Multiple choice questions 1

Multiple choice questions 3

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which item will not come under the purview of definition of Goods?
(a) Furniture, Fixtures and raw materials

(b) Books, Publication, Periodicals

(c) Intangible products like Software, Patents
(d) Vehicles, aircraft, ships

2. Which fundamental principle is essential for an authority delegated with

financial powers for procuring goods in public interest?
(a) Responsibility and accountability
(b) Fair and equitable treatment of suppliers
(c) Promotion of competition in public procurement

(d) All the above

3. While making a public procurement, the description of the subject

matter should not contain which of the following?
(a) Technical specifications

(b) A particular trade mark, trade name or brand

(c) Quantity of goods to be procured
(d) A complete schedule of procurement cycle
2 SWAMY’S — GFR AND ADVANCES MADE OBJECTIVE

4. Who will certify and register suppliers on Government e-Marketplace

(GeM)?
(a) Secretary, Finance
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Head of the Department of a particular establishment
(d) Central Purchase Organization

5. What is the validity period of registered suppliers in Government e-

Marketplace ?
(a) 1 to 5 years (b) 3 to 5 years
(c) 1 to 3 years (d) 2 to 5 years

6. Who will authorize to prepare the list of Registered Suppliers?

(a) DGS & D

(b) Director of Stores and Stationeries
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Under Secretary, Ministry of Finance

7. When will a bidder be debarred for supply of goods?

(a) Due to non-availability of after sales service
(b) Supply of inferior quality of goods
(c) Not making timely supply of goods

(d) Convicted of an offence under the Prevention of

Corruption Act, 1988

8. What is the maximum period of debarment of a bidder under Section

151 (i) of GFR?

(a) Three years (b) Two years

(c) Five years (d) Four years
 Multiple choice questions 3

9. What is the financial limit for purchase of goods without quotation or

bids?

(a) ` 25,000 (b) ` 30,000 (c) ` 15,000 (d) ` 20,000

10. What is the limit up to which a duly constituted financial committee can
purchase goods on each occasion?

(a) ` 2,75,000 (b) ` 2,50,000 (c) ` 3,00,000 (d) ` 5,00,000

11. How many methods are there in the process of obtaining bids?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

12. What are the standard methods adopted for obtaining bids during
purchase of goods?
(a) Advertised tender enquiry (b) Limited tender enquiry
(c) Single tender enquiry (d) All the above

13. What is the estimated value of the goods to be procured for which
invitations to tenders can be made by advertisement?

(a) ` 15 lakhs and above (b) ` 25 lakhs and above

(c) ` 30 lakhs and above (d) ` 10 lakhs and above

14. Limited tender enquiry may be adopted when estimated value of goods
to be procured is up to …........................…..
(a) Rupees Ten lakhs (b) Rupees Fifteen lakhs
(c) Rupees Twenty-five lakhs (d) Rupees Twenty Lakhs

15. The number of supplier firms in limited tender enquiry should be more
than …......................

(a) Two (b) Five (c) Three (d) Four

16. Which system is being followed for purchase of high value plant,
machinery, etc. of a complex and technical nature?
(a) Advertised tender system (b) Two bid system
(c) Single tender system (d) Limited tender system

GFRMO — 3
4 SWAMY’S — GFR AND ADVANCES MADE OBJECTIVE

17. Under what circumstances is a single tender enquiry system adopted?

(a) When required goods are manufactured by a particular firm
(b) In case of emergency when the required goods are necessarily to be
purchased from a particular source
(c) For standardization of machinery or spare parts to be compatible
to the existing sets of equipment resulting in purchase only from
a selected firm
(d) All the above

18. What is the percentage of bid security required to be furnished by

bidders in the case of Limited or Advertised tender enquiry?
(a) 2 to 5 per cent (b) 3 to 6 per cent
(c) 4 to 7 per cent (d) 1 to 3 per cent

19. When will bid securities be refunded to the unsuccessful bidders?

(a) On or before the 30th day after the award of the contract
(b) On or before the 10th day after the award of the contract
(c) On or before the 40th day after the award of the contract
(d) On or before the 15th day after the award of the contract

20. What should be the period of validity of a bid security?

(a) 30 days beyond the final bid validity period
(b) 45 days beyond the final bid validity period
(c) 60 days beyond the final bid validity period
(d) 40 days beyond the final bid validity period

21. In what form will a bid security be accepted?

(a) Bank guarantee
(b) Fixed Deposit receipts
(c) Demand Draft

(d) All the above

 Multiple choice questions 5

22. A performance security should be for an amount of ................. of the

value of contract as specified in the bid documents.
(a) Two to three per cent (b) Four to five per cent
(c) Six to seven per cent (d) Five to ten per cent

23. What should be the validity period of performance security beyond the
date of completion of all contractual obligations?
(a) Sixty days (b) Forty-five days
(c) Fifty days (d) Thirty days

24. What is the maximum percentage of advance payments that is made to

private firms?
(a) 20% of the contract value (b) 30% of the contract value
(c) 50% of the contract value (d) 15% of the contract value

25. What is the limit of advance payment made to the State Government, or
Central Government agency or a PSU for supply contracts?
(a) 25% of the contract value (b) 20% of the contract value

(c) 40% of the contract value (d) 10% of the contract value

26. Which Rule in GFR speaks about transparency, competition, fairness

and elimination of arbitrariness in the procurement process?

(a) Rule 174 (b) Rule 173

(c) Rule 175 (1) (d) Rule 175 (2)

27. Should a bidder request / enquire about the reasons for rejection or
non-issuance of a tender to a prospective bidder. Is it mandatory to
disclose the reasons?

(a) Yes
(b) no
(c) Optional
(d) Discretion of the procuring authority
6 SWAMY’S — GFR AND ADVANCES MADE OBJECTIVE

28. Which bid is opened first by a Ministry in two bid system?

(a) Financial bid

(b) Technical bid

(c) Both should be opened simultaneously
(d) Any one bid

29. Who will evaluate the technical bids?

(a) Financial Adviser
(b) Technical Team

(c) Consultancy Evaluation Committee (CEC)

(d) Head of Office

30. In a QCBS, what is the highest weightage allowed for technical

parameters?
(a) 50 per cent (b) 60 per cent
(c) 70 per cent (d) 80 per cent

31. Fixed assets should be verified at least once in—

(a) Five years (b) A year (c) Three years (d) Four years

32. A physical verification of all the consumable goods and materials should
be undertaken at least once in—
(a) A year (b) Five years
(c) Six years (d) Two years

33. How many copies of a Service Book shall be maintained for a

Government servant ?
(a) one (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
 Multiple choice questions 7

34. What is the cost of Service Book recovered from the Government
servant in case a copy of service book is lost?

(a) ` 5 (b) ` 100 (c) ` 300 (d) ` 500

35. What is the due date for submission of T.A. claim on completion of
journey?
(a) Within 30 days (b) Within 1 year
(c) Within 15 days (d) Within 60 days

36. What is the time-limit for submission of LTC claim after completion of
return journey when LTC advance is drawn?
(a) Within 20 days (b) Within 15 days
(c) Within 30 days (d) Within 45 days

37. What is the time-limit for submission of LTC claim when advance is not
drawn?
(a) Within 6 months (b) Within 3 months
(c) Within 1 month (d) Within 60 days

38. Which are the following items of revenue that come under the purview
of revenue receipts?
(a) Central taxes, duties and cess
(b) Local taxes and duties
(c) Interest receipts of loans and advances

(d) All the above

39. What are capital receipts?

(a) Internal and External debt.
(b) Disinvestment receipts
(c) Repayment of loans and advances

(d) All the above

8 SWAMY’S — GFR AND ADVANCES MADE OBJECTIVE

40. Identify a reason for which a bidder shall not be debarred—

(a) When he is convicted of an offence under Prevention of Corruption
Act

(b) When the bidder makes the highest quote

(c) When he is convicted of an offence under Indian Penal Code
(d) When the bidder has breached the code of integrity

41. Write the full form of CPPP—

(a) Central Purchase Power Protocol
(b) Central Purchase Procedure and Protocol
(c) Central Public Procurement Process

(d) Central Public Procurement Portal

42. e-Procurement, according to GFR means—

(a) Procurement of computer related goods
(b) Use of information and communication technology in the
procure- ment process
(c) Payment for procurement being made Online
(d) Procurement only through foreign sources

43. In a two bid system, what are the two bids?

(i) Technical bid (ii) Dynamic bid
(iii) Financial bid (iv) online bid

(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)

(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
 Multiple choice questions 9

44. In a two bid system, how should the bids be evaluated?

(a) Both the bids should be opened simultaneously and evaluated
(b) The technical bid should be opened at the first
instance and evaluated. The financial bid of the
acceptable technical offer should be opened at the
second stage
(c) The financial bid should be evaluated first and then the corres-
ponding technical bid of the acceptable lowest bid should be
opened
(d) Both the bids to be ranked together and the bid with highest score
to be selected

45. What is a performance security?

(a) To ensure due to performance of a contract, an
amount of 5 to 10 per cent of contract value is
deposited with the Government and this is called
performance Security
(b) A performance security is one which is given by an Insurance
Company for security of goods
(c) A performance security is given by the Government to a contractor
for any loss that he may incur in the contract
(d) A performance security is given by a contractor to inform that his
bid is the lowest

46. What are the conditions to be satisfied when only one bid is submitted?
(a) The procurement was properly advertised and sufficient time was
given for submission of bids
(b) The qualification criteria were not unduly restrictive
(c) Prices are reasonable in comparison to market values
(d) All the above

47. When a limited tender results in only one effective offer, it shall be
treated as—
(a) Advertised Tender (b) Electronic Reverse Auction
(c) Single Tender Contract (d) Two stage bidding

48. What does QCBS stand for?

(a) Quality and Cost Based Selection (b) Quantity Concious Bid Selection
(c) Quality Contract Bid Selection (d) none of the above
10 SWAMY’S — GFR AND ADVANCES MADE OBJECTIVE

49. State the quantum of Personal Computer Advance admissible to a

Government servant.
(a) ` 50,000

(b) ` 1,00,000
(c) Actual price of Personal Comptuer

(d) ` 50,000 or actual price of Personal Computer, whichever is lower

50. What is the maximum amount of LTC advance admissible to a

Government servant?
(a) 50% of the estimated cost of journeys both ways
(b) 75% of the estimated cost of journeys both ways
(c) 90% of the estimated cost of journeys both ways
(d) 80% of the estimated cost of journeys both ways

51. When will the LTC claim of a Government servant fall due for
payment?

(a) On the date succeeding the date of completion of the return journey
(b) On the date of commencement of the outward journey
(c) On the starting date of the return journey
(d) On the date of joining after duty availing of LTC
 MULTIpLE ChOICE
Multiple choice qUESTIONS
questions 37
11

52. How many tour advances shall be allowed to remain outstanding at a

time?

(a) One (b) Two

(c) Three (d) No limits prescribed