always be to the page used in the reason for P
previous page reference c) P is false but Q is true

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) Both P and Q are false 13) LRU page – replacement algorithm
Answer: c associates with each page the ______
a) time it was brought into memory
6) Users _______ that their processes are b) the time of that page‘s last use
running on a paged system. c) page after and before it
a) are aware d) All of these
b) are unaware Answer: b
c) None of these
Answer: b 14) For 3 page frames, the following is the
reference string :
7) If no frames are free, _____ page 70120304230321201701
transfer(s) is/are required. i) How many page faults does the LRU page
a) one replacement algorithm produce ?
b) two a) 10
c) three b) 15
d) four c) 11
Answer: b d) 12
Answer: d
8) When a page is selected for replacement,
and its modify bit is set : ii) How many page faults does the FIFO
a) the page is clean page replacement algorithm produce ?
b) the page has been modified since it was a) 10
read in from the disk b) 15
c) the page is dirty c) 11
d) a and b d) 12
Answer: b and c Answer: b

9) The aim of creating page replacement 15) The two methods how LRU page
algorithms is to : replacement policy can be implemented in
a) replace pages faster hardware are : (choose two)
b) increase the page fault rate a) Counters
c) decrease the page fault rate b) RAM
d) to allocate multiple pages to processes c) Stack
d) Registers
10) A FIFO replacement algorithm Answer: a and c
associates with each page the _______
a) time it was brought into memory 1) When using counters to implement LRU,
b) size of the page in memory we replace the page with the :
c) page after and before it a) smallest time value
d) All of these b) largest time value
Answer: a c) greatest size
d) None of the mentioned
11) Optimal page – replacement algorithm is Explanation: Whenever a reference to a page
: is made, the contents of the clock register
a) Replace the page that has not been used are copied into the time-of-use field in the
for a long time page-table entry for that page. In this way
b) Replace the page that has been used for a we always have the time of the last reference
long time to each page.
c) Replace the page that will not be used for
a long time 2) In the stack implementation of the LRU
d) None of these algorithm, a stack can be maintained in a
Answer: c manner :
a) whenever a page is used, it is removed
12) Optimal page – replacement algorithm is from the stack and put on top
difficult to implement, because : b) the bottom of the stack is the LRU page
a) it requires a lot of information c) the top of the stack contains the LRU
b) it requires future knowledge of the page and all new pages are added to the top
reference string d) None of the mentioned
c) it is too complex Answer: a and b
d) it is extremely expensive
Answer: b 3) There is a set of page replacement
algorithms that can never exhibit Belady‘s
Anomaly, called :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) queue algorithms c) it is extremely efficient and optimal
b) stack algorithms d) All of the mentioned
c) string algorithms Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b 10) The implementation of the LFU and the
MFU algorithm is very uncommon because :
a) they are too complicated
4) Applying the LRU page replacement to b) they are optimal
the following reference string : c) they are expensive
12452124 d) All of the mentioned
The main memory can accommodate 3 Answer: c
pages and it already has pages 1 and 2. Page
1 came in before page 2.
How many page faults will occur ? Virtual Memory – Allocation of Frames
a) 2
b) 3 1) The minimum number of frames to be
c) 4 allocated to a process is decided by the :
d) 5 a) the amount of available physical memory
Answer: c b) Operating System
c) instruction set architecture
5) Increasing the RAM of a computer d) None of the mentioned
typically improves performance because: Answer: c
a) Virtual memory increases
b) Larger RAMs are faster 2) When a page fault occurs before an
c) Fewer page faults occur executing instruction is complete :
d) None of the mentioned a) the instruction must be restarted
Answer: c b) the instruction must be ignored
c) the instruction must be completed
6) The essential content(s) in each entry of a ignoring the page fault
page table is / are : d) None of the mentioned
a) Virtual page number Answer: a
b) Page frame number
c) Both virtual page number and page frame 3) Consider a machine in which all memory
number reference instructions have only one
d) Access right information memory address, for them we need atleast
Answer: b _____ frame(s).
a) one
7) The minimum number of page frames b) two
that must be allocated to a running process c) three
in a virtual memory environment is d) None of the mentioned
determined by : Answer: b
a) the instruction set architecture Explanation: Atleast one frame for the
b) page size instruction and one for the memory
c) physical memory size reference.
d) number of processes in memory
Answer: a 4) The maximum number of frames per
process is defined by :
8) The reason for using the LFU page a) the amount of available physical memory
replacement algorithm is : b) Operating System
a) an actively used page should have a large c) instruction set architecture
reference count d) None of the mentioned
b) a less used page has more chances to be Answer: a
used again
c) it is extremely efficient and optimal 5) The algorithm in which we split m frames
d) All of the mentioned among n processes, to give everyone an
Answer: a equal share, m/n frames is known as :
a) proportional allocation algorithm
9) The reason for using the MFU page b) equal allocation algorithm
replacement algorithm is : c) split allocation algorithm
a) an actively used page should have a large d) None of the mentioned
reference count Answer: b
b) a less used page has more chances to be
used again

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
6) The algorithm in which we allocate d) None of these
memory to each process according to its size Answer: b
is known as :
a) proportional allocation algorithm 2) Thrashing _______ the CPU utilization.
b) equal allocation algorithm a) increases
c) split allocation algorithm b) keeps constant
d) None of the mentioned c) decreases
Answer: a d) None of these
Answer: c
7) With either equal or proportional
algorithm, a high priority process is treated 3) A locality is :
___________ a low priority process. a) a set of pages that are actively used
a) greater than together
b) same as b) a space in memory
c) lesser than c) an area near a set of processes
d) None of the mentioned d) None of these
Answer: a
8) _________ replacement allows a process
to select a replacement frame from the set of 4) When a subroutine is called,
all frames, even if the frame is currently a) it defines a new locality
allocated to some other process. b) it is in the same locality from where it
a) Local was called
b) Universal c) it does not define a new locality
c) Global d) b and c
d) Public Answer: a
Answer: c
5) A program is generally composed of
9) _________ replacement allows each several different localities, which _____
process to only select from its own set of overlap.
allocated frames. a) may
a) Local b) must
b) Universal c) do not
c) Global d) must not
d) Public Answer: a
Answer: a
6) In the working set model, for :
10) One problem with the global 261577775162341234443434
replacement algorithm is that : 441323
a) it is very expensive if DELTA = 10, then the working set at time
b) many frames can be allocated to a process t1 (….7 5 1) is :
c) only a few frames can be allocated to a a) {1, 2, 4, 5, 6}
process b) {2, 1, 6, 7, 3}
d) a process cannot control its own page – c) {1, 6, 5, 7, 2}
fault rate d) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Answer: d Answer: c

11) ________ replacement generally results 7) The accuracy of the working set depends
in greater system throughput. on the selection of :
a) Local a) working set model
b) Global b) working set size
c) Universal c) memory size
d) Public d) number of pages in memory
Answer: b Answer: b

8) If working set window is too small :

Virtual Memory – Thrashing a) it will not encompass entire locality
b) it may overlap several localities
1) A process is thrashing if : c) it will cause memory problems
a) it spends a lot of time executing, rather d) None of these
than paging Answer: a
b) it spends a lot of time paging, than
executing 9) If working set window is too large :
c) it has no memory allocated to it a) it will not encompass entire locality

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) it may overlap several localities d) 9
c) it will cause memory problems Answer: b
d) None of these
Answer: b
File System Concepts
10) If the sum of the working – set sizes
increases, exceeding the total number of 1. ______ is a unique tag, usually a number,
available frames : identifies the file within the file system.
a) then the process crashes a) File identifier
b) the memory overflows b) File name
c) the system crashes c) File type
d) the operating system selects a process to d) none of the mentioned
suspend Answer:a
Answer: d
2. To create a file
11) Consider the following page reference a) allocate the space in file system
string : b) make an entry for new file in directory
12342156212376321236 c) both (a) and (b)
i) For LRU page replacement algorithm with d) none of the mentioned
4 frames, the number of page faults is : Answer:c
a) 10
b) 14 3. By using the specific system call, we can
c) 8 a) open the file
d) 11 b) read the file
Answer: a c) write into the file
d) all of the mentioned
ii) For LRU page replacement algorithm Answer:d
with 5 frames, the number of page faults is :
a) 10 4. File type can be represented by
b) 14 a) file name
c) 8 b) file extension
d) 11 c) file identifier
d) none of the mentioned
iii) For FIFO page replacement algorithms Answer:b
with 3 frames, the number of page faults is :
a) 16 5. Which file is a sequence of bytes
b) 15 organized into blocks understandable by the
c) 14 system‘s linker?
d) 11 a) object file
Answer: a b) source file
c) executable file
iv) For FIFO page replacement algorithms d) text file
with 4 frames, the number of page faults is : Answer:a
a) 16
b) 15 6. What is the mounting of file system?
c) 14 a) crating of a filesystem
d) 11 b) deleting a filesystem
Answer: c c) attaching portion of the file system into a
directory structure
v) For Optimal page replacement algorithms d) removing portion of the file system into a
with 3 frames, the number of page faults is : directory structure
a) 16 Answer:c
b) 15
c) 14
d) 11 7. Mapping of file is managed by
Answer: d a) file metadata
b) page table
vi) For Optimal page replacement c) virtual memory
algorithms with 5 frames, the number of d) file system
page faults is : Answer:a
a) 6
b) 7 8. Mapping of network file system protocol
c) 10 to local file system is done by

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) network file system d) none of the mentioned
b) local file system Answer:c
c) volume manager
d) remote mirror 6. What is raw disk?
Answer:a a) disk without file system
b) empty disk
9. Which one of the following explains the c) disk lacking logical file system
sequential file access method? d) disk having file system
a) random access according to the given Answer:a
byte number
b) read bytes one at a time, in order 7. The data structure used for file directory
c) read/write sequentially by record is called
d) read/write randomly by record a) mount table
Answer:b b) hash table
c) file table
10. file system fragmentation occurs when d) process table
a) unused space or single file are not Answer:b
contiguous
b) used space is not contiguous 8. In which type of allocation method each
c) unused space is non-contiguous file occupy a set of contiguous block on the
d) multiple files are non-contiguous disk?
Answer:a a) contiguous allocation
b) dynamic-storage allocation
c) linked allocation
File System Implementation d) indexed allocation
Answer:a
1. Management of metadata information is
done by 9. If the block of free-space list is free then
a) file-organisation module bit will
b) logical file system a) 1
c) basic file system b) 0
d) application programs c) Any of 0 or 1
Answer:b d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a
2. A file control block contains the
information about 10. Which protocol establishes the initial
a) file ownership logical connection between a server and a
b) file permissions client?
c) location of file contents a) transmission control protocol
d) all of the mentioned b) user datagram protocol
Answer:d c) mount protocol
d) datagram congestion control protocol
3. Which table contains the information Answer:c
about each mounted volume?
a) mount table
b) system-wide open-file table File System Interface Access Methods
c) per-process open-file table
d) all of the mentioned 1) Data cannot be written to secondary
Answer:d storage unless written within a ______.
a) file
4. To create a new file application program b) swap space
calls c) directory
a) basic file system d) text format
b) logical file system Answer: a
c) file-organisation module
d) none of the mentioned 2) File attributes consist of :
Answer:b a) name
b) type
5. When a process closes the file c) identifier
a) per-process table entry is removed d) content
b) system wide entry‘s open count is e) size
decremented Answer: a, b, c, e
c) both (a) and (b)

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
3) The information about all files is kept in : d) magic number
a) swap space Answer: d
b) operating system
c) seperate directory structure 2) The larger the block size, the ______ the
d) None of these internal fragmentation.
Answer: c a) greater
b) lesser
4) A file is a/an _______ data type. c) same
a) abstract d) None of these
b) primitive Answer: a
c) public
d) private 3) In the sequential access method,
Answer: a information in the file is processed :
a) one disk after the other, record access
5) The operating system keeps a small table doesnt matter
containing information about all open files b) one record after the other
called : c) one text document after the other
a) system table d) None of these
b) open-file table Answer: b
c) file table
d) directory table 4) Sequential access method ______ , on
Answer: b random access devices.
a) works well
6) In UNIX, the open system call returns : b) doesnt work well
a) pointer to the entry in the open file table c) Both a and b
b) pointer to the entry in the system wide d) None of these
table Answer: a
c) a file to the process calling it
d) None of these 5) The direct access method is based on a
Answer: a ______ model of a file, as _____ allow
random access to any file block.
7) System wide table in UNIX contains a) magnetic tape, magnetic tapes
process independent information such as : b) tape, tapes
a) location of file on disk c) disk, disks
b) access dates d) All of these
c) file size Answer: c
d) file contents
Answer: a, b, c 6) For a direct access file :
a) there are restrictions on the order of
8) The open file table has a/an _______ reading and writing
associated with each file. b) there are no restrictions on the order of
a) file content reading and writing
b) file permission c) access is restricted permission wise
c) open count d) access is not restricted permission wise
d) close count Answer: b
Answer: c
Explanation: open count indicates the 7) A relative block number is an index
number of processes that have the file open. relative to :
a) the beginning of the file
9) The file name is generally split into two b) the end of the file
parts : c) the last written position in file
a) name d) None of these
b) identifier Answer: a
c) extension
d) type 8) The index contains :
Answer: a and c a) names of all contents of file
b) pointers to each page
1) The UNIX sytem uses a/an ________, c) pointers to the various blocks
stored at the beginning of a some files to d) All of these
indicate roughly the type of file. Answer: c
a) identifier
b) extension 9) For large files, when the index itself
c) virtual number becomes too large to be kept in memory :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) index is called 7) When a user refers to particular file, :
b) an index is created for the index file a) system MFD is searched
c) secondary index files are created b) his own UFD is searched
d) All of these c) both MFD and UFD are searched
Answer: b d) every directory is searched
Answer: b and c

File System Interface Directory Structure 8) The disadvantage of the two level
directory structure is that :
1) To organise file systems on disk, : a) it does not solve the name collision
a) they are split into one or more partitions problem
b) information about files is added to each b) it solves the name collision problem
partition c) it does not isolate users from one another
c) they are made on different storage spaces d) it isolates users from one another
d) All of these Answer : d
Answer: a and b
9) In the tree structured directories,
2) The directory can be viewed as a a) the tree has the stem directory
_________, that translates file names into b) the tree has the leaf directory
their directory entries. c) the tree has the root directory
a) symbol table d) All of these
b) partition Answer : c
c) swap space
d) cache 10) The current directory contains, most of
Answer: a the files that are :
a) of current interest to the user
3) In the single level directory : b) stored currently in the system
a) All files are contained in different c) not used in the system
directories all at the same level d) not of current interest to the system
b) All files are contained in the same Answer : a
directory
c) Depends on the operating system 11) Path names can be of two types :
d) None of these (choose two)
Answer: b a) absolute
b) local
4) In the single level directory : c) global
a) all directories must have unique names d) relative
b) all files must have unique names Answer : a and d
c) all files must have unique owners
d) All of these 1) An absolute path name begins at the :
Answer: b a) leaf
b) stem
5) In the two level directory structure : c) current directory
a) each user has his/her own user file d) root
directory Answer : d
b) the system has its own master file
directory 2) A relative path name begins at the :
c) both a and b a) leaf
d) None of these b) stem
Answer: c c) current directory
d) root
6) When a user job starts in a two level Answer : c
directory system, or a user logs in :
a) the users user file directory is searched 3) In tree structure, when deleting a
b) the system‘s master file directory is directory that is not empty :
searched a) The contents of the directory are safe
c) the master file directory is indexed by b) The contents of the directory are also
user name or account number, and each deleted
entry points to the UFD for that user c) None of these
d) All of these Answer : b
Answer: b and c
4) When two users keep a subdirectory in
their own directories, the structure being

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
referred to is : a) the possibility of one hidden reference
a) tree structure b) the possibility of two hidden references
b) cyclic graph directory structure c) the possibility of self referencing
c) two level directory structure d) None of these
d) acyclic graph directory Answer : c
Answer : d

5) A tree structure ______ the sharing of File System Interface Mounting and
files and directories. Sharing
a) allows
b) may restrict 1) A mount point is :
c) restricts a) an empty directory at which the mounted
d) None of these file system will be attached
Answer : c b) a location where everytime file systems
are mounted
6) With a shared file : (choose two) c) is the time when the mounting is done
a) only one actual file exists d) None of these
b) there are two copies of the file Answer: a
c) the changes made by one person are not
reflected to the other 2) When a file system is mounted over a
d) the changes made by one person are directory that is not empty : (choose all that
reflected to the other apply)
Answer : a and d a) the system may disallow the mount
b) the system must allow the mount
7) In UNIX, a link is : (choose all that c) the system may allow the mount and the
apply) directory‘s existing files will then be made
a) a connection between two files obscure
b) a pointer to another file or subdirectory d) All of these
c) implemented as an absolute or relative Answer: a and c
path name
d) a directory entry 3) In UNIX, exactly which operations can be
Answer : b, c and d executed by group members and other users
is definable by :
8) The operating system _______ the links a) the group‘s head
when traversing directory trees, to preserve b) the file‘s owner
the acyclic structure of the system. c) the file‘s permissions
a) considers d) All of these
b) ignores Answer: b
c) deletes
d) None of these
Answer : b 4) A process _____ lower the priority of
another process, if both are owned by the
9) The deletion of a link, ________ the same owner.
original file. a) must
a) deletes b) can
b) affects c) cannot
c) does not affect d) None of these
d) None of these Answer: b
Answer : c
5) In distributed file system, ______
10) When keeping a list of all the directories are visible from the local
links/references to a file, and the list is machine.
empty, implies that : a) protected
a) the file has no copies b) local
b) the file is deleted c) private
c) the file is hidden d) remote
d) None of these Answer: d
Answer : b
6) In the world wide web, a ____ is needed
11) When a cycle exists, the reference count to gain access to the remote files, and
maybe non zero, even when it is no longer seperate operations are used to transfer files.
possible to refer to a directory or file, due to a) laptop
_______. b) plugin

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) browser d) file session
d) player Answer: d
Answer: c

7) Anonymous access allows a user to File System Interface Protection

transfer files :
a) without having an account on the remote 1) Reliability of files can be increased by :
system a) keeping the files safely in the memory
b) only if he accesses the system with a b) making a different partition for the files
guest account c) by keeping them in external storage
c) only if he has an account on the remote d) by keeping duplicate copies of the file
system Answer: d
d) None of these
Answer: a 2) Protection is only provided at the _____
Explanation: The world wide web uses level.
anonymous file exchange almost a) lower
exclusively. b) central
c) higher
8) The machine containing the files is the d) None of these
_______, and the machine wanting to access Answer: a
the files is the ______. 3) The main problem with access control
a) master, slave lists is :
b) memory, user a) their maintenance
c) server, client b) their length
d) None of these c) their permissions
Answer: c d) All of these
Answer: b
9) Distributed naming services/Distributed
information systems have been devised to : 4) Many systems recognize three
a) provide information about all the systems classifications of users in connection with
b) provide unified access to the information each file (to condense the access control list)
needed for remote computing :
c) provide unique names to all systems in a a) Owner
network b) Group
d) All of these c) Sub-owner
Answer: b d) Universe
Answer: a, b and d
10) Domain name system provides :
a) host-name-to-network-address 5 All users in a group get _______ access to
translations for the entire internet a file.
b) network-address-to-host-name a) different
translations for the entire internet b) similar
c) binary to hex translations for the entire c) None of these
internet Answer: b
d) All of these
Answer: a 6) Universe consists of :
a) all users that arent included in the group
11) To recover from failures in the network or owners
operations, ______ information maybe b) all users that are not owners
maintained. c) all users in the system
a) ip address d) None of these
b) state Answer: c
c) stateless
d) operating system 7) In UNIX, groups can be created and
Answer: b modified by :
a) superuser
b) any user
12) The series of accesses between the open c) a programmer only
and close operations is a : d) the people in the group only
a) transaction Answer: a
b) procedure
c) program 8) To control access the three bits used in
UNIX are represented by :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) r 3) In linked allocation :
b) w a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous
c) ex blocks on the disk
d) x b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
Answer: a, b, d c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are
placed together in one location
9) If each access to a file is controlled by a d) None of these
password, then the disadvantage is that : Answer : b
a) user will need to remember a lot of
passwords 4) In indexed allocation :
b) it is not reliable a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous
c) it is not efficient blocks on the disk
d) All of these b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
Answer: a c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are
placed together in one location
10) In a multilevel directory structure : d) None of these
a) the same previous techniques will be used Answer : c
as in the other structures
b) a mechanism for directory protection will 5) On systems where there are multiple
have to applied operating system, the decision to load a
c) the subdirectories do not need protection particular one is done by :
once the directory is protected a) boot loader
d) None of these b) boot strap
Answer: b c) process control block
d) file control block
11) In UNIX, the directory protection is Answer : a
handled _________ to the file protection.
a) different 6) The VFS (virtual file system) activates
b) similar file system specific operations to handle
c) it is not handled at all local requests according to their _______.
d) None of these a) size
Answer: b b) commands
c) timings
12) Disks are segmented into one or more d) file system types
partitions, each containing a file system or Answer : d
______.
a) left ‗raw‘ 7) The real disadvantage of a linear list of
b) made into swap space directory entries is the :
c) made into backup space a) size of the linear list in memory
d) left ‗ripe‘ b) linear search to find a file
Answer: a c) it is not reliable
d) All of these
Answer : b
File System Implementation – Allocation
Methods 8) Contiguous allocation of a file is defined
by : (choose all that apply)
1) The three major methods of allocating a) disk address of the first block
disk space that are in wide use are : b) length
a) contiguous c) size of the block
b) linked d) total size of the file
c) indexed Answer : a and b
d) hashed
Answer : a, b and c 9) One difficulty of contiguous allocation is
:
2) In contiguous allocation : a) finding space for a new file
a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous b) inefficient
blocks on the disk c) costly
b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks d) time taking
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are Answer : a
placed together in one location
d) None of these 10) _______ and ________ are the most
Answer : a common strategies used to select a free hole
from the set of available holes.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) First fit 5) For processes to request access to file
b) Worst fit contents, they need to :
c) Best fit a) they need to run a seperate program
d) None of these b) they need special interrupts
Answer : a and c c) implement the open and close system
calls
11) The first fit and best fit algorithms suffer d) None of these
from : (choose all that apply)
a) internal fragmentation 6) During compaction time, other normal
b) external fragmentation system operations _______ be permitted.
c) starvation a) can
d) All of these b) cannot
Answer : b c) is
d) None of these
12) To solve the problem of external Answer : b
fragmentation, ________ needs to be done
periodically. 7) When in contiguous allocation the space
a) compaction cannot be extended easily :
b) check a) the contents of the file have to be copied
c) formatting to a new space, a larger hole
d) replacing memory b) the file gets destroyed
Answer : a c) the file will get formatted and loose all its
data
13) If too little space is allocated to a file, d) None of these
a) the file will not work Answer : a
b) there will not be any space for the data, as
the FCB takes it all 8) In the linked allocation, the directory
c) the file cannot be extended contains a pointer to the :
d) the file cannot be opened I. first block
Answer : c II. last block

1) A device driver can be thought of as a a) I only

translator. Its input consists of _____ b) II only
commands and output consists of _______ c) Both I and II
instructions. d) Neither I nor II
a) high level, low level Answer : c
b) low level, high level
c) complex, simple 9) There is no __________ with linked
d) Both a and c allocation.
Answer : a a) internal fragmentation
b) external fragmentation
2) The file organization module knows c) starvation
about : d) All of these
a) files
b) logical blocks of files 10) The major disadvantage with linked
c) physical blocks of files allocation is that :
d) All of these a) internal fragmentation
b) external fragmentation
3) Metadata includes : c) there is no sequential access
a) all of the file system structure d) there is only sequential access
b) contents of files
c) Both a and b 11) If a pointer is lost or damaged in a
d) None of these linked allocation :
a) the entire file could get damaged
4) For each file their exists a ___________, b) only a part of the file would be affected
that contains information about the file, c) there would not be any problems
including ownership, permissions and d) None of these
location of the file contents.
a) metadata 12) FAT stands for :
b) file control block a) File Attribute Transport
c) process control block b) File Allocation Table
d) All of these c) Fork At Time
d) None of these

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
13) By using FAT, random access time is d) None of these
__________. Answer : a
a) the same
b) increased 8) The pointer overhead of indexed
c) decreased allocation is generally _________ the
d) not affected pointer overhead of linked allocation.
a) less than
1) A better way of contiguous allocation to b) equal to
extend the file size is : c) greater than
a) adding an extent (another chunk of d) keeps varying with
contiguous space) Answer : c
b) adding an index table to the first
contiguous block 9) For any type of access, contiguous
c) adding pointers into the first contiguous allocation requires ______ access to get a
block disk block.
d) None of these a) only one
Answer : a b) atleast two
c) exactly two
2) If the extents are too large, then the d) None of these
problem that comes in is :
a) internal fragmentation Answer : a
b) external fragmentation Explanation: We can easily keep the initial
c) starvation address of the file in memory and calculate
d) All of these immediately the disk address of the ith block
Answer : a and read it directly.

3) The FAT is used much as a _________. 10) Consider a disk where blocks
a) stack 2,3,4,5,8,9,10,11,12,13,17,18,25,26 and 27
b) linked list are free and the rest of the blocks are
c) data allocated. Then the free space bit map would
d) pointer be :
Answer : b a)
10000110000001110011111100011111…
4) A section of disk at the beginning of each b)
partition is set aside to contain the table in : 110000110000001110011111100011111…
a) FAT c)
b) linked allocation 01111001111110001100000011100000…
c) Hashed allocation d)
d) indexed allocation 001111001111110001100000011100000…
Answer : a Answer : d

5) Contiguous allocation has two problems

_________ and _________ that linked File System Implementation –
allocation solves. Performance
a) external – fragmentation
b) internal – fragmentation This set of 1000+ Operating System MCQs
c) size – declaration focuses on ―File System Implementation –
d) memory – allocation Performance‖
Answer : a and c
1) _______ tend to represent a major
6) Each _______ has its own index block. bottleneck in system performance.
a) partition a) CPUs
b) address b) Disks
c) file c) Programs
d) All of these d) I/O
Answer : c Answer : b

7) Indexed allocation _________ direct 2) In UNIX, even an ‘empty‘ disk has a

access. percentage of its space lost to ______.
a) supports a) programs
b) does not support b) inodes
c) is not related to c) virtual memory

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) stacks a) fill up the cache
Answer : b b) increase free space in secondary storage
c) decrease free space in secondary storage
3) By preallocating the inodes and spreading d) speed up access
them across the volume, we ___________ Answer : d
the system performance.
a) improve 2) A systems program such as fsck in
b) decrease ______ is a consistency checker.
c) maintain a) UNIX
d) do not affect b) Windows
Answer : a c) Macintosh
d) Solaris
4) ____________ writes occur in the order Answer : a
in which the disk subsystem receives them,
and the writes are not buffered. 3) A consistency checker
a) Asynchronous __________________ and tries to fix any
b) Regular inconsistencies it finds.
c) Synchronous a) compares the data in the secondary
d) Irregular storage with the data in the cache
Answer : c b) compares the data in the directory
structure with the data blocks on disk
5) In ___________ writes, the data is stored c) compares the system generated output and
in the cache. user required output
a) Asynchronous d) All of these
b) Regular Answer : b
c) Synchronous
d) Irregular 4) Each set of operations for performing a
Answer : a specific task is a _________.
a) program
6) A file being read or written sequentially b) code
should not have its pages replaced in LRU c) transaction
order, because ___________________. d) All of these
a) it is very costly Answer : c
b) the most recently used page will be used
last 5) Once the changes are written to the log,
c) it is not efficient they are considered to be ________.
d) All of these a) committed
Answer : b b) aborted
c) completed
7) In the optimized technique for sequential d) None of these
access ___________ removes a page from Answer : a
the buffer as soon as the next page is
requested. 6) When an entire committed transaction is
a) write ahead completed, ___________.
b) read ahead a) it is stored in the memory
c) free-behind b) it is removed from the log file
d) add-front c) it is redone
Answer : c d) None of these
Answer : b
8) With _______, a requested page and
several subsequent pages are read and
cached. 7) A circular buffer :
a) write ahead a) writes to the end of its space and then
b) read ahead continues at the beginning
c) free-behind b) overwrites older values as it goes
d) add-front c) both a and b
Answer : b d) neither a nor b
Answer : c

File System Implementation – Recovery 8) All the changes that were done from a
transaction that did not commit before the
1) Some directory information is kept in system crashed, have to be _________.
main memory or cache to ___________. a) saved

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) saved and the transaction redone mount server running on the specific server
c) undone machine.
d) None of these a) IPC
Answer : c b) system
c) CPU
d) RPC
File System Implementation – Network Answer : b
File System – 1
8) The server maintains a/an ________ that
1) A machine in Network file system (NFS) specifies local file systems that it exports for
can be ________. mounting, along with names of machines
a) client that are permitted to mount them.
b) server a) export list
c) both a and b b) import list
d) neither a nor b c) sending list
Answer : c d) receiving list
Answer : a
2) A _________ directory is mounted over a
directory of a _______ file system. 9) In UNIX, the file handle consists of a
a) local, remote __________ and __________.
b) remote, local a) file-system identifier
c) None of these b) an inode number
Answer : c c) a FAT
d) a file pointer
3) The _________ becomes the name of the Answer : a and b
root of the newly mounted directory.
a) root of the previous directory 1) The NFS servers :
b) local directory a) are stateless
c) remote directory itself b) save the current state of the request
d) None of these c) maybe stateless
Answer : b d) None of these
Answer : a
4) ___________ mounts, is when a file
system can be mounted over another file 2) Every NFS request has a _________,
system, that is remotely mounted, not local. allowing the server to determine if a request
a) recursive is duplicated or if any are missing.
b) cascading a) name
c) trivial b) transaction
d) None of these c) sequence number
d) All of these
5) The mount mechanism ________ a Answer : c
transitive property.
a) exhibits 3) A server crash and recovery will
b) does not exhibit __________ to a client.
c) may exhibit a) be visible
d) None of these b) affect
Answer : b c) be invisible
Explanation: Mounting a remote file system d) harm
does not give the client access to other file Answer : c
systems that were, by chance, mounted over Explanation: All blocks that the server is
the former file system. managing for the client will be intact.

6) A mount operation includes the : (choose 4) The server must write all NFS data
all that apply) ___________.
a) name of the network a) synchronously
b) name of the remote directory to be b) asynchronously
mounted c) index-wise
c) name of the server machine storing it d) None of these
d) All of these Answer : a
Answer : b and c
5) A single NFS write procedure :
7) The mount request is mapped to the a) can be atomic
corresponding _____ and is forwarded to the b) is atomic

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) is non atomic d) control
d) None of these Answer:c
Answer : b
4. When hardware is accessed by reading
6) The NFS protocol, __________ and writing to the specific memory
concurrency control mechanisms. locations, then it is called
a) provides a) port-mapped I/O
b) does not provide b) controller-mapped I/O
c) may provide c) bus-mapped I/O
d) None of these d) none of the mentioned
Answer : b Answer:d
Explanation:It is called memory-mapped
7) _______________ in NFS involves the I/O.
parsing of a path name into seperate
directory entries – or components. 5. Device drivers are implemented to
a) Path parse interface
b) Path name parse a) character devices
c) Path name translation b) block devices
d) Path name parsing c) network devices
Answer : c d) all of the mentioned
Answer:d
8) For every pair of component and
directory vnode after path name translation : 6. Which hardware triggers some operation
a) a single NFS lookup call is used after certain programmed count?
sequentially a) programmable interval timer
b) a single NFS lookup call is used b) interrupt timer
beginning from the last component c) programmable timer
c) atleast two NFS lookup calls per d) none of the mentioned
component are performed Answer:a
d) a seperate NFS lookup call is performed
Answer : d 7. The device-status table contains
a) each I/O device type
9) When a client has a cascading mount, b) each I/O device address
_______ server(s) is/are involved in a path c) each I/O device state
name traversal. d) all of the mentioned
a) atleast one Answer:d
b) more than one
c) more than two 8. Which buffer holds the output for a
d) more than three device?
Answer : b a) spool
b) output
c) status
I/O Subsystem d) magic
Answer:a
1. I/O hardware contains
a) bus 9. Which one of the following connects
b) controller high-speed high-bandwidth device to
c) I/O port and its registers memory subsystem and CPU.
d) all of the mentioned a) expansion bus
Answer:d b) PCI bus
c) SCSI bus
2. The data-in register of I/O port is d) none of the mentioned
a) read by host to get input Answer:a
b) read by controller to get input
c) written by host to send output 10. A process is moved to wait queue when
d) written by host to start a command I/O request is made with
Answer:a a) non-blocking I/O
b) blocking I/O
3. The host sets _____ bit when a command c) asynchronous I/O
is available for the controller to execute. d) synchronous I/O
a) write Answer:b
b) status
c) command-ready

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Disk Scheduling b) controller at the computer end of the bus
c) both a and b
1) In _______, information is recorded d) neither a nor b
magnetically on platters. Answer : b
a) magnetic disks
b) electrical disks 9) ______ controller sends the command
c) assemblies placed into it, via messages to the _____
d) cylinders controller.
Answer : a a) host, host
b) disk, disk
2) The heads of the magnetic disk are c) host, disk
attached to a _____ that moves all the heads d) disk, host
as a unit. Answer : c
a) spindle
b) disk arm 10) The disk bandwidth is :
c) track a) the total number of bytes transferred
d) None of these b) total time between the first request for
Answer : b service and the completion on the last
transfer
c) the total number of bytes transferred
3) The set of tracks that are at one arm divided by the total time between the first
position make up a ___________. request for service and the completion on
a) magnetic disks the last transfer
b) electrical disks d) None of these
c) assemblies Answer : c
d) cylinders
Answer : d 1) Whenever a process needs I/O to or from
a disk it issues a ______________.
4) The time taken to move the disk arm to a) system call to the CPU
the desired cylinder is called the : b) system call to the operating system
a) positioning time c) a special procedure
b) random access time d) All of these
c) seek time Answer : b
d) rotational latency
Answer : c 2) If a process needs I/O to or from a disk,
and if the drive or controller is busy then :
5) The time taken for the desired sector to a) the request will be placed in the queue of
rotate to the disk head is called : pending requests for that drive
a) positioning time b) the request will not be processed and will
b) random access time be ignored completely
c) seek time c) the request will be not be placed
d) rotational latency d) None of these
Answer : d Answer : a

6) When the head damages the magnetic 3) Consider a disk queue with requests for
surface, it is known as _________. I/O to blocks on cylinders :
a) disk crash 98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67
b) head crash
c) magnetic damage i) Considering FCFS (first cum first served)
d) All of these scheduling, the total number of head
Answer : b movements is, if the disk head is initially at
53 :
7) A floppy disk is designed to rotate a) 600
___________ as compared to a hard disk b) 620
drive. c) 630
a) faster d) 640
b) slower Answer : d
c) at the same speed
d) None of these ii) Considering SSTF (shortest seek time
Answer : b first) scheduling, the total number of head
movements is, if the disk head is initially at
8) The host controller is : 53 :
a) controller built at the end of each disk a) 224

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) 236 10) In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm
c) 245 goes as far as the final request in each
d) 240 direction, then reverses direction
Answer : b immediately without going to the end of the
disk.
4) Random access in magnetic tapes is a) LOOK
_________, compared to magnetic disks. b) SCAN
a) fast c) C-SCAN
b) very fast d) C-LOOK
c) slow Answer : a
d) very slow
Answer : d
Disk Management
5) Magnetic tape drives can write data at a
speed ________ disk drives. 1) The process of dividing a disk into sectors
a) much lesser than that the disk controller can read and write,
b) comparable to before a disk can store data is known as :
c) much faster than (choose all that apply)
d) None of these a) partitioning
Answer : b b) swap space creation
c) low-level formatting
6) On media that use constant linear velocity d) physical formatting | Answer : c and d
(CLV), the _____________ is uniform.
a) density of bits on the disk 2) The data structue for a sector typically
b) density of bits per sector contains : (choose all that apply)
c) the density of bits per track a) header
d) None of these b) data area
Answer : c c) trailer
Explanation: The farther a track is from the d) main section
center of the disk. Answer : a, b and c

7) SSTF algorithm, like SJF __________ of 3) The header and trailer of a sector contain
some requests. information used by the disk controller such
a) may cause starvation as _________ and _________.
b) will cause starvation a) main section
c) does not cause starvation b) error correcting codes (ECC)
d) causes aging c) sector number
Answer : a d) disk identifier
Answer : b and c
8) In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm
starts at one end of the disk and moves 4) The two steps the operating system takes
toward the other end, servicing requests till to use a disk to hold its files are _______
the other end of the disk. At the other end, and ________.
the direction is reversed and servicing a) partitioning
continues. b) swap space creation
a) LOOK c) caching
b) SCAN d) logical formatting
c) C-SCAN Answer : a and d
d) C-LOOK
Answer : b 5) The _______ program initializes all
aspects of the system, from CPU registers to
9) In the _______ algorithm, the disk head device controllers and the contents of main
moves from one end to the other , servicing memory, and then starts the operating
requests along the way. When the head system.
reaches the other end, it immediately returns a) main
to the beginning of the disk without b) bootloader
servicing any requests on the return trip. c) bootstrap
a) LOOK d) ROM
b) SCAN Answer : c
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK 6) For most computers, the bootstrap is
Answer : c stored in ____.
a) RAM

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) ROM c) maintains
c) cache d) does not affect
d) tertiary storage Answer : b
Answer : b Explanation: Disk access is much slower
than memory access.
7) A disk that has a boot partition is called a
_________. (choose all that apply) 3) Linux __________ the use of multiple
a) start disk swap spaces.
b) system disk a) allows
c) boot disk b) does not allow
d) All of these c) None of these
Answer : b and c Answer : a
Explanation: Putting these swap spaces on
8) Defective sectors on disks are often seperate disks reduces the load places on the
known as __________. I/O system.
a) good blocks
b) destroyed blocks 4) A single swap space ______ reside in two
c) bad blocks places.
d) None of these a) can
Answer : c b) cannot
c) must not
9) In SCSI disks used in high end PCs, the d) None of these
controller maintains a list of _________ on Answer : a
the disk. The disk is initialized during
________ formatting which sets aside spare 5) If the swap space is simply a large file,
sectors not visible to the operating system. within the file system, ____________ used
a) destroyed blocks, high level formatting to create it, name it and allocate its space.
b) bad blocks, partitioning a) special routines must be
c) bad blocks, low level formatting b) normal file system routines can be
d) destroyed blocks, partitioning c) normal file system routines cannot be
Answer : c d) swap space storage manager is
Answer : b
10) The scheme used in the above question
is known as _______ or ________. 6) For swap space created in a seperate disk
a) sector sparing partition where no file system or directory
b) forwarding structure is placed, _____________ used to
c) backwarding allocate and deallocate the blocks.
d) sector utilization a) special routines must be
Answer : a and b b) normal file system routines can be
c) normal file system routines cannot be
11) An unrecoverable error is known as d) swap space storage manager is
_________. Answer : d
a) hard error
b) tough error
c) soft error 7) When a fixed amount of swap space is
d) None of these created during disk partitioning, more swap
Answer : a space can be added only by :
I) repartitioning of the disk
II) adding another swap space elsewhere
Swap Space Management
a) only I
1) Virtual memory uses disk space as an b) only II
extension of _________. c) both I and II
a) secondary storage d) neither I nor II
b) main memory Answer : c
c) tertiary storage
d) None of these 8) In UNIX, two per process ________ are
Answer : b used by the kernel to track swap space use.
a) process tables
2) Using swap space significantly b) swap maps
_________ system performance. c) memory maps
a) increases d) partition maps
b) decreases Answer : b

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
9) It is __________ to reread a page from c) a parity block
the file system than to write it to swap space d) All of these
and then to reread it from there. Answer : d
a) useless
b) less efficient 7) RAID level 5 is also known as :
c) more efficient a) bit-interleaved parity organization
d) None of these b) block-interleaved parity organization
Answer : c c) block-interleaved distributed parity
d) memory-style ECC organization
Answer : c
RAID Structure – 1

1) RAID level 3 supports a lower number of 8) RAID level ____ spreads parity and data
I/Os per second, because _______________. among all N+1 disks rather than storing data
a) every disk has to participate in every I/O in N disks and parity in 1.
request a) 3
b) only one disk participates per I/O request b) 4
c) I/O cycle consumes a lot of CPU time c) 5
d) All of these d) 6
Answer : a Answer : c

2) RAID level _____ is also known as block 9) The potential overuse of a single parity
interleaved parity organisation and uses disk is avoided in RAID level ____.
block level striping and keeps a parity block a) 3
on a seperate disk. b) 4
a) 1 c) 5
b) 2 d) All of these
c) 3 Answer : c
d) 4
Answer : d 10) RAID level 0+1 is used because, RAID
level 0 provides ______ whereas RAID
3) A performance problem with _________ level 1 provides ________.
is the expense of computing and writing a) performance, redundancy
parity. b) performance, reliability
a) non-parity based RAID levels c) redundancy, performance
b) parity based RAID levels d) None of these
c) all RAID levels Answer : b
d) None of these
Answer : b 11) If a disk fails in RAID level ___
rebuilding lost data is easiest.
4) In RAID level 4, one block read, accesses a) 1
__________. b) 2
a) only one disk c) 3
b) all disks simultaneously d) 4
c) all disks sequentially Answer : a
d) None of these Explanation: Data can be copied from
Answer : a another disk in raid level 1, for other raid
Explanation: Other requests are allowed to levels all other disks have to be accessed.
be processed by other disks.
12) Where performance and reliability are
5) The overall I/O rate in RAID level 4 is : both important, RAID level ____ is used.
a) low a) 0
b) very low b) 1
c) high c) 2
d) None of these d) 0+1
Answer : c Answer :d
Explanation: All disks can be read in
parallel.
RAID Structure – 2
6) A write of a block has to access : (choose
all that apply) 1) A large number of disks in a system
a) the disk on which the block is stored improves the rate at which data can be read
b) parity disk or written :

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) if the disks are operated on sequentially b) 1
b) if the disks are operated on selectively c) 2
c) if the disks are operated in parallel d) 3
d) All of these Answer : b
2) RAID stands for :
a) Redundant Allocation of Inexpensive 9) RAID level ______ is also known as bit
Disks interleaved parity organisation.
b) Redundant Array of Important Disks a) 0
c) Redundant Allocation of Independent b) 1
Disks c) 2
d) Redundant Array of Independent Disks d) 3
Answer : d

3) If the mean time to failure of a single disk 10) A single parity bit can be used for :
is 100,000 hours, then the mean time to (choose all that apply)
failure of some disk in an array of 100 disks a) detection
will be : b) multiple error corrections
a) 100 hours c) few error corrections
b) 10 days d) single error correction
c) 10 hours Answer : a and d
d) 1000 hours
Answer : d 11) RAID level ______ is also known as
memory style error correcting code(ECC)
4) The solution to the problem of reliability organization.
is the introduction of __________. a) 1
a) aging b) 2
b) scheduling c) 3
c) redundancy d) 4
d) disks Answer : b
Answer : c
12) RAID level 3 does not have _________
5) The technique of duplicating every disk is as in RAID level 1.
known as : a) efficiency
a) mirroring b) enough storage space for data
b) shadowing c) storage overhead
c) redundancy d) time consumption overhead
d) scheduling Answer : c
Answer : a and b

6) The mean time to failure of a mirrored Tertiary Storage

disk depends on :
I) the mean time to failure of individual 1) Tertiary storage is built with :
disks a) a lot of money
II) the mean time to repair b) unremovable media
c) removable media
a) Only I d) secondary storage
b) Only II Answer : c
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II 2) Floppy disks are examples of :
Answer : c a) primary storage
b) secondary storage
7) RAID level ________ refers to disk c) tertiary storage
arrays with striping at the level of blocks, d) None of these
but without any redundancy. Answer : c
a) 0
b) 1 3) A magneto-optic disk is :
c) 2 a) primary storage
d) 3 b) secondary storage
Answer : a c) tertiary storage
d) removable disk
8) RAID level _______ refers to disk Answer : c and d
mirroring.
a) 0

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
4) The magneto-optic head flies Protection – Access Matrix
___________ the disk surface than a
magnetic disk head does. 1) In domain structure what is Access-right
a) much farther from equal to ?
b) much closer to a) Access-right = object-name, rights-set
c) at the same distance as b) Access-right = read-name, write-set
d) None of these c) Access-right = read-name, execute-set
Answer : a d) Access-right = object-name, execute-set
Answer: a
5) Optical disks ______ magnetism.
a) use 2) What is meaning of right-set ?
b) do not use a) It is a subset consist of read and write
c) may use b) It is a subset of all valid operations that
d) None of these can be performed on the object
Answer : b c) It is a subset consist of read,write and
execute
6) The phase change disk is coated with a d) None of these
material that can freeze into either _______ Answer: b
or ________ state.
a) crystalline, solid 3) What is Domain ?
b) ice, amorphous a) Domain = Set of all objects
c) crystalline, liquid b) It is a collection of protection policies
d) crystalline, amorphous c) Domain= set of access-rights
Answer : d d) None of these
Answer: c
7) WORM stands for :
a) write only, read mandatory 4) What does access matrix represent ?
b) write once, read many times a) Rows-Domains, Columns-Objects
c) write only once, read multiple b) Rows-Objects, Columns-Domains
d) None of these c) Rows-Access List, Columns-Domains
Answer : b d) Rows-Domains, Columns-Access list
Answer: a
8) A tape holds _______ data than optical or
magnetic disk cartridge. 5) What are the three additional operations
a) lesser to change the contents of the access-matrix ?
b) more a) Copy
c) much lesser b) Owner
d) None of these c) Deny
Answer : b d) control
Answer: a,b and d
9) Random access to tape is _______ a disk
seek. 6) Who can add new rights and remove
a) much slower than some rights ?
b) much faster than a) Copy
c) comparable to b) transfer
d) None of these c) limited copy
Answer : a d) owner
Answer: d
10) A typical tape drive is ________ a
typical disk drive. 7) What are the three copy rights ?
a) more expensive than a) Copy
b) cheaper than b) transfer
c) of the same cost as c) limited copy
d) None of these d) owner
Answer : a Answer: a,b,c

11) The surface area of a tape is ________ 8) Which two rights allow a process to
the surface area of a disk. change the entries in a column ?
a) much lesser than a) copy and transfer
b) much larger than b) copy and owner
c) equal to c) owner and transfer
d) None of these d) deny and copy
Answer : b Answer: a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
9) Which is an unsolvable problem in requirement at different times
access-matrix ? c) Logical separation – In which users
a) Owner override operate under illusion that no other
b) brute force processes exist
c) Access denied d) cryptographic sepration – In which
d) Confinement processes conceal their data and
Answer: d computations
Answer: d & c
10) Which of the following objects require
protection ? 15) What are various roles of protection ?
a) CPU (Choose two)
b) Printers a) It is used to detect errors which can
c) Tape drives prevent contamination of system.
d) Motherboard b) It is used used to defend against misuse
Answer: b & c c) It is used to optimize system downtime
d) It is used to accelerate a process
11) What is ‗separation‘ in security of
Operating systems ? 16) Which of the following objects require
a) To have separate login for different users protection ? (Choose two)
b) To have separate Hard disk drive/partition a) Memory
for different users b) Sharable I/O devices such as disks
c) It means keeping one user‘s objects c) Power supply unit
separate from other users d) Monitor
d) None of these Answer: a & b
Answer: c

12) What are physical separation and logical Protection concepts

separation ? (Choose 2)
a) Physical separation – in which process 1. Which principle states that programs,
use different physical objects like separate users and even the systems be given just
printers enough privileges to perform their task?
b) Physical separation – in which process a) principle of operating system
having different security requirement at b) principle of least privilege
different times c) principle of process scheduling
c) Logical separation – In which users d) none of the mentioned
operate under illusion that no other Answer:b
processes exist
d) Logical sepration – In which processes 2. _______ is an approach to restricting
conceal their data and computations system access to authorized users.
Answer: a & c a) Role-based access control
b) Process-based access control
13) What are temporal and physical c) Job-based access control
separation ? (Choose 2) d) none of the mentioned
a) Physical separation – in which process Answer:a
use different physical objects like separate
printers 3. For system protection, a process should
b) Temporal separation – in which process access
having different security requirement at a) all the resources
different times b) only those resources for which it has
c) Physical separation – In which users authorization
operate under illusion that no other c) few resources but authorization is not
processes exist required
d) Temporal sepration – In which processes d) all of the mentioned
conceal their data and computations Answer:b
Answer: b & a
4. The protection domain of a process
14) What are cryptographic and logical contains
separation ? (Choose 2) a) object name
a) logical separation – in which process use b) rights-set
different physical objects like separate c) both (a) and (b)
printers d) none of the mentioned
b) cryptographic separation – in which Answer:c
process having different security

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
5. If the set of resources available to the 2. The code segment that misuses its
process is fixed throughout the process‘s environment is called a
lifetime then its domain is a) internal thief
a) static b) trojan horse
b) dynamic c) code stacker
c) neither static nor dynamic d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer:b
Answer:a
3. The internal code of any software that
6. Access matrix model for user will set of a malicious function when
authentication contains specified conditions are met, is called
a) a list of objects a) logic bomb
b) a list of domains b) trap door
c) a function which returns an object‘s type c) code stacker
d) all of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer:d Answer:a

7. Global table implementation of matrix 4. The pattern that can be used to identify a
table contains virus is known as
a) domain a) stealth
b) object b) virus signature
c) right-set c) armoured
d) all of the mentioned d) multipartite
Answer:d
5. Which one of the following is a process
8. For a domain _______ is a list of objects that uses the spawn mechanism to revage the
together with the operation allowed on these system performance?
objects. a) worm
a) capability list b) trojen
b) access list c) threat
c) both (a) and (b) d) virus
d) none of the mentioned Answer:a
Answer:a
6. What is a trap door in a program?
9. Which one of the following is capability a) a security hole, inserted at programming
based protection system? time in the system for later use
a) hydra b) a type of antivirus
b) cambridge CAP system c) security hole in a network
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer:a
Answer:c
7. Which one of the following is not an
10. In UNIX, domain switch is attack, but a search for vulnerabilities to
accomplished via attack?
a) file system a) denial of service
b) user b) port scanning
c) superuser c) memory access violation
d) none of the mentioned d) dumpster diving
Answer:a Answer:b

8. File virus attaches itself to the

Security a) source file
b) object file
1. When an attempt is to make a machine or c) executable file
network resource unavailable to its intended d) all of the mentioned
users, the attack is called Answer:c
a) denial-of-service attack
b) slow read attack 9. Multipartite viruses attack on
c) spoofed attack a) files
d) starvation attack b) boot sector
Answer:a c) memory
d) all of the mentioned
Answer:d

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
10. In asymmetric encryption base register.
a) same key is used for encryption and d) none of the mentioned
decryption Answer: c
b) different keys are used encryption and
decryption
c) no key is required for encryption and 6) What is role of base/bound registers ?
decryption a) They give starting address to a program
d) none of the mentioned b) Program‘s addresses are neatly confined
Answer:b to space between the base and the bound
registers
c) They provide encrypted environment
Protection – Memory Protection d) This technique doesn‘t protects a
program‘s address from modification by
1) What is true regarding ‗Fence‘ ? (Choose another user
2) Answer: b
a) Its a method to confine users to one side
of a boundary 7) What is all-or-nothing situation for
b) It can protect Operating system from one sharing in memory ? (Choose 2)
user a) Program makes all its data available to be
c) It can protect users from each other accessed
d) It is implemented via software register b) It prohibits access to all
Answer: a & b c) It creates rules who can access program
memory
2) What is not true regarding ‗Fence‘ ? d) It separates program memory and data
a) It is implemented via hardware register memory
b) It doesn‘t protect users from each other Answer: a and b
c) It good to protect OS from abusive users
d) Its implementation is unrestricted and 8) How is disadvantage of all-or-nothing
can take any amount of space in Operating approach overcome ?
system. a) Base/Bound
b) Relocation technique
3) What is correct regarding ‗relocation‘ c) Fence method
w.r.t protecting memory ? (Choose 2) d) Tagged architecture
a) It is a process of taking a program as if it Answer: d
began at address 0
b) It is a process of taking a program as if it 9) What is true regarding tagged architecture
began at address 0A ? (Choose two)
c) It changes all address to reflect the actual a) Every word of machine memory has one
address at which program is located in or more extra bits
memory b) Extra bits are used to do padding
d) Fence cannot be used within relocation c) Extra bits are used to identify rights to
process that word
Answer: a & c d) It is very compatible to code upgrades
Answer: a and c
4) How can fence and relocation be used
together ? 10) What is best solution to have effect of
a) To each program address, the contents of unbounded number if base/bound registers?
fence register are added a) Tagged architecture
b) To contents of fence register is subtracted b) Segmentation
from actual address of program c) Fence method
c) Both a and b d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer: b
Answer: a
Explanation: This both relocates the address 11) What is major feature of segmentation ?
and guarantees that no one can access a a) Program is divided in data memory and
location lower than a fence address. program memory
b) Program is executed in segments
5) What is basic need in protecting memory c) Program is divided into pieces having
in multi-user environment ? different access rights
a) We need two registers one ‗start‘ and d) It has effect of an unbounded architecture
other ‗end‘ Answer: c
b) We need a variable register
c) A fence register has to be used known as

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
12) What is correct way the segmentation 3) What is reaquisition scheme to revoke
program address is stored ? capability ?
a) name, offset a) When a process’s capability is revoked
b) start, stop then it wont be able to reacquire it.
c) access, rights b) Pointers are maintained for each object
d) offset, rights which can be used to revoke
Answer: a c) Indirect pointing is done to revoke
Explanation: OS can retrieve the real object‘s capabilities
address via looking for the table then d) Master key can be used compare and
making a simple calculation : address of the revoke.
name + offset.
4) What is false regarding Back-Pointers
13) What is main objective of protection ? scheme to revoke capability ?
a) Ensure all objects are protected a) List of pointers is maintained with each
individually object.
b) Objects have different priority and thus b) When revocation is required these
different levels of protection pointers are followed
c) Ensure that each object is accessed c) This scheme is not adopted in MULTICS
correctly and only by allowed processes system.
d) None of the mentioned d) These point to all capabilities associated
Answer: c with that object.
Answer: c

14) What is principle of least privilege ? 5) What is true about Indirection to revoke
a) Less privileges provide difficulty in capability ? (Choose two)
executing admin tasks. a) Capabilities point indirectly to the objects
b) Users can get temporary high privilege b) Each capability has a unique entry in
access global
c) Users should be given just enough c) Table entries cannot be reused for other
privileges to perform their tasks. capabilities
d) None of the mentioned d) This system was adopted in MULTICS
Answer: c system.
Answer: a & b
15) What is need of protection ? (Choose
two) 6) How can Keys be defined or replaced ?
a) Prevent mischievous and intentional a) create [keyname] [bits] b) set-key
violation c) Key
b) Prevent competitors to become better d) MAKE [Key Name]
c) Ensure that each program component uses
resources allotted to it only. 7) What are characteristics of Hydra system
d) For improving performance of system ? (Choose two)
Answer: a & c a) It consist of known access rights and
interpreted by the system.
b) A user can of protection system can
Protection – Revocation of Access Rights declare other rights
c) Hydra system is not flexible
1) What is incorrect methods of revocation d) Hydra doesn‘t provide rights
of access rights ? amplification
a) Immediate/Delayed Answer: a & b
b) Selective/General
c) Partial/total 8) What are characteristics of rights
d) Crucial amplification in Hydra ? (Choose two)
Answer: d a) This scheme allows a procedure to be
certified as trustworthy.
2) Why is it difficult to revoke capabilities ? b) Amplification of rights cannot be stated
a) They are too many explicitly in declaration.
b) They are not defined precicely c) It may include auxiliary rights.
c) They are distributed throughout the d) It includes kernel rights such as read.
system. Answer: a & c
d) None of these
Answer: c 9) What is the problem of mutually
suspicious subsystem ? (Choose two)
a) Service program can steal users data

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) Service program can malfunction and 5. Logical extension of computation
retain some rights of data provided by migration is
user. a) process migration
c) Calling program can get access to b) system migration
restricted portion from service program c) thread migration
d) Calling program gets unrestricted access d) data migration
Explanation: Both calling program and Answer:a
service program are vulnerable to access
each others private data/rights. 6. Processes on the remote systems are
identified by
10) What are characteristics of Cambridge a) host ID
CAP system as compared to Hydra system ? b) host name and identifier
(Choose two) c) identifier
a) It is simpler than hydra system d) process ID
b) It is more powerful than hydra system.
c) It is less powerful than hydra system. 7. Which routing technique is used in
d) It is not as secure as Hydra system. distributed system?
Answer: a & c a) fixed routing
b) virtual routing
11) What are two capabilities defined in c) dynamic routing
CAP system ? d) all of the mentioned
a) data capability
b) address capability 8. In distributed systems, link and site
c) hardware capability failure is detected by
d) software capability a) polling
Answer: a & d b) handshaking
c) token passing d) none of the mentioned

Distributed Operating System 9. The capability of a system to adapt the

increased service load is called
1. In distributed system each processor has a) scalability
its own b) tolerance
a) local memory c) capacity
b) clock d) none of the mentioned
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned 10. Internet provides _______ for remote
Answer:c login.
a) telnet
2. If one site fails in distributed system b) http
a) the remaining sites can continue operating c) ftp
b) all the sites will stop working d) RPC
c) directly connected sites will stop working Answer:a
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a
Distributed Operating System – Types &
3. Network operating system runs on Resource Sharing
a) server
b) every system in the network 1) What is not true about distributed system
c) both (a) and (b) ?
d) none of the mentioned a) It is a collection of processor
Answer:a b) All processors are synchronized
c) They do not share memory
4. Which technique is based on compile- d) None of these
time program transformation for accessing Answer : b
remote data in a distributed-memory parallel
system. 2) What are characteristics of processor in
a) cache coherence scheme distributed system ?
b) computation migration a) They vary in size and function
c) remote procedure call b) They are same in size and function
d) message passing c) They are manufactured with single
Answer:b purpose
d) They are real-time devices
Answer : a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
3) What are characteristics of distributed file portion required
system ? (Choose two) b) transfer the computation rather than the
a) Its users,servers and storage devices data
are dispersed c) execute an entire process or parts of it at
b) Service activity is carried out across different sites
the network d) None of these
c) They have single centralized data Answer : b
repository
d) There are multiple dependent storage 11) What are characteristics of process
devices migration ?
a) transfer data by entire file or immediate
4) What is not a major reason for building portion required
distributed systems ? b) transfer the computation rather than the
a) Resource sharing data
b) Computation speedup c) execute an entire process or parts of it
c) Reliability at different sites
d) Simplicity d) None of these

5) What are two types of distributed

operating system ? (Choose two) Distributed Operating System – Network
a) Network Operating system Structure & Topology
b) Zone based Operating system
c) Level based Operating system 1) What are parts of network structure ?
d) Distributed Operating system (Choose three)
a) Workstation
6) What are characteristic of Network b) Gateway
Operating Systems ? (Choose two) c) Laptop
a) Users are aware of multiplicity of d) Mouse
machines
b) They are transparent 2) What are valid network topology ?
c) They are simple to use (Choose three)
d) They are not transparent a) Multiaccess bus
b) ring
7) How are access to resources of various c) star
machines is done ? (Choose two) d) mesh
a) Remote logging using ssh or telnet 3) What are sites in network topology
b) Remote Desktop compared ? (Choose three)
c) FTP is not used a) Basic cost
d) Zone are configured for automatic access b) Communication cost
Answer : a & b c) Flexibility
d) Reliability
8) What are characteristics of Distributed
Operating system ? (Choose two) 4) Which design features of a
a) Users are not aware of multiplicity of communication network are important ?
machines (Choose three)
b) Access is done like local resources a) Naming and name resolution
c) Users are aware of multiplicity of b) Routing strategies
machines c) Connection strategies
d) They have multiple zones to access files d) Minimum number of devices

9) What are characteristics of data migration 5) What are characteristics of Naming and
? Name resolution ? (Choose two)
a) transfer data by entire file or a) Name systems in the network
immediate portion required b) address messages with the process-id
b) transfer the computation rather than the c) virtual circuit
data d) message switching
c) execute an entire process or parts of it at Answer : a & b
different sites
6) What are routing strategies used in
10) What are characteristics of computation distributed systems ? (Choose three)
migration ? a) Fixed routing
a) transfer data by entire file or immediate b) Token routing

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) Virtual circuit d) None of these
d) Dynamic routing Answer : c
Answer : a,c & d
5) Which layer lies between transport layer
7) What are connection strategies used in and data link layer ?
distributed systems ? (Choose three) a) Physical
a) Circuit switching b) Network
b) Message switching c) Application
c) Token switching d) Session
d) Packet switching Answer : b
Answer : a,b & d
6) Which of the following is an application
8) How is are collisions avoided in network layer service ?
? (Choose three) a) Mail service
a) Carrier sense with multiple access b) File transfer
(CSMA); collision detection (CD) c) Remote access
b) Carrier sense multiple access with d) All of these
collision avoidance Answer : d
c) Token Passing
d) Message slots 7) What are different ways distributed may
Answer : a,b & d suffer ? (Choose three)
a) Failure of a link
9) What is common problem found in b) Failure of a site
distributed system ? c) Loss of message
a) Process Synchronization d) Failure if power
b) Communication synchronization Answer : a,b & c
c) Deadlock problem
d) Power failure 8) What are design issues in distributed
Answer : c system structure ? (Choose three)
a) Scaleability
b) Fault-tolerance
Distributed Operating System – c) Clustering
Robustness of Distributed Systems d) Upgradation
Answer : a,b & c
1) How many layers does Internet model
ISO consists of ? 9) In which OSI layer encryption and
a) Three decryption happens ?
b) Five a) Application
c) Seven b) Presentation
d) Eight c) Transport
Answer : c d) Data Link
Answer : b
2) Which layer is responsible for The
process-to-process delivery ? 10) What are important step followed when
a) Network recovery from failure happens ? (Choose
b) Transport two)
c) Application a) Post repairing integration with main
d) Physical system should happen smoothly and
Answer : b gracefully
b) Upon link failure both parties at end must
3) Which layer is the layer closest to the me notified
transmission medium ? c) Fault recovery system must me adjusted
a) Physical d) Failures are logged systematically
b) Data link Answer : a & b
c) Network
d) Transport
Answer : a Distributed File System – 1

4) Header are ___ when data packet moves 1) What are the different ways in which
from upper to the lower layers ? clients and servers are dispersed across
a) Modified machines ? (Choose Two)
b) removed a) Servers may run on dedicated machines
c) added b) Servers and clients can be on same

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
machines d) None of these
c) Distribution cannot be interposed between Answer : a
a OS and the file system
d) OS cannot be distributed with the file 9) What are examples of state information ?
system a part of that distribution (Choose three)
Answer : a & b a) opened files and their clients
b) file descriptors and file handles
2) What are the characteristics of a DFS ? c) current file position pointers
(Choose Two) d) current list of total users
a) login transparency and access Answer : a,b & c
transparency
b) Files need not contain information about 10) What are examples of state information
their physical location ? (Choose three)
c) No Multiplicity of users a) Mounting information
d) No Multiplicity if files b) Description of HDD space
Answer : a & b c) Session keys
d) Lock status
3) What is not a characteristic of a DFS ? Answer : a,c & d
(Choose three)
a) Fault tolerance 1) What is a stateless file server ?
b) Scaleability a) It keeps tracks of states of different
c) Heterogeneity of the system objects
d) Upgradation b) It maintains internally no state
Answer : a,b & c information at all.
c) It maintains some information in them
4) What are the different ways file accesses d) None of these
take place ? (Choose three) Answer : b
a) sequential access
b) direct access
c) random 2) What are the characteristics of stateless
d) indexed sequential access server ? (Choose two)
Answer : a,b & d a) Easier to implement
b) They are fault-tolerant upon client or
5) What are the major components of file server failures
system ? (Choose three) c) They store all information file server
a) Directory service d) They are redundant to keep data safe
b) Authorization service
c) Shadow service
d) System service 3) Implementation of a stateless file server
Answer : a,b & d must address ? (Choose three)
a) Idempotency requirement
6) What are the different ways mounting of b) Encryption of keys
file system ? (Choose three) c) File locking mechanism
a) Boot mounting d) Cache consistency
b) root mounting Answer : a,c & d
c) explicit mounting
d) auto mounting 4) What are the advantages of file
Answer : a,c & d replication ? (Choose two)
a) Improves availability
7) What is the advantage of caching in b) Improves performance
remote file access ? c) They are consistent
a) Reduced network traffic by retaining d) Improves speed
recently accessed disk blocks
b) Faster network access. 5) What are characteristic of NFS protocol ?
c) Copies of data creates backup (Choose three)
automatically a) Search for file withing directory
d) None of these b) Read a set of directory entries
Answer : a c) Manipulate links and directories
d) Cannot read/write file attributes
8) What is networked virtual memory ? Answer : a,b & c
a) Caching
b) Segmentation 6) What is coherency of replicated data ?
c) RAM disk (Choose three)

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) All replicas are identical at all times distributed system.
b) Replicas are perceived as identical only at a) Clients
some points in time b) Servers
c) Users always read the most recent data in c) Storage devices
the replicas d) all of the mentioned
d) Write operations are not performed Answer:d
immediately
Answer : a,b & c 3. _______ is not possible in distributed file
system.
7) What are the three popular semantic a) File replication
modes ? (Choose three) b) Migration
a) Unix semantics c) Client interface
b) Transaction semantics d) Remote access
c) Coherent semantics Answer:b
d) Session semantics
Answer : a,b & d 4. Which one of the following hides the
location where in the network the file is
8) What are the characteristics of Unix stored?
semantics ? (Choose three) a) transparent distributed file system
a) Easy to implement in a single processor b) hidden distributed file system
system c) escaped distribution file system
b) Data cached on a per process basis using d) spy distributed file system
write through case control Answer:a
c) Write-back enhances access performance
d) Cache must not be write-invalidate 5. In distributed file system, when a file‘s
Answer : a,b & c physical storage location changes
a) file name need to be changed
9) What are the characteristics of transaction b) file name need not to be changed
semantics ? (Choose two) c) file‘s host name need to be changed
a) suitable for applications that are not d) file‘s local name need to be changed
concerned about coherence of data
b) The users of this model are interested in 6. In distributed file system, _______ is
the atomicity property for their transaction mapping between logical and physical
c) Easy to implement in a single processor objects.
system a) client interfacing
d) Write-back enhances access performance b) naming
Answer : a & b c) migration
d) hetrogeneity
10) What are the characteristics of session
semantics ? (Choose three) 7. In distributed file system, a file is
a) Each client obtains a working copy from uniquely identified by
the server a) host name
b) When file is closed, the modified file is b) local name
copied to the file server c) the combination of host name and local
c) the burden of coordinating file sharing is name
ignored by the system d) none of the mentioned
d) Easy to implement in a single processor Answer:c
system
Answer : a,b & c
8. There is no need to establish and
terminate a connection through open and
Distributed File System – 3 close operation in
a) stateless file service
1. The file once created can not be changed b) stateful file service
is called c) both (a) and (b)
a) immutable file d) none of the mentioned
b) mutex file Answer:a
c) mutable file
d) none of the mentioned 9. In distributed file system, file name does
Answer:a not reveal the file‘s
a) local name
2. ______ of the distributed file system are b) physical storage location
dispersed among various machines of c) both (a) and (b)

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) none of the mentioned c) There are many messages passed per
Answer:b section entered if few users want to get in
section
10. Which one of the following is a d) One processor as coordinator which
distributed file system? handles all requests
a) andrew file system e) Only one message/entry if everyone
b) network file system wants to get in
c) novel network Answer : a,b & d
d) all of the mentioned
6) What is the characteristics of atomicity ?
a) All operations associated are executed
to completion or none are performed
Distributed Coordination b) One processor as coordinator which
handles all requests
1) What are the characteristics of tightly c) When responses are received from all
coupled system ? (Choose three) processes, then process can enter its Critical
a) Same clock, usually shared memory Section
b) Communication is via this shared d) Use communication links
memory
c) Multiprocessors 7) What things are transaction coordinator is
d) Different clock responsible for ? (Choose three)
Answer : a,b & c a) Starting the execution of the transaction
b) Breaking transaction into a number of
2) What are the characteristics of tightly subtransactions
coupled system ? (Choose three) c) Coordinating the termination of the
a) Different clock transaction
b) Use communication links d) Syncronization of the parties
c) Same clock Answer : a,b & c
d) Distributed systems
Answer : b,c & d 8) Single coordinator approach has the
following advantages : (Choose two)
3) What are the characteristics of mutual a) Simple implementation
exclusion using centralized approach ? b) Simple deadlock handling
(Choose three) c) Speed of operation
a) One processor as coordinator which d) No bottleneck
handles all requests Answer : a & b
b) It requires request,reply and release per
critical section entry
c) The method is free from starvation 9) Single coordinator approach has the
d) When responses are received from all following disadvantages : (Choose two)
processes, then process can enter its Critical a) Bottleneck
Section b) Slow response
Answer : a,b & c c) Vulnerability
d) One request per second
4) What are the characteristics of fully
distributed approach ? (Choose two)
a) When responses are received from all 10) What are the disadvantages of majority
processes, then process can enter its Critical protocol ? (Choose two)
Section a) Complicated implementation
b) When process exits its critical section, the b) Deadlock can occur easily
process sends reply messages to all its c) Bottleneck
deferred requests. d) Vulnerability
c) It requires request,reply and release per
critical section entry
d) One processor as coordinator which 11) What are the two parts of global unique
handles all requests identifier ? (Choose two)
Answer : a & b a) Local unique time stamp
b) Remote time stamp
5) What are the advantages of token(with c) Site identifier
rings) passing approach ? (Choose three) d) Clock number
a) One processor as coordinator which
handles all requests 12) Which are the two complementary
b) No starvation if the ring is unidirectional deadlock-prevention schemes using time

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
stamps ? (Choose two) b) breaks the transaction into number of sub
a) The wait-die scheme transactions
b) The wait-n-watch scheme c) coordinates the termination of the
c) The wound-wait scheme transaction
d) The wait-wound scheme d) all of the mentioned
Answer : a & c

8. In case of failure, a new transaction

Distributed Synchronization coordinator can be elected by
a) bully algorithm
1. In distributed systems, a logical clock is b) ring algorithm
associated with c) both (a) and (b)
a) each instruction d) none of the mentioned
b) each process Answer:c
c) each register
d) none of the mentioned
9. In distributed systems, election algorithms
2. If timestamps of two events are same, assumes that
then the events are a) a unique priority number is associated
a) concurrent with each active process in system
b) non-concurrent b) there is no priority number associated
c) monotonic with any process
d) non-monotonic c) priority of the processes is not required
d) none of the mentioned
3. If a process is executing in its critical Answer:a
section
a) any other process can also execute in its
critical section 10. According to the ring algorithm, links
b) no other process can execute in its critical between processes are
section a) bidirectional
c) one more process can execute in its b) unidirectional
critical section c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer:b
4. A process can enter into its critical section
a) anytime
b) when it recieves a reply message from its
parent process (Waheed Murad, 112, AI Hostel 9, Dated
c) when it recieves a reply message from all 14/08/2017)
other processes in the system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:c

5. For proper synchronization in distributed

systems
a) prevention from the deadlock is must
b) prevention from the starvation is must
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned

6. In the token passing approach of

distributed systems, processes are organized
in a ring structure
a) logically
b) physically
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned

7. In distributed systems, transaction

coordinator
a) starts the execution of transaction

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
 3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT
with reference to one of the eight principles
as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
a) The product should be easy to use.
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their
products and related modifications meet the
highest professional standards possible.
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
products and related modifications satisfy
the client.
d) It means that the product designed
/created should be easily available.
Answer:b

4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the

situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
system without finishing the testing of the
system.
b) Refusing to undertake a project.
c) Agreement in principle with the policies
of senior management.
Answer:a

5. Identify the correct statement: ―Software

engineers shall
a) act in a manner that is in the best interests
of his expertise and favour.‖
b) act consistently with the public interest.‖
c) ensure that their products only meet the
SRS.‖
d) none
Answer:b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in
a manner that is in the best interests of their
client and employer consistent with the
Software Engineering Ethics public interest and shall ensure that their
1. Choose the correct option in terms of products and related modifications meet the
Issues related to professional responsibility highest professional standards possible.Thus
a) Confidentiality options a & c are ruled out.
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both a & b 6. Select the incorrect statement: ―Software
d) Managing Client Relationships engineers should
Answer:c a) not knowingly accept work that is outside
Explanation: Engineers should normally your competence.‖
respect the confidentiality of their employers b) not use your technical skills to misuse
or clients irrespective of whether or not a other people‘s computers.‖
formal confidentiality agreement has been c) be dependent on their colleagues.‖
signed. d) maintain integrity and independence in
They should be aware of local laws their professional judgment.‖
governing the use of intellectual property Answer:c
such as patents, copyright, etc.
7. Efficiency in a software product does not
2. ―Software engineers should not use their include ________
technical skills to misuse other people‘s a) responsiveness
computers.‖Here the term misuse refers to: b) licensing
a) Unauthorized access to computer material c) memory utilization
b) Unauthorized modification of computer d) processing time
material Answer:b
c) Dissemination of viruses or other Explanation: Licensing of a software
malware product comes under corporate part of the
d) All of the mentioned software company.
Answer:d

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
8. As per an IBM report, ―31%of the project documentation and configuration of data to
get cancelled before they are completed, make program run.
53% overrun their cost estimates by an
average of 189% and for every 100 projects, 3. Which of these does not account for
there are 94 restarts‖.What is the reason for software failure ?
these statistics ? a) Increasing Demand
a) Lack of adequate training in software b) Low expectation
engineering c) Increasing Supply
b) Lack of software ethics and d) Less reliable and expensive.
understanding Answer:c
c) Management issues in the company Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to
Answer:a more production and not failure.
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of
Software Engineering as a subject,hence 4. What are attributes of good software ?
option a covers them both. a) Software maintainability.
b) Software functionality.
9. The reason for software bugs and failures c) Software development.
is due to d) a and b.
a) Software companies e) a,b and c.
b) Software Developers Answer:d
c) Both a and b Explanation: Good software should deliver
Answer:c the required functinality, maintainability.
Explanation: Software companies are Software development is not an attribute but
responsible for making policies and a fundamental.
providing working atmosphere for the
software development, so in turn these 5. Which of these software engineering
companies become a part of software activities are not a part of software processes
development process.Bugs from developers ?
side is no new thing. Thus option c answers a) Software dependence.
the question. b) Software development.
c) Software validation.
10. Company has latest computers and state- d) Software specification.
of the- art software tools, so we shouldn‘t Answer:a
worry about the quality of the product. Explanation: Software dependence is an
a) True attribute and not an engineering activity for
b) False process.
Answer:b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one 6. Which of these is incorrect ?
of the several factors that determine the a) Software engineering belongs to
quality of the product. Computer science.
b) Software engineering is a part of more
1. Which of these are not among the eight general form of System Engineering.
principles followed by Software Engineering c) Computer science belongs to Software
Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ? engineering.
a) PUBLIC d) Software engineering is concerned with
b) PROFESSION the practicalities of developing and
c) PRODUCT delivering useful software.
d) ENVIRONMENT
Answer:d Answer:c
Explanation: rest all are clauses for software Explanation: Software engineering is a vast
ethics, environment does not focus on sub domain which comes under computer
specific clause nor its of importace related to science which is main domain.
question. 7. Which of these is true ?
a) Generic products and customized
2. What is a Software ? products are types of software products.
a) Software is set of programs. b) Generic products are produces by
b) Software is documentation and organization and sold to open market.
configuration of data. c) Customized products are comissioned by
c) Both a and b particular customer.
d) None of the mentioned d) All of the above.
Answer:c Answer:d
Explanation: Software is not just set of
program but it is also associated

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
8. Which of these does not affect different Answer:d
types of software as a whole? Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the
a) Heterogeneity sequential flow that the Waterfall Model
b) Flexibility proposes.
c) Business and social change
d) Security 4. Which is not one of the types of prototype
Answer:b of Prototyping Model?
Explanation:Option b & c are a part of a) Horizontal Prototype
Software Engineering as a subject,hence b) Vertical Prototype
option a covers them both. c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
9. The fundamental notions of software Answer:c
engineering does not account for ? Explanation: Their is no such thing as
a) Software processes Diagonal Prototype whereas other options
b) Software Security have their respective definitions.
c) Software reuse
d) Software Validation 5. Which one of the following is not a phase
Answer:d of Prototyping Model?
Explanation:Software validation is an a) Quick Design
activity for software process and not the b) Coding
fundamental for engineering. c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
10. Which of these is not true ? Answer:b
a) Web has led to availability of software Explanation: A prototyping model generates
services and possibility of developing highly only a working model of a system.
distributed service based systems.
b) Web based systems have led to 6. Which of the following statements
degradance of programming languages. regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
c) Web brings concept of software as a) No room for structured design
service. b) Code soon becomes unfix-able &
d) Web based system should be developed unchangeable
and delivered incrementally. c) Maintenance is practically not possible
Answer:b d) It scales up well to large projects
Explanation: Web based systems has led to Answer:d
important advances in programming Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable
languages for 100-200 LOC

Software Life Cycle Models 7. RAD Model has

a) 2 phases
1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for b) 3 phase
programming exercises of ___________ c) 5 phases
LOC (Line of Code). d) 6 phases
a) 100-200 Answer:c
b) 200-400 Explanation: RAD Model consists of five
c) 400-1000 phases namely:Business modeling,Data
d) above 1000 modeling,Process modeling,Application
Answer:a generation and Testing & Turnover.
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable
for small projects & programming exercises 8. What is the major drawback of using
of 100 or 200 lines. RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled
2. RAD stands for developers/designers are required.
a) Relative Application Development b) Increases re-usability of components.
b) Rapid Application Development c) Encourages customer/client feedback.
c) Rapid Application Document d) Both a & c.
Answer:b Answer:d
Explanation: The client may create an
3. Which one of the following models is not unrealistic product vision leading a team to
suitable for accommodating any change? over or under-develop functionality.Also,
a) Build & Fix Model the specialized & skilled developers are not
b) Prototyping Model easily available.
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
9. SDLC stands for d) Royce
a) Software Development Life Cycle Answer:b
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle 5. The spiral model has two dimensions
d) System Design Life Cycle namely _____________ and ____________.
Answer:a a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
10. Which model can be selected if user is c) radial, angular
involved in all the phases of SDLC? d) diagonal, perpendicular
a) Waterfall Model Answer:c
b) Prototyping Model Explanation: The radial dimension of the
c) RAD Model model represents the cumulative costs and
d) both b & c the angular dimension represents the
Answer:c progress made in completing each cycle.
Each loop of the spiral from X-axis
Evolutionary Software Process Models clockwise through 360o represents one
phase.
1. Which one of the following is not an
Evolutionary Process Model? 6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different
a) WINWIN Spiral Model from Spiral Model?
b) Incremental Model a) It defines tasks required to define
c) Concurrent Development Model resources, timelines, and other project
d) Spiral Model related information.
e) All are Evolutionary Software Models b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at
Answer:e the beginning of each pass around the spiral.
c) It defines tasks required to assess both
2. The Incremental Model is a result of technical and management risks.
combination of elements of which two d) It defines tasks required to construct, test,
models? install, and provide user support.
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model Answer:b
b) Linear Model & RAD Model Explanation: Except option ―b‖ all other
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model as well.
Answer:c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces 7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
a deliverable ―increment‖ of the software a) Doesn‘t work well for smaller projects
and particularly when we have to quickly b) High amount of risk analysis
deliver a limited functionality system. c) Strong approval and documentation
control
3. What is the major advantage of using d) Additional Functionality can be added at
Incremental Model? a later date
a) Customer can respond to each increment Answer:a
b) Easier to test and debug Explanation: All other options are the
c) It is used when there is a need to get a advantages of Spiral Model.
product to the market early
d) Both b & c 8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all
Answer:d its phases.
Explanation: Incremental Model is generally a) True
easier to test and debug than other methods b) False
of software development because relatively Answer:b
smaller changes are made during each
iteration and is popular particularly when we 9. How is Incremental Model different from
have to quickly deliver a limited Spiral Model?
functionality system.However, option ―a‖ a) Progress can be measured for Incremental
can be seen in other models as well like Model.
RAD model,hence option ―d‖ answers the b) Changing requirements can be
question. accommodated in Incremental Model.
c) Users can see the system early in
4. The spiral model was originally proposed Incremental Model.
by Answer:a
a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm 10. If you were to create client/server
c) Pressman applications, which model would you go

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
for? Explanation: A working program is only one
a) WINWIN Spiral Model part of a software configuration that includes
b) Spiral Model many elements. Documentation provides a
c) Concurrent Model foundation for successful engineering and,
d) Incremental Model more important, guidance for software
Answer:c support.
Explanation: When applied to client/server
applications, the concurrent process model 6. Which phase of the RUP is used to
defines activities in two dimensions: a establish a business case for the system ?
system dimension and a component a) Transition
dimension.Thus Concurrency is achieved by b) Elaboration
system and component activities occurring c) Construction
simultaneously and can be modeled using d) Inception
the state-oriented approach. Answer:d

Software Process and Product 7. Which one of the following is not a

fundamental activity for software processes
1. If a software production gets behind in software engineering ?
schedule, one can add more programmers a) Software Verification
and catch up. b) Software Validation
a) True c) Software design and implementation
b) False d) Software evolution
Answer:b e) Software specification
Explanation: As new people are added, Answer:a
people who were working must spend time Explanation: Software Verification is
educating the newcomers, thereby reducing accounted for in implementation & testing
the amount of time spent on productive activity.
development effort.
8. A general statement of objectives is the
2. Choose an internal software quality from major cause of failed software efforts.
given below: a) True
a) scalability b) False
b) usability Answer:a
c) reusability Explanation: A formal and detailed
d) reliability description of the information domain,
Answer:c function, behavior, performance, interfaces,
Explanation: rest all are external qualities design constraints and validation criteria is
which are visible to the user. essential which can be determined only after
thorough communication between customer
3. RUP stands for____________ created by and developer.
a division of ____________.
a) Rational Unified Program, IBM 9. The longer a fault exists in software
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys a) the more tedious its removal becomes
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM c) the less likely it is to be properly
Answer:d corrected
d) All of the mentioned
4. The RUP is normally described from Answer:d
three perspectives-dynamic, static &
practice.What does static perspective do ? 10. Component-based Software Engineering
a) It shows the process activities that are allows faster delivery.
enacted. a) True
b) It suggests good practices to be used b) False
during the process. Answer:a
c) It shows the phases of the model over Explanation: Due to using previously tested
time. components they produce more reliable
Answer:a system at a faster rate.

5. The only deliverable work product for a 11. Arrange the following steps to form a
successful project is the working program. basic/general Engineering Process Model.
a) True i. Test
b) False ii. Design
Answer:b iii. Install

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
iv. Specification develop cheaper products/software/projects
v. Manufacture as the cost of modeling, hiring highly skilled
vi. Maintain developers/designers and automated code
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3 generation is very high.But here the cost is
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6 not an issue, so one can select this model as
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6 it reduces development time.
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Answer:b 5. Which two of the following models will
not be able to give the desired outcome if
Selection of a Life Cycle Model user‘s participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
1. Selection of a model is based on b) RAD & Spiral
a) Requirements c) RAD & Waterfall
b) Development team d) RAD & Prototyping
c) Users Answer:d
d) Project type and associated risk Explanation: Active Participation of user is
e) All of the mentioned involved in all the four phases of RAD
Answer:e model and in case of the Prototyping model
Explanation: Each model has to have some we need user‘s presence/involvement every
requirements, a team of developers, users time a new prototype is build or designed.
and the risk involved in developing a
project. 6. A company is developing an advance
version of their current software available in
2. Which two models doesn‘t allow defining the market, what model approach would
requirements early in the cycle? they prefer ?
a) Waterfall & RAD a) RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Prototyping & RAD c) Both a & b
d) Waterfall & Spiral d) Spiral
Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation: Prototyping Model starts with
a requirements analysis phase including 7. One can choose Waterfall Model if the
techniques like FAST, QFD, project development schedule is tight.
Brainstorming.In case of Spiral model the a) True
first phase involves activities related to b) False
customer communication like determining Answer:b
objectives. Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the
sequential flow and iterations in this model
3. Which of the following life cycle model are handled indirectly. Thus changes can
can be chosen if the development team has cause confusion as the project proceeds
less experience on similar projects? thereby delaying the delivery date.
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall 8. Choose the correct option from given
c) RAD below:
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
Answer:a a) Prototyping Model facilitates re-usability
Explanation: Relying on risk of components
assessment/analysis provides more b) RAD Model Model facilitates re-usability
flexibility than required for many of components
applications which overcomes the criteria of c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model
less experienced developers. facilitates re-usability of components
d) none
4. If you were a lead developer of a software Answer:c
company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time- 9. Spiral Model has high reliability
frame with no cost barriers, which model requirements.
would you select? a) True
a) Waterfall b) False
b) Spiral Answer:a
c) RAD
d) Incremental 10. RAD Model has high reliability
Answer:c requirements.
Explanation: RAD model is inapplicable to a) True

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) False a) on Lisp machine
Answer:b b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
d) from GUI creators
Fourth Generation Techniques Answer:a
Explanation: Fifth-generation programming
1. Identify a fourth generation language are built on LISP.
language(4GL) from the given below.
a) FORTRAN 6. In 4GT, we can specify the user
b) COBOL requirements in graphic notation or small
c) Unix shell abbreviated language form.
d) C++ a) True
Answer:c b) False
Explanation: Rest all are third generation Answer:a
languages(3GL).
7. Productivity of software engineers is
2. Arrange the following activities for reduced in using a 4GT.
making a software product using 4GT. a) True
i. Design strategy b) False
ii. Transformation into product Answer:b
iii. Implementation Explanation: 4GLs are more programmer-
iv. Requirement gathering friendly and enhance programming
a) 1, 4, 3, 2 efficiency with usage of English-like words
b) 4, 3, 1, 2 and phrases, thereby increasing the
c) 4, 1, 3, 2 productivity of professionals able to engage
d) 1, 3, 4, 2 in software development.
Answer:c
Explanation: The sequence of activities 8. Which of the following 4GLs invented at
mentioned in option c represents the Fourth IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and
Generation Techniques(4GT)Model. ISO as the standard language for managing
structured data?
3. 4GL is an example of ______________ a) SQL
processing. b) PROLOG
a) White Box c) C
b) Black Box d) JAVA
c) Functional Answer:a
d) Both a & b Explanation: C & JAVA are third generation
e) Both b & c languages(3GLs) wheras PROLOG is a
Answer:e 5GL.
Explanation: Functional processing/testing
is also referred to as black box testing in 9. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT
which contents of the black box are not Model for producing small scale products,
known.Almost anything might be referred to applications or programs ?
as a black box:an algorithm or the human a) Improved productivity of software
mind.Functionality of the black box is engineers.
understood in terms of its inputs and b) Reduction in software development time.
outputs. c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code
generators offers a credible solution to many
4. The 4GT Model is a package of software problems.
__________________. Answer:b
a) CASE Tools Explanation: Since automated coding is
b) Software tools done using CASE tools & code generators
c) Software Programs proponents claim a dramatic reduction in
Answer:b software development time.
Explanation: 4GT encompasses a broad
array of software tools enabling the software 10. Which of the following model has a
engineer to specify the characteristics at a major disadvantage in terms of the coding
high level leading to an automatically phase of a software life cycle model ?
generated source code based on these a) Spiral Model
specifications. b) Waterfall Model
c) Rad Model
5. Which of the following is not a type of a d) 4GT Model
4GL? One originating _______________. Answer:d

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: Since coding phase is how and the_________ phase which focuses
eliminated in 4GT Model,more expertise is on change.
required for analysis,design and testing i. support
activities. ii. development
iii. definition
Software Process and Product – 1 a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
1. Which one of the following is not a c) 3, 2, 1
software process quality? d) 3, 1, 2
a) Productivity Answer:c
b) Portability
c) Timeliness 7. Which of the following activities of a
d) Visibility Generic Process framework provides a
Answer:b feedback report?
Explanation: Portability is a software a) Communication
product quality which means software can b) Planning
run on different harware platforms or c) Modeling & Construction
software environments. d) Deployment
Answer:d
2. _____________&_____________ are two Explanation: In Deployment the product is
kinds of software products. delivered to the customer who evaluates the
a) CAD, CAM product and provides feedback based on the
b) Firmware, Embedded evaluation.
c) Generic, Customised
Answer:c 8. Process adopted for one project is same as
Explanation: rest all are sub the process adopted from another project.
categories/applications of option c. a) True
b) False
3. Software costs more to maintain than it Answer:b
does to develop. Explanation: the overall flow of activities,
a) True actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to
b) False the software team and the inter dependencies
Answer:a among two process can never be the same.
Explanation: For systems with a long life,
maintenance costs may be several times 9. Which one of the following is not an
development costs. Umbrella Activity that complements the five
process framework activities and help team
4. Which one of the following is not an manage and control progress, quality,
application of embedded software product? change, and risk.
a) key pad control of a security system a) Re-usability management
b) pattern recognition game playing b) Risk management
c) digital function of dashboard display in a c) Measurement
car d) User Reviews
Answer:b e) Software quality assurance
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses Answer:d
Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.
10. Four types of change are encountered
5. Purpose of process is to deliver software during the support phase.Which one of the
a) in time following is not one that falls into such
b) with acceptable quality category?
c) that is cost efficient a) Translation
d) both a & b b) Correction
Answer:d c) Adaptation
Explanation: Cost of a software is a d) Prevention
management issue & is not related to Answer:a
process activities. Explanation: Translation is done in the
development phase.
6. The work associated with software
engineering can be categorized into three Agile Software Development
generic phases,regardless of application
area, project size, or complexity namely 1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto
the__________ phase which focuses on for Agile Software Development
what, the_________ phase which focuses on a) Individuals and interactions

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) Working software Answer:b
c) Customer collaboration Explanation: There are three phases in
d) Responding to change Scrum.The initial phase is an outline
e) All of the mentioned planning phase followed by a series of sprint
Answer:e cycles and project closure phase.

2. Agile Software Development is based on 7. Agile methods seem to work best when
a) Incremental Development team members have a relatively high skill
b) Iterative Development level.
c) Linear Development a) True
d) Waterfall Model b) False
e) Both a and b Answer:a
Answer:e
Explanation: The software is developed in 8. Which of the following does not apply to
increments with the customer specifying the agility to a software process?
requirements to be included in each a) Uses incremental product delivery
increment and the highest priority is to strategy
satisfy the customer through early and b) Only essential work products are
continuous delivery of valuable software. produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and
3. Which on of the following is not an agile testing
method? Answer:c
a) XP Explanation: Testing is a major part of each
b) 4GT software development process which cant be
c) AUP avoided.
Answer:b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not 9. Which three framework activities are
incorporate iteration and the continuous present in Adaptive Software
feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of Development(ASD) ?
an agile method. a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle
4. Agility is defined as the ability of a planning, iterative development
project team to respond rapidly to a change. c) speculation, collaboration, learning
a) True Answer:c
b) False
Answer:b 10. In agile development it is more
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to important to build software that meets the
reduce overheads in the software process customers‘ needs today than worry about
and to be able to respond quickly to features that might be needed in the future.
changing requirements without excessive a) True
rework. b) False
Answer:a
5. How is plan driven development different
from agile development ? Extreme Programming
a) Outputs are decided through a process of
negotiation during the software development 1. Incremental development in Extreme
process. Programming (XP) is supported through a
b) Specification, design, implementation and system release once every month.
testing are interleaved a) True
c) Iteration occurs within activities b) False
Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to Explanation: Incremental development is
software engineering is based around supported through small, frequent system
separate development stages with the releases.
outputs to be produced at each of these
stages planned in advance. 2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is
complete, it is integrated into the whole
6. How many phases are there in Scrum ? system.
a) Two a) True
b) Three b) False
c) Four Answer:a
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it Explanation: XP follows a continuous
does not have phases. integration approach.After any such

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
integration, all the unit tests in the system 7. Tests are automated in Extreme
must pass. Programming.
a) True
3. In XP Increments are delivered to b) False
customers every _______ weeks. Answer:a
a) One Explanation: Automated test harnesses are
b) Two used to run all component tests each time
c) Three that a new release is built.
d) Four
Answer:b 8. In XP an automated unit test framework is
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) used to write tests for a new piece of
takes an ‗extreme‘ approach to iterative functionality before that functionality itself
development.New versions may be built is implemented.
several times per day, hence delivering the a) True
increment for approval every 2nd week after b) False
testing the new version. Answer:a
Explanation: XP follows Test-first
4. User requirements are expressed as development approach.
__________ in Extreme Programming.
a) implementation tasks 9. Developers work individually on a release
b) functionalities and they compare their results with other
c) scenarios developers before forwarding that release to
Answer:c customers.
Explanation: User requirements are a) True
expressed as scenarios or user stories.These b) False
are written on cards and the development Answer:b
team break them down into implementation Explanation: XP follows the principle of
tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule pair programming which means developers
and cost estimates. work in pairs, checking each other‘s work
and providing the support to always do a
5. Is a customer involved test development good job.
and validation in XP ?
a) Yes 10. Which four framework activities are
b) No found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer a) analysis, design, coding, testing
Answer:c b) planning, analysis, design, coding
Explanation: The role of the customer in the c) planning, design, coding, testing
testing process is to help develop acceptance d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
tests for the stories that are to be Answer:c
implemented in the next release of the Explanation: XP involves the mentioned
system.However, people adopting the four activities, and in the same in order.
customer role have limited time available
and so cannot work full-time with the Requirement Elicitation Techniques
development team. They may feel that
providing the requirements was enough of a 1. How is brainstorming different from JAD
contribution and so may be reluctant to get ? Brainstorming sessions
involved in the testing process. a) last for about 2-3 hours
b) last for about 2-3 days
6. Programmers prefer programming to c) cover the technology used for the
testing and sometimes they take short cuts development
when writing tests. For example, they may Answer:a
write incomplete tests that do not check for Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or
all possible exceptions that may occur. individual creativity technique by which
a) True efforts are made to find a conclusion for a
b) False specific problem by gathering a list of ideas
Answer:a spontaneously contributed by its
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an
difficult to write incrementally.For example, approved solution ASAP.
in a complex user interface, it is often
difficult to write unit tests for the code that 2. How is throwaway prototype different
implements the ‗display logic‘ and from evolutionary prototype ?
workflow between screens. a) It involves successive steps.
b) It involves just one task.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) The prototype is built with the idea that it the following alphabet is representing an
will eventually be converted into final entirely different meaning to SSM ?
system. a) C – Customer
d) It has a shorter development time. b) A – Actor
Answer:b c) T – Tranformation
Explanation: Except option b all other d) W – World view
options represent the characteristics of an e) O – Owner
evolutionary prototype. f) E – ER Model
Answer:f
3. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind Explanation: ‗E‘ in CATWOE stands for
which of the following is not an example of Environmental constraints.
an Expected Requirement ?
a) Ease of software installation 7. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as
b) Overalll operational correctness and an elicitation technique.
reliability a) It incorporates human element into
c) Specific system functions design.
d) Quality graphical display b) SSM is in its infant stage.
Answer:c c) SSM is suitable for new systems.
Explanation: Expected requirements are so d) Standard methodologies like Role
fundamental that a customer does not Exploration, Issue Resolution and
explicitly state them.System functions Reorganization support SSM.
comes under the category of Normal Answer:b
requirements in QFD which is compulsory Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy.It is
to be defined,hence is not an expected evolving and its industrial usage is low.
requirement.
8. How many phases are there in
4. QFD works best if it has management Brainstorming ?
commitment. a) Two
a) True b) Three
b) False c) Four
Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: QFD involves heavy Explanation: Preparation, Execution and
investment in initial stages, thus bounding Follow up are the three phases to be
the management to provide appropriate achieved for a successful brainstorming
funding for the development process . session.

5. Which of the following Requirement 9. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated

Elicitation Techniques is applicable to Application Specification Techniques)
messy, changing and ill-defined problem meeting ?
situations ? a) System Analyst
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD) b) Scribe
b) Prototyping c) Facilitator
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM) d) Manager
d) Controlled Requirements Expression Answer:c
(CORE) Explanation: A Facilitator (a
Answer:c customer/developer/an outsider) controls the
Explanation: Soft systems methodology FAST meeting.His role is to ensure that the
(SSM) is a systemic approach for tackling meeting is productive.
real-world problematic situations.It is a
common misunderstanding that SSM is a 10. Arrange the steps in order to represent
methodology for dealing solely with ‗soft the conducting of Wideband Delphi
problems‘ (problems which involve Technique.
psychological, social, and cultural i. Conduct a group discussion
elements). SSM does not differentiate ii. Conduct another group discussion
between ‗soft‘ and ‗hard‘ problems, it iii. Present experts with a problem
merely provides a different way of dealing iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
with situations perceived as problematic. v. Iterate until consensus is reached
vi. Feedback a summary of result to each
6. To ensure that a given root definition is expert
rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster a) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
team proposed several criteria that are b) iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of d) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:d and defined to a level of detail sufficient for
Explanation: The sequence represents the system design.
working steps of a Wideband Delphi
technique 6. _________ and _________ are the two
issues of Requirement Analysis.
Requirement Analysis a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
1. Which of the following is not a diagram c) Functional, Non-Functional
studied in Requirement Analysis ? Answer:b
a) Use Cases Explanation: Option a and c are the types of
b) Entity Relationship Diagram requirements and not the issues of
c) State Transition Diagram requirement analysis..
d) Activity Diagram
Answer:d 7. The requirements that result from
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under requirements analysis are typically
the design phase of SDLC. expressed from one of three perspectives or
views.WhaT is that perspective or view ?
2. How many feasibility studies is conducted a) Developer
in Requirement Analysis ? b) User
a) Two c) Non-Functional
b) Three d) Physical
c) Four Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation: The perspectives or views have
Explanation: Economic feasibility been described as the Operational,
(cost/benefit analysis), Technical feasibility Functional, and Physical views.All three are
(hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal necessary and must be coordinated to fully
feasibility studies are done in Requirement understand the customers‘ needs and
Analysis. objectives.

3. How many phases are there in 8. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative

Requirement Analysis ? Process.
a) Three a) True
b) Four b) False
c) Five Answer:a
d) Six Explanation: Requirements analysis is
Answer:c conducted iteratively with functional
Explanation: Problem Recognition, analysis to optimize performance
Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what requirements for identified functions, and to
not how), Modeling, Specification and verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy
Review are the five phases. customer requirements.

4. Traceability is not considered in 9. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______

Requirement Analysis. selection characteristics that should be used
a) True as an analyst considers each potential object
b) False for inclusion in the requirement analysis
Answer:b model.
Explanation: Requirements traceability is a) Three
concerned with documenting the life of a b) Four
requirement and providing bi-directional c) Five
traceability between various associated d) Six
requirements, hence requirements must be Answer:d
traceable. Explanation: Retained information, Needed
services, Multiple attributes, Common
5. Requirements analysis is critical to the attributes, Common operations and Essential
success of a development project. requirements are the six criterion mentioned
a) True by Coad and Yourdon.
b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project 10. Requirements should specify ‗what‘ but
Answer:a not ‗how‘.
Explanation: Requirements must be a) True
actionable, measurable, testable, related to b) False
identified business needs or opportunities, Answer:a
Explanation: ‗What‘ refers to a system‘s

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
purpose, while ‗How‘ refers to a system‘s essentially written by a developer on the
structure and behavior. basis of customer‘ need but in some cases it
may be written by a customer as well.
Requirement Documentation
5. The SRS document is also known as
1. Which of the following property does not _____________ specification.
correspond to a good Software a) black-box
Requirements Specification (SRS) ? b) white-box
a) Verifiable c) grey-box
b) Ambiguous Answer: a
c) Complete Explanation: The system is considered as a
d) Traceable black box whose internal details are not
Answer: b known that is, only its visible external
Explanation: The SRS should be (input/output) behavior is documented.
unambiguous in nature which means each
sentence in SRS should have a unique 6. Which of the following is included in
interpretation. SRS ?
a) Cost
2. Which of the following property of SRS b) Design Constraints
is depicted by the statement : ―Conformity c) Staffing
to a standard is maintained‖ ? d) Delivery Schedule
a) Correct Answer: b
b) Complete Explanation: Design constraints include
c) Consistent standards to be incorporated in the software,
d) Modifiable implementation language, resource limits,
Answer: b operating environment etc.
Explanation: The SRS is complete full
labeling and referencing of all figures, tables 7. Which of the following is not included in
etc. and definition of all terms and units of SRS ?
measure is defined. a) Performance
b) Functionality
3. The SRS is said to be consistent if and c) Design solutions
only if d) External Interfaces
a) its structure and style are such that any Answer: c
changes to the requirements can be made Explanation: The SRS document
easily while retaining the style and structure. concentrates on:‖what needs to be done‖ and
b) every requirement stated therein is one carefully avoids the solution (―how to do‖)
that the software shall meet aspects.
c) every requirement stated therein is
verifiable 8. Arrange the given sequence to form a
d) no subset of individual requirements SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS
described in it conflict with each other Standard.
Answer: d i. General description
Explanation: Real world object may conflict ii. Introduction
with each other for example one requirement iii. Index
says that all lights should be red while the iv. Appendices
other states that all lights should green. v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
4. Which of the following statements about b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
SRS is/are true ? c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
i. SRS is written by customer Answer: c
ii. SRS is written by a developer Explanation: The given sequence correctly
iii. SRS serves as a contract between resemble a standard SRS prototype as per
customer and developer IEEE.
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true 9. Consider the following Statement: ―The
c) All are true output of a program shall be given within
Answer: c 10secs of event X 10% of the time.‖What
Explanation: The SRS acts as a characteristic of SRS is being depicted here
communication media between the ?
Customer, Analyst, system developers, a) Consistent
maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract b) Verifiable
between Purchaser and Supplier. It is c) Non-verifiable

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) Correct software development life cycle or after
Answer: b delivery of the product.
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and
only if, every requirement stated therein is 2. Considering the example of issue/return
verifiable.Here the given condition can be of a book, cataloging etc. in a library
verified during testing phase. management.What type of management
requirement is being depicted here?
10. Consider the following Statement: ―The a) Enduring
data set will contain an end of file b) Volatile
character.‖What characteristic of SRS is Answer: a
being depicted here ? Explanation: For library management
a) Consistent system issue/return of a book, cataloging
b) Non-verifiable etc. are core activities and are stable for any
c) Correct system.
d) Ambiguous
Answer: b 3. Why is Requirements Management
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and Important ? It is due to the changes
only if, every requirement stated therein has a) to the environment
only one unique interpretation. The given b) in technology
statement does not answer the question: c) in customer‘s expectations
―which data set will have an end of file d) in all of the mentioned.
character ?‖. Answer: d
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as
11. Consider the following Statement: ―The the advancement of new products being
product should have a good human launched in the market and so does the
interface.‖What characteristic of SRS is market changes, the technology and in turn
being depicted here ? customer‘s expectation.
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable 4. Requirements Management is a
c) Correct prerequisite for Quality-Oriented
d) Ambiguous Development.
Answer: b a) True
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and b) False
only if, every requirement stated therein is Answer: a
verifiable. The statement can only be Explanation: Quality makes no sense
answered on completion of the software and without reference to requirements, which
customer evaluation but still human means quality-oriented development is
interface will vary from person to person. requirements-driven development, thus
requirements management is a prerequisite
12. Narrative essay is one of the best types for quality-oriented development.
of specification document ?
a) True 5. Requirements traceability is one of the
b) False most important part requirement
Answer:b management. It may also be referred to as
Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the the heart of requirement management.
worst types of specification document as it a) True
is difficult to change, difficult to be precise, b) False
has scope for contradictions, etc. Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability
Requirement Management refers to the ability to describe and follow
the life of a requirement in both forwards
1. Which two requirements are given and backwards direction. Requirements can
priority during Requirement Management of be traced from its origins, through its
a product ? development and specification, to its
a) User and Developer subsequent deployment and use, and through
b) Functional and Non-functional periods of ongoing refinement and iteration
c) Enduring and Volatile in any of these phases.
Answer: c
Explanation: Enduring requirements are core 6. Requirements Management has a high
requirements & are related to main activity initial start-up cost but does not need
of the organization while volatile ongoing funding throughout a project.
requirements are likely to change during a) True
b) False

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer: b 1. What are the types of requirements ?
Explanation: Requirements Management a) Availability
needs continued funding throughout a b) Reliability
project.Project funding is often limited at the c) Usability
onset of a project, restricted to those aspects d) Flexibility
of the project which are tangible and visible, e) All of the mentioned
and subsequently allocated in a phase-by- Answer:e
phase manner. Explanation: All the mentioned traits are
beneficial for an effective product to be
7. Which of the following is not a developed.
Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM 2. Select the developer specific requirement
b) DOORS ?
c) Rational Suite a) Potability
d) RDD 100 b) Maintainability
Answer: c c) Availability
Explanation: Rational Suite is an d) Both a and b
environment tool for requirement Answer:d
management. Explanation: Availability is user specific
requirement.
8. Which of the following is a requirement
management activity ? 3. Which one of the following is not a step
a) Investigation of requirement engineering?
b) Design a) elicitation
c) Construction and Test b) design
d) All of the mentioned c) analysis
Answer: d d) documentation
Explanation: All the options are the Answer:b
activities of requirement management. Explanation: Requirement Elicitation,
Requirement Analysis, Requirement
9. What functionality of Requirement Documentation and Requirement Review
Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the are the four crucial process steps of
statement: ―the tool should be able to requirement engineering.Design is in itself a
automatically detect relations between different phase of Software Engineering.
artifacts. For example information retrieval
techniques, monitoring of change history, 4. FAST stands for
naming schemas or model transformations.‖ a) Functional Application Specification
a) Automatic Link Detection Technique
b) Documentation Support b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Graphical Representation c) Facilitated Application Specification
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change Technique
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that Answer:c
supports Automatic Link Detection.
5. QFD stands for
10. According to a statistical report: ―over a) quality function design
30% of all software projects are cancelled b) quality function development
before completion and over 70% of the c) quality function deployment
remainder fail to deliver expected features‖. d) none of the mentioned
What must be the reason for such a situation Answer:c
?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management 6. A Use-case actor is always a person
c) Poor quality control having a role that different people may play.
d) All of the mentioned a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem
mentioned in the statistical report is poor
requirements management. Option a and c Answer:b
are its sub parts. Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that
needs to interact with the system, be it a
person or another (external) system.
Requirement Engineering

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
7. The user system requirements are the system. Functional requirements describe
parts of which document ? what the software has to do.
a) SDD
b) SRS 2. Which one of the following is a
c) DDD requirement that fits in a developer‘s module
Answer:b ?
Explanation: Software requirements a) Availability
specification (SRS), is a complete b) Testability
description of the behaviour of a system to c) Usability
be developed and may include a set of use d) Flexibility
cases that describe interactions the users will Answer:b
have with the software. Explanation: A developer needs to test his
product before launching it into the market.
8. A stakeholder is anyone who will
purchase the completed software system 3. ―Consider a system where, a heat sensor
under development. detects an intrusion and alerts the security
a) True company.‖ What kind of a requirement the
b) False system is providing ?
Answer:b a) Functional
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who b) Non-Functional
has an interest in the project. Project c) Known Requirement
stakeholders are individuals and Answer:a
organizations that are actively involved in Explanation: Functional requirements
the project, or whose interests may be describe what the software has to do.
affected as a result of project execution or
project completion. 4. Which of the following statements
explains portabililty in non-functional
9. Conflicting requirements are common in requirements?
Requirement Engineering, with each client a) It is a degree to which software running
proposing his or her version is the right one. on one platform can easily be converted to
a) True run on another platform.
b) False b) It can be enhanced by using languages,
Answer:a OS‘ and tools that are universally available
Explanation: This situation is seen in every and standardized.
field of work as each professional has c) The ability of the system to behave
his/her way of looking onto things & would consistently in a user-acceptable manner
argue to get his/her point approved. when operating within the environment for
which the system was intended.
10. Which is one of the most important d) Both a and b
stakeholder from the following ? e) It refers to the level at which a software
a) Entry level personnel system uses scarce computational resources,
b) Middle level stakeholder such as CPU cycles, memory, disk space,
c) Managers buffers and communication channels.
d) Users of the software Answer:d
Answer:d Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability
Explanation: Users are always the most and option e refers to efficiency.
important stakeholders.After all, without
users or customers, what‘s the point of being 5. Functional requirements capture the
in business?. intended behavior of the system.
a) True
Functional and Non-Functional b) False
Requirements Answer:a
Explanation: The behavior of functional
1. Which one of the following is a functional requirements may be expressed as services,
requirement ? tasks or functions the system is required to
a) Maintainability perform.
b) Portability
c) Robustness 6. Choose the incorrect statement with
d) Testability respect to Non-Functional
e) None of the mentioned Requirement(NFR).
Answer:e a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on
Explanation: All are non-functional system (or software) quality
requirements representing quality of the b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
how NFRs can be used in the design process in the environment.
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable Answer:b
scales for the functionality attributes Explanation: System response to a local user
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various is 2 seconds on average.
relationships between quality goals
Answer:c Requirement Elicitation
Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in
NFRs are used to find measurable scales for 1. What is the first step of requirement
the quality attributes like efficiency, elicitation ?
flexibility, integrity, usability etc. a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
7. How many classification schemes have c) Requirements Gathering
been developed for NFRs ? Answer:a
a) Two Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who
b) Three will invest in and use the product, so its
c) Four essential to chalk out stake holders first.
d) Five
Answer:d 2. Starting from least to most important,
Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm choose the order of stakeholder.
1976], Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], i. Managers
Process-Product-External considerations ii. Entry level Personnel
[Sommerville 1992], Mc Call‘s NFR list and iii. Users
Dimensions of Quality–Components of iv. Middle level stakeholder
FURPS+ are the five classification schemes a) i, ii, iv, iii
for NFRs. b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv, i, iii
8. According to components of FURPS+, Answer:c
which of the following does not belong to S Explanation: Users are your customers, they
? will be using your product, thus making
a) Testability them most important of all.
b) Speed Efficiency
c) Serviceability 3. Arrange the tasks involved in
d) Installability requirements elicitation in an appropriate
Answer:b manner.
Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to i. Consolidation
Performance (P) in FURPS+ . ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
9. Does software wear & tear by iv. Evaluation
decomposition ? a) iii, i, ii, iv
a) Yes b) iii, iv, ii, i
b) No Answer:b c) iii, ii, iv, i
Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is d) ii, iii, iv, i
reliable. Answer:b
Explanation: Requirements gathering
10. What are the four dimensions of captures viewpoint from different users
Dependability ? followed by evaluation of those view
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility points.Now comes the task of checking the
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, relative importance of the requirements and
Security finally to consolidate or bind together the
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety information collected.
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
Answer:c 4. What are the types of requirement in
Explanation: All the traits of option c sync Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
with dependability. a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
11. Choose the correct statement on how c) Functional, Non-Functional
NFRs integrates with Rational Unified d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
Process ? Answer:d
a) System responds within 4 seconds on Explanation: According to QFD, Normal,
average to local user requests and changes in Expected and Exciting requirements
the environment. maximizes customer satisfaction from the
b) System responds within 4 seconds on Software Engineering Process.
average to remote user requests and changes

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
5. What kind of approach was introduced for 9. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic
elicitation and modelling to give a functional process
view of the system ? a) True
a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch) b) False
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson) Answer:a
c) Fusion (by Coleman) Explanation: Requirements traceability
d) Object Modeling Technique (by provides bi-directional traceability between
Rambaugh) various associated requirements.

Answer:b 10. How many Scenarios are there in

Explanation: Use Case captures who does elicitation activities ?
what with the system, for what purpose, a) One
without dealing with system internals. b) Two
6. What are the kinds of actors used in c) Three
OOSE ? d) Four
a) Primary Answer:d
b) Secondary Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary
c) Ternary Scenario, Evaluation Scenario and Training
d) Both a and b Scenario are the four scenarios in
Answer:d requirement elicitation activities.
Explanation: A primary actor is one having
a goal requiring the assistance of the system Requirement Elicitation Techniques
whereas, a secondary actor is one from
which system needs assistance.There is no 1. Which of the following elicitation
such thing as ternary actor in Software techniques is a view-point based method ?
Engineering. a) FODA
b) QFD
7. Why is Requirements Elicitation a c) CORE
difficult task ? d) IBIS
a) Problem of scope Answer:c
b) Problem of understanding Explanation: Controlled Requirements
c) Problem of volatility Expression(CORE) says that any system can
d) All of the mentioned be viewed from a number of view points and
Answer:d that a complete picture of system
Explanation: Users specify unnecessary requirements can only emerge by putting
technical detail that may confuse, rather than together the various viewpoints.
clarify overall system objectives.Also, the
customers/users are not completely sure of 2. ___________ and ____________ are the
what is needed, have a poor understanding two view points discussed in Controlled
of the capabilities and limitations of their Requirements Expression (CORE).
computing environment and they do not a) Functional, Non-Functional
understand that the requirements change b) User, Developer
over time. c) Known, Unknown
Answer:a
8. What requirement gathering method Explanation: The CORE sessions includes
developed at IBM in 1970s is used for the discussion of functional and non-
managing requirement elicitation ? functional requirements.
a) JAD
b) Traceablity 3. What is the major drawback of CORE ?
c) FAST a) Requirements are comprehensive
d) Both a and b b) NFRs are not given enough importance
Answer:d c) Role of analyst is passive
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) Answer:c
is a process used to collect business Explanation: In CORE the requirement
requirements while developing new specification are put together by all users,
information systems for a customers and analysts, so a passive analyst
company.Requirements traceability is will not get the requirements properly.
concerned with documenting the life of a
requirement and providing bi-directional 4. Choose a framework that corresponds to
traceability between various associated Issue Based Information System (IBIS).
requirements. a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
c) Issue -> Position -> Justification

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) Both b and c b) Tester
e) Both a and c c) Scribe
Answer:d d) Sponsor
Explanation: IBIS is a simple and non- Answer:b
intrusive method that provides a framework Explanation: A Tester‘s role is seen in after
for resolving issues and gathering coding phase rather than in elicitation phase.
requirements.
10. What of the following is not an output of
5. How is CORE different from IBIS ? a JAD session ?
a) Iterative in nature a) Context Diagrams
b) Redundancies are removed b) DFDs
c) It is simple and an easier method to use c) ER model
d) Consistency problems are addressed in d) UML diagrams
CORE Answer:d
Answer:d Explanation: Unified Modeling Language
Explanation: Preliminary data collection is (UML) diagrams are constructed during the
done in CORE to get some broad level data design phase of the SDLC.
on each view point to structure the view
point and to check consistency from within Requirement Elicitation Techniques
and outside the viewpoints. 1. How is brainstorming different from JAD
? Brainstorming sessions
6. Which of the following Requirement a) last for about 2-3 hours
Elicitation Techniques removes the poor b) last for about 2-3 days
understanding of application domain and c) cover the technology used for the
lack of common terminology between the development
users and the analysts ?
a) FODA Answer:a
b) CORE Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or
c) IBIS individual creativity technique by which
d) Prototyping efforts are made to find a conclusion for a
Answer:a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas
Explanation: Feature Oriented Domain spontaneously contributed by its
Analysis (FODA) is defined as the process member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an
of identifying, collecting, organizing and approved solution ASAP.
representing relevant information in a
domain . 2. How is throwaway prototype different
from evolutionary prototype ?
7. How many steps are involved in Feature a) It involves successive steps.
Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ? b) It involves just one task.
a) Two c) The prototype is built with the idea that it
b) Three will eventually be converted into final
c) Four system.
d) Five d) It has a shorter development time.
Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation: Context Analysis, Domain Explanation: Except option b all other
Modeling and Architecture Modeling are the options represent the characteristics of an
three steps involved in Feature Oriented evolutionary prototype.
Domain Analysis (FODA).
3. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind
8. IBIS is a more structured approach than which of the following is not an example of
CORE. an Expected Requirement ?
a) True a) Ease of software installation
b) False b) Overalll operational correctness and
Answer:a reliability
Explanation: IBIS is a more structured c) Specific system functions
approach as it captures information which is d) Quality graphical display
consistent and important.On the other hand Answer:c
CORE gives importance to every view point Explanation: Expected requirements are so
even if it is obsolete. fundamental that a customer does not
explicitly state them.System functions
9. Which one of the following is not an actor comes under the category of Normal
in JAD sessions ? requirements in QFD which is compulsory
a) User

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
to be defined,hence is not an expected Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy.It is
requirement. evolving and its industrial usage is low.

4. QFD works best if it has management 8. How many phases are there in
commitment. Brainstorming ?
a) True a) Two
b) False b) Three
Answer:a c) Four
Explanation: QFD involves heavy Answer:b
investment in initial stages, thus bounding Explanation: Preparation, Execution and
the management to provide appropriate Follow up are the three phases to be
funding for the development process . achieved for a successful brainstorming
session.
5. Which of the following Requirement
Elicitation Techniques is applicable to 9. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated
messy, changing and ill-defined problem Application Specification Techniques)
situations ? meeting ?
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD) a) System Analyst
b) Prototyping b) Scribe
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM) c) Facilitator
d) Controlled Requirements Expression d) Manager
(CORE) Answer:c
Answer:c Explanation: A Facilitator (a
Explanation: Soft systems methodology customer/developer/an outsider) controls the
(SSM) is a systemic approach for tackling FAST meeting.His role is to ensure that the
real-world problematic situations.It is a meeting is productive.
common misunderstanding that SSM is a
methodology for dealing solely with ‗soft 10. Arrange the steps in order to represent
problems‘ (problems which involve the conducting of Wideband Delphi
psychological, social, and cultural Technique.
elements). SSM does not differentiate i. Conduct a group discussion
between ‗soft‘ and ‗hard‘ problems, it ii. Conduct another group discussion
merely provides a different way of dealing iii. Present experts with a problem
with situations perceived as problematic. iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
v. Iterate until consensus is reached
6. To ensure that a given root definition is vi. Feedback a summary of result to each
rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster expert
team proposed several criteria that are a) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in b) iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
the following alphabet is representing an d) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v
entirely different meaning to SSM ? Answer:d
a) C – Customer Explanation: The sequence represents the
b) A – Actor working steps of a Wideband Delphi
c) T – Tranformation technique
d) W – World view
e) O – Owner Requirement Analysis
f) E – ER Model 1. Which of the following is not a diagram
Answer:f studied in Requirement Analysis ?
Explanation: ‗E‘ in CATWOE stands for a) Use Cases
Environmental constraints. b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
7. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as d) Activity Diagram
an elicitation technique. Answer:d
a) It incorporates human element into Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under
design. the design phase of SDLC.
b) SSM is in its infant stage.
c) SSM is suitable for new systems. 2. How many feasibility studies is conducted
d) Standard methodologies like Role in Requirement Analysis ?
Exploration, Issue Resolution and a) Two
Reorganization support SSM. b) Three
Answer:b c) Four
Answer:b

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: Economic feasibility Functional, and Physical views.All three are
(cost/benefit analysis), Technical feasibility necessary and must be coordinated to fully
(hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal understand the customers‘ needs and
feasibility studies are done in Requirement objectives.
Analysis.
8. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative
3. How many phases are there in Process.
Requirement Analysis ? a) True
a) Three b) False
b) Four Answer:a
c) Five Explanation: Requirements analysis is
d) Six conducted iteratively with functional
Answer:c analysis to optimize performance
Explanation: Problem Recognition, requirements for identified functions, and to
Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy
not how), Modeling, Specification and customer requirements.
Review are the five phases.
9. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______
4. Traceability is not considered in selection characteristics that should be used
Requirement Analysis. as an analyst considers each potential object
a) True for inclusion in the requirement analysis
b) False model.
Answer:b a) Three
Explanation: Requirements traceability is b) Four
concerned with documenting the life of a c) Five
requirement and providing bi-directional d) Six
traceability between various associated Answer:d
requirements, hence requirements must be Explanation: Retained information, Needed
traceable. services, Multiple attributes, Common
attributes, Common operations and Essential
5. Requirements analysis is critical to the requirements are the six criterion mentioned
success of a development project. by Coad and Yourdon.
a) True
b) False 10. Requirements should specify ‗what‘ but
c) Depends upon the size of project not ‗how‘.
Answer:a a) True
Explanation: Requirements must be b) False
actionable, measurable, testable, related to Answer:a
identified business needs or opportunities, Explanation: ‗What‘ refers to a system‘s
and defined to a level of detail sufficient for purpose, while ‗How‘ refers to a system‘s
system design. structure and behavior.

6. _________ and _________ are the two Requirement Documentation

issues of Requirement Analysis. 1. Which of the following property does not
a) Performance, Design correspond to a good Software
b) Stakeholder, Developer Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
c) Functional, Non-Functional a) Verifiable
Answer:b b) Ambiguous
Explanation: Option a and c are the types of c) Complete
requirements and not the issues of d) Traceable
requirement analysis.. Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS should be
7. The requirements that result from unambiguous in nature which means each
requirements analysis are typically sentence in SRS should have a unique
expressed from one of three perspectives or interpretation.
views.WhaT is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer 2. Which of the following property of SRS
b) User is depicted by the statement : ―Conformity
c) Non-Functional to a standard is maintained‖ ?
d) Physical a) Correct
Answer:d b) Complete
Explanation: The perspectives or views have c) Consistent
been described as the Operational, d) Modifiable

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer: b implementation language, resource limits,
Explanation: The SRS is complete full operating environment etc.
labeling and referencing of all figures, tables
etc. and definition of all terms and units of 7. Which of the following is not included in
measure is defined. SRS ?
a) Performance
3. The SRS is said to be consistent if and b) Functionality
only if c) Design solutions
a) its structure and style are such that any d) External Interfaces
changes to the requirements can be made Answer: c
easily while retaining the style and structure. Explanation: The SRS document
b) every requirement stated therein is one concentrates on:‖what needs to be done‖ and
that the software shall meet carefully avoids the solution (―how to do‖)
c) every requirement stated therein is aspects.
verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements 8. Arrange the given sequence to form a
described in it conflict with each other SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS
Answer: d Standard.
Explanation: Real world object may conflict i. General description
with each other for example one requirement ii. Introduction
says that all lights should be red while the iii. Index
other states that all lights should green. iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
4. Which of the following statements about a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
SRS is/are true ? b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
i. SRS is written by customer c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
ii. SRS is written by a developer Answer: c
iii. SRS serves as a contract between Explanation: The given sequence correctly
customer and developer resemble a standard SRS prototype as per
a) Only i is true IEEE.
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true 9. Consider the following Statement: ―The
Answer: c output of a program shall be given within
Explanation: The SRS acts as a 10secs of event X 10% of the time.‖What
communication media between the characteristic of SRS is being depicted here
Customer, Analyst, system developers, ?
maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract a) Consistent
between Purchaser and Supplier. It is b) Verifiable
essentially written by a developer on the c) Non-verifiable
basis of customer‘ need but in some cases it d) Correct
may be written by a customer as well. Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and
5. The SRS document is also known as only if, every requirement stated therein is
_____________ specification. verifiable.Here the given condition can be
a) black-box verified during testing phase.
b) white-box
c) grey-box 10. Consider the following Statement: ―The
Answer: a data set will contain an end of file
Explanation: The system is considered as a character.‖What characteristic of SRS is
black box whose internal details are not being depicted here ?
known that is, only its visible external a) Consistent
(input/output) behavior is documented. b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
6. Which of the following is included in d) Ambiguous
SRS ? Answer: b
a) Cost Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and
b) Design Constraints only if, every requirement stated therein has
c) Staffing only one unique interpretation. The given
d) Delivery Schedule statement does not answer the question:
Answer: b ―which data set will have an end of file
Explanation: Design constraints include character ?‖.
standards to be incorporated in the software,

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
11. Consider the following Statement: ―The market changes, the technology and in turn
product should have a good human customer‘s expectation.
interface.‖What characteristic of SRS is
being depicted here ? 4. Requirements Management is a
a) Consistent prerequisite for Quality-Oriented
b) Non-Verifiable Development.
c) Correct a) True
d) Ambiguous b) False
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and Explanation: Quality makes no sense
only if, every requirement stated therein is without reference to requirements, which
verifiable. The statement can only be means quality-oriented development is
answered on completion of the software and requirements-driven development, thus
customer evaluation but still human requirements management is a prerequisite
interface will vary from person to person. for quality-oriented development.

12. Narrative essay is one of the best types 5. Requirements traceability is one of the
of specification document ? most important part requirement
a) True management. It may also be referred to as
b) False the heart of requirement management.
Answer:b a) True
Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the b) False
worst types of specification document as it Answer: a
is difficult to change, difficult to be precise, Explanation: Requirements traceability
has scope for contradictions, etc. refers to the ability to describe and follow
the life of a requirement in both forwards
Requirement Management and backwards direction. Requirements can
1. Which two requirements are given be traced from its origins, through its
priority during Requirement Management of development and specification, to its
a product ? subsequent deployment and use, and through
a) User and Developer periods of ongoing refinement and iteration
b) Functional and Non-functional in any of these phases.
c) Enduring and Volatile
Answer: c 6. Requirements Management has a high
Explanation: Enduring requirements are core initial start-up cost but does not need
requirements & are related to main activity ongoing funding throughout a project.
of the organization while volatile a) True
requirements are likely to change during b) False
software development life cycle or after Answer: b
delivery of the product. Explanation: Requirements Management
needs continued funding throughout a
2. Considering the example of issue/return project.Project funding is often limited at the
of a book, cataloging etc. in a library onset of a project, restricted to those aspects
management.What type of management of the project which are tangible and visible,
requirement is being depicted here? and subsequently allocated in a phase-by-
a) Enduring phase manner.
b) Volatile
Answer: a 7. Which of the following is not a
Explanation: For library management Requirement Management workbench tool ?
system issue/return of a book, cataloging a) RTM
etc. are core activities and are stable for any b) DOORS
system. c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
3. Why is Requirements Management Answer: c
Important ? It is due to the changes Explanation: Rational Suite is an
a) to the environment environment tool for requirement
b) in technology management.
c) in customer‘s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned. 8. Which of the following is a requirement
Answer: d management activity ?
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as a) Investigation
the advancement of new products being b) Design
launched in the market and so does the c) Construction and Test

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
d) All of the mentioned describe the dynamic behavior of an
Answer: d executing system. This can be modeled from
Explanation: All the options are the the perspective of the data processed by the
activities of requirement management. system or by the events that stimulate
responses from a system.
9. What functionality of Requirement
Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the 3. Which model in system modelling depicts
statement: ―the tool should be able to the static nature of the system ?
automatically detect relations between a) Behavioral Model
artifacts. For example information retrieval b) Context Model
techniques, monitoring of change history, c) Data Model
naming schemas or model transformations.‖ d) Structural Model
a) Automatic Link Detection Answer:d
b) Documentation Support Explanation: Structural models show the
c) Graphical Representation organization and architecture of a system.
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change These are used to define the static structure
Answer: a of classes in a system and their associations.
Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that
supports Automatic Link Detection. 4. Which perspective in system modelling
shows the system or data architecture.
10. According to a statistical report: ―over a) Structural perspective
30% of all software projects are cancelled b) Behavioral perspective
before completion and over 70% of the c) External perspective
remainder fail to deliver expected features‖. Answer:a
What must be the reason for such a situation Explanation: Structural perspective is used
? to define the static structure of classes in a
a) Poor change management system and their associations.
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control 5. Which system model is being depicted by
d) All of the mentioned the ATM operations shown below:
Answer: b
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem
mentioned in the statistical report is poor
requirements management. Option a and c
are its sub parts.

System Modeling a) Structural model

b) Context model
1. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) c) Behavioral model
has become an effective standard for d) Interaction model
software modelling.How many different Answer:b
notaions does it have ? Explanation: Context models are used to
a) Three illustrate the operational context of a
b) Four system.They show what lies outside the
c) Six system boundaries.
d) Nine
Answer:d 6. Activity diagrams are used to model the
Explanation: The different notations of processing of data.
UML includes the nine UML diagrams a) True
namely class, object, sequence, b) False
collaboration, activity, state-chart, Answer:a
component, deployment and use case Explanation: The statement mentioned is
diagrams. true and each activity represents one process
step.
2. Which model in system modelling depicts
the dynamic behaviour of the system ? 7. Model-driven engineering is just a
a) Context Model theoretical concept. It cannot be converted
b) Behavioral Model into a working/executable code.
c) Data Model a) True
d) Object Model b) False
Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
approach to software development in which components, although external agents may
a system is represented as a set of models also be included.
that can be automatically transformed to
executable code. 5. Which level of Entity Relationship
Diagram (ERD) models all entities and
8. The UML supports event-based modeling relationships ?
using ____________ diagrams. a) Level 1
a) Deployment b) Level 2
b) Collaboration c) Level 3
c) State chart Answer:b
Answer: Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data
Explanation: State diagrams show system objects (entities) and their ―connections‖ to
states and events that cause transitions from one another while Level 3 ERD models all
one state to another. entities, relationships, and the attributes that
provide further depth. Thus option b is
1. Which of the following diagram is not correct.
supported by UML considering Data-driven
modeling ? 6. ___________ classes are used to create
a) Activity the interface that the user sees and interacts
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD) with as the software is used.
c) State Chart a) Controller
d) Component b) Entity
Answer:b c) Boundary
Explanation: DFDs focus on system d) Business
functions and do not recognize system Answer:c
objects. Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.

2. _________________ allows us to infer 7. Which of the following statement is

that different members of classes have some incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-
common characteristics. collaborator (CRC) modeling ?
a) Realization a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding
b) Aggregation use-case diagrams) are organized into
c) Generalization categories in CRC modelling
d) dependency b) The review leader reads the use-case
Answer:c deliberately.
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday c) Only developers in the review (of the
technique that we use to manage CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC
complexity.This means that common model index cards
information will be maintained in one place Answer:c
only. Explanation: All participants in the review
(of the CRC model) are given a subset of the
3. One creates Behavioral models of a CRC model index cards.
system when you are discussing and
designing the system architecture. 8. A data object can encapsulates processes
a) True and operation as well.
b) False a) True
Answer:b b) False
Explanation: Structural models of software Answer:b
display the organization of a system in terms Explanation: A data object encapsulates data
of the components that make up that system only. There is no reference within a data
and their relationships. object to operations that act on the data.

4. ______________ & ______________

diagrams of UML represent Interaction Software Evolution
modeling.
a) Use Case, Sequence 1. The two dimensions of spiral model are
b) Class, Object a) diagonal, angular
c) Activity, State Chart b) radial, perpendicular
Answer:a c) radial, angular
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly d) diagonal, perpendicular
used to model interactions between a system Answer:c
and external actors.Sequence diagrams are Explanation: The radial dimension depicts
used to model interactions between system the cumulative costs and the angular

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
dimension depicts the progress made in 6. Software evolution does not comprises:
completing each cycle. Each loop of the a) Development activities
spiral model represents a phase. b) Negotiating with client
c) Maintenance activities
2. The Incremental Model is combination of d) Re-engineering activities
elements of Answer:b
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model Explanation: Software evolution refers to
b) Linear Model & RAD Model the study and management of the process of
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model making changes to software over time. Thus
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model it comprises rest three options.
Answer:c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces 7. Processes for evolving a software product
a deliverable ―increment‖ of the software depend on:
system, particularly needed in case of quick a) Type of software to be maintained.
delivery of a limited functionality system.. b) Development processes used.
c) Skills and experience of the people
3. Model preferred to create client/server involved.
applications is d) All the mentioned
a) WINWIN Spiral Model Answer:d
b) Spiral Model Explanation: Processes used for software
c) Concurrent Model evolution depend on all these factors.
d) Incremental Model
Answer:c 8. Which technique is applied to ensure the
Explanation: In case of client/server continued evolution of legacy systems ?
applications, the concurrent process model a) Forward engineering
specifies activities in two dimensions: a b) Reverse Engineering
system dimension and a component c) Reengineering.
dimension. Hence Concurrency is achieved d) b and c
by these two activities occurring Answer:d
simultaneously and can be modeled using Explanation: Processes used for software
the state-oriented approach. evolution depend rely on these two
techniques.
4. Identify the correct statement with respect
to Evolutionary development: 9. Program modularization and Source code
a) Evolutionary development usually has translation are the activities
two flavors; exploratory development, and of_____________.
throw-away prototyping. a) Forward engineering
b) Very large projects are usually done using b) Reverse Engineering
evolutionary development based approach. c) Reengineering.
c) It facilitates easy project management, d) b and c
through the high volume of documentation it Answer:c
generates. Explanation: Reengineering is the
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw- examination and alteration of a subject
away prototype is not followed by a re- system to reconstitute it in a new form and
implementation of the software system using the subsequent implementation of the new
a more structured approach. form.
Answer:a
Explanation: Evolutionary development 10. Reverse engineering is the last activity in
usually has two flavors; exploratory a reengineering project.
development, and a) True
throw-away prototyping. b) False
Answer:b
5.Spiral model was developed by Explanation: Reverse engineering is often
a) Victor Bisili the initial activity in a reengineering project.
b) Berry Boehm
c) Bev Littlewood 11. The cost of re-engineering is often
d) Roger Pressman significantly less than the costs of
Answer:b developing new software.
Explanation: Berry Boehm in 1986 in his a) True
Article ―A spiral model of software b) False
development and enhancement‖. Answer:a
Explanation: There is a high risk in new
software development. There may be

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
development problems, staffing problems Explanation: The volume of a system (the
and specification problems, thereby total space occupied) varies depending on
increasing the cost. how the component assemblies are arranged
and connected.

Sociotechnical Systems 5. Which property of a sociotechnical

system depends on the technical system
1. A sociotechnical system is a system that components, its operators, and its operating
includes environment?
a) people a) security
b) software b) usability
c) hardware c) volume
d) all of the mentioned d) reliability
Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation: A sociotechnical system is a Explanation: Usability reflects how easy it is
system that includes people, software, and to use the system.
hardware to show that you need to take a
systems perspective on security and 6. In a sociotechnical system, you need to
dependability. consider reliability from perspectives
namely:
2. Which layer is missing in the a) only software reliability
sociotechnical system stack as shown below: b) only hardware reliability
c) hardware and software reliability
d) hardware, software and operator
reliability
Answer:d
Explanation: In a sociotechnical system, you
need to consider reliability from all three
perspectives.

a) organizational layer 7. There are ________ overlapping stages in

b) application layer the lifetime of large and complex
c) physical layer sociotechnical systems.
d) transport layer a) two
Answer:b b) three
Explanation: The application layer This c) four
layer delivers the application-specific d) five
functionality Answer:b
that is required. Explanation: The stages are Procurement,
Development and Operation.
3. Consider an example of a system which
has a police command and control system 8. Sociotechnical systems are deterministic.
that may include a geographical information a) True
system to provide details of the location of b) False
incidents. What kind of system the example Answer:b
represents? Explanation: Sociotechnical systems are
a) Complex System non-deterministic partly because they
b) Technical computer-based system include people and partly because changes
c) Sociotechnical System to the hardware, software, and data in these
d) Both a and c systems are so frequent
Answer:d
Explanation: Complex systems are usually 9. What are the two ways to view the human
hierarchical and so include other systems. error of a sociotechnical system?
a) hardware and software approach
4. Which property of a sociotechnical b) management and users approach
system varies depending on how the c) person and systems approach
component assemblies are arranged and Answer:c
connected?
a) security
b) usability 10. Human and organizational factors such
c) volume as organizational structure and politics have
d) reliability a significant effect on the operation of
Answer:c sociotechnical systems.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) True 6. An assessment of the worst possible
b) False damage that could result from a particular
Answer:a hazard is known as
Explanation: As people are a part of the a) Risk
system, hence they affect the sociotechnical b) Hazard probability
system. c) Hazard severity
d) Mishap
Answer:c
Dependability and Security Explanation: Hazard severity can range from
catastrophic, where many people are killed,
1. A characteristic of a software system that to minor, where only minor damage results.
can lead to a system error is known as? When an individual death is a possibility, a
a) Human error or mistake reasonable assessment of hazard severity is
b) System fault ‗very high‘.
c) System error
d) System failure 7. which of the following terms is a measure
Answer:b of the probability that the system will cause
an accident?
2. An erroneous system state that can lead to a) Risk
system behavior that is unexpected by b) Hazard probability
system users is known as? c) Accident
a) Human error or mistake d) Damage
b) System fault Answer:a
c) System error Explanation: The risk is assessed by
d) System failure considering the hazard probability, the
Answer:c hazard severity, and the probability that the
hazard will lead to an accident.
3. An event that occurs at some point in time
when the system does not deliver a service 8. A weakness in a computer-based system
as expected by its users is called that may be exploited to cause loss or harm
_____________. is known as?
a) Human error or mistake a) Vulnerability
b) System fault b) Attack
c) System error c) Threat
d) System failure d) Exposure
Answer:d Answer:a

4. A chemical plant system may detect 9. A password checking system that

excessive pressure and open a relief valve to disallows user passwords that are proper
reduce these pressures before an explosion names or words that are normally included
occurs. What kind of dependability and in a dictionary is an example of
security issue the example states? ___________ with respect to security
a) Hazard avoidance systems.
b) Damage limitation a) risk
c) Hazard detection b) control
d) Hazard detection and removal c) attack
Answer:d b) asset
Explanation: The system is designed so that Answer:b
hazards are detected and removed before Explanation: A control protective measure
they result in an accident. that reduces a system‘s vulnerability.

5. An aircraft engine normally includes 10. The safety of a system is a system

automatic fire extinguishers.What kind of attribute that reflects the system‘s ability to
dependability and security issue the example operate, normally or abnormally, without
states? injury to people or damage to the
a) Hazard avoidance environment.
b) Damage limitation a) True
c) Hazard detection b) False
d) Hazard detection and removal Answer:a
Answer:b
Explanation: The system may include
protection features that minimize the
damage that may result from an accident.

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Dependability and Security Specification d) Ambiguous requirements
Answer:d
1. How many stages are there in Risk-driven Explanation: All the options are correct
requirements specification? except option d.
a) three
b) four 7. To specify security requirements, one
c) five should identify the risks that are to be dealt
d) six with.
Answer:b a) True
Explanation: These include Risk b) False
identification, Risk analysis, Risk reduction Answer:b
and Risk decomposition Explanation: To specify security
requirements, one should identify the assets
2. Consider a case where the system is that are to be dealt with.
unavailable and cannot deliver its services to
users. What type of failure is being 8. The aim of preliminary risk analysis and
described here? assessment process is to derive security
a) Loss of service requirements for the system as a whole.
b) Incorrect service delivery a) True
c) System/data corruption b) False
Answer:a Answer:a
Explanation: One may separate this into loss Explanation: In preliminary risk analysis
of critical services and loss of non-critical stage, decisions on the detailed system
services, where the consequences of a requirements, the system design, or the
failure in non-critical services are less than implementation technology have not been
the consequences of critical service failure. made.

3. Consider a case where the failure of the 9. At which stage of risk analysis
system causes damage to the system itself or specification, the additional security
it data. What type of failure is being requirements take account of the
described here? technologies used in building the system and
a) Loss of service system design and implementation
b) Incorrect service delivery decisions?
c) System/data corruption a) Preliminary risk analysis
Answer:c b) Life-cycle risk analysis
c) Operational risk analysis
Answer:b
4. POFOD stands for Explanation: This risk assessment takes
a) Possibility of failure of data place during the system development life
b) Probability of failure of data cycle after design choices have been made..
c) Possibility of failure on demand
d) Probability of failure on demand 10. Which reliability requirements are
Answer:d concerned with maintaining copies of the
system?
5. Which reliability metric sets out the a) Checking requirements
probable number of system failures that are b) Recovery requirements
likely to be observed relative to a certain c) Redundancy requirements
time period? d) Ambiguous requirements
a) POFOD Answer:b
b) ROCOF Explanation: These requirements are geared
c) AVAIL to helping the system recover after a failure
d) None of the mentioned has occurred.
Answer:b
Explanation: Rate of occurrence of failures
(ROCOF) sets out the probable number of Dependability Engineering
system failures that are likely to be observed
relative to the number of system executions. 1. Which of the following examples does not
involve dependability engineering ?
6. Which of the following is not a functional a) Medical Systems
reliability requirement for a system? b) Power Systems
a) Checking requirements c) Library Management
b) Recovery requirements d) Telecommunications
c) Redundancy requirements Answer:c

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: Software customers expect all 7. Which of the following is a Strategy to
software to be dependable. However, for achieve Software diversity ?
non-critical applications such as certain a) Different programming languages
management systems, they may be willing b) Different design methods and tools
to accept some system failures. c) Explicit specification of different
algorithms
2. What is the term for development process d) All of the mentioned
organised such that faults in the system are Answer:d
detected and repaired before delivery to the Explanation: Diversity means to provide the
customer ? same functionality in different ways so that
a) Fault Avoidance critical components of a dependable system
b) Fault detection will not fail in the same way.
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned 8. Exception handling is a mechanism to
Answer:a provide some fault avoidance.
Explanation: In Fault Avoidance, the system a) True
is developed in such a way that human error b) False
is avoided and thus system faults are Answer:b
minimised. Explanation: Exception handling is a
mechanism to provide some fault tolerance.
3. What is the term for a system that is
designed such that the faults in the delivered 9. Which of the following is a bad practice
software do not result in system failure ? of Dependable programming ?
a) Fault Avoidance a) Limit the visibility of information in a
b) Fault detection program
c) Fault tolerance b) Check array bounds
Answer:c c) Check all inputs for validity
d) None of the mentioned
4. Which process characteristic with respect Answer:d
to Dependability Engineering is mentioned Explanation: All the options are good
by the statement: ―The process should be practices to achieve Dependability
understandable by people apart from process Engineering.
participants‖ ?
a) Diverse 10. What is a Range check?
b) Documentable a) Check that the input does not exceed
c) Auditable some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a
Answer:c name
Explanation: It means that process standards b) Check that the input falls within a known
are being followed and make suggestions for range
process improvement. c) Use information about the input to check
if it is reasonable rather than an extreme
5. Which of the following is not a Protection value
system ? Answer:b
a) System to stop a train if it passes a red Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
light
b) System to indicate not returning of the
library book Security Engineering
c) System to shut down a reactor if
temperature/pressure are too high 1. Which of the following is a layer of
Answer:b protection for Security ?
Explanation: A Protection system is a a) Platform-level protection
specialized system that is associated with b) Application-level protection
some other control system, which can take c) Record-level protection
emergency action if a failure occurs. d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
6. The use of a well-defined, repeatable
process is essential if faults in a system are 2. Security engineering is only concerned
to be minimized. with maintenance of systems such that they
a) True can resist malicious attacks.
b) False a) True
Answer:a b) False
Answer:b
Explanation: Security engineering is

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
concerned with maintenance as well as 9. The records of each patient that is
development of such systems. receiving or has received treatment
resembles which security concept
3. What are security controls ? a) Asset
a) Controls that are intended to ensure that b) Threat
attacks are unsuccessful. c) Vulnerability
b) Controls that are intended to detect and d) Control
repel attacks. Answer:a
c) Controls that are intended to support Explanation: Asset is a system resource that
recovery from problems. has a value and has to be protected.
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d 10. Circumstances that have potential to
Explanation: All the options define a cause loss or harm is known as
security control property. a) Attack
b) Threat
4. Controls that are intended to repel attacks c) Vulnerability
is analogous to ____________ in d) Control
dependability engineering. Answer:b
a) Fault avoidance Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) None of the mentioned Dependability and Security Assurance
Answer:b
Explanation: Here the system is designed so 1. Static Analysis involves executing a
that faults in the delivered software do not program.
result in system failure. a) True
b) False
5. Controls that are intended to ensure that Answer:b
attacks are unsuccessful is analogous to Explanation: Static analysis techniques are
____________ in dependability engineering. system verification techniques that don‘t
a) Fault avoidance involve executing a program.
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection 2. Which of the following is a technique
d) Fault Recovery covered in Static Analysis ?
Answer:a a) Formal verification
Explanation: In Fault avoidance the system b) Model checking
is developed in such a way that human error c) Automated program analysis
is avoided and thus system faults are d) All of the mentioned
minimised. Answer:d

6. What is Life cycle risk assessment ? 3. Select the disadvantage of using Formal
a) Risk assessment after the system has been methods
deployed a) Concurrent systems can be analysed to
b) Risk assessment while the system is being discover race conditions that might lead to
developed deadlock.
c) Both a and b b) Producing a mathematical specification
Answer:c requires a detailed analysis of the
requirements
7. A system resource that has a value and c) They require the use of specialised
has to be protected is known as notations that cannot be understood by
a) Asset domain experts
b) Control Answer:c
c) Vulnerability Explanation: Formal methods are the
d) None of the mentioned ultimate static verification technique that
Answer:a may be used at different stages in the
development process.
8. An impersonation of an authorised user is
an example of a security threat. 4. Which of the following is incorrect with
a) True respect to Model Checking?
b) False a) Model checking is particularly valuable
Answer:b for verifying concurrent systems
Explanation: It is a security attack. b) Model checking is computationally very
inexpensive

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
c) The model checker explores all possible b) Data Faults
paths through the model c) Input/Output Faults
Answer:b d) Interface faults
Explanation: Model checking is very Answer:a
expensive.It is only practical to use it in the Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
verification of small to medium sized critical
systems.
Software Design
5. Choose the fault class in which the
following automated static analysis check 1. Which is the first step in the software
would fall:‖Variables declared but never development life cycle ?
used‖. a) Analysis
a) Control Faults b) Design
b) Data Faults c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
c) Input/Output Faults d) Development and Documentation
d) Interface faults Answer:c
Answer:b
2. Which tool is use for structured designing
6. Choose the fault class in which the ?
following automated static analysis check a) Program flowchart
would fall: ―Unreachable code‖. b) Structure chart
a) Control Faults c) Data-flow diagram
b) Data Faults d) Module
c) Input/Output Faults Answer:b
d) Interface faults Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in
Answer:a software engineering and organizational
theory, is a chart which shows the
7. Choose the fault class in which the breakdown of a system to its lowest
following automated static analysis check manageable levels.
would fall:‖Non-usage of the results of
functions‖. 3. A step by step instruction used to solve a
a) Storage management faults problem is known as
b) Data Faults a) Sequential structure
c) Input/Output Faults b) A List
d) Interface faults c) A plan
Answer:d d) An Algorithm
Answer:d
8. Static analysis is now routinely used in
the development of many safety and security 4. In the Analysis phase, the development of
critical systems. the ____________ occurs, which is a clear
a) True statement of the goals and objectives of the
b) False project.
Answer:a a) documentation
Explanation: The static analyzer can b) flowchart
discover areas of vulnerability such as buffer c) program specification
overflows or unchecked inputs d) design
Answer:c
9. Which level of Static Analysis allows Explanation: Program specification is the
specific rules that apply to a program to be definition of what a computer program is
checked ? expected to do.
a) Characteristic error checking
b) User-defined error checking 5. Actual programming of software code is
c) Assertion checking done during the ____________ step in the
Answer:b SDLC.
Explanation: Users of a programming a) Maintenance and Evaluation
language define error patterns, thus b) Design
extending the types of error that can be c) Analysis
detected. d) Development and Documentation
Answer:d
10. Choose the fault class in which the Explanation: The developer has to find in
following automated static analysis check the technical documentation enough
would fall:‖Pointer Arithmetic‖. information to start coding.
a) Storage management faults

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
6. Who designs and implement database b) focuses on just one thing.
structures. c) is able to complete its function in a timely
a) Programmers manner.
b) Project managers d) is connected to other modules and the
c) Technical writers outside world.
d) Database administrators Answer:b
Answer:d Explanation: Cohesion of a single
Explanation: The role of database module/component is the degree to which its
administrators includes the development and responsibilities form a meaningful unit.
design of database strategies, system
monitoring and improving database 12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of
performance and capacity, and planning for the degree to which a module
future expansion requirements. a) can be written more compactly.
b) focuses on just one thing.
7. ____________ is the process of c) is able to complete its function in a timely
translating a task into a series of commands manner.
that a computer will use to perform that task. d) is connected to other modules and the
a) Project design outside world.
b) Installation Answer:d
c) Systems analysis Explanation: Coupling between
d) Programming modules/components is their degree of
Answer:d mutual interdependence.

8. Debugging is:
a) creating program code. Modularity in Software Design
b) finding and correcting errors in the
program code. 1. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are
c) identifying the task to be computerized. examples of__________
d) creating the algorithm. a) Functions
Answer: b) Modules
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical c) Classes
process of finding and reducing the number d) Sub procedures
of bugs, or defects, in a computer program Answer:b
or a piece of electronic hardware, thus Explanation: A modular system consist of
making it behave as expected. well defined manageable units with well
defined interfaces among the units.
9. In Desigin phase, which is the primary
area of concern ? 2. Which of the property of software
a) Architecture modularity is incorrect with respect to
b) Data benefits software modularity?
c) Interface a) Modules are robust.
d) All of the mentioned b) Module can use other modules
Answer:d c) Modules Can be separately compiled and
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to stored in a library.
create structural and behavioral models of d) Modules are mostly dependent.
the system which is covered by architecture, Answer:d
data and the interface of the product. Explanation: Modularity cannot bring
benefits unless the modules are autonomous
10. The importance of software design can or independent.
be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency 3. _______________ is a measure of the
b) Accuracy degree of interdependence between
c) Quality modules.
d) Complexity a) Cohesion
Answer:c b) Coupling
Explanation: Software functional quality c) None of the mentioned
reflects how well it complies with or Answer:b
conforms to a given design, based on Explanation: Coupling or dependency is the
functional requirements or specifications. degree to which each program module relies
on each one of the other modules.
11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of
the degree to which a module 4. Which of the following is the best type of
a) can be written more compactly. module coupling?

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Control Coupling d) Content Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling Answer:b
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling 10. If all tasks must be executed in the same
Answer:c time-span, what type of cohesion is being
Explanation: The dependency between exhibited?
module A and B is said to be data coupled if a) Functional Cohesion
their dependency is based on the fact they b) Temporal Cohesion
communicate by only passing of data. c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
5. Which of the following is the worst type Answer:b
of module coupling? Explanation: A Module exhibits temporal
a) Control Coupling cohesion when it contains tasks that are
b) Stamp Coupling related by the fact that all tasks must be
c) External Coupling executed in the same time-span.
d) Content Coupling
Answer:c
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when Function Oriented Software Design
module A changes data of module B or
when control is passed from one module to 1. Choose the option that does not define
the middle of another. Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module definitions
6. Which of the following is the worst type b) Modules represent data abstraction
of module cohesion? c) Modules support functional abstraction
a) Logical Cohesion Answer:b
b) Temporal Cohesion Explanation: Option b defines an Object
c) Functional Cohesion Oriented Design.
d) Coincidental Cohesion
Answer:d 2. Which of the following is a
Explanation: Coincidental cohesion exists in complementary approach to function-
modules that contain instructions that have oriented approach ?
little or no relationship to one another. a) Object oriented analysis
b) Object oriented design
7. Which of the following is the best type of c) Structured approach
module cohesion? d) Both a and b
a) Functional Cohesion Answer:d
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion 3. Function-oriented design techniques starts
Answer:a with functional requirements specified in
Explanation: Functional Cohesion is a type a) SDD
of cohesion in which the tasks performed by b) SRS
a software module all contribute to the c) None of the mentioned
performance of a single function. Answer:b

8. A software engineer must design the 4. Structured Analysis is based on the

modules with the goal of high cohesion and principles of
low coupling. a) Top-down decomposition approach
a) True b) Divide and conquer principle
b) False c) Graphical representation of results using
Answer:a DFDs
Explanation: If the software is not properly d) All of the mentioned
modularized, a host of seemingly trivial Answer:d
enhancement or changes will result into
death of the project. 5. Which of the following is/are true with
respect to functions ?
9. In what type of coupling, the complete a) A function such as ―search-book‖ is
data structure is passed from one module to represented using a circle.
another? b) Functions represent some activity
a) Control Coupling c) Function symbol is known as a process
b) Stamp Coupling symbol or a bubble in DFD
c) External Coupling d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Explanation: All the options are correct with 2. Which of the following is not an activity
respect to Function Oriented Software of Structured Analysis (SA) ?
Design. a) Functional decomposition
b) Transformation of a textual problem
6. Which of the following is not a use of a description into a graphic model
CASE tool ? c) All the functions represented in the DFD
a) Support structured analysis and design are mapped to a module structure
(SA/SD) Answer:c
b) Maintains the data dictionary Explanation: The module structure is the
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not software architecture.
d) It complies with the available system.
Answer:d 3. To arrive at a form which is suitable for
Explanation: It takes long time to establish implementation in some programming
the system in order to comply with the language is the purpose of
available system. a) Structured Analysis (SA)
b) Structured Design (SD)
7. What DFD notation is represented by the c) Detailed Design (DD)
Rectangle? d) None of the mentioned
a) Transform Answer:b
b) Data Store
c) Function 4. The results of structured analysis can be
d) None of the mentioned easily understood by ordinary customers.
Answer:b a) True
b) False
8. Structural decomposition is concerned Answer:a
with function calls. Explanation: The results of structured
a) True analysis directly represents customer‘s
b) False perception of the problem and uses
Answer:a customer‘s terminology for naming different
Explanation: Structural decomposition is functions and data.
concerned with developing a model of the
design which shows the dynamic structure. 5. Structured Analysis is based on the
principle of Bottom-Up Approach.
9. A function-oriented design focuses on the a) True
entities in the system rather than the data b) False
processing activities. Answer:b
a) True Explanation: Structured Analysis follows
b) False uses decomposition approach.
Answer:b
Explanation: It is an object oriented design 6. The context diagram is also known as
whichfocus on entities. a) Level-0 DFD
b) Level-1 DFD
10. In DFDs, user interactions with the c) Level-2 DFD
system is denoted by Answer:a
a) Circle Explanation: Context diagram captures the
b) Arrow various entities external to the system
c) Rectangle interacting with it and data flow occurring
d) Triangle between the system and the external entities.
Answer:a
7. A directed arc or line in DFD represents
a) Data Store
Function Oriented Design using b) Data Process
Structured Analysis Structured Design c) Data Flow
Answer:c
1. SA/SD features are obtained from which Explanation: It resembles data flow in the
of the methodologies? direction of the arrow.
a) Constantine and Yourdon‘s methodology
b) DeMarco and Yourdon‘s methodology 8. A DFD is always accompanied by a data
c) Gane and Sarson‘s methodology dictionary.
d) All of the mentioned a) True
Answer:d b) False
Answer:a
Explanation: A data dictionary lists all data

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
items appearing in a DFD including self-contained. They cannot be understood
definition and data names. without reference to their super-classes.

9. Which of the following is a function of 5. Which of the following points related to

CASE Tool? Object-oriented development (OOD) is true?
a) Supporting Structured analysis and design a) OOA is concerned with developing an
(SA/SD). object model of the application domain
b) Maintaining the data dictionary, b) OOD is concerned with developing an
c) Checking whether DFDs are balanced or object-oriented system model to implement
not requirements.
d) Al of the mentioned c) Both a and b
Answer:a d) None of the mentioned
Answer:c
10. Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a Explanation: The answer is in support with
a) Physical file the OOD.
b) Data Structure
c) Logical file 6. How is generalization implemented in
d) All of the mentioned Object Oriented programming languages?
Answer:d a) Inheritance
Explanation: A logical file can be a data b) Polymorphism
structure or a physical file on disk. c) Encapsulation
d) Abstract Classes
Answer:a

7. Which of the following is a disadvantage

Object Oriented Software Design of OOD ?
a) Easier maintenance.
1. Choose the incorrect statement in terms of b) Objects may be
Objects. understood as stand-alone entities.
a) Objects are abstractions of real-world. c) Objects are potentially reusable
b) Objects can‘t manage themselves. components.
c) Objects encapsulate state and d) None of the mentioned
representation information. Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation: All the options define the
Explanation: Objects are independent. characteristics of OOD.

2. What encapsulates both data and data 8. Which of the following describes‖Is-a-
manipulation functions ? Relationship‖ ?
a) Object a) Aggregation
b) Class b) Inheritance
c) Super Class c) Dependency
d) Sub Class Answer:b
Answer:a
9. Object that collects data on request rather
3. Which of the following is a mechanism than autonomously is known as
that allows several objects in an class a) Active Object
hierarchy to have different methods with the b) Passive Object
same name? c) Multiple instance
a) Aggregation d) None of the mentioned
b) Polymorphism Answer:b
c) Inheritance Explanation: A passive object holds data,
Answer:b but does not initiate control.
Explanation: In polymorphism instances of
each subclass will be free to respond to 10. Objects are executed
messages by calling their own version of the a) sequentially
method. b) in Parallel
c) Both a and b Answer:c
4. Inherited object classes are self-contained. Explanation: Objects may be distributed and
a) True may execute sequentially or in parallel.
b) False
Answer:b
Explanation: Inherited object classes are not

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Object Oriented Software Design 6. A design description in OOD includes
a) Protocol Description
1. How many layers are present in the OO b) Implementation Description
design pyramid? c) Type Description
a) three d) both a and b
b) four Answer:d
c) five
Answer:b 7. Which of the following is not an
Explanation: The four layers are: Subsystem operation as per OOD algorithms and data
layer, class and object layer, message layer structures?
and responsibilities layer a) operations that manipulate data in some
way
2. Which of the following early OOD b) operations that perform a computation
methods incorporates both a ―micro c) operations that check for syntax errors
development process‖ and a ―macro d) operations that monitor an object for the
development process.‖ ? occurrence of a controlling event.
a) Booch method Answer:
b) Rumbaugh method Explanation: Option c is incorrect as it is
c) Wirfs-Brock method concerned with the programming language
d) Coad and Yourdon method used, so it will be handled by the compiler.
Answer:a
Explanation: The macro development 8. Throughout the OOD process, a software
process includes the architectural planning engineer should look for every opportunity
and micro developments process defines for creating new design process.
rules that govern the use of operations and a) True
attributes and the domain-specific b) False
policies for memory management, error Answer:b
handling, and other infrastructure Explanation: A software engineer should
functions. look for every opportunity to reuse existing
design patterns whenever they meet the
3. Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar needs of the design rather than creating new
Jacobson combined the best features of their ones.
individual object-oriented analysis into a
new method for object oriented design
known as Project Management
a) HTML
b) XML 1. Which of the following is not project
c) UML management goal?
d) SGML a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
Answer:c b) Delivering the software to the customer at
Explanation: The Unified Modeling the agreed time.
Language (UML) has become c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning
widely used throughout the industry as the development team.
standard approach to OOD. d) Avoiding costumer complaints.
Answer:d
4. A design description of an object is Explanation:Projects need to be managed
known as a class because professional software engineering is
a) instance always subject to organizational budget and
b) object schedule constraints.
c) case
d) both a and b 2. Project managers have to assess the risks
Answer:d that may affect a project.
a) True
5. Which of the following is conceptually b) False
similar to objects? Answer:b
a) PACKAGE Explanation:Risk management involves
b) PROC anticipating risks that might affect the
c) PRIVATE project schedule or the quality of the
Answer:a software being developed, and then taking
Explanation: A package is a namespace that action to avoid these risks.
organizes a set of related classes and
interfaces. 3. Which of the following is not considered
as a risk in project management?

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
a) Specification delays d) System management
b) Product competition Answer:a
c) Testing Explanation:Configuration management
d) Staff turnover policies and processes define how to record
Answer:c and process proposed system changes, how
Explanation:Testing is a part of project, thus to decide what system components to
it can‘t be categorized as risk. change, how to manage different versions of
the system and its components, and how to
4. The process each manager follows during distribute changes to customers.
the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management 9. Identify the sub-process of process
b) Manager life cycle improvement
c) Project Management Life Cycle a) Process introduction
d) All of the mentioned b) Process analysis
Answer:c c) De-processification
Explanation:A proven methodical life cycle d) Process distribution
is necessary to repeatedly implement and Answer:b
manage projects successfully. Explanation:The current process is assessed,
and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as identified.
a) very low
b) low 10. An independent relationship must exist
c) moderate between the attribute that can be measured
d) high and the external quality attribute.
e) very high a) True
Answer:d b) False
Explanation:The probability of the risk Answer:b
might be assessed as very low (<10%), low Explanation:The value of the quality
(10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50– attribute must be related, in some way, to the
75%), or very high (>75%). value of the attribute than can be measured.

6. Which of the following is/are main

parameters that you should use when Project Planning
computing the costs of a software
development project? 1. Which of the following is an important
a) travel and training costs factor that can affect the accuracy and
b) hardware and software costs efficacy of estimates?
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software a) Project size
engineers and managers) b) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned c) Project complexity
Answer:d d) Degree of structural uncertainty
Explanation:Estimation involves working Answer:a
out how much effort is required to complete Explanation:As size increases, the inter-
each activity and, from this, calculating the dependency among various elements of the
total cost of activities. software grows rapidly.

7. Quality planning is the process of 2. What describes the data and control to be
developing a quality plan for processed?
a) team a) Planning process
b) project b) Software scope
c) customers c) External hardware
d) project manager d) Project complexity
Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out Explanation:Functions described in the
the desired software qualities and describe statement of scope are evaluated and in
how these are to be assessed. some cases refined to provide more detail
prior to the beginning of estimation.
8. Which of the following is incorrect
activity for the configuration management of 3. A number of independent investigators
a software system? have developed a team-oriented approach to
a) Internship management requirements gathering that can be applied
b) Change management to establish the scope of a project called
c) Version management a) JAD

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
b) CLASS potentially valuable estimation approach in
c) FAST their own right?
d) None of the mentioned a) Automated estimation tools
Answer:c b) Empirical estimation models
Explanation:Facilitated application c) Decomposition techniques
specification techniques d) Both Automated estimation tools and
(FAST), this approach encourages the Empirical estimation models
creation of a joint team of customers Answer:b
and developers who work together to Explanation:An estimation model for
identify the problem, propose elements computer software uses empirically derived
of the solution, negotiate different formulas to predict effort as a function of
approaches, and specify a preliminary set of LOC or FP.
requirements.
9. Which of the following is not achieved by
4. CLSS stands for an automated estimation tools?
a) conveyor line sorting system a) Predicting staffing levels
b) conveyor line sorting software b) Predicting software cost
c) conveyor line sorting speed c) Predicting software schedules
d) conveyor line sorting specification d) Predicting clients demands
Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation:The conveyor line sorting Explanation:Demands can vary from client
system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a to client.
conveyor line. Each box is identified by a
bar code that contains a part number and is 10. Software project estimation can never be
sorted into one of six bins at the end of the an exact science, but a combination of good
line. historical data and systematic techniques can
improve estimation accuracy.
5. The project planner examines the a) True
statement of scope and extracts all important b) False
software functions which is known as Answer:a
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process Software Risks and Identification
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:b 1. What all has to be identified as per risk
identification?
6. The environment that supports the a) Threats
software project is called b) Vulnerabilities
a) CLSS c) Consequences
b) SEE d) All of the mentioned
c) FAST Answer:d
d) CBSE Explanation:Risk identification states what
Answer:b could cause a potential loss.
Explanation:Software engineering
environment (SEE), incorporates hardware 2. Which one is not a risk management
and software. activity?
a) Risk assessment
7. Which of the following is not an option to b) Risk generation
achieve reliable cost and effort estimate? c) Risk control
a) Base estimates on similar projects that d) None of the mentioned
have already been completed Answer:b
b) Use one or more empirical models for Explanation:Risk management activities
software cost and effort estimation would never want a new risk to be
c) Use relatively simple decomposition generated.
techniques to generate project cost and effort
estimates. 3. What is the product of the probability of
d) The ability to translate the size estimate incurring a loss due to the risk and the
into human effort, calendar time, and potential magnitude of that loss?
dollars. a) Risk exposure
Answer:d b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
8. What can be used to complement d) All of the mentioned
decomposition techniques and offer a Answer:a

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
4. What threatens the quality and timeliness c) Product size risks
of the software to be produced? d) Development environment risks
a) Known risks Answer:a
b) Business risks
c) Project risks 10. Which of the following term is best
d) Technical risks defined by the statement:‖the degree of
Answer:d uncertainty that the product will meet its
Explanation:Technical risks identify requirements and be fit for its intended
potential design, implementation, interface, use.‖?
verification, and maintenance problems. a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
5. What threatens the viability of the c) Support risk
software to be built? d) Schedule risk
a) Known risks Answer:a
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks Risk Management
Answer:b
Explanation:Business risks often jeopardize 1. Risk management is one of the most
the project or the product. important jobs for a
a) Client
6. Which of the following is not a business b) Investor
risk? c) Production team
a) building an excellent product or system d) Project manager
that no one really wants Answer:d
b) losing the support of senior management Explanation:Risk management involves
due to a change in focus or change in people anticipating risks that might affect the
c) lack of documented requirements or project schedule or the quality of the
software scope software being developed, and then taking
d) losing budgetary or personnel action to avoid these risks.
commitment
Answer:c 2. Which of the following risk is the failure
Explanation:This is not considered as a of a purchased component to perform as
business risk. expected?
a) Product risk
7. Which of the following is a systematic b) Project risk
attempt to specify threats to the project c) Business risk
plan? d) Programming risk
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk 3. Which of the following term is best
c) Support risk defined by the statement: ―There will be a
d) Risk projection change of organizational management with
Answer:d different priorities.‖?
Explanation:By identifying known and a) Staff turnover
predictable risks, the project manager takes b) Technology change
a first step toward avoiding them when c) Management change
possible and controlling them when d) Product competition
necessary. Answer:c

8. Which risks are associated with the 4. Which of the following term is best
overall size of the software to be built or defined by the statement: ―The underlying
modified? technology on which the system is built is
a) Business impact risks superseded by new technology.‖?
b) Process definition risks a) Technology change
c) Product size risks b) Product competition
d) Development environment risks c) Requirements change
Answer:c d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
9. Which risks are associated with Explanation:Technology changes are
constraints imposed by management or the common in the competitive environment of
marketplace? software engineering.
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
5. What assess the risk and your plans for Architectural Design
risk mitigation and revise these when you
learn more about the risk? 1. Architectural design is a creative process
a) Risk monitoring satisfying only functional-requirements of a
b) Risk planning system.
c) Risk analysis a) True
d) Risk identification b) False
Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation:In architectural design you
6. Which of the following risks are derived design a system organization satisfying the
from the organizational environment where functional and non-functional requirements
the software is being developed? of a system.
a) People risks
b) Technology risks 2. A ________ view shows the system
c) Estimation risks hardware and how software components are
d) Organizational risks distributed across the processors in the
Answer:d system.
Explanation:These risks are at management a) physical
level. b) logical
c) process
7. Which of the following risks are derived Answer:a
from the software or hardware technologies Explanation:A physical view is implemented
that are used to develop the system? by system engineers implementing the
a) Managerial risks system hardware.
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks 3. The UML was designed for describing
d) Organizational risks _________.
Answer:b a) object-oriented systems
Explanation:The risks associated with b) architectural design
technology might affect the product c) SRS
development. d) Both object-oriented systems and
Architectural design
8. Which of the following term is best Answer:d
defined by the statement: ―Derive Explanation:The UML was designed for
traceability information to maximize describing object-oriented systems and, at
information hiding in the design.‖? the architectural design stage, you often
a) Underestimated development time want to describe systems at a higher level of
b) Organizational restructuring abstraction.
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the above 4. Which of the following view shows that
Answer:c the system is composed of interacting
Explanation:Tracing the requirements can processes at run time?
help us understand the risk. a) physical
b) development
9. Which of the following strategies means c) logical
that the impact of the risk will be reduced? d) process
a) Avoidance strategies Answer:d
b) Minimization strategies Explanation:This view is useful for making
c) Contingency plans judgments about non-functional system
d) All of the above characteristics such as performance and
Answer:b availability.

10. Risk management is now recognized as 5. Which of the following is an architectural

one of the most important project conflict?
management tasks. a) Using large-grain components improves
a) True performance but reduces maintainability
b) False b) Introducing redundant data improves
Answer:a availability but makes security more
difficult
c) Localizing safety-related features usually
means more communication so degraded
performance
d) All of the mentioned

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)
Answer:d system requirements to entities in a logical
Explanation:High availability architecture view.
can be affected by several design factors that
are required to be maintained to ensure that 11. Which of the following is a type of
no single points of failure exist in such Architectural Model?
design. a) Static structural model
b) Dynamic process model
6. Which of the following is not included in c) Distribution model
Architectural design decisions? d) All of the mentioned
a) type of application Answer:d
b) distribution of the system Explanation:All these models reflects the
c) architectural styles basic strategy that is used to structure a
d) testing the system system.
Answer:d
Explanation: Architectural design decisions
include decisions on the type of application,
the distribution of the system, the NOTE: The MCQS covered in this PDF file
architectural styles to be used, and the ways are very important and most of them are
in which the architecture should be taken from previous KPPSC Lecturer (CS)
documented and evaluated. tests Papers.
7. Architecture once established can be You also need to study AI, Programming,
applied to other products as well. Automata theory etc. and of course English
a) True
section.
b) False
Answer:b Request for DUA
Explanation:Systems in the same domain
often have similar architectures that reflect Please remember me in your prayers - at
domain concepts. least once after downloading this file.
8. Which of the following pattern is the Waheed Murad
basis of interaction management in many
web-based systems?
a) architecture
b) repository pattern
c) model-view-controller
d) different operating system
Answer:c
Explanation:Model-View-Controller pattern
is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems.

9. What describes how a set of interacting

components can share data?
a) model-view-controller
b) architecture pattern
c) repository pattern
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:c
Explanation:The majority of systems that
use large amounts of data are organized
around a shared database or repository.

10. Which view in architectural design

shows the key abstractions in the system as
objects or object classes?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process
Answer:c
Explanation:It is possible to relate the

MCQ’s | Lecturer Computer Science – Prepared by Waheed Murad (MS Web Semantics)