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Issue : 00 08-2011
032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 1 Ref 78907 ( 1 point)

When descending below the optimum altitude for a jet aeroplane at the long range cruise speed:
A. Mach number decreases
B. TAS increases.
C. Mach number remains constant.
D. Mach number increases.
QUESTION 2 Ref 56017 ( 1 point)
The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the maximum certified take-off flap setting is:
A. a decrease of both the field length limited Take-off Mass and the climb limited Take-off Mass.
B. an increase of both the field length limited Take-off Mass and the climb limited Take-off Mass.
C. an increase of the field length limited Take-off Mass but a decrease of the climb limited Take-off Mass.
D. a decrease of the field length limited Take-off Mass but an increase of the climb limited Take-off Mass.
QUESTION 3 Ref 61949 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-08)
With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a
take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
A. Performance will be better than in the chart.
B. It does not matter which take-off technique is being used.
C. Yes, the chart has been made for this situation.
D. No, the performance will be worse than in the chart.
QUESTION 4 Ref 94707 ( 1 point)
Profile drag is:
A. inversely proportional to the square root of the speed.
B. directly proportional to the square of the speed.
C. inversely proportional to the square of the speed.
D. directly proportional to the square root of the speed.
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Issue : 00 08-2011
032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 5 Ref 36397 ( 1 point)

Which of the following formula is correct for the calculation of maximum range?
A. Maximum Range = Safe Fuel available x Specific Range
B. Maximum Range = Block Fuel x Specific Range
C. Maximum Range = Block Fuel / Specific Range
D. Maximum Range = Safe Fuel available I Specific Range
QUESTION 6 Ref 65918 ( 1 point)
In the event of engine failure below V1 , the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the
aeroplane is to:
A. deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
B. reverse engine thrust.
C. apply wheel brakes.
D. reduce the engine thrust.
QUESTION 7 Ref 193 ( 1 point)
Heavy rain may temporarily cause:
A. increased weight.
B. increased stalling speed.
C. reduced forward speed.
D. all of the above.
QUESTION 8 Ref 22468 ( 1 point)
At an airfield which has a high absolute humidity compared to an airfield with low absolute humidity:
A. the aircraft will produce more thrust because the water vapour cools the engines.
B. the aircraft will produce less thrust because the density is reduced.
C. the thrust will not be affected.
D. the aircraft will produce more thrust because mass flow is increased.
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Issue : 00 08-2011
032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 9 Ref 55755 ( 1 point)

Which are the two most important parameters to determine the value of VMCG?
A. Engine thrust and rudder deflection.
B. Engine thrust and air density.
C. Air density and rudder deflection.
D. Engine thrust and flap setting.
QUESTION 10 Ref 1353 ( 1 point)
The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
A. the actual Take-off Mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited TOM.
B. the take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out at V1.
C. the actual Take-off Mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM.
D. the actual Take-off Mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM.
QUESTION 11 Ref 93751 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
Using the Landing Diagram for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a screen
height of 50 ft), in the following conditions. Given: Pressure altitude: 4 000 ft
OAT: 5˚C
Aeroplane mass: 3 530 lbs
Headwind component: 15 kts
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: tarred and dry
A. 1 020 ft
B. 1 550 ft
C. 1 350 ft
D. 880 ft
QUESTION 12 Ref 95798 ( 1 point)
Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tire speed and max brake
energy speed are not limiting?
A. V2
B. VMCA
C. VR
D. VREF
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Issue : 00 08-2011
032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 13 Ref 21191 ( 1 point)

The landing distance required will be increased as a result of all of the following:
A. increased temperature, increased pressure altitude, uphill runway slope.
B. increased temperature, increased pressure altitude, downhill runway slope.
C. decreased temperature, decreased pressure altitude, uphill runway slope.
D. increased temperature, decreased pressure altitude, downhill runway slope.
QUESTION 14 Ref 93366 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-07)
Given:
OAT: 25˚C
Pressure Altitude: 3 200 ft
RWY: 26L Wind: 310˚/20 kts
Take-off Mass: 4 400 lbs
Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the chart. What is the
Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
A. 3 500 ft
B. 3 800 ft
C. 3 350 ft
D. 4 300 ft
QUESTION 15 Ref 83630 ( 1 point)
As long as an aeroplane is in a steady climb:
A. VX is always less than VY.
B. VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude.
C. VX is always greater than VY.
D. VY is always greater than VMO.
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Issue : 00 08-2011
032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 16 Ref 57087 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-03)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take-off
distance over a 50 ft obstacle height. Given:
OAT: 30˚C
Pressure altitude: 1 000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 2 950 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil
Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)
A. 1 600 ft
B. 1 900 ft
C. 2 300 ft
D. 2 000 ft
QUESTION 17 Ref 57114 ( 1 point)
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data?
A. Only for take-off.
B. No.
C. Yes.
D. Only for landing.
QUESTION 18 Ref 43928 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statemencs is correct?
A. Induced drag is independent of the speed.
B. Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.
C. Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
D. Induced drag increases with increasing speed.
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Issue : 00 08-2011
032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 19 Ref 72722 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-13)
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by "equivalent gross
weight at engine failure"?
A. The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.
B. The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for OAT higher than ISA
+10 ˚C.
C. This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.
D. The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.
QUESTION 20 Ref 41022 ( 1 point)
Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
A. The speed for maximum climb angle VX.
B. 1.2 VS.
C. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
D. The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.
QUESTION 21 Ref 61052 ( 1 point)
For an aeroplane in Performance Class B the following factors must be applied in determining the take-off
distance from dry grass and wet pavement respectively:
A. 1.3 and 1.2
B. 1.3 and 1.15
C. 1.2 and 1.15
D. 1.2 and 1.0
QUESTION 22 Ref 96576 ( 1 point)
Landing on a runway with 5 mm wet snow will:
A. increase landing distance.
B. decrease landing distance.
C. not affect the landing distance.
D. give a slightly reduced landing distance, due to increased impingement drag.
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Issue : 00 08-2011
032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 23 Ref 31853 ( 1 point)

The speed for minimum power in a turbojet will be:
A. slower in a climb and faster in a descent.
B. the same as the speed for minimum drag.
C. faster than the speed for minimum drag.
D. slower than the speed for minimum drag.
QUESTION 24 Ref 13899 ( 1 point)
VREF for a Class B aircraft is defined by:
A. 1.3 VSO
B. 1.2 VSO
C. 1.3 VMC
D. 1.2 VMC
QUESTION 25 Ref 28711 ( 1 point)
In a power-off glide in still air, to obtain the maximum glide range, the aircraft should be flown:
A. at a speed corresponding to the maximum lift-to-drag ratio.
B. at a speed close to the stall.
C. at a speed corresponding to the minimum drag coefficient.
D. at a speed close to VNE.
QUESTION 26 Ref 94113 ( 1 point)
How is fuel consumption affected by the CG position, in terms of ANM/kg?
A. Increases with a forward CG.
B. Decreases with a aft CG.
C. Decreases with a forward CG.
D. Fuel consumption is not affected by the CG position.
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032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 27 Ref 23940 ( 1 point)

An obstacle is 5 000 m from the end of the TODR and is 160 m high. The screen height is 50 ft and the ground
climb gradient is 5%. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The obstacle will be cleared by 710 ft.
B. The obstacle will be cleared by 345 ft.
C. The obstacle will be cleared by 295 ft.
D. The obstacle will not be cleared.
QUESTION 28 Ref 46233 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-03)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take-off
distance to a height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: 38˚C
Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3 400 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Dry
Grass Correction factor: 1.2
A. 4 150 ft.
B. 3 860 ft.
C. 3 680 ft.
D. 5 040 ft.
QUESTION 29 Ref 66355 ( 1 point)
The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure
altitude. Using the following corrections: ± 0.2% / 1 000 ft field elevation ± 0.1% / °C from standard
temperature - 1% with wing anti-ice - 0.5% with engine anti-ice The climb gradient after take-off from an
airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17°C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional
check is:
A. 4.7%
B. 4.3%
C. 3.9%
D. 4.9%
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032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 30 Ref 46019 ( 1 point)

The correct sequence of speeds is:
A. VS, VX, VY.
B. VX, VS, VY.
C. VS, max range speed, max endurance speed.
D. max endurance speed, VS, max range speed.
QUESTION 31 Ref 53689 ( 1 point)
During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the lAS /
the drag will:
A. decrease I decrease.
B. increase I decrease.
C. increase I increase.
D. decrease / increase.
QUESTION 32 Ref 22220 ( 1 point)
Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?
A. SR = Ground speed / Total Fuel Flow.
B. SR = Indicated Airspeed I Total Fuel Flow.
C. SR = Mach Number I Total Fuel Flow.
D. SR = True Airspeed I Total Fuel Flow.
QUESTION 33 Ref 5490 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-09)
Given:
OAT: 10˚C
Pressure altitude: 2 000 ft
Gross mass: 3 750 lbs
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb
for the conditions given?
A. 430 ft/min.
B. 500 ft/min.
C. 890 ft/min.
D. 200 ft/min.
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032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 34 Ref 10306 ( 1 point)

The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet:
A. has to be considered at take-off and landing.
B. can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
C. exists only above MMO.
D. limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.
QUESTION 35 Ref 47315 ( 1 point)
For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range (up to the optimum
altitude)?
A. Decreases.
B. Does not change.
C. Increases only if there is no wind.
D. Increases.
QUESTION 36 Ref 63122 ( 1 point)
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?
A. Weight and drag only.
B. Weight and thrust only.
C. Weight, drag and thrust.
D. Thrust and drag only.
QUESTION 37 Ref 76228 ( 1 point)
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available?
A. Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
B. No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.
C. No.
D. Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
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Issue : 00 08-2011
032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 38 Ref 85261 ( 1 point)

The angle of attack required to attain the maximum still-air range for a turbo-jet aeroplane is:
A. greater than that for the maximum lift to drag ratio.
B. the same as that giving zero induced drag.
C. the same as that for the maximum endurance.
D. less than that for the maximum lift to drag ratio.
QUESTION 39 Ref 89973 ( 1 point)
Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
A. VMCL, and V1 should not exceed VR.
B. VMCA and VR should not exceed V1.
C. VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR.
D. V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG.
QUESTION 40 Ref 97071 ( 1 point)
If the aircraft takes off at the wet V1 instead of the dry V1, what is the effect on (i)TODR (ii) Obstacle
clearance?
A. i) TODR increases; ii) Obstacle clearance degraded.
B. i) TODR increases; ii) Obstacle clearance improved.
C. i) TODR decreases; ii) Obstacle clearance degraded.
D. i) TODR decreases; ii) Obstacle clearance improved.
QUESTION 41 Ref 38709 ( 1 point)
Compared to the maximum range cruise speed, the long range cruise speed is:
A. depends on the outside air temperature and gross mass.
B. higher.
C. depends on the pressure altitude and gross mass.
D. lower.
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032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 42 Ref 72203 ( 1 point)

In a power-off glide, an increase in aircraft mass will:
A. increase the glide angle and increase the speed for minimum glide angle.
B. not affect the glide angle, but increase the speed for minimum glide angle.
C. increase the glide angle, but not affect the speed for minimum glide angle.
D. not affect the glide angle, and not affect the speed for minimum glide angle.
QUESTION 43 Ref 77742 ( 1 point)
The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings: 65% and 75%. The 75%
power setting in relation to the 65% results in:
A. same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour.
B. an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.
C. same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance.
D. an increase in speed and fuel-burn/ distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.
QUESTION 44 Ref 88260 ( 1 point)
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding
to:
A. the minimum angle of descent.
B. the minimum drag.
C. the minimum power required.
D. the maximum lift
QUESTION 45 Ref 18205 ( 1 point)
Field length is balanced when:
A. take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available.
B. calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1.
C. all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
D. one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
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QUESTION 46 Ref 88660 ( 1 point)

It the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
A. the minimum drag increases and the lAS for minimum drag increases.
B. the minimum drag increases and the lAS for minimum drag decreases.
C. the minimum drag decreases and the lAS for minimum drag decreases.
D. the minimum drag decreases and the lAS for minimum drag increases.
QUESTION 47 Ref 85910 ( 1 point)
Can a stopway be used in take-off calculations?
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. Only if the clearway is shorter than the stopway.
D. Only if the stopway is shorter than the clearway.
QUESTION 48 Ref 7677 ( 1 point)
The vertical interval by which a Class A aeroplane must avoid all obstacles in the drift-down path, during the
drift-down following an engine failure is:
A. 1 000 ft
B. 2 000 ft
C. 1 500 ft
D. 35 ft
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QUESTION 49 Ref 16912 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-29;032-30)
Given:
Pressure altitude: 3 000 ft
Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +30˚ C
Runway Length limited Take-Off Mass (RLTOM): 60 000 kg
Runway: 2% upslope
Flaps: 5˚
Wind: 5 kts tail
PMC: ON
Air Conditioning (AC) Packs: OFF
Using the above data, determine the VMCG and V1:
A. VMCG = 111 kts, V1 = 147 kts
B. VMCG = 109 kts, V1 = 148 kts
C. VMCG = 111 kts, V1 = 148 kts
D. VMCG = 109 kts, V1 = 147 kts
QUESTION 50 Ref 77643 ( 1 point)
Taking into account the values given below, what would be the maximum authorized brake release mass?
Flaps: 5° 10° 15°
Field limited mass: 49850 kg 52500 kg 56850 kg
Climb limited mass: 51250 kg 49300 kg 45500 kg
A. 56850 kg
B. 49300 kg
C. 49850 kg
D. 51250 kg
QUESTION 51 Ref 67299 ( 1 point)
Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct? (from low to high speeds)
A. Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
B. VS, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
C. VS, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
D. Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.
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032 – Performance
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 09-2016

QUESTION 52 Ref 23210 ( 1 point)

At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
A. When gear retraction is completed.
B. 35 ft above ground.
C. 400 ft above field elevation.
D. 1 500 ft above field elevation.
QUESTION 53 Ref 24004 ( 1 point)
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant lAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
A. The Maximum operating Mach number.
B. The Stalling speed.
C. The Minimum control speed air.
D. The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
QUESTION 54 Ref 88770 ( 1 point)
Deployment of flaps___ CL/CD.
A. increases
B. reduces
C. only slightly increases
D. does not affect
QUESTION 55 Ref 88054 ( 1 point)
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct?
A. The take-off is not permitted.
B. The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
C. The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
D. The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
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QUESTION 56 Ref 82964 ( 1 point)

An aircraft is climbing at a constant lAS, below the Mach limit. As height increases:
A. drag decreases, because density decreases.
B. drag remains constant, but the climb gradient decreases.
C. drag increases, because TAS increases.
D. drag remains constant and the climb gradient remains constant.
QUESTION 57 Ref 83521 ( 1 point)
In a glide the maximum range will be obtained by flying at:
A. VNE.
B. a speed close to the stalling speed.
C. VMD.
D. VMO/MMO.
QUESTION 58 Ref 86127 ( 1 point)
According to EASA AIR OPS, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a
turbojet aeroplane is correct?
A. Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.
B. The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop.
C. When determining the maximum allowable Landing Mass at destination, 60% of the available landing
runway length should be taken into account.
D. Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance
required.
QUESTION 59 Ref 91677 ( 1 point)
For an aircraft gliding at its best glide range speed, if A of A is reduced:
A. glide distance will increase.
B. glide distance will remain unaffected.
C. glide distance will decrease.
D. glide distance will remain constant, if speed is increased.
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QUESTION 60 Ref 95846 ( 1 point)

Gross performance is:
A. the minimum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown
in accordance with the techniques described in the manual.
B. the average performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in
accordance with the techniques described in the manual.
C. the maximum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown
in accordance with the techniques described in the manual.
D. 65 percent of net performance.
QUESTION 61 Ref 46403 ( 1 point)
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes, compared to all engines
operative cruise and assuming altitude remains constant, is:
A. reduced.
B. improved.
C. not affected.
D. first improved and later reduced.
QUESTION 62 Ref 15306 ( 1 point)
Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
A. V2.
B. V2 + 10 kts.
C. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
D. The speed at which the excess of thrust available over thrust required is greatest.
QUESTION 63 Ref 53631 ( 1 point)
Besides lift, the forces that determine the gradient of climb of an aeroplane are:
A. Weight and drag only.
B. Weight, drag and thrust.
C. Thrust and drag only.
D. Weight and thrust only.
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QUESTION 64 Ref 3405 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-02)
An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in the diagram. Given the
following conditions:
OAT: + 18°C
Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 1 500 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 1 270 kg
Wind Component: 4 kts tailwind
Runway Surface: Hard, Dry
Runway Slope: 0%
The approximate take-off distance to 50 ft is:
A. 540 m
B. 615 m
C. 465 m
D. 395 m
QUESTION 65 Ref 70373 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-15)
What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with
the anti-skid inoperative? Given:
Elevation: 2 000 ft
QNH: 1013 hPa
Landing Mass: 50 000 kg
Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance
Runway condition: dry
Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kts
Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kts
A. 2 700 m
B. 2 600 m
C. 3 100 m
D. 2 900 m
QUESTION 66 Ref 36630 ( 1 point)
On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum
drag speed is 125 kts and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kts. The best rate of climb
speed will be obtained for a speed:
A. < 95 kts.
B. equal to 95 kts.
C. between 95 and 125 kts.
D. equal to 125 kts.
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QUESTION 67 Ref 10235 ( 1 point)

Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
A. VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
B. V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
C. V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
D. V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
QUESTION 68 Ref 16656 ( 1 point)
Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
A. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
B. V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
C. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
D. V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
QUESTION 69 Ref 81126 ( 1 point)
The result of a higher flap setting (up to the optimum) for take-off is:
A. a longer take-off run.
B. an increased acceleration.
C. a higher V1.
D. a shorter ground roll.
QUESTION 70 Ref 85965 ( 1 point)
What gives one the greatest gliding time?
A. Lower mass.
B. A headwind.
C. A tailwind.
D. Higher mass.
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QUESTION 71 Ref 53142 ( 1 point)

A jet aircraft's maximum altitude on a transcontinental flight with a full traffic load is usually limited by:
A. it's certification maximum altitude.
B. it's pressurisation maximum altitude.
C. the altitude at which low and high-speed buffet will occur.
D. thrust limits.
QUESTION 72 Ref 63078 ( 1 point)
The pilots of a jet aircraft wish to reach the destination with minimum use of fuel. They should fly at:
A. best L/D Speed.
B. max Range Cruise Speed.
C. long Range Cruise Speed.
D. minimum Power Speed.
QUESTION 73 Ref 15237 ( 1 point)
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption.
The result is:
A. the specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
B. the speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
C. the specific range and the optimum altitude increases.
D. the specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
QUESTION 74 Ref 17490 ( 1 point)
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
A. the bank angle only.
B. the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
C. the true airspeed and the bank angle.
D. the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.
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QUESTION 75 Ref 39411 ( 1 point)

If the CG moves aft from the most forward position:
A. the range and the fuel consumption will increase.
B. the range and the fuel consumption will decrease.
C. the range will increase and the fuel consumption will decrease.
D. the range will decrease and the fuel consumption will increase.
QUESTION 76 Ref 62041 ( 1 point)
During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane, the distances measured from brake release to
the 35 feet point are equal to: 1547 m with all engines runing 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with
all other things remaining unchanged The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
A. 1547 m
B. 1720 m
C. 1779 m
D. 1978 m
QUESTION 77 Ref 27841 ( 1 point)
For a jet aeroplane in a level flight, cruising at VMD. If the mass is decreased:
A. the minimum drag decreases and lAS decreases.
B. the minimum drag decreases and lAS increases.
C. the minimum drag remains the same and lAS decreases.
D. the minimum drag remains the same and lAS remains the same.
QUESTION 78 Ref 56481 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-09)
Given:
OAT: -20˚C
Pressure altitude: 14 000 ft
Gross mass: 4 000 lbs
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb?
A. 1 250 ft/min.
B. 175 ft/min.
C. 375 ft/min.
D. 625 ft/min.
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QUESTION 79 Ref 64808 ( 1 point)

Induced drag is caused by:
A. movement of the aerofoil through the air.
B. the shape of the aerofoil.
C. boundary layer effects.
D. increased zero-lift drag.
QUESTION 80 Ref 81801 ( 1 point)
During a driftdown following engine failure, what would be the correct procedure to follow?
A. Descend in the approach configuration.
B. Disregard the flight manual and descend at VS + 10 kts to the destination.
C. Do not commence fuel jettison until enroute obstacles have been cleared.
D. Begin fuel jettison immediately, commensurate with having required reserves at destination.
QUESTION 81 Ref 23133 ( 1 point)
With a true airspeed of 194 kts and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about:
A. 5.1%
B. 3%
C. 5˚
D. 8%
QUESTION 82 Ref 58447 ( 1 point)
Aircraft mass is reduced by 5% in level flight. Assuming the specific fuel consumption is unchanged the fuel
flow over a one hour period will be reduced by:
A. nothing
B. 0.05
C. 0.1
D. 0.15
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QUESTION 83 Ref 4351 ( 1 point)

Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude?
A. If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.
B. If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.
C. If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
D. If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
QUESTION 84 Ref 51920 ( 1 point)
The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600 m in Standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Using
the following corrections: ± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation - 5 m / kts headwind + 10 m / kts tailwind ± 15 m /
% runway slope ± 5 m / ˚C deviation from standard temperature The take-off distance from an airport at 1
000 ft elevation, temperature 17˚C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kts tailwind is:
A. 685 m
B. 715 m
C. 555 m
D. 755 m
QUESTION 85 Ref 89467 ( 1 point)
Requirements for the 3rd segment of take-off climb are:
A. minimum acceleration altitude for one engine inoperative should be used.
B. there is no climb gradient requirement during acceleration phase.
C. level acceleration with an equivalent gradient of 1.2%.
D. legal minimum altitude for acceleration is 1500.
QUESTION 86 Ref 6734 ( 1 point)
During an approach to landing in turbulent wind conditions:
A. approach speed must be lowered.
B. VREF remains constant.
C. VREF is increased and steeper glide path is maintained to avoid the use of spoilers.
D. VREF is decreased and steeper glide path is maintained to avoid the use of spoilers.
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QUESTION 87 Ref 91756 ( 1 point)

An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles.The half-width of the obstacle-
corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:
A. -90 m + 1.125 D
B. 90 m + D/0.125
C. 90 m + 0.125 D
D. 0.125 D
QUESTION 88 Ref 69293 ( 1 point)
In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends on:
A. speed, mass and fuel on board.
B. altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.
C. altitude, speed and mass.
D. speed and mass.
QUESTION 89 Ref 38531 ( 1 point)
Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
A. Following an engine failure before___(i) and allowing for a pilot reaction time of ___ (ii) a correctly loaded
aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a stop within the___(iii).
A. i) V2; ii) 3 seconds; iii) Take-Off distance available (TODA)
B. i) V1; ii) 2 seconds; iii) Accelerate-Stop distance available (ASDA)
C. i) V1; ii) 2 seconds; iii) Take-Off distance available (TODA)
D. i) V1; ii) 1 second; iii) Accelerate-Stop distance available (ASDA)
QUESTION 90 Ref 57250 ( 1 point)
At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3 000 m. The appropriate weather forecast
indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a
turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
A. 2 070 m
B. 1 565 m
C. 1 800 m
D. 2 609 m
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032 – Performance
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QUESTION 91 Ref 27098 ( 1 point)

A higher temperature causes ___ in air density and ___ in lift.
A. increase; decrease
B. decrease; increase
C. increase; increase
D. decrease; decrease
QUESTION 92 Ref 74006 ( 1 point)
A commercial flight is planned with a turboprop aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance
available of 2400 m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within:
A. 1 090 m
B. 1 339 m
C. 1 680 m
D. 1 440 m
QUESTION 93 Ref 58553 ( 1 point)
The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the following
margins above stall speed in landing configuration:
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 30%
QUESTION 94 Ref 90264 ( 1 point)
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
A. a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance.
B. an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.
C. an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance.
D. a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.
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QUESTION 95 Ref 10062 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-11)
What is the maximum brake release weight, given there is no slope and no wind?
Flap setting: 15°
OAT: +25°C
Aerodrome pressure altitude: 2 000 ft
Field length available: 8 000 ft
A. 58 000 kg
B. 59 500 kg
C. 61 000 kg
D. 62 500 kg
QUESTION 96 Ref 1068 ( 1 point)
An aerodrome has a clearway of 500 m and a stopway of 200 m. If the stopway is extended to 500 m the
effect will likely be:
A. the maximum Take-off Mass will increase, and V1 will decrease.
B. the maximum Take-off Mass will increase and V1 will remain the same.
C. the maximum Take-off Mass will remain the same and V1 will increase.
D. the maximum Take-off Mass will increase and V1 will increase.
QUESTION 97 Ref 29396 ( 1 point)
The speed VR:
A. must be equal to or lower than V1.
B. must be higher than V2.
C. must be higher than VLOF.
D. is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
QUESTION 98 Ref 48835 ( 1 point)
The optimum cruise altitude increases:
A. if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
B. if the tailwind component is decreased.
C. if the aeroplane mass is increased.
D. if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
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QUESTION 99 Ref 2655 ( 1 point)

Regarding the obstacle limited Take-off Mass, which of the following statemems is correct?
A. Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.
B. A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tailwind condition.
C. The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited Take-off Mass.
D. The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10˚.
QUESTION 100 Ref 61090 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a
height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: 27˚C
Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2 900 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
A. 1 370 feet.
B. 1 650 feet.
C. 1 120 feet.
D. 1 800 feet.
QUESTION 101 Ref 75287 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a
height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: ISA +15˚C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2 940 lbs
Headwind component: 10 kts
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: short and wet grass - firm soil
Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38
A. 1 450 feet.
B. 2 000 feet.
C. 1 300 feet.
D. 1 800 feet.
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QUESTION 102 Ref 57213 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-17)
Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engined
aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A)
determines the speed of:
A. maximum thrust.
B. critical angle of attack.
C. maximum specific range.
D. maximum endurance.
QUESTION 103 Ref 90038 ( 1 point)
Which statement, in relation to the climb limited Take-off Mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
A. 50% of a headwind is taken into account when determining the climb limited Take-off Mass.
B. On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.
C. The climb limited Take-off Mass decreases with increasing OAT.
D. The climb limited Take-off Mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
QUESTION 104 Ref 48317 ( 1 point)
The take-off distance required increases:
A. due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
B. due to headwind because of the drag augmentation.
C. due to lower gross mass at take-off.
D. due to slush on the runway.
QUESTION 105 Ref 78877 ( 1 point)
Relative to the ground a headwind___ the effective climb angle and a tailwind ___ the effective climb angle.
A. increases; decreases
B. decreases; increases
C. increases; increases
D. decreases; decreases
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QUESTION 106 Ref 41957 ( 1 point)

An aeroplane descends from FL 410 to FL 270 at its cruise Mach number and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the lAS
achieved at FL 270. Assuming idle thrust, a clean configuration and ignoring compressibility effects, how
does the angle of descent change (i) in the first and (ii) in the second part of the descent?
A. i) increases, ii) remains constant.
B. i) increases, ii) decreases.
C. i) remains constant, ii) decreases.
D. i) decreases, ii) increases.
QUESTION 107 Ref 29488 ( 1 point)
Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG is based on directional control being maintained by:
A. nosewheel steering only.
B. primary aerodynamic control only.
C. primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel.
D. primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking.
QUESTION 108 Ref 821 ( 1 point)
Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason?
A. Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
B. To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
C. To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
D. To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
QUESTION 109 Ref 95531 ( 1 point)
Given a runway of unrestricted length, with oceanic views and a high pressure-altitude, what, for a heavy
aircraft at a constant lAS, are the effects on performance factors?
A. long take-off, a high climb angle and VMC (lAS) will be increased.
B. Short take-off, a high climb angle and VMC (IAS) will be reduced.
C. Long take-off, a low climb angle, but VMC (lAS) will remain unchanged.
D. Long take-off, a low climb angle, but VMC (lAS) will be reduced.
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QUESTION 110 Ref 51032 ( 1 point)

The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
A. take-off run available.
B. take-off distance available.
C. landing distance available.
D. accelerate-stop distance available.
QUESTION 111 Ref 20091 ( 1 point)
Given:
Still Air climb gradient: 7.5%
TAS: 140 kts
Wind component: 25 kts head
What is the effective wind climb gradient?
A. 9.1%
B. 8.5%
C. 6.1%
D. 5.8%
QUESTION 112 Ref 85930 ( 1 point)
With increastng altitude, the rate of climb:
A. decreases because power available decreases and power required is constant.
B. increases because density and drag decrease.
C. decreases because power available decreases and power required increases.
D. decreases because power available is constant and power required increases.
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QUESTION 113 Ref 18936 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-03)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take-off
distance to a height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: 30˚C
Pressure Altitude: 1 000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3 400 lbs
Tailwind component: 10 kts
Flaps: Approach
Runway: Tarred and dry
A. 2 800 ft
B. 2 500 ft
C. 2 000 ft
D. 1 440 ft
QUESTION 114 Ref 1064 ( 1 point)
At a given mass, the stalling speed of a light twin engine piston aircraft is 100 kts in the landing
configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain on short final is:
A. 110 kts
B. 100 kts
C. 115 kts
D. 130 kts
QUESTION 115 Ref 79688 ( 1 point)
Regarding the best angle and the best rate of descent speeds, which of the following statements is true:
A. a heavier aircraft must descend at a slower airspeed in order to maintain the same slope as a similar lighter
aircraft.
B. a heavier aircraft must descend at a faster airspeed in order to maintain the same slope as a similar lighter
aircraft.
C. weight has no effect on the rate of descent only on the descent slope angle.
D. weight has no effect on the descent slope angle or descent rate.
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QUESTION 116 Ref 80074 ( 1 point)

If for aeroplane in Performance Class B the intended take-off flight path requires track changes of more than
15˚, with the pilot unable to maintain visual navigation accuracy according to EASA AIR OPS regulations, the
clearance of obstacles within ___ of track need be considered.
A. 300 m
B. 500 m
C. 600 m
D. 900 m
QUESTION 117 Ref 44620 ( 1 point)
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited Take-off Mass will be:
A. lower.
B. higher.
C. unaffected.
D. only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
QUESTION 118 Ref 86293 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-06)
Given:
OAT: -15˚C
Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
RWY: 12R Wind: 080˚/12 kts
Take-off Mass: 4 000 lbs
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.
What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
A. 1 600 ft
B. 1 270 ft
C. 1 500 ft
D. 1 830 ft
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QUESTION 119 Ref 92475 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a
height of 50 ft . Given:
OAT: ISA +15˚C
Pressure altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane mass: 2 940 lbs
Tailwind component: 10 kts
Flaps: landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and dry
A. approximately 950 ft
B. approximately 750 ft
C. approximately 1 400 ft
D. approximately 1 900 ft
QUESTION 120 Ref 35173 ( 1 point)
If, after experiencing an engine failure when cruising above the one-engine-inoperative ceiling, an aeroplane
is unable to maintain its cruising altitude, the procedure that should be adopted is:
A. Drift down procedure.
B. Emergency descent procedure.
C. ETOPS.
D. Long range cruise descent.
QUESTION 121 Ref 8054 ( 1 point)
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
A. Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads larger than 1.
B. A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude.
C. A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude.
D. A step climb is executed in principle when, just after leveling off, the 1.3 g altitude is reached.
 Page: 34

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QUESTION 122 Ref 90157 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-06)
Given:
OAT: 24˚C
Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft
RWY: 12L Wind: 080˚/12 kts
Take-off Mass: 3 800 lbs
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.
What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
A. 1 050 ft
B. 1 750 ft
C. 1 350 ft
D. 1 150 ft
QUESTION 123 Ref 97611 ( 1 point)
An aircraft is scheduled for take-off, and requires 800 m (TODR) under normal conditions at ISA seal level.
The following airfield characteristics need to be taken into account:
Pressure Altitude 2000 ft,
QNH 1013 hPa,
Temperature +21 ˚C,
5 kts tailwind,
2% downslope.

Adjust the TODR accordingly using the following factors:

Pressure altitude: ± 20 m / 1 000 ft
Runway slope: ± 15 m / 1% slope
Headwind: -5 m / 1 kts
Tailwind: +10 m / 1 kts
Temperature: ± 5 m / 1° ISA Deviation
A. 810 m
B. 870 m
C. 910 m
D. 940 m
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QUESTION 124 Ref 26125 ( 1 point)

A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
A. increases the climb limited Take-off Mass.
B. decreases the take-off distance.
C. decreases the field length limited Take-off Mass.
D. has no influence on the allowed Take-off Mass.
QUESTION 125 Ref 30290 ( 1 point)
At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 kts in the landing
configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
A. 125 kts
B. 115 kts
C. 123 kts
D. 120 kts
QUESTION 126 Ref 47017 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-07)
Given:
OAT: -10˚C
Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
RWV: 12R Wind: 180˚/10 kts
Take-off Mass: 4 600 lbs
Heavy Duty Breaks installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the chart. What is the
Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
A. 3 550 ft
B. 3 800 ft
C. 4 600 ft
D. 4 300 ft
QUESTION 127 Ref 14534 ( 1 point)
For a piston-engined aeroplane at a constant altitude, angle of attack and configuration, an increased
weight will require:
A. more power but lower speed.
B. more power and the same speed.
C. more power and higher speed.
D. the same power but higher speed.
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QUESTION 128 Ref 65170 ( 1 point)

Reduced take-off thrust:
A. can be used if the actual Take-off Mass is higher than the performance limited Take-off Mass.
B. has the benefit of improving engine life.
C. is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
D. can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kts.
QUESTION 129 Ref 95615 ( 1 point)
The speed found at the point where a tangent line from the origin touches the drag curve for a turbo jet
aircraft, is used:
A. to achieve the best ANM/kg.
B. for long range cruise.
C. for holding procedures.
D. to attain the steepest possible gradient for a given mass, altitude and temperature.
QUESTION 130 Ref 15218 ( 1 point)
For a turbojet aeroplane the 2nd segment of the take-off climb begins when:
A. accelerating from V2 to flap retraction speed begins.
B. landing gear is fully retracted.
C. flap retraction begins.
D. flaps are fully retracted.
QUESTION 131 Ref 19661 ( 1 point)
Water equivalent depth is:
A. the depth of water in the contaminant.
B. the contaminant depth x 0.5.
C. the contaminant depth x specific gravity.
D. the measured depth of the contaminant.
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QUESTION 132 Ref 65588 ( 1 point)

VLO is defined as:
A. actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground.
B. minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground.
C. the maximum speed for landing gear operation.
D. the long range cruise speed.
QUESTION 133 Ref 64040 ( 1 point)
The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane:
A. in descent with constant lAS.
B. in accelerated level flight.
C. in unaccelerated climb.
D. in unaccelerated level flight.
QUESTION 134 Ref 23442 ( 1 point)
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing
configuration is abbreviated as:
A. VSO
B. VS1
C. VS
D. VMC
QUESTION 135 Ref 29752 ( 1 point)
The TODA is:
A. declared runway length plus clearway and stopway.
B. declared runway length plus stopway.
C. declared runway length plus clearway.
D. declared runway length only.
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QUESTION 136 Ref 40379 ( 1 point)

The landing distance required will be decreased as a result of:
A. higher aircraft mass, higher air density, uphill runway slope.
B. higher aircraft mass, higher air density, downhill runway slope.
C. low aircraft mass, lower air density, uphill runway slope.
D. low aircraft mass, high air density, uphill runway slope.
QUESTION 137 Ref 2086 ( 1 point)
What is the effect of extending flaps on VX and VY?
A. VX increases and VY decreases.
B. VX increases and VY increases.
C. VX decreases and VY increases.
D. VX decreases and VY decreases.
QUESTION 138 Ref 59864 ( 1 point)
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
A. decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density.
B. increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
C. increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
D. is independent of altitude.
QUESTION 139 Ref 90200 ( 1 point)
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
A. The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
B. The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
C. The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
D. The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
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QUESTION 140 Ref 77402 ( 1 point)

The critical engine inoperative:
A. does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
B. increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.
C. increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the
compensation of the yaw moment.
D. decreases the power required and the total drag due to the reduced drag of the windmilling engine and the
compensation of the yaw moment.
QUESTION 141 Ref 99892 ( 1 point)
The 1st segment of the take-off flight path ends:
A. at 35 ft above the runway.
B. at completion of flap retraction.
C. at reaching V2.
D. at completion of gear retraction.
QUESTION 142 Ref 22121 ( 1 point)
The relationship of the reference landing speed (VREF) to the reference stalling speed in the landing
configuration (VSRO) is that VREF may not be below:
A. VSRO
B. 1.1 VSRO
C. 1.23 VSRO
D. 1.32 VSRO
QUESTION 143 Ref 96119 ( 1 point)
According to EASA CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
A. 1.2 VMCA·
B. VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height.
C. 1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes.
D. 1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height.
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QUESTION 144 Ref 29361 ( 1 point)

When operating a jet aircraft at the long range cruise speed:
A. a speed equal to 1.32 VMD is used.
B. a speed slightly faster than the best range speed is used, this reduces sector times.
C. a speed equal to minimum total drag to give minimum fuel consumption.
D. the longest possible range will be achieved.
QUESTION 145 Ref 47293 ( 1 point)
What is the effect of increased mass on the maximum rate of climb speed (all other factors considered
unchanged)?
A. Speed for maximum rate of climb increases with increasing mass.
B. Maximum rate of climb is dependent of mass, but not the speed for maximum rate of climb.
C. Speed for maximum rate of climb decreases with increasing mass.
D. Maximum rate of climb and the corresponding speed are independent of mass.
QUESTION 146 Ref 54900 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the increased V2 procedure?
A. The TOM can always be increased by decreasing the V2.
B. Increasing the V2 speed has the effect of increasing the TODR and increasing the climb gradient for a given
TOM.
C. The TOM can only be increased by increasing the V2 speed if the field length mass limit is less than the climb
limit.
D. The TOM can always be increased by increasing the V2.
QUESTION 147 Ref 88437 ( 1 point)
The speed for best rate of climb is called:
A. VY
B. VX
C. V2
D. VCL
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QUESTION 148 Ref 6859 ( 1 point)

By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?
A. 30%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 15%
QUESTION 149 Ref 15646 ( 1 point)
Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a
holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption
is equal to 3 100 kg/hr. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
A. 3 426 kg/hrs.
B. 3 602 kg/hrs.
C. 3 787 kg/hrs.
D. 3 259 kg/hrs.
QUESTION 150 Ref 56310 ( 1 point)
If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the following will occur?
A. A better maximum range.
B. A lower cruise Mach number.
C. A higher cruise Mach number.
D. A better long range.
QUESTION 151 Ref 34175 ( 1 point)
If the flap setting is changed from 10˚ to 20˚, V2MIN will:
A. remain the same.
B. decrease if not limited by VMCA.
C. increase
D. increase or decrease depending on weight.
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QUESTION 152 Ref 37255 ( 1 point)

For a turbo jet aircraft planning to land on a wet runway, the landing distance available:
A. must always be at least 15% greater than the dry landing distance.
B. may be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if the flight manual gives specific data for a wet
runway.
C. may be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if permission is obtained from the relevant
aerodrome authority.
D. may be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if all reverse thrust systems are operative.
QUESTION 153 Ref 55628 ( 1 point)
The engine failure during take-off run results in:
A. an increased acceleration.
B. a shorter take-off run.
C. a longer ground roll.
D. a higher V1.
QUESTION 154 Ref 7821 ( 1 point)
The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of an aeroplane (certified under CS 25) with 5°,
15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values with zero wind:
Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°
Runway limitation: 66 000 kg 69 500 kg 71 500 kg
2nd segment climb limitation: 72 200 kg 69 000 kg 61 800 kg
Wind corrections: Headwind: + 120 kg / 1 kt
Tailwind: -360 kg / 1 kt
Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 kts, the maximum mass on brake release and
corresponding flap angle will be:
A. 69 000 kg / 15 °.
B. 67 700 kg / 15 °.
C. 72 200 kg / 5°.
D. 69 700 kg / 25 °.
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QUESTION 155 Ref 99358 ( 1 point)

What happens to the field limited Take-off Mass with runway slope?
A. It increases with a downhill slope.
B. It is unaffected by runway slope.
C. It decreases with a downhill slope.
D. It increases with an uphill slope.
QUESTION 156 Ref 97139 ( 1 point)
During aircraft certification, the value of VMCG is round with nose wheel steering inoperative. This is
because:
A. nose wheel steering does not affect VMCG.
B. VMCG must be valid in both wet and dry conditions.
C. nose wheel steering does not work after an engine failure.
D. the aircraft may be operated even if the nose wheel steering is inoperative.
QUESTION 157 Ref 45803 ( 1 point)
Given:
Still Air climb gradient: 5%
TAS: 200 kts
Wind component: 50 kts tail
What is the effective wind climb gradient?
A. 3.8%
B. 4.0%
C. 5.0%
D. 5.4%
QUESTION 158 Ref 5830 ( 1 point)
A higher altitude at constant mass and speed requires:
A. a lower coefficient of drag.
B. a lower coefficient of lift.
C. a higher angle of attack.
D. a lower angle of attack.
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QUESTION 159 Ref 32309 ( 1 point)

Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
A. High mass.
B. Headwind.
C. Tailwind.
D. Low mass.
QUESTION 160 Ref 54365 ( 1 point)
The long-range cruise speed is selected because:
A. the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.
B. it is the best speed for economy.
C. it achieves the best specific range with a headwind.
D. it is the cruise-climb speed for one or two engines inoperative.
QUESTION 161 Ref 57266 ( 1 point)
When flying at the optimum range altitude, over time the:
A. fuel consumption gradually decreases.
B. fuel consumption gradually increases.
C. fuel consumption initially decreases then gradually increases.
D. fuel consumption remains constant.
QUESTION 162 Ref 38765 ( 1 point)
A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires
A. more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
B. less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
C. a higher coefficient of lift.
D. more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.
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QUESTION 163 Ref 34126 ( 1 point)

To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
A. use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
B. use normal landing, braking and reverse technique.
C. postpone the landing until, the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.
D. make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.
QUESTION 164 Ref 42283 ( 1 point)
An increase in ambient temperature causes the absolute ceiling to:
A. decrease.
B. increase.
C. remain unchanged.
D. increase subject to its relation to ISA
QUESTION 165 Ref 76386 ( 1 point)
lf the Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
A. increase the maximum mass for take-off.
B. decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
C. have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
D. decrease the required take-off distance.
QUESTION 166 Ref 34249 ( 1 point)
The effect that an increased outside air temperature has on the climb performance of an aeroplane is that it:
A. increases the climb gradient and decreases the rate of climb.
B. reduces the climb gradient and increases the rate of climb.
C. reduces both the climb gradient and the rate of climb.
D. does not affect the climb performance.
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QUESTION 167 Ref 41696 ( 1 point)

What is the effect of increasing the flap setting on (i) gradient and (ii) rate of climb?
A. i) decreases; ii) does not change.
B. i) increases; ii) increases.
C. i) does not change; ii) decreases.
D. i) decreases; ii) decreases.
QUESTION 168 Ref 81079 ( 1 point)
When operating with anti-skid inoperative:
A. only take-off performance will be affected.
B. only landing performance will be affected.
C. neither take-off nor landing performance will be affected.
D. both take-off and landing performance will be affected.
QUESTION 169 Ref 42682 ( 1 point)
What happens if density altitude is 3 000 ft at an airport whose elevation is 1 000 ft?
A. Take-off and landing performance will be unaffected.
B. The altimeter will indicate 3 000 ft when the aircraft is on the ground.
C. Take-off and landing performance will be about the same as for an airport with an elevation of 3 000 ft.
D. Indicated speed at 50 kts on take-off and landing will be higher than in a standard atmosphere.
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QUESTION 170 Ref 73911 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-12)
Given:
Climb Limited Take-Off mass (CLTOM): 48 020 kg
Airport pressure altitude: 6 000 ft
Flaps: 15˚
Packs: OFF
Anti-Ice: OFF
PMC: ON
What is the maximum airport Outside Air Temperature (OAT) at which the take-off can be performed under
those conditions?
A. 30°C
B. 34°C
C. 39°C
D. 44°C
QUESTION 171 Ref 68161 ( 1 point)
What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
A. Tailwind only effects holding speed.
B. No effect.
C. The lAS will be increased.
D. The lAS will be decreased.
QUESTION 172 Ref 58409 ( 1 point)
If the maximum Take-off Mass is limited by tire speed, what affect would a down sloping runway have?
A. No effect.
B. Always increase the mass.
C. Only increase the mass if not limrted by any other limitation.
D. Decrease the mass.
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QUESTION 173 Ref 58279 ( 1 point)

ASDA is defined as:
A. the same as TODA.
B. TODA plus stopway.
C. TORA plus stopway.
D. TORA plus clearway.
QUESTION 174 Ref 13139 ( 1 point)
What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
A. The speed for best angle of descent increases.
B. There is no effect.
C. The gliding angle decreases.
D. The lift/drag ratio decreases.
QUESTION 175 Ref 89885 ( 1 point)
Can take-off be scheduled if V1 < VMCG?
A. Only if VMCG is decreased to equal V1.
B. Yes.
C. No.
D. Only if V1 is decreased to equal VMCG.
QUESTION 176 Ref 20418 ( 1 point)
The rate of climb is approximately equal to:
A. the still-air gradient divided by the TAS.
B. the still-air gradient multiplied by the TAS.
C. the angle of climb divided by the TAS.
D. the angle of climb multiplied by the TAS.
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QUESTION 177 Ref 91894 ( 1 point)

An aircraft's maximum altitude is limited by:
1) its certificated maximum altitude
2) its pressurization limited maximum altitude
3) the cruise buffet boundary
A. 1
B. 1, 2
C. 2, 3
D. 1, 2, 3
QUESTION 178 Ref 29323 ( 1 point)
For an aircraft powered by turbo-prop engines the landing distance required at an alternate will be:
A. either less than that required at a destination aerodrome or the same depending on whether or not an
alternate aerodrome has been designated in the flight plan.
B. more than that required at a destination aerodrome.
C. less than that required at a destination aerodrome.
D. the same as that required at a destination aerodrome.
QUESTION 179 Ref 12450 ( 1 point)
Why are step climbs used on long distance flights?
A. Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes; they are used for piston engine aeroplanes
only.
B. To respect ATC flight level constraints.
C. To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.
D. Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected.
QUESTION 180 Ref 34788 ( 1 point)
An aeroplane is climbing at a speed 10 kts lower than the speed for best rate of climb:
A. angle of climb will decrease.
B. angle of climb will increase.
C. angle of climb will not change.
D. rate of climb will not change.
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QUESTION 181 Ref 86816 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-08)
With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, if the brakes are released before take-off power is
achieved, the accelerate/stop distance will be:
A. shorter than the graphical distance.
B. longer than the graphical distance.
C. unaffected because all take-off techniques are accounted for.
D. the same as the graphical distance because both techniques are accounted for.
QUESTION 182 Ref 80093 ( 1 point)
Which of the following will decrease V1?
A. Increased Take-off Mass.
B. Inoperative flight management system.
C. Increased outside air temperature.
D. Inoperative anti-skid.
QUESTION 183 Ref 67792 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-10)
Given:
Flaps: 40˚
Aerodrome pressure altitude: sea level
Ambient temperature: +15°C
Landing weight: 4 000 lbs
Wind: calm
Runway: paved and dry
What is the Landing Distance?
A. 1 240 feet.
B. 1 400 feet.
C. 2 040 feet.
D. 2 400 feet.
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QUESTION 184 Ref 4260 ( 1 point)

If the climb speed schedule is changed from 290/ 0.74 to 280/0.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
A. influenced only bythe aeroplane gross mass.
B. unchanged.
C. lower
D. higher.
QUESTION 185 Ref 43010 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb
segment?
A. The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.
B. The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1 500 ft.
C. There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height.
D. The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating.
QUESTION 186 Ref 7721 ( 1 point)
To obtain a positive rate of climb:
A. power available must be less than the power required.
B. power required must be less than che power available.
C. power available must be equal to power required.
D. thrust must exceed drag by che greatest margin.
QUESTION 187 Ref 94024 ( 1 point)
A balanced field length occurs when:
A. the take-off distance and half the clearway equals ASDA.
B. the distance to accelerate to V1 and the distance to stop are identical.
C. VGO = VSTOP = V1.
D. ASDA equals TODA.
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QUESTION 188 Ref 16585 ( 1 point)

If the weight during take-off was higher than expected which speed would be noticeable as being higher
than expected?
A. VLOF
B. V1
C. VR
D. V2
QUESTION 189 Ref 44028 ( 1 point)
In order to achieve the maximum rate of climb, aircraft should be flown at the indicated airspeed which:
A. gives the best lift/drag ratio.
B. gives maximum excess power.
C. gives the best thrust/drag ratio.
D. gives the best speed/drag ratio.
QUESTION 190 Ref 20085 ( 1 point)
A higher outside air temperature:
A. does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
B. increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
C. reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
D. reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
QUESTION 191 Ref 18557 ( 1 point)
Which one of the following statements is true concerning the effect of changes of ambient temperature on
an aeroplane's performance, assuming all other performance parameters remain constant?
A. An increase will cause a decrease in the landing distance required.
B. An increase will cause a decrease in take-off distance required.
C. A decrease will cause an increase of the climb gradient.
D. A decrease will cause an increase in the take-off ground run.
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QUESTION 192 Ref 62109 ( 1 point)

The rate of climb
A. is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.
B. is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
C. is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
D. is angle of climb times true airspeed.
QUESTION 193 Ref 86338 ( 1 point)
Which of the following will not increase the minimum glide angle relative to the ground:
A. lowering the landing gear.
B. increased weight.
C. increased flap angle.
D. increased headwind.
QUESTION 194 Ref 94058 ( 1 point)
When an aircrart takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
A. the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".
B. the distance trom brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance trom V1 to the 35 feet point.
C. the actual Take-off Mass equals the field length limited Take-off Mass.
D. the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.
QUESTION 195 Ref 76182 ( 1 point)
You are the commander of a light twin piston aircraft. The aircraft performance has been calculated, but
before departure another passenger is taken on board. What will be the effect of the extra passenger on
board?
A. The performance will be degraded but the performance calculations need not be performed again as the
safety factors are so large.
B. The performance will be improved.
C. No effect.
D. The performance will be degraded, the performance calculations should be performed again.
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QUESTION 196 Ref 66707 ( 1 point)

Compared with balanced-field calculations for an aerodrome with no stopway or clearway, the use of a
clearway in the take-off calculations will:
A. Increase the field-length-limited take-off mass.
B. Increase the value of V1.
C. Not affect the value of V1.
D. Not affect the value of the field-length-limited take-off mass.
QUESTION 197 Ref 32839 ( 1 point)
Which one of the following is not affected by a tailwind?
A. The field limited Take-off Mass.
B. The climb limited Take-off Mass.
C. The obstacle limited Take-off Mass.
D. The take-off run.
QUESTION 198 Ref 52589 ( 1 point)
How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the speed for
maximum range?
A. Increases only if there is no wind.
B. Decreases.
C. Does not change.
D. First increases than decreases.
QUESTION 199 Ref 63951 ( 1 point)
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at
higher gross mass:
A. the lift/drag ratio must be increased.
B. the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.
C. the airspeed and the drag will be increased.
D. the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.
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QUESTION 200 Ref 65128 ( 1 point)

Which statement with respect to the step climb iscorrect?
A. A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb.
B. In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude.
C. A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan.
D. Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3 g buffet onset requirements.
QUESTION 201 Ref 74353 ( 1 point)
How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the aeroplane Operations Manuals?
A. Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
B. Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
C. Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
D. Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
QUESTION 202 Ref 389 ( 1 point)
The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin:
A. is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
B. is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.
C. is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
D. is dependent on the OAT.
QUESTION 203 Ref 29715 ( 1 point)
For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
A. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required versus TAS
curve.
B. that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.
C. that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS curve.
D. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
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QUESTION 204 Ref 42044 ( 1 point)

An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B
aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route,
to reach a climb rate of at least:
A. 300 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.
B. 300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.
C. 500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power.
D. 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.
QUESTION 205 Ref 80628 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-06)
Given:
OAT: -15˚C
Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
RWY: 12R Wind: 080˚/12 kts
Take-off Mass: 4 000 lbs
Runway Surface: tarred and dry
What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
A. 1 250 ft.
B. 1 550 ft.
C. 1 750 ft.
D. 1 950 ft.
QUESTION 206 Ref 76501 ( 1 point)
If the aircraft mass increases, how does the (i) rate of climb, and (ii) rate of climb speed change?
A. i) decreases; ii) increases
B. i) increases; ii) decreases
C. i) decreases; ii) decreases
D. i) increases; ii) increases
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QUESTION 207 Ref 29298 ( 1 point)

An aircraft is flying at 1.3 VS1G in order to provide an adequate margin above the low speed buffet and
transonic speeds. If the mass increases from 285 000 kg to 320 000 kg and 1.3 VS1G is 180 kts CAS at 285 000
kg, then the new 1.3 VS1G will be:
A. 191 kts: drag will increase; NM/kg will increase; fuel flow will increase.
B. 201 kts: drag will increase; NM/kg will decrease; fuel flow will increase.
C. 201 kts: drag will remain the same; NM/kg will increase; fuel flow will decrease.
D. 191 kts: drag will increase; NM/kg will decrease; fuel flow will increase.
QUESTION 208 Ref 96991 ( 1 point)
If the aerodrome pressure altitude increases it will:
A. decrease the take-off run.
B. increase the take-off distance.
C. increase the take-off distance available.
D. decrease the take-off distance.
QUESTION 209 Ref 91331 ( 1 point)
When Take-off Mass is limited by VMBE, an increase in the uphill slope will:
A. have no effect.
B. require a decrease in the mass.
C. allow an increase in the mass.
D. decrease the TODR.
QUESTION 210 Ref 4859 ( 1 point)
In a twin engined jet aircraft with six passenger seats, and a Maximum Certified Take-off Mass of 5 650 kg.
What is the required enroute obstacle clearance, with one engine inoperative during drift down towards
the alternate airport?
A. 2 000 ft.
B. 1 500 ft.
C. 1 000 ft.
D. 50 ft or half the wingspan.
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QUESTION 211 Ref 5111 ( 1 point)

An aircraft is climbing at VX. If the speed is increased, maintaining the power setting,
A. the climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb increase.
B. the climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb decrease.
C. the climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb increase.
D. the climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb decrease.
QUESTION 212 Ref 56354 ( 1 point)
For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
A. 1.37 VS.
B. the maximum CL/CD² ratio.
C. 1.32 VMD.
D. the maximum CL/CD ratio.
QUESTION 213 Ref 64563 ( 1 point)
The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
A. minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
B. manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
C. manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
D. obstacle clearance in the approach area.
QUESTION 214 Ref 87298 ( 1 point)
How does the thrust of a fixed-pitch propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow conditions
at the propeller blades? The thrust:
A. has no change during take-off and climb.
B. increases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
C. varies with mass changes only.
D. decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.
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QUESTION 215 Ref 96811 ( 1 point)

What are the minimum and maximum values of V1?
A. VMCG, VS.
B. VMCA, V3.
C. VS, V2.
D. VMCG, VR.
QUESTION 216 Ref 10373 ( 1 point)
Aeroplane is in a glide (power off descent) at the speed for the L/D max. If the pitch angle is increased the
glide distance will:
A. increase.
B. decrease.
C. remain constant.
D. depend on the aircraft.
QUESTION 217 Ref 33277 ( 1 point)
The tangent from the origin to the thrust required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane,
determines the speed for:
A. minimum power.
B. maximum endurance.
C. maximum range.
D. maximum speed.
QUESTION 218 Ref 5594 ( 1 point)
What happens to the speeds, VX and VY, when lowering the aircraft's landing gear?
A. VX increase, VY decrease.
B. VX decrease, VY decrease.
C. VX increase, VY increase.
D. VX decrease, VY increase.
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QUESTION 219 Ref 73114 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-18)
What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1)
and a mass of 75 000 kg? Using the following:
g = 10m/s²
1 knot = 100 ft/min
sin(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight
A. -1 267 ft/min.
B. 0 ft/min.
C. + 3 293 ft/min.
D. +1 267 ft/min.
QUESTION 220 Ref 54543 ( 1 point)
For a given aircraft mass as altitude increases the effect on the margins to the low speed and high speed
buffet is to:
A. decrease the low speed margin and increase the high speed margin.
B. increase the low speed margin but decrease the high speed margin.
C. increase both margins.
D. decrease both margins.
QUESTION 221 Ref 84198 ( 1 point)
During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
A. increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.
B. remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.
C. increase, because the lift coefficient increases.
D. decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.
QUESTION 222 Ref 10681 ( 1 point)
Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of
descent? (still air, no turbulence)
A. Long range.
B. Max endurance.
C. Holding.
D. Maximum range.
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QUESTION 223 Ref 40249 ( 1 point)

An aircraft is climbing at a constant power setting and a speed of VX. lf the speed is reduced and the power
setting maintained the:
A. climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb will increase.
B. climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb will decrease.
C. climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb will increase.
D. climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb will decrease.
QUESTION 224 Ref 27409 ( 1 point)
On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased
A. by headwind.
B. by uphill slope.
C. by low outside air temperature.
D. by a lower Take-off Mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
QUESTION 225 Ref 61320 ( 1 point)
Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15˚ to flap 5˚ will normally result in:
A. a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
B. a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
C. a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
D. a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.
QUESTION 226 Ref 89113 ( 1 point)
VX and VY with take-off flaps will be:
A. same as that for clean configuration.
B. higher than that for clean configuration.
C. lower than that for clean configuration.
D. changed so that VX increases and VY decreases compared to clean configuration.
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QUESTION 227 Ref 93132 ( 1 point)

Balanced V1 is selected:
A. if it is equal to V2.
B. if the accelerate-stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
C. for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest-mass.
D. for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass.
QUESTION 228 Ref 17236 ( 1 point)
Which of the following is true according to EASA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not
performing a steep approach?
A. Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0.95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
B. Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0.7 x LDA
(Landing Distance Available).
C. Maximum use of clearway is 1.5 x runway.
D. Maximum Take-off Run is 0.5 x runway.
QUESTION 229 Ref 92101 ( 1 point)
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
A. the runway is wet.
B. the OAT is ISA + 10 °C.
C. anti skid is not usable.
D. it is dark.
QUESTION 230 Ref 33232 ( 1 point)
lf there is a tailwind:
A. the minimum drag speed is decreased by the same velocity as the wind.
B. the minimum drag speed is decreased.
C. the minimum drag speed is increased.
D. the minimum drag speed is not affected.
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QUESTION 231 Ref 94056 ( 1 point)

The absolute ceiling:
A. can be reached only with minimum steady flight speed.
B. is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb is zero.
C. is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
D. is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%.
QUESTION 232 Ref 44666 ( 1 point)
Two identical aircraft, one with a light load and one with a heavy load, are in a glide descent from the same
height in the same atmospheric conditions. The heavy aircraft will:
A. require a faster speed to achieve the same descent angle as the lighter aircraft.
B. descend at the same angle with the same time in the descent but at a faster speed.
C. descend steeper, at a faster speed with a greater rate of descent.
D. descend at a steeper angle at a faster speed at the same rate of descent.
QUESTION 233 Ref 1590 ( 1 point)
if the field-length-limited take-off mass and V1 were calculated using balanced field-lengths, the use of any
additional clearway in the calculation would cause:
A. an increased field-length-limited take-off mass and a reduced V1.
B. an increased obstacle-limited take-off mass with the same V1.
C. an increased field-length-limited take-off mass and an increased V1.
D. an increased obstacle-limited take-off mass and an increased V1.
QUESTION 234 Ref 533 ( 1 point)
A comm ercial Flight is planned with a turboj et aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landingd istance available
of 2400 m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within:
A. 1440 m
B. 1250 m
C. 1090 m
D. 1655 m
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QUESTION 235 Ref 82441 ( 1 point)

Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect VX and VY in terms of TAS?
A. VY remains constant and VX decreases.
B. VY remains constant and VX increases.
C. Both will increase.
D. Both remain constant.
QUESTION 236 Ref 59711 ( 1 point)
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
A. A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.
B. A headwind component increases the ground distance.
C. A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
D. A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
QUESTION 237 Ref 68030 ( 1 point)
The speed for maximum rate of climb:
A. may be higher or lower than the speed for best angle of climb depending on aircraft type.
B. will be the same as the speed for best angle of climb under any circumstances.
C. will be higher than the speed for best angle of climb.
D. lower than the speed for the best angle of climb.
QUESTION 238 Ref 58747 ( 1 point)
For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided:
A. by banking not more than 15˚ between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
B. by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
C. only by using scandard turns.
D. by standard turns - but only after passing 1 500 ft.
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QUESTION 239 Ref 40424 ( 1 point)

On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to
provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110 000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the
same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum
mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
A. 106 425 kg
B. 118 455 kg
C. 102 150kg
D. 121 310 kg
QUESTION 240 Ref 50658 ( 1 point)
Pressure altitude is:
A. the altimeter indication when QNH is set on the sub-scale.
B. the altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale.
C. the altitude above sea level.
D. the altimeter indication when 1013.25 hPa is set on the sub-scale.
QUESTION 241 Ref 7435 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-06)
Given:
OAT: 24˚C
Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft
RWY: 30R
Wind: 060˚/4 kts
Take-off Mass: 3 800 lbs
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the
conditions given?
A. 2 150 ft
B. 1 670 ft
C. 1 550 ft
D. 2 000 ft
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QUESTION 242 Ref 60525 ( 1 point)

Fill in the blanks in the following statement which relates to field length limit requirements: "The distance to
accelerate to___ at which point an engine fails, followed by a reaction time of ___ and the ensuing
deceleration to full stop must be completed within the___."
A. V1 ; 4 seconds; TODA
B. V2; 4 seconds; ASDA
C. V2; 2 seconds; TODA
D. V1; 2 seconds; ASDA
QUESTION 243 Ref 25490 ( 1 point)
The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane,
determines the speed for:
A. the minimum drag.
B. the maximum range.
C. the minimum power.
D. the long range cruise.
QUESTION 244 Ref 93858 ( 1 point)
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing
performance:
A. a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance.
B. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance.
C. an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance.
D. a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance.
QUESTION 245 Ref 96604 ( 1 point)
If the flap selection is changed from 5˚ to 15˚ then V2 will:
A. stay the same.
B. decrease.
C. increase.
D. none of the above.
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QUESTION 246 Ref 86457 ( 1 point)

The lowest point or the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for:
A. maximum specific range.
B. minimum drag.
C. minimum endurance.
D. minimum specific range.
QUESTION 247 Ref 55356 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-09)
Given:
OAT: 0˚C
Pressure Altitude: 18 000 ft
Gross Mass: 3 750 lbs
Mixture: leaned to 25˚F rich of peak EGT
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.
What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given?
A. 500 ft/min.
B. 870 ft/min.
C. 1 200 ft/min.
D. 1 050 ft/min.
QUESTION 248 Ref 25872 ( 1 point)
The maximum rate of climb mat can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
A. 125 ft/min.
B. 0 ft/min.
C. 500 ft/min.
D. 100 ft/min.
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QUESTION 249 Ref 30857 ( 1 point)

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The maximum clearway that can be used is limited to 50% of the TORA making the TODA 150% of the TORA.
B. The TORA is 50% of the TODA as a declared distance making the TORA 1.5 times the TODA.
C. The TODA is always longer than the TORA.
D. If any clearway is present it must be reduced to no greater distance than the stopway.
QUESTION 250 Ref 88608 ( 1 point)
The engine failure take-off run is:
A. 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a
failure of the critical engine at V1.
B. 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which
VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines
operative.
C. the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between
the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
D. the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached
and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical
engine at V1.
QUESTION 251 Ref 22405 ( 1 point)
What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant lAS is
maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
A. The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.
B. The drag increases considerably.
C. The drag decreases.
D. The drag remains almost constant.
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QUESTION 252 Ref 28694 ( 1 point)

During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances
measured are: 3 050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1 2 555 m with all engines operating
and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
A. 2 938 m
B. 3 050 m
C. 3 513 m
D. 2 555 m
QUESTION 253 Ref 85054 ( 1 point)
If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing
distance must be increased by:
A. 0.2
B. 0.05
C. 0.1
D. 0.15
QUESTION 254 Ref 93454 ( 1 point)
In straight and level flight the lift is opposed by the:
A. drag and weight.
B. weight.
C. thrust.
D. drag.
QUESTION 255 Ref 77270 ( 1 point)
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is greatest at:
A. VA (design manoeuvring speed).
B. VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration).
C. VMO (maximum operating limit speed).
D. VSO (lowest achievable speed in a given configuration).
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QUESTION 256 Ref 61560 ( 1 point)

The following parameters positively affect the take-off ground run:
1) decreasing take-off mass
2) increasing take-off mass
3) increasing density
4) decreasing density
5) increasing flap setting
6) decreasing flap setting
7) increasing pressure altitude
8) decreasing pressure altitude
A. 2, 3, 6, 7
B. 1, 4, 6, 8
C. 2, 4, 5, 7
D. 1, 3, 5, 8
QUESTION 257 Ref 2542 ( 1 point)
Which factors might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA?
1) large flap angles
2) small flap angles
3) high air pressure
4) low air pressure
5) high aircraft weights
6) low aircraft weights
A. 2, 3, 5
B. 2, 4, 6
C. 1, 3, 6
D. 1, 3, 5
QUESTION 258 Ref 21295 ( 1 point)
For a turboprop powered aeroplane (performance class A on commercial flight), a 2200 m long runway at
the destination aerodrome is expected to be "wet". It must be ensured that the landing mass of the
aeroplane allows a full stop landing on a dry runway within:
A. 1771 m
B. 1339 m
C. 1540 m
D. 1147 m
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QUESTION 259 Ref 50477 ( 1 point)

What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope:
A. decreases the take-off speed V1.
B. decreases the TAS for take-off.
C. increases the lAS for take-off.
D. has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
QUESTION 260 Ref 41908 ( 1 point)
In addition to other requirements, the approach climb requirement is based on:
A. all engines, flaps APPROACH and gear UP.
B. one engine out, flaps APPROACH and gear UP.
C. one engine out, flaps LAND and gear UP.
D. one engine out, flaps APPROACH and gear DOWN.
QUESTION 261 Ref 89343 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-02)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum
Allowable Take-off Mass. Given:
OAT: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
Headwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and dry
Factored runway length: 2 000 ft
Obstacle height: 50 ft
A. 2 900 lbs
B. 3 650 lbs
C. 3 240 lbs
D. 3 000 lbs
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QUESTION 262 Ref 34582 ( 1 point)

What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
A. The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
B. The lift coefficient increases.
C. The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
D. lAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
QUESTION 263 Ref 11520 ( 1 point)
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
A. it is dark.
B. the runway is contaminated.
C. the runway is wet.
D. obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
QUESTION 264 Ref 6512 ( 1 point)
Provided all other parameters stay constant, which of the following alternatives will decrease the take-off
ground run?
A. Decreased Take-off Mass, increased density, increased flap setting.
B. Decreased Take-off Mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature.
C. Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased Take-off Mass.
D. Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting.
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QUESTION 265 Ref 30955 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-02)
An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in the diagram. Given the
following conditions:
Pressure altitude: 1 500 ft
Outside temperature: 18˚C
Wind component: 4 kts tail
Take-off mass: 2 800 lbs
Runway Surface: Hard, Dry
Runway Slope: 0%
The take-off distance will be:
A. 1 500 ft
B. 2 000 ft
C. 1 350 ft
D. 1 750 ft
QUESTION 266 Ref 55730 ( 1 point)
What factors would cause V2 to be limited by VMCA?
A. Flaps at high settings.
B. With high pressure.
C. With low temperature.
D. Combination of the above.
QUESTION 267 Ref 77705 ( 1 point)
The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. The effect an increased headwind
component on the value of this limit is:
A. None.
B. The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off flight path.
C. The climb limited Take-off Mass would increase.
D. The climb limited Take-off Mass would decrease.
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QUESTION 268 Ref 35006 ( 1 point)

During a climb with all piston engines operating, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is
called:
A. absolute ceiling.
B. service ceiling.
C. thrust ceiling.
D. maximum transfer ceiling.
QUESTION 269 Ref 68237 ( 1 point)
The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is:
A. larger.
B. smaller.
C. equal.
D. depends on type of aircraft.
QUESTION 270 Ref 97782 ( 1 point)
What is the effect of a headwind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (lAS) and
the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
A. Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
B. Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
C. Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
D. Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.
QUESTION 271 Ref 39478 ( 1 point)
In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
A. In the take-off run available.
B. In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
C. In the all-engine take-off distance.
D. In the accelerate stop distance available.
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QUESTION 272 Ref 59011 ( 1 point)

With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
A. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance.
B. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag.
C. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio.
D. lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance.
QUESTION 273 Ref 41499 ( 1 point)
The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is
reached:
A. at the practical ceiling.
B. at the optimum cruise altitude.
C. at the service ceiling.
D. at the lowest possible altitude.
QUESTION 274 Ref 42122 ( 1 point)
You are flying a transport jet aeroplane at minimum drag speed (VMD) of 230 kts. What would be the speed
for maximum range?
A. 230 kts
B. 250 kts
C. 304 kts
D. 315 kts
QUESTION 275 Ref 13975 ( 1 point)
In a steady climb at a constant speed:
A. the power available must equal the power required.
B. the power available must exceed the power required.
C. the power available must be less than the power required.
D. the power required must be greater than the power available.
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QUESTION 276 Ref 19992 ( 1 point)

What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF?
A. 1.05 VSO
B. 1.30 VSO
C. 1.10 VSO
D. VMCA x 1.2
QUESTION 277 Ref 59395 ( 1 point)
Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
A. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
B. Airport elevation, runway slope, scandard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
C. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
D. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
QUESTION 278 Ref 22535 ( 1 point)
If a turn is commenced during the take-off flight path, the load factor ___, the induced drag ___, and the
climb gradient ___ .
A. increases; decreases; decreases
B. decreases; increases; increases
C. increases; increases; decreases
D. decreases; decreases; increases
QUESTION 279 Ref 57660 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-09)
Given:
OAT: -20˚C
Pressure Altitude: 14 000 ft
Gross Mass: 4 000 lbs
Mixture: full rich Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of
climb for the conditions given?
A. 1 300 ft/min.
B. 170 ft/min.
C. 970 ft/min.
D. 1 550 ft/min..
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QUESTION 280 Ref 48260 ( 1 point)

A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
A. increases the field length limited Take-off Mass.
B. decreases the brake energy limited Take-off Mass.
C. increases the climb limited Take-off Mass.
D. decreases the take-off distance.
QUESTION 281 Ref 69390 ( 1 point)
The effect of increasing the flap setting, from zero to the recommended take-off setting, on the length of
the Take-off Distance Required (TODR) and the Field-Length-Limited Take-off mass (TOM) is:
A. Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
B. Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
C. Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
D. Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
QUESTION 282 Ref 51845 ( 1 point)
A constant headwind component:
A. increases the best rate of climb.
B. decreases the angle of climb.
C. increases the maximum endurance.
D. increases the angle of flight path during climb.
QUESTION 283 Ref 27769 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-04)
Using the climb perfonmance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the
gradient of climb in the following conditions, given:
OAT at take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 3 000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3 450 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
A. 1 310 ft/min and 11.3%.
B. 1 170 ft/min and 9.3%.
C. 1 120 ft/min and 10.5%.
D. 1 030 ft/min and 8.4%.
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QUESTION 284 Ref 45187 ( 1 point)

The force exactly opposing and balancing lift in a glide descent is:
A. thrust x sin(angle of descent)
B. thrust x cos(angle of descent)
C. weight x sin(angle of descent)
D. weight x cos(angle of descent)
QUESTION 285 Ref 68565 ( 1 point)
Why is there a requirement for an approach climb gradient?
A. So that an aircraft falling below the glide path will be able to re-intercept it.
B. Adequate performance for a go-around in the event of an engine failure.
C. So that the aircraft will not stall when full flap is selected.
D. To maintain minimum atltitude on the approach.
QUESTION 286 Ref 80463 ( 1 point)
VR cannot be lower than:
A. 1.2 VS for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
B. 105% of V1 and VMCA.
C. V1 and 105% of VMCA.
D. 1.15 VS for turbo-prop with three or more engines.
QUESTION 287 Ref 36238 ( 1 point)
When a jet aircraft descends at the maximum range speed:
A. lAS increases.
B. CAS increases.
C. Mach number decreases.
D. Mach number Increases.
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QUESTION 288 Ref 47715 ( 1 point)

The point where Drag coefficient / Lift coefficient is a minimum is:
A. the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
B. the lowest point of the drag curve.
C. at stalling speed (Vs).
D. on the "back side" of the drag curve.
QUESTION 289 Ref 31827 ( 1 point)
The climb limited Take-off Mass can be increased by:
A. selecting a lower V1.
B. selecting a lower V2.
C. selecting a lower VR.
D. a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
QUESTION 290 Ref 40039 ( 1 point)
Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
A. The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings.
B. The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.
C. The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.
D. The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various weights and altitudes.
QUESTION 291 Ref 45932 ( 1 point)
When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance/climb
performance:
A. decreases / decreases.
B. increases / increases.
C. remains constant / remains constant.
D. decreases I remains constant.
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QUESTION 292 Ref 98788 ( 1 point)

Flying the "backside of thrust curve" means:
A. the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
B. a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
C. a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
D. a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.
QUESTION 293 Ref 67110 ( 1 point)
If a TOD of 800 m is calculated at sea level, on a level, dry runway, with standard conditions and with no
wind, what would the TOD be for the conditions listed below?
Airfield elevation: 2 000 ft
QNH: 1013,25 mb
Temperature: 21 ˚C
Wind: ±5 kts tailwind
Dry runway with a 2% up slope
(Assuming: ±20 m per 1 000 ft elevation; +10 m per 1 kts of reported tailwind; ±5 m per 1 ˚C ISA deviation
and ±5% / 1% slope)
A. 836 m
B. 940 m
C. 1 034 m
D. 1 095 m
QUESTION 294 Ref 2443 ( 1 point)
During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
A. decreases the climb time.
B. increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
C. increases the climb time.
D. decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
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QUESTION 295 Ref 50269 ( 1 point)

Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
A. is always equal to VEF(Engine Failure speed).
B. is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or
discontinue the take-off.
C. is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a
decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
D. is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
QUESTION 296 Ref 86529 ( 1 point)
Density altitude is:
A. The height above mean sea level corrected for the prevailing atmospheric density.
B. The pressure altitude corrected for the prevailing atmospheric density.
C. The height above mean sea level corrected for the ISA atmospheric density.
D. The pressure altitude corrected for ISA atmospheric density.
QUESTION 297 Ref 36944 ( 1 point)
Which 3 speeds are effectively the same for a jet aircraft?
A. ROC, Range, minimum Drag.
B. Range, Best angle of climb, minimum Drag.
C. Best angle of climb, minimum Drag, Endurance.
D. Best angle of climb, Range, Endurance.
QUESTION 298 Ref 35649 ( 1 point)
To maintain climb airspeed following an increase in temperature the rate of climb is:
A. reduced
B. increased
C. zero
D. unaffected
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QUESTION 299 Ref 75618 ( 1 point)

At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine:
A. increases with decreasing OAT.
B. increases slightly with increasing airspeed.
C. is independent of the airspeed.
D. decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.
QUESTION 300 Ref 64403 ( 1 point)
With respect to en route diversions (using drift down graph), if you believe that you will not clear an
obstacle, you must:
A. drift down to clearance height and then start to jettison fuel.
B. jettison fuel from the beginning of the drift down.
C. assess remaining fuel requirements, then jettison fuel as soon as possible.
D. fly slightly faster.
QUESTION 301 Ref 14998 ( 1 point)
V1 has to be:
A. higher than than VR.
B. equal to or higher than V2.
C. equal to or higher than VMCG.
D. equal to or higher than VMCA.
QUESTION 302 Ref 63359 ( 1 point)
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
A. windshear is reported on the take-off path.
B. It is dark.
C. the runway is dry.
D. the runway is wet.
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QUESTION 303 Ref 85883 ( 1 point)

With contamination of the aircraft's wings and fuselage:
A. the TODR is unaffected.
B. ASDR will decrease.
C. stalling speed is unaffected.
D. the lift off speed will be increased.
QUESTION 304 Ref 25920 ( 1 point)
When flying above the optimum long range cruise speed, what cost index would correspond to this speed?
A. Cost index does not affect speed.
B. Increased cost index = increased speed.
C. Decreased cost index = increased speed.
D. It all depends on how much the speed is changed by.
QUESTION 305 Ref 59695 ( 1 point)
If the actual Landing Mass is higher than planned:
A. the landing distance will be longer.
B. the landing distance will be unaffected.
C. the approach path will be steeper.
D. the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.
QUESTION 306 Ref 52083 ( 1 point)
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:
A. below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be
continued.
B. at which the take-off must be rejected.
C. below which the take-off must be continued.
D. at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.
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QUESTION 307 Ref 72727 ( 1 point)

The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
A. take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
B. lift off speed.
C. take-off decision speed.
D. critical engine failure speed.
QUESTION 308 Ref 54127 ( 1 point)
Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct?
A. VS, Maximum range speed, VX.
B. Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed.
C. VS, VX, Maximum range speed.
D. Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, VX.
QUESTION 309 Ref 88864 ( 1 point)
A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust
and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. ln the same flying
conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg
per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:
A. 14 kg/NM.
B. 11.7 kg/NM.
C. 10.7 kg/NM.
D. 8.17 kg/NM.
QUESTION 310 Ref 83722 ( 1 point)
The diminishment to be applied to the gross gradient (take-off climb) to obtain the net gradient for a twin-
engined Class A aeroplane is:
A. 0.01
B. 0.009
C. 0.008
D. 0.007
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QUESTION 311 Ref 50387 ( 1 point)

Assume glide with zero thrust and zero wind: Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus
forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses?
A. Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier
aeroplane will be larger.
B. No difference.
C. Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
D. Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
QUESTION 312 Ref 22693 ( 1 point)
The optimum altitude for a turbojet is:
A. when the stall speed equals VP MIN.
B. when the TAS at the buffet boundary is greatest.
C. where fuel consumption is highest.
D. when specific range is a maximum.
QUESTION 313 Ref 82380 ( 1 point)
An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept
constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent ___, glide angle ___, CL/CD ratio___.
A. increases; constant; increases
B. decreases; constant; decreases
C. increases; increases; constant
D. increases; increases; decreases
QUESTION 314 Ref 6767 ( 1 point)
Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
A. A reducion of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties.
B. The use of a reduced VR is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway.
C. In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
D. Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.
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QUESTION 315 Ref 42515 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane detenmine the landing distance from a
height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: 0˚C
Pressure altitude: 1 000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3 500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and dry
A. 1 650 feet.
B. 1 480 feet.
C. 1 150 feet.
D. 2 420 feet.
QUESTION 316 Ref 90152 ( 1 point)
Take-off performance daca, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10˚
selected:
Runway limit: 5270 kg
Obstacle limit: 4630 kg
Estimated Take-off Mass: 5000 kg
Considering a take-off with flaps at:
A. 20˚, both limitations are increased.
B. 5˚, both limitations are increased.
C. 20˚, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases.
D. 5˚, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases.
QUESTION 317 Ref 7650 ( 1 point)
If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
A. increase.
B. not be affected.
C. decrease.
D. increase in the flaps extended case.
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QUESTION 318 Ref 85407 ( 1 point)

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the approach to landing climb requirements?
A. These requirements are based on the following configuration: flaps in landing position and landing gear
retracted.
B. These requirements are more easily accomplished with two-engine aeroplane than with a four-engine
aeroplane.
C. These requirements can not be accomplished with masses higher than maximum approved Landing Masses.
D. Fuel dumping may be necessary in emergency situation.
QUESTION 319 Ref 42039 ( 1 point)
The region of speed instability is:
A. the region above the thrust available and drag curve intersection.
B. the region in which manual control is not possible.
C. at speeds below the low-speed buffet.
D. the same as the region of reversed command.
QUESTION 320 Ref 25217 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-06)
Given:
OAT: 24˚C
Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft
RWY: 30R
Wind: 060˚/4 kts
Take-off Mass: 3 800 lbs
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the
conditions given?
A. 2 150 ft
B. 2 000 ft
C. 1 780 ft
D. 1 670 ft
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QUESTION 321 Ref 41686 ( 1 point)

The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800 m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Using
the following corrections: ± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation - 5 m / kts headwind + 10 m / kts tailwind ± 15 m /
% runway slope ± 5 m / ˚C deviation from standard temperature The take-off distance from an airport at 2
000 ft elevation, temperature 21 ˚C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 2% up slope, 5 kts tailwind is:
A. 970 m
B. 890 m
C. 870 m
D. 810 m
QUESTION 322 Ref 69294 ( 1 point)
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?
A. The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
B. The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
C. The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
D. The climb limited Take-off Mass is the highest.
QUESTION 323 Ref 1741 ( 1 point)
EASA AIR OPS states that propeller driven aircraft witrh a maximum approved passenger seating
configuration of ___ or less and a maximum Take-off Mass of___ or less must comply with the requirements
of Performance Class B.
A. 18; 5 700 kg
B. 18; 12 500 kg
C. 9; 5 700 kg
D. 9; 12 500 kg
QUESTION 324 Ref 2102 ( 1 point)
The speed VSR is defined as
A. design stress speed.
B. safe rotation speed for take-off.
C. as reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed.
D. speed tor best specific range.
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QUESTION 325 Ref 26424 ( 1 point)

Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for
small climb angles?
A. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag) ÷Weight) x 100
B. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag) ÷ Lift) x 100
C. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass) ÷ Lift) x 100
D. Climb Gradient = (Lift ÷ Weight) x 100
QUESTION 326 Ref 83339 ( 1 point)
With an obstacle which is 160 m above the airfield elevation and 5000 m away from the end of the take-off
distance. (Screen height 50 ft) What would the obstacle clearance be with a gradient of 5%?
A. 105 m
B. 90 m
C. 250 m
D. 265 m
QUESTION 327 Ref 18934 ( 1 point)
Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-
slope:
A. increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).
B. reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
C. increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
D. reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
QUESTION 328 Ref 18647 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
B. VR should not be higher than V1.
C. VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
D. VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
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QUESTION 329 Ref 7059 ( 1 point)

During a take-off from a runway contaminated by slush the drag caused by the slush will:
A. increase then decrease.
B. increase then remain constant.
C. increase with increasing speed.
D. increase up to VP then increase at a greater rate.
QUESTION 330 Ref 88217 ( 1 point)
The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is
defined by the following parameters:
1) Gear up.
2) Gear down.
3) Wing flaps retracted.
4) Wing flaps in take-off position.
5) N engines at the take-off thrust.
6) (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust.
7) Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kts.
8) Speed over the path equal to 1.3 Vs.
9) Speed over the path equal to V2.
10) At a height of 35 ft above the runway.
The correct statements are:
A. 1, 5, 8, 10
B. 1, 4, 6, 9
C. 2, 3, 6, 9
D. 1, 4, 5, 10
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QUESTION 331 Ref 65532 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-15)
Given:
Airport Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
Runway condition: dry
Field length: 2 100 m
Wind: 30 kts head
Flaps: 15°
Manual spoilers and Anti·skid: operative Using the above data, determine the Field Length Limiting Landing
Mass (FLLLM).
A. 53 200 kg
B. 55 000 kg
C. 57 200 kg
D. 65 000 kg
QUESTION 332 Ref 505313 ( 1 point)
If you compare the following speeds with V1, which of them can be exceeded by V1?
A. VLOF
B. VMBE
C. VMU
D. maximum tyre speed
QUESTION 333 Ref 32727 ( 1 point)
The requirements of the take-off net flight path for a Class A aeroplane assume:
A. the failure of any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VEF.
B. the failure of any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VR.
C. the failure of the critical engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VEF.
D. the failure of two engines of a three-engined or four-engined aeroplane at VEF.
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QUESTION 334 Ref 99232 ( 1 point)

The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
A. decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
B. narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude.
C. is only limiting at low altitudes.
D. increases with increasing mass.
QUESTION 335 Ref 8888 ( 1 point)
In the drift down for an aeroplane in Performance Class B the net gradient of descent is assumed to be gross
gradient of descent ___ by ___ .
A. increased; 0.77%
B. decreased; 0.77%
C. increased; 0.5%
D. decreased; 0.5%
QUESTION 336 Ref 22364 ( 1 point)
Take-off on a runway with standing water, with a depth of 0.5 cm. Compared to a dry runway, field length
limited mass will:
A. increase, with a reduced V1.
B. remain the same, with a reduced V1.
C. decrease, with an increased V1.
D. decrease, with a decreased V1.
QUESTION 337 Ref 32716 ( 1 point)
An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot decreases the pitch attitude the glide
distance:
A. decreases.
B. increases.
C. remains the same.
D. may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.
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QUESTION 338 Ref 98721 ( 1 point)

When determining the Maximum Landing Mass of a turbojet powered aeroplane during the planningm
phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway).
A. 115 / 100
B. 0.6
C. 60 / 115
D. 1.67
QUESTION 339 Ref 96587 ( 1 point)
The speed VS is defined as:
A. speed for best specific range.
B. safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.
C. design stress speed.
D. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.
QUESTION 340 Ref 11327 ( 1 point)
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not
be less than:
A. 1.3 VS
B. 1.15 VS
C. 1.15 VS1
D. 1.13 VSR
QUESTION 341 Ref 39982 ( 1 point)
What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition?
A. A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths.
B. A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.
C. For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length.
D. A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event ofan engine failure.
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QUESTION 342 Ref 66251 ( 1 point)

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt?
(Note: VP = aquaplaning speed)
A. Positive touch down, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible.
B. Smoothest possible touch down, full reverse and only brakes below VP.
C. Positive touch down full reverse and only brakes below VP.
D. Normal landing, full reverse and brakes at VP.
QUESTION 343 Ref 13452 ( 1 point)
How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps, 10°?
A. V2 has the same value in both cases.
B. V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
C. V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.
D. V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
QUESTION 344 Ref 8664 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
Planning a flight in single engine aeroplane. With regard to the landing chart determine the landing distance
required at the destination aerodrome. Given: OAT: 0˚C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3 500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and wet
Runway Slope: 1% down-slope
A. 1 100 ft
B. 1 700 ft
C. 2 560 ft
D. 2 950 ft
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QUESTION 345 Ref 72658 ( 1 point)

Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas:
A. VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
B. VY and VX are decreased.
C. VY and VX are increased.
D. VX is increased and VY is decreased.
QUESTION 346 Ref 65818 ( 1 point)
An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the
calculation of the maximum allowed Take-off Mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
A. 4000 metres.
B. 6000 metres.
C. 4500 metres.
D. 5000 metres.
QUESTION 347 Ref 85523 ( 1 point)
The speed for maximum endurance:
A. is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.
B. can either be lower or higher than the speed for maximum specific range.
C. is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.
D. is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
QUESTION 348 Ref 99472 ( 1 point)
In accordance with EASA CS 25 the take-off safety speed V2 MIN for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes
with more than three engines may not be less than:
A. 1.2 VSR
B. 1.08 VSR
C. 1.13 VSR
D. VSR
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QUESTION 349 Ref 56539 ( 1 point)

The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:
A. 2 engined aeroplane.
B. the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.
C. the failure of the critical engine on an multi-engine aeroplane.
D. the failure of two engines on a mutti-engined aeroplane.
QUESTION 350 Ref 99732 ( 1 point)
The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is:
A. High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway.
B. Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
C. High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
D. Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.
QUESTION 351 Ref 46116 ( 1 point)
What will be the effect on an aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
A. It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
B. It will increase the take-off distance required.
C. It will increase the take-off ground run.
D. It will decrease the take-off distance required.
QUESTION 352 Ref 96916 ( 1 point)
At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft, what minimum climb gradient do you use?
A. 300 ft min climb speed with one engine out.
B. 500 ft min climb speed with one engine out.
C. 300 ft min climb speed with all engines operating.
D. 500 ft min climb speed with all engines operating.
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QUESTION 353 Ref 40256 ( 1 point)

The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM:
A. is inversely proportional to the airspeed.
B. increases in proportion to the airspeed.
C. does not change with changing altitude.
D. is independent of the airspeed.
QUESTION 354 Ref 53691 ( 1 point)
Under which conditions would VMC be lowest?
A. High temperatures, high pressure altitudes, high humidity.
B. Low temperatures, high pressure altitudes, low humidity.
C. High temperatures, low pressure altitudes, high humidity.
D. Low temperatures, low pressure altitudes, low humidity.
QUESTION 355 Ref 97014 ( 1 point)
The best EAS / Drag ratio is approximately:
A. 1.3 VMD.
B. 1.32 VMD.
C. 1.6 VMD.
D. 1.8 VMD.
QUESTION 356 Ref 82568 ( 1 point)
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
A. a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
B. a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
C. an lAS which is 1% higher than the lAS for maximum specific range.
D. a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher cruise speed.
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QUESTION 357 Ref 36432 ( 1 point)

During take-off the third segment begins:
A. when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
B. when flap retraction is completed.
C. when acceleration to flap retraction speed (final take-off speed - VFTO) is started.
D. when landing gear is fully retracted.
QUESTION 358 Ref 65135 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-02)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take-off
distance to a height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: 30˚C
Pressure Altitude: 1 000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3 450 lbs
Tailwind component: 2.5 kts
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and dry
A. 2 470 feet.
B. 2 800 feet.
C. 1 440 feet.
D. 2 200 teet.
QUESTION 359 Ref 46494 ( 1 point)
For j et aeroplanes which ofthe following statements is correct?
A. The required landing field length is the distance from 35 tt to the full stop point.
B. When deter mining the maximum allowable Landing Mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is
taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
C. In any case runway slope is one ofthe factors taken into account when determining the required landing field
length.
D. An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
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QUESTION 360 Ref 28877 ( 1 point)

In relation to runway strength, the ACN:
A. may not exceed 90% of the PCN.
B. may exceed the PCN by up to 10%.
C. may never exceed the PCN.
D. may exceed the PCN by a factor of 2.
QUESTION 361 Ref 78593 ( 1 point)
In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
A. the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.
B. a lower speed requires a higher thrust.
C. a higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag, requires a higher thrust.
D. the aeroplane cannot be controlled manually.
QUESTION 362 Ref 60553 ( 1 point)
Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
A. decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.
B. improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
C. improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
D. decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
QUESTION 363 Ref 68373 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-27)
Given:
Aircraft mass: 52 000 kg
Temperature: ISA +20˚
Engine Anti-Ice: ON
Air Conditioning (AC): OFF
Using the above data, determine the net level off altitude.
A. 14 800 ft
B. 15 400 ft
C. 17 000 ft
D. 17 400 ft
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QUESTION 364 Ref 29293 ( 1 point)

How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (assume ISA conditions)?
A. TAS is not related to Mach Number.
B. TAS increases.
C. TAS is constant.
D. TAS decreases.
QUESTION 365 Ref 6171 ( 1 point)
VMCG is determined during flight testing using aerodynamic controls:
A. nosewheel steering and no crosswind.
B. no nosewheel steering and no crosswind.
C. no nosewheel steering and 7 kts of adverse crosswind.
D. nosewheel steering and 7 kts of adverse crosswind.
QUESTION 366 Ref 64856 ( 1 point)
A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 1 00 kts TAS (no wind), this climb gradient
corresponds to a rate of climb (ROC) of approximately:
A. 330 ft/min.
B. 3 300 ft/min.
C. 3.30 m/s.
D. 33.0 m/s.
QUESTION 367 Ref 15144 ( 1 point)
Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude?
A. When the altimeter has no position error.
B. At sea level when the temperature is 0˚C.
C. At standard temperature.
D. When the altimeter setting is 1 013,2 hPa.
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QUESTION 368 Ref 93473 ( 1 point)

Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. It will clear a
160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally). Situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an
obstacle clearance margin of:
A. 90 m.
B. 105 m.
C. 75 m.
D. It will not clear the obstacle.
QUESTION 369 Ref 38689 ( 1 point)
For a multi engined aircraft not certified under EASA CS 25 and in Performance Class B, service ceiling is
defined as:
A. the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 100 ft per minute for a
piston engine and 500 ft per minute for a jet aircraft.
B. the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 0 ft per minute.
C. the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 100 ft per minute.
D. the altitude which at maximum power the rate of climb of an aircraft has fallen to 500 ft per minute.
QUESTION 370 Ref 21679 ( 1 point)
Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at "long range speed"?
A. It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.
B. In order to achieve speed stability.
C. The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.
D. In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.
QUESTION 371 Ref 29562 ( 1 point)
Given a constant cruising altitude and constant angle of attack (assuming no compressibility effects), a
higher gross mass:
A. requires increased thrust and increased corresponding speeds.
B. no increase in thrust is required, but increases corresponding speeds.
C. requires increased thrust and decreased corresponding speeds.
D. leads to increased coefficient of drag.
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QUESTION 372 Ref 41757 ( 1 point)

The effects of an increased ambient air temperature beyond the flat rating cut-off temperature of the
engines on (i) the field-length-limited take-off mass and (ii) the climb-limited take-off mass are:
A. i) increase; ii) increase
B. i) increase; ii) decrease
C. i) decrease; ii) increase
D. i) decrease; ii) decrease
QUESTION 373 Ref 96533 ( 1 point)
Maximum Tire Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this
limitation?
A. CAS
B. lAS
C. TAS
D. Ground speed
QUESTION 374 Ref 12379 ( 1 point)
If the TAS is 100 kts on the glide slope of 3˚, what is the rate of descent?
A. 500 ft/min.
B. 1 000 ft/min.
C. 300 ft/min.
D. 250 ft/min.
QUESTION 375 Ref 69210 ( 1 point)
At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine:
A. increase with increasing altitude.
B. are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).
C. increase in inverse proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.
D. decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.
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QUESTION 376 Ref 66050 ( 1 point)

On the Power versus TAS graph for level flight, the point at which a tangent from the origin touches the
power required curve:
A. is the maximum drag speed.
B. is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
C. is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.
D. is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
QUESTION 377 Ref 73156 ( 1 point)
"Drift down" is the procedure to be applied:
A. after cabin depressurization.
B. after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.
C. to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
D. to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available.
QUESTION 378 Ref 672 ( 1 point)
The "maximum tire speed" limits:
A. VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
B. V1 in kts TAS.
C. VLOF in terms of ground speed.
D. V1 in kts ground speed.
QUESTION 379 Ref 76988 ( 1 point)
In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is
A. the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
B. based on pressure altitudes.
C. the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the
obstacle domain.
D. the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.
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QUESTION 380 Ref 94076 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-07)
Given:
OAT: 20˚C
Pressure Altitude: 2 000 ft
RWY: 07R Wind: 120˚/15 kts
Take-off Mass: 4 500 lbs
Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the chart.
What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
A. 3 450 ft
B. 3 650 ft
C. 3 250 ft
D. 3 800 ft
QUESTION 381 Ref 76423 ( 1 point)
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires:
A. no change.
B. an increase in VREF.
C. a steeper approach path.
D. an increase in approach speed.
QUESTION 382 Ref 5938 ( 1 point)
With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements concerning Minimum
Drag is correct?
A. it is a function of the density altitude.
B. it is a function of the pressure altitude.
C. it is proportional to the aircraft mass.
D. it is independant of the aircraft mass.
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QUESTION 383 Ref 69135 ( 1 point)

Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?
A. The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
B. The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.
C. When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.
D. An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly
the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.
QUESTION 384 Ref 3372 ( 1 point)
The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:
A. the maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
B. the thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
C. the thrust is equal to minimum drag.
D. the thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
QUESTION 385 Ref 78961 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a
height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: ISA
Pressure altitude: 1 000 ft
Aeroptane mass: 3 500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and dry
A. 1 700 feet.
B. 1 500 feet.
C. 1 150 feet.
D. 920 feet.
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QUESTION 386 Ref 75446 ( 1 point)

Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight?
A. The resultant from lift and drag.
B. The thrust.
C. The drag.
D. The lift.
QUESTION 387 Ref 69252 ( 1 point)
Maximum abandonment speed is the maximum speed from which the aircraft can:
A. safely continue or abandon take-off in the event of an engine Failure.
B. safely abandon the take-off in the event of an engine failure or with all engines operating.
C. safely abandon take-off in the event of an engine failure.
D. safely abandon take-off with all engines operating.
QUESTION 388 Ref 69702 ( 1 point)
Which statement regarding the relationship between Traffic Load and range is correct?
A. The Traffic Load can be limited by the desired range.
B. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.
C. The Maximum Landing Mass is basically equal to the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass.
D. The maximum Traffic Load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.
QUESTION 389 Ref 81294 ( 1 point)
A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises
a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
A. unchanged
B. substantially decreased
C. increased
D. reduced
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QUESTION 390 Ref 98131 ( 1 point)

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25˚ and 35˚. If a pilot chooses 25˚ instead of 35˚. The
aircraft will have:
A. an increased landing distance and better go-around performance.
B. a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance.
C. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance.
D. a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance.
QUESTION 391 Ref 10604 ( 1 point)
An airport has a 2 600 metres long runway, and a 1 000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the
calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
A. 3100 m
B. 3600 m
C. 3900 m
D. 4600 m
QUESTION 392 Ref 44465 ( 1 point)
The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum:
A. is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.
B. is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
C. is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
D. is the same as the minimum drag speed.
QUESTION 393 Ref 81020 ( 1 point)
An aircraft with a mass of 110 000 kg is capable of maintaining a climb gradient of 2.6%. With all the
atmospheric variables remaining the same, with what mass would it be able to achieve a gradient of 2.4?
A. 119 167 kg
B. 101 530 kg
C. 110 000kg
D. 121 167kg
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QUESTION 394 Ref 80691 ( 1 point)

How does the power required curve move with an increase in altitude when plotted on the chart against
TAS?
A. Straight up.
B. Straight down.
C. Up and to the right.
D. Straight across to the right.
QUESTION 395 Ref 15107 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The TOD required with engine failure on a wet runway is to a screen height of 35 ft.
B. The TOD required with engine failure on a wet runway includes half of the airborne distance.
C. The ASD required only considers an engine failure case.
D. The ASD required must consider an aborted take-off for both: engine failure and all engine cases.
QUESTION 396 Ref 7527 ( 1 point)
Climbing in the troposphere at a constant TAS:
A. Mach number increases.
B. Mach number decreases.
C. CAS increases.
D. lAS increases.
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QUESTION 397 Ref 61441 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-06)
Given:
OAT: 24˚C
Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft
RWY: 12L Wind: 080˚/12 kts
Take-off Mass: 3 800 lbs
Runway Surface: Wet Grass - firm soil
Runway Slope: 2% downslope
What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway are available.
A. 1 400 ft
B. 1 750 ft
C. 2 550 ft
D. 2 850 ft
QUESTION 398 Ref 59754 ( 1 point)
Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
A. Reduced thrust can be used when the actual Take·off Mass is less than the field length limited Take-off Mass.
B. Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
C. Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
D. In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
QUESTION 399 Ref 73445 ( 1 point)
Putting in 16500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m³, and writing 16500 kg of fuel on the load sheet will
result in:
A. TOD increasing and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast.
B. TOD and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast.
C. TOD and ASD remaining constant, if the calculated speeds are used.
D. TOD and ASD increasing, if the calculated speeds are used.
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QUESTION 400 Ref 22525 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-04)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach
a height of 2 000 ft above the reference zero in the following conditions, given:
OAT at take-off: 25˚C
Airport pressure altitude: 1 000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3 600 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 15 kts headwind
A. 15 500 ft
B. 24 600 ft
C. 21 500 ft
D. 18 300 ft
QUESTION 401 Ref 96350 ( 1 point)
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 MIN) is:
A. 1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
B. 1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes.
C. 1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-propeller aeroplanes.
D. 1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.
QUESTION 402 Ref 54018 ( 1 point)
For normally aspirated reciprocating engines the brake horsepower delivered:
A. increases with decreasing air density.
B. decreases with increasing air density.
C. decreases with decreasing air density.
D. none of the above.
QUESTION 403 Ref 32269 ( 1 point)
At the same aircraft mass if a higher V1 was used then:
A. TODR will be unaffected and ASDR will increase.
B. TODR will increase and ASDR decrease.
C. TODR will decrease and ASDR increase.
D. TODR and ASDR will increase.
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QUESTION 404 Ref 10174 ( 1 point)

How does runway slope affect the field length limited Allowable Take-off Mass, assuming other factors
remain constant and not limiting?
A. A downhill slope increases Allowable Take-off Mass.
B. An uphill slope increases Take-off Mass.
C. Allowable Take-off Mass is not affected by runway slope.
D. A downhill slope decreases Allowable Take-off Mass.
QUESTION 405 Ref 57643 ( 1 point)
The effects of a contaminated runway on the field limit mass are:
A. decreased weight, increased V1, increased VR.
B. decreased weight, same V1, increased VR.
C. decreased weight, same V1, same VR.
D. decreased weight, decreased V1 , decreased VR.
QUESTION 406 Ref 87675 ( 1 point)
During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
A. increase at first and decrease later on.
B. increase.
C. decrease.
D. remain constant.
QUESTION 407 Ref 25995 ( 1 point)
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition (assuming TAS is
constant):
A. improves angle and rate of climb.
B. does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
C. has no effect on rate of climb.
D. decreases angle and rate of climb.
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QUESTION 408 Ref 63106 ( 1 point)

The theoretical best range speed for a jet aircraft at low level is:
A. approximately 1.32 times the minimum drag speed.
B. the minimum drag speed.
C. the same as for a propeller aircrart.
D. the minimum power speed.
QUESTION 409 Ref 58110 ( 1 point)
How do the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a
normal aspirated piston engine?
A. Both decrease.
B. Both increase.
C. Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
D. Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
QUESTION 410 Ref 35687 ( 1 point)
Which of the following is not affected by a tailwind:
A. landing climb limit mass.
B. obstacle limit mass.
C. VMBE.
D. tire speed limit mass.
QUESTION 411 Ref 50494 ( 1 point)
For an aeroplane in Performance Class B the net take-off flight path begins at a height of___ and ends at a
height of ___ .
A. 35 feet; 1 000 feet
B. 35 feet; 1 500 feet
C. 50 feet; 1 000 feet
D. 50 feet; 1 500 feet
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QUESTION 412 Ref 52240 ( 1 point)

The Density Altitude:
A. is used to establish minimum clearance of 2 000 feet over mountains.
B. is equal to the pressure altitude.
C. is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
D. is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
QUESTION 413 Ref 7850 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best, fuel mileage) is correct?
A. An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest specific range.
B. An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly
continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.
C. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur.
D. An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from an economy
point of view.
QUESTION 414 Ref 29494 ( 1 point)
As you accelerate in level flight from the speed at CLMAX to maximum speed the total drag:
A. decreases.
B. increases then decreases.
C. increases.
D. decreases then increases.
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QUESTION 415 Ref 9768 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-28)
Given:
Aerodrome Pressure altitude: 3 000 ft
Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +30°F
Runway slope: 1.5% down
Wind: 10 kts head
Flaps: 40°
Using the data above, determine the Maximum Quick Turnaround Mass.
A. 55 850 kg
B. 56 375 kg
C. 57 000 kg
D. 58 125kg
QUESTION 416 Ref 43710 ( 1 point)
The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general
conditions for the flight and a Take-off Mass of 3 250 kg. If the Take-off Mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling
will be:
A. higher than 4 000 m.
B. less than 4 000 m.
C. unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
D. only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.
QUESTION 417 Ref 13194 ( 1 point)
Which statement is correct?
A. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
B. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
C. In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
D. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
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QUESTION 418 Ref 66376 ( 1 point)

Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered
independently)?
A. Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
B. Low flap setting, high PA, Iow OAT.
C. Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
D. High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
QUESTION 419 Ref 23803 ( 1 point)
Due to a pilot mistake, if on a particular flight the value of V1 used on take-off exceeds the correct value of
V1, and an engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1 then:
A. V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
B. the one-engine-inoperative take-off distance may exceed the take-off distance available.
C. it may lead to over-rotation.
D. the accelerate-stop distance will exceed the accelerate-stop distance available.
QUESTION 420 Ref 60777 ( 1 point)
Flying at an altitude close to where the low and high buffet speeds are the same gives:
A. max speed.
B. less manoeuvrability.
C. greater 1 engine inoperative range.
D. greater 1 engine inoperative endurance.
QUESTION 421 Ref 54848 ( 1 point)
An aircraft with a Centre of Gravity towards the aft limit will experience:
A. an increased range and increased stalling speed.
B. a decreased range and increased stalling speed.
C. an increased range and decreased stalling speed.
D. a decreased range and decreased stalling speed.
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QUESTION 422 Ref 84824 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-09)
Given:
OAT: 10˚C
Pressure Altitude: 2 000 ft
Gross Mass: 3 750 lbs
Mixture: full rich
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.
What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given?
A. 430 ft/min.
B. 1 570 ft/min.
C. 1 970 ft/min.
D. 1 770 ft/min.
QUESTION 423 Ref 65496 ( 1 point)
The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of additional pieces
of baggage will cause the climb performance to be:
A. unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted.
B. improved.
C. unchanged.
D. degraded.
QUESTION 424 Ref 87476 ( 1 point)
The optimum altitude:
A. decreases as mass decreases.
B. increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.
C. is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
D. is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.
QUESTION 425 Ref 40421 ( 1 point)
The speed V1 is defined as:
A. take-off decision speed.
B. take-off climb speed.
C. speed for best angle of climb.
D. engine failure speed.
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QUESTION 426 Ref 5386 ( 1 point)

For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
A. The greater the depth of contamination at constant Take-off Mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to
compensate for decreasing friction.
B. Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
C. A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated
runway is available.
D. The take-off performance data is generally determined by the manufacturers by calculation, only a few
values are verified by flight tests.
QUESTION 427 Ref 60465 ( 1 point)
An aircraft is flying straight and level at height. If the mass were increased what actions would be necessary
to maintain a constant angle of attack and altitude?
A. Decrease speed, increase power.
B. Decrease speed, decrease power.
C. Increase speed, decrease power.
D. Increase speed, increase power.
QUESTION 428 Ref 36242 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements is true regarding a balanced field:
A. provides largest gap between net and gross margins.
B. provides minimum field length required in the case of an engine failure.
C. take-off distance will always be more than stopping distance.
D. distances will remain equal, even if engine failure speed is changed.
QUESTION 429 Ref 70110 ( 1 point)
As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of IAS___, TAS ____ and Mach number ___ .
A. remains constant increases; decreases
B. increases; increases; decreases
C. remains constant; increases; increases
D. increases; decreases; increases
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QUESTION 430 Ref 28589 ( 1 point)

You are flying turboprop aeroplane at minimum drag speed (VMD) of 143 kts. What would be the speed for
maximum range?
A. 108 kts
B. 118 kts
C. 143 kts
D. 189 kts
QUESTION 431 Ref 61986 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-02)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take-off speed
for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: ISA +10˚C
Pressure Altitude: 5 000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3 400 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and dry
A. 71 and 82 KIAS.
B. 68 and 78 KIAS.
C. 73 and 84 KIAS.
D. 65 and 75 KIAS.
QUESTION 432 Ref 79312 ( 1 point)
According to EASA AIR OPS, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport
is:
A. more than that required at an alternate airport.
B. less then that required at an alternate airport.
C. the same as that required at an alternate airport.
D. 60% greater than that required at an alternate airport.
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QUESTION 433 Ref 55922 ( 1 point)

How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
A. VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
B. VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
C. VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
D. VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4 000 ft.
QUESTION 434 Ref 11635 ( 1 point)
V2 has to be equal to or higher than:
A. 1.15 VMCG
B. 1.1 VSO
C. 1.15 VR
D. 1.1 VMCA
QUESTION 435 Ref 86535 ( 1 point)
Ignoring the effect of compressibility, what would CL do with an increase in altitude?
A. Increase.
B. Decrease.
C. Remain the same.
D. Increase, then decrease.
QUESTION 436 Ref 95995 ( 1 point)
A constant headwind:
A. increases the descent distance over ground.
B. increases the rate of descent.
C. increases the angle of the descent flight path.
D. increases the angle of descent.
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QUESTION 437 Ref 21063 ( 1 point)

During a descent a headwind will:
A. increase the angle of the descent flight path.
B. increase the descent distance over ground.
C. increase the rate of descent.
D. increase the angle of descent.
QUESTION 438 Ref 11191 ( 1 point)
The aerodynamic ceiling:
A. is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same.
B. depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust.
C. is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero.
D. is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.
QUESTION 439 Ref 66095 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd
climb segment is correct?
A. A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
B. The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
C. The minimum value according to regulations is 1 000 ft.
D. There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of
the net flight path.
QUESTION 440 Ref 55667 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-12)
With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb
limit graph show a kink at 30 °C and pressure altitude 0 ft?
A. The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature
limited.
B. At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.
C. At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.
D. At temperatures higher than ISA the flat rated engines determine the climb limit mass.
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QUESTION 441 Ref 47010 ( 1 point)

When does THRUST = DRAG?
A. Climbing at a constant lAS.
B. Descending at a constant lAS.
C. Flying level at a constant lAS.
D. All of the above.
QUESTION 442 Ref 58473 ( 1 point)
On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at
higher gross mass:
A. requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.
B. an increase in airspeed and power is required.
C. an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.
D. a higher coefficient of drag is required.
QUESTION 443 Ref 2538 ( 1 point)
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
A. The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA·
B. Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
C. The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient.
D. VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes.
QUESTION 444 Ref 48747 ( 1 point)
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects.)
A. The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
B. The lift coefficient is independent of altitude.
C. The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
D. Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
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QUESTION 445 Ref 39868 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-09)
Given:
OAT: -20˚C
Pressure altitude: 18 000 ft
Gross mass: 4 000 lbs
Mixture: leaned to 25˚F rich of peak EGT
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the
conditions given?
A. 870 ft/min.
B. 1 370 ft/min.
C. 1 050 ft/min.
D. 550 ft/min.
QUESTION 446 Ref 84553 ( 1 point)
The take-off distance available is:
A. the roral runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.
B. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
C. the runway length minus stopway.
D. the runway length plus half of the clearway.
QUESTION 447 Ref 43803 ( 1 point)
Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tire speed limited take-off?
A. A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
B. A high runway elevation and tailwind.
C. A high runway elevation and a headwind.
D. A low runway elevation and a headwind.
QUESTION 448 Ref 92847 ( 1 point)
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to
be exceeded first?
A. Maximum operational mach number.
B. Never exceed speed.
C. High speed buffet limit.
D. Maximum operating speed.
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QUESTION 449 Ref 41553 ( 1 point)

Density altitude is the:
A. pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature.
B. altitude reference to the standard datum plane.
C. altitude read directly from the altimeter.
D. height above the surface.
QUESTION 450 Ref 19868 ( 1 point)
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
A. not changed.
B. larger.
C. smaller.
D. increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.
QUESTION 451 Ref 24362 ( 1 point)
The speed used to determine the "maximum tyre-speed limit" is the:
A. lAS.
B. groundspeed.
C. TAS.
D. EAS.
QUESTION 452 Ref 75411 ( 1 point)
A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range I fuel flow change?
A. Increase I decrease.
B. Increase I increase.
C. Decrease I decrease.
D. Decrease I increase.
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QUESTION 453 Ref 16650 ( 1 point)

Given that:
VEF = Critical engine failure speed
VMCG= Ground minimum control speed
VMCA = Air minimum control speed
VMU = Minimum unstick speed
V1 = Take-off decision speed
VR = Rotation speed
V2MIN = Minimum take-off safety speed The correct sequence of speeds is:
A. V2MIN ≤ VEF ≤ VMU
B. VMCG ≤ VEF < V1
C. 1.05 VMCA ≤ VEF ≤ V1
D. 1.05 VMCG < VEF ≤ VR
QUESTION 454 Ref 54202 ( 1 point)
The effect of a runway contaminated with 0.5 cm of slush on take-off calculations would be to decrease the
TOM:
A. decrease V1 and decrease VR.
B. with the same V1 and increase VR.
C. increase the V1 and increase VR.
D. decrease V1 with the same VR.
QUESTION 455 Ref 72504 ( 1 point)
Propeller aircraft (piston engine) flown at medium altitude at the recommended EAS will have a better
specific air range (SAR) than at sea level because:
A. drag is the same.
B. the power required to maintain level flight is less.
C. engine efficiency is greater.
D. the thrust required is less.
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QUESTION 456 Ref 11281 ( 1 point)

According to the information in a light aircraft manual, which gives two power settings for cruise, 65% and
75%. If you fly at 75% instead of 65%:
A. cruise speed will be higher, fuel consumption will be higher.
B. cruise speed will be the same, fuel consumption will be the same.
C. cruise speed will be higher, fuel consumption will be lower.
D. cruise speed will be higher, fuel consumption will be the same.
QUESTION 457 Ref 27606 ( 1 point)
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary"
graph?
A. Aerodynamics.
B. Theoretical ceiling.
C. Service ceiling.
D. Economy.
QUESTION 458 Ref 21750 ( 1 point)
What is a cost index?
A. A number denoting the cost per nautical mile.
B. A number denoting the ratio of direct operating costs to speed.
C. A number denoting the ratio of the costs of crew and maintenance to the cost of fuel.
D. A number denoting the ratio of the cost of fuel to speed.
QUESTION 459 Ref 71453 ( 1 point)
The effect of a decrease in air density is to:
A. increase the take-off distance and reduce the rate of climb.
B. decrease the take-off distance and reduce the rate of climb.
C. decrease the take-off distance and increase the rate of climb.
D. increase the take-off distance and increase the rate of climb.
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QUESTION 460 Ref 65195 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-11)
Given:
Take-Off Mass (TOM): 58 500 kg
Pressure Altitude: 1 000 ft
Outside Air Temperature (OAT): -7˚C
Flaps: 15˚ Wind: 10 kts head
Runway slope: 1% down
Air Conditioning (A/C) Packs: OFF
Using the above data, determine the take-off distance:
A. 5500 ft
B. 5900 ft
C. 6400 ft
D. 6900 ft
QUESTION 461 Ref 50900 ( 1 point)
The optimum cruise altitude is:
A. the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
B. the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
C. the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8 000 ft can be maintained.
D. the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.
QUESTION 462 Ref 20136 ( 1 point)
Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged?
A. Take-off run.
B. Accelerate Stop Distance.
C. Take-off distance.
D. All Engine Take-off distance.
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QUESTION 463 Ref 65354 ( 1 point)

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
B. An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
C. A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted
take-off.
D. If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent
runway surface.
QUESTION 464 Ref 69903 ( 1 point)
A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-
drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. Given g = 10 m/s, the gradient of climb is:
A. 0.01286
B. 0.1286
C. 0.27
D. 0.0786
QUESTION 465 Ref 50636 ( 1 point)
When comparing VX to VY:
A. VX will always be greater than VY.
B. VY will always be greater than or equal to VX.
C. VY will always be greater than VX.
D. VX will sometimes be greater than VY, but sometimes be less than VY.
QUESTION 466 Ref 58589 ( 1 point)
Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at zero wind and zero thrust. Which of the
following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics?
A. At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.
B. There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
C. At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.
D. At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.
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QUESTION 467 Ref 46315 ( 1 point)

If the anti-skid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
A. The accelerate-stop distance increases.
B. The accelerate-stop distance decreases.
C. It has no effect on the accelerate-stop distance.
D. Take-off with anti-skid inoperative is not permitted.
QUESTION 468 Ref 34358 ( 1 point)
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain
constant?
A. The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
B. The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
C. The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
D. The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass.
QUESTION 469 Ref 55892 ( 1 point)
Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
A. Low temperature and low relative humidity.
B. Low temperature and high relative humidity.
C. High temperature and low relative humidity.
D. High temperature and high relative humidity.
QUESTION 470 Ref 34602 ( 1 point)
Maximum endurance:
A. can be flown in a steady climb only.
B. is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.
C. is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow.
D. can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.
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QUESTION 471 Ref 88275 ( 1 point)

In accordance to EASA CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2 MIN?
A. VSR, VMCA.
B. VMCG, V2.
C. VSO, VMCA.
D. V1, VR.
QUESTION 472 Ref 58139 ( 1 point)
The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by:
A. increasing the CAS.
B. increasing the TAS.
C. decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.
D. increasing the angle of attack.
QUESTION 473 Ref 17845 ( 1 point)
The speed instability region is:
A. region where the aeroplane cannot be flown manually.
B. the same as the region of negative gradient of the thrust or power required curve.
C. area above the intersection of power required curve and drag curve.
D. located in the area below the low speed buffet.
QUESTION 474 Ref 57420 ( 1 point)
If cruising into a 15 kts headwind and a 180˚ turn is made so the wind is directly behind the aircraft, the lAS
would:
A. be the same and the ground speed would increase by 30 kts.
B. be the same and the ground speed would increase by 15 kts.
C. decrease by 15 kts and the ground speed would increase by 15 kts.
D. increase by 30 kts and the ground speed would remain the same.
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QUESTION 475 Ref 11843 ( 1 point)

You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/0.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29200 ft (OAT
= ISA)?
A. During the acceleration to the Mach number 0.78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
B. The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as
compared to constant lAS.
C. The rate of climb increases as the constant lAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.
D. No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kts lAS and 0.78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature
TAS = 460 kts).
QUESTION 476 Ref 89486 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
You are planning a flight in a single engine aeroplane. With regard to the landing chart determine the
landing distance required at your planned destination airport. Given:
OAT: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 1 000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3 500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and wet
Runway Slope: 2% upslope
A. 1 150 ft.
B. 1 750 ft.
C. 2 250 ft.
D. 2 900 ft.
QUESTION 477 Ref 55212 ( 1 point)
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and
configuration the power required:
A. increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.
B. increases but TAS remains constant.
C. decreases slightly because of the lower air density.
D. remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
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QUESTION 478 Ref 71093 ( 1 point)

A clearway:
A. provides an area over which an aeroplane can safely transit from lift off to the required height.
B. need not have the same weight bearing qualities as the runway with which it is associated.
C. may be water.
D. all of the above.
QUESTION 479 Ref 15154 ( 1 point)
At a higher gross mass on a piston-engined aeroplane, in order to maintain a given angle of attack,
configuration and altitude:
A. the lift/drag ratio must be increased.
B. the airspeed must be increased and the drag will remain unchanged.
C. the airspeed must be increased and the drag will also increase.
D. the airspeed must be decreased and the drag will increase.
QUESTION 480 Ref 72649 ( 1 point)
With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct?
A. An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive
altitude.
B. An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result.
C. An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases
continuously during flight.
D. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.
QUESTION 481 Ref 95354 ( 1 point)
Which of the following variables will not affect the shape or position of the drag vs. lAS curve, for speeds
below MCRIT:
A. configuration.
B. weight.
C. aspect ratio.
D. altitude.
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QUESTION 482 Ref 65000 ( 1 point)

Out of the four forces acting on the aircraft in flight, what balances thrust in the climb?
A. Drag
B. Weight
C. W Sin θ.
D. Drag + w Sin θ.
QUESTION 483 Ref 66776 ( 1 point)
Which of the following answers is true?
A. V1 < VMCG
B. V1 > VR
C. V1 ≤ VR
D. V1 > VLOF
QUESTION 484 Ref 80461 ( 1 point)
To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be:
A. reduced to the gust penetration speed.
B. equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
C. lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
D. higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
QUESTION 485 Ref 32126 ( 1 point)
Below the optimum cruise altitude:
A. the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
B. the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
C. the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.
D. the lAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
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QUESTION 486 Ref 61590 ( 1 point)

Which of the following will not decrease the value of VS?
A. The CG in an aft position within the CG envelope.
B. Increased altitude.
C. Decreased weight.
D. Increased flap setting.
QUESTION 487 Ref 33469 ( 1 point)
Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore
compressibility effects.)
A. Configuration and angle of attack.
B. Mass and altitude.
C. Altitude and configuration.
D. Configuration and mass.
QUESTION 488 Ref 78292 ( 1 point)
In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)?
A. In a descent with constant TAS.
B. In accelerated level flight.
C. In a climb with constant lAS.
D. In level flight with constant lAS.
QUESTION 489 Ref 84 ( 1 point)
Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
A. When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines.
B. The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative.
C. VR may not be lower than V1.
D. V1 may not be higher than VMCG·
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QUESTION 490 Ref 42369 ( 1 point)

Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?
A. High Take-off Mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.
B. Low Take-off Mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
C. High Take-off Mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
D. Low Take-off Mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
QUESTION 491 Ref 88765 ( 1 point)
The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
A. one engine inoperative only.
B. all engines operating only.
C. failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the greater take-off distance.
D. failure of critical engine only.
QUESTION 492 Ref 1646 ( 1 point)
What is the effect of the centre of gravity on fuel consumption?
A. The centre of gravity has no effect on fuel consumption.
B. The further the distance of the centre of gravity from the centre of pressure the greater the fuel
consumption.
C. The further forward the centre of gravity the greater the fuel consumption compared to an aircraft with an
aft centre of gravity.
D. The further aft the centre of gravity the greater the fuel consumption compared to an aircraft with a
forward centre of gravity.
QUESTION 493 Ref 41522 ( 1 point)
In unaccelerated climb:
A. lift is greater than the gross weight.
B. thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
C. lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
D. thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
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QUESTION 494 Ref 85204 ( 1 point)

What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
A. The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
B. The time to climb increases.
C. The time to climb decreases.
D. The time to climb does not change.
QUESTION 495 Ref 7708 ( 1 point)
An aircraft is descending at 193 kts TAS in still air with a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min. The descent gradient
is:
A. 0.065
B. 0.054
C. 0.051
D. 0.048
QUESTION 496 Ref 21458 ( 1 point)
During the flight preparation the climb limited Take-off Mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the
field length limited TOM using 5˚ flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are
no limiting obstacles.
A. By selecting a higher V2.
B. By selecting a higher flap setting.
C. By selecting a lower V2.
D. By selecting a lower flap setting.
QUESTION 497 Ref 96066 ( 1 point)
When in a gliding manoeuvre, in order to achieve maximum endurance the aircraft should be flown at:
A. the speed for max lift.
B. the speed for min drag.
C. the speed for max lift / drag.
D. the speed for min power.
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QUESTION 498 Ref 83158 ( 1 point)

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition.
B. The take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component.
C. The climb limited Take-off Mass is independent of the wind component.
D. The performance limited Take-off Mass is independent of the wind component.
QUESTION 499 Ref 41520 ( 1 point)
When the outside air temperature increases, then
A. the field length limited Take-off Mass and the climb limited Take-off Mass increases.
B. the field length limited Take-off Mass and the climb limited Take-off Mass decreases.
C. the field length limited Take-off Mass decreases but the climb limited Take-off Mass increases.
D. the field length limited Take-off Mass increases but the climb limited Take-off Mass decreases.
QUESTION 500 Ref 44588 ( 1 point)
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the
aircraft will have:
A. a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance.
B. a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance.
C. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance.
D. an increased landing distance and better go-around performance.
QUESTION 501 Ref 10109 ( 1 point)
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
A. the maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
B. the maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
C. the maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
D. the maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.
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QUESTION 502 Ref 64395 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-13)
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35
000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
A. All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.
B. Because at this mass it takes about 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the
original cruising level.
C. Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during
three minutes.
D. Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the
inertia involved.
QUESTION 503 Ref 28849 ( 1 point)
For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
A. that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.
B. that which gives the minimum value of induced drag.
C. 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.
D. that which gives the maximum value of lift.
QUESTION 504 Ref 80302 ( 1 point)
Which statement is correct?
A. The performance limited Take-off Mass is the highest of: i) field length limited Take-off Mass; ii) climb limited
Take-off Mass; iii) obstacle limited Take-off Mass.
B. The climb limited Take-off Mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
C. The climb limited Take-off Mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.
D. The climb limited Take-off Mass depends on pressure altitude and outside air temperature.
QUESTION 505 Ref 99427 ( 1 point)
VR for a class "A" aeroplane must not be less than:
A. 10% above VMU.
B. 5% above VMCA·
C. 5% above VMCG.
D. 10% above VMCA.
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QUESTION 506 Ref 6826 ( 1 point)

Which of the following light twins will get more control difficulties if the left engine stops when airborne
from the runway 36 and there is reported wind from 270/10 kts?
A. Counter rotation propellers.
B. All have same control problems.
C. Counter clockwise rotation propellers.
D. Clockwise rotation propellers.
QUESTION 507 Ref 75932 ( 1 point)
During certification test flight for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual distance is measured of 1747 m from
brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. A further distance is measured of 1950 m from brake release
point to a point equidistant between VLOF and 35 ft, having simulated an engine failure at V1. The distance
specified as being the aircraft's certificated value of the Take-off Run (TOR) is:
A. 1747 m
B. 2243 m
C. 1950 m
D. 2009 m
QUESTION 508 Ref 49265 ( 1 point)
It is recommended that the maximum crosswind for take-off on a contaminated runway surface is:
A. 20 kts
B. 15 kts
C. 10 kts
D. 5 kts
QUESTION 509 Ref 62293 ( 1 point)
If the value of V1 is less than VMCG.
A. V1 is made equal to VMCG.
B. VMCG is made equal to V1.
C. the take-off is permitted anyway.
D. V1 is made equal to VMCA.
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QUESTION 510 Ref 8357 ( 1 point)

In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with:
A. the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve.
B. the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve.
C. the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve.
D. the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.
QUESTION 511 Ref 56519 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
You are planning a flight in a single engine aeroplane. With regard to the landing chart determine the
landing distance required at your planned destination airport. Given:
OAT: 27˚C
Pressure altitude: 3 000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 2 900 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Dry grass 5 cm long
A. 1 200 ft.
B. 1 850 ft.
C. 2 600 ft.
D. 3 050 ft.
QUESTION 512 Ref 38377 ( 1 point)
At long Range Cruise speed in a jet the angle of attack is:
A. same as L/D MAX.
B. Less than L/D MAX.
C. speed for minimum drag.
D. minimum flight speed.
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QUESTION 513 Ref 41380 ( 1 point)

Which procedure is likely to involve V1 being reduced?
A. Take-off with inoperative anti-skid.
B. Increased V2 technique.
C. Reduced thrust take-off.
D. When ASDA > TODA.
QUESTION 514 Ref 74329 ( 1 point)
For a given flight level the speed range determined by the buffet onset boundary will decrease with:
A. reduced weight.
B. reduced bank angle.
C. with a more forward centre of gravity.
D. with increased temperature.
QUESTION 515 Ref 91156 ( 1 point)
For a Class A aircraft the net take-off flight path is subdivided into various segments. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. The 3rd segment is completed at the normal flap retraction height and is flown at max continuous thrust.
B. The second segment is flown at V3 up to a height of 400 ft (Flap retraction height).
C. The final segment starts at the end of segment 3 with the aircraft in a clean configuration, at the final
segment climb speed with maximum continuous power set, ending at 1500 ft or higher if there are distant
obstacles to clear.
D. The first segment starts at the end of TODA where the aircraft should be at 50 ft and V2.This segment is
flown at V2 whilst the landing gear is retracted.
QUESTION 516 Ref 16430 ( 1 point)
The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
A. improves the maximum range.
B. increases the stalling speed.
C. decreases the endurance.
D. decreases the maximum range.
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QUESTION 517 Ref 15633 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-06)
Given:
OAT: -15˚C
Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
RWY: 12R
Wind: 080˚/12 kts
Take-off Mass: 4 000 lbs
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft
obstacle?
A. 1 550 ft
B. 1 270 ft
C. 1 220 ft
D. 1 830 ft
QUESTION 518 Ref 7292 ( 1 point)
In the event that the Take-off Mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank
angle should not exceed:
A. 15˚ up to a height of 400 ft.
B. 10˚ up to a height of 400 ft.
C. 20˚ up to a height of 400 ft.
D. 25˚ up to a height of 400 ft.
QUESTION 519 Ref 76740 ( 1 point)
Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
A. Maximum Continuous Thrust.
B. Maximum Cruise Thrust.
C. Go-Around Thrust.
D. Maximum Take-off Thrust
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QUESTION 520 Ref 83713 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-03)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single-engine aeroplane, determine the maximum
allowed take-off weight, given:
OAT: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
Headwind Component: 15 kts
Flaps: 10˚
Runway: 2 000 ft length; tarred and dry
Obstacle Height: 50 ft
A. 3 500 lbs
B. 2 860 lbs
C. 2 400 lbs
D. 3 240 lbs
QUESTION 521 Ref 54535 ( 1 point)
Decreasing take-off flap from 15˚ to 0˚ will probably result in ___ VLOF.
A. increased
B. reduced
C. greatly reduced
D. unchanged
QUESTION 522 Ref 98980 ( 1 point)
The speed V2 is:
A. the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of
an engine failure.
B. the take-off safety speed.
C. that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
D. the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
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QUESTION 523 Ref 46553 ( 1 point)

For a piston engine aircraft the service ceiling corresponds to:
A. the altitude for which the power required and power available curves are tangential.
B. the greatest altitude at which more than one speed is available.
C. the altitude at which the aircraft is capable of a climb rate of 100 feet per minute.
D. the altitude at which the aircraft is capable of a climb rate of 500 feet per minute.
QUESTION 524 Ref 77577 ( 1 point)
If an aircraft with an FMS is operated at a cost index greater than zero the result will be:
A. a cruise at a slower Mach number than the Mach number for best range at that altitude.
B. a cruise at a faster Mach number than the Mach number for best range at that altitude.
C. a cruise at the maximum endurance speed.
D. a climb at the slowest safe speed.
QUESTION 525 Ref 28691 ( 1 point)
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight:
A. the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
B. the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
C. the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
D. the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
QUESTION 526 Ref 93438 ( 1 point)
Which condition reduces the required runway for take-off?
A. Higher than recommended airspeed before rotation.
B. Lower than standard air density.
C. Increased headwind component.
D. Increased TAS.
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QUESTION 527 Ref 71386 ( 1 point)

In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
A. the take-off must be rejected.
B. the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
C. the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
D. the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.
QUESTION 528 Ref 14811 ( 1 point)
The induced drag of an aeroplane:
A. is independent of the airspeed.
B. increases with increasing airspeed.
C. decreases with increasing airspeed.
D. decreases with increasing gross weight.
QUESTION 529 Ref 56863 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-04)
With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed
(ft/min). Given:
OAT: ISA +15˚C
Pressure altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3 400 lbs
Flaps: up
Speed: 100 KIAS
A. 1 150 ft/min.
B. 1 210 ft/min.
C. 1 290 ft/min.
D. 1 370 ft/min.
QUESTION 530 Ref 53547 ( 1 point)
The operational regulations regarding scheduled performance are contained in the following document:
A. EASA AIR OPS
B. EASA CS-23
C. EASA CS-25
D. FAR-25
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QUESTION 531 Ref 66953 ( 1 point)

Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain
unchanged):
A. increases the power required.
B. decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
C. affects neither drag nor power required.
D. increases the induced drag.
QUESTION 532 Ref 45936 ( 1 point)
If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
A. higher with a forward centre of gravity position.
B. independent from the centre of gravity position.
C. lower with an aft centre of gravity position.
D. lower with a forward centre of gravity position.
QUESTION 533 Ref 43131 ( 1 point)
Concerning landing gear, which factors limit take-off performance?
A. Brake temperature.
B. Wheel rate of rotation, brake energy.
C. Tire temperature.
D. Brake wear.
QUESTION 534 Ref 20393 ( 1 point)
Considering TAS For maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
A. TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will
decrease with increased altitude.
B. both will decrease with increasing altitude.
C. both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
D. both will increase with increasing altitude.
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QUESTION 535 Ref 7975 ( 1 point)

Flying at the maximum rate of climb speed will give maximum height:
A. in the shortest distance.
B. in the shortest time.
C. in both shortest time and distance.
D. gain in the shortest distance.
QUESTION 536 Ref 50488 ( 1 point)
The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane,
determines the speed for:
A. critical angle of attack.
B. maximum endurance.
C. maximum specific range.
D. minimum power.
QUESTION 537 Ref 10854 ( 1 point)
Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at
holdin gspeed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is 4 300 kg/hr. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
A. 3 365 kg/hr.
B. 3 578 kg/hr.
C. 3 804 kg/hr.
D. 4 044 kg/hr.
QUESTION 538 Ref 57465 ( 1 point)
The length of a clearway may be included in:
A. the take-off distance available.
B. the accelerate-stop distance available.
C. the take-off run available.
D. the distance to reach V1.
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QUESTION 539 Ref 26771 ( 1 point)

What is one of the most important aspects of the "backside of the power curve"?
A. The aeroplane will not stall.
B. The speed is unstable.
C. The altitude cannot be maintained.
D. The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.
QUESTION 540 Ref 27261 ( 1 point)
The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
A. increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.
B. is always equal to the power plant ceiling.
C. is independent of the aeroplane mass.
D. is only dependent on the outside air temperature.
QUESTION 541 Ref 4070 ( 1 point)
As speed is reduced below VMD:
A. drag decreases and speed stability increases.
B. drag decreases and speed stability decreases.
C. drag increases and speed stability increases.
D. drag increases and speed stability decreases.
QUESTION 542 Ref 3493 ( 1 point)
With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb angle is about:
A. 0.08
B. 3˚
C. 0.03
D. 5˚
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QUESTION 543 Ref 93012 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-11)
For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5˚ and 15˚) are certified. Using the attached
chart, what is the maximum field limited Take-off Mass, given the following conditions:
Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft
OAT: -10˚C
Length available: 2400 m
Slope: Level
Wind: Calm
A. 55 000 kg
B. 56 000 kg
C. 44 000kg
D. 52 000 kg
QUESTION 544 Ref 51911 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-07)
Given:
OAT: 25˚C
Pressure altitude: 3 000 ft
RWY: 24L
Wind: 310˚/20 kts
Take-off mass: 4 400 lbs
Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the chart. What is the
Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
A. 3 750 ft
B. 4 000 ft
C. 3 350 ft
D. 4 300 ft
QUESTION 545 Ref 91471 ( 1 point)
The Take-off Mass could be limited by:
A. the maximum brake energy only.
B. the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine
inoperative.
C. the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
D. the take-off distance available (TODA) only.
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QUESTION 546 Ref 77140 ( 1 point)

For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
A. that which gives the maximum value of lift.
B. that which gives the minimum value of drag.
C. that which gives the minimum lift to drag ratio.
D. 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.
QUESTION 547 Ref 68366 ( 1 point)
V1 for a balanced-field is calculated when:
A. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the stopway to produce the maximum take-off mass.
B. the speed is equal to V2.
C. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the clearway to produce the maximum take-off mass.
D. the acceleration/stop distance available is equal to the take-off distance available.
QUESTION 548 Ref 5683 ( 1 point)
If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/ 0.74 to 290/0.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
A. higher or lower, depending on the aircraft.
B. unchanged.
C. lower.
D. higher.
QUESTION 549 Ref 7793 ( 1 point)
With a downward sloping runway:
A. V1 will increase.
B. V1 will decrease.
C. VR will increase.
D. VR will decrease.
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QUESTION 550 Ref 81285 ( 1 point)

Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:
Thrust: 50 000 Newton / Engine
g: 10 m/s2
Drag: 72569 N
Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment): 2.7%
The maximum Take-off Mass under 2"" segment conditions is: (SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight)
A. 286 781 kg
B. 74 064 kg
C. 209 064 kg
D. 101 596 kg
QUESTION 551 Ref 74433 ( 1 point)
For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient:
A. increases with increasing flap angle and decreasing temperature.
B. decreases with increasing flap angle and decreasing temperature.
C. increases with increasing flap angle and increasing temperature.
D. decreases with increasing flap angle and increasing temperature.
QUESTION 552 Ref 52904 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-13)
Given:
Pressure altitude: 37 000 ft
Temperature: ISA -10C
Gross Mass: 44 000 kg
Engine Anti-Ice: ON
Wing Anti-lce: OFF
Wind: 30 kts head
Obstacle: 23 000 ft AMSL
Using the above data, determine the drift-down time, fuel burn and distance flown to clear the obstacle by
the statutory minimum.
A. 20 minutes, 1 000 kg, 125 NM
B. 24 minutes, 700 kg, 122 NM
C. 32 minutes, 1 100 kg, 153 NM
D. 35 minutes, 1 350 kg, 170 NM
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QUESTION 553 Ref 17448 ( 1 point)

If not VMBE or VMCG limited, what would V1 be limited by:
A. V2
B. VMCA
C. VR
D. VMU
QUESTION 554 Ref 96079 ( 1 point)
The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by:
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 0.3
D. 0.1
QUESTION 555 Ref 57899 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-20)
Given:
Pressure altitude: 33 000 ft
Indicated Mach number: 0.87
Indicated TAT: -20°C
What is the Temperature Deviation from Standard?
A. +3.5 °C
B. -3.5 °C
C. -16.5 °C
D. +16.5 °C
QUESTION 556 Ref 96099 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited Take-off Mass for performance class A
aeroplane, is correct?
A. It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the "net take-off flight
path".
B. It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited Take-off Mass.
C. it should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with respect to the "net take-off flight
path".
D. it should not be corrected for 30˚ bank turns in the take-off path.
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QUESTION 557 Ref 86574 ( 1 point)

The best speed for obstacle clearance is:
A. VX with optimum flap setting for runway length, take-off weight and atmospheric conditions.
B. VX and no high lift devices.
C. VY with no flaps.
D. VY with optimum flap setting for runway length, take-off weight and atmospheric conditions.
QUESTION 558 Ref 23264 ( 1 point)
A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-
twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
A. very significantly decreased.
B. unchanged.
C. decreased.
D. increased.
QUESTION 559 Ref 59674 ( 1 point)
4 mm of rain is covering a runway. The runway is:
A. contaminated
B. damp
C. wet
D. flooded
QUESTION 560 Ref 52817 ( 1 point)
Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the Take-off Mass?
A. Nitrogen pressure in the strut, and brake temperature.
B. Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy.
C. Tire pressure and brake temperature.
D. Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure.
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QUESTION 561 Ref 90453 ( 1 point)

For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of "maximum range speed"?
A. Minimum specific fuel consumption.
B. Minimum fuel flow.
C. Longest flight duration.
D. Minimum drag.
QUESTION 562 Ref 83976 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-03)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take-off
distance to a height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: -7˚C
Pressure Altitude: 7 000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2 950 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Tarred and Dry
A. 1 950 ft
B. 2 450 ft.
C. 1 150 ft.
D. 1 260 ft.
QUESTION 563 Ref 31426 ( 1 point)
In the climb an aircraft has a thrust to weight ratio of 1:4 and a lift to drag ratio of 12:1. While ignoring the
slight difference between lift and weight in the climb, the climb gradient will be:
A. 3.0%
B. 8.3%
C. 16.7%
D. 3.3%
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QUESTION 564 Ref 24571 ( 1 point)

Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining
the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
A. Decrease of aircraft mass.
B. Increase of aircraft mass.
C. Tailwind.
D. Headwind.
QUESTION 565 Ref 75302 ( 1 point)
The "climb gradient" is defined as the ratio of:
A. the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
B. the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
C. true airspeed to rate of climb.
D. rate of climb to true airspeed.
QUESTION 566 Ref 42324 ( 1 point)
The value of V1 has to be equal to or higher than:
A. VMCG
B. V2
C. VR
D. VMC
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QUESTION 567 Ref 2520 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-07)
Given:
OAT: -10˚C
Pressure Altitude: 4 000 ft
RWY: 30L
Wind: 180˚/10 kts
Take-off Mass: 4 600 lbs
Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the chart. What is the
Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
A. 3 550 ft
B. 4 600 ft
C. 4 250 ft
D. 3 800 ft
QUESTION 568 Ref 99544 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a
height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: ISA +15˚C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2 940 lbs
Headwind component: 10 kts
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
A. approximately: 1 300 feet.
B. approximately: 950 feet.
C. approximately: 1 400 feet.
D. approximately: 750 feet.
QUESTION 569 Ref 70113 ( 1 point)
With regards to the optimum altitude during the cruise, the aircraft is:
A. always flown at the optimum altitude.
B. always flown 2 000 ft below the optimum altitude.
C. may be flown above or below the optimum altitude, but never at the optimum altitude.
D. flown as close to the optimum altitude as ATC will allow.
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QUESTION 570 Ref 5782 ( 1 point)

Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:
A. the speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.
B. the speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum climb angle speed.
C. the speed for maximum lift coefficient.
D. the speed for minimum drag.
QUESTION 571 Ref 83054 ( 1 point)
Which of the following speeds may vary if a stopway or clearway is available?
A. VMCG
B. V1
C. V2
D. VMC
QUESTION 572 Ref 28429 ( 1 point)
Clearway may not exceed:
A. 50% TODA.
B. 50% ASDA.
C. 150% ASDA.
D. 50% TORA.
QUESTION 573 Ref 83031 ( 1 point)
A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
A. a reduced rake-off distance and improved initial climb perfonmance.
B. an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.
C. an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance.
D. a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.
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QUESTION 574 Ref 24577 ( 1 point)

If the Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is tire speed limited, downhill slope would:
A. increase the maximum mass for take-off.
B. decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
C. have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
D. increase the required take-off distance.
QUESTION 575 Ref 52746 ( 1 point)
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
A. The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
B. The field length limited Take-off Mass will increase.
C. V1 is increased.
D. V1 remains constant.
QUESTION 576 Ref 26586 ( 1 point)
The maximum angle of bank permitted after take-off below 50 feet for an aeroplane in Performance Class B is:
A. 0˚
B. 5˚
C. 10˚
D. 15˚
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QUESTION 577 Ref 34359 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-26)
Given:
Aerodrome pressure altitude: 80 ft
Ambient temperature: +10°C
Landing Distance Available (LDA): 3 080 ft
Wind : 12 kts head
Runway slope: 1.5% down
Runway surface: grass
Runway surface condition: wet / short
Using the above specified data, find the Field Limited Landing Mass (FLLLM):
A. 3 150 lbs
B. 3 450 lbs
C. 3 750 lbs
D. 4 513 lbs
QUESTION 578 Ref 51137 ( 1 point)
An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number:
A. the lAS decreases and TAS remain constant.
B. the lAS and TAS remain constant.
C. the lAS decreases and TAS decreases.
D. the lAS remains constant and TAS increases.
QUESTION 579 Ref 89591 ( 1 point)
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
A. the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
B. a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
C. the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
D. the take-off must be continued.
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QUESTION 580 Ref 47325 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-19)
In the following figure, the curves B and A represent:
A. the climb limited take-off weight and the field-length limited take-off weight.
B. the obstacle limited take-off weight and the fuel limited take-off weight.
C. the field length limited take-off weight and the MZFW limitation.
D. the maximum tyre speed limitations and the MTOW limitation.
QUESTION 581 Ref 79502 ( 1 point)
In climb limited mass calculations, the climb gradient is a ratio of:
A. height gained over distance traveled through the air.
B. height gained over distance traveled across the ground.
C. TAS over rate of climb.
D. TGS over rate of climb.
QUESTION 582 Ref 19363 ( 1 point)
If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure:
A. the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10
kts.
B. fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
C. fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
D. the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.
QUESTION 583 Ref 24071 ( 1 point)
For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS and a constant mass the drag will:
A. remain almost constant.
B. decrease.
C. increase initially and then decrease.
D. increase considerably.
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QUESTION 584 Ref 84711 ( 1 point)

If the aircraft rotates earlier and at a much faster rate than expected what is the likely reason?
1) The rotate speed, VR, has been miscalculated.
2) The stabilizer trim setting has been miscalculated.
3) The centre of gravity is too far forward.
4) The centre of gravity is too far aft.
5) The decision speed V1, has been miscalculated.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 4, 5
D. 2, 4
QUESTION 585 Ref 11852 ( 1 point)
Ignoring the effect of compressibility, the effect a change of altitude has on the value of the coefficient of lift
is that it:
A. increases with increasing altitude.
B. decreases with increasing altitude.
C. decreases with increasing altitude, but only at low speeds.
D. is independent of altitude.
QUESTION 586 Ref 75890 ( 1 point)
With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature expressed in K, the
hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach Number
and zero headwind, is as follows:
A. independent from T.
B. proportional to 1/T².
C. proportional to 1/T.
D. proportional to T.
QUESTION 587 Ref 22320 ( 1 point)
Due to a mistake in the load sheet the aeroplane is 100 kg heavier than you believe it to be. As a
consequence:
A. VR will be higher.
B. V1 will be higher.
C. VMU will be higher.
D. V1 VMU VR will all occur earlier.
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QUESTION 588 Ref 27799 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-21)
The distances X, Y, Z and W are defined as:
A. LDA, TORA, ASDA, TODA.
B. LDA, ASDA, TORA, TODA.
C. ADSA, TODA, TORA, LDA.
D. TODA, TORA, ASDA, LDA.
QUESTION 589 Ref 14306 ( 1 point)
Assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting, increasing the aerodrome pressure altitude:
A. will cause the maximum permined take-off mass to increase.
B. will cause the maximum permined take-off mass to decrease.
C. has no effect on the maximum permitted take-off mass up to 5000 ft pressure altitude above which it
increases.
D. has no effect on the maximum permitted take-off mass.
QUESTION 590 Ref 76168 ( 1 point)
Uphill slope:
A. increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
B. decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
C. decreases the take-off distance only.
D. increases the allowed take-off mass.
QUESTION 591 Ref 41832 ( 1 point)
Take-off run required for a jet aircraft, with one engine inoperative is:
A. brake release point to midpoint between VLOF and 35 ft.
B. brake release point to 35 ft.
C. brake release point to 15 ft.
D. the same as for all engines.
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QUESTION 592 Ref 22585 ( 1 point)

An aircraft is operating at the optimum glide speed. When mass decreases what happens to the glide angle
and rate of descent (maintaining optimum glide speed)?
A. The glide angle decreases and the rate of descent is unchanged.
B. The glide angle is unchanged and the rate of descent decreases.
C. The glide angle decreases and the rate of descent decreases.
D. Both the glide angle and rate of descent are unchanged.
QUESTION 593 Ref 31828 ( 1 point)
The margin between the power available and the power required:
A. increases when the aircraft climbs.
B. decreases when the aircraft climbs.
C. decreases when the aircraft descends.
D. remains the same.
QUESTION 594 Ref 59925 ( 1 point)
Compared with still-air, the effect a headwind has on the values of the maximum range speed and the
maximum gradient climb speed respectively is that:
A. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected.
B. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed decreases.
C. the maximum range speed increases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected.
D. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed increases.
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QUESTION 595 Ref 23824 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-05)
With regard to the graph for landing performance and the given data below, what is the minimum
headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport? (Note: disregard the regulatory 1.43
factorization - use the actual runway length of 1 300 ft)
Runway length: 1 300 ft
Runway elevation: MSL
Weather: ISA
Mass: 3 200 lbs
Obstacle height: 50 ft
A. 8 kts
B. 15 kts
C. 4 kts
D. no wind
QUESTION 596 Ref 39637 ( 1 point)
How does an increase in aircraft mass affect the gliding range?
A. Has no effect on gliding range.
B. Decreases gliding range.
C. Increases gliding range.
D. None of the above.
QUESTION 597 Ref 51886 ( 1 point)
In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given
by: T = Thrust D = Drag W = Weight
A. T + W sin GAMMA = D
B. T - W sin GAMMA = D
C. T - D = W sin GAMMA
D. T + D = -W sin GAMMA
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QUESTION 598 Ref 43584 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-12)
Consider the take-off performance for the twin Jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been
omitted from the chart?
A. There is a built-in safety measure.
B. The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air.
C. The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.
D. There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.
QUESTION 599 Ref 75088 ( 1 point)
Take-off run is defined as the:
A. distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
B. distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
C. horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the
point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
D. distance from brake release to V2.
QUESTION 600 Ref 96317 ( 1 point)
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect VX and VY in terms of lAS?
A. VX will remain constant and VY will decrease.
B. VX will decrease and VY will increase.
C. Both will decrease.
D. Both will increase.
QUESTION 601 Ref 10476 ( 1 point)
A twin engine jet aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on both engines. The
critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilising the engine failure transient which parameter(s) must be
maintainable?
A. Straight flight.
B. Straight flight and altitude.
C. Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
D. Altitude.
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QUESTION 602 Ref 25745 ( 1 point)

A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order
to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
A. the speed at the maximum lift.
B. the long range speed.
C. the speed corresponding to the minimum value of lift I drag ratio.
D. the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift Idrag ratio.
QUESTION 603 Ref 75463 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-06)
Given:
OAT: 24˚C
Pressure Altitude: 3 000 ft
RWY: 12L
Wind: 080˚/12 kts
Take-off mass: 3 800 lbs
Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.
What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
A. 1 420 ft
B. 1 600 ft
C. 1 700 ft
D. 1 950 ft
QUESTION 604 Ref 92757 ( 1 point)
The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
A. the lift-off point.
B. the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
C. the point where V2 is reached.
D. the point half way between V1 and V2.
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QUESTION 605 Ref 74746 ( 1 point)

A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant lAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle I the pitch
angle change?
A. Reduce I decrease.
B. Reduce I remain constant.
C. Remain constant / decrease.
D. Remain constant I become larger.
QUESTION 606 Ref 63842 ( 1 point)
Given: Rate of climb: 1 000 ft/min TAS: 198 kts What is the climb gradient?
A. 5.05%
B. 4.89%
C. 4.0%
D. 4.98%
QUESTION 607 Ref 21887 ( 1 point)
Which of the following statements about the optimum flight level is true?
A. ATC never allow you to fly at it continuously.
B. You should always fly at this level because it is the most economically viable.
C. You should always fly above it.
D. You should always fly below it.
QUESTION 608 Ref 11922 ( 1 point)
At mean sea level in ISA conditions the aircraft climb gradient is 6%. Usethe corrections below to determine
the climb gradient for a pressure altitude of 1 000 ft and an air temperature of 17 °C with engine and wing
anti-icing on.
Engine anti-ice: - 0.2%
Wing anti-ice: - 0.1%
Pressure altitude: ± 0.2% (per 1 000 ft)
ISA deviation: ± 0.1% (per °C)
A. 0.055
B. 0.038
C. 0.063
D. 0.051
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QUESTION 609 Ref 39834 ( 1 point)

Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
A. VLOF
B. VMCG
C. VMU
D. VR
QUESTION 610 Ref 47969 ( 1 point)
What percentages of the headwind and tailwind components are taken into account when calculating the
take-off field length required?
A. 100% headwind and 100% tailwind.
B. 50% headwind and 150% tailwind.
C. 150% headwind and 50% tailwind.
D. 50% headwind and 100% tailwind.
QUESTION 611 Ref 40047 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-02)
With regard to the take-off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take-off
distance to a height of 50 ft. Given:
OAT: -7˚C
Pressure Altitude: 7 000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2 950 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kts
Flaps: Up
Runway: Tarred and dry
A. 1 150 ft
B. 1 400 ft
C. 2 000 ft
D. 2 450 ft
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QUESTION 612 Ref 26288 ( 1 point)

If an aircraft is descending at a constant Mach number:
A. the lAS will increase and the margin to low speed buffet will decrease.
B. the lAS will increase and the margin to low speed buffet will increase.
C. the lAS will decrease and the margin to low speed buffet will decrease.
D. the lAS will decrease and the margin to low speed buffet will increase.
QUESTION 613 Ref 89619 ( 1 point)
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct?
A. The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
B. The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
C. The VMCG will be lowered to V1·
D. V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG.
QUESTION 614 Ref 41655 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-07)
Given:
OAT: 20˚C
Pressure Altitude: 2 000 ft
RWY: 24L Wind: 120˚/8 kts
Take-off Mass: 4 500 lbs
Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the chart. What is the
Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
A. 3 400 ft
B. 4 500 ft
C. 3 600 ft
D. 4 200 ft
QUESTION 615 Ref 73134 ( 1 point)
Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
A. V2.
B. V2 + 10 kts.
C. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
D. The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.
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QUESTION 616 Ref 72463 ( 1 point)

As speed is reduced from VMD to VMP:
A. power required decreases, drag increases.
B. power required decreases, drag decreases.
C. power required increases, drag increases.
D. power required increases, drag decreases.
QUESTION 617 Ref 8132 ( 1 point)
Following a take-off determined by the 50 ft (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-
ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizomally), situated at
10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of.
A. 85 m.
B. 100 m.
C. 115 m.
D. it will not clear the obstacle.
QUESTION 618 Ref 16307 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-23)
Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the THRUST
REQUIRED CURVE? Mass M1 is higher than mass M2.
A. Diagram (A)
B. Diagram (B)
C. Diagram ( C)
D. Diagram (D)
QUESTION 619 Ref 91636 ( 1 point)
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated
landing distance plus:
A. 0.43
B. 0.92
C. 0.7
D. 0.67
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QUESTION 620 Ref 26621 ( 1 point)

(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-24)
Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the
correct curves for FLAPS DOWN compared to CLEAN configuration?
A. Diagram (A)
B. Diagram (B)
C. Diagram (C)
D. Diagram (D)
QUESTION 621 Ref 52606 ( 1 point)
Large flap settings:
A. reduce both stalling speed and drag.
B. reduce stalling speed but increase drag.
C. increase both drag and stalling speed.
D. affect neither drag nor stalling speed.
QUESTION 622 Ref 89313 ( 1 point)
Specific Range will:
A. decrease if CG is moved further forward of the C of P.
B. increase if CG is moved further forward of the C of P.
C. not be affected by CG position.
D. only be affected by CG position, if it is behind the C of P.
QUESTION 623 Ref 90845 ( 1 point)
Which of the following will probably result in the greatest increase in take-off distance for a single-engined
piston aeroplane?
A. Headwind; downslope; high surface temperature.
B. Headwind; downslope; low surface temperature.
C. Tailwind; downslope; high surface temperature.
D. Tailwind; upslope; high surface temperature.
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QUESTION 624 Ref 57387 ( 1 point)

The effect an increase of weight has on the value of stalling speed (lAS) is that VS:
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. remains constant.
D. increases or decreases, depending on the amount of weight increase.
QUESTION 625 Ref 87038 ( 1 point)
An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack, mass and configuration.
With increasing altitude the drag:
A. remains unchanged but the CAS increases.
B. increases at constant TAS.
C. decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.
D. remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
QUESTION 626 Ref 72090 ( 1 point)
The estimated braking action for a runway having a friction coefficient of 0.35 would be:
A. Good
B. Medium
C. Poor
D. Unreliable
QUESTION 627 Ref 77310 ( 1 point)
The service ceiling of an aircraft is:
A. the altitude where rate of climb is zero.
B. the highest altitude permitted for flight because of manoeuvre capability.
C. the altitude where a low specific rate of climb is achieved.
D. the altitude above which cruising speed cannot be maintained.
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QUESTION 628 Ref 4414 ( 1 point)

What rate of climb will be achieved with a climb gradient of 3.3% and a groundspeed of 100 kts?
A. 300 ft/min.
B. 330 ft/min.
C. 370 ft/min.
D. 400 ft/min.
QUESTION 629 Ref 77724 ( 1 point)
The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
A. engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs.
B. obstacle clearance after engine failure.
C. climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude.
D. weight during landing at the alternate.
QUESTION 630 Ref 52192 ( 1 point)
What will happen to VX and VY if the landing gear is extended?
A. VX decreases and VY increases.
B. VX and VY decreases.
C. VX and VY increases.
D. VX increases, VY decreases.
QUESTION 631 Ref 83989 ( 1 point)
In accordance with CS-25, the reference landing speed (VREF) has the following minimum margin above the
reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSRO):
A. 0.23
B. 0.15
C. 0.2
D. 0.1
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QUESTION 632 Ref 74890 ( 1 point)

The drift down requirements are based on:
A. the Landing Mass limit at the alternate.
B. the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
C. the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
D. the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.
QUESTION 633 Ref 52771 ( 1 point)
VY is defined as:
A. speed for best rate of descent.
B. speed for best angle of climb.
C. speed for best rate of climb.
D. maximum speed which should be used in a climb.
QUESTION 634 Ref 3356 ( 1 point)
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5%, assuming the engines specific
consumption remains unchanged, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:
A. 0.075
B. 0.1
C. 0.025
D. 0.05
QUESTION 635 Ref 5854 ( 1 point)
A change in aeroplane weight affects:
A. glide angle.
B. glide speed.
C. glide angle and glide speed.
D. neither glide angle nor glide speed.
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QUESTION 636 Ref 23141 ( 1 point)

The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the:
A. glide angle increases.
B. aircraft mass decreases.
C. TAS decreases.
D. lAS increases.
QUESTION 637 Ref 61733 ( 1 point)
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by:
A. the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
B. the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.
C. the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
D. the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
QUESTION 638 Ref 30984 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-04)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach
a height of 1 500 ft above the reference zero in the following conditions, given:
OAT at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 5 000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3 200 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 5 kts tailwind
A. 14 900 ft
B. 16 900 ft
C. 13 900 ft
D. 20 200 ft
QUESTION 639 Ref 17682 ( 1 point)
(For this question, refer to Appendix 032-22)
Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing
altitude (H1 < H2)?
A. Figure B.
B. Figure A.
C. Figure D.
D. Figure C.
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QUESTION 640 Ref 42220 ( 1 point)

VX is defined as:
A. the speed for best angle of climb.
B. the speed for best rate of climb.
C. the speed for best specific range.
D. the speed for best angle of flight path.
QUESTION 641 Ref 21346 ( 1 point)
For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account?
A. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight.
B. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight.
C. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight.
D. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight.
QUESTION 642 Ref 57312 ( 1 point)
Which statement is correct?
A. VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.
B. VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
C. VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
D. VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
QUESTION 643 Ref 36951 ( 1 point)
How does the slush thickness affect the V1 reduction required?
A. Greater reduction if thicker.
B. Smaller reduction if thicker.
C. No effect if mass is reduced.
D. No effect at all.
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QUESTION 644 Ref 45614 ( 1 point)

In a turbojet aircraft, if an engine fails in the second segment of the climb at a speed of V2 + 10 kts the
correct action would be to:
A. increase speed to V2 + 20 kts.
B. maintain V2 + 10 kts.
C. reduce speed to V2.
D. level off immediately and commence flap retraction.
QUESTION 645 Ref 24221 ( 1 point)
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
A. maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.
B. holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
C. maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
D. maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.
QUESTION 646 Ref 93149 ( 1 point)
Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
A. When determining the V , reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining
symmetric engines.
B. The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
C. V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR.
D. V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG·
QUESTION 647 Ref 91859 ( 1 point)
The main reason for using the stepped climb technique is to:
A. decrease sector times.
B. increase endurance.
C. adhere to ATC procedures.
D. increase range.
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QUESTION 648 Ref 36532 ( 1 point)

A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. lAS increases and TAS decreases.
B. lAS increases and TAS increases.
C. lAS decreases and TAS increases.
D. lAS decreases and TAS decreases.
QUESTION 649 Ref 91648 ( 1 point)
Given:
VS = Stalling speed
VMCA = Air minimum control speed
VMU = Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)
V1 = Take-off decision speed
VR = Rotation speed
V2MIN = Minimum take-off safety speed
VLOF = Lift-off speed
The correct formula is:
A. VS < VMCA < V2 min
B. VR < VMCA < VLOF
C. VMU ≤ VMCA < V1
D. V2 MIN < VMCA > VMU
QUESTION 650 Ref 32114 ( 1 point)
Given:
Still Air climb gradient: 3.8%
TAS: 100 kts GS: 130 kts
What is the effective wind climb gradient?
A. 4.9%
B. 4.2%
C. 3.8%
D. 2.9%
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QUESTION 651 Ref 86997 ( 1 point)

When flying an aircraft on the back of the drag curve, maintaining a slower speed (but still faster than VS)
would require:
A. more flap.
B. less thrust due to less parasite drag.
C. more thrust.
D. no change.