DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

ZZ
ALHCA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

1. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in 5. Current sensitivity of a moving coil

a glass tube. The length of the air column in galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm galvanometer is
of column length. If the frequency of the
(1) 40  (2) 25 
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
air at 27ºC is (3) 500  (4) 250 
(1) 330 m/s (2) 339 m/s Answer ( 4 )
(3) 300 m/s (4) 350 m/s 6. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
Answer ( 2 ) between the poles of an electromagnet. When
the current in the electromagnet is switched
2. An electron falls from rest through a vertical on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
directed electric field E. The direction of rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
electric field is now reversed, keeping its work required to do this comes from
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
fall from rest in it through the same vertical (1) The current source
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in (2) The magnetic field
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(3) The induced electric field due to the
(1) Smaller changing magnetic field
(2) 5 times greater (4) The lattice structure of the material of the
(3) Equal rod
(4) 10 times greater Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 1 ) 7. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
3. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a resistor 50  are connected in series across
sufficiently high building and is moving freely a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. loss in the circuit is
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum (1) 0.79 W
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
(2) 0.43 W
position. The time period of oscillation is
(1) 2 s (3) 1.13 W

(2)  s (4) 2.74 W

(3) 1 s Answer ( 1 )
(4) 2 s 8. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
Answer ( 2 )
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
4. The electrostatic force between the metal with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor slide down by flowing a current through it
C having a charge Q and area A, is when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
(1) Independent of the distance between the acting on it in the vertical direction. The
plates current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
(2) Linearly proportional to the distance is
between the plates (1) 7.14 A
(3) Inversely proportional to the distance (2) 5.98 A
between the plates
(3) 11.32 A
(4) Proportional to the square root of the
(4) 14.76 A
distance between the plates
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )

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 ALHCA NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ)

9. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be 12. In Young's double slit experiment the
marked with rings of different colours for its separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
identification. The colour code sequence will wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
be distance D between the screen and slits is
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver separation between the slits needs to be
(3) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold changed to
(1) 1.8 mm (2) 1.9 mm
(4) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
(3) 1.7 mm (4) 2.1 mm
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
10. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, 13. An astronomical refracting telescope will
are connected in series to a battery of emf have large angular magnification and high
'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current angular resolution, when it has an objective
drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are lens of
connected in parallel to the same battery. (1) Small focal length and large diameter
Then the current drawn from battery becomes (2) Large focal length and small diameter
10 I. The value of 'n' is
(3) Small focal length and small diameter
(1) 10 (4) Large focal length and large diameter
(2) 11 Answer ( 4 )
14. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
(3) 9
plane surface of a material of refractive index
(4) 20 ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
Answer ( 1 ) perpendicular to each other. Which of the
following options is correct for this situation?
11. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' (1) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector parallel to the plane of
each) which are connected in series. The
incidence
terminals of the battery are short-circuited
and the current I is measured. Which of the (2) Reflected light is polarised with its
graphs shows the correct relationship electric vector perpendicular to the plane
between I and n? of incidence

 1
(3) i  tan1  

I I
 1
(4) i  sin1  
(1) (2) 
Answer ( 2 )
O O
n n
15. An em wave is propagating in a medium with

a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
I I oscillating electric field of this em wave is
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
(3) (4) magnetic field of the em wave will be along

O O (1) –z direction (2) +z direction

n n
(3) –x direction (4) –y direction
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 )
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

16. The refractive index of the material of a 21. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. 
V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field
One of the two refracting surfaces of the
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver 
coating. A beam of monochromatic light E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
entering the prism from the other face will de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
retrace its path (after reflection from the de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on
the prism is 0
(1)
(1) 60° (2) 45°  eE0 
1 t
 mV0 
(3) Zero (4) 30°
Answer ( 2 )
 eE0 
(2) 0  1  t
17. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm mV
 0 
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced through a distance (3) 0
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
(4) 0t
displacement of the image will be
Answer ( 1 )
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror
22. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
(2) 36 cm away from the mirror threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
(3) 36 cm towards the mirror plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
(4) 30 cm towards the mirror incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
Answer ( 2 )
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
18. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
(1) 1 : 2
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of (2) 1 : 4
inductance (3) 2 : 1
(1) 0.138 H (2) 138.88 H (4) 4 : 1
(3) 13.89 H (4) 1.389 H Answer ( 1 )

Answer ( 3 ) 23. In the combination of the following gates the

output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
19. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 and B as
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the A
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
B
(1) 20 (2) 10 Y

(3) 15 (4) 30
Answer ( 1 )
(1) A  B
20. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
(2) A  B  A  B
atom, is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1 (3) A  B

(3) 1 : –2 (4) 2 : –1 (4) A  B  A  B

Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )

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 ALHCA NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ)

24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input 28. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The and the universal gravitational constant were
values of IB, IC and  are given by ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
20 V following is not correct?
(1) Raindrops will fall faster
RC 4 k
C (2) Walking on the ground would become
RB more difficult
Vi
500 k B
(3) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
E
(4) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Earth would decrease
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 Answer ( 3 )
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 29. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
(3) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 motion a body possesses translational kinetic
(4) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250 energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
Answer ( 3 ) energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
25. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
due to heating (1) 7 : 10
(1) Affects only reverse resistance (2) 5 : 7
(2) Affects only forward resistance
(3) 2 : 5
(3) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
p-n junction (4) 10 : 7
(4) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 3 ) 30. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
26. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the due to viscous force. The rate of production of
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. heat when the sphere attains its terminal
Which of the following physical quantities velocity, is proportional to
would remain constant for the sphere?
(1) r3
(1) Angular velocity
(2) Moment of inertia (2) r2
(3) Angular momentum (3) r4
(4) Rotational kinetic energy (4) r5
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
27. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B 31. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
figure. Then 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
B sample, is
(1) 104.3 J
A C
S (2) 208.7 J
(3) 84.5 J
(1) KA < KB < KC (2) KA > KB > KC
(3) KB > KA > KC (4) KB < KA < KC (4) 42.2 J

Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

32. Two wires are made of the same material and 35. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies
have the same volume. The first wire has with its temperature (T), as shown in the
cross-sectional area A and the second wire graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a
the first wire is increased by l on applying a change from state A to state B, is
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
the socond wire by the same amount?

(1) 9 F

(2) 6 F

(3) F
2 2
(4) 4 F (1) (2)
5 3
Answer ( 1 )
2 1
33. The power radiated by a black body is P and (3) (4)
7 3
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
If the temperature of the black body is now Answer ( 1 )
changed so that it radiates maximum energy 36. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
3 pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4 organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
becomes nP. The value of n is pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
pipe is
3
(1) (1) 13.2 cm (2) 8 cm
4
(3) 16 cm (4) 12.5 cm

4 Answer ( 1 )
(2)
3 37. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point of
81 water, is
(3)
256
(1) 26.8% (2) 20%
256
(4) (3) 12.5% (4) 6.25%
81
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
38. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
34. At what temperature will the rms speed of frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere? diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
(Given :

Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg

h B
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)

(1) 2.508 × 104 K A

(2) 8.360 × 104 K 3

(1) D (2) D
2
(3) 1.254 × 104 K
5 7
(4) 5.016 × 104 K (3) D (4) D
4 5
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )

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 ALHCA NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ)

39. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 43. A toy car with charge q moves on a
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each frictionless horizontal plane surface under

have the same mass M and radius R. They all the influence of a uniform electric field E .
spin with the same angular speed  about 
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would that instant the direction of the field is
satisfy the relation reversed. The car continues to move for two
(1) WC > WB > WA (2) WA > WB > WC more seconds under the influence of this field.
The average velocity and the average speed
(3) WA > WC > WB (4) WB > WA > WC
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
Answer ( 1 ) respectively
40. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect? (1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s

(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s

friction.
(3) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction. (4) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
(3) Coefficient of sliding friction has Answer ( 2 )
dimensions of length.

(4) Frictional force opposes the relative 44. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
motion.
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
Answer ( 3 ) by
41. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The (1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ
lighter block comes to rest after collision.
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (2) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
(e) will be
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25 (3) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.8
Answer ( 2 ) (4) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ

42. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth Answer ( 3 )

inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
in the figure. The wedge is given an 45. A student measured the diameter of a small
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
relation between a and  for the block to 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
remain stationary on the wedge is
zero of circular scale division coincides with
A 25 divisions above the reference level. If
m
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
the correct diameter of the ball is
a
 (1) 0.521 cm
C B
(2) 0.525 cm
g g
(1) a  cosec  (2) a  sin  (3) 0.529 cm

(3) a = g tan  (4) a = g cos  (4) 0.053 cm

Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
46. The difference between spermiogenesis and a b c
spermiation is
(1) iii ii i
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are (2) i iii ii
formed. (3) iii i ii
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
(4) ii iii i
formed, while in spermiation spermatids
are formed. Answer ( 4 )
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are 51. All of the following are part of an operon
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa except
are released from sertoli cells into the (1) an operator (2) structural genes
cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(3) a promoter (4) an enhancer
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of Answer ( 4 )
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation 52. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
spermatozoa are formed. her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
Answer ( 3 ) inherited by
47. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived (1) Only daughters
from (2) Only sons
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm (3) Both sons and daughters
(2) endoderm and mesoderm (4) Only grandchildren
(3) ectoderm and endoderm Answer ( 3 )
(4) mesoderm and trophoblast Sol. • Woman is carrier
Answer ( 1 ) • Both son & daughter inherit
48. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ X–chromosome
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, • Although only son be the diseased
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
53. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen of evolution is
and prevents ovulation in females.
(1) Multiple step mutations
(3) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(2) Saltation
(4) is an IUD.
(3) Minor mutations
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Phenotypic variations
49. Hormones secreted by the placenta to Answer ( 2 )
maintain pregnancy are
54. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin strand of a gene. What will be the
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
mRNA?
(3) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, (1) AGGUAUCGCAU
glucocorticoids (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens (3) UCCAUAGCGUA
Answer ( 4 ) (4) ACCUAUGCGAU
50. Match the items given in Column I with those Answer ( 1 )
in Column II and select the correct option 55. Among the following sets of examples for
given below : divergent evolution, select the incorrect
Column I Column II option :
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
endometrial (2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
lining (3) Eye of octopus, bat and man
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase (4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase Answer ( 3 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

56. Conversion of milk to curd improves its 62. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
nutritional value by increasing the amount of the drug “Smack”?
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A (1) Flowers (2) Latex
(3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin B12 (3) Leaves (4) Roots
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 2 )
63. In a growing population of a country,
57. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease? (1) pre-reproductive individuals are more
than the reproductive individuals.
(1) Psoriasis
(2) reproductive individuals are less than the
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis post-reproductive individuals.
(3) Vitiligo (3) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
(4) Alzheimer's disease the reproductive individuals.
Answer ( 4 ) (4) reproductive and pre-reproductive
individuals are equal in number.
58. The similarity of bone structure in the
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example Answer ( 1 )
of 64. Which one of the following population
(1) Homology interactions is widely used in medical science
for the production of antibiotics?
(2) Analogy
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism
(3) Adaptive radiation
(3) Amensalism (4) Parasitism
(4) Convergent evolution Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 ) 65. Match the items given in Column I with those
59. Which of the following characteristics in Column II and select the correct option
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in given below :
humans? Column-I Column-II
a. Dominance a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
b. Co-dominance b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
c. Multiple allele c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
enrichment
d. Incomplete dominance
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
e. Polygenic inheritance
a b c d
(1) b, c and e (2) a, b and c
(1) ii i iii iv
(3) a, c and e (4) b, d and e
(2) i iii iv ii
Answer ( 2 ) (3) i ii iv iii
60. In which disease does mosquito transmitted (4) iii iv i ii
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
Answer ( 4 )
lymphatic vessels?
66. Which of the following options correctly
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis represents the lung conditions in asthma and
(3) Amoebiasis (4) Ringworm disease emphysema, respectively?
Answer ( 1 ) (1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
61. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ respiratory surface
conservation’ except (2) Increased number of bronchioles;
Increased respiratory surface
(1) Wildlife safari parks
(3) Decreased respiratory surface;
(2) Sacred groves
Inflammation of bronchioles
(3) Seed banks (4) Increased respiratory surface;
(4) Botanical gardens Inflammation of bronchioles
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 1 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

67. Match the items given in Column I with those 70. Which of the following structures or regions is
in Column II and select the correct option incorrectly paired with its functions?
given below :
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
Column I Column II and cardiovascular
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium reflexes.
and left ventricle (2) Limbic system : consists of fibre
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right tracts that
ventricle and interconnect
pulmonary artery different regions of
brain; controls
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right movement.
atrium and right
ventricle (3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and
a b c right cerebral
(1) iii i ii hemispheres.
(2) i iii ii (4) Hypothalamus : production of
releasing hormones
(3) ii i iii
and regulation of
(4) i ii iii temperature,
Answer ( 1 ) hunger and thirst.

68. Match the items given in Column I with those Answer ( 2 )

in Column II and select the correct option 71. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
given below: in its place by
Column I Column II (1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL (2) ligaments attached to the iris
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL (3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
volume body

c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL (4) smooth muscles attached to the iris
volume Answer ( 1 )
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL 72. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
a b c d
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(1) iii ii i iv
(2) iii i iv ii (2) Progesterone and Aldosterone

(3) iv iii ii i (3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

(4) i iv ii iii (4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 4 )

69. Which of the following is an amino acid 73. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
derived hormone? help in erythropoiesis?

(1) Epinephrine (1) Chief cells

(2) Ecdysone (2) Mucous cells

(3) Estriol (3) Parietal cells

(4) Estradiol (4) Goblet cells
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

74. Match the items given in Column I with those 78. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
in Column II and select the correct option
(1) Proteins and lipids
given below :
(2) DNA and RNA
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance (3) Free ribosomes and RER

b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting (4) Nucleic acids and SER

c. Albumin (iii) Defence Answer ( 3 )

mechanism
79. Which of these statements is incorrect?
a b c
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) mitochondrial matrix
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) outer mitochondrial membrane
Answer ( 3 ) (4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
75. Which of the following is an occupational supplied with NAD that can pick up
respiratory disorder? hydrogen atoms

(1) Anthracis Answer ( 3 )

(2) Silicosis 80. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(3) Emphysema
(1) Protein folding
(4) Botulism
Answer ( 2 ) (2) Protein glycosylation

76. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle (3) Phospholipid synthesis

contraction because it (4) Cleavage of signal peptide
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking Answer ( 3 )
of active sites on actin for myosin.
81. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
it.
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
(3) Prevents the formation of bonds between termed as
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
(1) Polysome
filament.
(4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin (2) Polyhedral bodies
filament. (3) Nucleosome
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Plastidome
77. Select the incorrect match :
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
82. Which of the following terms describe human
chromosomes dentition?
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(3) Polytene – Oocytes of (2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
chromosomes amphibians
(3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4) Submetacentric – L-shaped
chromosomes chromosomes (4) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

83. Identify the vertebrate group of animals 89. Match the items given in Column I with those
characterized by crop and gizzard in its in Column II and select the correct option
digestive system given below:
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia Column I Column II
(3) Osteichthyes (4) Aves (Function) (Part of Excretory
Answer ( 4 ) system)
84. Which one of these animals is not a a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
homeotherm?
b. Concentration ii. Ureter
(1) Macropus
of urine
(2) Chelone
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
(3) Psittacula
urine
(4) Camelus
Answer ( 2 ) d. Storage of iv. Malpighian

85. Which of the following features is used to urine corpuscle

identify a male cockroach from a female v. Proximal
cockroach?
convoluted tubule
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
9th abdominal segment a b c d
(2) Presence of caudal styles (1) iv v ii iii
(3) Presence of anal cerci (2) iv i ii iii
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina (3) v iv i iii
Answer ( 2 )
(4) v iv i ii
86. Which of the following organisms are known
Answer ( 2 )
as chief producers in the oceans?
(1) Dinoflagellates 90. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
(2) Diatoms given below :
(3) Euglenoids
Column I Column II
(4) Cyanobacteria
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
Answer ( 2 ) uric acid in joints
87. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
(1) using flagella for locomotion salts within the
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing kidney
excess water c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
(3) having two types of nuclei glomeruli
(4) using pseudopodia for capturing prey d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
Answer ( 3 ) nephritis glucose urine

88. Which of the following animals does not a b c d

undergo metamorphosis? (1) iii ii iv i
(1) Earthworm
(2) i ii iii iv
(2) Tunicate
(3) iv i ii iii
(3) Starfish
(4) ii iii i iv
(4) Moth
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 )
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

91. What is the role of NAD + in cellular 97. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
respiration? in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(1) It functions as an enzyme. (1) –120°C
(2) It functions as an electron carrier. (2) –80°C
(3) It is the final electron acceptor for (3) –160°C
anaerobic respiration.
(4) –196°C
(4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )
98. Which among the following is not a
92. Which one of the following plants shows a prokaryote?
very close relationship with a species of moth,
(1) Saccharomyces
where none of the two can complete its life
cycle without the other? (2) Mycobacterium
(1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca (3) Oscillatoria
(3) Viola (4) Banana (4) Nostoc
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 1 )
93. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis 99. The two functional groups characteristic of
by sugars are
(1) Green sulphur bacteria (1) Hydroxyl and methyl
(2) Nostoc (2) Carbonyl and methyl
(3) Chara (3) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
(4) Cycas (4) Carbonyl and phosphate
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )
94. In which of the following forms is iron 100. Which of the following is not a product of light
absorbed by plants? reaction of photosynthesis?
(1) Ferric (1) ATP
(2) Ferrous (2) NADH
(3) Both ferric and ferrous (3) Oxygen
(4) Free element (4) NADPH
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )
95. Double fertilization is 101. Stomatal movement is not affected by
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen (1) Temperature
tube with two different eggs
(2) Light
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(3) CO2 concentration
nuclei
(4) O2 concentration
(3) Syngamy and triple fusion
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
102. The Golgi complex participates in
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Fatty acid breakdown
96. Which of the following elements is responsible
for maintaining turgor in cells? (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
(1) Magnesium (2) Sodium (3) Activation of amino acid
(3) Calcium (4) Potassium (4) Respiration in bacteria
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 2 )
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

103. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? (1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing (2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
cells Research (CSIR)
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure (3) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(3) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (GEAC)
synthesis (4) Research Committee on Genetic
(4) It takes part in spindle formation Manipulation (RCGM)

Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )

104. Stomata in grass leaf are 109. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(1) Dumb-bell shaped
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(2) Kidney shaped
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Barrel shaped
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) Rectangular
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
Answer ( 1 )
105. The stage during which separation of the Answer ( 3 )
paired homologous chromosomes begins is 110. Select the correct match
(1) Pachytene (1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(2) Diplotene (2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(3) Zygotene (3) G. Mendel - Transformation
(4) Diakinesis (4) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 1 )
106. Which of the following is commonly used as a 111. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in foreign company, though such varieties have
human lymphocytes? been present in India for a long time. This is
(1) Retrovirus related to
(2) Ti plasmid (1) Co-667
(3) pBR 322 (2) Sharbati Sonora
(4)  phage (3) Basmati
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Lerma Rojo
107. Use of bioresources by multinational Answer ( 3 )
companies and organisations without
112. Select the correct match
authorisation from the concerned country and
its people is called (1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
(1) Bio-infringement pneumoniae
(2) Biopiracy (2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
(3) Bioexploitation Martha Chase
(4) Biodegradation (3) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
Answer ( 2 ) Jacques Monod
108. In India, the organisation responsible for (4) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
assessing the safety of introducing
and F. Stahl
genetically modified organisms for public use
is Answer ( 3 )

14
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

113. Which of the following has proved helpful in 120. In stratosphere, which of the following
preserving pollen as fossils? elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
(1) Pllenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Oil content (1) Carbon
Answer ( 3 ) (2) Cl
114. The experimental proof for semiconservative
(3) Oxygen
replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium (4) Fe
(3) Virus (4) Plant Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 2 ) 121. What type of ecological pyramid would be
115. Which of the following pairs is wrongly obtained with the following data?
matched?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
Primary consumer : 60 g
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage Primary producer : 10 g

(4) XO type sex : Grasshopper (1) Inverted pyramid of biomass

determination (2) Pyramid of energy
Answer ( 1 ) (3) Upright pyramid of biomass
116. Offsets are produced by
(4) Upright pyramid of numbers
(1) Meiotic divisions (2) Mitotic divisions
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Parthenocarpy
Answer ( 2 ) 122. Which of the following is a secondary
pollutant?
117. Select the correct statement
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’ (1) CO

(2) Punnett square was developed by a British (2) CO2

scientist
(3) O3
(3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(4) SO2
(4) Spliceosomes take part in translation
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
118. Which of the following flowers only once in its 123. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
life-time? (1) 5th June
(1) Bamboo species (2) Jackfruit
(2) 21st April
(3) Papaya (4) Mango
(3) 22nd April
Answer ( 1 )
119. Niche is (4) 16th September

(1) all the biological factors in the organism's Answer (4)

environment
124. Natality refers to
(2) the physical space where an organism
lives (1) Death rate

(3) the functional role played by the organism (2) Birth rate
where it lives
(3) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(4) the range of temperature that the
(4) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
organism needs to live
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

125. Match the items given in Column I with those 129. Pneumatophores occur in
in Column II and select the correct option (1) Halophytes
given below:
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes
Column I Column II (3) Submerged hydrophytes
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a (4) Carnivorous plants
collection of preserved Answer (1)
plants and animals
130. Plants having little or no secondary growth
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates are
methodically all the (1) Grasses
species found in an area (2) Deciduous angiosperms
with brief description
(3) Cycads
aiding identification
(4) Conifers
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
Answer (1)
and pressed plant
specimens mounted on 131. Casparian strips occur in
sheets are kept (1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a (3) Endodermis (4) Cortex
list of characters and Answer ( 3 )
their alternates which 132. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
are helpful in are produced by
identification of various (1) Apical meristems
taxa.
(2) Vascular cambium
a b c d (3) Axillary meristems
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (4) Phellogen
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Answer ( 2 )
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 133. Select the wrong statement :
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
and Plantae
Answer ( 3 ) (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
126. Which one is wrongly matched? (3) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(4) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
structures in Sporozoans
(3) Unicellular organism – Chlorella Answer ( 4 )
(4) Gemma cups – Marchantia 134. Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer ( 1 ) (1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms
127. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
are produced exogenously in
Salvinia is homosporous
(1) Neurospora (2) Alternaria (3) Stems are usually unbranched in both
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Agaricus Cycas and Cedrus

Answer ( 4 ) (4) Horsetails are gymnosperms

Answer ( 1 )
128. Winged pollen grains are present in
135. Sweet potato is a modified
(1) Mustard (2) Cycas
(1) Stem (2) Adventitious root
(3) Pinus (4) Mango (3) Rhizome (4) Tap root
Answer (3) Answer ( 2 )

16
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

136. The correct order of N-compounds in its 142. The difference between amylose and
decreasing order of oxidation states is amylopectin is

(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl (1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1 6 -linkage
(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(2) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
(3) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 -linkage

(4) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (3) Amylose is made up of glucose and

galactose
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
137. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 1  6 -linkage
elements is
Answer ( 1 )
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl 143. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
which of the following statements is
(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
incorrect?
(3) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl (1) They contain covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains.
(4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
Answer ( 3 )
monomers.
138. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the (3) They contain strong covalents bonds in
following metals can be used to reduce their polymer chains.
alumina?
(4) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(1) Fe (2) Zn Answer ( 3 )
(3) Cu (4) Mg 144. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
Answer ( 4 )
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
139. Which one of the following elements is unable pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
to form MF63– ion? at STP will be

(1) Ga (2) Al (1) 1.4 (2) 3.0

(3) 4.4 (4) 2.8
(3) In (4) B
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 4 )
145. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
140. Which of the following statements is not true nature?
for halogens?
(1) MgO (2) BeO
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids
(3) CaO (4) BaO
(2) All are oxidizing agents
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
146. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
enthalpy
also gives m-nitroaniline because
(4) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
states
goes to only m-position.
Answer ( 4 ) (2) In electrophilic substitution reactions
141. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone amino group is meta directive.
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (3) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
present as anilinium ion.
(1) One (2) Two
(4) In absence of substituents nitro group
(3) Three (4) Four always goes to m-position.
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )

17
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

147. The compound A on treatment with Na gives 152. Which of the following carbocations is
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react expected to be most stable?
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are NO2 NO2
in the order
(1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl 

(2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa (1) (2)


(3) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
Y H Y H
(4) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH NO2 NO2

Answer ( 3 ) H 
148. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by (3) Y (4) H
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Y 
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
Answer ( 4 )
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is 153. Which of the following is correct with respect
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
(1) CH  CH (2) CH2  CH2
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(3) CH4 (4) CH3 – CH3
(2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
Answer ( 3 ) (3) – NR2 > – OR > – F
149. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following (4) – NH2 > – OR > – F
reactions: Answer ( 1 ) *
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl *Most appropriate Answer is option (1), however
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
option (1) & (2) both can be correct answer
The product 'C' is 154. In the reaction
(1) m-bromotoluene OH O–Na+
(2) o-bromotoluene
CHO
(3) p-bromotoluene + CHCl3 + NaOH
(4) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
Answer ( 1 ) The electrophile involved is

150. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common

pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

due to natural and human activity? (2) Formyl cation CHO  

(1) N2O5
(2) NO2 (3) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 

(3) NO
(4) N2O
(4) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )
155. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
151. Which of the following molecules represents
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
left to right atoms?
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(1) HC  C – C  CH (2) Formation of carboxylate ion
(2) CH2 = CH – C  CH (3) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 (4) More extensive association of carboxylic
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 acid via van der Waals force of attraction
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
18
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

156. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with 158. Which of the following compounds can form a
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and zwitterion?
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic (1) Aniline (2) Acetanilide
smell.
(3) Glycine (4) Benzoic acid
A and Y are respectively
Answer ( 3 )
159. For the redox reaction
(1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O

The correct coefficients of the reactants for

the balanced equation are
(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
MnO4 C2 O24 H+

(1) 16 5 2
CH3
(2) 2 5 16
(3) CH3 OH and I2 (3) 5 16 2
(4) 2 16 5
Answer ( 2 )
160. Which one of the following conditions will
CH – CH3 and I2 favour maximum formation of the product in
(4)
OH the reaction,

Answer ( 4 )  X2 (g) r H   X kJ?

A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
157. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
(1) Low temperature and high pressure
following sequence of reactions:
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
Anhydrous
AlCl3 (3) High temperature and low pressure
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
(4) High temperature and high pressure
(i) O2
P (i) H3O+/
Q+R Answer ( 1 )
161. When initial concentration of the reactant is
P Q R
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO reaction
(1) Is halved
(1) , , CH3CH2 – OH
(2) Is doubled
(3) Remains unchanged
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
(4) Is tripled
(2) , , Answer ( 2 )
162. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
OH equation corresponds to
CH(CH3)2 (1) Density of the gas molecules
(3) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
(2) Volume of the gas molecules
(3) Forces of attraction between the gas
CH(CH3)2 OH molecules
(4) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
(4) Electric field present between the gas
molecules
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 )
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

163. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and 168. The correct difference between first and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the second order reactions is that
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond (1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
dissociation energy of X2 will be depend on reactant concentrations; the
(1) 200 kJ mol–1 (2) 100 kJ mol–1 rate of a second-order reaction does
depend on reactant concentrations
(3) 400 kJ mol–1 (4) 800 kJ mol–1
(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
Answer ( 4 )
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
164. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form second-order reaction does depend on
an ionic compound. If the ground state [A]0
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does
the simplest formula for this compound is
depend on reactant concentrations; the
(1) Mg2X3 (2) MgX2 rate of a second-order reaction does not
(3) Mg3X2 (4) Mg2X depend on reactant concentrations
Answer ( 3 ) (4) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a
165. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room second-order reaction cannot be
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to catalyzed
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at Answer ( 2 )
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming 169. In which case is number of molecules of
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains water maximum?
constant with temperature) is
(1) 18 mL of water
3 4 3 (2) 0.18 g of water
(1) (2)
2 3 2 (3) 10–3 mol of water
(4) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
1 3 3 273 K
(3) (4)
2 4 2 Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 ) 170. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
166. Consider the following species : character is
CN+, CN–, NO and CN (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
Which one of these will have the highest bond (2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
order? (3) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(1) NO (2) CN– (4) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(3) CN (4) CN+ Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 ) 171. Consider the change in oxidation state of
167. Which one is a wrong statement? Bromine corresponding to different emf values
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of as shown in the diagram below :
electron in s orbital is equal to zero
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is –
designated by four quantum numbers Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
(3) The value of m for dz2 is zero
Then the species undergoing
(4) The electronic configuration of N atom is disproportionation is
1 1 1
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
(1) BrO3 (2) BrO4

(3) HBrO (4) Br2

Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )

20
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA

172. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 176. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (1) Tetranuclear (2) Mononuclear
(Ksp) will be
(3) Dinuclear (4) Trinuclear
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
177. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
(2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2 [CoCl2(en)2] is
(3) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 (1) Geometrical isomerism
(4) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 (2) Coordination isomerism
Answer ( 1 ) (3) Linkage isomerism

173. Following solutions were prepared by mixing (4) Ionization isomerism

different volumes of NaOH and HCl of Answer ( 1 )
different concentrations :
178. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well?
M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH (1) CrO42– (2) Cr2O72–
10 10
(3) MnO42– (4) MnO4–
M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH Answer ( 3 )
10 10
179. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
M M complex [Ni(CO)4] are
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5 (1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

M M (2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10 (3) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1? (4) Square planar geometry and
(1) b (2) a paramagnetic
(3) c (4) d Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 3 ) 180. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
174. On which of the following properties does the
in Column II and assign the correct code :
coagulating power of an ion depend?
Column I Column II
(1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
(2) Size of the ion alone
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
(3) The sign of charge on the ion alone
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
(4) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
the ion d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
Answer ( 4 )
v. 15 BM
175. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and a b c d
3.59, which one of the following gases is most (1) iv v ii i
easily liquefied?
(2) i ii iii iv
(1) NH3 (2) H2
(3) iii v i ii
(3) CO2 (4) O2
(4) iv i ii iii
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 1 )

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