Surveying MCQ
Surveying MCQ
What is the term used for an imaginary line on the ground joining points of equal
elevation?
a) Level line
b) Line of sight
c) Datum
d) Contour
Explanation: A Contour is an imaginary line on the ground joining the points of equal
elevation. It is a line in which the surface of the ground is interested in a level surface.
2. Which of the following lines, in which surface of the ground is intersected by a level
surface?
a) Level line
b) Line of sight
c) Datum
d) Contour
3. Which of the following is not used to represent the relative altitudes of the points on the
map?
a) Contour lines
b) Hachures
c) Shading
d) Level lines
4. Which of the following indicates the elevations directly?
a) Level line
b) Line of sight
c) Datum
d) Contour
5. Two contour lines of different elevations unite to form one line only in the case of
a) Hills
b) Vertical cliff
c) Horizontal cliff
d) Overhanging Cliff
6. In which of the following cases contour lines of different elevations can intersect?
1) Caves, 2) Vertical cliffs, 3) Hills, 4) Overhanging Cliff
a) 1) and 2)
b) Only 1)
c) 1), 2) and 4)
d) 1) and 4)
7. Contour lines close together indicate _______ slope.
a) Steep
b) Gentle
c) Uniform
8. A series of straight parallel and equally spaced contours represent ________
a) Hills
b) Ponds
c) Plane surface
d) Desert
9. A closed contour line with one or more higher ones inside to represent
a) Hill
b) Pond
c) River
d) Cliff
10. Contour lines cross a watershed or ridge line at _____
a) 90°
b) 100°
c) 45°
d) 30°
11. What is the shape of contour lines in case of a valley?
a) U shape
b) V shape
c) W shape
d) O shape
12. What is the shape of contour lines in case of a watershed?
a) U shape
b) V shape
c) W shape
d) O shape
13. What is the process of spacing the contours proportional between the plotted ground
points established by indirect methods?
a) Interpolation
b) Tacheometric method
c) Cross section method
d) By squares method
14. Which of the following is not a chief method of Interpolation?
a) By estimation
b) By arithmetic calculation
c) By graphical method
d) By cross sections
15. Which of the following methods is extremely rough and is used for small scale work
only?
a) By estimation
b) By arithmetic calculation
c) By graphical method
d) By cross sections
16. The positions of contour points between the guide points are located by
a) Estimation
b) Arithmetic calculations
c) Graphical method
d) Cross sections
17. Which of the following Interpolation method is accurate and time consuming?
a) by estimation
b) by Arithmetic method
c) by graphical method
d) by squares
18. In which of the following methods Interpolation is done with the help of a tracing paper?
a) by estimation
b) by Arithmetic method
c) by graphical method
d) by squares
19. _______ is a line lying throughout on the surface of the ground and preserving a constant
inclination to the horizontal.
a) Contour gradient
b) Contour interval
c) Contour slope
d) Contour inclination
20. Which of the following cannot be used to locate the contour gradient in the field?
a) Clinometer
b) Theodolite
c) Level
d) Chain
21. Which of the following represents the correct set of ordinate rules used?
a) Average ordinate rule, Trapezoidal rule
b) Mid-ordinate rule, Mean ordinate rule
c) Mid-ordinate rule, Average ordinate rule
d) Trapezoidal rule, Mean ordinate rule
22. Find the length of the base line if the number of divisions are 4 and d = 1.5m.
a) 2 m
b) 6 m
c) 2.5 m
d) 8 m
The value of length of the base can be found out by using the formula,
L = n*d and on substitution, we get L = 4*1.5 = 6 m.
23. Ordinate rule is based on which of the following assumptions?
a) Boundaries of the offsets are straight lines
b) Boundaries of the offsets are perpendicular
c) Boundaries of the offsets are curves
d) Boundaries of the offsets are parabolic
24. The area of the figure from ordinate rule can be determined as__________
a) A = average ordinate * perimeter
b) A = average ordinate * breadth
c) A = average ordinate * area
d) A = average ordinate * length of base
The formula for area of figure from ordinate rule can be given as,
A = average ordinate * length of base
Where, L can be determined by no. of divisions*distance of each division.
25. Calculate the area by mid-ordinate rule if the value of d = 2m and the ordinates are given
as 24.69m, 42.96 m, 26.74m.
a) 188.87 sq. m
b) 881.78 sq. m
c) 188.78 sq. m
The formula for the area of the mid-ordinate can be given as
A = d*∑O. On substitution, we get
A = 2 * (24.69+42.96+26.74)
A = 188.78 sq. m.
26. Among the area calculation methods, which is more accurate?
a) Area by co-ordinates
b) Area by Simpson’s one-third rule
c) Area by double mean distances
d) Area by offsets
27. Calculate the area by average co-ordinate rule, by using the offsets provided taken at 10m
interval.
4.16, 6.34, 7.89, 6.54, 5.67, 7.76, 8.52, 5.87, 6.21
a) 245.08m
b) 542.08 m
c) 524.08 m
d) 528.04 m
We have, Δ = (L * ∑O) / (n+1)
Here n = number of divisions = 8; n + 1 = number of ordinates = 8 + 1 = 9
L = Length of base = 10 x 8 = 80 m
∑O = 4.16+6.34+7.89+6.54+5.67+7.76+8.52+5.87+6.21 = 58.96m
Δ = (80*58.96)/9 = 524.089m.
28. Find the value of number of divisions if the area is 543.89 sq. m and the summation of the
co-ordinates is given as 223.98 m.
a) 2.42 m
b) 2.24 m
c) 4.22 m
d) 2.56 m
We know that, the area by mid-ordinate can be given as, A = d*∑O. from this, the value of d
can be calculated as,
d = A/∑O
d = 543.89 / 223.98
d = 2.42m.
29. The calculation of area by ordinate rule and Simpson’s rule will come under which
category?
a) Area by double mean distances
b) Area by co-ordinates
c) Area by triangles
d) Area by offsets
30. Which of the following indicates the formula for area by average co-ordinate method?
a) Δ = (L * ∑O)/(n+1)
b) Δ = (L * ∑O)/(n-1)
c) Δ = (L + ∑O)/(n+1)
d) Δ = (L – ∑O)/(n+1)
The area by average co-ordinate method is given as,
Δ = Average ordinate * length of base
Δ = (L * ∑O) / (n+1) where, ∑O = O1+O2+………+On
1. Find the area of the traverse using Simpson’s rule if d= 12 m and the values of ordinates
are 2.25m, 1.46m, 3.23m, 4.46m.
a) 116.88 sq. m
b) 161.88 sq. m
c) 611.88 sq. m
d) 169.54 sq. m
The formula for Simpson’s rule can be given as Δ = (d/3)*((O0+O4) + 4*(O1+O3) +
2*(O2+O4)). On substitution, we get
Δ = (12/3)* ((2.25+4.46) + 4*(2.25+3.23) + 2*(1.46+4.46))
Δ = 161.88 sq. m.
31. The results obtained are greater than which among the following?
a) Prismoidal rule
b) Trapezoidal rule
c) Rectangular rule
d) Square rule
32. Find the area of segment if the values of co-ordinates are given as 119.65m, 45.76m and
32.87m. They are placed at a distance of 2 m each.
a) 20.43 sq. m
b) 2.34 sq. m
c) 20.34 sq. m
d) 87.34 sq. m
The area of the segment can be found out by using,
A = (2/3)*(O1-(O0+O2/2)). On substitution, we get
A = (2/3)*(45.76-(119.65+32.87/2))
A = -20.34 Sq. m (negative sign has no significance)
A = 20.34 sq. m.
33. In which of the following cases, Simpson’s rule is adopted?
a) When straights are perpendicular
b) When straights are parallel
c) When straights form curves
d) When straights form parabolic arcs
34. The total number of ordinates present must be___________
a) Real numbers
b) Complex
c) Even
d) Odd
35. Which of the following shapes is generally preferred in case of application of Simpson’s
rule?
a) Square
b) Triangle
c) Trapezoid
d) Rectangle
36. Which of the following can the Simpson’s rule possess?
a) Negatives
b) Accuracy
c) Positives
d) Zero error
37. Which of the following indicates the formula for Simpson’s rule?
a) Δ = (d/3)*[(O0+On) + 4*(O1+O3+……..) + 2*(O2+O4+……….)]
b) Δ = (d/3)*((O0+On) + 2*(O1+O3+……..) + 2*(O2+O4+……….))
c) Δ = (d/3)*((O0+On) + 4*(O1+O3+……..) + 2*(O2+O4+……….))
d) Δ = (d/3)*((O0+On) + 2*(O1+O3+……..) + 4*(O2+O4+……….))
38. Correction for parallax is given as ___________
a) Horizontal parallax * sin of apparent altitude
b) Horizontal parallax * cot of apparent altitude
c) Horizontal parallax * tan of apparent altitude
d) Horizontal parallax * cos of apparent altitude
39. Express the 24˚12ꞌ42ꞌꞌ in hours, minutes and seconds.
a) 4h 36m 50.8s
b) 16h 36m 50.8s
c) 1h 36m 50.8s
d) 1h 6m 20.8s
For expressing in hours, minutes and seconds, we have to divide each one with 15. So, 24˚=
24˚/15 = 1h 36m; 12ꞌ = 12ꞌ / 15 = 0h 0m 48s; 42ꞌꞌ = 42ꞌꞌ/15 = 0h 0m 2.8s. On addition, we get
1h 36m 50.8s.
40. Determine the local time if the standard time is 19h 42m 7s and the difference in longitude
can be given as 3h 9m towards west.
a) 16h 33m 7s
b) 61h 33m 7s
c) 16h 34m 5s
d) 6h 33m 7s
The local time can be determined by using the formula,
Local time = standard time ± difference in longitude. Here, longitude is towards west so we
have to use negative direction.
On substitution, we get Local time = 19h 42m 7s – 3h 9m
Local time = 16h 33m 7s.
41. Find G.M.T of a place if the L.M.T is given as 9h 24m 17s and the longitude
10h 23m 32s towards east.
a) 19h 47m 4s
b) 19h 47m 49s
c) 9h 47m 49s
d) 19h 4m 49s
The G.M.T calculation can be done by using the formula,
G.M.T = L.M.T + longitude. On substitution, we get
G.M.T = 9h 24m 17s + 10h 23m 32s or G.M.T = 19h 47m 49s.
42. Which of the following indicate the standard time meridian of India?
a) 82˚3ꞌ
b) 28˚30ꞌ
c) 8˚30ꞌ
d) 82˚30ꞌ
43. The mean time associated with the standard meridian can be given as
a) Meridian time
b) Average time
c) Standard time
d) Absolute time
44. The formula of mean solar time can be given as ____________
a) Hour angle + 12h
b) Seconds angle + 12h
c) Minutes angle + 12h
d) Hour angle + 24h
45. Express the hours (19h 42m 16s) in angles.
a) 259˚34ꞌ
b) 295˚43ꞌ
c) 295˚34ꞌ
d) 25˚34ꞌ
For expressing in angle we must multiply each value with 15.
So, 19h = 19*15˚ = 285˚; 42m = 42m*15ꞌ = 10˚30ꞌ; 16s = 16s*15ꞌꞌ = 0˚4ꞌ. On addition, we get
295˚34ꞌ.
46. Which of the following indicates formula for green witch mean time?
a) G.M.T = L.M.T * longitude of the place
b) G.M.T = L.M.T ± longitude of the place
c) G.M.T = L.M.T + longitude of the place
d) G.M.T = L.M.T / longitude of the place
47. Calculate mean solar time if the hour angle of the sun is 34h 21m 15s.
a) 46h 21m 15s
b) 64h 21m 15s
c) 46h 12m 15s
d) 46h 21m 51s
The mean solar time can be given as
Mean solar time = hour angle of the sun + 12h. On substitution, we get
Mean solar time = 34h 21m 15s + 12h = 46h 21m 15s.
48. In amplitude modulation, which among the following is constant?
a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Wave length
d) Time period
49. Modern phase techniques are capable of __________
a) Resolving modulation
b) Resolving amplitude
c) Resolving frequency
d) Resolving wave length
50. Lower frequency is not suitable in_________
a) Direct transmission
b) Distance calculation
c) Determination of wavelength
d) Determination of frequency
51. Which of the following represents the correct set of modulation classification?
a) Frequency, time period
b) Frequency, amplitude
c) Amplitude, wavelength
d) Wavelength, frequency
52. Which of the following indicates the correct set of frequency employed in measuring
process?
a) 7*106 to 5*108 Hz
b) 7.5*106 to 4.5*108 Hz
c) 7.5*106 to 5.9*108 Hz
d) 7.5*106 to 5*108 Hz
53. Which of the following is constant in the case of frequency modulation?
a) Modulation
b) Wavelength
c) Amplitude
d) Frequency
In frequency modulation, the carrier wave has constant amplitude and the modulating wave
information is conveyed by the amplitude of the carrier waves.
54. Which can’t be done in high frequency zones?
a) Phase comparison
b) Super imposition of waves
c) Distance measurement
d) Wavelength measurement
55. Modulating wave can also be known as ______
a) Total wave
b) Measuring wave
c) Super wave
d) Incubation wave
56. If 10mm is the accuracy considered, what will be the maximum value of λ for 1/1000
part?
a) 10000 m
b) 10 cm
c) 10 m
d) 10000 cm
The maximum value of the wave length can be determined by multiplying assumed wave
length with the accuracy considered, which means, λ = 10*1000 = 10 m.
57. Different types of EDM’s are obtained on the basis of__________
a) Wave length
b) Carrier wave
c) Frequency
d) Time period
58. Which among the following EDM instruments is having more range?
a) Infra-red instruments
b) Visible light instruments
c) Microwave instruments
d) Gamma ray instruments
The frequency range of the microwave instrument is about 3-30 kHz which provides it the
ability to cover a range up to 100km. The usage of gamma rays is not possible in the case of
Total station.
59. Which type of modulation is used in the case of microwave instrument?
a) Frequency modulation
b) Amplitude modulation
c) Carrier wave modulation
d) Time period modulation
Frequency modulation is used in all kinds of EDM instruments which make it feasible, but,
amplitude modulation is also used in remaining classifications which makes it quite different
from the microwave instruments.
60. The frequency range used in visible light instruments is______________
a) 5*1011 Hz
b) 5*108 Hz
c) 5*1010 Hz
d) 5*1014 Hz
61. Geodimeter uses which of the following waves as a carrier wave?
a) Microwaves
b) Visible light
c) Infra-red
d) Cosmic rays
62. What among the following indicates the range of Geodimeter?
a) 20 km
b) 30 km
c) 25km
d) 35 km
63. The wavelength of I.R in infra-red instruments is about___________
a) 0.6 * 10-6 m
b) 1.0 * 10-6 m
c) 0.7 * 10-6 m
d) 0.9 * 10-6 m
64. Which among the following EDM instruments are capable of producing output with less
expenditure?
a) Microwave instruments
b) Cosmic ray instruments
c) Visible light instruments
d) Infra-red instruments
65. In total station, data is stored in ___________
a) Pen drive
b) Data card
c) Microprocessor
d) External hardware
66. Which of the following indicates the formula for converting slope distance to horizontal
distance?
a) S = H (sin z)
b) H = S* S (sin z)
c) H*H = S (sin z)
d) H = S (sin z)
The slope distance obtained can be used for calculating horizontal distance from the formula,
H = S (sin z) where, H= horizontal distance, S = slope distance.
67. When total station is sighted to the target, which of the operation acts first?
a) Rotation of optical axis
b) Rotation of vertical axis
c) Rotation of horizontal axis
d) Rotation of line of collimation
68. Which of the following indicates the correct set of the combination of total station?
a) Theodolite, compass
b) Theodolite, EDM
c) Electronic theodolite, EDM
d) EDM, GPS
68. Which among the following doesn’t indicate the basic calculation of the total station?
a) Horizontal distance
b) Slope distance
c) Vertical distance
d) Co-ordinate calculations
69. The formula for difference in elevation can be given as__________
a) D = V + (I-R)
b) D = V + (I+R)
c) D = V – (I-R)
d) D = V * (I-R)
The difference in elevation can be given as D = V + (I-R) where, V= vertical difference
between two points, I =instrument height, R = height of centre of reflector.
70. In which direction it is best to place the total station for obtaining the best output?
a) East
b) West
c) South
d) North
71. The data obtained from total station can be used in which among the following software
directly?
a) Primavera
b) STAAD PRO
c) Autodesk Revit
d) Surfer
The data obtained from the total station can be indirectly used in STAAD Pro, Autodesk
Revit, Primavera but it can be directly used in software’s like Arc GIS, Surfer, Auto CAD
etc., as they are linked with it.
72. Calculation the elevation difference if the vertical distance is 14.89m, instrument height is
9.2m, ground is at 2.8m.
a) 21.29 m
b) 12.29 m
c) 21.92 m
d) 41.29 m
The elevation difference in total station can be calculated as
dz = Vd + (Ih-Rh). On substitution, we get
dz = 14.89 + (9.2-2.8) = 21.29 m.
73. Find the vertical distance if the value of slope distance can be given as 12.98 and the
angle is 1˚23ꞌ.
a) 21.97m
b) 12.97m
c) 12.79m
d) 21.79m
The vertical distance can be calculated by using the formula,
Vd = Sd*cosZa = 12.98*cos (1˚23ꞌ) Vd = 12.97m.
74. Find the elevation of ground beneath the reflector, if the known elevation of instrument is
12.76m, slope distance = 3.76m, angle is about 3˚43ꞌ, instrument height = 2.93m, ground is at
0.987 m.
a) 18.54m
b) 81.54m
c) 18.45m
d) 18.97m
The elevation of ground beneath the reflector can be given as
Rz = Iz + Sd * cos Za + Ih – Rh. On substitution, we get
Rz = 12.76 + (3.76*cos (3˚43ꞌ)) + 2.93 – 0.987
Rz = 18.45 m.
75. Which of the following doesn’t indicate a stage in remote sensing?
a) Reflectance of energy
b) Transmission of energy
c) Energy source
d) Absorption of energy
Remote sensing can be defined as the process of obtaining information without any contact
with the object. In this process, it undergoes several steps for obtaining the required output.
They include energy source, propagation of energy, interaction of energy, reflectance of
energy, transmission and usage of data.
76. Which of the following indicates the functioning of a sensor?
a) Transmits energy
b) Absorbs wave length
c) Sensitive to wave length
d) Reflects energy
A sensor can be defined as an electromagnetic instrument, which server as a path for
recording and transmitting energy. It is sensitive to wave length and yield data on the
wavelength of the wave transmitted.
77. Among the following, which indicates the correct set of classification of data?
a) Analog, digital
b) Digital, binary
c) Binary, analog
d) Vector, raster
The data obtained at the end of the transmission can be classified as analog and digital
formats. The usage of the data depends upon the type of bit the software can adopt to show
the result. In general, digital format is most probably used.
78. Which type of remote sensing uses its own source of electromagnetic energy?
a) Passive
b) Active
c) Satellite
d) Orbital
79. The correct sequence of transmission of electromagnetic waves in remote sensing system
can be given as ___________
a) Energy source, transmission of signal, propagation of signal
b) Transmission of signal, propagation of signal, energy source
c) Propagation of signal, transmission of signal, energy source
d) Energy source, propagation of energy, transmission of signal
80. Signal can be generated by ____________
a) Interaction of EM waves with surface
b) Interaction of EM waves with energy source
c) Interaction of EM waves with atmosphere
d) Interaction of EM waves with sensor
82. Which among the following is the first Indian remote sensing satellite?
a) Quick Bird
b) SPOT
c) IRS-1A
d) MOS
IRS-1A is the first Indian remote sensing satellite which was launched in the mid 1980’s. It is
capable of recording the reflected EM waves from the surface and transmits them to the
ground station.
83. Among the following, the correct set of remote sensing classification can be given as
a) Active, orbital
b) Active, passive
c) Passive, orbital
d) Orbital, satellite
84. The relation between velocity, wavelength and frequency can be given as
a) λ = c / r
b) λ = c / f
c) λ = c / h
d) λ = h*c / f
85. Remote sensing uses which of the following waves in its procedure?
a) Electric field
b) Sonar waves
c) Gamma- rays
d) Electro-magnetic waves
86. Which of the following is not a principle of remote sensing?
a) Interaction of energy with satellite
b) Electromagnetic energy
c) Electro-magnetic spectrum
d) Interaction of energy with atmosphere
87. Which among the following waves is having less wavelength range?
a) 0.03mm
b) 0.03nm
c) 0.03m
d) 0.03km
88. In visible region, the blue light is having a wave length range of
a) 0.42-0.52 micrometer
b) 0.24-0.52 micrometer
c) 0.42-0.92 micrometer
d) 0.22-0.32 micrometer
89. Which of the following field is used by the EM waves?
a) Solar field
b) Polarized field
c) Electric field
d) Micro field
90. Among the following, which describes Stefan- Boltzmann formula?
a) M = σ/T4
b) M = σ-T4
c) M = σ+T4
d) M = σ*T4
91. Which of the following is not a classification of scattering principle?
a) Faraday scattering
b) Rayleigh scattering
c) Mie scattering
d) Non-selective scattering
92. Which of the following can act as an example for air-borne platform?
a) LISS-III
b) Dakota
c) MOS
d) LISS-II
93. Polar orbiting satellites are generally placed at an altitude range of
a) 7-15km
b) 7000-15000km
c) 700-1500km
d) 70-150km
94. Which of the following has the maximum value in an electric or magnetic field?
a) Wave length
b) Focal length
c) Frequency
d) Amplitude
95. Velocity of light can be given as ___________
a) 1*108m/s
b) 3.9*108m/s
c) 3*108m/s
96. Determine the wave length if the frequency is given as 67Hz.
a) 1.044*108m
b) 0.044*108m
c) 0.44*108m
d) 0.044*1010m
97. Find the value of energy if the wave length is given as 43m.
a) 0.46*10-26 J
b) 0.46*10-26 J
c) 0.46*10-26 J
d) 0.46*10-26 J
The value of energy can be given as by using plank’s relation.
Q = h*c / λ. Here, h = 6.625*10-34J.s. On substitution, we get
Q = 6.625*10-34 * 3*108 / 43
Q = 0.46*10-26 J.
98. If the intensity of wave length decreases, the energy released will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Zero
99. What will be the wave length if the energy produced is 36J?
a) 0.5*10-26m
b) 0.55*10-26m
c) 0.55*10-16m
d) 0.55*10-6m
The value of wave length can be determined by using the energy produced by using the
relation, Q = h*c / λ. On substitution, we get
36 = 6.625*10-34 * 3*108 / λ or λ = 0.55*10-26m.
100. In an EM field, which filed is placed horizontal?
a) Gamma rays
b) Sonar field
c) Electric field
d) Magnetic field
101. The wave length sensed in remote sensing are __________
a) Nano meters and giga meters range
b) Nano meters and deci meters range
c) Nano meters and micro meters range
d) Nano meters and meters range
102. In the following figure, X represents___________
a) Length
b) Time period
c) Frequency
d) Wave length
103. Which of the following indicates the correct set of M’s used in the case of GIS?
a) Manipulating, monitoring, mapping, modelling
b) Measuring, manipulating, mapping, modelling
c) Measuring, monitoring, marketing, modelling
d) Measuring, monitoring, mapping, modelling
104. Which of the following works involves modelling?
a) Tectonic plate movement
b) Drainage network
c) Roadway line
d) Railway line
105. Mapping involves which of the following?
a) Soil details
b) Boundary details
c) Cadastral details
106. In which aspect of agriculture GIS is used?
a) Soil analysis
b) Seed requirement
c) Fertilizer
d) Pesticides
107. Which of the following software can be used in case of property tax assessment?
a) STAAD Pro
b) Revit
c) Remote sensing
d) GIS
108. Which of the following software’s are used for developing vehicle route?
a) Autodesk Revit
b) STAAD Pro
c) GIS
d) Remote sensing
109. Which of the following is not a property of coordinate in GIS?
a) Line of sight
b) Origin
c) Axis
d) Units of measurement
110. Which of the following represents the correct set of coordinate classification in GIS?
a) Spherical, projected systems
b) Geographic, projected systems
c) Geographic, spherical systems
d) Geographic, geometric systems
111. Longitudes are used to represent which of the following directions?
a) North–East
b) South
c) North
d) East
112. GIS uses the information from which of the following sources?
a) Non- spatial information system
b) Spatial information system
c) Global information system
d) Position information system
113. Among the following ____________ can be expressed as an example of hardware
component.
a) Keyboard
b) Arc GIS
c) Auto CAD
d) Digitalization
114. Which of the following formats can be used for GIS output?
a) DXF
b) PDF
c) GIF
d) HTML
115. Which among the following is not related to GIS software’s?
a) CAD
b) Arc GIS
c) Arc View
d) STAAD Pro
116. Among the following, which do not come under the components of GIS?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Compiler
117. Which of the following doesn’t determine the capability of GIS?
a) Defining a map
b) Representing cartographic feature
c) Retrieving data
d) Transferring data
118. Which of the following acts a benefit of GIS?
a) Maintaining geo spatial data
b) Data sharing
c) Accurate data information
d) Presence of data retrieval service
119. Which among the following is a server based hardware platform of GIS?
a) Autodesk Revit
b) STAAD Pro
c) Arc GIS
d) Google-maps
120. Which of the following can be affected by atmospheric path disturbances?
a) Modern GPS surveying
b) Conventional GPS
c) Absolute positioning
d) Resection method
121. Which among the following can be described as an application of pseudo ranging?
a) Computation of distance between satellite and user
b) Computation of distance between GPS antenna and satellite
c) Computation of distance between GPS antenna and user
d) Computation of distance between satellite and object
122. Which of the following error occurs due to atmospheric conditions?
a) Natural error
b) User error
c) Propagation error
d) Signal multipath error
123. Which of the following is not used in the tracking system?
a) Multiple frequency
b) Dual frequency
c) Single frequency
d) Military navigation
124. Which of the following doesn’t belong to the relative positioning techniques?
a) Real-time kinematic technique
b) Viscous GPS technique
c) Kinematic GPS surveying technique
d) Differential GPS technique
125. Which of the following classes of positioning technique possess high precision?
a) GPS
b) Viscous technique
c) Real time technique
d) Kinematic technique
126. Which among the following indicates the correct set of static GPS surveying technology
classification?
a) Long and normal base lines
b) Medium and short baselines
c) Long and short baselines
d) Normal and short base lines
127. What will be the length of the base line in case of short baseline method of GPS
surveying?
a) Less than 50km
b) Greater than 50km
c) Less than 2km
d) Greater than 100km
128. Which of the following is considered as modern GPS technology?
a) GIS
b) GPS mode
c) Instantaneous mode
d) Kinematic positioning technique
129. Which of the following is having same principle as that of determining the position in
GPS?
a) Compass
b) Traversing
c) Trisection
d) Resection
130. Among the following, which indicates the correct set of methods followed for fixing
position?
a) Pseudo ranging, absolute positioning
b) Carrier wave, pseudo ranging
c) Absolute positioning, relative positioning
d) Carrier wave, absolute positioning
131. Which is the main parameter used in pseudo ranging?
a) Time
b) Distance
c) Velocity
d) Frequency
132. GPS user solution depends on which of the following?
a) Absolute positioning
b) Satellite vehicle
c) Space vehicle
d) Relative positioning
133. Satellite generates which type of signals?
a) Visible rays
b) X-rays
c) Cosmic waves
d) Radio waves
134. Which of the following indicates the principle of GPS?
a) Resection
b) Trilateration
c) Trisection
d) Traversing
135. Which among the following is used to locate an object?
a) GPS
b) GIS
c) RS
d) IRS
136. Which of the following can indicate the correct set of GPS segments?
a) Navigation, space
b) User, navigation
c) Control, user
d) Control, navigation
137. Which of the following segments can use GPS receiver?
a) Navigation segment
b) Space segment
c) Control segment
d) User segment
138. Which of the following indicate the functioning of the Space segment?
a) Navigational signals
b) Space signals
c) User signals
d) Control signals
139. Which among the following is more accurate in its output?
a) Absolute positioning
b) Resection method
c) Modern GPS surveying
d) Conventional GPS method
140. Precise positioning service is having an accuracy range of ____________
a) 1-5 m
b) 5-9 m
c) 10 – 12 m
d) 15-20 m
141. Which of the following indicates the correct set of classification for absolute
positioning?
a) Carrier wave, pseudo range
b) Pseudo range, SPS
c) SPS, carrier wave
d) Absolute positioning, SPS
142. Which of the following process is adopted in case of navigation system?
a) SPS
b) Carrier wave
c) Relative positioning
d) Pseudo ranging
143. Which process can obtain more accuracy in position?
a) Carrier wave method
b) Absolute positioning
c) Relative positioning
d) Resection method
144. Which of the following will affect the accuracy of the GPS positioning?
a) Receiver station
b) Strength of signal
c) Position of satellite
d) Atomic clock
145. Which among the following can act as a cause wrong GPS tracking?
a) Refraction of signal
b) Strength of signal
c) Atomic clock
d) Reflection of satellite signals
146. The accuracy speed of the GPS depends on ______________
a) Reflection of signal
b) Signal blockage
c) Refraction of signal
d) Position of satellite
147. The clock used in GPS will synchronize to __________
a) Greenwich
b) ITC
c) UTC
d) IS
148. The method of tracing is involved in which of the following procedures?
a) Sub-division into squares
b) Sub-division into area figures
c) D.M.D method
d) Division into trapezoidal figures
149. Which of the following is not a method involved in area by co-ordinate?
a) Sub-division into area figures
b) Co-ordinate method
c) Meridian method
d) D.M.D method
150. Which of the following is the main thing in the process of calculation of area by co-
ordinate method?
a) M.D
b) Departure
c) Latitude
d) Parallels
151. Which of the following shapes are generally considered when the area is computed by
map measurements?
a) Square
b) Triangle
c) Rectangle
d) Pyramidal
152. Which of the following is not a classification in area by map measurement?
a) Division into trapezoidal figures
b) Sub-division into area figures
c) Sub-division into squares
d) D.M.D method
153. If the values of latitudes are 223.5 m and 65.31 m and meridians are 16.8 m, 24.67m.
Find the area using D.M.D method.
a) 2268.99 sq. m
b) 2862.99 sq. m
c) 2682.99 sq. m
d) 28865.99 sq. m
Area by D.M.D method can be given as, A = 1⁄2(∑(m*L))
A = 1⁄2 (223.5*16.8 + 65.31*24.67) = 2682.99 sq. m.
154. Find the area by co-ordinate method if the independent co-ordinates are (400, 400),
(423, 456), (478, 498), (400, 400)
a) 1510 cu. m
b) 1150 cu. m
c) 5110 cu. m
d) 115 cu. m
The formula in area by co-ordinate method can be given by,
A = 1⁄2 (y1(x2-x4) + y3(x3-x4) + y3(x4-x2) + y4(x1-x3)). On substitution of the co-ordinates
in the area we get, A = 1⁄2 (100(423-400) + 498(478-400) + 498(400-423) + 400(400-478))
A = -1510 cu. m, negative sign has no significance. So, A = 1510cu. M.
155. The value of total latitudes and its adjoining departures were given. Calculate area by
departure and total latitudes method. Total Latitudes = 110, 25,0, 0 and adjoining departures
= 245, 245, -245, -245.
a) 15636 sq. m
b) 16536 sq. m
c) 16563 sq. m
d) 15663 sq. m
The formula for calculation of area by departure and latitude can be given as,
A = 1⁄2 ∑(total latitude * algebraic sum of adjoining departures). On substituting the given
values, we get, A = 1⁄2 (110*245 + 25*245 + 0*-245 + 0*-245) = 16536 sq. m.
156. Calculate the area by M.D method, if the value of m1, m2, m3 are given as 233.4 m,
12.78 m, 99.98 m respectively and latitudes are 110 m, -15 m, 89 m.
a) 43372.51 sq. m
b) 34732.15 sq. m
c) 34537.15 sq. m
d) 34372.51 sq. m
The formula of meridian and distance method can be given as,
A = ∑ (m*L). On substitution, we get
A = 233.4*110 + 12.78*-15 + 99.98*89 = 34372.51 sq. m.
157. Planimeter is an instrument which is used for__________
a) Locating co-ordinates
b) Transferring point from paper to ground
c) Measuring area of plan
d) Sighting parallel and perpendicular points to station
158. The formula for finding area by the use of planimeter is______________
a) Δ = M(F-I±10N+C)
b) Δ = M(F+I±10N+C)
c) Δ = M(F-I±10N-C)
d) Δ = M(F-I±10N±C)
The area of the obtained figure can be calculated by, Δ = M(F-I±10N+C)
Where, F = Final reading, I = Initial reading, N = number of times the zero mark of the dial
passes the fixed index mark, M = A multiplying constant, C = Constant of the instrument
which when multiplied by M.
159. Which of the following methods will give the best output for area?
a) Area by double mean distances
b) Area by triangles
c) Area by co-ordinates
d) Area by planimeter
160. Multiplier constant(M) is also known as___________
a) Planimeter constant
b) Tacheometric constant
c) Meridian constant
d) Simpson’s constant
161. Multiplier constant is equal to__________
a) A+nꞌ
b) A*nꞌ
c) A/nꞌ
d) nꞌ/A
The value of multiplier constant is given as M= A/nꞌ in which,
A = known area, nꞌ = change in wheel readings.
162. Calculate the area if I = 8.257, M = 150 sq.cm, F = 4.143, C = 31.155.
a) 6255.15
b) 2565.15
c) 2655.15
d) 2556.15
The area can be given by, A=M (F- I ± 10N + C)
On substituting, I = 8.257, M = 150 sq.cm, F = 4.143, C = 31.155 and N = –1
A = 150 (4.143- 8.257- 10 + 31.155) = 2556.15sq.cm.
163. Which of the following mathematical operations can be used for area computation?
a) Euler’s equation
b) Simpson’s one-third rule
c) Quadratic equation
d) Simultaneous differential equation
164. Find the value of the multiplier constant if the length of the arm is given as 45.78 m and
diameter as 2.54 m.
a) 643.86 sq. m
b) 436.86 sq. m
c) 346.68 sq. m
d) 364.86 sq. m
The value of multiplier constant can be given as M = L * circumference
Circumference = π * D = π *2.54 = 7.97 m. On substitution, we get
M = 45.78 * 7.97 = 364.86 sq. m.
165. If length of the arm = 23.31 m, distance between wheel and pivot = 2 m, D = 3m. Find
the value of constant C.
a) 4.63 sq. m
b) 6.64 sq. m
c) 6.46 sq. m
d) 4.95 sq. m
The value of the constant C can be given as, C=π(L2−2aL+R2)M. The value of M can be
given as M = L* π*D = 219.691 sq. m. On substitution, we get
C = π (23.312-2*2*23.31+1.52) / 219.691 = 6.46 sq. m.
166. If the area of the traverse is 645.32 sq. m and the change in the wheel readings can be
given as 10, find the value of multiplier constant.
a) 64.532 sq. m
b) 6453.2 sq. m
c) 6.4532 sq. m
d) 0.65432 sq. m
If the values of area and the change in wheel readings are given then the multiplier constant
can be given as M = A/nꞌ, where A is the area and nꞌ is the change in wheel readings. On
substitution, we get M = 645.32 / 10 = 64.532 sq. m.
167. If the area of traverse is drawn to a scale 1ꞌꞌ = 23 ft, find the change in area if the original
area is 497.76 sq. in.
a) 6.04 sq. m
b) 6.04 m
c) 6.04 sq. in
d) 6.04 acres
Here, the scale is given as 1ꞌꞌ = 23 ft. So, 1 sq. in = 23*23 sq. ft
And the area of the field can be given as (23*23*497.76) / 43560 = 6.044 acres.
168. Find the value of I if the area of the field is given as 234.315 sq. m, M = 22.15 sq. m, F
= 3.256, N = 1, C = 26.43.
a) 21.907 sq. m
b) 29.107 sq. m
c) 29.701 sq. m
d) 23.071 sq. m
The area of the field can be given as A=M (F- I ± 10N + C). On substitution of the given
values we get, 234.315 = 22.15 (3.256-I+10+26.43)
I = 29.107 sq. m.
169. A prismoid is a combination of which of the following?
a) Trapezium, circle
b) Parallelogram, trapezium
c) Triangle, trapezium
d) Triangle, circle
170. Prismoidal rule is also known as__________
a) Simpson’s rule
b) Trapezoidal rule
c) Curvature rule
d) Euler’s rule
171. The Prismoidal formula is used for the calculation of__________
a) Perimeter
b) Traverse
c) Volume
d) Area
172. Calculate the total volume if number of sides = 3 and d = 2 m. The values of area can be
given as 117.98 sq. m, 276.54 sq. m and 98.43 sq. m.
a) 1170.26 cu. m
b) 1710.26 cu. m
c) 1107.26 cu. m
d) 117.26 cu. m
The total volume of any figure can be calculated by using the Simpson’s formula i.e.,
V = d/3 (A1 + A3 + 4*A2 + 2A3 + 2A1). On substitution, we get
V = 2/3 (117.98 + 98.43 + 4*276.54 + 2*98.43 + 2*117.98)
V = 1170.26 cu. m.
173. Which of the following must be done for obtaining equivalent area?
a) Applying correction for bearings
b) Applying correction for angles
c) Applying correction for curvature
d) Applying correction for length
174. If the area of mid section is 345.98 sq. m and the individual areas A1, A2 are 123.31 and
157.31 respectively, d = 5m. Find the volume of the pyramid.
a) 3187.11 cu. m
b) 1378.11 cu. m
c) 1837.11 cu. m
d) 1387.11 cu. m
The volume of pyramid with lateral sides can be given as,
V = d/6 (A1+A2+4Am). On substitution, we get
V = 5/6 (123.31 + 157.31 + 4*345.98)
V = 1387.11 m3
175. Which of the following indicates the formula for Prismoidal correction?
a) Cp = d n (h+h1)2/6
b) Cp = d n (h-h1)2/6
c) Cp = d n (h*h1)2/6
d) Cp = d n (h/h1)2/6
176. Find the area of first prismoid if the areas of A1, A2 and A3 are 145.31, 257.43 and
59.67 respectively with a distance of 2.5 m.
a) 1208.91 cu. m
b) 1082.91 cu. m
c) 1028.91 cu. m
d) 1820.91 cu. m
Volume of the first prismoid can be given as,
V = d/3 (A1 + 4*A2 + A3)
V = 2.5/3 (145.31 + 4*257.43 + 59.67)
V = 1028.91 m3.
177. The trapezoidal formula can be applied only if __________
a) It composes prism and wedges
b) It composes triangles and parallelograms
c) It composes prism and parallelograms
d) It composes triangles and wedges
178. Trapezoidal formula is also known as ____________
a) Simpson’s rule
b) Co-ordinate method
c) Prismoidal method
d) Average end area method
179. Which of the following indicates the assumption assumed in the trapezoidal formula?
a) mid-area is the mean of the starting area
b) mid-area is the mean of the end area
c) mid-area is the mean
d) mid-area is not the mean of the end area
180. Calculate the volume of third section, if the areas are 76.32 sq. m and 24.56 sq. m with
are at a distance of 4 m.
a) 210.11 cu. m
b) 201.67 cu. m
c) 201.76 cu. m
d) 210.76 cu. m
Volume of the third section of a prismoid can be calculated as,
V = d/2 (A3 + A4). On substitution, we get
V = 4/2 (76.32 + 24.56)
V = 201.76 cu. m.
181. If the areas of the two sides of a prismoid represent 211.76 sq. m and 134.67 sq. m,
which are 2 m distant apart, find the total volume using trapezoidal formula. Consider n=3.
a) 651.99 cu. m
b) 615.99 cu. m
c) 651.77 cu. m
d) 615.77 cu. m
The total volume using trapezoidal formula can be given as,
V = d ((A1 + A2/2) + A2). On substitution, we get
V = 2 ((211.76 + 134.67/2) + 134.67)
V = 615.77 cu. m.
182. Determine the volume of prismoid using trapezoidal formula, if the areas are given as
117.89 sq. m and 55.76 sq. m which are 1.5m distant apart.
a) 130.23 cu. m
b) 103.23 cu. m
c) 13.44 cu. m
d) 103.65 cu. m
The volume of prismoid in case of trapezoidal formula can be given as,
V = d/2 (A1 + A2). On substitution, we get
V = 1.5/2 (117.89 + 55.76)
V = 130.23 cu. m.
183. Which of the following methods is capable of providing sufficient accuracy?
a) Area by planimeter
b) Area by co-ordinates
c) Prismoidal method
d) Trapezoidal method
184. The correction applied in trapezoidal formula is equal to____________
a) Product of calculated volume and obtained volume
b) Summation between calculated volume and obtained volume
c) Difference between calculated volume and obtained volume
d) Division of calculated volume and obtained volume
185. Which among the following determines the direction of closing error?
a) Tan δ = ∑L/∑D
b) Tan δ = ∑L2/∑D2
c) Tan δ = ∑D/∑L
d) Tan δ = ∑D2/∑L2
186. The sum of interior angles must be equal to_______
a) (2N+4) right angles
b) (2N-4) right angles
c) (2N+4) * 180
d) (2N-4) * 180
187. Closing error can be given as________
a) ((∑L)2+(∑D)2)1/4
b) (∑L2-∑D2)1/2
c) (∑L2*∑D2)1/2
d) ((∑L)2+(∑D)2)1/2
188. Which of the following corresponds to the correction applied to the bearing of the last
side?
a) Correction = Ne/N
b) Correction = 2Ne/N
c) Correction = 3Ne/N
d) Correction = e/N
189. If traversing is done by taking bearings of the lines, the closing error in bearing may be
determined by _______________
a) Comparing the back and fore bearings of the last line of the open traverse
b) Comparing the back and fore bearings of the middle line of the closed traverse
c) Comparing the back and fore bearings of the last line of the closed traverse
d) Comparing the back and fore bearings of the first line of the closed traverse
190. Which of the following is a method of adjusting a closed traverse?
a) Departure method
b) Axis method
c) Tangential method
d) Latitude method
191. Relative error of closure is given as____________
a) Perimeter of closure/error of traverse
b) Error of perimeter/perimeter of traverse
c) Perimeter of traverse/error of traverse
d) Error of closure/perimeter of traverse
192. Closing error can be briefly explained in which of the following set of methods?
a) Bowditch’s, Transit methods
b) Transit, Axis methods
c) Graphical, Axis methods
d) Bowditch’s, Graphical methods
193. From the following observations, calculate closing error.
Line Length (m) Latitude Departure
a) 160.43m
b) 151.34m
c) 161.34m
d) 165m
We know that, latitude of side can be determined by the formula L = l cos θ. So, on
substitution we get,
L = l cos θ = 245* cos (500 34ꞌ) = 161.34m.
204. S-W lies in which of the following quadrant______________
a) IV
b) II
c) I
d) III
205. By which of the following step, Independent co-ordinate can be obtained?
a) ∑L + ∑D
b) ∑L – ∑D
c) ∑L2 + ∑D2
d) ∑L2 – ∑D2
206. Total co-ordinate point is referred as___________
a) Dependent co-ordinate point
b) Independent co-ordinate point
c) Consecutive co-ordinate point
d) Departure co-ordinate point
207. If the value of θ = 720 49ꞌ, find the value of departure for side having a length 300 m.
a) 286.17
b) 268.91
c) 286.61
d) 286.16
We know that the value of departure can be given as D = l sin θ. On substitution of the values
of θ and l we get, D = 300 * sin (720 49ꞌ) = 286.61 m.
208. The value of θ = 1620 49ꞌ in Reduced Bearing system can be represented as
a) S1706ꞌE
b) S27026ꞌE
c) S7026ꞌE
d) S17026ꞌE
209. What will be the value of total co-ordinate of B, if it is initially assumed as 100 and N
latitude at A is given as 192.96?
a) 292.96
b) 92.96
c) 229.69
d) 29.69
The value of total co-ordinate can be given adding the assumed value to the previously
mentioned value i.e. Total co-ordinate + latitude at A = 100 + 192.96 = 292.96
The total co-ordinate at B is given as 292.96.
210. Which of the following doesn’t involve the method of traversing?
a) Chain surveying
b) Theodolite surveying
c) Plane Table surveying
d) Tacheometric surveying
211. Which among the following is a procedure for computation of traverse area?
a) Calculation and adjustment of latitudes and departures
b) Adjustment of instrument
c) Calculation of consecutive co-ordinates
d) Determination of R.L
212. Which of the following is the first step for determining the azimuth or bearing?
a) Determination of angles or bearings
b) To determine the true direction
c) The direction of at least one line within the traverse must be known or assumed
d) Determining the latitudes and departures
213. For calculating the traverse area, which of the following is crucial?
a) L = 0, D = 0
b) ∑L2 = 0, ∑D2 = 0
c) ∑L ≠ 0, ∑D ≠ 0
d) ∑L = 0, ∑D = 0
214. For adjusting the traverse, which of the following methods can be used?
a) Compass traversing
b) Chain traversing
c) Theodolite traversing
d) Bowditch’s method
215. Which of the following is the accurate method for plotting traverse area?
a) Transit method
b) Angle and distance method
c) Co-ordinate method
d) Bowditch’s method
216. Which of the following methods will give the accurate result while traversing?
a) Loose needle method
b) Fast needle method
c) Chain traversing
d) Compass traversing
217. Among the following, which indicates the formula for balancing angles of closed
traverse?
a) ∑ Interior angles = (n+2) * 1800
b) ∑ Interior angles = (n-2) / 1800
c) ∑ Exterior angles = (n-2) * 1800
d) ∑ Interior angles = (n-2) * 1800
By using this, the error in the interior angles can be checked and can be minimised.
218. Calculate the area of traverse for the figure, if lengths of AB, BC, CD, and DA are 12.98
m, 98.23 m, 19.77 m, 34.67 m and the angles α, β given as ____________
a) 1086.55sq. m
b) 698.41sq. m
c) 1068.91 sq. m
d) 689.14 sq. m
The figure can be divided into two triangles, which forms, ABD and BCD.
Area of triangle ABD = (1 / 2) * (ad)* sin α = (1 / 2) * (12.98*34.67) * sin () = 194.07 sq. m
Area of triangle BCD = (1 / 2) * (bc) * sin β = (1 / 2) * (98.23*19.77) * sin () = 892.48 sq. m
The total are can be given as 194.07 + 892.48 = 1086.55 sq. m.
219. What will be the value of DMD for B if DMD for A is -22.87, departures for A & B will
be -22.87, +89.24 respectively?
a) 22.8
b) 43.5
c) -43.5
d) -22.8
DMD (Departure Median Distance) for the station B can be given as
DMD of A + Departure of A + Departure of B
= -22.87 – 22.87 + 89.24 = +43.5.
220. Calculate the value of double area if the value of latitude of A is 235.67 m and DMD is
+89.26 m.
a) 20135 sq. m
b) 21305 sq. m
c) 21035 sq. m
d) 20035 sq. m
The value of double area can be calculated as the product of latitude and DMD. It can be
given as Latitude * DMD = 235.67 * 89.26 = 21035 sq. m.
221. Which of the following type of levelling is necessary across a river ravine or any
obstacle requiring a long site between two points?
a) Barometric levelling
b) Trigonometric levelling
c) Reciprocal levelling
d) Spirit levelling
222. Which of the following type of levelling is used when two points so situated that no
place for the level can be found from which the lens of foresight and backsight will be even
approximately equal?
a) Barometric levelling
b) Trigonometric levelling
c) Reciprocal levelling
d) Spirit levelling
223. Which of the following error cannot be eliminated in reciprocal levelling?
a) error in instrument adjustment
b) combined effect of earth’s curvature and refraction of atmosphere
c) variations in average refraction
d) variation in temperature
224. When an instrument is at P the staff readings on P is 1.824 and on Q is 2.748. When the
instrument at Q the staff readings on P is 0.928 and Q is 1.606. Distance between P and Q is
1010 mts. R.L. of P is 126.386. Find true R.L. of Q?
a) 125.555
b) 125.565
c)125.575
d)125.585
When observations are taken from P the apparent difference in elevation between P and Q is
2.748 – 1.824 = 0.924. When observations are taken from Q the apparent difference in
elevation between P and Q is 1.606 – 0.928 = 0.678. Hence true difference in elevation is
(0.924 +0.678)/2 = 0.801 m. Therefore, true elevation of Q is 126.386 – 0.801 = 125.585 m.
225. When instrument is at P the staff readings on P is 1.824 and on Q is 2.748. When
instrument at Q the staff readings on P is 0.928 and Q is 1.606. Distance between P and Q is
1010 mts. R.L. of P is 126.386. Find combined correction for curvature and refraction?
a) 0.057 m
b) 0.069 m
c) 0.058 m
d) 0.048 m
Combined correction for curvature and refraction is 0.06728 d2 = 0.06728(1.010)2 = 0.069 m.
226. When an instrument is at P the staff readings on P is 1.824 and on Q is 2.748. When
instrument at Q the staff readings on P is 0.928 and Q is 1.606. Distance between P and Q is
1010 mts. R.L. of P is 126.386. Find the error due to collimation?
a) 0.058 mts
b) 0.052 mts
c) 0.054 mts
d) 0.068 mts
When observations are taken from P the apparent difference in elevation between P and Q is
2.748 – 1.824 = 0.924. When observations are taken from Q the apparent difference in
elevation between P and Q is 1.606 – 0.928 = 0.678. Hence true difference in elevation is
(0.924 +0.678)/2 = 0.801 m. Error in observation = 0.924 – 0.801= 0.123 m. Error due to
curvature and refraction is 0.069 m. Therefore, error in collimation is 0.123 – 0.069 = 0.054
m.
227. When an instrument is at P the staff readings on P is 2.748 and on Q is 1.824 when
instrument at Q the staff readings on P is 1.606and Q is 0.928. Distance between P and Q is
1010 mts. R.L. of P is 126.386. Find true R.L of Q?
a) 125.585
b) 126.187
c) 127.187
d) 128.197
When observations are taken from P the apparent difference in elevation between P and Q is
2.748 – 1.824 = 0.924. When observations are taken from Q the apparent difference in
elevation between P and Q is 1.606 – 0.928 = 0.678. Hence true difference in elevation is
(0.924 +0.678)/2 = 0.801 mts. Therefore, true elevation of Q is 126.386 + 0.801 = 127.187 m.
228. When instrument is at P the staff readings on P is 2.748 and on Q is 1.824 when
instrument at Q the staff readings on P is 1.606and Q is 0.928. Distance between P and Q is
1010 mts. R.L. of P is 126.386. Find combined effect correction for curvature and refraction?
a) 0.057 m
b) 0.069 m
c) 0.058 m
d) 0.048 m
Combined correction for curvature and refraction is 0.06728 d2 = 0.06728(1.010)2 = 0.069 m.
229. When instrument is at P the staff readings on P is 2.748 and on Q is 1.824 when
instrument at Q the staff readings on P is 1.606and Q is 0.928. Distance between P and Q is
1010 mts. R.L. of P is 126.386. Find error due to collimation?
a) 0.178 mts
b) 0.192 mts
c) 0.194 mts
d) 0.188 mts
When observations are taken from P the apparent difference in elevation between P and Q is
2.748 – 1.824 = 0.924. When observations are taken from Q the apparent difference in
elevation between P and Q is 1.606 – 0.928 = 0.678. Hence true difference in elevation is
(0.924 +0.678)/2 = 0.801 mts. Error in observation = 0.924 – 0.801= 0.123 m. Error due to
curvature and refraction is 0.069 mts. Therefore, error in collimation is 0.123 + 0.069 = 0.192
m.
220. When an instrument is at P the staff readings on P is 2.748 and on Q is 1.824 when
instrument at Q the staff readings on P is 1.606 and Q is 0.928. Distance between P and Q is
1010 mts. R.L. of P is 126.386. Find the angular error in collimation adjustment of the
instrument?
a) 39″
b) 49″
c) 59″
d) 69″
When observations are taken from P the apparent difference in elevation between P and Q is
2.748 – 1.824 = 0.924. When observations are taken from Q the apparent difference in
elevation between P and Q is 1.606 – 0.928 = 0.678. Hence true difference in elevation is
(0.924 +0.678)/2 = 0.801 mts. Error in observation = 0.924 – 0.801= 0.123 m. Error due to
curvature and refraction is 0.069 mts. Therefore, error in collimation is 0.123 + 0.069 = 0.192
m. If ∆ is the inclination of line of the site then tan∆ = 0.192/1010 = 0.000190. Therefore ∆
=39″.
221. What is the height of instrument, if elevation of benchmark is 200.852 m, back sight is
2.324 m, fore sight is 1.836 m?
a) 213.176
b) 203.176
c) 211.340
d) 201.340
Height of instrument is obtained by adding the elevation of benchmark and back sight. Here,
201.852 + 2.324 = 203.176 m.
222. What is the elevation of a point, if the elevation of a benchmark is 200.852 m, back sight
is 2.324 m, foresight is 1.836 m?
a) 213.176
b) 203.176
c) 211.340
d) 201.340
Elevation of a point is obtained by subtracting the elevation of benchmark and foresight.
Here, 201.852 – 1.836 = 201.340 m.
In cartography, contour lines are an imaginary line of a terrain that joins the point of equal
elevation above a given level, such as mean sea level or benchmark.
Characteristics of Contour Lines in Surveying
Following are the characteristics of contour lines in surveying for reading contour maps:
No two lines meet on intersect each other in any case.
All lines close themselves within the map boundaries or outside it.
If the contour lines are very close to each other, this indicates steep slope.
If the contour lines are at very large distance to each other, this indicates a gentle slope.
If the closed lines have higher elevation in the center then it represents the hill or mountain.
If the closed lines have increasing elevation as we move away, then it represents a pond or a
depression in the ground profile. In a single contour line, at any point the elevation is same.
Following are the uses and importance of different types of contour lines in surveying:
1. Isopleth: Isopleth on a contour map connects the places having the same value of some
measurable quantity of geographical or meteorological phenomena.
For Ex. The population density of an area can be calculated by the quotient of population in
the area and surface area of a region.
2. Isohyet: Isohyet indicates the points of equal rainfall of an area in the given time.
3. Isobar: Isobars on contour maps indicates the point of equal or constant atmospheric
pressure for a given period. This type of contour is used in the prediction of future weather
patterns isobars are commonly used in television weather reporting.
4. Isobath: It is a type of imaginary contour lines on a map of chart that connects all the
points having same depth below water surface like ocean, sea and lake.
5. Isohaline: It is a type of contour lines on a map which connect the point of equal salinity
in the water body (majorly contour).
6. Isotherm: It is a type of contour lines on a map of chart with connects the point of equal
temperature of a given area. Further they are divided into two types.
Isocheim: It is a line of equal mean winter temperature.
Isothere: It is a line of equal means summer temperature.
An isotherm at 0 degree is called freezing level.
7. Isohel: It is a type of contour lines on a map that connects the places of equal duration of
sunshine for a given period.
8. Isohume: It is a type of contour lines on a map that connects all the points of equal relative
humidity of a specific area.
9. Isoneph: It’s a line that connects all points of equal amount of cloud cover.
10. Isopectic: Isopectic is imaginary lines on a contour map or chart that connects all the
points at which the ice starts to form at the same time.
11. Isotach: It’s a line that connects all points of equal wind speed.
12. Isogeotherm: Isogeotherm on contour map connects all the points within the earth having
the same mean temperature.