1. Which mineral group is abundantly found in the earth’s crust?

a) Mica group
b) Felspar group
c) Oxide group
d) Silicate group

2. Felspar is found abundantly or in majority in which kind of rock?

a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Fossil rocks

3. The chemical composition of the feldspar group is __________

a) Oxide
b) Aluminates
c) Silicates
d) Aluminosilicates

4. In the atomic structure, each oxygen atom is shared by how many tetrahedra?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

5. The crystallographic system shown by felspar group is __________

a) Monoclinic
b) Triclinic
c) Rhomboclinic
d) Monoclinic and triclinic

6. How many groups are the felspar minerals classified into, on the basis of chemical
composition?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

7. The felspar minerals are free from __________

a) Iron
b) Iron and manganese
c) Magnesium
d) Iron and magnesium

8. What is the chemical composition of Orthoclase?

a) K Al O8
b) Ca Al Si3O8
c) K Al Si3 O8
d) Ca Al O8
9. What is the distinguishing characteristic of microcline and orthoclase?
a) Colour
b) Streak
c) Chemical composition
d) Hardness

10. Which of the following is not true about plagioclase?

a) It is composed of K mainly
b) It is composed of either Na, Ca, or Al
c) It is of massive or crystalline structure
d) It gives 2 sets of cleavages

11. The mica group minerals show which structure in the microscopic level?
a) Box structure
b) Sheet structure
c) Hexagonal structure
d) Columnar structure

12. What percent of crust do the micas form approximately?

a) 20%
b) More than 60%
c) 4%
d) 40%

13. Which is the less important and more important and less important minerals crystallize
respectively?
a) Triclinic and monoclinic
b) Monoclinic and triclinic
c) Monoclinic and rhombohedral
d) Rhombohedral and triclinic

14. What type of cleavage is shown by mica group?

a) Perfect cubic cleavage
b) Perfect octahedral cleavage
c) Perfect basal cleavage
d) Prismatic cleavage

15. Which mineral is flaky and black in appearance?

a) Biotite mica
b) Muscovite mica
c) Diamond
d) Jaspar

16. What is the other name of muscovite mica?

a) Black mica
b) Potash mica
c) Vitreous mica
d) Glossy mica
17. What is the diaphaneity of muscovite mica?
a) Opaque
b) Transparent
c) Translucent
d) Any form

18. What is the streak given by muscovite mica?

a) White
b) Black
c) Yellow
d) Colourless
19. Pick the wrong statement about mica.
a) They have high hardness
b) They have low hardness
c) They are usually transparent to translucent
d) They are used as good electrical insulators
20. What is the distinguishing property between biotite mica and muscovite mica?
a) Streak
b) Lustre
c) Colour
d) Hardness
21. What is the chemical composition of Quartz?
a) SiO4
b) Si2O3
c) SiO2
d) Al2O3
22. Which quartz mineral shows blue colour?
a) Rose quartz
b) Blue quartz
c) Smoky quartz
d) Rock crystal
23. Rock crystal belongs to which mineral group?
a) Quartz group
b) Feldspar group
c) Carbonate group
d) Ferro-magnesium group
24. Pick the quartz mineral which is translucent among the following.
a) Rose quartz
b) Agate
c) Amethyst quartz
d) Milky quartz
25. The streak given by the quartz group is __________________
a) White
b) Colourless
c) Blue
d) Pale yellow
26. Pick the quartz which is colourless among the following.
a) Rose quartz
b) Smoky quartz
c) Milky quartz
d) Rock crystal
27. What is the hardness of the quartz minerals?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 2
d) 4
28. What is the colour of rose quartz attributed to?
a) Iron
b) Titanium
c) Aluminium
d) Sandstone
29. The mineral not belonging to the quartz group is ___________
a) Amethyst
b) Agate
c) Jasper
d) Calcite
30. What is the cleavage shown by quartz minerals?
a) Basal
b) Prismatic
c) Rhombohedral
d) No cleavage
31. Quartz is found in which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
32. Carbonate minerals are found usually in ___________
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
d) Metamorphic and igneous rocks
33. Name the carbonate mineral which is found in ultrabasic igneous rocks.
a) Dolomite
b) Calcite
c) Magnesite
d) Jasper
34. What is the structure or form of dolomite?
a) Rhombohedral
b) Columnar
c) Tabular
d) Flaky
35. What is the colour of the magnesite when pure?
a) Yellow
b) Bone white
c) Blue
d) Black
36. What is the colour and diaphaneity of a calcite mineral respectively?
a) Yellow and opaque
b) Blue and transparent
c) White and transparent
d) Grey and translucent
37. What is the streak given by calcite minerals?
a) Colourless
b) White
c) Black
d) Yellow
38. Dolomite is formed by the action of magnesian rich sea water on which deposit?
a) Limestone
b) Sandstone
c) Granite
d) Basalt
39. Which carbonate mineral has this chemical composition- CaCO3 Mg(CO3)2?
a) Magnesite
b) Calcite
c) Dolomite
d) Jasper
40. Which lustre cannot occur to the calcite?
a) Adamantine
b) Waxy
c) Vitreous
d) Silky
41. How many sets of cleavage is shown by calcite minerals usually?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
42. Which mineral is used as refractory material?
a) Calcite
b) Rock crystal
c) Talc
d) Magnesite
43. What is the chemical composition of Baryte?
a) BaSO4
b) CaSO4
c) BaCO3
d) CaCO3
43. What is the use of corundum?
a) Used as an abrasive
b) Used as precious gemstones
c) Used as Construction materials
d) Used as abrasive and precious gemstones
44. The semi-precious gemstone not belonging to corundum is _______________
a) Ruby
b) Sapphire
c) Diamond
d) Oriental emerald
45. Pick the correct statement about talc.
a) It has very high hardness
b) It is not used in the manufacture of talcum powders
c) It has lowest hardness
d) It is found in igneous rocks
46. The ferro-magnesium mineral which occurs in ultra-basic igneous rocks is __________
a) Magnesite
b) Olivine
c) Baryte
d) Corundum
47. What is the diaphaneity of pure gypsum?
a) Opaque
b) Transparent
c) Translucent
d) Opaque or transparent
48. Pick the wrong statement about talc.
a) It is a very soft mineral
b) It is used in talcum powders
c) It is usually white or green in colour
d) It is also used as precious gemstones
49. Augite mainly consists of __________
a) Fe
b) Fe and Mn
c) Fe and Ca
d) Fe and Mg
50. What is the form or structure of asbestos?
a) Massive
b) Flaky
c) Tabular
d) Globular
51. What is the colour and streak of olivine respectively?
a) White and green
b) Olive green and white
c) Yellow and green
d) Green and no streak
52. What is the streak given by garnet?
a) White
b) Black
c) Grey
d) No colour
53. What is the form or structure of corundum?
a) Tabular, flaky
b) Schistose, columnar
c) Hexagonal, columnar
d) Globular, tabular
54. The branch of geology which deals with the morphology, classification, mechanism and
causes of development of these rock structures is called as ___________
a) Rock geology
b) Structural geology
c) Basic geology
d) Lithology
55. Stratification can be seen widely in which of the following rocks?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Metamorphic rocks
c) Sedimentary rocks
d) Fossil rocks
56. Most widespread rock on earth is _____________
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) All are in equal quantities
57. Which of the following about lamination is not true?
a) It is closely related to stratification
b) It is literally paper thin
c) It is a layered structure developed in extremely fine grained igneous rocks
d) It is a layered structure developed in extremely fine grained sedimentary rocks
58. The maximum angle of inclination of a layer of a rock with the horizontal is

a) Dip
b) Heave angle
c) Strike
d) Depth
59. Angle of dip is measured using which instrument?
a) Compass
b) Theodolite
c) Tacheometer
d) Clinometer
60. Which among the following is not a type of dip?
a) Widespread dip
b) Primary dip
c) Secondary dip
d) Local and regional dip
61. The term “intrusion” is basically associated with which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Not associated with any type of rock
62. The dip which involves tectonic forces is _____________
a) Primary dip
b) Secondary dip
c) Local and Regional dip
d) No dip involves tectonic forces
63. A coal seam is exposed on a horizontal ground. If it is 30° towards West. Its width of
outcrop on a level ground is 360 m. What is its true thickness?
a) 120 m
b) 150 m
c) 160 m
d) 180 m
Explanation: The equation to calculate True thickness is given by
True thickness = Width of outcrop * Sin 30°
By substitution and calculation, we get 180 m.
True thickness = 360 * sin (30°) = 180 m

64. At a dam site, a bed of sandstone is exposed on horizontal ground. If it is 25° towards
East. Its width of outcrop on a level ground is 240 m, what is its vertical thickness?
a) 101.9 m
b) 99.9 m
c) 111.9 m
d) 121.9 m
Explanation: Vertical thickness = Width of outcrop * tan (angle of inclination)
Vertical thickness = 240 * tan (25°) = 111.91 m

65. The study of outcrop dimensions doesn’t involve which of the following aspect?
a) Width
b) Thickness and depth
c) Dip and strike
d) Rock composition and type
66. Foliation is a primary structure of which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Not associated with any rock
67. The dip of a layer measured in the direction that is at the right angle to strike is

a) True dip
b) Apparent dip
c) Straight dip
d) Normal dip
68. Which of the following is not true about a mineral?
a) Naturally occurring
b) Inorganic substance
c) Organic substance
d) Definite chemical composition
69. Mineralogy deals with?
a) Individual properties of minerals
b) Formation of minerals
c) More of occurrence
d) Properties, formation and occurrence
70. A colour is produced due to ___________
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Absorption
d) Reflection and absorption
71. Colour of a mineral depends upon its?
a) Atomic structure
b) Outer surface
c) Composition
d) Atomic structure and composition
72. Metallic minerals belong to which category with respect to colour?
a) Idiochromatic
b) Pseudochromatic
c) Allochromatic
d) Iridescence
73. The type of mineral showing variable colour is?
a) Idiochromatic
b) Allochromatic
c) Iridescence
d) Pseudochromatic
74. The type of mineral which shows a set of colours in succession is?
a) Idiochromatic
b) Pseudochromatic
c) Allochromatic
d) Iridescence
75. Pseudochromatism occurs due to ___________
a) Reflection
b) Transmittance
c) Refraction
d) Simultaneous reflection and refraction
76. The phenomenon due to which a mineral shows rainbow colours is?
a) Idiochromatism
b) Allochromatism
c) Iridescence
d) Pseudochromatism
77. Colour changing phenomenon which involves oxidation is ____________
a) Tarnish
b) Iridescence
c) Allochromatic
d) Idiochromatic
78. Lustre doesn’t depend on?
a) Refractive index mineral
b) Absorption of mineral
c) Transmittance of mineral
d) Nature of reflecting surface
79. High density, high refractive index is characteristic of ___________
a) Non-metallic minerals
b) Metallic minerals
c) Semi-metallic minerals
d) Metalloid minerals
80. Type of shine or lustre associated with lustre of diamond is ___________
a) Adamantine
b) Metallic
c) Pearly
d) Vitreous
81. Streak is an important diagnostic property of ___________
a) Non-coloured minerals
b) Coloured minerals
c) Metallic minerals
d) Non-metallic minerals
82. Which mineral gives streak?
a) Coloured and translucent
b) Colourless and opaque
c) Coloured and opaque
d) Coloured and transparent
83. The mineral which is almost black but gives brown streak is?
a) Magnetite
b) Garnet
c) Hornblende
d) Chromite
84. Hardness of a mineral depends upon ___________
a) Chemical composition
b) Atomic constitution
c) Chemical composition and atomic constitution
d) Physical makeup
85. The scale of hardness is?
a) Ritcher
b) Mohs
c) Ohm
d) Mho
86. What is the mineral which contains a metallic element which can be economically
exploited called?
a) Ore mineral
b) Metallic mineral
c) Eco-ore
d) Eco-mineral
87. The definition of ore is dependent on ______________
a) Quantity
b) Size
c) Colour
d) Quality
88. The non-metallic minerals associated with ore minerals are called _____________
a) Non-metallic minerals
b) Metallic minerals
c) Gangue minerals
d) Flux minerals
89. How many types of rocks are there on the basis of time of formation?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
90. The deposits that have formed simultaneously with the enclosing rock are called

a) Syngenetic
b) Epigenetic
c) Syncgenetic
d) Sinclogenetic
91. Deposits that were formed subsequent to the formation of the host rocks are called
a) Syngenetic
b) Epigenetic
c) Syncgenetic
d) Sinclogenetic
92. The deposits occurring close to the roofs of magmatic masses _____________
a) Magmatic deposits
b) Pegmatite deposits
c) Hydrothermal deposits
d) Metasomatic
93. Which of the following is not an essential condition for hydrothermal deposits?
a) Highly active fluids
b) Highly enriched fluids
c) Highly inactive fluids
d) Suitable pathways
94. Type of veins which are bodies of tubular shape in pre-existing fissures?
a) Fissure-veins
b) Ladder-veins
c) Gash-veins
d) Stock works
95. The type of vein commonly found in igneous rocks is _____________
a) Fissure-veins
b) Ladder-veins
c) Gash-veins
d) Stock works
96. Gash-veins are generally found in _____________
a) Silicate minerals
b) Felspar minerals
c) Metallic minerals
d) Carbonate minerals
97. When gravity is the agent of placing of deposit, the deposit is called _____________
a) Deluvial deposit
b) Aeolian deposit
c) Alluvial deposit
d) Beach placers
98. The term used for the rock hydrothermal deposits that occur in veins of exceptionally
small size, but in good number is _____________
a) Fissure-veins
b) Ladder-veins
c) Gash-veins
d) Stock works
99: The term "ore" includes:

(a) Ore minerals only.

(b) Gangue minerals only.

(c) Ore Minerals and gangue minerals both.

(d) Gangue and tenor.

100: The term 'Tenor" indicates:

(a)The metal content of an ore.

(b) The gangue content of-an ore.

(c) The method of formation of mineral deposits.

(d) The ore percent in a ore deposits.

101 : Pyrite would be expected to form in a :

(a) Oxidising environment.

(b) Reducing environment.

(c) Both oxidising and reducing environments.

(d) None of these.

102 :The early magmatic deposits are usually formed by :

(a) Simple crystallisation without concentration.

(b) Segregation of early formed crystals.

(c) Injections ot materials concentrated elsewhere by differentiation.

(d) All the above.

103 : Nickeliterous sulphide deposits ot sudbury (U.S.A.) is an example of :

(a) Dissemination.

(b) Residual liquid injection.

(C) lmmiscible liquid segregation.

(d) lmmiscible liquid injection.

104 : The larger crystals in the core ot zoned pegmatetes are the result of :

(a) High viscosity.

(b ) Low viscosity.

(c) High temperature.

(d) Low temperature.

105 : Pegmatitic deposits are usually formed between :

(a) 200°c to 5oo°c.

(b) 400°c to 1000°c

(c) 500°c to 800°.

(d) 800°c to 1200°c.

106 : Contact-metasomatism ls also known as :

(a) Orthostatic.

(b) Pyro metasomatism.

(c) Orthomagmatic.

(d) None of the above.

107: Mark the correct statement regarding contact-metasomatic deposits:

(a) These deposits are formed under high temperature and pressure condition.

(b) These deposits are generally discontinuous and irregular in shape.

(c) Commonly the ores are coarse in texture.

(d) All the statements are correct.

108 : Low quartz is formed :

(a) Above 573°c.

(b) Below 573°c.

(c) Above 543°c.

(d) Below 543°c.

109 : Hydrothermal deposits are mostly :

(a) Syngenetic.

(b) Epigenetic.

(c) Residual.

(d) Placer.
110: Exothermal deposits are characterised by:

(a) High initial temperature and pressure.

(b) Shallow depth of formation.

(c) Rapid cooling.

(d) All the above.

111: Masses of country-rocks enclosed within the fissure vein deposits are known as:

(a) Bugs.

(b) Ribbon structure.

(c) Horses.

(d) Pinches.

112 : Solution cavity fillings occur most commonly in :

(a) Granite rocks.

(b) Limestone rocks.

(c) Conglomerate rocks.

(d) Vesicular basalts.

113: Metasomatic replacement is the dominating process of mineral deposition in the

(a) Hypothermal deposit.

(b) Mesothermal deposit.

(c) Epithermal deposit.

(d) Hypothermal and Mesothermal deposits.

114.The dip of a unit represents the ___________ .

direction of intersection of the rock layer an a horizontal surface

part of the unit which has been eroded
angle at which the bed inclines from the horizontal
tilt of the rock unit before deformation
115.If you are flying in an airplane and you look down at the landscape, you are seeing a
___________ view of the Earth.

map
cross-sectional
lateral
horizontal

116.If look at a vertical face of a cliff or a roadcut, you are seeing a ___________ view of the
Earth.

map
cross-sectional
lateral
horizontal

117. Which of the following types of tectonic forces tends to push two sides of a body in
opposite directions so that they slide horizontally past one another?

tensional forces
shearing forces
compressive forces
none of these

118. What type of forces dominate at divergent plate margins?

tensional forces
shearing forces
compressive forces
none of these

119. What type of forces dominate at convergent plate margins?

tensional forces
shearing forces
compressive forces
none of these

120. The angle at which a sedimentary bed is inclined from the horizontal is called the _____.

anticline
strike
 syncline
dip

121. Which of the following is not a tectonic force responsible for folding or faulting rocks?

compressive force
tensional force
shear force
all of these are tectonic forces

122. The two sides of a fold are called its ________ .

anticlines
synclines
limbs
axial planes

123. At convergent plate boundaries one would expect to find _______.

folds
faults
folds and faults
neither folds or faults

124. At divergent plate boundaries one would expect to find _______.

folds
faults
folds and faults
neither folds or faults

125. At transform plate boundaries one would expect to find _______.

folds
faults
folds and faults
neither folds or faults

126. Which of the following statements about rock deformation is false?

deep crustal rocks are more likely to deform ductily than shallow crustal rocks
hotter rocks are more likely to deform ductily than cooler rocks
 most sedimentary rocks are more deformable than igneous rocks
rocks under low confining pressure are more likely to deform ductily than rocks
under high confining pressure

127. An overturned fold is characterized by ___________ .

two limbs at right angles to one another

two limbs dipping in the same direction - with one tilted beyond vertical
two limbs dipping in opposite directions
two limbs not parallel to each other

128. What types of tectonic forces cause faulting?

compressive forces
tensional forces
shearing forces
all of these

129. Which of the following is an example of a fault where the motion is primarily
horizontal?

a strike slip fault

a right-lateral fault
a transform fault
all of these

130. What types of faults are associated with shearing forces?

normal faults
reverse faults
strike-slip
all of these

131. What type of fault is characterized by the rocks above the fault plane moving downward
relative to the rocks below the fault plane?

normal faults
reverse faults
strike-slip
all of these
132. The structure shown above is a(n) ________.

anticline
syncline
basin
dome

133. The structure shown above is a(n) ________.

horizontal and symmetric

horizontal and asymmetric
plunging and symmetric
plunging and asymmetric

134. What are the undulations or bends developed in rocks called?

a) Faults
b) Joints
c) Folds
d) Uncomformity
135. Folds develop in which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Any type of rock
136. Which type of deformation is folding?
a) Brittle
b) Ductile
c) Tensile
d) Malleable
137. Folding is ________ process.
a) Very slow
b) Rapid
c) Quick
d) Moderate rate
138. Which among the following is not a part of fold?
a) Limbs
b) Hinge
c) Axis of fold
d) Height of fold
139. The minimum number of limbs for a fold are _____________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
140. The point where the curvature is maximum is ________
a) Hinge
b) Axial surface
c) Nucleus
d) Fold point
141. When the plunge said to be zero, then the axis of the fold is said to be ____________
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined at 60° to the horizontal
d) Inclined at 60° to its normal.
142. What is the axis of a fold?
a) Line drawn normal to the hinge line
b) Line drawn at 60° to hinge line
c) Line drawn parallel to hinge line
d) Line which doesn’t pass through hinge line.
143. How is the plunge of a fold measured?
a) Direction
b) Degree
c) Depth
d) Both direction and degree
144. Identify the part labelled “A” in the below figure.

a) Limb
b) Hinge
c) Axis of fold
d) Plunge
145. Which of the following about axial plane is not true.
a) Axial plane is imaginary
b) Axial plane may be vertical, inclined or horizontal
c) Axial plane may be planar or non-planar
d) Axial plane need not pass through all points of maximum curvature in a folded
sequence
146. The type of fold in which the limbs dip away from each other at the crest is
a) Anticline
b) Syncline
c) Countercline
d) Doesn’t exist
147. The fold which is convex downwards is ___________
a) Anticline
b) Syncline
c) U-cline
d) Crestcline
148. Which of the following is not true about Anticline?
a) The strata are uparched
b) Geologically older rocks occupy a position in the interior of the fold
c) The limbs dip away from each other at the crest
d) They are convex downwards
149. What is the other name for upright fold?
a) Symmetrical fold
b) Asymmetrical fold
c) Overturned fold
d) Isoclinal fold
150. Fold in which the limbs lie exactly one over another?
a) Isoclinal
b) Symmetrical
c) Recumbent
d) Asymmetrical
151. Which of the following is also an overturned fold?
a) Isoclinal fold
b) Symmetrical fold
c) Asymmetrical fold
d) Recumbent fold
152. Fold with flattened top is ___________
a) Square fold
b) Plateau fold
c) Box fold
d) Conjugate fold
153. The type of fold in which fold angle is between 10° to 90°?
a) Tight fold
b) Loose fold
c) Gentle fold
d) Acute fold
154. Which of the following is not a type of fold based on behaviour with depth?
a) Concentric fold
b) Similar fold
c) Supratenuous fold
d) Asymmetrical fold
155. Where can folds be observed in the southern part of India?
a) Vindhyan region only
b) Satpura region only
c) Vindhyan and Satpura ranges
d) Cannot be observed in southern India
156. Where is the Liddar Valley Anticline situated?
a) Kashmir Himalayas
b) Uttarakhand Himalayas
c) Sikkim Himalayas
d) Himachal Pradesh Himalayas
157. Pick the wrong statement about recumbent fold.
a) It has the arch, which is zone of curvature
b) It has the shell, which is the inner zone, made up of mostly igneous rocks
c) It has the shell, which is the outer zone, made up of mostly sedimentary rocks
d) It has the core, which is the innermost zone, maybe made up of igneous rocks and
metamorphic rocks
158. The type of fold which is actually a group of folds is ____________
a) Symmetrical folds
b) Asymmetrical folds
c) Isoclinal folds
d) Recumbent folds
159. In which class of folds, the Isogans converge inwards?
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
d) Class 4
160. Identify the class to which the fold below belongs to ___________

a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
d) Class 4
161. Which is the type of fold with a similar degree of folding for indefinite depths?
a) Concentric fold
b) Similar fold
c) Conjugate fold
d) Uniform fold
162. Gentle folds have fold angle between ___________
a) 10° to 90°
b) 90° to 170°
c) 170° to 180°
d) They don’t belong to this type
163. Which is the class of fold with the degree of curvature greater on the outer arc compared
to the inner arc?
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
d) Class 4
164. The fold which is associated with the formation of mountains is ___________
a) Geanticline
b) Geosyncline
c) Homocline
d) Basin
165. The anticlines signifying larger bending are called ___________
a) Geranticlines
b) Geosynclines
c) Geanticlines
d) Geoantinclines
166. The folds caused due to the drag effect are ___________
a) Monocline
b) Homocline
c) Basins
d) Drag folds
167. How many types of folds are there with plunge as a basis?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5
168. What is a plunging fold?
a) Fold with fold axis horizontal
b) Fold with fold axis only vertical
c) Fold with fold axis not horizontal
d) This is not a type of fold
169. A fold in which the folding continues in the direction of the axis of the fold is
a) Plunging fold
b) Non-plunging fold
c) Similar fold
d) Doesn’t exist
170. A fold which is not based on the profile of the folded strata is ___________
a) Cheveron fold
b) Conjugate fold
c) Cuspate fold
d) Plunging fold
171. Folds with two hinges and three planar limbs are called ___________
a) Conjugate folds
b) Cheveron folds
c) Cuspate folds
d) Cylindrical folds
172. Folds characterized by well-defined, sharp hinge points are called ___________
a) Conjugate folds
b) Cheveron folds
c) Cuspate folds
d) Cylindrical folds
173. Pick the non-planar fold from the following.
a) Box fold
b) Cheveron fold
c) Conjugate fold
d) Cuspate fold
174. Which of the following is not true about cylindrical folds?
a) They resemble sections of pipes
b) They have very well defined axes of folds
c) These well defined axes are repeated parallel to each other
d) These well defined axes are not repeated parallel to each other
175. Identify the type of fold shown below.

a) Conjugate fold
b) Cheveron fold
c) Cuspate fold
d) Cylindrical fold
176. Folds which mostly occur in groups are based on ___________
a) Profile of the fold surface
b) Mode of occurrence
c) Plunge
d) Relative curvature
177. Which of the following about drag fold is not true?
a) The axes of the drag folds are parallel to those of the major folds
b) The drag folds plunge in the same manner as the major folds
c) The layers on the upper side of the drag folds slide away from the synclinal axis
d) The axes of the drag folds are not parallel to those of the major folds
178. What are the fractures along which there has been relative movement of blocks called?
a) Folds
b) Joints
c) Faults
d) Intrusions
179. What is the key word in the definition of fault?
a) Fracture
b) Movement
c) Both fracture and movement
d) Dip
180. Faulting is a _________ process.
a) Tectonic
b) Non-tectonic
c) Both tectonic and non-tectonic
d) Precipitation
181. In which direction does the displacement of blocks happen?
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Inclined
d) Any direction
182. What is the angle that can be made by fault plane with the horizontal?
a) Acute angle only
b) Obtuse angle only
c) Right angle
d) Any angle
183. What is the planar surface of fracture along which relative displacement of bodies has
taken place called?
a) Fault plane
b) Fold plane
c) Stress plane
d) Strain plane
184. What is the angle of fault plane with the horizontal called?
a) Hade
b) Strike
c) Dip
d) Inclination
185. Parameter(s) considered for dip is ___________
a) Direction
b) Angle
c) Direction and angle
d) Neither direction nor angle
186. What is hade?
a) Inclination of fault with horizontal
b) Inclination of fault with vertical
c) Inclination of fault with any strata
d) Bearing of the fault with ground
187. What is the bearing of a line of intersection of fault plane and horizontal called?
a) Strike
b) Dip
c) Hade
d) Intersection line
188. A fault has how many walls?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
189. What is the block which suffer displacement in faulting called?
a) Walls
b) Parts
c) Sections
d) Blocks
190. The block which lies on the under surface of fault plane or zone is called ___________
a) Hanging wall
b) Sub-wall
c) Foot wall
d) Lower wall
191. Who coined the terms “hanging wall” and “foot wall”?
a) Scientists
b) Geologists
c) Engineers
d) Miners
192. What is a small region with definite thickness and distinct composition having numerous
closely placed parallel fractures called?
a) Shear zone
b) Fault zone
c) Fracture zone
d) Slikensides
193. What is the nature of displacement in shear zone?
a) Ductile
b) Brittle
c) Malleable
d) Sonorous
194. Identify the part labelled as “A” in the figure below.

a) Shear zones
b) Fracture zone
c) Fault zone
d) A-zone
195. Slip is expressed in terms of ___________
a) Millimetres
b) Metres
c) Kilometres
d) All the three
196. The type of slip not considered for study is ___________
a) Strike slip
b) Dip slip
c) Hade slip
d) Oblique slip
197. What is the vertical component of dip separation called?
a) Offset
b) Throw
c) Heave
d) Strike gap
198. Heave is _______
a) Horizontal component of dip separation
b) Vertical component of dip separation
c) Normal horizontal displacement measured
d) Signifying separation between two beds
199. What signifies the actual separation between two beds?
a) Throw
b) Offset
c) Heave
d) Stratigraphic throw
200. What is the term related to slickensides and used to express the angular relationship?
a) Rake
b) Tweak
c) Slick
d) Offset
201. Pick the term which is not a crushed material.
a) Gouge
b) Fault breccia
c) Kaolynite
d) Mylonite
202. What is also called as Micro breccia?
a) Gouge
b) Mylonite
c) Kaolynite
d) Shale
203. The finely pulverized, clay-like powdered rock material is ___________
a) Gouge
b) Fault breccia
c) Mylonite
d) Illite
204. Identify the type of slip from the figure below.

a) Strike slip
b) Dip slip
c) Oblique slip
d) Throw slip
205. Identify the part labelled as “A” in the figure below.

a) Throw
b) Slickensides
c) Heave
d) Offset
206. Identify the region marked as “OP2”.
a) Slip
b) Throw
c) Heave
d) Strike
207. Which type of classification emphasises on appearance?
a) Based on direction of slip
b) Based on apparent movement
c) Based on mode of occurrence
d) Based on amount of dip of the fault
208. Type of fault not considered under apparent movement as basis is ___________
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Hinge fault
d) Strike fault
209. Fault in which hanging wall has apparently moved down with respect to foot wall is

a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Hinge fault
210. What do the normal faults cause to the crust of the Earth?
a) Shortening of crest
b) Cracking of crest
c) Extension in the crust
d) Strengthening of crust
211. Most common angle of normal faults is ___________
a) 30° to 45°
b) 45° to vertical
c) 60° to horizontal
d) 0° to 180°
212. What is the other name for normal faults?
a) Uniform faults
b) Hade faults
c) Similar faults
d) Gravity faults
213. Alps in an example of which type of fault?
a) Graben
b) Horst
c) Hinge fault
d) Vertical fault
214. Horst and graben are physiographic features of which type of faults?
a) Normal faults
b) Reverse faults
c) Thrust faults
d) Strike-slip faults
215. The type of fault which appears in such a way that the central wedge appears raised high
up with respect to the sides is ___________
a) Graben
b) Horst
c) Nappe
d) Thrust
216. Block mountains are caused by which type of faults?
a) Horst
b) Graben
c) Thrust
d) Nappes
217. Which fault is the reverse of horst?
a) Reverse fault
b) Radial fault
c) Graben
d) Hinge fault
218. Horsts and grabens are believed to occur due to ___________
a) Lateral compression
b) Shear compression
c) Lateral tension
d) Bending
219. Faults involving extensive blocks and resulting in horsts and grabens are called
___________
a) Extensive faults
b) Block faults
c) H-B faults
d) Vertical faults
220. Faults in which the fault plane is vertical and the resulting movement is vertical is
___________
a) Vertical faults
b) Straight faults
c) Reverse faults
d) Enecholon faults
221. In which fault the hanging wall appears to have moved up with respect to the foot wall?
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Hinge fault
d) Radial fault
222. The fault in which the fault plane is generally inclined between 45° and horizontal is
___________
a) Reverse fault
b) Normal fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Enechelon fault
223. What does the reverse fault cause to the crust of the Earth?
a) Extension of the crust
b) Strengthening of the crust
c) Weakening of the crust
d) Shortening of the crust
224. Thrust faults belong to which variety of faults?
a) Normal faults
b) Reverse faults
c) Strike-slip faults
d) Hinge faults
225. What is the fault angle of the thrust faults?
a) More than 45°
b) Less than 45°
c) Lesser than 60°
d) More than 90°
226. The type of thrust in which the hanging wall seems to have been actively and actually
displaced with respect to a passive foot wall is called ___________
a) Under thrust
b) Over thrust
c) Upper thrust
d) Intermediate thrust
227. Which mountain range presents example of thrust faults?
a) The Alps
b) The Andes
c) The Rockies
d) The Himalaya
228. What is the term used for blocks or rocks that have been translated to great distances?
a) Thrusts
b) Imbricate structures
c) Nappes
d) Enecholon
229. The term which studied under faults but also is associated with folding is ___________
a) Nappes
b) Thrusts
c) Radial fault
d) Graben
230. The phenomenon not associated with imbricate structures is ___________
a) Series of thrust blocks occur in close proximity
b) Thrust blocks are piled up one above another
c) All fault surfaces dip in the same direction
d) Thrust blocks aren’t piled up one above another
231. Most common term used for strike-slip faults is ___________
a) Slip fault
b) Transform fault
c) Tranlational fault
d) Hinge fault
232. The type of fault where the faulted blocks have been moved against each other in
horizontal direction is ___________
a) Reverse fault
b) Hinge fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Vertical fault
233. Which fault is developed in oceanic ridges?
a) Wrench faults
b) Transform faults
c) Lateral faults
d) Transverse faults
234. San Andres fault is the best example of which type of fault?
a) Strike-slip fault
b) Vertical fault
c) Normal fault
d) Reverse fault
235. Identify the type of fault from the figure below.

a) Vertical fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Hinge fault
236. If the left block appears to have moved towards the observer, then which type of fault
does it belong to?
a) Left-handed fault
b) Right-handed fault
c) Enecholon fault
d) Radial fault
237. What are pivotal faults called as?
a) Reverse faults
b) Radial faults
c) Hinge faults
d) Normal faults
238. The movement of blocks in hinge faults is ___________
a) Translational
b) Rotational
c) Lateral
d) Sliding
239. Which is the rare type of fault?
a) Vertical fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Thrust fault
d) Hinge fault
240. What is the displacement range of strata in San Andres fault?
a) 10 km to 100 km
b) 20 km to 80 km
c) 50 km to 200 km
d) 100 km to 500 km
241. The fault not belonging to the classification of fault with the attitude of fault as basis
___________
a) Heave fault
b) Strike fault
c) Dip fault
d) Oblique fault
242. Faults that are developed along bedding planes are ___________
a) Strike faults
b) Dip faults
c) Bedding faults
d) Hade faults
243. The fault where fault strike is parallel to the dip of the layers broken and disrupted by
the fault?
a) Dip faults
b) Strike faults
c) Oblique faults
d) Hade faults
244. The fault which is also called a diagonal fault is ___________
a) Wrench fault
b) Transform fault
c) Oblique fault
d) Dip fault
245. The type of fault which is observed in both continental and oceanic environment is
___________
a) Strike-slip fault
b) Dip fault
c) Oblique fault
d) Wrench fault
246. Which is the type of strike-slip fault in which the fault plane has developed transverse to
the regional structure?
a) Transform fault
b) Wrench fault
c) Translational fault
d) Tear fault
247. Transverse fault is the other name for __________ fault.
a) Transform fault
b) Tear fault
c) Wrench fault
d) Normal fault
248. Where do the transform faults occur extensively?
a) Continental blocks
b) Oceanic ridges
c) Island blocks
d) Volcanic ridges
249. Identify the group of small sized faults from the following.
a) Parallel faults
b) Enechelon faults
c) Peripheral faults
d) Radial faults
250. Group of faults which appear emerging outward from a common central region are
called ___________
a) Enechelon faults
b) Parallel faults
c) Peripheral faults
d) Radial faults
251. The type of fault not belonging to the classification based on the mode of occurrence is
___________
a) Parallel fault
b) Peripheral fault
c) Enechelon fault
d) Wrench fault
252. What is the effect of faulting on outcrop?
a) Changes in the elevation of the ground
b) Omission of some strata where they are normally expected
c) Repetition of some strata in a given direction
d) Changes in elevation, omission of some strata, repetition of some strata
253. What is the effect of strike faults to the strata?
a) Extension
b) Repetition
c) Omission
d) Repetition and repetition
254. When the downthrow is against direction of the bed, it leads to ___________
a) Omission
b) Repetition
c) Extension
d) Weakening
255. When the downthrow is _____________ direction of the dip, it leads to omission.
a) Parallel to
b) Against
c) Inclined at certain angle
d) Doesn’t depend on downthrow
256. What has to be studied at first to tell about the effects with certainty?
a) Aerial photographs
b) Globe
c) Geological maps
d) Topographical photographs
257. Dip fault leads to ___________
a) Horizontal shift
b) Vertical shift
c) Inclined shift
d) Outburst
258. Which fault causes offset?
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Oblique fault
d) Dip fault
259. Gap or overlap depends upon ___________
a) Upthrow direction
b) Downthrow direction
c) Heave
d) Hade angle
260. What will result in an offset with overlap?
a) Downthrow to left side
b) Upthrow to left side
c) Downthrow to right side
d) Upthrow to right side
261. What will result in an offset with gap?
a) Downthrow to left side
b) Upthrow to left side
c) Downthrow to right side
d) Upthrow to right side
262. What is the effect of faults on topography?
a) Fault gaps
b) Crust extension
c) Fault scarps
d) Crevices
263. The type of scarps not considered under study is ___________
a) Fault scarps
b) Dip scarps
c) Fault-line scarps
d) Composite-fault scarps
264. The fault which is the result of both fault scarps and fault-line scarps is?
a) Compound-fault scarps
b) Composite-fault scarps
c) Dual-fault scarps
d) By-fault scarps
265. The type of scarp involving erosion is ___________
a) Fault scarp
b) Fault-line scarp
c) Composite-fault scarp
d) Dip-fault scarp