1- The lip line during smiling is divided into high, low and moderate.

The percentages in

each group among the general population are:

a-High 20%, low 20%, moderate 60%

b-High 30%, low 20%, moderate 50%

c-High 10%, low 20%, moderate 70%

d-High 10%, low 30%, moderate 60%

e-High 30%, low 10%, moderate 60%

2- Factors that determine the fullness of the dental papillae in the embrasure area include:

a- abutment design

b- implant diameter

c- hemidesmosomes attachment

d- the distance between the crestal bone and the crown contact area

e- all of the above

3- In a fully edentulous upper ridge, bone resorption will be:

a- centripetal

b- centrifugal

c- inward and upward direction

d- outward and upward direction

e- a& c

4- In a fully edentulous lower ridge, bone resorption will be:

a- centripetal in the anterior region and centrifugal in the posterior region

b- centrifugal in the anterior region and centripetal in the posterior region

c- centrifugal in the anterior and posterior region

d- centripetal in the anterior and posterior region

5- Pitch refers to:

a- angulation of the threads

b- the depth of the thread

c- width of the threads

d- distance between the implant threads

e- none of the above

6- Progressive implant loading is recommended for implants:

a- dense bone

b- with screw crown placed

c- placed in poor bone density

d- immediately placed

e- a&b

7- For coronal growth of the interimplant papillae, the crown surface should be:

a- convex
b- concave

c- flat

d- smooth

e- b&d

8- Interdental papillae loss between implants or between the implant and the tooth will

cause:

a- phonetic problem

b- aesthetic problem

c- peri- implant gingivitis

d- increasing probing depth

e- a&b

9- Disadvantage of a ridge lab crown is:

a- difficult to maintain oral hygiene

b- difficulty of probing

c- disharmonious of the gingival margins

d- compromise the desired emergence profile

e- all of the above

10- Contact between an implant and a natural tooth is discouraged because:

a- different angulation of implant and natural teeth

b- mobility differences between implants and teeth

c- retrievability would be difficult when complication happened

d- cleaning and maintaining oral hygiene would be hard

e- none of the above

11- Splinting multiple dental implants has been recommended to reduce load risk factors.

However, using a single unit allows:

a- better emergence profiles

b- retrievability would be easy in comparison to splinting implant

c- improved passive fit of the metal framework

d- better oral hygiene access

e- all of the above

12- The mean value for the axial mobility of the teeth is 25 to 100 µm, whereas the axial

displacement of osseointegrated implants is:

a- 20 to 50 µm

b- 20 to 30 µm

c- 20 to 25 µm

d- 3 to 5 µm

e- none of the above

13- During lateral loading, the tooth moves at the apical third of the root, and the force is
instantly dissipated from the crest of the bone along the root. By contrast, the implant moves

10 to 50 µm laterally, and the concentration of forces is at:

a- middle third

b- coronal and apical third

c- crestal bone

d- apical third

e- none of the above

14- General recommendations for occlusal morphology include:

a- flat fossa and grooves for wide freedom in centric

b- shallow occlusal anatomy

c- a narrow occlusal table

d- reduced cuspal inclination

e- all of the above

15- The proposed crown/implant ratio for a tissue- level implant is:

a- the length of anatomical crown (until the implant shoulder)/ implant length

b- the length of clinical crown (until the bone crest)/ implant length

c- the length of clinical crown (until the implant shoulder)/ implant length

d- a- the length of anatomical crown (until the bone crest)/ implant length

e- none of the above

16- Occlusal materials for an implant- supported prosthesis that transmit less force to the

bone during loading include:

a- zirconia

b- acrylic

c- gold alloy

d- porcelain
e- b&c

17- Parafunctional activities have been attributed to technical and mechanical

complications, including:

a- veneering porcelain chipping

b- fracture or screw loosening

c- crown decementation

d- crestal bone resorption

e- all of the above

18- When placing posterior canine implants, guidance or protection is important because

the canine assists in:

a- guide the occlusion into centric occlusion

b- withstand more force during mastication

c- keep the posterior implant in contact during excursion movement

d- disclusion in eccentric movements

e- none of the above

19- In cases of posterior canine implants without guidance or protection, guidance should

be replaced by:

a- anterior guidance

b- group of function occlusion

c- protrusive guidance

d- bilateral balanced occlusion

e- none of the above

20- Occlusion adjustment for an implant prosthesis is recommended to have light contact

on a firm occlusion, meaning that:

a- shim stock (8–30 µm) passing through

b- cusp to fossa contact

c- no contact during excursion movement

d- shim stock dragging through

e- b&d

21- An implant placed too coronally in the esthetic zone will result in the following

difficulty:

a- the crown of choice is only cemented crown

b- dark shadow appear through the marginal gingiva

c- insufficient room for the crown to emerge from the tissue

d- insufficient room for porcelain

e- a&d

22- Placing an implant too deep in the esthetic zone will result in the following difficulty:
a- negatively effect on the emergence profile

b- crown look short than the contralateral tooth

c- impression can be a difficult experience

d- screw retained restoration is the treatment of choice

23- For a successful immediately loaded single implant, the following should be

considered:

a- primary implant stability should be achieved

b- occlusal, working, and nonworking contacts eliminated

c- no facial bone loss or dehiscence

d- adjacent teeth should not periodontaly compromised

e- all of the above

24- Occlusal prematurities normally present as:

a- the bicuspid teeth

b- second molar teeth

c- central incisor teeth

d- canine teeth

e- b&c

25- The minimum interocclusal space needed for a posterior implant crown is:

a- 5mm from the crestal bone to the opposing occlusion

b- 5mm from the gingival tissue to the opposing occlusion

c- 7mm from the gingival tissue to the opposing occlusion

d- 8mm from the gingival tissue to the opposing occlusion

e- a&c

26- For a maxillary overdenture implant prosthesis, the minimum interarch space is:

a- 14mm
b- 12mm

c- 10mm

d- 20mm

e- none of the above

27- The advantages of removable prostheses over the fixed in implant dentistry include

all of the following except:

a- less number of implant needed

b- no nocturnal stress on the implant

c- preserved the bony tissue from resorption

d- better in irretrievability

e- easier in maintain the oral hygiene

28- The most common complication of a single- crown implant is:

a- implant fixture fracture

b- abutment screw fracture

c- progressive crestal bone resorption

d- abutment screw loosening

e- b&c

29- To decrease the incidence of abutment screw loosening, the following should be

considered:

a- eliminate the vertical and horizontal cantilever

b- increase abutment screw length and diameter

c- eliminate later excursion contact

d- night guard for bruxiser patient

e- all of the above

30- The upper arch shape can be change from a u to a square if:
a- muliple extraction of 6 anterior teeth

d- congenital missing of 2 lateral incisors

c- early extraction of 4 incisors and persistence of canines

d- early extraction of canines and persistence of 2 laterals incisors

e- none of the above

31- In moderate occlusion, the ratio of the anterio- posterior implant distance to the

cantilever length equals:

a- 1:1

b- 1:2

c- 2:1

d- 1:1.5

e- none of the above

32- For a posterior cantilevered prosthesis, the anterio- posterior implant distance is
measured from:

a- the distal surface of the most distal implant to the central of the anterior implant

b- the mesial surface of the most distal implant to the central of the anterior implant

c- the distal surface of the most distal implant to the distal of the anterior implant

d- the central of the most distal implant to the central of the anterior implant

e- the mesial surface of the most distal implant to the distal of the anterior implant

33- The indication for a cemented crown is:

a- sever angulated implant

b- gingival or supragingival abutment margin

c- multiple implant with different angulation

d- palataly placed implant

e- all of the above

34- The indication for a screw crown is:

a- limited inter arch space

b- subginigval abutment margin

c- angled anterior implant

d- bruxer patient

e- a&b

35- If an implant over denture moves in a different direction, the operator determines the

denture movement based on:

a- anterio- posterior distance

b- bone availability

c- number of implant

d- shape of the dental arch

e- b&c
36- Which arch shape is more favorable for a long posterior cantilever in an edentulous

arch:

a- square arch shape

b- U- arch shape

c- tringular arch shape

d- tapered arch shape

e- none of the above

37- The advantage of a bar- connecting implant over an individual loaded (stud) implant

in an implant overdenture is:

a- with the bar can connect different angulated implant

b- less maintenance needed

c- stress loading can be distributed on many implant

d- allow for better movement during loading

e- all of the above

38- Immediate loading of an interforamina implant placed in the lower edentulous is

common, but the following should be considered:

a- implants should be connected together

b- achieve good primary implant stability

c- implant placed in dense bone

d- cantilever should minimized or eliminated

e- all of the above

39- Mechanical risk in implant dentistry refers to:

a- cantilever prosthesis

b- 1:2 implant to crown ratio

c- soft bone
d- bruxser patient

e- all of the above

40- The passive fitness of a super structure screw- retained bar can be verified through:

a- single screw method

b- fitness of the over denture

c- pain symptoms for unfitted bar

d- unfited bar show increase in the occlusal vertical dimension

e- none of the above

CORRECT ANSWER

Q1

a- High 20%, low 20%, moderate 60%

Q2
d- the distance between the crestal bone and the crown contact area

Q3

a- centripetal

Q4

a- centripetal in the anterior region and centrifugal in the posterior region

Q5

d- distance between the implant threads

Q6

c- placed in poor bone density

Q7

e- b&d

Q8

e- a&b
Q9

e- all of the above

Q10

b- mobility differences between implants and teeth

Q11

e- all of the above

Q12

d- 3 to 5 µm

Q13

c- crestal bone

Q14

e- all of the above

Q15
a- the length of anatomical crown (until the implant shoulder)/ implant length

Q16

e- b&c

Q17

e- all of the above

Q18

d- disclusion in eccentric movements

Q19

b- Group of function occlusion

Q20

a- shim stock (8–30 µm) passing through

Q21
c- insufficient room for the crown to emerge from the tissue

Q22

e- c&d

Q23

e- all of the above

Q24

a- the bicuspid teeth

Q25

b- 5mm from the gingival tissue to the opposing occlusion

Q26

a- 14mm

Q27

c- preserved the bony tissue from resorption

Q28

d- abutment screw loosening

Q29

e- all of the above

Q30

c- early extraction of 4 incisors and persistence of canines

Q31

d- 1:1.5

Q32

a- the distal surface of the most distal implant to the central of the anterior implant

Q33

e- all of the above

Q34
e- a&b

Q35

e- b&c

Q36

d- tapered arch shape

Q37

e- all of the above

Q38

e- all of the above

Q39

e- all of the above

Q40

a- single screw method