1.

Transcription involves the transfer of information from

     a. DNA to RNA.

     b. RNA to DNA.

     c. mRNA to an amino acid sequence.

     d. DNA to an amino acid sequence.

     e. the nucleus to the cytoplasm. (Widau)

2. Which enzyme synthesizes tRNA?

     a. RNA replicase

     b. RNA polymerase

     c. animoacyl-tRNA synthetase

     d. ribosomal enzymes

     e. ribozymes (Widau)

3. All of the following are transcribed from DNA except

     a. exons.

     b. introns.

     c. tRNA.
     d. rRNA.

     e. promoter. (Widau)

4. Which of the following is not involved in the formation of a eukaryotic transcription initiation complex?

     a. TATA box

     b. transcription factors

     c. snRNA

     d. RNA polymerase II

     e. promoter (Widau)

5. Translocation involves

     a. the hydrolysis of a GTP molecule.

     b. the movement of the tRNA in the A site to the P site.

     c. the movement of the mRNA strand one triplet length in the A site.

     d. the release of the unattached tRNA from the E site.

     e. all of the above.  (Meredith)

 6. Place the following events in the synthesis of a protein in the proper order.
     1. A peptide bond forms.

     2. A tRNA matches its anticodon to the codon in the A site.

     3. A tRNA translocates from the A to the P site, and an unattached tRNA leaves the ribosome from
the E site.

     4. The large subunit attaches to the small subunit and the initiator tRNA fits in the P site.

     5. A small subunit binds to an mRNA and an initiator tRNA.

          a. 4-5-3-2-1

          b. 4-5-2-1-3

          c. 5-4-3-2-1

          d. 5-4-1-2-3

          e. 5-4-2-1-3    (Meredith)

7.  If the 5' -> 3' nucleotide sequence on the complementary (noncoding) DNA strand is CAT, what is the
corresponding codon on mRNA?

     a.  UAC

     b.  CAU

     c.  GUA

     d.  GTA
     e.  CAT                    (Wilkerson)

8.  Which of the following is true of RNA processing?

     a.  exons are exercised before the mRNA is translated 

     b.  the RNA transcript that leaves the nucleus may be much longer than the original transcript
     c.  assemblies of protein and snRNPs, called spliceosomes, may catalyze splicing
     d.  large quantities of rRNA are assembled into ribosomes
     e.  signal peptides are added to the 5' end of the transcript                    (Wilkerson)
 
9.  A ribozyme is
     a.  an exception to the one gene-one RNA molecule axion
     b.  an enzyme that adds the 5' cap and a poly-A tail to mRNA
     c.  an example of rearrangement of protein domains caused by RNA splicing
     d.  an RNA molecule that functions as an enzyme
     e.  an enzyme that produces both small and large ribosomal units                    (Wilkerson)
 
10.  All of the following would be found in a prokaryotic cell except
     a.  mRNA
     b.  rRNA
     c.  simultaneous transcription and translation
     d.  snRNA
     e.  RNA polymerase                    (Wilkerson)
 
11.  Which of the following is transcribed and then translated to form a protein product?
     a.  gene for tRNA
     b.  intron
     c.  gene for a transcription factor
     d.  5' and 3' UTRs
     e.  gene for rRNA                    (Wilkerson)
 
12.  Which of the following type of molecule catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond?
     a.  RNA polymerase
     b.  rRNA
     c.  mRNA
     d.  aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
     e.  protein ribosomal enzyme                    (Wilkerson)
 
13.  Which of the following is not true of an anticodon?
     a.  it consists of three nucleotides
     b.  it lines up in the 5' -> 3' direction along the 5' -> 3' mRNA strand
     c.  it extends from one loop of a tRNA molecule
     d.  it may pair with more than one codon
     e.  its base uracil base-pairs with adenine                    (Wilkerson)
 
14.  A base deletion early in the coding sequence of a gene may result in
     a.  a nonsense mutation
     b.  a frameshift mutation
     c.  multiple missense mutations
     d.  a nonfunctional protein
     e.  all of the above                    (Wilkerson)
 
 
 

 
 

Answers

1.  a.

2   b.

3.  e.

4.  c.

5.  e.

6.  e.

7.  b.

8.  c.

9.  d.

10.  d.

11.  c.

12.  b.

13.  b.

14.  e.
Practice Exam 1

1. Homologous pairs or sets of chromosomes separate from each other

during:
a. mitosis
b. meiosis 1
c. meiosis 2
d. both a and b
e. all of the above

2. Bacteria can reproduce by:

a. mitosis
b. binary fission
c. meiosis
d. both a and b
e. all of the above

3. Among the eukaryotic protists asexual reproduction can occur as a

result of:
a. mitosis
b. binary fission
c. meiosis
d. both a and b
e. all of the above

4. Most of the normal metabolically functioning somatic cells of your

body are in what stage or phase of the cell cycle?
a. M phase
b. G2 phase
c. G1 phase
d. S phase
e. Interkinesis

5. New and extra organelles would be produced for preparation of cell

division primarily during which phase of the cell cycle?
a. M phase
b. G2 phase
c. G1 phase
d. S phase
e. cytokinesis

6. During which phase of the cell cycle would you expect the greatest
amounts of retinoblastoma protein to be bound to transcription
factors?
a. M phase
 b. G2 phase
c. G1 phase
d. S phase
e. cytokinesis

7. The cleavage furrow is a feature observed in animal cells during

which phase of the cell cycle or mitosis?
a. anaphase
b. cytokinesis
c. prophase
d. G1 phase
e. S phase

8. Which of the following describes a difference between genophores

and eukaryotic chromosomes?
a. one is composed of DNA and the other is composed of RNA
b. only eukaryotic chromosomes contain genes
c. one is a circular molecule, while the other is linear
d. one is single stranded DNA, while the other is double stranded
e. none of the above

9. Just prior to cell division the chromatin compacts/condenses. Which

process is most likely to be inhibited by this?
a. the orderly distribution of genetic material into two nuclei
b. translation
c. transcription
d. formation of the spindle
e. formation of kinetochores

10. The mitotic organizing center is most synomous to which of the

following?
a. centrosomes
b. centromeres
c. kinetochores
d. cell plate
e. chiasmata

11. Which of the following would not be observed in both mitosis

prophase and prophase 1 of meiosis?
a. centrosomes
b. centromeres
c. spindle apparatus
d. chiasmata
e. sister chromatids

12. In meiosis:
 a. chromosome complement is still diploid at the completion of
meiosis I
b. centromeres separate at the beginning of anaphase I
c. a single nucleus gives rise to two identical daughter nuclei.
d. DNA replicates between meiosis I and meiosis II.
e. sister chromatids separate during meiosis II

13. During telophase of mitosis:

a. spindle apparatus forms
b. chromatin is beginning to reappear
c. independent assortment occurs
d. the nuclear envelope fragments
e. sister chromatids separate

14. Which of the following cell cycle stages does not necessarily occur
in cells that have divided by mitosis or meiosis?
a. M phase
b. S phase
c. G2 phase
d. cytokinesis
e. all of the above

15. During meiosis tetrads can be observed during:

a. telophase 2
b. anaphase 2
c. anaphase 1
d. prophase 1
e. metaphase 2

16. The actual collection of different genes or alleles in a person would

be referred to as their:
a. autosomes
b. phenotype
c. diploid chromosome number
d. genotype
e. haploid chromosome number

17. All of the following are known to contribute to genetic variation in

eukaryotic organisms EXCEPT:
a. crossing over
b. random assortment of homologous chromosomes
c. transformation
d. random fertilization of gametes
e. mutation
18. What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew
from his research?
a. Meiosis underlies sexual reproduction
b. DNA was most likely the genetic material of inheritance
c. Dominant alleles occur more frequently than recessive alleles
d. Chromosome behavior during mitosis is the basis for the law of
segregation
e. Traits are inherited in discrete units, one from each parent

19. Geneticist now know that Mendel’s law of independent assortment is

a mechanism of:
a. meiosis 1
b. meiosis 2
c. mitosis
d. both a and b
e. all the above

20. If a tall (T) pea plant is crossed with a dwarf (t) pea plant and all the
F1 generation plants at tall, then what are the chances (probability)
of dwarf pea plants showing up in the F2 generation?
a. 0
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%

21. An animal is found to have the correct genotype for producing

brown fur pigment, but its fur appears white. This is most likely the
result of:
a. epistasis
b. incomplete dominance
c. co-dominant alleles
d. the presence of multiple alleles for that gene locus
e. pleiotropy

22. If the offspring of two organisms displays a phenotype that appears

as a blend of the two parental types then it is probably an example
of:
a. epistasis
b. incomplete dominance
c. co-dominant alleles
d. the presence of multiple alleles for that gene locus
e. pleiotropy

Perform a dihybrid cross, with the following information, to

answer questions 23-24. In black bears, black color (B) is
 dominant over blond (b), and long hair (L) is dominant over
short hair (l). Cross the following individuals: BbLl X BbLl.
Assume the genes are unlinked.

23. What is the probability of the offspring from the above cross being
black and short-haired?
a. 0
b. 1/16
c. 3/16
d. 5/16
e. 9/16

24. How many different phenotypes could result from the above cross?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. five

25. Compactodactyly (bent, immobile little fingers) is an autosomal

dominant trait in humans. However, it has penetrance of 88 percent.
This means that:
a. not all the individuals with this disorder have the dominant allele.
b. not everyone with the dominant allele shows symptoms in their
phenotype.
c. the phenotype is the same in 88 percent of individuals with this
condition.
d. homozygous dominant individuals show the symptoms, but
heterozygotes do not.
e. only homozygous recessives lack symptoms of this condition.

26. A trait expressed only in females, but not males would be:
a. sex-linked
b. sex-limited
c. sex-influenced
d. pleiotropic
e. incomplete dominance

27. Color blindness is a sex (X chromosome)-linked recessive trait. A

color-blind man marries a normal vision woman heterozygous for
this trait. What is the probability that a daughter born to them would
be color-blind?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
 e. 100%

28. As a result of replication what are the sister chromatids composed

of?
a. one sister chromatid is the original double helix and the other is
newly synthesized.
b. both sister chromatids have one original DNA strand and one
newly synthesized strand.
c. each strand of DNA in the sister chromatids is a mixture of
original and new DNA segments
d. all the above are possible
e. none of the above

29. All of the following are required for DNA synthesis EXCEPT:
a. aminoacyl transferase
b. Helicase
c. DNA polymerase
d. DNA ligase
e. single-strand binding proteins

30. What enzyme is primarily responsible for adding nucleotides to the

growing DNA strand during chromosome replication?
a. DNA helicase
b. RNA primase
c. DNA polymerase
d. DNA ligase
e. RNA polymerase

31. The primers necessary for the initiation of DNA replication are
eventually replaced with the proper nucleotides by which of the
following enzymes?
a. RNA primase
b. Helicase
c. DNA polymerase
d. DNA ligase
e. single-strand binding proteins

32. DNA replication is a very accurate process in part due to the

proofreading and repair activities of which of the following
enzymes?
a. DNA nucleases
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA polymerase
d. both a and b
e. all the above
33. Which of the following is the first to attach or bind to the promoter
region of a gene for the initiation of transcription?
a. RNA primase
b. RNA polymerase
c. DNA polymerase
d. transcription factors
e. DNA ligase

34. Which of the following represents the flow of information according

to the central dogma of molecular biology?
a. DNA à transcription à RNA à translation à protein
b. RNA à transcription à DNA à translation à protein
c. DNA à replicationà RNA à transcription à protein à translation
d. protein à replication à DNA à transcription à RNA
e. none of the above

35. All of the following are directly involved in translation EXCEPT:

a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. ribosomes
d. rRNA
e. introns

36. Which of the following is primarily a series of codons?

a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. exon
d. rRNA
e. intron

37. Splicesomes are involved in the conversion of:

a. DNA to RNA
b. RNA to protein
c. hnRNA to mRNA
d. tRNA to polypeptide
e. rRNA to protein

38. A nonsense mutation usually results from a:

a. a nucleotide base addition
b. a nucleotide base deletion
c. a nucleotide base substitution
d. a deletion of two consecutive bases
e.       all of the above

Answers to exam 1: 1. b, 2. b, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b, 6. c, 7. b, 8. c, 9. c, 10. a,

11. d, 12. e, 13. b, 14. d, 15. d, 16. d, 17. c, 18. e, 19. a, 20. b, 21. a, 22. b
or c possible, 23. c, 24. d, 25. b, 26. b, 27. c, 28. b, 29. a, 30. c, 31. c, 32, e,
33. d, 34. a, 35. e, 36. a, 37. c, 38. c.

Practice Exam 2

1. Small circular extra-chromosomal DNA molecules, usually carrying

just a few genes, are called:
a. plasmids
b. histones
c. viroids
d. transposable elements
e. prions

2. An existing virus that acquires the ability to infect a new host species
(like Ebola and Hanta virus), sometimes causing lethal symptoms, is
referred to by epidemiologists as a(n):
a. virion
b. episome
c. emergent virus
d. retrovirus
e. transposon

3. Which of the following best describes an enhancer?

a. a regulatory stretch of DNA located upstream from a gene
b. The DNA sequence where RNA polymerase can attach to begin
transcription
c. a non-coding gene
d. a cluster or sequence of genes for enzymes involved in the same
metabolic pathway
e. a regulatory protein for transcription

4. The protein compartment that forms around or encloses the viral

genetic material is called a(n):
a. prion
b. capsid
c. envelope
d. episome
e. prophage

5. In bacterial transduction:
a. a virus transfers genetic material between bacteria
b. a bacteria picks up or absorbs DNA from the environment
c. the bacteria clones itself
 d. one of the bacteria must have an F+ plasmid or episome
e. none of the above

6. Which of the following occurs during the lysogenic cycle of viruses

but not the lytic cycle?
a. viral genome becomes incorporated into a host chromosome
b. immediate reproduction of the virus
c. the formation of an envelope
d. the genetic material is converted into RNA molecules
e. the lysis of the host cell

7. The pilus is a necessary feature for which of the following

processes?
a. transduction
b. conjugation
c. transposons
d. transformation
e. no exceptions - all the above

8. Which of the following features of the structure or expression of

genomes is unique to prokaryotes?
a. operon
b. transcription factors
c. silencer
d. promoter region
e. euchromatin

9. In a repressible operon for the production of a particular amino acid:

a. the amino acid product can act as a corepressor
b. the enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes
c. the repressor binds to the operator in the absence of the amino
acid product
d. the amino acid product inactivates the repressor
e. the amino acid product induces operon transcription

10. Which of the following is a transcription factor?

a. operon
b. repressor
c. enhancer
d. promoter
e. operator

11. A viral envelope is:

a. made of capsids
b. entirely composed of proteins
c. derived from the host membrane
 d. produced from the transcripts of viral DNA
e. the safest way to mail viruses

12. All of the following are involved at the chromatin level of the
control of gene expression EXCEPT:
a. methylation
b. ubiquitin
c. gene amplification
d. promoter
e. histones

13. Which of the following enzymes can cut or digest DNA at specific
locations into smaller fragments or strands?
a. RNA polymerase
b. DNA ligase
c. reverse transcriptase
d. restriction enzymes
e. DNA polymerase

14. The Sanger method uses dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) for:

a. gene cloning
b. DNA hybridization
c. RNA hybridization
d. DNA sequencing
e. polymerase chain reaction

15. Which of the following methods would you use radioactive probes to
identify or find specific mRNA molecules?
a. Sanger method
b. Southern blotting
c. Northern blotting
d. polymerase chain reaction
e. Chromosome walking

16. Bacterial DNA replication enzymes capable of functioning at high

temperatures have specifically revolutionized which of the following
methods?
a. Sanger method
b. Southern blotting
c. Northern blotting
d. polymerase chain reaction
e. gel electrophoresis

17. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is transcripted from mRNA and

therefore differs from the original gene from which it was derived
because it lacks or is missing:
 a. introns
b. codons
c. exons
d. pitons
e. anticodons

18. Restriction fragment length polymorphisms, or RFLPs, can be

separated according to their length or size by which of the following
methods?
a. Sanger method
b. Southern blotting
c. Northern blotting
d. polymerase chain reaction
e. gel electrophoresis

19. True or False. Lethal dominant genes are more common than lethal
recessive genes in human populations.

20. Which of the following is responsible for the most significant

number of cases of mental retardation in the U.S. and the world?
a. Cri du Chat
b. progeria
c. Patau’s syndrome
d. Edward’s syndrome
e. Fragile X syndrome

21. Which of the following would not be the result of a point mutation?
a. autosomal dominant disorder
b. autosomal recessive disorder
c. x-linked recessive disorder
d. x-linked dominant disorder
e. aneuploidy

22. Which autosomal recessive disorder affects the ability of a person to

produce or make the amino acid tyrosine:
a. phenylketonuria
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. cystic fibrosis
d. galactosemia
e. progeria

23. Which autosomal recessive allele is clearly selected for in some

tropical regions when it is in the heterozygous genotype?
a. Huntingtons
b. sickle-cell anemia
c. cystic fibrosis
 d. galactosemia
e. progeria

Answers to exam 2: 1. a, 2. c, 3. a. 4. b, 5. a, 6. a, 7. b, 8. a, 9. a, 10. b, 11. c, 12. b, 13. d, 14. d, 15. c, 16.

d, 17. a, 18. e, 19. b, 20. e, 21. e, 22. a, 23. B

17.__E__ The joining of nucleotides in the polymerization of DNA requires energy from:
a. DNApolymerase; b. the hydrolysis of the terminal phosphate group of ATP; c.  RNA
nucleotides; d. the hydrolysis of GTP; e. the hydrolysis of the two terminal phosphates from
nucleoside triphosphates.

Refer to the diagram below to answer questions 18-20.

18.__A___ Which letter indicates the 5' end of this single DNA strand?
a.         b.         c.         d.         e.

19.__D___At which letter would the next nucleotide be added?

a.        b.        c.         d.        e.

20.___B__Which letter indicates a phosphodiester bond formed by DNA polymerase?

a.        b.        c.         d.        e.

21.___B__ In Beadle and Tatum's study of Neurospora, they were able to identify three
classes of arginine auxotrophs, mutants that needed arginine added to minimal media in
order to grow.  The pathway in the production of arginine includes the following steps:
precursor ? ornithine ? citrulline ? arginine. What nutrient(s) had to be added to the
minimal medium in order for the class of mutant with a defective enzyme for the
precursor ? ornithine step to grow?
a. precursor only; b. ornithine only; c.  citrulline only; d. ornithine or citrulline;
e. precursor, ornithine, and citrulline.

22.__E___ Translocation involves:

a. the hydrolysis of a GTP molecule; b. the movement of the tRNA in the A site to the P
site; c.  the movement of the mRNA strand one triplet length in the A site; d. the release \
of the unattached tRNA from the E site; e. all of the above.

23.___c__ Which of the following is transcribed and then translated to form a protein
product?
a. gene for tRNA; b. intron; c. gene for a transcription factor; d. leader and
trailer; e. gene for rRNA.

24.__B___ Once transcribed, eukaryotic hnRNA typically undergoes substantial alteration that
includes:
a. fusion into circular forms known as plasmids; b. linkage to histone molecules;
c. excision of introns; d. union with ribosomes; e. fusion with other newly transcribed mRNA.
25.__D___Which of the following is TRUE for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene
expression?
a. mRNA is synthesized in the 3' rightarrow 5' direction; b. fter transcription, a 3' poly (A) tail
and a 5' cap are added to mRNA; c. Translation of mRNA can begin before transcription is
complete; d. RNA polymerase may recognize a promoter region upstream from the gene; e. The
mRNA transcript is the exact complement of the gene from which it was copied.

26.___B__A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AGT. The
corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is:
a. Either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base; b. UCA;
c. TCA; d. AGU.

27.__B___ When a ribosome first attaches to an mRNA molecule, one tRNA binds to the
ribosome. The tRNA that recognizes the initiation codon binds to the
a. amino acid site (A site) of the ribosome only; b. peptide site (P site) of the ribosome only; c.
large ribosomal subunit only; d. second tRNA before attaching to the ribosome;
e. Both A and C are correct.

28.__A___ Which of the following is NOT related to ribosomal activity?

a. spliceosome; b. codon recognition; c. P site; d. peptide bond formation;
e. A site.

29.___A__ What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA
molecule?
a. hydrogen bonding between base pairs; b. peptide bonding between amino acids;
c. ionic bonding between phosphates; d. covalent bonding between sulfur atoms;
e. van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms.

30.__B___ Which of the following helps to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation?
a. spliceosomes; b. poly(A) tail; c. snRNPs; d. introns; e. TATA box.

rgizaw on
4) Which of the following is not true of A) Exons are cut out before Saturday,
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RNA processing? mRNA leaves the nucleus. April 10,
2010
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3) The anticodon of a particular tRNA A) complementary to the Saturday,
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molecule is corresponding mRNA codon. April 10,
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2) Which of the following is not true of a D) It extends from one end Saturday,
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codon? of a tRNA molecule. April 10,
2010
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76) Of the following, which is the most expressed to form a Saturday,
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75) Gene expression in Archaea differs
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74) Which of the following statements B) Translation can begin
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73) Which point mutation would be most
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72) Which of the following DNA
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71) A frameshift mutation could result E) either an insertion or a Saturday,
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70) Sickle-cell disease is probably the Saturday,
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67) What is the effect of a nonsense Saturday,
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66) Which of the following types of
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chemical food additive is developed by a
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64) Why might a point mutation in DNA D) It might substitute an
Saturday,
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63) When the ribosome reaches a stop
codon on the mRNA, no corresponding A) an assembled ribosome rgizaw on
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stopped at this point, which of the P site 2010
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61) Which component of the complex
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60) Where does tRNA #2 move to after Saturday,
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59) Which enzyme causes a covalent Saturday,
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58) An experimenter has altered the 3'
end of the tRNA corresponding to the rgizaw on
amino acid methionine in such a way as C) The amino acid Saturday,
0
to remove the 3' AC. Which of the methionine will not bind. April 10,
following hypotheses describes the most 2010
likely result?
rgizaw on
57) When a tRNA molecule is shown
Saturday,
twisted into an L shape, the form C) its 3-dimensional shape. 0
April 10,
represented is
2010
rgizaw on
56) When does translation begin in B) as soon as transcription Saturday,
0
prokaryotic cells? has begun April 10,
2010
55) When translating secretory or B) a signal-recognition 0 rgizaw on
 particle that brings
Saturday,
membrane proteins, ribosomes are ribosomes to a receptor
April 10,
directed to the ER membrane by protein in the ER
2010
membrane.
rgizaw on
D) to translocate
54) Which of the following is a function Saturday,
polypeptides across the ER 0
of a signal peptide? April 10,
membrane
2010
rgizaw on
A) groups of ribosomes
Saturday,
53) What are polyribosomes? reading a single mRNA 0
April 10,
simultaneously
2010
rgizaw on
52) As a ribosome translocates along an
A) The tRNA that was in the Saturday,
mRNA molecule by one codon, which of 0
A site moves into the P site. April 10,
the following occurs?
2010
51) Choose the answer that has these
events of protein synthesis in the proper
sequence.
1. An aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the A site.
rgizaw on
2. A peptide bond forms between the
Saturday,
new amino acid and a polypeptide chain. B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 0
April 10,
3. tRNA leaves the P site, and the P site
2010
remains vacant.
4. A small ribosomal subunit binds with
mRNA.
5. tRNA translocates to the P site.
E) the small subunit of the rgizaw on
50) From the following list, which is the ribosome recognizes and Saturday,
0
first event in translation in eukaryotes? attaches to the 5' cap of April 10,
mRNA 2010
rgizaw on
49) What is the most abundant type of Saturday,
C) rRNA 0
RNA? April 10,
2010
48) There are 61 mRNA codons that B) the rules for base pairing rgizaw on
specify an amino acid, but only 45 between the third base of a Saturday,
0
tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact codon and tRNA are April 10,
that flexible. 2010
47) A mutant bacterial cell has a
B) proteins in the cell will
defective aminoacyl synthetase that rgizaw on
include lysine instead of
attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the Saturday,
phenylalanine at amino acid 0
anticodon AAA instead of a April 10,
positions specified by the
phenylalanine. The consequence of this 2010
codon UUU.
for the cell will be that
rgizaw on
42) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA
Saturday,
into the primary structure of a E) both C and D 0
April 10,
polypeptide depends on specificity in the
2010
41) A particular triplet of bases in the rgizaw on
coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The Saturday,
C) UUU. 0
anticodon on the tRNA that binds the April 10,
mRNA codon is 2010
40) In an experimental situation, a
student researcher inserts an mRNA D) The molecule is digested rgizaw on
molecule into a eukaryotic cell after he by exonucleases since it is Saturday,
0
has removed its 5' cap and poly(A) tail. no longer protected at the April 10,
Which of the following would you expect 5' end. 2010
him to find?
rgizaw on
39) Each eukaryotic mRNA, even after B) the untranslated regions
Saturday,
post-transcriptional modification, at either end of the coding 0
April 10,
includes 5' and 3' UTRs. Which are these? sequence
2010
38) In the structural organization of rgizaw on
many eukaryotic genes, individual exons C) the various domains of Saturday,
0
may be related to which of the the polypeptide product April 10,
following? 2010
rgizaw on
B) can allow the production
Saturday,
37) Alternative RNA splicing of proteins of different 0
April 10,
sizes from a single mRNA.
2010
rgizaw on
36) During splicing, which molecular
Saturday,
component of the spliceosome catalyzes C) RNA 0
April 10,
the excision reaction?
2010
rgizaw on
C) They join together to
35) Which of the following is (are) true Saturday,
form a large structure 0
of snRNPs? April 10,
called the spliceosome.
2010
rgizaw on
34) A mutation in which of the following
Saturday,
parts of a gene is likely to be most B) exon 0
April 10,
damaging to a cell?
2010
rgizaw on
33) Introns are significant to biological A) their presence allows Saturday,
0
evolution because exons to be shuffled. April 10,
2010
rgizaw on
32) Once transcribed, eukaryotic mRNA
Saturday,
typically undergoes substantial D) excision of introns. 0
April 10,
alteration that includes
2010
31) A transcription unit that is 8,000
rgizaw on
nucleotides long may use 1,200 A) many noncoding
Saturday,
nucleotides to make a protein consisting stretches of nucleotides are 0
April 10,
of approximately 400 amino acids. This is present in mRNA.
2010
best explained by the fact that
30) What are the coding segments of a B) exons 0 rgizaw on
stretch of eukaryotic DNA called? Saturday,
 April 10,
2010
rgizaw on
B) an RNA with enzymatic Saturday,
29) What is a ribozyme? 0
activity April 10,
2010
rgizaw on
28) Which of the following help(s) to
Saturday,
stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its C) 5' cap and poly (A) tail 0
April 10,
degradation?
2010
27) The TATA sequence is found only rgizaw on
A) the number of hydrogen
several nucleotides away from the start Saturday,
bonds between A and T in 0
site of transcription. This most probably April 10,
DNA
relates to which of the following? 2010
rgizaw on
26) A part of the promoter, called the C) Any mutation in the
Saturday,
TATA box, is said to be highly conserved sequence is selected 0
April 10,
in evolution. Which might this illustrate? against.
2010
rgizaw on
25) Transcription in eukaryotes requires
D) several transcription Saturday,
which of the following in addition to RNA 0
factors (TFs) April 10,
polymerase?
2010
24) In eukaryotes there are several rgizaw on
different types of RNA polymerase. Saturday,
C) RNA polymerase II 0
Which type is involved in transcription of April 10,
mRNA for a globin protein? 2010
B) It codes for a sequence
rgizaw on
in eukaryotic transcripts
23) Which of these is the function of a Saturday,
that signals enzymatic 0
poly (A) signal sequence? April 10,
cleavage ~10—35
2010
nucleotides away.
22) RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is
composed of several subunits. Most of
B) It might allow the
these subunits are the same for the rgizaw on
polymerase to recognize
transcription of any gene, but one, Saturday,
different promoters under 0
known as sigma, varies considerably. April 10,
certain environmental
Which of the following is the most 2010
conditions.
probable advantage for the organism of
such sigma switching?
rgizaw on
21) RNA polymerase moves in which A) 3' → 5' along the Saturday,
0
direction along the DNA? template strand April 10,
2010
B) RNA polymerase
transcribes through the rgizaw on
20) Which of the following statements
terminator sequence, Saturday,
best describes the termination of 0
causing the polymerase to April 10,
transcription in prokaryotes?
fall off the DNA and release 2010
the transcript.
 D) RNA polymerase can
rgizaw on
19) In which of the following actions initiate RNA synthesis, but
Saturday,
does RNA polymerase differ from DNA DNA polymerase requires a 0
April 10,
polymerase? primer to initiate DNA
2010
synthesis.
rgizaw on
18) Which of the following is true for C) RNA polymerase binds to
Saturday,
both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene the promoter region to 0
April 10,
expression? begin transcription.
2010
rgizaw on
D) a triplet in the same
17) Which of the following nucleotide Saturday,
reading frame as an 0
triplets best represents a codon? April 10,
upstream AUG
2010
A) If UGA, usually a stop
16) The "universal" genetic code is now rgizaw on
codon, is found to code for
known to have exceptions. Evidence for Saturday,
an amino acid such as 0
this could be found if which of the April 10,
tryptophan (usually coded
following is true? 2010
for by UGG only).
15) The genetic code is essentially the rgizaw on
same for all organisms. From this, one C) DNA was the first genetic Saturday,
0
can logically assume all of the following material. April 10,
except 2010
10) A particular triplet of bases in the rgizaw on
template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The Saturday,
A) 3' UCA 5'. 0
corresponding codon for the mRNA April 10,
transcribed is 2010
9) The enzyme polynucleotide
phosphorylase randomly assembles
nucleotides into a polynucleotide rgizaw on
polymer. You add polynucleotide Saturday,
C) 8 0
phosphorylase to a solution of adenosine April 10,
triphosphate and guanosine 2010
triphosphate. How many artificial mRNA
3 nucleotide codons would be possible?
8) If proteins were composed of only 12
rgizaw on
different kinds of amino acids, what
Saturday,
would be the smallest possible codon B) 2 0
April 10,
size in a genetic system with four
2010
different nucleotides?
7) Using RNA as a template for protein rgizaw on
B) RNA acts as an
synthesis instead of translating proteins Saturday,
expendable copy of the 0
directly from the DNA is advantageous April 10,
genetic material.
for the cell because 2010
rgizaw on
6) The nitrogenous base adenine is found Saturday,
C) ATP, RNA, and DNA 0
in all members of which group? April 10,
2010
5) If A, B, and C are all required for D) minimal medium 0 rgizaw on
growth, a strain mutant for the gene supplemented with "C" only Saturday,
encoding enzyme B would be capable of April 10,
growing on which of the following media? 2010
rgizaw on
4) If A, B, and C are all required for C) minimal medium
Saturday,
growth, a strain that is mutant for the supplemented with nutrient 0
April 10,
gene encoding enzyme "B" only
2010
rgizaw on
3) A mutation results in a defective
A) an accumulation of A and Saturday,
enzyme A. Which of the following would 0
no production of B and C April 10,
be a consequence of that mutation?
2010
rgizaw on
2) According to Beadle and Tatum's
Saturday,
hypothesis, how many genes are C) 2 0
April 10,
necessary for this pathway?
2010
A) genes dictate the
production of specific
1) Garrod hypothesized that "inborn
enzymes, and affected
errors of metabolism" such as
individuals have genetic
alkaptonuria occur because
defects that cause them to
lack certain enzymes.