Chapter 1

1. Which one of the following is the common standard that defines wireless LAN operation?
a. IEEE 802.1
b. IEEE 802.1x
c. IEEE 802.11
d. IEEE 802.3

R: C. The IEEE 802.11 standard focuses on wireless LAN definitions, methods, and
operation. It is made up of many pieces, as described in Chapter 2, “RF Standards.”
Sometimes you might see IEEE 802.11x, which refers to the many subparts of
802.11. Be aware of the subtle difference between that and 802.1x, which defines
port-based network access control.

2. Which of the following represent the frequency bands commonly used for wireless LANs? (Choose two.)
a. 2.4 MHz
b. 2.4 GHz
c. 5.5 MHz
d. 11 GHz
e. 5 GHz

R: B, E. Wireless LANs use the 2.4-GHz and 5-GHz bands. Be careful to notice the
difference between megahertz (MHz) and gigahertz (GHz). Also remember that 5.5
Mbps and 11 Mbps are some of the common data rates used in wireless LANs, but
those are not involved when you need to identify the frequency band.

3. Two transmitters are each operating with a transmit power level of 100 mW. When you compare the two absolute
power levels, what is the difference in dB?
a. 0 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 100 dB
d. You can’t compare power levels in dB.

R: A. When the two power levels are the same, the result is 0 dB. As long as you remember
the first handy Law of Zero, you will find exam questions like this easy. If not, you
will need to remember that dB = 10log10 (100 mW / 100 mW) = 10log10 (1) = 0 dB.

4. A transmitter is configured to use a power level of 17 mW. One day it is reconfigured to transmit at a new power
level of 34 mW. How much has the power level increased in dB?
a. 0 dB
b. 2 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 17 dB
e. None of these answers are correct; you need a calculator to figure this out.

R: C. At first glance, 17 mW and 34 mW might seem like odd numbers to work with.
Notice that if you double 17, you get 34. The second handy dB fact says that doubling
a power level will increase the dB value by 3.
5. Transmitter A has a power level of 1 mW, and transmitter B is 100 mW. Compare transmitter B to A using dB, and
then identify the correct answer from the following choices.
a. 0 dB
b. 1 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 20 dB
e. 100 dB

R: D. Start with transmitter A’s level of 1 mW and try to figure out some simple operations
that can be used to get to transmitter B’s level of 100 mW. Remember the handy
Laws of 3s and 10s, which use multiplication by 2 and 10. In this case, 1 mW × 10 =
10 mW × 10 = 100 mW. Each multiplication by 10 adds 10 dB, so the end result is 10
+ 10 = 20 dB. Notice that transmitter B is being compared to A (the reference level),
which is 1 mW. You could also state the end result in dB-milliwatt (dBm).

6. A transmitter normally uses an absolute power level of 100 mW. Through the course of needed changes, its power
level is reduced to 40 mW. What is the power-level change in dB?
a. 2.5 dB
b. 4 dB
c. –4 dB
d. –40 dB
e. None of these answers are correct; where is that calculator?

R: C. This question involves a reduction in the power level, so the dB value must be
negative. Try to find a simple way to start with 100 and get to 40 by multiplying or
dividing by 2 or 10. In this case, 100 / 10 = 10; 10 × 2 = 20; 20 × 2 = 40. Dividing by
10 reduced the dB value by 10 dB; then multiplying by 2 increased the total by +3
dB; multiplying again by 2 increased the total by +3 more dB. In other words,
dB = –10 + 3 + 3 = –4 dB.

7. Consider a scenario with a transmitter and a receiver that are separated by some distance. The transmitter uses an
absolute pobwer level of 20 dBm. A cable connects the transmitter to its antenna. The receiver also has a cable
connecting it to its antenna. Each cable has a loss of 2 dB. The transmitting and receiving antennas each have a gain
of 5 dBi. What is the resulting EIRP?
a. +20 dBm
b. +23 dBm
c. +26 dBm
d. +34 dBm
e. None of these answers are correct.

R: B. Remember that the EIRP involves radiated power, and that is calculated using
only the transmitter components. The EIRP is the sum of the transmitter power
level (+20 dBm), the cable loss (–2 dB), and the antenna gain (+5 dBi). Therefore,
the EIRP is +23 dBm.

8. A receiver picks up an RF signal from a distant transmitter. Which one of the following represents the best signal
quality received? Example values are given in parentheses.
a. Low SNR (10 dB), Low RSSI (–75)
b. High SNR (30 dB), Low RSSI (–75)
c. Low SNR (10 dB), High RSSI (–30)
d. High SNR (30 dB), High RSSI (–30)

R: D. A high SNR is best, where the received signal strength is more elevated above the
noise floor. A 30-dBm SNR separates the signal from the noise more than a 10-dBm
SNR does. Likewise, a higher RSSI value means that the signal strength alone is
higher. The RSSI scale ranges from 0 (highest) to –100 (lowest).

9. The typical data rates of 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps can be supported by which one of the following modulation types?
a. OFDM
b. FHSS
c. DSSS
d. QAM

R: C. DSSS supports 1-, 2-, 5.5-, and 11-Mbps data rates through different combinations
of coding and modulation schemes. FHSS is locked to 1 or 2 Mbps. With the
exception of 6 and 9 Mbps, only OFDM supports the highest data rates of all the
modulation types.

10. Put the following modulation schemes in order of the number of possible changes that can be made to the carrier
signal, from lowest to highest.
a. 16-QAM
b. DQPSK
c. DBPSK
d. 64-QAM

R: C, B, A, D. The correct order is C, B, A, D or DBPSK (2 possible phase changes),

DQPSK (4 possible phase changes), 16-QAM (16 possible phase/amplitude changes),
64-QAM (64 possible phase/amplitude changes).

11. 64-QAM modulation alters which two of the following aspects of an RF signal?
a. Frequency
b. Amplitude
c. Phase
d. Quadrature

R: B, C. Both 16-QAM and 64-QAM alter the amplitude and phase of a signal.

12. OFDM offers data rates up to 54 Mbps, but DSSS supports much lower limits. Compared with DSSS, which one of
the following does OFDM leverage to achieve its superior data rates?
a. Higher-frequency band
b. Wider 20-MHz channel width
c. 48 subcarriers in a channel
d. Faster chipping rates
e. Greater number of channels in a band

R: C. OFDM uses 48 subcarriers in a single 20-MHz-wide channel, allowing it to

transmit data bits in parallel. DSSS uses a single 22-MHz channel with only one
main carrier signal.
Chapter 2

1. Which regulatory body allocated the 2.4–2.5-GHz band for industrial, scientific, and medical use?
a. IEEE
b. ETSI
c. ITU-R
d. FCC

R: C. The ITU-R allocated the ISM bands for global use.

2. The U-NII-1 band is used for which one of the following purposes?
a. 2.4-GHz wireless LANs
b. 5-GHz wireless LANs
c. Medical applications
d. Point-to-point links

R: B. The U-NII-1 band is the first of four 5-GHz bands set aside for wireless LAN
use

3. In the 2.4-GHz band, the FCC limits the EIRP of a point-to-multipoint link to which one of the following maximum
values?
a. 100 mW
b. 20 dBm
c. 50 mW
d. 36 dBm

R: D. The EIRP is always limited to +36 dBm in the 2.4-GHz band, except in the case
of point-to-point links.

4. Wireless LAN operation is defined in which one of the following standards?

a. 802.1
b. 802.2
c. 802.3
d. 802.11
e. 802.15

R: D. The IEEE 802.11 standard is the official specification for wireless LAN
operation.

5. Which one of the following specifies the correct list of non-overlapping channels for DSSS use in the 2.4-GHz band?
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 5, 10
c. 1, 6, 11
d. 1, 8, 13
e. All of channels 1–14

R: C. Only channels 1, 6, and 11 are non-overlapping. The 2.4-GHz channels are

spaced 5 MHz apart, whereas the DSSS channel width is 22 MHz.
6. The U-NII-1 band begins at which one of the following channel numbers?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 24
d. 36

R: D. The first U-NII-1 channel is labeled channel 36.

7. Which of the following standards apply to wireless LAN operation in the 5-GHz band? (Choose all that apply.)
a. IEEE 802.1
b. IEEE 802.11g
c. IEEE 802.11a
d. IEEE 802.11n
e. IEEE 802.11ac
f. IEEE 802.11b
g. IEEE 802.11-2012

R: C, D, E, G. IEEE 802.11a is strictly for 5 GHz, 802.11n includes both 2.4- and
5-GHz bands, and 802.11ac is limited to 5 GHz. The IEEE 802.11-2012 standard
has all of these amendments rolled up into one document. IEEE 802.11g and
802.11b deal with the 2.4-GHz band.

8. Which of the following wireless LAN standards use OFDM for transmissions? (Choose all that apply.)
a. 802.11-1997
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11g
d. 802.11a

R: C, D. Both 802.11g and 802.11a define OFDM use, even though the two standards
use different bands.

9. Which one of the following correctly specifies the maximum theoretical data rate of the 802.11b, 802.11a, and
802.11n standards, respectively?
a. 11 Mbps, 54 Mbps, 600 Mbps
b. 54 Mbps, 54 Mbps, 150 Mbps
c. 1 Mbps, 11 Mbps, 54 Mbps
d. 11 Mbps, 20 Mbps, 40 Mbps

R: A. The maximum theoretical data rate of 802.11b is 11 Mbps, 802.11a is 54 Mbps,

and 802.11n is 600 Mbps.

10. A 2×3 MIMO device correctly describes which one of the following?
a. A device with two radios and three antennas
b. A device with two transmitters and three receivers
c. A device with two bonded channels and three spatial streams
d. A device with two receivers and three transmitters

R: B. The device has two transmitters and three receivers. The number of spatial
 streams supported would be added after the 2×3 designation.

11. An 802.11n device can aggregate channels to which one of the following maximum widths?
a. 5 MHz
b. 20 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 80 MHz

R: C. 802.11n is limited to aggregating two 20-MHz channels for a total width of

40 MHz.

12. Which one of the following standards can make use of multiple spatial streams on a transmitter and a receiver?
(Choose all that apply.)
a. 802.11n
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11g
d. 802.11a
e. 802.11ac
f. All of these answers are correct.

R: A, E. Devices using 802.11n or 802.11ac can use multiple radio chains and multiple
spatial streams.

13. Which one of the following is the highest or best modulation scheme that can be used with 802.11ac devices?
a. QPSK 3/4
b. 256-QAM
c. 128-QAM
d. 64-QAM
e. 16-QAM

R: B. The 802.11ac amendment supports 256-QAM in both Wave 1 and Wave 2.

14. What is the maximum number of spatial streams supported by 802.11ac?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. 16

R: D. 802.11ac supports a maximum of eight spatial streams, although only three are
supported in Wave 1 and four in Wave 2.

15. Which one of the following organizations certifies 802.11 interoperability?

a. ITU-R
b. FCC
c. IEEE
d. Wi-Fi Alliance
e. Cisco
 R: D. Only the Wi-Fi Alliance tests and certifies wireless products according to industry
standards.

Chapter 3

1. An 802.11 transmitter is configured to send a signal on channel 11. Someone reports a problem receiving the signal,
so you investigate and find a second transmitter broadcasting on channel 11. Which one of the following best
describes the problem?
a. Path interference
b. Adjacent channel interference
c. Co-channel interference
d. Cross-channel interference

R: C. Because both transmitters are using the same channel, the interference is
described as co-channel

2. Suppose that you place a new 802.11n transmitter in a building, but notice that there are other signals already
coming from transmitters in the same general area. To avoid interference problems, how much greater should your
transmitter’s signal be above all of the others to provide the best signal?
a. 0 dB
b. +3 dB
c. +5 dB
d. +10 dB
e. +20 dB

R: E. Cisco recommends a separation of at least 19 dB, so +20 dB is the only correct

answer.

3. An existing transmitter in your office sends its signal on 2.4-GHz channel 1. Suppose that someone in a neighboring
office sets up a new wireless router. He notices your signal on channel 1, so he chooses channel 2 instead. Which one
of the following might adversely affect the wireless operation?
a. Co-channel interference
b. Neighboring channel interference
c. Wideband interference
d. Excessive SNR

R: B. The two channels being used are adjacent, so their signals overlap by some
degree. The resulting interference is called adjacent channel interference

4. Which one of the following is the best strategy for avoiding interference between neighboring channels in the 2.4-
GHz band?
a. Use any channel number that seems to be available
b. Leverage 802.11n for 40-MHz aggregated channels
c. Use only channels that are spaced four numbers apart, beginning with channel 1
d. Use only channels that are spaced five numbers apart, beginning with channel 1

R: D. In the 2.4-GHz band, channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only ones that are spaced far
enough apart (five channel numbers) that they do not overlap.
5. Which one of the following is the primary cause of free space path loss?
a. Spreading
b. Absorption
c. Humidity levels
d. Magnetic field decay

R: A. Energy traveling in an electromagnetic wave spreads in three dimensions, weakening

the signal strength over a distance.

6. Which one of the following has the shortest effective range in free space, assuming that the same transmit power
level is used for each?
a. An 802.11g device
b. An 802.11a device
c. An 802.11b device
d. None of these answers

R: B. The 802.11b and g devices operate at 2.4 GHz, which is less affected by free
space loss than the 802.11a device, at 5 GHz.

7. Suppose that an 802.11a device moves away from a transmitter. As the signal strength decreases, which one of the
following might the device or the transmitter do to improve the signal quality along the way?
a. Aggregate more channels
b. Use more radio chains
c. Switch to a more complex modulation scheme
d. Switch to a less-complex modulation scheme

R: D. By switching to a less-complex modulation scheme, more of the data stream can

be repeated to overcome worsening RF conditions. This can be done automatically
through DRS.

8. When RF signals are reflected by objects in a building, which one of the following best describes the result that
might be experienced at a receiver?
a. Fresnel loss
b. Multipath
c. Cross-channel fading
d. Free space path loss

R: B. As a signal is reflected, a new copy travels in a different direction. Each copy of

the signal takes a different path to reach the receiver; thus, the name multipath.

9. Which one of the following best describes the effect that a building material has as an RF signal passes through a
wall?
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. Absorption
e. Multipath

D. As a signal passes through a wall, the building material absorbs some of the RF
 energy, reducing the signal strength by some amount.

10. Which one of the following best describes the first Fresnel zone?
a. The area covered by one transmitter on a channel
b. The area around a signal path that should be kept clear of any obstructions
c. The area around a signal path that is blocked by the earth’s curvature
d. The area around a transmitter that represents the range of a signal

R: B. The first Fresnel zone is an elliptical area along the length of a signal path that
should be kept free of obstructions. When an object extends into a significant portion
of the Fresnel zone, the signal can be diffracted and distorted.

Chapter 4

1. Which two of the following plots are used to show the radiation pattern of an antenna?
a. A plane
b. E plane
c. XY plane
d. H plane
e. YZ-plane

R: B, D. The E and H plane plots are used to show a side view and a top-down view,
respectively, with the antenna in the center of the plots.

2. Which one of the following is another name for the H plane radiation pattern?
a. Horizon plane
b. Azimuth plane
c. Heat map
d. Lateral plane

R: B. The H plane is also known as the azimuth plane because measurements are taken
at every azimuth angle around the base of the antenna.

3. Which one of the following answers correctly identifies the antenna parameter that is measured at 3 dB below the
strongest point on a radiation pattern plot?
a. Half life
b. Decay point
c. Cut off point
d. Beamwidth
e. Sensitivity

R: D. The beamwidth is the angle measured between the two points on a radiation pattern
plot that are 3 dB below the maximum

4. The orientation of an electromagnetic wave is best described by which one of the following?
a. Phase
b. Amplitude
c. Modulation
d. Polarization
 e. Azimuth

R: D. The orientation of the electrical and magnetic components of the electromagnetic

wave with respect to the horizon is known as the polarization

5. A Cisco dipole antenna is mounted so that it points straight upward and has a radiation pattern that extends in all
directions horizontally. Which one of the following best describes the antenna’s likely polarization?
a. Horizontal polarization
b. Vertical polarization
c. Dual polarization
d. Elliptical polarization

R: B. Cisco antennas are designed to use vertical polarization. Because the dipole
antenna is mounted correctly (pointing straight up or down), the wave will be vertically
polarized.

6. Which one of the following antennas would probably have the greatest gain?
a. Patch
b. Dish
c. Yagi
d. Dipole
e. Integrated

R : B. A parabolic dish antenna has the greatest gain because it focuses the RF energy
into a tight beam.

7. An omnidirectional antenna usually has which of the following characteristics? (Choose two.)
a. Low gain
b. Small beamwidth
c. High gain
d. Zero gain
e. Large beamwidth

R: A, E. An omnidirectional antenna is usually used to cover a large area. Therefore, it

has a large beamwidth. Because it covers a large area, its gain is usually low.

8. A standard indoor Cisco wireless access point is mounted on the ceiling and has antennas that are hidden inside the
case. Which one of the following describes the antennas?
a. Patch antennas
b. Monopole antennas
c. Omnidirectional antennas
d. Isotropic antennas

R: C. Integrated antennas are omnidirectional.

9. A dipole antenna is connected to a transmitter. You would like to leverage the directional quality of the antenna.
Based on the radiation pattern of the antenna, what would happen if you orient the antenna such that its cylindrical
shape points directly at a distant receiver?
a. The receiver would pick up a stronger signal.
 b. The receiver would pick up a weaker signal.
c. The antenna is omnidirectional, so the orientation would not matter.
d. This is pointless unless the receiver’s dipole is also aimed directly at the
transmitter.

R: B. Orienting a dipole so that its cylinder points toward a receiver will probably
cause the received signal to become weaker. That is because the donut-shaped
radiation pattern extends outward in all directions away from the length of the
antenna. By pointing the antenna at the receiver, the strongest part of the signal
has been rotated away from the receiver. The radiation pattern is weakest along the
length of the antenna.

10. Which one of the following is not true about a lightning arrestor?
a. It is connected inline between a transmitter and an antenna.
b. It protects against large transient spikes of energy.
c. It protects against lightning strikes on an antenna.
d. It directs energy to the ground, rather than the transmitter equipment.
e. Every outdoor antenna needs one.

R: C. Lightning arrestors cannot protect against direct lightning strikes on an antenna.

Chapter 5

1. Which two of the following types of wireless networks use the same frequency band?
a. WPAN
b. WLAN
c. WMAN
d. WWAN

R:A, B. WPANs and WLANs can both use the unlicensed 2.4-GHz ISM band.

2. Devices using a wireless LAN must operate in which one of the following modes?
a. Round-robin access
b. Half duplex
c. Full duplex
d. None of these answers

R:B. WLANs require half-duplex operation because all stations must contend for use
of a channel to transmit frames

3. An access point is set up to offer wireless coverage in an office. Which one of the following is the correct 802.11
term for the resulting standalone network?
a. BSA
b. BSD
c. BSS
d. IBSS

R:C. An AP offers a basic service set (BSS).

4. Which one of the following is used to uniquely identify an AP and the basic service set it maintains with its
associated wireless clients?
a. SSID
b. BSSID
c. Ethernet MAC address
d. Radio MAC address

R:B. The AP at the heart of a BSS or cell identifies itself (and the BSS) with a basic
service set identifier (BSSID). It also uses an SSID to identify the wireless network,
but that is not unique to the AP or BSS. Finally, the radio MAC address is used as
the basis for the BSSID value, but the value can be altered to form the BSSID for
each SSID that the AP supports.

5. Which one of the following statements is true about a wireless BSS?

a. A wireless client can send frames directly to any another client at any time.
b. Once two clients are associated to the BSS, they may communicate directly with
each other with no further intervention.
c. A client must send frames through the AP only when the destination client is
associated to a different AP.
d. A client must send all frames through the AP to reach any other client or coordinate
with the AP to reach another client directly.

R:D. In a BSS, the 802.11 standard requires all traffic to pass through an AP. The only
exception is the 802.11z amendment, which permits an AP to coordinate direct
client-to-client traffic without passing through the AP.

6. In a Cisco wireless network, which of the following statements full of acronyms are correct? (Choose two.)

a. The DS connects two BSSs to form an ESS.

b. The BSA of a BSS looks like a MAC address.
c. The SSID of a STA must be unique within the ESS.
d. The BSSID is unique for each SSID in a BSS.

R: A. True: “The DS connects two BSSs to form an ESS”—The distribution system

connects two basic service sets (APs) to form an extended service set.
B. False: “The BSA of a BSS looks like a MAC address”—The basic service area of a
BSS is its coverage area or cell, which has nothing to do with a MAC address.
C. False: “The SSID of a STA must be unique within the ESS”—The service set identifier
can be common across one or many BSSs in an ESS.
D. True: “The BSSID is unique for each SSID in a BSS”—An AP in a BSS uses its
radio MAC address as the basis for its BSSIDs, but each SSID has a unique BSSID
value.

7. A wireless client is configured to associate with the wireless network called BeMyGuest. For the client to roam
successfully everywhere within a building, which one of the following correctly identifies the WLAN topology that
must be in place?
a. A basic service set
b. A distribution system
 c. An extended service set
d. The SSID BeMyGuest defined on every AP
e. All of these answers are correct.

R:E. Roaming implies that the building has some wireless APs that are interconnected.
Therefore, the client must first associate with a BSS. The BSS must connect to a
switched infrastructure through a DS. The DS must extend to at least one more AP
through an ESS. Finally, the same SSID has to be defined on every AP in the ESS.

8. Which one of the following is also known as an ad hoc wireless network?

a. DS
b. ESS
c. BSA
d. IBSS
e. BSS

R:D. An independent basic service set is also called an ad hoc network.

9. Which one of the following can be used to provide wireless connectivity to a nonwireless device?
a. Wireless repeater
b. Workgroup bridge
c. Transparent bridge
d. Adaptive bridge

R:B. A workgroup bridge acts as a wireless client, but bridges traffic to and from a
wired device connected to it.

10. Which one of the following is not needed in a Cisco outdoor mesh network?
a. A BSS function
b. Ethernet cabling to each AP
c. A wireless LAN controller
d. A backhaul network

R:B. In a mesh network, each mesh AP builds a standalone BSS. The APs relay client
traffic to each other over wireless backhaul links, rather than wired Ethernet. A
wireless LAN controller is necessary.

Chapter 6

1. Which one of the following is the maximum number of address fields defined in an 802.11 frame header?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

R: D. An 802.11 frame can contain up to four different address fields.

2. Every 802.11 frame contains 2 flag bits that designate whether the frame is headed to or from which one of the
following?
 a. The AP
b. The DS
c. The BSS
d. The ESS

R: B. Frames are marked as going to the distribution system (DS) or from the DS.

3. The Address1 field in an 802.11 frame always contains which one of the following?
a. The transmitter address (TA)
b. The BSSID
c. The AP’s base radio MAC address
d. The receiver address (RA)

R: D. The Address1 field always contains the RA.

4. To access a wireless channel, 802.11 devices participate in which one of the following?
a. DCF
b. GCF
c. LCM
d. BSD

R:A. 802.11 devices can participate in the distributed coordination function (DCF).

5. A wireless client maintains a NAV value that is used for which one of the following purposes?
a. To navigate the frame through the ESS
b. To identify the MAC address of the next client to transmit
c. To predict when the channel might become free
d. To set the priority of the client’s ability to transmit

R:C. A wireless client uses the network allocation vector (NAV) to predict the number
of timeslots required for the channel to become free so that a frame can be transmitted.

6. Which one of the following specifies the default amount of time between successive 802.11 data frames?
a. CCA
b. IBSS
c. SIFS
d. DIFS

R: D. Frames are separated by the distributed interframe space (DIFS).

7. Which one of the following is the frame type sent to discover APs within the signal range of a wireless client?
a. Scan
b. Probe
c. Beacon
d. Discovery

R:B. A probe request frame is sent to ask any listening APs to identify themselves

8. An ACK frame is an example of which one of the following 802.11 frame types?
 a. Management
b. Control
c. Administration
d. Data

R:B. A wireless device must send an ACK frame, one of the 802.11 control frames,
back to the source of each unicast frame that is received.

9. A wireless AP advertises mandatory data rates of 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps. Which of the following represent client
data rates that can successfully join the BSS? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Mandatory: 1 Mbps, Supported: 2, 5.5, 11 Mbps
b. Mandatory: 2 Mbps, Supported: 1, 5.5, 11 Mbps
c. Mandatory: 1 Mbps, Supported: None
d. Mandatory: 5, 11 Mbps; Supported: None

R:A, B. A client can join a basic service set (BSS) as long as it has at least one mandatory
rate in common with the AP and supports all of the AP’s mandatory rates.

10. In a passive scan, a wireless client uses which one of the following methods to discover nearby APs?
a. Beacons
b. Probe requests
c. ACKs
d. Discovers

R:A. In a passive scan, a client simply listens to any beacons that are transmitted by
nearby APs. In contrast, probes are sent by the client to discover APs in an active
scan.

11. When a client attempts to join a BSS, which one of the following frame types is sent first?
a. Beacon
b. Rate request
c. Association request
d. Authentication request

R:D. A client must first be authenticated to the BSS before it can request to be associated.

12. Which one of the following frame types does a client use to roam seamlessly from one BSS to another, within the
same ESS and the same SSID?
a. Association request
b. Disassociation
c. Reassociation
d. Roam request

R:C. As long as the client can move from one BSS to another without losing a signal
or getting disassociated or deauthenticated, it can probe for a new AP and send a
reassociation frame to reassociate itself with the existing SSID