GENERAL NAVIGATION

Max . Marks : 50

Time Duration : 1 hr 30 min

1) ​ In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated:

A) from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC).

B) from TAS and W/V from RNAV data.
C) by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively.
D) by integrating measured acceleration.

2) The period of validity of an FMS database is:

A) varies depending on the area of operational cover.

B) 28 days.
C) 56 days.
D) one week.

3) ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:
  

A) only attitude and heading information.

B) only attitude information.
C) navigation information.
D) altitude, heading and position information.

4) Which is correct for INS/IRS?

A) NAV should be selected when lined up on the runway.

B) NAV should be selected prior to passenger embarkation.
C) NAV should be selected once the alignment procedure is commenced.
D) NAV should be selected prior to moving from the gate.

5) Where and when are the IRS positions updated?

A) Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR station or
NDB).
B) During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC.
C) IRS positions are updated by pressing the Take-off/Go-around button at the start of the take-off roll.
D) Only on the ground during the alignment procedure.

6) A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If
the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation is 15° East, the true bearing of the
aircraft from the feature is:

A) 130°
B) 220°
C) 310°
D) 160°

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7) You are required to descend from FL 230 to FL 50 over a distance of 32 NM in 7 minutes. What is the
required Rate of Descent when you expect WC-25 during the descent?

A) 2157 ft/min.
B) 2570 ft/min.
C) 2458 ft/min.
D) 2230 ft/min.

8) An aircraft leaves A at 1400, flying at Mach 0.84 (OAT – 58° C). The ETA B is 1436 and the distance
between A and B is 300 nm. At what time must a speed adjustment be made if the arrival time is changed
to 1438:

A) 1426.
5
B) 1427.
5
C) 1428.
5
D) 1425.
5

9) An aircraft on a magnetic heading of 311° , drift 10° port (left), variation 10° E, measures a relative
bearing to a NDB of 270° (rel.). What is the aircrafts QDM to the NDB?

A) 221°
B) 231°
C) 241°
D) 211°

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10) When flying from A to B, a distance of 120NM, you are 3nm left of track after 30NM. What is the
required alteration of heading to make good B?

A) 6°
right.
B) 8° left.
C) 4°
right.
D) 8°
right.

11) Track = 090 (T), TAS = 460 knots, W/V = 360 (T) / 100, Variation = 10 E, Deviation = -2.
What is compass heading and groundspeed?

A) 068 460
knots
B) 070 455
knots
C) 079 470
knots
D) 069 450
knots

12) What is the distance in kilometres from 49° S 180° E/W to 58° S 180º E/W?

A) 1112
km.
B) 621 km.

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C) 1000
km.
D) 540 km.

13) What is the ratio between the litre and the US gallon?

A) 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres.

B) 1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL.
C) 1 litre equals 3.78 US-GAL
D) 1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres.

14) Flying from A to B, distance 3,016 nm, TAS 480 kts, there is a headwind of 90 kts and when flying
from B to A there is a tailwind of 75 kts. If the aircraft leaves A at 1320 UTC what is the ETA at the
equal time point?

A) 1825
UTC
B) 1707
UTC
C) 1656
UTC
D) 1752
UTC

15) Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMP GAL. What is the endurance?

A) 2 HR 15 MIN
B) 3 HR 12 MIN

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C) 3 HR 53 MIN
D) 4 HR 32 MIN

16) You are flying 090° C heading. Deviation is 2° W and Variation is 12 E. Your TAS is 160 knots. You
are flying the 070 radial outbound from a VOR and you have gone 14 nm in 6 minutes. What is the W/V?

A) 060° T /
50.
B) 340° T /
25.
C) 055° T /
25.
D) 158° T /
51.

17) The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520 kt, True HDG 090°
, Drift angle 5° right, TAS 480 kt. SAT (static air temperature) -51° C. The W/V being experienced is:

A) 325° / 60 kt
B) 225° / 60 kt
C) 220° / 60 kt
D) 320° / 60 kt

18) An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 890 km/HR. What will its latitude be after 1.5
HR?

A) 02° 00N
B) 22° OON

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C) 03° 50N
D) 12° 15N

19) An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours. If the wind component on the
outbound leg is 50 knots head, what is the distance to the point of safe endurance?

A) 1500 nm
B) 1622
nm.
C) 1544
nm.
D) 1458
nm.

20) Isogonals converge at the:

A) North magnetic pole only.

B) Magnetic equator.
C) North and South magnetic poles only.
D) North and South geographic and magnetic
poles.

21) A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that:

A) True North is East of Magnetic North.

B) True North is West of Magnetic North.
C) Compass North is East of Magnetic North.

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D) Compass North is West of Magnetic

North.

22) Which of the following will probably NOT result in a deviation change on a DRC?

A) Turning the ADF on in flight.

B) Relocating a steel iron construction in the cargo compartment close to the DRC.
C) Letting a passenger in cockpit the jump-seat put his mobile phone next to the DRC.
D) A Walk-man headset placed close the compass.

23) What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct reading
magnetic compass?

A) It senses the earths magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive.
B) It is lighter.
C) It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate.
D) It is not affected by aircraft deviation.

24) Coefficient A is corrected for:

A) moving the compass housing around its vertical axis.

B) using the compensation magnets.
C) removing disturbing magnetic material from the close vicinity of the compass.
D) de-gaussing (de-magnetising) the compass.

25) An aircrafts compass must be swung:

A) after a change of theatre of operations at the same magnetic latitude.

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B) if the aircraft has been subjected to hammering.

C) if the aircraft has been in the hangar for a long time and has been moved several times.
D) every maintenance inspection.

26) The convergency of meridians:

A) Is greater using rhumb line track than using great circle.

B) Is the angular difference between the meridians.
C) Is independent of latitude and longitude.
D) Is the distance between the meridians in degrees, minutes, and seconds.

27) The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

A) 40 000
km.
B) 12 700
km.
C) 18 500
km.
D) 6 350 km.

28) In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun and Mean
Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?

A) June and December.

B) February and November.
C) March and September.

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D) April and August.

29) The inclination of the earths axis of rotation with the plane of the ecliptic:

A) is causing the variation of length of the daylight during a year.

B) All 3 answers are correct.
C) is stable throughout the year.
D) is causing the seasons, summer and winter.

30) At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)?

A) Beginning of July.
B) Beginning of January.
C) End of March.
D) End of June.

31) How long time does it take for the Mean Sun to move from meridian 14515E to meridian 02345W?

A) 11 hours 16 minutes.
B) 8 hours 06 minutes.
C) 6 hours 15 minutes.
D) 9 hours 41 minutes.

32) How long time does it take for the Mean Sun to move from meridian 14515E to meridian 02345W?

A) 11 hours 16 minutes.
B) 8 hours 06 minutes.
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C) 6 hours 15 minutes.
D) 9 hours 41 minutes.

33) What is the meaning of the term standard time?

A) It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA.

B) It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a
country.
C) It is another term for UTC.
D) It is ah expression for local mean time.

34) Required track 300° T, drift 8° right, variation 10° W, deviation -4° . What is the required compass
heading?

A) 306°
B) 298°
C) 314°
D) 310°

35) The total Magnetic Force of the terrestrial magnetic field:

A) is vertical at the magnetic equator.

B) is horizontal in all positions on the surface of the Earth.
C) will be stronger at higher altitudes because the attenuation is less at high
altitudes.
D) is strongest at the magnetic poles.

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36) A direct reading compass is used. Accelerating an aircraft on heading 090 at South Magnetic Latitude
will result in:

A) a stable oscillation of the compass indication around heading 090.

B) an indication of a left turn on the compass.
C) no change in compass indication.
D) an indication of a right turn on the compass.

37) The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip
of an aeroplane is to:

A) place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errors.

B) reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits.
C) facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earths magnetic field.
D) place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft.

38) An aircraft flies 448 nm along a parallel of latitude and the longitude changes by 8° 21. What is the
latitude:

A) 46° 36
N/S
B) 26° 36
N/S
C) 16° 36
N/S
D) 63° 24
N/S

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39) At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10° apart is 5 inches. The scale of the chart at 47°
North approximates:

A) 1 : 8 000
000.
B) 1 : 3 000
000.
C) 1 : 6 000
000.
D) 1 : 2 500
000.

40) You leave A to fly to B, 475 nm away, at 1000 hours. Your ETA at B is 1130. At 1040, you are 190
nm from A.
What groundspeed is required to arrive on time at B?

A) 342
knots.
B) 360
knots.
C) 317
knots.
D) 330
knots.

41) Given:
Distance A to B is 360 NM

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Wind component A - B is -15 kt

Wind component B - A is +15 kt
TAS is 180 kt.
What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?

A) 195 NM.
B) 170 NM.
C) 180 NM.
D) 165 NM.

42) You have calculated Point of No Return (PNR) on a flight, having all negative WCs in the flight plan.
During the flight you experience that the W/V is stronger but coming from the same direction as in the
flight plan. Consider the following statements:

A) The PNR will not change because the neither TAS nor Fuel Flow has changed.
B) You will arrive at the PNR at a later time than flight planned.
C) The PNR will, if recalculated, move toward the no-wind PNR.
D) A recalculated PNR will move toward the place of departure.

43) At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, is on the direct track to VOR X 185 NM distant. The aircraft
is required to cross VOR X at FL80. For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 232 kt,
the latest time at which to commence descent is:

A) 044
5
B) 045
4

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C) 045
1
D) 044
8

44) What is the chart distance between longitudes 179° E and 175° W on a direct Mercator chart with a
scale of 1: 5 000 000 at the equator?

A) 72 mm
B) 133 mm
C) 167 mm
D) 106 mm

45) The great circle track X - Y measured at x is 319° , and Y 325° Consider the following statements:

A) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 313° .

B) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .
C) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 331° .
D) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .

46) The compression factor of the earth:

A) all 3 answers are correct.

B) is so small that it may be ignored when making ordinary maps and charts.
C) is about 1:300.
D) makes the difference between the polar diameter and the equatorial diameter about 22 NM.

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47) A Nautical mile is defined as:

A) The average length of a 1 minute arc of a meridian.

B) The length of a 1 minute arc, measured anywhere on the surface of the Earth.
C) The average length of a 1' arc of longitude and a 1' arc of latitude.
D) 1855 metres.

48) A Nautical mile is defined as:

A) The average length of a 1 minute arc of a meridian.

B) The length of a 1 minute arc, measured anywhere on the surface of the Earth.
C) The average length of a 1' arc of longitude and a 1' arc of latitude.
D) 1855 metres.

49) On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45° N and 46° N is 6 cm. The scale of the
chart is approximately:

A) 1 : 18 500
000.
B) 1 : 1 850 000.
C) 1 : 185 000.
D) 1 : 1 000 000.

50) On a Mercator chart 47 cm represents 247 nm at 35° S. The scale of the chart is:

A) 1:1 700 000 at the Equator.

B) 1:970 000 at 47° S.

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C) 1:1 200 000 at the Equator.

D) 1:1 200 000 at 35° S.

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