Cloud Computing Questions and Answers –

Introduction to Cloud Computing

Cloud Computing

1. _________ computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed

network using virtualized resources.
a) Distributed
b) Cloud
c) Soft
d) Parallel
View Answer

Explanation: Cloud Computing applications are accessed by common Internet protocols

and networking standards.
2. Point out the wrong statement.
a) The massive scale of cloud computing systems was enabled by the popularization of
the Internet
b) Soft computing represents a real paradigm shift in the way in which systems are
deployed
c) Cloud computing makes the long-held dream of utility computing possible with a pay-
as-you-go, infinitely scalable, universally available system
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Cloud Computing is distinguished by the notion that resources are virtual
and limitless and that details of the physical systems on which software runs are
abstracted from the user.
3. ________ as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the computing
industry itself.
a) Model
b) Computing
c) Software
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Cloud computing takes the technology, services, and applications that are
similar to those on the Internet and turns them into a self-service utility.
4. Which of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?
a) Reliability
b) Productivity
c) Abstraction
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Explanation: Cloud computing abstracts the details of system implementation from users
and developers.
5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) All applications benefit from deployment in the cloud
b) With cloud computing, you can start very small and become big very fast
c) Cloud computing is revolutionary, even if the technology it is built on is evolutionary
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Issues with latency, transaction control, and in particular security and
regulatory compliance are of particular concern.
6. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources?
a) Polymorphism
b) Abstraction
c) Virtualization
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Applications run on physical systems that aren’t specified, data is stored in
locations that are unknown, administration of systems is outsourced to others, and
access by users is ubiquitous.
7. ________ has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud
computing.
a) Internet
b) Softwares
c) Web Service
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The Internet offers abstraction, runs using the same set of protocols and
standards, and uses the same applications and operating systems.
8. Which of the following can be identified as cloud?
a) Web Applications
b) Intranet
c) Hadoop
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: When an intranet becomes large enough that a diagram no longer wishes
to differentiate between individual physical systems, the intranet too becomes identified
as a cloud.
9. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources
and presenting them as a ________ resource.
a) real
b) virtual
c) cloud
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Explanation: Cloud Computing is a new model for provisioning resources, for staging
applications, and for platform-independent user access to services.
10. Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?
a) Azure
b) AWS
c) Cloudera
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: One of the most successful cloud-based businesses is Amazon Web

Services, which is an Infrastructure as a Service offering that lets you rent virtual
computers on Amazon’s own infrastructure.

Cloud Computing Questions and Answers – Cloud

Types – 1
1. _________ model consists of the particular types of services that you can access on a
cloud computing platform.
a) Service
b) Deployment
c) Application
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Service models describe the type of service that the service provider is
offering.
2. Point out the correct statement.
a) The use of the word “cloud” makes reference to the two essential concepts
b) Cloud computing abstracts systems by pooling and sharing resources
c) cloud computing is nothing more than the Internet
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Abstraction and Virtualization are the two essential concepts.

3. ________ refers to the location and management of the cloud’s infrastructure.
a) Service
b) Deployment
c) Application
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The deployment model tells you where the cloud is located and for what
purpose.
4. Which of the following is the deployment model?
a) public
b) private
c) hybrid
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Public, private, community, and hybrid clouds are deployment models.
5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Cloud Computing has two distinct sets of models
b) Amazon has built a worldwide network of datacenters to service its search engine
c) Azure enables .NET Framework applications to run over the Internet
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Google has built mega data centres for its search engine.
6. Which of the following is best known service model?
a) SaaS
b) IaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The best-known service models are Software as a Service, Platform as a

Service, and Infrastructure as a Service—the SPI model.
7. The __________ model originally did not require a cloud to use virtualization to pool
resources.
a) NEFT
b) NIST
c) NIT
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: NIST stands for National Institute of Standards and Technology.

8. _______ model attempts to categorize a cloud network based on four dimensional
factors.
a) Cloud Square
b) Cloud Service
c) Cloud Cube
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Cloud Cube model is mainly used for secure collaboration.

9. How many types of dimensions exists in Cloud Cube Model?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Explanation: There are four types of dimensions in Cloud Cube.

10. Which of the following dimension is related to organization’s boundaries?
a) Physical location of data
b) Ownership
c) Security boundary
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Internal (I) / External (E) determines your organization’s boundaries.

Cloud Computing Questions and Answers – Cloud

Types – 2
1. How many types of security boundary values exist in Cloud Cube model?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: There are two types depending upon network firewall.

2. Point out the correct statement.
a) A deployment model defines the purpose of the cloud and the nature of how the cloud
is located
b) Service model defines the purpose of the cloud and the nature of how the cloud is
located
c) Cloud Square Model is meant to show is that the traditional notion of a network
boundary being the network’s firewall no longer applies in cloud computing
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Four types of deployment models exist.

3. Which of the following is provided by ownership dimension of Cloud Cube Model?
a) Proprietary
b) Owner
c) P
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: P stands for Proprietary ownership.

4. __________ is a measure of whether the operation is inside or outside the security
boundary or network firewall.
a) Per
b) P
c) Pre
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Per stands for Perimeterised.

5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Public cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or by a third party
b) A community cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or by a third
party
c) Private clouds may be either on- or off-premises
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The public cloud infrastructure is available for public use alternatively for a
large industry group.
6. Which of the following is related to the service provided by Cloud?
a) Sourcing
b) Ownership
c) Reliability
d) AaaS
View Answer

Explanation: Insourced or Outsourced means whether the service is provided by the

customer or the service provider.
7. ________ dimension corresponds to two different states in the eight possible cloud
forms.
a) Physical location of data
b) Ownership
c) Security boundary
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The sourcing dimension addresses the deliverer of the service.

8. The ________ cloud infrastructure is operated for the exclusive use of an
organization.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The cloud may be managed by that organization or a third party.

9. __________ cloud is one where the cloud has been organized to serve a common
function or purpose.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: A community cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or

by a third party.
10. A hybrid cloud combines multiple clouds where those clouds retain their unique
identities but are bound together as a unit.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid
View Answer

Explanation: A hybrid cloud may offer standardized or proprietary access to data and
applications, as well as application portability.
This set of Cloud Computing Questions & Answers for entrance exams focuses
on “Cloud Types – 3”.

1. Which of the following is owned by an organization selling cloud services?

a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid
View Answer

Explanation: The public cloud infrastructure is available for public use alternatively for a
large industry group.
2. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Everything from the application down to the infrastructure is the vendor’s responsibility
b) In the deployment model, different cloud types are an expression of the manner in
which infrastructure is deployed
c) AaaS provides virtual machines, operating systems, applications, services,
development frameworks, transactions, and control structures
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: PaaS provides virtual machines, operating systems, applications, services,

development frameworks, transactions, and control structures.
3. _______ provides virtual machines, virtual storage, virtual infrastructure, and other
hardware assets.
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The IaaS service provider manages all the infrastructure, while the client is
responsible for all other aspects of the deployment.
4. Which of the following provides development frameworks and control structures?
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a form of cloud computing that provides
virtualized computing resources over the Internet.
5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) A PaaS service adds integration features, middleware, and other orchestration and
choreography services to the IaaS model
b) XaaS or ‘anything as a service’ is the delivery of IT as a Service through hybrid Cloud
computing
c) Monitoring as a Service (MaaS) is at present still an emerging piece of the Cloud
jigsaw
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Monitoring as a Service provides the option to offload a large majority of

those costs by having it run as a service as opposed to a fully invested in house tool.
6. _______ is a complete operating environment with applications, management, and
user interface.
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: In the SaaS model, the application is provided to the client through a thin
client interface.
7. How many types of service model are mainly present in Cloud?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Explanation: Three types of Service model exist.

8. The three different service models are together known as the _____ model of cloud
computing.
a) SPI
b) SIP
c) CPI
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Many other service models are also present.

9. CaaS stands for _____________ as service.
a) Compliance
b) Computer
c) Community
d) Communication
View Answer
Explanation: Communication as a Service (CaaS), enables the consumer to utilize
Enterprise level VoIP, VPNs, PBX and Unified Communications without the costly
investment of purchasing, hosting and managing the infrastructure.
10. Which of the following is the IaaS service provider?
a) EC2
b) EC1
c) EC10
d) Hybrid
View Answer

Explanation: On Amazon EC2, a client would provision a computer in the form of a

virtual machine image.

Cloud Computing Questions and Answers –

Attributes of Cloud Computing
1. Which of the following is one of the unique attributes of Cloud Computing?
a) utility type of delivery
b) elasticity
c) low barrier to entry
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: These attributes change how applications are created, priced, and
delivered.
2. Point out the correct statement.
a) Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is small aspect of cloud computing
b) Cloud computing does not have impact on software licensing
c) Cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and developers
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Because it is based on the paradigm of a shared multi-tenant utility.

3. Applications that work with cloud computing that have low margins and usually low
risk are _____________
a) high touch
b) low touch
c) moderate touch
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The “high touch” applications that come with high margins require
committed resources and pose more of a risk.
4. A service that concentrates on hardware follows the _________ as a Service model.
a) IaaS
b) CaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Amazon web service follows PaaS model.

5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) A cloud is defined as the combination of the infrastructure of a datacenter with the
ability to provision hardware and software
b) High touch applications are best done on-premises
c) The Google App Engine follows IaaS
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The Google App Engine follows PaaS.

6. When you add a software stack, such as an operating system and applications to the
service, the model shifts to _____ model.
a) SaaS
b) PaaS
c) IaaS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Microsoft’s Windows Azure Platform is best described as currently using

SaaS model.
7. Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive service model?
a) IaaS
b) CaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: When the service requires the client to use a complete

hardware/software/application stack, it is using the most refined and restrictive service
model.
8. _______ is a pay-as-you-go model matches resources to need on an ongoing basis.
a) Utility
b) Elasticity
c) Low barrier to entry
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: This eliminates waste and has the added benefit of shifting risk from the
client.
9. _______ feature allows you to optimize your system and capture all possible
transactions.
a) scalability
b) reliability
c) elasticity
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: You have the ability to right-size resources as required.

10. _______ enables batch processing, which greatly speeds up high-processing
applications.
a) Scalability
b) Reliability
c) Elasticity
d) Utility
View Answer

Cloud Computing Questions and Answers – Benefits and

Drawbacks of Cloud Computing
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This set of Cloud Computing Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Benefits and Drawbacks of Cloud Computing”.

1. Which of the following was one of the top 5 cloud applications in 2010?
a) Cloud backup
b) Web applications
c) Business applications
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
2. Point out the correct statement.
a) Google’s cloud includes perhaps some 10 data centers worldwide
b) Flipkart.com’s infrastructure was built to support elastic demand so the system could
accommodate peak traffic
c) Data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
3. Which of the following benefit is related to creates resources that are pooled together
in a system that supports multi-tenant usage?
a) On-demand self-service
b) Broad network access
c) Resource pooling
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
4. The _____ is something that you can obtain under contract from your vendor.
a) PoS
b) QoS
c) SoS
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power
b) The cost advantages of cloud computing have enabled new software vendors to
create productivity applications
c) A client can provision computer resources without the need for interaction with cloud
service provider personnel
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
6. All cloud computing applications suffer from the inherent _______ that is intrinsic in
their WAN connectivity.
a) propagation
b) latency
c) noise
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
7. Cloud computing is a _______ system and it is necessarily unidirectional in nature.
a) stateless
b) stateful
c) reliable
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
8. Which of the following is the most important area of concern in cloud computing?
a) Security
b) Storage
c) Scalability
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
9. You can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your _____ in the face of government
actions.
a) scalability
b) reliability
c) privacy
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
10. Which of the following architectural standards is working with cloud computing
industry?
a) Service-oriented architecture
b) Standardized Web services
c) Web-application frameworks
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: This feature obviates the need for planning and provisioning.

Machine Learning MCQ Questions

This set of Artificial Intelligence Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Machine Learning”.

1. What is Machine learning?

a) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
b) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
c) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
d) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
View Answer

Explanation: Machine learning is the autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the

use of computer programs.
2. Which of the factors affect the performance of learner system does not include?
a) Representation scheme used
b) Training scenario
c) Type of feedback
d) Good data structures
View Answer

Explanation: Factors that affect the performance of learner system does not include
good data structures.
3. Different learning methods does not include?
a) Memorization
b) Analogy
c) Deduction
d) Introduction
View Answer

Explanation: Different learning methods does not include the introduction.

4. In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not include?
a) Phonological
b) Syntactic
c) Empirical
d) Logical
View Answer

Explanation: In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not include
empirical knowledge.
5. A model of language consists of the categories which does not include?
a) Language units
b) Role structure of units
c) System constraints
d) Structural units
View Answer

Explanation: A model of language consists of the categories which does not include
structural units.
6. What is a top-down parser?
a) Begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting lower
level constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written
b) Begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting upper
level constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written
c) Begins by hypothesizing lower level constituents and successively predicting a
sentence (the symbol S)
d) Begins by hypothesizing upper level constituents and successively predicting a
sentence (the symbol S)
View Answer

Explanation: A top-down parser begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and

successively predicting lower level constituents until individual preterminal symbols are
written.
7. Among the following which is not a horn clause?
a) p
b) Øp V q
c) p → q
d) p → Øq
View Answer

Explanation: p → Øq is not a horn clause.

8. The action ‘STACK(A, B)’ of a robot arm specify to _______________
a) Place block B on Block A
b) Place blocks A, B on the table in that order
c) Place blocks B, A on the table in that order
d) Place block A on block B
View Answer

Explanation: The action ‘STACK(A,B)’ of a robot arm specify to Place block A on block
B.
Question Context

A feature F1 can take certain value: A, B, C, D, E, & F and represents grade of

students from a college.

1) Which of the following statement is true in following case?

A) Feature F1 is an example of nominal variable.

B) Feature F1 is an example of ordinal variable.
C) It doesn’t belong to any of the above category.
D) Both of these

Solution: (B)

Ordinal variables are the variables which has some order in their categories. For
example, grade A should be consider as high grade than grade B.

2) Which of the following is an example of a deterministic algorithm?

A) PCA

B) K-Means
C) None of the above

Solution: (A)

A deterministic algorithm is that in which output does not change on different runs. PCA
would give the same result if we run again, but not k-means.

3) [True or False] A Pearson correlation between two variables is zero but, still
their values can still be related to each other.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

Solution: (A)

Y=X2. Note that, they are not only associated, but one is a function of the other and
Pearson correlation between them is 0.

4) Which of the following statement(s) is / are true for Gradient Decent (GD) and
Stochastic Gradient Decent (SGD)?

1. In GD and SGD, you update a set of parameters in an iterative manner to

minimize the error function. 
2. In SGD, you have to run through all the samples in your training set for a
single update of a parameter in each iteration. 
3. In GD, you either use the entire data or a subset of training data to update a
parameter in each iteration. 

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Only 3

D) 1 and 2

E) 2 and 3

F) 1,2 and 3

Solution: (A)
In SGD for each iteration you choose the batch which is generally contain the random
sample of data But in case of GD each iteration contain the all of the training
observations.

5) Which of the following hyper parameter(s), when increased may cause random
forest to over fit the data? 

1. Number of Trees
2. Depth of Tree
3. Learning Rate

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Only 3

D) 1 and 2

E) 2 and 3

F) 1,2 and 3

Solution: (B)

Usually, if we increase the depth of tree it will cause overfitting. Learning rate is not an
hyperparameter in random forest. Increase in the number of tree will cause under fitting.

6) Imagine, you are working with “Analytics Vidhya” and you want to develop a
machine learning algorithm which predicts the number of views on the articles. 

Your analysis is based on features like author name, number of articles written by
the same author on Analytics Vidhya in past and a few other features. Which of
the following evaluation metric would you choose in that case?

1. Mean Square Error

2. Accuracy
3. F1 Score

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Only 3
D) 1 and 3

E) 2 and 3

F) 1 and 2

Solution:(A)

You can think that the number of views of articles is the continuous target variable which
fall under the regression problem. So, mean squared error will be used as an evaluation
metrics.

7) Given below are three images (1,2,3). Which of the following option is correct
for these images?

A)

B)

C) 
A) 1 is tanh, 2 is ReLU and 3 is SIGMOID activation functions.

B) 1 is SIGMOID, 2 is ReLU and 3 is tanh activation functions.

C) 1 is ReLU, 2 is tanh and 3 is SIGMOID activation functions.

D) 1 is tanh, 2 is SIGMOID and 3 is ReLU activation functions.

Solution: (D)

The range of SIGMOID function is [0,1].

The range of the tanh function is [-1,1].

The range of the RELU function is [0, infinity].

So Option D is the right answer.

8) Below are the 8 actual values of target variable in the train file.

[0,0,0,1,1,1,1,1]
What is the entropy of the target variable? 

A) -(5/8 log(5/8) + 3/8 log(3/8))

B) 5/8 log(5/8) + 3/8 log(3/8)

C) 3/8 log(5/8) + 5/8 log(3/8)

D) 5/8 log(3/8) – 3/8 log(5/8)

Solution: (A)

The formula for entropy is  

So the answer is A.

9) Let’s say, you are working with categorical feature(s) and you have not looked
at the distribution of the categorical variable in the test data.

You want to apply one hot encoding (OHE) on the categorical feature(s). What
challenges you may face if you have applied OHE on a categorical variable of train
dataset? 

A) All categories of categorical variable are not present in the test dataset.

B) Frequency distribution of categories is different in train as compared to the test

dataset.

C) Train and Test always have same distribution.

D) Both A and B

E) None of these

Solution: (D)

Both are true, The OHE will fail to encode the categories which is present in test but not
in train so it could be one of the main challenges while applying OHE. The challenge
given in option B is also true you need to more careful while applying OHE if frequency
distribution doesn’t same in train and test.

10) Skip gram model is one of the best models used in Word2vec algorithm for
words embedding. Which one of the following models depict the skip gram
model?
A) A

B) B

C) Both A and B

D) None of these

Solution: (B)

Both models (model1 and model2) are used in Word2vec algorithm. The model1
represent a CBOW model where as Model2 represent the Skip gram model.

11) Let’s say, you are using activation function X in hidden layers of neural
network. At a particular neuron for any given input, you get the output as “-
0.0001”. Which of the following activation function could X represent? 

A) ReLU

B) tanh

C) SIGMOID

D) None of these

Solution: (B)

The function is a tanh because the this function output range is between (-1,-1).

12) [True or False] LogLoss evaluation metric can have negative values.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Solution: (B)

Log loss cannot have negative values.

 
13) Which of the following statements is/are true about “Type-1” and “Type-2”
errors?

1. Type1 is known as false positive and Type2 is known as false negative.

2. Type1 is known as false negative and Type2 is known as false positive.
3. Type1 error occurs when we reject a null hypothesis when it is actually
true.

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Only 3

D) 1 and 2

E) 1 and 3

F) 2 and 3

Solution: (E)

In statistical hypothesis testing, a type I error is the incorrect rejection of a true null
hypothesis (a “false positive”), while a type II error is incorrectly retaining a false null
hypothesis (a “false negative”).

14) Which of the following is/are one of the important step(s) to pre-process the
text in NLP based projects?

1. Stemming
2. Stop word removal
3. Object Standardization

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 1,2 and 3

Solution: (D)

Stemming is a rudimentary rule-based process of stripping the suffixes (“ing”, “ly”, “es”,
“s” etc) from a word.
Stop words are those words which will have not relevant to the context of the data for
example is/am/are.

Object Standardization is also one of the good way to pre-process the text.

15) Suppose you want to project high dimensional data into lower dimensions.
The two most famous dimensionality reduction algorithms used here are PCA and
t-SNE. Let’s say you have applied both algorithms respectively on data “X” and
you got the datasets “X_projected_PCA” , “X_projected_tSNE”.

Which of the following statements is true for “X_projected_PCA” &

“X_projected_tSNE” ?

A) X_projected_PCA will have interpretation in the nearest neighbour space.

B) X_projected_tSNE will have interpretation in the nearest neighbour space.

C) Both will have interpretation in the nearest neighbour space.

D) None of them will have interpretation in the nearest neighbour space.

Solution: (B)

t-SNE algorithm consider nearest neighbour points to reduce the dimensionality of the
data. So, after using t-SNE we can think that reduced dimensions will also have
interpretation in nearest neighbour space. But in case of PCA it is not the case.

Context: 16-17

Given below are three scatter plots for two features (Image 1, 2 & 3 from left to
right).

16) In the above images, which of the following is/are example of multi-collinear
features?

A) Features in Image 1

B) Features in Image 2

C) Features in Image 3

D) Features in Image 1 & 2

E) Features in Image 2 & 3

F) Features in Image 3 & 1

Solution: (D)

In Image 1, features have high positive correlation where as in Image 2 has high
negative correlation between the features so in both images pair of features are the
example of multicollinear features.

17) In previous question, suppose you have identified multi-collinear features.

Which of the following action(s) would you perform next? 

1. Remove both collinear variables.

2. Instead of removing both variables, we can remove only one variable.
3. Removing correlated variables might lead to loss of information. In order to
retain those variables, we can use penalized regression models like ridge or
lasso regression.

A) Only 1

B)Only 2

C) Only 3

D) Either 1 or 3

E) Either 2 or 3

Solution: (E)

You cannot remove the both features because after removing the both features  you will
lose all of the information so you should either remove the only 1 feature or you can use
the regularization algorithm like L1 and L2.

18) Adding a non-important feature to a linear regression model may result in.

1. Increase in R-square
2. Decrease in R-square

A) Only 1 is correct

B) Only 2 is correct

C) Either 1 or 2

D) None of these
Solution: (A)

After adding a feature in feature space, whether that feature is important or unimportant
features the R-squared always increase.

19) Suppose, you are given three variables X, Y and Z. The Pearson correlation
coefficients for (X, Y), (Y, Z) and (X, Z) are C1, C2 & C3 respectively.

Now, you have added 2 in all values of X (i.enew values become X+2), subtracted 2
from all values of Y (i.e. new values are Y-2) and Z remains the same. The new
coefficients for (X,Y), (Y,Z) and (X,Z) are given by D1, D2 & D3 respectively. How
do the values of D1, D2 & D3 relate to C1, C2 & C3? 

A) D1= C1, D2 < C2, D3 > C3

B) D1 = C1, D2 > C2, D3 > C3

C) D1 = C1, D2 > C2, D3 < C3

D) D1 = C1, D2 < C2, D3 < C3

E) D1 = C1, D2 = C2, D3 = C3

F) Cannot be determined

Solution: (E)

Correlation between the features won’t change if you add or subtract a value in the
features.

20) Imagine, you are solving a classification problems with highly imbalanced
class. The majority class is observed 99% of times in the training data.

Your model has 99% accuracy after taking the predictions on test data. Which of
the following is true in such a case?

1. Accuracy metric is not a good idea for imbalanced class problems.

2. Accuracy metric is a good idea for imbalanced class problems.
3. Precision and recall metrics are good for imbalanced class problems.
4. Precision and recall metrics aren’t good for imbalanced class problems.

A) 1 and 3

B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3

D) 2 and 4

Solution: (A)

Refer the question number 4 from in this article.

21) In ensemble learning, you aggregate the predictions for weak learners, so that
an ensemble of these models will give a better prediction than prediction of
individual models.

Which of the following statements is / are true for weak learners used in ensemble
model?

1. They don’t usually overfit.

2. They have high bias, so they cannot solve complex learning problems
3. They usually overfit.

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) Only 1

E) Only 2

F) None of the above

Solution: (A)

Weak learners are sure about particular part of a problem. So, they usually don’t overfit
which means that weak learners have low variance and high bias.

22) Which of the following options is/are true for K-fold cross-validation?

1. Increase in K will result in higher time required to cross validate the result.
2. Higher values of K will result in higher confidence on the cross-validation
result as compared to lower value of K.
3. If K=N, then it is called Leave one out cross validation, where N is the
number of observations.

 
A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 1 and 3

D) 1,2 and 3

Solution: (D)

Larger k value means less bias towards overestimating the true expected error (as
training folds will be closer to the total dataset) and higher running time (as you are
getting closer to the limit case: Leave-One-Out CV). We also need to consider the
variance between the k folds accuracy while selecting the k.

Question Context 23-24

Cross-validation is an important step in machine learning for hyper parameter

tuning. Let’s say you are tuning a hyper-parameter “max_depth” for GBM by
selecting it from 10 different depth values (values are greater than 2) for tree
based model using 5-fold cross validation.

Time taken by an algorithm for training (on a model with max_depth 2) 4-fold is 10
seconds and for the prediction on remaining 1-fold is 2 seconds.

Note: Ignore hardware dependencies from the equation.

23) Which of the following option is true for overall execution time for 5-fold cross
validation with 10 different values of “max_depth”? 

A) Less than 100 seconds

B) 100 – 300 seconds

C) 300 – 600 seconds

D) More than or equal to 600 seconds

C) None of the above

D) Can’t estimate

Solution: (D)

Each iteration for depth “2” in 5-fold cross validation will take 10 secs for training and 2
second for testing. So, 5 folds will take 12*5 = 60 seconds. Since we are searching over
the 10 depth values so the algorithm would take 60*10 = 600 seconds. But training and
testing a model on depth greater than 2 will take more time than depth “2” so overall
timing would be greater than 600.

24) In previous question, if you train the same algorithm for tuning 2 hyper
parameters say “max_depth” and “learning_rate”.

You want to select the right value against “max_depth” (from given 10 depth
values) and learning rate (from given 5 different learning rates). In such cases,
which of the following will represent the overall time?

A) 1000-1500 second

B) 1500-3000 Second

C) More than or equal to 3000 Second

D) None of these

Solution: (D)

Same as question number 23.

25) Given below is a scenario for training error TE and Validation error VE for a
machine learning algorithm M1. You want to choose a hyperparameter (H) based
on TE and VE.

H TE VE

1 105 90

2 200 85

3 250 96

4 105 85

5 300 100

 Which value of H will you choose based on the above table?

A) 1

B) 2
C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

Solution: (D)

Looking at the table, option D seems the best

26) What would you do in PCA to get the same projection as SVD?

A) Transform data to zero mean

B) Transform data to zero median

C) Not possible

D) None of these

Solution: (A)

When the data has a zero mean vector PCA will have same projections as SVD,
otherwise you have to centre the data first before taking SVD.

Question Context 27-28

Assume there is a black box algorithm, which takes training data with multiple
observations (t1, t2, t3,…….. tn) and a new observation (q1). The black box
outputs the nearest neighbor of q1 (say ti) and its corresponding class label ci. 

You can also think that this black box algorithm is same as 1-NN (1-nearest
neighbor).

27) It is possible to construct a k-NN classification algorithm based on this black

box alone.

Note: Where n (number of training observations) is very large compared to k.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

Solution: (A)
In first step, you pass an observation (q1) in the black box algorithm so this algorithm
would return a nearest observation and its class.

In second step, you through it out nearest observation from train data and again input
the observation (q1). The black box algorithm will again return the a nearest observation
and it’s class.

You need to repeat this procedure k times

28) Instead of using 1-NN black box we want to use the j-NN (j>1) algorithm as
black box. Which of the following option is correct for finding k-NN using j-NN?

1. J must be a proper factor of k

2. J > k
3. Not possible

A)  1

B) 2

C) 3

Solution: (A)

Same as question number 27

29) Suppose you are given 7 Scatter plots 1-7 (left to right) and you want to
compare Pearson correlation coefficients between variables of each scatterplot.

Which of the following is in the right order?

1. 1<2<3<4
2. 1>2>3 > 4
3. 7<6<5<4
4. 7>6>5>4

A) 1 and 3

B) 2 and 3

C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 4

Solution: (B)

from image 1to 4 correlation is decreasing (absolute value). But from image 4 to 7
correlation is increasing but values are negative (for example, 0, -0.3, -0.7, -0.99).

30) You can evaluate the performance of a binary class classification problem
using different metrics such as accuracy, log-loss, F-Score. Let’s say, you are
using the log-loss function as evaluation metric.

Which of the following option is / are true for interpretation of log-loss as an

evaluation metric?

1.
If a classifier is confident about an incorrect classification, then log-loss will
penalise it heavily.
2. For a particular observation, the classifier assigns a very small probability for the
correct class then the corresponding contribution to the log-loss will be very large.
3. Lower the log-loss, the better is the model.

A) 1 and 3

B) 2 and 3

C) 1 and 2

D) 1,2 and 3

Solution: (D)

Options are self-explanatory.

Question 31-32

Below are five samples given in the dataset.

Note: Visual distance between the points in the image represents the actual
distance.

 
31) Which of the following is leave-one-out cross-validation accuracy for 3-NN (3-
nearest neighbor)?

A) 0

D) 0.4

C) 0.8

D) 1

Solution: (C)

In Leave-One-Out cross validation, we will select (n-1) observations for training and 1
observation of validation. Consider each point as a cross validation point and then find
the 3 nearest point to this point. So if you repeat this procedure for all points you will get
the correct classification for all positive class given in the above figure but negative class
will be misclassified. Hence you will get 80% accuracy.

32) Which of the following value of K will have least leave-one-out cross validation
accuracy?

A) 1NN

B) 3NN

C) 4NN

D) All have same leave one out error

Solution: (A)

Each point which will always be misclassified in 1-NN which means that you will get the
0% accuracy.

33) Suppose you are given the below data and you want to apply a logistic
regression model for classifying it in two given classes.

You are using logistic regression with L1 regularization.

 Where C is the regularization parameter and w1 & w2 are the coefficients of x1 and
x2.

Which of the following option is correct when you increase the value of C from zero to a
very large value?

A) First w2 becomes zero and then w1 becomes zero

B) First w1 becomes zero and then w2 becomes zero

C) Both becomes zero at the same time

D) Both cannot be zero even after very large value of C

Solution: (B)

By looking at the image, we see that even on just using x2, we can efficiently perform
classification. So at first w1 will become 0. As regularization parameter increases more,
w2 will come more and more closer to 0.

34) Suppose we have a dataset which can be trained with 100% accuracy with help
of a decision tree of depth 6. Now consider the points below and choose the
option based on these points.

Note: All other hyper parameters are same and other factors are not affected. 

1. Depth 4 will have high bias and low variance

2. Depth 4 will have low bias and low variance

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both 1 and 2

D) None of the above

Solution: (A)

If you fit decision tree of depth 4 in such data means it will more likely to underfit the
data. So, in case of underfitting you will have high bias and low variance.

35) Which of the following options can be used to get global minima in k-Means
Algorithm?

1. Try to run algorithm for different centroid initialization

 2. Adjust number of iterations
3. Find out the optimal number of clusters

A) 2 and 3

B) 1 and 3

C) 1 and 2

D) All of above

Solution: (D)

All of the option can be tuned to find the global minima.

36) Imagine you are working on a project which is a binary classification problem.
You trained a model on training dataset and get the below confusion matrix on
validation dataset.

Based on the above confusion matrix, choose which option(s) below will give you
correct predictions?

1. Accuracy is ~0.91
2. Misclassification rate is ~ 0.91
3. False positive rate is ~0.95
4. True positive rate is ~0.95

A) 1 and 3

B) 2 and 4

C) 1 and 4

D) 2 and 3

Solution: (C)

The Accuracy (correct classification) is (50+100)/165 which is nearly equal to 0.91.

The true Positive Rate is how many times you are predicting positive class correctly so
true positive rate would be 100/105 = 0.95 also known as “Sensitivity” or “Recall”

37) For which of the following hyperparameters, higher value is better for decision
tree algorithm?
 1. Number of samples used for split
2. Depth of tree
3. Samples for leaf

A)1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 1 and 3

D) 1, 2 and 3

E) Can’t say

Solution: (E)

For all three options A, B and C, it is not necessary that if you increase the value of
parameter the performance may increase. For example, if we have a very high value of
depth of tree, the resulting tree may overfit the data, and would not generalize well. On
the other hand, if we have a very low value, the tree may underfit the data. So, we can’t
say for sure that “higher is better”.

Context 38-39

Imagine, you have a 28 * 28 image and you run a 3 * 3 convolution neural network
on it with the input depth of 3 and output depth of 8.

Note: Stride is 1 and you are using same padding.

38) What is the dimension of output feature map when you are using the given
parameters.

A) 28 width, 28 height and 8 depth

B) 13 width, 13 height and 8 depth

C) 28 width, 13 height and 8 depth

D) 13 width, 28 height and 8 depth

Solution: (A)

The formula for calculating output size is

output size = (N – F)/S + 1

where, N is input size, F is filter size and S is stride.

Read this article to get a better understanding.

39)  What is the dimensions of output feature map when you are using following
parameters.

A)  28 width, 28 height and 8 depth

B) 13 width, 13 height and 8 depth

C) 28 width, 13 height and 8 depth

D) 13 width, 28 height and 8 depth

Solution: (B)

Same as above

40) Suppose, we were plotting the visualization for different values of C (Penalty
parameter) in SVM algorithm. Due to some reason, we forgot to tag the C values
with visualizations. In that case, which of the following option best explains the C
values for the images below (1,2,3 left to right, so C values are C1 for image1, C2
for image2 and C3 for image3 ) in case of rbf kernel.

A) C1 = C2 = C3

B) C1 > C2 > C3

C) C1 < C2 < C3

D) None of these

Solution: (C)

Penalty parameter C of the error term. It also controls the trade-off between smooth
decision boundary and classifying the training points correctly. For large values of C, the
optimization will choose a smaller-margin hyperplane. Read more here.

Advance Computer Network

1. The IETF standards documents are called ________

a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) DFC
View Answer

Explanation: RFC stands for Request For Comments and they are documents that
describe methods, behaviors, research, or innovations applicable to the working of the
Internet.
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers,
headers are ___________
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
View Answer

Explanation: Each layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous layer. For
example, in the Internet layer, the IP header is added over the TCP header on the data
packet that came from the transport layer.
3. The structure or format of data is called ___________
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) Formatting
View Answer

Explanation: The structure and format of data are defined using syntax. Semantics
defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based
on that interpretation. In programming languages, syntax of the instructions plays a vital
role in designing of the program.
4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________
transmission.
a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
View Answer

Explanation: In simplex transmission, data flows in single direction which in this case
refers to the data flowing from the keyboard to the computer. Another example would be
of the mouse where the data flows from the mouse to the computer only.
5. The first Network was called ________
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
View Answer

Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Networks. It

was the first network to be implemented which used the TCP/IP protocol in the year
1969.
6. A _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
View Answer

Explanation: Messages travel from sender to receiver via a physical path called the
medium using a set of methods/rules called protocol. Mediums can be guided (wired) or
unguided (wireless).
7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the
communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
View Answer

Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal Communications Commission. FCC is

responsible for regulating all interstate communications originating or terminating in
USA. It was founded in the year 1934.
8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
View Answer

Explanation: Network edge devices refer to host systems, which can host applications
like web browser. A switch can’t operate as a host, but as a central device which can be
used to manage network communication.
9. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.
a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) Servers
View Answer

Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a set of rules and regulations that

allow a network of nodes to transmit and receive information. Each layer in the network
model has a protocol set, for example, the transport layer has TCP and UDP protocols.
10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection.
a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) Simplex
View Answer
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established when three or many network
nodes are connected to each other. Frame relay, Ethernet and ATM are some examples
of multipoint connections.
1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client,
then it is called _________
a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) networking system
d) mail system
View Answer

Explanation: A Computer network is defined as a collection of interconnected computers

which uses a single technology for connection.
A distributed system is also the same as computer network but the main difference is
that the whole collection of computers appears to its users as a single coherent system.
Example:- World wide web
2. Two devices are in network if __________
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another
device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
d) a process is active and another is inactive
View Answer

Explanation: A computer network, or data network, is a digital telecommunications

network which allows nodes to share resources. In computer networks, computing
devices exchange data with each other using connections between nodes. The nodes
have certain processes which enable them to share a specific type of data using a
distinct protocol.
3. Which of the following computer networks is built on the top of another network?
a) prior network
b) chief network
c) prime network
d) overlay network
View Answer

Explanation: An overlay network is a computer network that is built on top of another

network. Some examples of an overlay network are Virtual Private Networks (VPN) and
Peer-to-Peer Networks (P2P).
4. In computer network nodes are _________
a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: In a computer network, a node can be anything that is capable of sending

data or receiving data or even routing the data to its destination. Routers, Computers
and Smartphones are some examples of network nodes.
5. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in ________
a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) anycast network
View Answer

Explanation: In a broadcast network, information is sent to all stations in a network

whereas in a multicast network the data or information is sent to a group of stations in
the network. In unicast network, information is sent to only one specific station. The
broadcast address of the network is the last assigned address of the network.
6. Bluetooth is an example of __________
a) personal area network
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
d) wide area network
View Answer

Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area

network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It operates on 2.45 GHz
frequency band for transmission.
7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the
routing information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router
d) hub
View Answer

Explanation: A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between

computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet. They
make use of routing protocols like RIP to find the cheapest path to the destination.
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called ________
a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suite
d) protocol system
View Answer

Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of protocols that are running concurrently
that are employed for the implementation of network protocol suite. Each layer in the
network model has to use one specific protocol from the protocol stack.
9. Network congestion occurs _________
a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
d) in case of transfer failure
View Answer

Explanation: Network congestion occurs when traffic in the network is more than the
network could handle. To avoid network congestion, the network management uses
various open-loop and closed-loop congestion control techniques.
10. Which of the following networks extends a private network across public networks?
a) local area network
b) virtual private network
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network
View Answer

Explanation: A virtual private network extends a private network across a public network,
and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their
computing devices were directly connected to the private network.VPN provides
enhanced security and online anonymity to users on the internet. It is also used to
unblock websites which are unavailable in certain regions.
1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) An ultra-high speed downstream channel
View Answer

Explanation: A low-speed downstream channel is not a constituent of a residential

telephone line. But it might be just a two-way telephone channel. Internet can be
provided through a high-speed downstream channel in a residential telephone line.
2. DSL telcos provide which of the following services?
a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) Wired phone access and ISP
d) Network routing and ISP
View Answer

Explanation: DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line and ISP stands for Internet Service
Provider. In a Digital Subscriber Line system, the same company which provides phone
connection is also an ISP. The internet is provided through the pre-installed telephone
lines.
3. The function of DSLAM is to __________
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) De-amplify digital signals
View Answer

Explanation: DSLAM stands for Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer and it’s used
by Telcos to convert the analog signals to digital signals for the purpose of providing
internet. The DSLAM located in a telco’s Central Office does this function.
4. Which of the following terms is not associated with DSL?
a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
View Answer

Explanation: CMTS stands for Cable modem termination system. It is used in cable
internet access. In cable internet access, internet is not provided through telephone lines
and the companies that provide such connections don’t necessarily provide telephone
access.
5. HFC contains _______
a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) A combination of Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
d) Twisted Pair Cable
View Answer

Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a telecommunications industry term for a

broadband network that combines optical fiber and coaxial cable. It has been popularly
used since the early 1990s. It is stronger than the optical fiber cables and faster than the
co-axial cables.
6. Which of the following statements is not applicable for cable internet access?
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM
View Answer

Explanation: CMTS stands for Cable modem termination system. In cable access analog
signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS. In cable internet access, internet is not
provided through telephone lines. DSLAM is used by Telecom companies.
7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched ethernet is
__________
a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) MON
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: AON stands for Active optical networks which are essentially switched
Ethernets. Each user has his/her own dedicated optical fiber line connecting to the ISP
in an AON.
8. StarBand provides __________
a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access
View Answer
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite broadband Internet service available in
the U.S. from 2000–2015. It was discontinued from September 30 2015 due to
increasing competition from other ISPs.
9. Home Access is provided by __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Home Internet Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, and Cable. FTTP
provides the fastest speeds followed by the cable connections and then the DSLs. FTTP
is popularly used in modern connections.
10. ONT is connected to splitter using _________
a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
d) Twisted pair cable
View Answer

Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the
Termination Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable. It translates light signals from the fibre
optic line to electric signals that the router can read.
11. Which of the following factors affect transmission rate in DSL?
a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interfernece
c) Shadow fading
d) The gauge of the twisted-pair line and degree of electrical interference
View Answer

Explanation: Because DSL is made of twisted wire copper pair, the gauge of twisted pair
line i.e. the protection and electrical interference would affect the transmission rate in
DSL. Unlike DSL, FTTP is not really affected by these factors.
1. How many layers are present in the Internet protocol stack (TCP/IP model)?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
View Answer

Explanation: There are five layers in the Internet Protocol stack. The five layers in
Internet Protocol stack is Application, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer.
The internet protocol stack model is also called the TCP/IP model and it’s used in
modern Internet Communication.
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
View Answer

Explanation: The seven layers in ISO OSI reference model is Application, Presentation,
Session, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer. OSI stands for Open System
Interconnect and it is a generalized model.
3. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP
model?
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Session and Presentation layer
View Answer

Explanation: The only difference between OSI model and TCP/IP model is that the
functions of Presentation and Session layer in the OSI model are handled by the
transport layer itself in TCP/IP. OSI is a generalized model and TCP/IP is an application
specific model.
4. Application layer is implemented in ____________
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Packet transport
View Answer

Explanation: Not only application layer, but presentation layer, session layer and
transport layer are also implemented in the end system. The layers below are
implemented outside the end system, for example, the network layer is implemented on
the routers and the physical layer is implemented for the medium.
5. Transport layer is implemented in ______________
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Signal transmission
View Answer

Explanation: Application, Presentation, Session and Transport layer are implemented in

the end system. The transport layer handles the process to process delivery of the
packet through ports.
6. The functionalities of the presentation layer include ____________
a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: Some functions of the presentation layer include character-code translation,

data conversion, data encryption and decryption, and data translation. It connects the
application layer with the layers below converting the human readable text and media to
machine readable format and vice-versa.
7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by __________
a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
View Answer

Explanation: The session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and
managing a session between end-user application processes. The session layer 5 is
responsible for establishing managing synchronizing and terminating sessions. In
TCP/IP protocol stack, the functions of the session layer are handled by the transport
layer itself and thus the session layer is missing from the TCP/IP model.
8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is _________
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Explanation: In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is Session layer. Session layer
provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a session between end-user
application processes. In TCP/IP protocol stack, the functions of the session layer are
handled by the transport layer itself and thus the session layer is missing from the
TCP/IP model.
9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is ____________
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Explanation: In TCP/IP model, the fifth layer is application layer. When data is sent from
device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is application layer. Application
layer provides the interface between applications and the network. The user interacts
with only this layer.
10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers,
headers are _______
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Randomized
View Answer

Explanation: In OSI reference model, when data packet moves from lower layers to
higher layer, headers get removed. Whereas when the data packet moves from higher
layer to lower layers, headers are added. These headers contain the essential control
information for the protocols used on the specific layer.
11. Which of the following statements can be associated with OSI model?
a) A structured way to discuss and easier update system components
b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer
d) It is an application specific network model
View Answer

Explanation: One layer may use the information from another layer, for example
timestamp value. The information is contained in the header inserted by the previous
layer. The headers are added as the packet moves from higher layers to the lower
layers.
1. OSI stands for __________
a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) open service Internet
View Answer

Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System Interconnection. OSI model
provides a structured plan on how applications communicate over a network, which also
helps us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the ISO as the
generalized model for computer network i.e. it can be modified to design any kind of
computer network.
2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer

Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7 layers namely Application,

Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and Physical layer. Each layer
uses a protocol to perform its designated function, for example, the data link layer uses
error detection protocols for error control functions.
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer
b) transport layer
c) application layer
d) network layer
View Answer

Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are two layers which are not present in
TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and Session layer. The functions of Presentation
and Session layer in the OSI model are handled by the transport layer itself in TCP/IP.
4. Which layer is used to link the network support layers and user support layers?
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
d) network layer
View Answer

Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers and
session, presentation and application layers are user support layers. The transport layer
links these layers by segmenting and rearranging the data. It uses protocols like TCP
and UDP.
5. Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Explanation: The physical, logical, port and specific addresses are used in TCP/IP
protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is physical (MAC) and logical address, port
address and specific address are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI model. In
TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused on the internet implementation of these
addresses.
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
a) prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) with no link to
View Answer

Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were developed at multiple research centers

between 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI reference model was developed in the year 1984.
TCP/IP was developed with the intention to create a model for the Internet while OSI
was intended to be a general network model.
7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network
model?
a) network layer
b) transport layer
c) session layer
d) data link layer
View Answer

Explanation: The role of Transport layer (Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end
connection between two systems in a network. The protocols used in Transport layer is
TCP and UDP. The transport layer is responsible for segmentation of the data. It uses
ports for the implementation of process-to-process delivery.
8. Which address is used to identify a process on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
View Answer
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a specific process to which an Internet or
other network message is to be forwarded when it arrives at a server. Some examples of
port numbers are port 20 which is used for FTP data, port 22 which is used for SSH
remote login ,and port 23 which is used for TELNET.
9. Which layer provides the services to user?
a) application layer
b) session layer
c) presentation layer
d) physical layer
View Answer

Explanation: In networking, a user mainly interacts with application layer to create and
send information to other computer or network. Application layer provides the interface
between applications and the network. It is the top-most layer in both the TCP/IP and the
OSI model.
10. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer
View Answer

Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device which deals with network cables or the
standards in use like connectors, pins, electric current used etc. Basically the
transmission speed is determined by the cables and connectors used. Hence it is
physical layer that determines the transmission speed in network. Some of the cables
used for high speed data transmission are optical fiber cables and twisted pair cables.