CITRUS NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

Rc – 11 Brgy. Citrus, CSJDMB

Diagnostic Test in Mathematics 10

I. Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. What is the missing term in the arithmetic sequence 7, ___, 21, 28?
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 8
2. Find one arithmetic mean between - 5 and 17.
a) - 12 b) - 6 c) 6 d) 12
3. What is the sum of the first 7 terms of the sequence 5, 11, 17, 23…?
a) 125 b) 140 c) 161 d) 167
4. What is the next term in the geometric sequence 324, - 108, 36?
a) 4 b) - 4 c) 12 d) – 12
5. Which of these is an arithmetic sequence?
a) 2, 5, 7, 12 … c) 1, - 1, 1, -1…
b) 3, 10, 17, 24… d) 5, 0, 0, 0 …
6. Which of the following below would be a geometric mean between 6 and 294?
a) 36 b) 42 c) 56 d) 64
7. Find the sum of the first 7 terms of the sequence 2, 4, 8, 16, ...
a) 124 b) 254 c) 324 d) 326
8. What is the next term in the Fibonacci sequence 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55, 89?
a) 123 b) 124 c) 134 d) 144
9. Ramilo is the track and field representative of the Maginoo High School for the Palarong Pambansa. He begins
training by running 5 miles during the first week, 6.5 miles during the second week, and 8 miles on the third
week. Assume this pattern continues, how far will he run on the tenth
week?
a) 18.5 miles b) 20 miles c) 21.5 miles d) 23 miles
10. A culture of bacteria doubles every 2 hours. If there are 500 bacteria at the beginning, how many bacteria
will there be after 24 hours?
a) 1 024 000 b) 2 048 000 c) 8 388 000 d) 4 194 000

11. Divide 3x3 – 2x2 + 3x – 4 by x – 3 using synthetic division.

68 68
a) 3x2 + 7x + 24 + 𝑥−3 c) 3x2 + 6x + 18 + 𝑥−3
24 24
b) 3x2 + 5x + 16 + x−3 d) 3x2 + 9x + 12 + x−3

12. Which polynomial is equal to 25y2 – x2?

a) (5y + x)(5y + x) c) (5y – x)(5y – x)
b) (5y + x)(5y – x) d) (5y + x)(–5y – x)

13. Which of these is NOT a polynomial?

3
a) x + 5 b) x2 – 3x + 5 c) 𝑥−5 d) (x + 3)2
14. Which of the following cubic polynomial equations has roots –2, 2, and 4?
a) x3 + 4x2 – 4x + 16 = 0 c) 10x3 – x2 – x + 16 = 0
b) x – 4x – x + 16 = 0
3 2
d) x3 – 4x2 – 4x + 16 = 0
15. Gabriel will evaluate an 8th degree polynomial in x at x = 10 using synthetic division. How many
coefficients of x will be written in the first row of the synthetic division?
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
16. Which of these is a function?
a) b) c) d)
17. What are the end behaviors of the graph of f(x) = - 2x + x3 + 3x5 – 4?
a) rises to the left and falls to the right
b) falls to the left and rises to the right
c) rises to both directions
d) falls to both directions
18. A demographer predicts hat the population, P, of a town t years from now can be modeled by the function
P(t) = 6t4 – 5t3 + 200t + 12 000. What will the population of the town be two (2) years from now?
a) 12 456 c) 1 245 600
b) 124 560 d) 12 456 000

19. Line AB is tangent to circle C at D. If the measure of arc DF = 166 and arc DE = 78, what is m∠ABF?
a) 44 c) 88
b) 60 d) 122

20. A dart board has a diameter of 40 cm and is divided into 20 congruent sectors. What is the area of one
of the sectors?
a) 20pi cm2 c) 80pi cm2
2
b) 40pi cm d) 800pi cm2
21. Find the equation of a circle whose radius is 5 and its center is (4, 1).
a) (x + 4)2 + (y + 1)2 = 5 c) (x - 4)2 + (y - 1)2 = 5
2 2
b) (x + 4) + (y + 1) = 25 d) (x - 4)2 + (y - 1)2 = 25
22. What is the center and radius of the equation (x + 3)2 + y2 = 25?
a) c(-3, 0) ; r = 5 c) c(3, 0) ; r = 5
b) c(-3, 0) ; r = 25 d) c(3, 0) ; r = 25
23. A radius of a circle has endpoints (4, –1) and (8, 2). What is the equation that defines the circle if its center
is at the fourth quadrant?
a) (x – 8)2 + (y – 2)2 = 25 c) (x – 8)2 + (y – 2)2 = 100
b) (x – 4) + (y + 1) = 100
2 2
d) (x – 4)2+ (y + 1)2= 25
24. On a grid map of a province, the coordinates that correspond to the location of a cellular phone tower is (–
2, 8) and it can transmit signals up to a 12 km radius. What is the equation that represents the transmission
boundaries of the tower?
a) x2 + y2 – 4x + 16y – 76 = 0 c) x2 + y2 – 4x – 16y + 76 = 0
b) x2 + y2 – 4x – 16y – 76 = 0 d) x2 + y2 + 4x – 16y + 76 = 0
25. Choosing a subset of a set is an example of ___.
A. combination C. integration
B. differentiation D. permutation
26. How many different 4-digit even numbers can be formed from the digits 1, 3, 5, 6, 8, and 9 if no repetition
of digits is allowed?
A. 1 680 B. 840 C. 420 D. 120
27. Ms. De Leon wants to produce different sets of test questions for her essay test. If she plans to do this by
putting together 3 out of 5 questions she prepared, how many different sets of questions could she construct?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 60 D. 80

28. If a combination lock must contain 5 different digits, in how many ways can a code be formed from the
digits 0 to 9?
A. 15 120 B. 30 240 C. 151 200 D. 1 000 000
29. Which of the following situations illustrates combination?
A. arranging books in a shelf
B. drawing names from a box containing 200 names
C. forming different numbers from 5 given digits
D. forming plate numbers of vehicles
30. A caterer offers 3 kinds of soup, 7 kinds of main dish, 4 kinds of vegetable dish, and 4 kinds of dessert. In
how many possible ways can a caterer form a meal consisting of 1 soup, 2 main dishes, 1 vegetable dish, and
2 desserts?
A. 140 B. 336 C. 672 D. 1512
31. Jane wants to solve a system of equations through elimination by combining any two equations. The
number of equations she has is equal to the number of variables. She realizes that she has 10 possible ways
to start her solution. How many equations does she have?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
32. If (5) means that there are 5 elements in the set P ∩ Q, how many elements are there in P ∪ Q?

A. 22 B. 23 C. 24 D. 25
33. In rolling a die, what is the probability of getting 3 or 4?
A. ½ B. 2/3 C. 1/3 D. 4/5
34. Which of these is a mutually exclusive event?
A. A die rolling a 4 on the first throw and then a 6 on a second throw
B. A pair of dice rolling 2 and 2 totaling 6
C. A pair of dice rolling 4 and 2
D. A pair of dice rolling 6 and 6
35. There are four batteries, and one of them is defective. Two are to be selected at random for use on a particular
day. Find the probability that the second battery selected is not defective, given that the first was not defective.
A. ½ B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 2/3
36. The median score is also the ___________.
A. 75th percentile C. 3rd decile
B. 5th decile D. 1st quartile

37. What is the 3rd quartile of 33, 25, 42, 25, 31, 37, 46, 29 38?
A. 37 B. 38 C. 40 D. 36

38. The 1st quartile of the ages of 250 fourth year students is 16 years old. Which of the following statements
is true?
A. Most of the students are below 16 years old.
B. Seventy-five percent of the students are 16 years old and above.
C. Twenty-five percent of the students are 16 years old.
D. One hundred fifty students are younger than 16 years.

For number 39, refer to the table below.

39. In solving for the 60th percentile, the lower boundary is ___.
A. 34 B. 39 C. 34.5 D. 39.5

40. Anna and her brother are both 62 inches tall. Anna is in the 85th percentile for height for her age and her
little brother is in the 90th percentile. Who is taller for their age?
A. They're the same, both 62 inches.
B. Anna, she's taller than more people.
C. Brother, he's taller than more people.
D. You can't tell if you don't know the mean and standard deviation.